Army Institute of Technology

Department of Computer Engineering

MCQ for SPOS

Rushali Patil

TE Comp A

Submitted by: Dheeraj Kumar (3337)

Q. Question Description Choice Unit No Answers

No
1.1 Which of the following system software resides in a. Text editor I D
main memory always? b. Assembler
c. Linker
d. Loader
1.2 Which of the following type of software should be a. Word processing I A
used if you need to create, edit and print b. Spreadsheet
document? c. Desktop publishing
d. UNIX
1.3 Which of the following can be used as a criterion for a. nature of a data structure I D
classification of data structures used in language b. purpose of a data
processing? structure
c. lifetime of a data structure
d. all of the above
1.4 In which addressing mode, the operand is given a. absolute mode I B
explicitly in the instruction itself? b. immediate mode
c. indirect mode
d. index mode
1.5 In which addressing mode the effective address of a. absolute mode I C
the operand is generated by adding a constant b. immediate mode
value to the context of register? c. indirect mode
d. index mode
1.6 Which of the following program is not a utility? a. Debugger I C
b. Editor
c. Spooler
d. All of the above
1.7 Systems software is a program that directs the a. Operating system I D
overall operation of the computer facilitates its use b. Languages
and interacts with the users. What are the different c. Utilities
types of this software? d. All of the above
1.8 A computer cannot boot if it does not have the_ a. compiler I B
b. loader
c. operating system
d. assembler
1.9 Action implementing instruction’s meaning are a a. Instruction fetch I C
 actually carried out by b. Instruction decode
c. Instruction execution
d. Instruction program
1.10 Running time of a program depends on a. The way the registers and I D
addressing modes are used
b. The order in which
computations are performed
c. The usage of machine
idioms
d. All of these
1.11 Software that allows your computer to interact with a. application software I C
the user, applications, and hardware is called b. word processor
c. system software
d. database software
1.12 Specialized programs that allow particular input or a. operating systems I C
output devices to communicate with the rest of b. utilities
the computer system are called c. device drivers
d. language translators
1.13 The coordination of processor operation in CPU is a. CU I A
controlled by b. ALU
c. Registers
d. All of the above
1.14 Computer software which is designed only for the a. program I C
use of particular customer or organization is called b. application
c. customized software
d. system software
1.15 Mnemonic refers to: a. Instructions I C
b. Code
c. Symbolic codes
d. Assembler
1.16 Assembler works to convert assembly language a. Before the computer can I A
program into machine language : execute it
b. After the computer can
execute it
c. In between execution
d. All of these
1.17 Which command is used to invoke assembler from a. $ hello.s -o hello.o I B
command line? b. $as hello.s –o o
c. $ as hello –o hello.o
d. $ as hello.s –o hello.o
1.18 The assembler in first pass reads the program to a. Hash table I B
collect symbols defined with offsets in a b. Symbol table
table______ c. Both a& b
d. None of these
1.19 The instructions like MOV or ADD are called as a. Op-code I A
______ b. commands
c. operator
 d. None of the mentioned
1.20 The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is ______ a. To indicate the starting I D
position in memory, where
the program block is to be
stored
b. To indicate the starting of
the computation code
c. To indicate the purpose of
the code
d. To list the locations of all
the registers used
1.21 In a two pass assembler, adding literals to literal a. First pass and second I D
table and address resolution of local symbols are respectively
done using? b. Both second pass
c. Second pass and first
respectively
d. Both first pass
1.22 A machine language instruction format consists of a. Operand field I C
b. Operation code field
c. Operation code field &
operand field
c. None of the mentioned
1.23 In a two-pass assembler, the task of the Pass II is to a. separate the symbol, I D
mnemonic opcode and
operand fields
b. build the symbol table
c. construct intermediate
code
d. synthesize the target
program
1.24 TII stands for a. Table of incomplete I B
instructions
b. Table of information
instructions
c. Translation of instructions
information
d. Translation of information
instruction
1.25 Assembly language programs are written using a. Hex code I B
b. Mnenonics
c. ASCII code
d. None of these
1.26 The instruction format ‘register to register’ has a a. 2 bytes I A
length of b. 1 byte
c. 3 bytes
d. 4 bytes
1.27 In a two pass assembler the pseudo code EQU is to a. Pass 1 I A
 be evaluated during? b. Pass 2
c. not evaluated by the
assembler
d. None of above
1.28 Portable program means a. Program with wheels I C
b. Independent from its
authors
c. Independent of platform
d. None of the above
1.29 A special software that is used to create a job queue a. Drive I B
is called b. Spooler
c. Interpreter
d. Linkage editor
1.30 Which of the following are Assembler Directives? a. (ii), (iii) and (iv) I D
(i) EQU b. (i), (iii) and (iv)
(ii) ORIGIN c. (iii) and (iv)
(iii) START d. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(iv) END
1.31 Which activity is not included in the first pass of two a. build the symbol table I D
pass assembler? b. construct the intermediate
code
c. separate mnemonic
opcode and operand field
d. none of these
1.32 A compiler bridges the semantic gap between__ a. PL domain and storage I C
domain
b. execution domain and
syntax domain
c. PL domain and execution
domain
d. None of the above
1.33 The simplest method of controlling sequence of a. The address of next I C
instruction execution is to have each instruction instruction to be run
explicitly specify: b. Address of previous
instruction
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
1.34 The instruction fetch operation is initiated by a. Memory register and read I D
loading the contents of program counter into b. Memory register and write
the______ and sends_____ request to memory: c. Data register and read
d. Address register and read
1.35 what is the BCD for a decimal number 559: a. [0101 0101 1001]BCD I A
b. [0101 0001 1010]
c. [0101 1001 1001]
d. [1001 1010 0101]
1.36 Which register holds the current instruction to be a. Instruction register I A
executed? b. Program register
 c. Control register
d. None of these
1.37 Literals get values after__ a. LTORG I A
b. ORIGIN
c. END
d. both (a) & (b)
1.38 How many bytes will be allocated in “X DS 3” a. 2 I B
statement b. 6
c. 1
d. 3
1.39 Which directive sets the LC with the address a. START I A
mentioned by address specification? b. END
c. ORIGIN
d. both (a) & (c)
1.40 A __ is an operand with the syntax =’<value>’ a. Constant I D
b. Variable
c. Literal
d. Either (a) or (c)
1.41 Pass-II of two assembler perform a. Synthesis I A
b. Analysis phase
c. Synthesis & Analysis
d. None of the above
1.42 Advantage of using assembly language rather than a. it is mneomonic and easy I D
machine language is that to read
b. addresses any symbolic
not absolute
c. introduction of data to
program is easier
d. all of these
1.43 Storage mapping is done by a. Linker I B
b. Compiler
c. Loader
d. Operating system
1.44 Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like – a. Stack I C
b. Queue
c. Linked list
d. Double linked list
1.45 A memory bus is used for communication between a. ALU and Register I D
b. Processor and Memory
c. Input and Output devices
d. All of the above
1.46 A co-processor- a. is used to support in I A
software
b. is used in fifth generation
computers
c. is used in combination with
every application
 d. none of these
1.47 Which of the following is true for machine a. Depicting flow of data in a I D
language? system
b. Repeated execution of
program segments
c. A sequence of instructions
which, when followed
properly, solves a problem
d. The language which
communicates with the
computer using only the
binary digits 1 and 0.
1.48 In a two pass assembler the object code generation a. Second pass I A
is done during the? b. First pass
c. Zeroeth pass
d. Not done by assembler
1.49 The instruction format ‘register to register’ has a a. 2 bytes I A
length of b. 1 byte
c. 3 bytes
d. 4 bytes
1.50 Number of machine cycles required for RET a. 1 I C
instruction in 8085 microprocessor is b. 2
c. 3
d. 5

2.1 When a computer is first turned on or restarted, a a. Compile and Go loader II C

special type of absolute loader is executed, called a b. Boot loader
c. Bootstrap loader
d. Relating loader
2.2 A_______ processor controls repetitious writing of a. Macro II A
sequence b. Micro
c. Nano
d. All of these
2.3 END of macro definition is given by: a. NAME II B
b. MEND
c. DATA
d. MEMORY
2.4 _______address is not assigned by linker a. Absolute II A
b. Relative
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
2.5 ________address is provided by linker to modules a. Absolute and 0 II B
linked together that starting from______ b. Relative and 0
c. Relative and 1
d. Relative and 3
2.6 A linker is also known as a. Binder II C
b. Linkage editor
 c. Both a & b
d. None of these
2.7 If there is a module from single source-language a. Indirectly II B
only that does not contain any external references, b. Directly
it doesn’t need a linker to load it and is c. Extending
loaded______ d. None of these

2.8 The extension file that is must for a file to be a. .OBJ file II A
accepted by the LINK as a valid object file is b. .EXE file
c. .MASM file
d. DEBUG file
2.9 Binder performs the functions of a. allocation II D
b. relocation
c. linking
d. All of these
2.10 Resolution of externally defined symbols is a. Linker II A
performed by b. Loader
c. Compiler
d. Editor
2.11 Relocatable programs a. cannot be used with fixed II B
partitions
b. can be loaded almost
anywhere in memory
c. do not need a linker
d. can be loaded only at one
specific location
2.12 Static memory allocation is typically performed a. compilation II A
during _____________ b. execution
c. loading
d. linking
2.13 Loading process can be divided into two separate a. Linkage editor II B
programs, to solve some problems. The first is b. Module Loader
binder the other is? c. Relocator
d. None of these
2.14 What is a macro? a. a small program inside a II C
program
b. set of special instructions
c. a unit of specification for
program generation through
expansion
d. None of the above
2.15 A macro definition consists of a. A macro prototype II D
statement
b. One or more model
statements
c. Macro pre-processor
statements
 d. All of the above
2.16 The translator which perform macro expansion is a. Macro processor II C
called a b. Macro pre-processor
c. Micro pre-processor
d. assembler
2.17 A _______ statement declare the name of macro. a. macro prototype II A
b. macro definition
c. macro identification
d. None of the above
2.18 During macro expansion each statement is replaced a. the original program II B
by b. the sequence of assembly
statement
c. by specific symbols
d. None of the above
2.19 Each macro statement is marked with the a. + II A
__________ sign preceded it. b. @
c. ~
d. $
2.20 The flow control during macro expansion is a. combination II D
b. chronological
c. indexable
d. sequential
2.21 A model statement contains call for another macro a. referential macro call II B
is called as b. nested macro call
c. inbuilt macro call
d. inherited macro call
2.22 Expansion time variables are used a. Before expansion of micro II B
calls
b. only during expansion of
macro calls
c. After expansion of micro
calls
d. Any one of the above
2.23 Macro processor is an inbuilt function of? a. Loader II D
b. Editor
c. Linker
d. Assembler
2.24 The time required for execution of a macro is ……… a. greater than II B
that of procedure. b. less than
c. equal to
d. none of the mentioned
2.25 Which of the following statements is incorrect? a. complete code of II C
instruction string is inserted
at each place, wherever the
macroname appears
b. macro requires less time of
execution than that of
 procedure
c. macro uses stack memory
d. macro name can be
anything except registers and
mnemonics
2.26 The beginning of the macro can be represented as a. START II C
b. BEGIN
c. MACRO
d. none of the mentioned
2.27 Nested Macro calls are expanded using the a. FIFO rule (First in first out) II B
b. LIFO (Last in First out)
c. FILO rule (First in last out)
d. None of the above
2.28 What are x and y in the following macro definition? a. variables II C
macro Add x, y Load y Mul x Store y Mend b. identifiers
c. formal parameters
d. actual parameters
2.29 The conditional expansion facility of macro a. to expand certain model II C
processor is provided to statements depending upon
the value of a condition
during the execution of the
expanded program
b. test a condition during the
execution of the expanded
program
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. to expand certain model
statements depending upon
the value of a condition
during the process of macro
expansion.
2.30 Relocation bits used by relocating loader are a. linker II A
specified by b. assembler
c. macro processor
d. relocating loader itself
2.31 Which of the following system program forgoes the a. Linker II D
production of object code to generate absolute b. Macroprocessor
machine code and load it into the physical main c. Two pass assembler
storage location from which it will be executed d. Load-and-go-assembler
immediately

2.32 If binding is done at assembly or load time, then the a. can II C

process _____ be moved to different locations after b. must
being swapped out and in again. c. can never
d. may
2.33 Which of the following is TRUE? a. Overlays are used to II C
increase the size of physical
 memory
b. Overlays are used to
increase the logical address
space
c. When overlays are used,
the size of a process is not
limited to the size of the
physical memory
d. Overlays are used
whenever the physical
address space is smaller than
the logical address space
2.34 The idea of overlays is to ___ a. data that are needed at II D
any given time
b. enable a process to be
larger than the amount of
memory allocated to it
c. keep in memory only those
instructions
d. all of the mentioned
2.35 The ___________ must design and program the a. programmer II A
overlay structure. b. system architect
c. system designer
d. none of the mentioned
2.36 What is Address Binding? a. going to an address in II D
memory
b. locating an address with
the help of another address
c. binding two addresses
together to form a new
address in a different
memory space
d. a mapping from one
address space to another
2.37 Binding of instructions and data to memory a. Compile time II D
addresses can be done at _____ b. Load time
c. Execution time
d. All of the mentioned
2.38 If the process can be moved during its execution a. delayed until run time II A
from one memory segment to another, then b. preponed to compile time
binding must be _______ c. preponed to load time
d. none of the mentioned
2.39 What is Dynamic loading? a. loading multiple routines II B
dynamically
b. loading a routine only
when it is called
c. loading multiple routines
 randomly
d. none of the mentioned
2.40 What is the advantage of dynamic loading? a. A used routine is used II B
multiple times
b. An unused routine is never
loaded
c. CPU utilization increases
d. All of the mentioned
2.41 If relocation is static and is done at assembly or load a. cannot be done II A
time, compaction _____ b. must be done
c. must not be done
d. can be done

3.1 Functions of Lexical analyzer are? a. Removing white space III D

b. Removing constants,
identifiers and keywords
c. Removing comments
d. All of above
3.2 Grammar of the program is checked at …………… a. semantic analysis III C
phase of compiler. b. code generation
c. syntax analysis
d. code optimization
3.3 Object program is a a. Program written in III B
machine language
b. Program to be translated
into machine language
c. Translation of high-level
language into machine
language
d. None of the mentioned
3.4 A bottom up parser generates a. Right most derivation III B
b. Right most derivation in
reverse
c. Left most derivation
d. Left most derivation in
reverse
3.5 Context free language can be recognized by a. finite state automation III D
b. linear bounded
automation
c. Pushdown automation
d. both (b) and (c)
3.6 Which of the following is used for grouping of a. Parser III D
characters into tokens? b. Code optimization
c. Code generator
d. Scanner
3.7 Which of the following can’t be used be used as an a. Postfix notation III D
 intermediate code form? b. Triples and Quadruples
c. Syntax Trees
d. All of the above
3.8 __are used for reduce the main memory a. Heaps III B
requirements of the program b. Overlays
c. Graphs
d. None of the above
3.9 If load origin is not equal to linked origin then a. Loader III A
relocation is performed by b. Linker
c. By program itself
d. Relocation not performed
3.10 If linked origin is not equal to translated address a. Absolute Loader III C
then relocation is performed by_____ b. Loader
c. Linker
d. None of the above
3.11 Which is not a function of a loader? a. allocation III B
b. translation
c. relocation
d. loading
3.12 Disadvantage of compile and go loading scheme is a. a position of memory is III D
that wasted because the case
occupied by the assembler is
unavailable the object
program
b. it is necessary to
retranslate the users
program check every time it
is run
c. it is very difficult to handle
multiple segments especially
if the source programs are in
different language and to
produce overlay modular
programs
d. all of the above
3.13 The non-relocate able program is one which a. can not be made to III A
execute in any area to
storage other than the one
designated for it at the time
of its coding or translation
b. consists of a program and
relevant information for its
relocation
c. can itself perform the
relocation of its address
sensitive positions
d. all of the above
3.14 A self relocating program in one which a. can not be made to III C
exercise in any area of
storage other than the one
designated for it at the time
of its coding or translation
b. consists of a program and
relevant information for its
relocation
c. one itself perform the
relocation of its address
sensitive positions
d. all of the above
3.15 Which of the following can be accessed by transfer a. External data segments III B
vector approach of linking? b. External subroutines
c. Data located in other
procedure
d. All of these
3.16 A system program that combines separately a. Assembler III B
compiled modules of a program into a form suitable b. Linking loader
for execution is c. Cross compiler
d. None of the mentioned
3.17 In an absolute loading scheme, which loader a. Linking III D
function is accomplished by programmer? b. Allocation
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Reallocation
3.18 A linker is given object module for a set of programs a. Object code III C
that were compiled separately. What information b. Relocation bits
need not be included in an object module c. Absolute addresses of
internal symbols.
d. Names and locations of all
external symbols defined in
the object module
3.19 When a computer is first turned on or restarted, a a. bootstrap loader III A
special type of absolute loader, called a ______ is b. loader
executed c. linker
d. None of the above
3.20 Memory allocation involves which of the following a. determine amount of III D
task(s) memory required
b. use an appropriate
memory allocation model
c. determine appropriate
memory mapping
d. All of the above
3.21 Which of the following is not typically a benefit of a. I and IV III B
dynamic linking? b. I only
I. Reduction in overall program execution time. c. II and III
II. Reduction in overall space consumption in d. IV only
 memory.
III. Reduction in overall space consumption on disk.
IV. Reduction in the cost of software updates.
3.22 Which of the following statement(s) regarding a a. Only I III A
linker software is/are true? b. Only II
c. Both I and II
I. A function of a linker is to combine several object d. Neither I nor II
modules into a single load module.
II. A function of a linker is to replace absolute
references in an object module by symbolic
references to locations in other modules.
3.23 The ............... transfers the executable image of a a. Compiler III D
C++ program from hard disk to main memory. b. Linker
c. Debugger
d. Loader
3.24 The scheme of which interpreter translates the a. Paragraph by paragraph III B
source program is known as b. Instruction by instruction
c. Line by line
d. None of the above
3.25 Which of the following expression is represented by a. (A + B) * C III A
b. A + * BC
c. A + B * C
d. A * C + B

the parse tree?

3.26 Which of the following is the most general phase a. Regular III B
structured grammar? b. Context-sensitive
c. Context free
d. None of the above
3.27 Any syntactic construct that can be described by a a. Context sensitive grammar III C
regular expression can also be described by a: b. Non context free grammar
c. Context free grammar
d. None of the above
3.28 Dead-code elimination in machine code a. Removal of all labels. III B
optimization refers to: b. Removal of values that
never get used.
c. Removal of function which
are not involved.
d. Removal of a module after
its use.
3.29 A parse tree is an annotated parse tree if: a. it shows attribute values at III A
each node.
b. there are no inherited
attributes.
c. it has synthesized nodes as
terminal nodes.
d. every non-terminal nodes
 is an inherited attribute.
3.30 Which statement is wrong? a. If linked origin ≠ translated III D
origin, relocation must be
performed by the linker
b. If load ≠ linked origin, the
loader must perform
relocation
c. A linker always perform
relocation, whereas some
loaders do not
d. None of these
3.31 Tasks done in parsing are: a. Check the validity of a III C
source string
b. Determine the syntactic
structure of a source string
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
3.32 YACC builds up ___ parsing table. a. LALR III A
b. LR
c. SLR
d. LLR
3.33 Non modifiable procedures are called: a. Serially usable procedure III C
b. Concurrent procedure
c. Re-entrant procedure
d. Top down procedure
3.34 Which of the statements related to Compilers is a. Lexical analysis is breaking III D
wrong? the input into tokens
b. Syntax analysis is for
parsing the phrase
c. Syntax analysis is for
analyzing the semantic
d. None of these
3.35 An example of a compiler-compiler is: a. JAVA III C
b. LEX
c. YACC
d. MATLAB
3.36 The operations perform by compiler to determine a. structural analysis III B
the data item designated by the use of name in the b. Scope analysis and name
source program are resolution
c. syntax analysis
d. semantic analysis
3.37 A grammar that produces more than one parse tree a. Ambiguous III A
for some sentence is called b. Unambiguous
c. Regular
d. None of these
3.38 Which concept of grammar is used in the compiler? a. Lexical analysis III A
b. Parser
 c. Code generation
d. Code optimization
3.39 Three address code involves a. exactly 3 address III A
b. no unary operators
c. at the most 3 address
d. none of these
3.40 If lex .l is a lex code then a. The command lex lex .l III D
invokes lex to act on lex .l
b. The command lex lex.l
writes its output to the file
lex.yy.c
c. lex.yy.c has the definition
of the function yylex
d. All of these
3.41 When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is a. Identifier III C
the token category of 3 b. Assignment operator
c. Integer Literal
d. Addition Operator
3.42 The number of tokens in the following C statement a. 3 III D
is b. 26
c. 10
printf("i = %d, &i = %x", i, &i); d. 21

3.43 Indicate which of the following is not true about a. Interpreter generate an III D
interpreter? object program from the
source program
b. Interpreter analyses each
source statement every time
it is to be executed
c. Interpreter is a kind of
translator
d. All of above
3.44 When is the type checking usually done? a. Syntax directed translation III B
b. Lexical analysis
c. Code optimization
d. Syntax Analysis
3.45 Which of the following is a phase of a compilation a. Lexical analysis III C
process? b. Code generation
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of these
3.46 Uniform symbol table a. contains all constants in III B
the program
b. a permanent table which
lists all key words and special
symbols of the language in
symbolic form.
c. is a permanent table of
 decision rules in the form of
patterns for matching with
the uniform symbol table to
discover syntactic structure.
d. consists of full or partial
list of the token's as they
appear in the program
created by Lexical analysis
and used for syntax analysis
and interpretation.
3.47 A programmer, by mistake, writes an instruction to a. compiler III D
divide, instead of a multiply, such error can be b. interpreter
detected by a/an c. compiler or interpreter test
d. None of these
3.48 The identification of common sub-expression and a. constant folding III A
replacement of run-time computations by compile- b. data flow analysis
time computations is c. loop optimization
d. local optimization
3.49 Generation of intermediate code based on a a. it enhances the portability III A
abstract machine model is useful in compilers of the front end of the
because compiler
b. it makes implementation
of lexical analysis and syntax
analysis easier
c. syntax directed
translations can be written
for intermediate code
generation
d. it is not possible to
generate code for real
machines directly from high
level language programs
3.50 A language L allows declaration of arrays whose a. a compiler using dynamic III A
sizes are not known during compilation. It is memory allocation can be
required to make efficient use of memory. Which written for L
one of the following is true? b. a compiler cannot be
written for L ; an interpreter
must be used
c. a compiler using static
memory allocation can be
written for L
d. none of these

4.1 A program in execution is called __ a. Process IV A

b. Instruction
c. Procedure
d. Function
4.2 Which of the following is not a process state? a. Blocked IV D
b. Terminated
c. Running
d. Execution
4.3 A sequence of instructions, in a computer language, a. Algorithm IV C
to get the desired result, is known as b. Decision Table
c. Program
d. All of the above
4.4 Programs that coordinate computer resources, a. utilities IV B
provide an interface between users and the b. operating systems
computer, and run applications are called c. device drivers
d. language translators
4.5 Which of the following is not a function of the a. Manage resources IV B
operating system? b. Internet access
c. Provide a user interface
d. Load and run applications
4.6 Consider a machine with 64 MB physical memory a. 16 MB IV C
and a 32-bit virtual address space. If the page size is b. 8 MB
4KB, what is the approximate size of the page table? c. 2 MB
d. 24 MB
4.7 Which of the following statements is false? a. Virtual memory IV D
implements the translation of
a program’s address space
into physical memory
address space
b. Virtual memory allows
each program to exceed the
size of the primary memory
c. Virtual memory increases
the degree of
multiprogramming
d. Virtual memory reduces
the context switching
overhead
4.8 Consider a set of n tasks with known runtimes r1, a. Round-Robin IV B
r2, … rn to be run on a uniprocessor machine. b. Shortest-Job-First
Which of the following processor scheduling c. Highest-Response-Ratio-
algorithms will result in the maximum throughput? Next
d. First-Come-First-Served
4.9 Which of the following need not necessarily be a. General purpose registers IV B
saved on a context switch between processes? b. Translation look-aside
buffer
c. Program counter
d. All of the above
4.10 Which of the following does not interrupt a running a. A device IV C
process? b. Timer
c. Scheduler process
 d. Power failure
4.11 Which of the following scheduling algorithms is a. Round Robin IV B
non-preemptive? b. First-In First-Out
c. Multilevel Queue
Scheduling
d. Multilevel Queue
Scheduling with Feedback
4.12 Which of the following is NOT a valid deadlock a. Release all resources IV C
prevention scheme? before requesting a new
resource
b. Number the resources
uniquely and never request a
lower numbered resource
than the last one requested.
c. Never request a resource
after releasing any resource
d. Request and all required
resources be allocated before
execution.
4.13 Which of the following requires a device driver? a. Register IV D
b. Cache
c. Main memory
d. Disk
4.14 Consider the following statements with respect to a. (ii), (iii) and (iv) only IV A
user-level threads and kernel supported threads b. (ii) and (iii) only
i. context switch is faster with kernel-supported c. (i) and (iii) only
threads d. (i) and (ii) only
ii. for user-level threads, a system call can block the
entire process
iii. Kernel supported threads can be scheduled
independently
iv. User level threads are transparent to the kernel

Which of the above statements are true?

4.15 Consider the following table of arrival time and a. 5.0 ms IV A

burst time for three processes P0, P1 and P2. b. 4.33 ms
Process Arrival time Burst Time c. 6.33 ms
P0 0 ms 9 ms d. 7.33 ms
P1 1 ms 4 ms
P2 2 ms 9 ms
The pre-emptive shortest job first scheduling
algorithm is used. Scheduling is carried out only at
arrival or completion of processes. What is the
average waiting time for the three processes?

4.16 A system uses FIFO policy for page replacement. It a. 196 IV A

 has 4 page frames with no pages loaded to begin b. 192
with. The system first accesses 100 distinct pages in c. 197
some order and then accesses the same 100 pages d. 195
but now in the reverse order. How many page faults
will occur?

4.17 Which of the following statements are true? a. I only IV D

I. Shortest remaining time first scheduling may b. I and III only
cause starvation c. II and III only
II. Preemptive scheduling may cause starvation d. I, II and III
III. Round robin is better than FCFS in terms of
response time

4.18 In which one of the following page replacement a. FIFO IV A

policies, Belady’s anomaly may occur? b. Optimal
c. LRU
d. MRU
4.19 A process executes the following code a. n IV B
for (i = 0; i < n; i++) fork(); b. 2^n - 1
The total number of child processes created is c. 2^n
d. 2^(n+1) - 1;
4.20 Consider the following statements about user level a. Context switch time is IV D
threads and kernel level threads. Which one of the longer for kernel level
following statement is FALSE? threads than for user level
threads.
b. User level threads do not
need any hardware support.
c. Related kernel level
threads can be scheduled on
different processors in a
multi-processor system.
d. Blocking one kernel level
thread blocks all related
threads.
4.21 Consider three CPU-intensive processes, which a. 1 IV B
require 10, 20 and 30 time units and arrive at times b. 2
0, 2 and 6, respectively. How many context switches c. 3
are needed if the operating system implements a d. 4
shortest remaining time first scheduling algorithm?
Do not count the context switches at time zero and
at the end.

4.22 Which page is selected by the Optimal Page a. The page that has been IV D
Replacement Algorithm? used for maximum.
b. The page that has been
used minimum.
c. The page that has not been
 used for the longest time in
the past.
d. The page that will not be
used for the longest time in
the future.
4.23 Which of the following is / are the essential a. Page frame number IV A
contents in each entry of a page table? b. Virtual page number
c. Access right information
d. Both page frame number
and virtual page number
4.24 Which of the following statements is not true for a. Deadlock avoidance is less IV B
the deadlock prevention and deadlock avoidance restrictive than deadlock
schemes? prevention.
b. In deadlock prevention,
the request for resources is
always granted, if the
resulting state is safe.
c. It is the priority to have the
knowledge of resource
requirements for deadlock
avoidance.
d. In deadlock avoidance, the
request for resources is
always granted, if the
resulting state is safe.
4.25 Consider a uniprocessor computer system that has a. Round Robin scheduling IV A
2 processes and both of them alternate 10ms CPU with a time quantum of 5ms
bursts with 90ms I / O bursts. Both the processes b. First Come First Served
were created at nearly the same time and can scheduling
proceed in parallel. What is the scheduling strategy c. Shortest remaining time
for this system that will result in the least CPU first
utilization (over a long period of time)? d. Static priority scheduling
with different priorities for
the two processes
4.26 A system has 'm' number of resources of same type a. m = 15 IV C
and 3 processes A, B, C. Share these resources A, B, b. m = 8
C which have the peak demand of 3, 4 and 6 c. m = 13
respectively. Deadlock will not occur if the value of d. m = 9
'm' is __________.

4.27 Consider a computer system with 6 tape drives and a. 3 IV C

'n' processes completing for them. What is the b. 2
maximum value of 'n' for the system to be deadlock c. 4
free? (Assuming that each processes may need 3 d. 7
tape drives)
4.28 What works on the principle of locality? a. Cache memory IV A
b. Interrupts
 c. Polling
d. DMA
4.29 What is the most suitable scheduling policy for a a. Shortest Job First IV D
time - shared operating systems? b. Elevator
c. First Come First Served
d. Round Robin
4.30 How many states can a process be in? a. 2 IV D
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
4.31 The parsing technique that avoids back tracking is: a. Top-down parsing IV B
b. Recursive-descent parsing
c. Predictive
d. Syntax tree
4.32 Symbol table can be used for: a. Checking type IV D
compatibility
b. Suppressing duplication of
error message
c. Storage allocation
d. All of these above
4.33 A compiler for a high level language that runs on a. Optimizing IV C
one machine and produces code for a different b. One pass compiler
machine is called: c. Cross compiler
d. Multipass compiler
4.34 If you want to execute more than one program at a a. word processing IV D
time, the systems software that are used must be b. virtual memory
capable of: c. compiling
d. multitasking
4.35 When a thread waits indefinitely for some resource, a. Starvation IV A
but other threads are actually using it is called b. Demand Paging
c. Segmentation
d. None of them

4.36 Which of the following is not the approach to a. Deadlock Prevention IV D

Handling Deadlocks b. Deadlock Avoidance
c. Detect & Recover
d. Virtual Memory
4.37 The Banker’s algorithm is used a. to rectify deadlock IV C
b. to detect deadlock
c. to prevent deadlock
d. to solve deadlock
4.38 The necessary conditions needed before deadlock a. No Mutual Exclusion, Hold IV C
can occur? and wait, Preemption,
Circular Wait
b. Mutual Exclusion, No Hold
and wait, Preemption,
 Circular Wait
c. Mutual Exclusion, Hold
and wait, No Preemption,
Circular Wait
d. Mutual Exclusion, Hold
and wait, Preemption, No
Circular Wait
4.39 Bringing a page into memory only when it is a. Deadlock IV B
needed, this mechanism is called b. Page Fault
c. Dormant Paging
d. Demand Paging
4.40 Which of the following concept is best to preventing a. Paging IV B
page faults? b. The working set
c. Hit ratios
d. Address location
resolution
4.41 Which one of the following can not be scheduled by a. kernel level thread IV B
the kernel? b. user level thread
c. process
d. none of the mentioned
4.42 The circular wait condition can be prevented by a. defining a linear ordering IV D
______ of resource types
b. using thread
c. using pipes
d. all of the mentioned
4.43 The request and release of resources are __ a. command line statements IV C
b. interrupts
c. system calls
d. special programs
4.44 A Process Control Block(PCB) does not contain a. Code IV C
which of the following? b. Stack
c. Bootstrap program
d. Data
4.45 Which of the following do not belong to queues for a. Job Queue IV B
processes? b. PCB queue
c. Device Queue
d. Ready Queue
4.46 What is a long-term scheduler? a. It selects which process IV A
has to be brought into the
ready queue
b. It selects which process
has to be executed next and
allocates CPU
c. It selects which process to
remove from memory by
swapping
d. None of the mentioned
4.47 If all processes I/O bound, the ready queue will a. full, little IV C
almost always be ______ and the Short term b. full, lot
Scheduler will have a ______ to do. c. empty, little
d. empty, lot
4.48 In a time-sharing operating system, when the time a. Blocked state IV B
slot given to a process is completed, the process b. Ready state
goes from the running state to the __________ c. Suspended state
d. Terminated state
4.49 For non sharable resources like a printer, mutual a. must exist IV A
exclusion _______ b. must not exist
c. may exist
d. none of the mentioned
4.50 A system has 12 magnetic tape drives and 3 a. P0, P1, P2 IV D
processes : P0, P1, and P2. Process P0 requires 10 b. P1, P2, P0
tape drives, P1 requires 4 and P2 requires 9 tape c. P2, P0, P1
drives. d. P1, P0, P2

Process
P0
P1
P2

Maximum needs (process-wise: P0 through P2 top

to bottom)
10
4
9

Currently allocated (process-wise)

5
2
2
Which of the following sequence is a safe
sequence?

5.1 Page fault occurs when? a. The page is corrupted by V C

application software
b. The page is in main
memory
c. The page is not in main
memory
d. One tries to divide number
by 0

5.2 The page replacement policy that leads to more a. FIFO V A

page faults when the size of the memory is b. LRU
 increased is? c. no such policy exists
d. none of the above
5.3 Virtual memory is? a. extremely large main V C
memory
b. extremely large secondary
memory
c. An illusion of an extremely
large memory
d. A type of memory used in
super computers
5.4 Spatial locality refers to the problem that once a a. It will not be referenced V A
location is referenced? again
b. It will be referenced again
c. A nearby location will be
referenced soon
d. None of above
5.5 Where does the swap space reside? a. RAM V B
b. Disk
c. ROM
d. On-chip cache
5.6 Suppose the time to service a page fault is on the a. 1.9999 milliseconds V D
average 10 milliseconds, while a memory access b. 1 millisecond
takes 1 microsecond. Then a 99.99% hit ratio results c. 9.999 microseconds
in average memory access time of d. 1.9999 microseconds

5.7 The minimum number of page frames that must be a. the instruction set V A
allocated to a running process in a virtual memory architecture
environment is determined by b. page size
c. physical memory size
d. number of processes in
memory
5.8 In a system with 32 bit virtual addresses and 1 KB a. the large amount of V C
page size, use of one-level page tables for virtual to internal fragmentation
physical address translation is not practical because b. the large amount of
of external fragmentation
c. the large memory
overhead in maintaining page
tables
d. the large computation
overhead in the translation
process
5.9 Let the page fault service time be 10ms in a a. 21ns V B
computer with average memory access time being b. 30ns
20ns. If one page fault is generated for every 10^6 c. 23ns
memory accesses, what is the effective access time d. 35ns
for the memory?
5.10 A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison a. It reduces the memory V B
to a single level page table for translating virtual access time to read or write a
address to physical address because memory location.
b. It helps to reduce the size
of page table needed to
implement the virtual
address space of a process.
c. It is required by the
translation lookaside buffer.
d. It helps to reduce the
number of page faults in
page replacement
algorithms.
5.11 A virtual memory system uses First In First Out a. Both P and Q are true, and V B
(FIFO) page replacement policy and allocates a fixed Q is the reason for P
number of frames to a process. Consider the b. Both P and Q are true, but
following statements: Q is not the reason for P.
P: Increasing the number of page frames allocated c. P is false, but Q is true
to a process sometimes increases the page fault d. Both P and Q are false.
rate.
Q: Some programs do not exhibit locality of
reference. Which one of the following is TRUE?

5.12 A CPU generates 32-bit virtual addresses. The page a. 11 bits V C

size is 4 KB. The processor has a translation look- b. 13 bits
aside buffer (TLB) which can hold a total of 128 page c. 15 bits
table entries and is 4-way set associative. The d. 20 bits
minimum size of the TLB tag is:

5.13 Increasing the RAM of a computer typically a. Virtual memory increases V C

improves performance because: b. Larger RAMs are faster
c. Fewer page faults occur
d. Fewer segmentation faults
occur
5.14 We have a process that has been allocated 3 page a. 3 V B
frames and initially none of the pages of the process b. 2
are available in the memory. The following c. 1
sequence of page references (reference string) is d. 0
made by the process :
1, 2, 1, 3, 7, 4, 5, 6, 3, 1
How many page faults will occur for the above
reference string with the Least Recently Used(LRU)
Page Replacement Policy in comparison to an
Optimal Page Replacement policy?

5.15 We have a process that has been allocated 3 page a. 7 V A

frames and initially none of the pages of the process b. 8
 are available in the memory. The following c. 9
sequence of page references (reference string) is d. 6
made by the process :
1, 2, 1, 3, 7, 4, 5, 6, 3, 1
If Optimal Page Replacement policy is used,
_______ page faults will occur for the above
reference string.

5.16 A machine has a physical memory of 64 Mbyte and a. 24 MB V C

a virtual address space of 32 - bit. The page size is b. 16 MB
4kbyte, What is the approximate size of the page c. 2 MB
table? d. 8 MB
5.17 A program is executing in a pure demand paging a. 8 V C
system with 100 records per page with 1 free main b. 11
memory frame. The address sequence that is c. 7
generated by tracing this program is recorded as d. 12
follows,
0100, 0200, 0430, 0499, 0510, 0530, 0560, 0120,
0220, 0240, 0260, 0320, 0370
What are the numbers of page faults?
5.18 The address generated by the CPU is referred to as: a. physical address V B
b. logical address
c. physical as well as logical
address.
d. None of the above.
5.19 The total size of address space in a virtual memory a. The length of MAR V B
systems is limited by b. The available secondary
storage
c. The available main
memory
d. All of the above
5.20 The chunks of a memory are known as a. Sector V C
b. Offset
c. Page
d. Frame
5.21 Paging is implemented in a. Operating System V B
b. Hardware
c. Software
d. All of them
5.22 When there is enough memory to fit a process in a. Internal Fragmentation V C
memory, but the space is not contiguous we need. b. Virtual Fragmentation
It is called as c. External Fragmentation
d. None of them
5.23 Which memory allocation policy allocates the a. Best-Fit V B
largest hole to the process? b. Worst-Fit
c. First-Fit
d. None of them
5.24 Page-Table length register (PTLR) indicates size of a. Page Table V A
b. Paging File
c. Main Memory
d. Virtual Memory
5.25 With relocation and limit registers, each logical a. less than V A
address must be _______ the limit register. b. equal to
c. greater than
d. none of the mentioned
5.26 Transient operating system code is code that _____ a. is not easily accessible V B
b. comes and goes as needed
c. stays in the memory
always
d. never enters the memory
space
5.27 In fixed size partition, the degree of a. the number of partitions V A
multiprogramming is bounded by _____ b. the CPU utilization
c. the memory size
d. all of the mentioned
5.28 In internal fragmentation, memory is internal to a a. is being used V B
partition and ________ b. is not being used
c. is always used
d. none of the mentioned
5.29 A solution to the problem of external fragmentation a. compaction V A
is ____ b. larger memory space
c. smaller memory space
d. none of the mentioned
5.30 External fragmentation will not occur when? a. first fit is used V D
b. best fit is used
c. worst fit is used
d. no matter which algorithm
is used, it will always occur
5.31 When the memory allocated to a process is slightly a. internal fragmentation V A
larger than the process, then _____ occurs
b. external fragmentation
occurs
c. both internal and external
fragmentation occurs
d. neither internal nor
external fragmentation
occurs
5.32 The size of a page is typically ______ a. varied V B
b. power of 2
c. power of 4
d. none of the mentioned
5.33 If the size of logical address space is 2 to the power a. m, n V D
of m, and a page size is 2 to the power of n b. n, m
addressing units, then the high order _____ bits of a c. m – n, m
 logical address designate the page number, and the d. m – n, n
____ low order bits designate the page offset.

5.34 With paging there is no ________ fragmentation. a. internal V B

b. external
c. either type of
d. none of the mentioned
5.35 Paging increases the ______ time. a. waiting V C
b. execution
c. context – switch
d. all of the mentioned
5.36 If a page number is not found in the TLB, then it is a. TLB miss V A
known as a _____ b. Buffer miss
c. TLB hit
d. All of the mentioned
5.37 When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means a. is in the TLB V C
that the associated page ____ b. has data in it
c. is in the process’s logical
address space
d. is the system’s physical
address space
5.38 When there is a large logical address space, the best a. not to page V B
way of paging would be ______ b. a two level paging
algorithm
c. the page table itself
d. all of the mentioned
5.39 If there are 32 segments, each of size 1Kb, then the a. 13 bits V A
logical address should have _____ b. 14 bits
c. 15 bits
d. 16 bits
5.40 In segmentation, each address is specified by _____ a. a segment number & offset V A
b. an offset & value
c. a value & segment number
d. a key & value
5.41 In paging the user provides only ________ which is a. one address, page number, V A
partitioned by the hardware into ________ and offset
_____ b. one offset, page number,
address
c. page number, offset,
address
d. none of the mentioned
5.42 The segment base contains the _____ a. starting logical address of V B
the process
b. starting physical address of
the segment in memory
c. segment length
d. none of the mentioned
5.43 The ___________ swaps processes in and out of the a. Memory manager V A
memory b. CPU
c. CPU manager
d. User
5.44 If a higher priority process arrives and wants a. priority swapping V C
service, the memory manager can swap out the b. pull out, push in
lower priority process to execute the higher priority c. roll out, roll in
process. When the higher priority process finishes, d. none of the mentioned
the lower priority process is swapped back in and
continues execution. This variant of swapping is
sometimes called?

5.45 Memory management technique in which system a. fragmentation V B

stores and retrieves data from secondary storage b. paging
for use in main memory is called? c. mapping
d. none of the mentioned
5.46 Program always deals with ____ a. logical address V A
b. absolute address
c. physical address
d. relative address
5.47 The major part of swap time is _______ time. a. waiting V B
b. transfer
c. execution
d. none of the mentioned
5.48 In fixed size partition, the degree of a. the number of partitions V A
multiprogramming is bounded by _____ b. the CPU utilization
c. the memory size
d. all of the mentioned
5.49 ____ is generally faster than _________ and ____ a. first fit, best fit, worst fit V A
b. best fit, first fit, worst fit
c. worst fit, best fit, first fit
d. none of the mentioned
5.50 The __________ is used as an index into the page a. frame bit V B
table. b. page number
c. page offset
d. frame offset

6.1 Using a larger block size in a fixed block size file a. better disk throughput but VI A
system leads to poorer disk space utilization
b. better disk throughput and
better disk space utilization
c. poorer disk throughput but
better disk space utilization
d. poorer disk throughput
and poorer disk space
utilization
6.2 An application loads 100 libraries at startup. a. 0.50s VI B
 Loading each library requires exactly one disk b. 1.50s
access. The seek time of the disk to a random c. 1.25s
location is given as 10ms. Rotational speed of disk is d. 1.00s
6000rpm. If all 100 libraries are loaded from
random locations on the disk, how long does it take
to load all libraries? (The time to transfer data from
the disk block once the head has been positioned at
the start of the block may be neglected)

6.3 Consider a disk system with 100 cylinders. The a. 95ms VI B

requests to access the cylinders occur in following b. 119ms
sequence: c. 233ms
4, 34, 10, 7, 19, 73, 2, 15, 6, 20 d. 276ms
Assuming that the head is currently at cylinder 50,
what is the time taken to satisfy all requests if it
takes 1ms to move from one cylinder to adjacent
one and shortest seek time first policy is used?

6.4 Which of the following statements about a. An ISR is invoked on VI B

synchronous and asynchronous I/O is NOT true? completion of I/O in
synchronous I/O but not in
asynchronous I/O
b. In both synchronous and
asynchronous I/O, an ISR
(Interrupt Service Routine) is
invoked after completion of
the I/O
c. A process making a
synchronous I/O call waits
until I/O is complete, but a
process making an
asynchronous I/O call does
not wait for completion of
the I/O
d. In the case of synchronous
I/O, the process waiting for
the completion of I/O is
woken up by the ISR that is
invoked after the completion
of I/O
6.5 Normally user programs are prevented from a. I/O protection is ensured VI A
handling I/O directly by I/O instructions in them. For by operating system
CPUs having explicit I/O instructions, such I/O routine(s)
protection is ensured by having the I/O instructions b. I/O protection is ensured
privileged. In a CPU with memory mapped I/O, by a hardware trap
there is no explicit I/O instruction. Which one of the c. I/O protection is ensured
following is true for a CPU with memory mapped during system configuration
 I/O? d. I/O protection is not
possible
6.6 What is the swap space in the disk used for? a. Saving temporary html VI B
pages
b. Saving process data
c. Storing the super-block
d. Storing device drivers
6.7 Which are benefit of input/output interrupt: a. It is an external analogy to VI D
exceptions
b. The processor initiates and
perform all I/O operation
c. The data is transferred into
the memory through
interrupt handler
d. All of these
6.8 Consider a disk pack with 16 surfaces, 128 tracks a. 256 MB, 19 bits VI A
per surface and 256 sectors per track. 512 bytes of b. 256 MB, 28 bits
data are stored in a bit serial manner in a sector. c. 512 MB, 20 bits
The capacity of the disk pack and the number of bits d. 64 GB, 28 bits
required to specify a particular sector in the disk are
respectively:
6.9 The data blocks of a very large file in the Unix file a. Contiguous allocation VI D
system are allocated using b. Linked allocation
c. Indexed allocation
d. an extension of linked
allocation
6.10 Which of the following is major activities of an a. Free-space management VI D
operating system in regard to secondary-storage b. Storage allocation
management? c. Disk scheduling
d. All of the above
6.11 The root directory of a disk should be placed a. at a fixed address in main VI B
memory
b. at a fixed location on the
disk
c. anywhere on the disk
d. none of these
6.12 The _________ are reserved for events such as a. non maskable interrupts VI A
unrecoverable memory errors. b. blocked interrupts
c. maskable interrupts
d. none of the mentioned
6.13 The ______ register is written by the host to send a. status VI D
output. b. control
c. data in
d. data out
6.14 The hardware mechanism that allows a device to a. polling VI B
notify the CPU is called _______ b. interrupt
c. driver
 d. controlling
6.15 The _________ present a uniform device-access a. Devices VI C
interface to the I/O subsystem, much as system calls b. Buses
provide a standard interface between the c. Device drivers
application and the operating system. d. I/O systems

6.16 When device A has a cable that plugs into device B, a. port VI B
and device B has a cable that plugs into device C b. daisy chain
and device C plugs into a port on the computer, this c. bus
arrangement is called a _________ d. cable

6.17 For large data transfers, _________ is used. a. dma VI A

b. programmed I/O
c. controller register
d. none of the mentioned
6.18 Normally user programs are prevented from a. I/O protection is ensured VI A
handling I/O directly by I/O instructions in them. For by operating system
CPUs having explicit I/O instructions, such I/O routine(s)
protection is ensured by having the I/O instructions b. I/O protection is ensured
privileged. In a CPU with memory mapped I/O, by a hardware trap
there is no explicit I/O instruction. Which one of the c. I/O protection is ensured
following is true for a CPU with memory mapped during system configuration
I/O? d. I/O protection is not
possible
6.19 The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired a. positioning time VI B
cylinder is called the ______ b. random access time
c. seek time
d. rotational latency
6.20 The set of tracks that are at one arm position make a. magnetic disks VI D
up a ____ b. electrical disks
c. assemblies
d. cylinders
6.21 What is the host controller? a. controller built at the end VI B
of each disk
b. controller at the computer
end of the bus
c. all of the mentioned
d. none of the mentioned
6.22 What is the disk bandwidth? a. the total number of bytes VI C
transferred
b. total time between the
first request for service and
the completion on the last
transfer
c. the total number of bytes
transferred divided by the
 total time between the first
request for service and the
completion on the last
transfer
d. none of the mentioned
6.23 Consider a disk queue with requests for I/O to a. 600 VI D
blocks on cylinders. b. 620
98 183 37 122 14 124 65 67 c. 630
Considering FCFS (first cum first served) scheduling, d. 640
the total number of head movements is, if the disk
head is initially at 53 is?

6.24 Consider a disk queue with requests for I/O to a. 224 VI B

blocks on cylinders. b. 236
98 183 37 122 14 124 65 67 c. 245
Considering SSTF (shortest seek time first) d. 240
scheduling, the total number of head movements is,
if the disk head is initially at 53 is?

6.25 Random access in magnetic tapes is _________ a. fast VI D

compared to magnetic disks. b. very fast
c. slow
d. very slow
6.26 SSTF algorithm, like SJF __________ of some a. may cause starvation VI A
requests. b. will cause starvation
c. does not cause starvation
d. causes aging
6.27 In the ______ algorithm, the disk arm starts at one a. LOOK VI B
end of the disk and moves toward the other end, b. SCAN
servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At c. C-SCAN
the other end, the direction is reversed and d. C-LOOK
servicing continues.

6.28 In the _______ algorithm, the disk head moves from a. LOOK VI C
one end to the other, servicing requests along the b. SCAN
way. When the head reaches the other end, it c. C-SCAN
immediately returns to the beginning of the disk d. C-LOOK
without servicing any requests on the return trip.

6.29 In the ______ algorithm, the disk arm goes as far as a. LOOK VI A
the final request in each direction, then reverses b. SCAN
direction immediately without going to the end of c. C-SCAN
the disk. d. C-LOOK
6.30 In SCSI disks used in high end PCs, the controller a. destroyed blocks, high VI C
maintains a list of _________ on the disk. The disk is level formatting
initialized during ________ formatting which sets b. bad blocks, partitioning
aside spare sectors not visible to the operating c. bad blocks, low level
 system. formatting
d. destroyed blocks,
partitioning
6.31 An unrecoverable error is known as ________ a. hard error VI A
b. tough error
c. soft error
d. none of the mentioned
6.32 The two steps the operating system takes to use a a. partitioning & logical VI A
disk to hold its files are _______ and _____ formatting
b. swap space creation &
caching
c. caching & logical
formatting
d. logical formatting & swap
space creation
6.33 The header and trailer of a sector contain a. main section & disk VI B
information used by the disk controller such as identifier
_________ and _____ b. error correcting codes
(ECC) & sector number
c. sector number & main
section
d. disk identifier & sector
number
6.34 The data structure for a sector typically contains a. header VI D
_____ b. data area
c. trailer
d. all of the mentioned
6.35 The process of dividing a disk into sectors that the a. partitioning VI C
disk controller can read and write, before a disk can b. swap space creation
store data is known as ________ c. low-level formatting
d. none of the mentioned
6.36 Access matrix model for user authentication a. a list of objects VI D
contains _____ b. a list of domains
c. a function which returns an
object’s type
d. all of the mentioned
6.37 In UNIX, domain switch is accomplished via ______ a. file system VI A
b. user
c. superuser
d. none of the mentioned
6.38 Which principle states that programs, users and a. principle of operating VI B
even the systems be given just enough privileges to system
perform their task? b. principle of least privilege
c. principle of process
scheduling
d. none of the mentioned
6.39 _____ is an approach to restricting system access to a. Role-based access control VI A
 authorized users. b. Process-based access
control
c. Job-based access control
d. None of the mentioned
6.40 For system protection, a process should access a. all the resources VI B
_____ b. only those resources for
which it has authorization
c. few resources but
authorization is not required
d. all of the mentioned
6.41 WORM stands for _______ a. write only, read mandatory VI B
b. write once, read many
times
c. write only once, read
multiple
d. none of the mentioned
6.42 ____ is a unique tag, usually a number identifies the a. File identifier VI A
file within the file system. b. File name
c. File type
d. None of the mentioned
6.43 What is the mounting of file system? a. creating of a filesystem VI C
b. deleting a filesystem
c. attaching portion of the file
system into a directory
structure
d. removing the portion of
the file system into a
directory structure
6.44 Which one of the following explains the sequential a. random access according VI B
file access method? to the given byte number
b. read bytes one at a time,
in order
c. read/write sequentially by
record
d. read/write randomly by
record
6.45 When will file system fragmentation occur? a. unused space or single file VI A
are not contiguous
b. used space is not
contiguous
c. unused space is non-
contiguous
d. multiple files are non-
contiguous
6.46 What is raw disk? a. disk without file system VI A
b. empty disk
c. disk lacking logical file
 system
d. disk having file system
6.47 What will happens when a process closes the file? a. per-process table entry is VI B
not removed
b. system wide entry’s open
count is decremented
c. all of the mentioned
d. none of the mentioned
6.48 The operating system keeps a small table containing a. system table VI B
information about all open files called ____ b. open-file table
c. file table
d. directory table
6.49 Which of the following are the two parts of the file a. name & identifier VI C
name? b. identifier & type
c. extension & name
d. type & extension
6.50 In UNIX, what will the open system call return? a. pointer to the entry in the VI A
open file table
b. pointer to the entry in the
system wide table
c. a file to the process calling
it
d. none of the mentioned