Notre Dame of Masiag, Inc.

Masiag, Bagumbayan, Sultan Kudarat

Government Recognition No. 018, s. 1993
TIN: 000-578-187 (Non VAT)
“Service for the love of God through Mary”
SCIENCE 8
FIRST MASTERY EXAM
Name: ____________________________ _____ Grade/Sec:___________________ Score:_______
Test I: Multiple Choice: Read each sentences below and choose your answer from the 4 given choices. Encircle the letter
of the correct answer.
1. Which chair will require the most amount of force to get it moved or accelerated?
A. a plastic chair with a mass of 2 kg.
B. a rattan chair with a mass of 3 kg.
C. a wooden chair with a mass of 5 kg.
D. a steel chair with a mass of 6 kg.

2. Look at the boys playing tug of war. Assuming that each of the boys can exert a 50N force,
who will win the game?
A. only one boy C. no movement
B. the two boys D. cannot be determined

3. Below are four shoppers. Which of the shoppers require more force to push the cart?
A. B. C. D.

4. If the force is constant, what will happen to the motion or acceleration of the object if the
mass is increased?
A. Decreased C. the same
B. Increased D. Zero
5. A bus moves along national highway from Koronadal City to General Santos City. A
passenger has noticed that over time, he passes the kilometer markers in shorter periods of
time. Which statement best describes the motion of the bus?
A. the bus is keeping the same direction C. the bus is changing its direction
B. the bus is increasing its speed D. the bus is maintaining the same speed
6. What is the net force on girl who is sitting on the chair?
A. 0 C. 2
B. 1 D.3
7. If Josh exerts a force of 3N, and Jun is 6N, what is the net force?
A. 6N, left C. 3N, right
B. 3N, left D. 9 N, left
8. Which of the following could be done to accelerate a moving object?
A. apply inertia C. apply an unbalanced force
B. apply a balanced force D. apply both balanced and
Unbalanced forces
9. Which of the following vehicles will come to a complete stop FIRST when the drivers
apply brake at the same time?
A. the fully loaded ten-wheeler truck C. the empty dump trucks
B. the van loaded with passengers D. the small car
 10. If a van driver suddenly makes a sharp turn, which of the following will likely to happen
due to inertia?
A. Passengers will slide back and forth. C. Passengers will move forward.
B. Passengers will move backward. D. Passengers will slide to the side of the
van.
11. Two objects A and B were applied with the same net force. It is observed that the
acceleration of object A is two times greater than B. Which of the following is correct?
A. Object A has a mass two times greater than B.
B. Object has a mass ½ of the mass of object B.
C. Object A has a less streamlined shape than object B.
D. Object A has more friction than object B.
12. Which of the following indicates that an object is accelerating?
A. speeding up C. changing direction
B. slowing down D. any of the above
13. Based on the figure below, if the boy number 1 will be able to
push the boy number 2 away from him, who exerts greater
force?
A. boy number 1 C. they have the same force
B. boy number 2 D. cannot be determined
14. What Newton’s law is illustrated in the picture below?
A. First law only
B. Second law only
C. First and Second laws
D. Third Law only
15. Why should we wear seatbelts in riding a vehicle?
A. We should wear seatbelts to maintain our inertia.
B. We should wear seatbelts so that our body will not move if we meet an accident
or a force is applied to the brake.
C. We should wear seatbelts so that we can sleep while travelling.
D. We should wear seatbelts so if we are in an accident our body doesn’t keep
moving at the same speed and in the same direction that the car was going.
Test II: Identification: Identify what is being described or defined in each of the item below. Choose your answer from
the table below. Write your answer on the blank provided before each number.
WORK O WEIGHT
POWER 3N, LEFT MASS
ENERGY FIRST and SECOND LAWS SI
FORCE FORCE INERTIA
DECREASED MASS and WEIGHT ELECTRICITY
__________1. Something which is done by a body when it successfully makes an object move with
the force it has exerted on that object
__________2. It refers to how fast or slow a body performs work
__________3. Possessed by a body to make it do work
__________4. Something that is applied to a body to make it change its state of motion
__________5. If the force is constant, what will happen to the motion or acceleration of the object if
the mass is increased?
__________6. What is the net force on girl who is sitting on the chair?
__________7. If Josh exerts a force of 3N, and Jun is 6N, what is the net force?
__________8. What Newton’s law is illustrated in the picture below?
__________9. It is a push or a pull exerted upon a body.
__________10. These are two different quantities.
__________11. It is the force on a body due to gravity.
__________12. It is a scalar quantity.
__________13. The unit of mass is the kilogram (kg).
__________14. It is the property of a body that tends to resist a change in its State of motion.
__________15. It can be a friend or a foe.
Test III: True or False: Write True if the statement is correct, otherwise False. Write your answer on the blank provided
before the number.
__________1. WORK something which is done by a body when it successfully makes an object
move with the force it has exerted on that object
__________2. POWER refers to how fast or slow a body performs work
__________3. ENERGY possessed by a body to make it do work
__________4. FORCE something that is applied to a body to make it change its state of motion
__________5. DECREASED if the force is constant, what will happen to the motion or acceleration
of the object if the mass is increased?
__________6. WEIGHT what is the net force on girl who is sitting on the chair?
__________7. MASS if Josh exerts a force of 3N, and Jun is 6N, what is the net force?
__________8. SI what Newton’s law is illustrated in the picture below?
__________9. INERTIA is a push or a pull exerted upon a body.
__________10. ELECTRICITY are two different quantities.
__________11. O is the force on a body due to gravity.
__________12. 3N, LEFT is a scalar quantity.
__________13. FIRST and SECOND LAWS unit of mass is the kilogram (kg).
__________14. FORCE is the property of a body that tends to resist a change in its State of motion.
__________15. MASS and WEIGHT can be a friend or a foe.

Test IV: Essay

A. Read the letter below and accomplish by answering the questions that follow. Write your answer at the back of
this page.
DEAR DAD,
YOU HAVE BEEN GONE FOR 10 YEARS
AND MUCH HAS HAPPENED. I GREW UP STRONG
AND PROUD. JUST LIKE YOU WANTED.
I GRADUATED H.S WITH HONORS. ACHIEVED A COLLEGE
DEGREE AND WILL GRADUATE VERY SOON FROM THE
FIRE ACADEMY MYSELF.
BUT I’M WRITING THIS LETTER FOR THE
SIMPLE JOY OF TELLING YOU THAT I’M
GETTING MARRIED.
I WISS YOU COULD MEET DOUG.
I WISH YOU WERE HERE TO WALK.
ME DOWN THE AISLE.
…I WISH YOU WOULD HAVE
SIMPLE BUCKLED UP THAT DAY.

1. Why do you think the woman is writing to her dad?

2. What had happened to her dad?
3. Did you know someone who had encountered the same tragedy?
4. Do you religiously follow the Seatbelt Use Act? Why or why not?
5. How can our knowledge on motion be useful to us?
6. How can we take advantage of our knowledge on Newton’s Laws of Motion?
7. What new realizations do you have about the topic?
B. Complete the table below by summarizing in what ways or situations can each Newton’s law of motion be
proved to be useful. Then make a generalization about the laws of motion in all situations.

1st Law of Motion:

Law of Inertia
2nd Law of Motion:
Law of Acceleration
3rd Law of Motion:
Law of Interaction
In all situations, I can generalize that…
 Notre Dame of Masiag, Inc.
Masiag, Bagumbayan, Sultan Kudarat
Government Recognition No. 018, s. 1993
TIN: 000-578-187 (Non VAT)
“Service for the love of God through Mary”
SCIENCE 8
FIRST PERIODICAL EXAM
Name: ________________________________ Grade/Sec: _____________ Score:_______
Test I: MULTIPLE CHOICE: Read each sentence below and choose your answer from the 4 given choices. Encircle
the letter of the correct answer.
For item number 1 and 2, refer to the illustration below which shows a sound wave.

1. What type of wave is the sound wave?

A. crest-and-trough B. electromagnetic C. longitudinal D. transverse
2. Which of the following are parts of a sound wave?
A. compressions and rarefactions B. longitudes and latitudes
C. perpendicular vibrations D. hills and valleys

3. In what direction do sound waves travel from a vibrating source?

A. in opposite direction B. in two directions
C. in all directions D. no direction

4. What does sound need to travel?

A. Vacuum B. matter C. light D. fuel
5. Which of the following is used to transport sound waves?
A. Medium B. vacuum C. mass D. light
6. Sound is a type of mechanical wave which is transmitted through a medium that is solid, liquid,
or gas. Which of the following statements is true about a sound wave?
A. Sound wave travels at different speeds in the same media.
B. Sound wave travels at different speeds in different media.
C. Sound wave travels at the same speed in different media.
D. Sound wave travels at fastest speed in vacuum.
For item number 7, refer to the illustrations below.

7. Based on the illustrations, which of the following statements supports that sound generally
travels faster through solid than through liquid and gas?
A. In solid, the sound travels faster because the particles are closer together.
B. In solid, the sound travels faster because the particles are warmer.
C. In solid, the sound travels faster because the particles are heavier.
D. In solid, the sound travels faster because the particles are larger.
8. Which of the following directly affects the speed of sound in a medium?
A. Temperature B. texture C. shape D. odor
For item number 9, refer to the illustrations below.
9. What happens to the particles of a medium when the temperature is high?
A. The particles of a medium move faster and collide more frequently therefore, the faster
the speed of sound in the material.
B. The particles of a medium move faster and collide less therefore, the slower the speed of
sound in the material.
C. The particles of a medium move slower and collide less therefore, the faster the speed of
sound in the material.
D. The particles of a medium are stationary therefore, there is no speed of sound observed.
For item number 10 and 11, refer to the table below.

Air temperature Speed of Sound

(0C) (m/s)
0 331
15 340
20 343
25 346
10. Based on the given data, at which air temperature does the sound travel the fastest?
A. 0 OC B. 15 OC C. 20 OC D. 25 OC
11. Based on the table, which of the following statements best describes the relationship between air
temperature and the speed of sound?
A. As the air temperature increases, the speed of sound remains the same.
B. As the air temperature decreases, the speed of sound is equal to zero.
C. As the air temperature increases, the speed of sound increases.
D. As the air temperature increases, the speed of sound decreases.
For item number 12 to 15, refer to the given formula below.

v = 331 + 0.6 𝑚/𝑠 (T)

𝑠 𝐶
(Hint: Substitute the value of temperature (T).)
12. Based on the data from PAG-ASA General Santos City, from 2000 to present, the highest
recorded air temperature in the city was 39.5 0C last November 20, 2017. What could be the
speed of sound at the given air temperature?
A. 325.1 m/s B. 335.2 m/s C. 345.3 m/s D. 354.7 m/s
13. In Region XII SOCCSKSARGEN, Lake Sebu is one of the tourist attractions because of its
natural scenery and cultural landscape. The place is cold with an average air temperature of 24
0C. Given this air temperature, what could be the speed of sound?
A. 322.4 m/s B. 335.4 m/s C. 345.4 m/s D. 355.4 m/s
14. What is the speed of sound at an air temperature of 210C? (Round-off the
answer in whole number.)
A. 314 m/s B. 324 m/s C. 344 m/s D. 354 m/s
15. What is the speed of sound at an air temperature of -150C? (Round-off the
answer in whole number.)
 A. 320 m/s B. 321 m/s C. 322 m/s

16. Lynne has a mass of 100.0 kg on earth. What is her weight on earth?
A. W = 980 N B. W = 890 N C. W = 098 N D. W = 789 N
17. What is her weight on the moon where the acceleration due to gravity is 1/6 that of the earth?
A. W = 163 N B. W = 164 N C. W = 165 N D. W = 166 N
18. How much work is done by a shopper in pushing her grocery cart by a force of 32N through a distance
of 4.5 m?
A. W=144J or 140 B. W = 145J C. W = 150J D. W = 160J
19. What is the name of this part that opens and closes an electric circuit?
A. a load C. a switch
B. a wire D. a power source
20. What is the circuit symbol for load?
A. B. C. D.
Test II: IDENTIFICATION: Identify what is being described or defined in each of the item below. Write your answer
on the blank provided before each number.
________1. It is an energy in transit or motion. It moves from a hotter object or body to a colder body/object.
________2. It is the “degree of hotness or coldness.”
________3. It is a form of energy produced by a vibrating object which travels in all directions.
________4. It can be a friend or a foe.
________5. It is done only when a force succeeds in moving the object upon which it acts.
________6. It is called the law of interaction.
________7. It concerns with objects at rest.
________8. It is the property of a body that tends to resist a change in its state of motion.
________9. It is a measure of inertia.
________10. It is the force on a body due to gravity.
________11. A roughly circular line, route, or movement that starts and finishes at the same place.
________12. A measure of the opposition to current flow in an electrical circuit.
________13. It is a flow of electrical charge carriers, usually electrons or electron-deficient atoms.
________14. It is a bending of an oblique ray of light when it passes from one transparent medium to another
________15. For a wave or vibration, the maximum displacement on either side of the equilibrium position
Test III: TRUE or FALSE: Write True if the statement is correct, otherwise False, on the blank provided before the
number.
_____1. Temperature is an energy in transit or motion. It moves from a hotter object or body to a colder body/object.
_____2. Heat is the “degree of hotness or coldness.”
_____3. Sound is a form of energy produced by a vibrating object which travels in all directions.
_____4. The electricity is can be a friend or a foe.
_____5. Work is done only when a force succeeds in moving the object upon which it acts.
_____6. The fourth law is called the law of interaction.
_____7. The second law is concern with objects at rest.
_____8. Force is the property of a body that tends to resist a change in its State of motion.
_____9. Gravity is a measure of inertia.
_____10. Energy is the force on a body due to gravity.
_____11. Circuit a roughly circular line, route, or movement that starts and finishes at the same place.
_____12. Resistance a measure of the opposition to current flow in an electrical circuit.
_____13. Current a flow of electrical charge carriers, usually electrons or electron-deficient atoms.
_____14. Refraction bending of an oblique ray of light when it passes from one transparent medium to another
_____15. Amplitude for a wave or vibration, the maximum displacement on either side of the equilibrium position
Test IV: ESSAY: Answer the following question below. Write your answer in a short bond paper.
1. What is sound?
2. What kind of a wave is sound?
3. Why do we hear echoes?
4. How do we hear sound?
 5. What’s the relationship between wave frequency and pitch?
6. How is sound propagated?
Rubrics 1 : for Essay/ Writing Activity
Criteria & Descriptive Unsatisfactory Needs Satisfactory Outstanding RATING
Percentage Rating Improvement (Score
Score 2 3 4 5 x %)

Content & - Content is - Content is not - Content is - Content is

Development incomplete. comprehensive, accurate. comprehensive
- Major points -Major points are - Major points and accurate.
(70 %) are not clear. addressed, but are stated. - Major points
-Specific not well - Responses are stated clearly
examples are not supported. are adequate and are well
used. - Responses are and address supported.
inadequate or do topic. - Responses are
not address topic. - Content is excellent, timely
-Specific clear. and address
examples do not -Specific topic.
support topic. examples are - Content is
used. clear.
-Specific
examples are
used.
Organization - Organization - Structure of the - Structure is -Structure of the
& Structure and structure paper is not easy mostly clear paper is clear
detract from the to follow. and easy to and easy to
(15 %) message. - Transitions follow. follow.
- Writing is need - Transitions - Transitions are
disjointed and improvement. are present. logical and
lacks transition - Conclusion is - Conclusion maintain the
of thoughts. missing, or if is logical. flow of thought
provided, does throughout the
not flow from the paper.
body of the - Conclusion is
paper. logical and
flows from the
body of the
paper.
Grammar, - Paper contains - Paper contains - Rules of - Rules of
Punctuation numerous few grammatical, grammar, grammar, usage,
& Spelling grammatical, punctuation and usage, and and punctuation
punctuation, and spelling errors. punctuation are followed;
(15 %) spelling errors. are followed spelling is
with minor correct.
errors.
Spelling is
correct.
TOTAL RATING

Test V: PROBLEM SOLVING: Write your answer in a short bond paper.

1. Lynne has a mass of 100.0 kg on earth. What is her weight on earth?
What is her weight on the moon where the acceleration due to gravity is 1/6 that of the earth?
2. How much work is done by a shopper in pushing her grocery cart by a force of 32N through a distance of 4.5 m?
3. A boy whose mass is 45.0 kg runs up 25 steps, each step 30.0 cm high in 50.0 seconds. Find the power in watts
expended by the boy.
4. A 4.0 kg object moves a distance of 7.9 m under the action of a constant force of 5.6 N.
How much work is done on the object?
 Notre Dame of Masiag, Inc.
Masiag, Bagumbayan, Sultan Kudarat
Government Recognition No. 018, s. 1993
TIN: 000-578-187 (Non VAT)
“Service for the love of God through Mary”
SCIENCE 8
SECOND MASTERY EXAM
Name: ________________________________ Grade/Sec: _____________ Score:_______
Test I: MULTIPLE CHOICE: Read each sentence below and choose your answer from the 4 given choices. Encircle
the letter of the correct answer.
1. What is the epicenter of an earthquake? The epicenter is .
a. a seismic wave that travels along the surface of the earth
b. the last place that motion in an earthquake is detected
c. the point on the earth’s surface directly above the earthquake’s focus
d. the location along a fault where the first motion of an earthquake occurs
2. The Richter magnitude of an earthquake is determined from the .
a. duration of an earthquake
b. intensity of an earthquake
c. arrival of P waves and S waves
d. measurement of the amplitude of the largest seismic waves
3. Which of the following is an evidence that the Earth’s inner core is solid and the outer core
is liquid?
a. Refraction of seismic waves as they encounter different mediums.
b. The wave shadow effect of P- and S- waves as they encounter the solid and liquid
core.
c. The wave shadow effect of P- and S- waves and the increase in velocity of P-waves as
they encounter the solid inner core.
d. The wave shadow effect of P- and S- waves and the increase in velocity of S-waves as
they encounter the solid inner core.
4. Which type of stress is associated with a strike-slip fault?

a. Tension c. Shearing
b. Eustress d. Compression
5. Which type of stress is associated with a normal fault?

a. Tension c. Eustress
b. Shearing d. Compression
 6. Which type of stress is associated with a reverse fault?

a. Tension c. Eustress
b. Shearing d. Compression
7. Which can be caused by a normal fault? (select all that apply)

a. Earthquake c. Valley
b. Tensional d. Volcano
8. What type of fault involves the hanging wall moving down and the footwall moving up as the crust moves
towards each other?

a. Normal c. Reverse
b. Strike-Slip d. Tension
9. What part of an earthquake occurs underground?

a. Focus c. Epicenter
b. P Waves d. S Waves
10.The scale that measures an earthquake based on its magnitude is called the___.

c. Richter Scale c. Fujita Scale

d. Mercalli Scale d. Big Scale

11. The scale that measures an earthquake based on its type of damage is called:
 a. Richter Scale c. Fujita Scale
b. Mercalli Scale d. Big Scale
12. The epicenter of an earthquake is the...

a. area on the surface directly above the breaking point

b. seismic waves that carry energy across the crust
c. where a rock under stress breaks
d. the shaking of the ground caused by sudden movement of rock
13. When P waves are released during an earthquake, you feel

a. Small jolts, light shaking c. Violent shaking

b. Rolling, like ocean waves d. Nothing is felt

14. When S waves are released during an earthquake, you feel

a. Small jolts, light shaking c. Violent shaking

b. Rolling, like ocean waves d. Nothing is felt
15. When Surface Waves are released during an earthquake, you feel
a. Small jolts, light shaking c. Violent shaking
b. Rolling, like ocean waves d. Nothing is felt

Test II: IDENTIFICATION: Identify what is being described or defined in each of the item below. Choose your answer
inside the box and write it on the blank provided before each number.
Shearing S-wave Epicenter
Tension Tsunami Focus
Compression Tensile force Hanging wall
Tensional Body waves Hazard
Reverse Earthquake Magnitude
_________1. It is a type of stress is associated with a strike-slip fault.
_________2. It is a type of stress is associated with a normal fault.
_________3. It is a type of stress is associated with a reverse fault.
_________4. It can be caused by a normal fault.
_________5. It is a type of fault involves the hanging wall moving down and the footwall moving up as the crust moves
towards each other.
_________6. It is a body wave that moves rocks sideways and can travel through solids only.
_________7. It is a series of water waves caused by the displacement of a large volume of water.
_________8. It is a force that pulls or stretches a land mass away from each other.
_________9. It is a seismic waves that travel inside or through the earth Compressional force.
_________10. It is the shaking of the earth’s surface that results from a rupture of a land mass.
_________11. It is the point on the earth’s surface that is directly above the focus Fault.
_________12. It is the point underneath the earth where the rupture or fault started Footwall.
_________13. It is the part of the land mass where one can hang a lamp for lighting.
_________14. It is anything that can cause or inflict harm on another Intensity.
_________15. It is a measure used to quantify the energy that an earthquake carries with it.

Test III: TRUE or FALSE: Write True if the statement is correct, otherwise False, on the blank provided before the
number.
_________1. Epicenter is a type of stress is associated with a strike-slip fault.
_________2. Focus is a type of stress is associated with a normal fault.
_________3. Hanging wall is a type of stress is associated with a reverse fault.
_________4. Hazard can be caused by a normal fault.
_________5. Magnitude is a type of fault involves the hanging wall moving down and the footwall moving up as the crust
moves towards each other.
_________6. S-wave is a body wave that moves rocks sideways and can travel through solids only.
_________7. Tsunami is a series of water waves caused by the displacement of a large volume of water.
_________8. Tensile force is a force that pulls or stretches a land mass away from each other.
_________9. Body waves is a seismic waves that travel inside or through the earth Compressional force.
_________10. Earthquake is the shaking of the earth’s surface that results from a rupture of a land mass.
_________11. Shearing is the point on the earth’s surface that is directly above the focus Fault.
_________12. Tension is the point underneath the earth where the rupture or fault started Footwall.
_________13. Compression is the part of the land mass where one can hang a lamp for lighting.
_________14. Tensional is anything that can cause or inflict harm on another Intensity.
_________15. Reverse is a measure used to quantify the energy that an earthquake carries with it.

Test IV: ENUMERATION: Enumerate what are asked. Write your answer in the space provided.
10 examples of Earthquake Hazards.
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.

Test V: ESSAY: Answer the following question below. Write your answer in a short bond paper.
1. Why are there earthquake?
2. What effects do earthquakes have? Explain.
3. How are seismic waves generated?
4. How are seismic waves and tsunamis related?
5. Do all earthquakes produce tsunamis? Why or why not?
 Rubrics 1 : for Essay/ Writing Activity
Criteria & Descriptive Unsatisfactory Needs Satisfactory Outstanding RATING
Percentage Rating Improvement (Score
Score 2 3 4 5 x %)

Content & - Content is - Content is not - Content is - Content is

Development incomplete. comprehensive, accurate. comprehensive
- Major points -Major points are - Major points and accurate.
(70 %) are not clear. addressed, but are stated. - Major points
-Specific not well - Responses are stated clearly
examples are not supported. are adequate and are well
used. - Responses are and address supported.
inadequate or do topic. - Responses are
not address topic. - Content is excellent, timely
-Specific clear. and address
examples do not -Specific topic.
support topic. examples are - Content is
used. clear.
-Specific
examples are
used.
Organization - Organization - Structure of the - Structure is -Structure of the
& Structure and structure paper is not easy mostly clear paper is clear
detract from the to follow. and easy to and easy to
(15 %) message. - Transitions follow. follow.
- Writing is need - Transitions - Transitions are
disjointed and improvement. are present. logical and
lacks transition - Conclusion is - Conclusion maintain the
of thoughts. missing, or if is logical. flow of thought
provided, does throughout the
not flow from the paper.
body of the - Conclusion is
paper. logical and
flows from the
body of the
paper.
Grammar, - Paper contains - Paper contains - Rules of - Rules of
Punctuation numerous few grammatical, grammar, grammar, usage,
& Spelling grammatical, punctuation and usage, and and punctuation
punctuation, and spelling errors. punctuation are followed;
(15 %) spelling errors. are followed spelling is
with minor correct.
errors.
Spelling is
correct.
TOTAL RATING
 Notre Dame of Masiag, Inc.
Masiag, Bagumbayan, Sultan Kudarat
Government Recognition No. 018, s. 1993
TIN: 000-578-187 (Non VAT)
“Service for the love of God through Mary”
SCIENCE 8
SECOND PERIODICAL EXAM
Name: ________________________________ Grade/Sec: _____________ Score:_______
Test I: MULTIPLE CHOICE: Read each sentence below and choose your answer from the 4 given choices. Encircle
the letter of the correct answer.
1. What causes damage in a hurricane/typhoon?
a. Wind c. flooding
b. Storm surge d. all of the above
2. Where do hurricanes/typhoons form?
a. In a river or stream c. over the ocean
b. At plate boundaries d. under the earth
3. Another name for a typhoon in the atlantic ocean.
a. Tornado c. tsunami
b. Hurricane d. blizzard
4. Where are hurricanes/typhoons most likely to do the most damage?
a. Near the seaboards c. in the forest
b. In a desert d. on the north pole
5. What is a hurricane/typhoon?
a. A fierce tropical storm that brings heavy rain
b. A series of wildfires
c. A type of earthquake
d. A ride at schliterbahn
6. What is the difference between typhoons and hurricanes?
a. Wind speed c. amount of rain fall
b. Strength of winds d. place they originate
7. Where do typhoons often make their way?
a. North west c. middle east
b. South East Asia d. Europe
8. How is the weather in the eye of a hurricane?
a. Calm c. intense
b. Violent and windy d. sunny
9. When PAGASA quotes a wind speed, it is referring to winds at the _________.
a. Eye b. Eyewall c. Rain bands d. Nucleus
10. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events of tropical cyclone formation?
I. Warm ocean water heats up the air above it and warm air rises.
II. Heat makes the air rise even more and the air in the surroundings keep coming in. The air starts to spin.
III. Water vapour in the rising water condenses and heat is given off.
IV. The rising warm air results in a low-pressure area and the air in the surroundings move towards it.
a. I,II,III,IV b. IV,III,II,I c. I,IV,III,II d. I,III,II, IV
11. Where did the tropical cyclones form?
a. Pacific Ocean c. South China Sea
b. Indian Ocean d. Atlantic Ocean
12. In what direction did the tropical cyclones move?
a. Yoyong moved northwest while Huaning moved northeast.
b. Yoyong moved northeast while Huaning moved northwest.
c. Yoyong and Huaning moved towards northeast direction.
d. Yoyong and Huaning moved towards northwest direction.
13. Which of the following statement is true about Typhoon Yoyong?
a. Yoyong was formed within the PAR.
b. Yoyong was formed outside the PAR.
 c. Yoyong was formed within the PAR, east of the country.
d. Yoyong was formed outside of the PAR, west of the country.
14. The tropical cyclones mentioned above weakened and died out near land. Yoyong dissipated in Taiwan
and Huaning near Mainland China. What can you infer about this?
a. Tropical cyclones die out over land because they are cut off from the warm ocean waters that keep
them going.
b. When a typhoon makes landfall, the air stops spinning and it starts to dissipate within a few days.
c. Tropical cyclones weaken when they hit land because they need cold water to keep them going.
d. Tropical cyclones die out over land because the air pressure that fuels them to keep moving is cut off.
15. Hurricane is from the souther part of Atlantic Ocean.
a. True b. false
16. It is the point on the earth’s surface that is directly above the focus Fault.
a. epicenter c. hazard
b. focus d. tsunami
17. It is anything that can cause or inflict harm on another Intensity.
a. Hazard c. tsunami
b. epicenter d. focus
18. It is the shaking of the earth’s surface that results from a rupture of a land mass.
a. Earthquake c. Hazard
b. tsunami d. Magnitude
19. It is a measure used to quantify the energy that an earthquake carries with it.
a. Magnitude c. focus
b. Earthquake d. hazard
20. It is a series of water waves caused.
a. tsunami c. Magnitude
b. Hazard d. epicenter

Test II: IDENTIFICATION: Identify what is being described or defined in each of the item below. Write your answer
on the blank provided before each number.
_____________1. It is a seismic waves that travel inside or through the earth Compressional force.
_____________2. It is the shaking of the earth’s surface that results from a rupture of a land mass.
_____________3. It is the point on the earth’s surface that is directly above the focus Fault.
_____________4. It is the point underneath the earth where the rupture or fault started Footwall.
_____________5. It is in mining terms, this is the part of the land mass where one can hang a lamp for lighting.
_____________6. It is anything that can cause or inflict harm on another Intensity.
_____________7. It is a measure used to quantify the energy that an earthquake carries with it.
_____________8. It is a fault that is created when the footwall is lifted up.
_____________9. It is a back and forth movement of rock and can travel through any medium in the earth’s crust.
____________10. It is the process of putting necessary corrections or reinforcements to certain structures in order for it to
withstand a particular phenomenon that can cause damage to it.
____________11. It is a fault that is created when the hanging wall is lifted up exposing part of it.
____________12. It is a wave that is produced by the release of energy as the earth ruptures.
____________13. It is a force that acts perpendicularly to the surface of a landmass.
____________14. It is a fault that is created when two masses of land slide past each other.
____________15. It is a seismic waves that travel on the surface of the earth and cause more damage.
____________16. It is a body wave that moves rocks sideways and can travel through solids only.

Test III: TRUE or FALSE: Write True if the statement is correct, otherwise False, on the blank provided before the
number.
______1. Mindanao has the highest frequency of tropical cyclone occurrences while Northern Luzon has the lowest
frequency.
______2. When the eye of a tropical cyclone passes over a certain place, it is the winds at the eye that wreak a lot of
damage.
______3. A 7.5 magnitude earthquake originating on the ocean floor will most probably generate a tsunami.
______4. The meteor is caused by its silicate component.
______5. If a typhoon originates in the Atlantic Ocean, it is called hurricane.
______6. Asteroids have the same component as the Earth’s core which is iron and nickel.
______7. Tropical cyclones become stronger when they hit land.
______8. The place where the fault begins to slip is called the epicenter.
______9. Movements of rocks along fault zones always result to earthquake.
______10. If the tropical cyclone has a wind speed from 119 to 200 kilometers per hour, it is called a typhoon.
______11. Body waves is a seismic waves that travel inside or through the earth Compressional force.
______12. Earthquake is the shaking of the earth’s surface that results from a rupture of a land mass.
______13. Epicenter is the point on the earth’s surface that is directly above the focus Fault.
______14. Focus is the point underneath the earth where the rupture or fault started Footwall.

Test IV: ESSAY: Answer the following question below. Write your answer in a short bond paper.
1. How do typhoons develop?
2. How do you think this affects rainfall and typhoon in the area?
Rubric for the essay writing

CRITERIA 5 4 3
Content Clearly elaborate Adequately elaborate Did not elaborate
important details important details important details
Spelling and 1-3 errors in 4-6 errors in 7 and more error in
Grammar spelling, rules of spelling, rules of spelling, rules of
grammar and grammar and grammar and
punctuation punctuation punctuation
Exceptional sense of Adequate sense of Lacks sense of clear
Organization clear and orderly clear and orderly and orderly connection
connectionof ideas connection of of ideas
ideas

Total
 Notre Dame of Masiag, Inc.
Masiag, Bagumbayan, Sultan Kudarat
Government Recognition No. 018, s. 1993
TIN: 000-578-187 (Non VAT)
“Service for the love of God through Mary”
SCIENCE 8
3RD MASTERY EXAM
Name: ________________________________ Grade/Sec: _____________ Score:_______
Test I: MULTIPLE CHOICE: Read each sentence below and choose your answer from the 3 given choices. Encircle
the letter of the correct answer.
1. It is a smallest particle of an element.
a. Atom b. condensation c. compounds
2. It is the change of state from gas to a liquid usually due to cooling or compression.
a. Condensation b. atom c. compounds
3. It is a combination of two or more elements which are chemically bonded.
a. Compounds b. condensation c. atom
4. It change of state from gas to a solid without first becoming a liquid.
a. Deposition b. condensation c. compounds
5. It is the change of state from liquid to a gas.
a. Evaporation b. freezing c. gas
6. It is the change of state from liquid to a solid due to low temperature.
a. Gas b. freezing c. evaporation
7. It is neither a definite shape nor a definite volume, fills the whole volume of any container.
a. Freezing b. gas c. liquid
8. It is no definite shape but has definite volume.
a. Gas b. liquid c. matter
9. It is generally considered to be a substance that has mass and also volume.
a. Liquid b. matter c. melting
10. It is the change of state from solid to liquid, usually due to application of heat/temperature or pressure.
a. Matter b. melting c. liquid
11. It is a combination of two or more substances that are not chemically united and do not exist in fixed
proportions to each other.
a. Melting b. matter c. mixture
12. It is made up of discrete particles called atoms or their combinations called molecules/compounds.
a. Mixture b. nature c. particulate nature of matter
13. It has a definite shape, volume, generally, rigid and resistant to deformation.
a. Gas b. liquid c. solid
14. It is the change of state from solid to gas without first becoming a liquid.
a. solid b. gas c. sublimation
15. It is pure substances composed of only one type of atom.
a. gas b. liquid c. elements
16. It is a branch of science concerned with the study of matter.
a. liquid b. elements c. chemistry
17. It is the science of life or living matter.
a. elements b. gas c. biology

Test II: IDENTIFICATION: Identify what is being described or defined in each of the item below. Write your answer
on the blank provided before each number.
__________1. It is a smallest particle of an element.
__________2. It is the changes of state from gas to a liquid usually due to cooling or compression.
__________3. It is a combination of two or more elements which are chemically bonded.
__________4. It is the changes of state from gas to a solid without first becoming a liquid.
__________5. It is the changes of state from liquid to a gas.
__________6. It is the changes of state from liquid to a solid due to low temperature.
__________7. It is neither a definite shape nor a definite volume, fills the whole volume of any container.
__________8. It is no definite shape but has definite volume.
__________9. It is generally considered to be a substance that has mass and also volume.
_________10. It is the change of state from solid to liquid, usually due to application of heat/temperature or pressure.
_________11. It is a combination of two or more substances that are not chemically united and do not exist in fixed
proportions to each other.
_________12. It is made up of discrete particles called atoms or their combinations called molecules/compounds.
_________13. It has a definite shape, volume, generally, rigid and resistant to deformation.
_________14. It is the change of state from solid to gas without first becoming a liquid.
_________15. It is pure substances composed of only one type of atom.

Test III: TRUE or FALSE: Write True if the statement is correct, otherwise False, on the blank provided before the
number.
_____1. Atom is smallest particle of an element.
_____2. Condensation is a change of state from gas to a liquid usually due to cooling or compression.
_____3. Compounds are combination of two or more elements which are chemically bonded.
_____4. Deposition is a change of state from gas to a solid without first becoming a liquid.
_____5. Evaporation is a change of state from liquid to a gas.
_____6. Freezing is a change of state from liquid to a solid due to low temperature.
_____7. Gas is neither a definite shape nor a definite volume, fills the whole volume of any container.
_____8. Liquid is no definite shape but has definite volume.
_____9. Matter is generally considered to be a substance that has mass and also volume.
_____10. Melting is a change of state from solid to liquid, usually due to application of heat/temperature or pressure.
_____11. Mixture is a combination of two or more substances that are not chemically united and do not exist in fixed
proportions to each other.
_____12. Particulate Nature of Matter is made up of discrete particles called atoms or their combinations called
molecules/compounds.
_____13. Solid is definite shape, volume, generally, rigid and resistant to deformation.
_____14. Sublimation is a change of state from solid to gas without first becoming a liquid.
_____15. Elements are pure substances composed of only one type of atom.
_____16. Chemistry is a branch of science concerned with the study of matter.
_____17. Biology is the science of life or living matter.
_____18. Matter in the world around us is composed of atoms and molecules.

Test IV: ESSAY: Answer the following question below. Write your answer in a short bond paper.
1. How do you differentiate the arrangement and movement of the particles of matter?
2. How does water behave in its different states?
Rubric for the essay writing

CRITERIA 5 4 3
Content Clearly elaborate Adequately elaborate Did not elaborate
important details important details important details
Spelling and 1-3 errors in 4-6 errors in 7 and more error in
Grammar spelling, rules of spelling, rules of spelling, rules of
grammar and grammar and grammar and
punctuation punctuation punctuation
Exceptional sense of Adequate sense of Lacks sense of clear
Organization clear and orderly clear and orderly and orderly connection
connectionof ideas connection of of ideas
ideas

Total
 Notre Dame of Masiag, Inc.
Masiag, Bagumbayan, Sultan Kudarat
Government Recognition No. 018, s. 1993
TIN: 000-578-187 (Non VAT)
“Service for the love of God through Mary”
SCIENCE 8
3RD PERIODICAL EXAM
Name: ________________________________ Grade/Sec: _____________ Score:_______
Test I: MULTIPLE CHOICE: Read each sentence below and choose your answer from the 4 given choices. Encircle
the letter of the correct answer.
1. Compared to the charge and mass of a proton, an electron has ______.
a. the same charge and a smaller mass
b. the same charge and the same mass
c. an opposite charge and a smaller mass
d. an opposite charge and the same mass
2. When alpha particles are used to bombard gold foil, most of the alpha particles pass through undeflected. This result indicates
that most of the volume of a gold atom consists of ____.
a. Deuterons (H-2) b. neutrons c. protons d. unoccupied space
3. A proton has approximately the same mass as ____.
a. a neutron b. an alpha particle c. a beta particle d. an electron
4. A neutron has approximately the same mass as a _____.
a. an alpha particle b. a beta particle c. an electron d. a proton
5. Which symbols represent atoms that are isotopes?
a. C-14 and N-14 b. O-16 and O-18 c. I-131 and I-131 d. Rn-222 and Ra-222
6. Which atom contains exactly 15 protons?
a. P-32 b. S-32 c. O-15 d. N-15
7. An ion with 5 protons, 6 neutrons, and a charge of 3+ has an atomic number of _____.
a. 5 b. 6 c. 8 d. 11
8. What is the mass number of an atom which contains 28 protons, 28 electrons, and 34 neutrons?
a. 28 b. 56 c. 62 d. 90
9. Almost the entire mass of an atom is concentrated in the _____.
a. Protons b. electrons c. nucleus d. neutrons
10. Electron was discovered by___________.
a. Chadwick b. Thomson c. Rutherford d. Milliken
11. An atom has a mass number of 23 and atomic number 11. The number of protons are_________.
a. 11 b. 12 c. 23 d. 44
12. The mass of the atom is determined by________.
a. Neutrons b. neutrons and protons c. electrons d. electrons and neutrons
13. Cathode rays are deflected towards__________.
a. positive electrode b. negative electrode c. both electrodes d. none of the electrodes
14. The proton is heavier than an electron by___________.
a. 1850 times b. 1840 times c. 1000 times d. 100 times
15. Carbon-12 atom has_______________.
a. 6 electrons, 12 protons, 6 neutrons c. 12 electrons, 6 protons, 6 neutrons
b. 6 electrons, 6 protons, 6 neutrons d. 18 electrons, 6 protons and 6 neutrons
16. Mass number is equal to the_________.
a. number of protons + number of electrons b. number of protons + number of neutrons
c. number of neutrons + number of electrons d. number of electrons
17. During a chemical reaction, atomic number_________.
a. Changes b. remains the same c. changes and then is restored d. changes alternately

Test II: IDENTIFICATION: Identify what is being described or defined in each of the item below. Write your answer
on the blank provided before each number.
____________18. It is smallest particle of an element.
____________19. It is change of state from gas to a liquid usually due to cooling or compression.
____________20. It is a combination of two or more elements which are chemically bonded.
____________21. It is change of state from gas to a solid without first becoming a liquid.
____________22. It is change of state from liquid to a gas.
____________23. It is change of state from liquid to solid due to low temperature.
 ____________24. It is neither a definite shape nor a definite volume, fills the whole volume of any container.
____________25. It is no definite shape but has definite volume.
____________26. It is generally considered to be a substance that has mass and also volume.
____________27. It is change of state from solid to liquid, usually due to application of heat/temperature or
pressure.
Test III: TRUE or FALSE: Write True if the statement is correct, otherwise False, on the blank provided before the
number.
________ 28. Electron was discovered by Chadwick.
________29. An atom has a mass number of 23 and atomic number 11. The number of protons are 11.
________30. The mass of the atom is determined by neutrons and protons.

________31. Cathode rays are deflected towards positive electrode.

________32. The proton is heavier than an electron by 1840 times.
________33. Carbon-12 atom has 12 electrons, 6 protons, 6 neutrons.
________34. Mass number is equal to the number of protons + number of neutrons.
________35. During a chemical reaction, atomic number remains the same.
________36. Compared to the charge and mass of a proton, an electron has the same charge and a smaller mass.
________37. When alpha particles are used to bombard gold foil, most of the alpha particles pass through undeflected.
________ 38. A proton has approximately the same mass as an alpha particle.
________39. A neutron has approximately the same mass as a an alpha particle.
________ 40. The symbols represent atoms that are isotopes C-14 and N-14.
________ 41. The atom contains exactly 15 protons and S-32.
________ 42. An ion with 5 protons, 6 neutrons, and a charge of 3+ has an atomic number of 6.
________43. The mass number of an atom which contains 28 protons, 28 electrons, and 34 neutrons and 28.
________44. Almost the entire mass of an atom is concentrated in the Protons.
_______ 45. Atoms is the biggest particle of an elements.
Test IV: Enumeration: Enumerate what are asked.
Enumerate ten (10) elements.
46. 51.
47. 52.
48. 53.
49. 54.
50. 55.

Test V: ESSAY: Answer the question below. Write your answer on the space provided.
3. Explain how ions are formed?

Rubric for the essay writing

CRITERIA 4 3 2 1
Content Clearly Well Adequately Did not elaborate
elaborate elaborate elaborate important details
important important important
details details details
Spelling No errors in 1-3 errors 4-6 errors 7 and more error in
and spelling, in spelling, in spelling, spelling, rules of
Grammar rules of rules of rules of grammar and
grammar grammar grammar punctuation
and and and
punctuation punctuatio punctuatio
n n

Total
 Notre Dame of Masiag, Inc.
Masiag, Bagumbayan, Sultan Kudarat
Government Recognition No. 018, s. 1993
TIN: 000-578-187 (Non VAT)
“Service for the love of God through Mary”
SCIENCE 8
4TH MASTERY EXAM
Name: ________________________________ Grade/Sec: _____________ Score:_______
Test I: MULTIPLE CHOICE: Read each sentence below and choose your answer from the 4 given choices. Encircle
the letter of the correct answer.
1. These are bacteria found in the soil that plays an important role in the degradation of organic matter in the soil.
a. Ammonifying bacteria b. autotroph c. biodiversity d. biosphere
2. It is a group of organisms which are capable of manufacturing their own food by utilizing inorganic carbon
sources such as carbon dioxide.
a. Autotroph b. ammonifying c. biosphere d. biodiversity
3. It is the degree of variation of life forms. This is essential to the health of our planet’s ecosystem.
a. Biodiversity b. biosphere c. autotroph d. ammonifying
4. It is the global sum of all ecosystems.
a. Biosphere b. biodiversity c. ammonifying d. bacteria
5. In ecology, it is refers to the assemblage or association of different populations of two or more species.
a. Community b. consumer c. decomposer d. denitrifying
6. It is an organism that is dependent on plants and other animals for nutrition.
a. Consumer b. community c. denitrifying d. decomposer
7. It is an organism, usually a bacterium or a fungus, that breaks down the cells of dead plants and animals.
a. Decomposer b. consumer c. community d. denitrifying
8. These are microorganisms whose action results in the conversion of nitrates into free atmospheric nitrogen, thus
depleting the nitrogen available for plants.
a. Denitrifying bacteria b. detritivores c. ecology d. ecosystem
9. These are heterotrophs that obtain nutrients by consuming detritus (decomposing plant or animal parts).
a. Detritovores b. ecology c. ecosystem d. energy pyramid
10. It is the scientific analysis and study of interactions among organisms and their environment, such as the
interactions organisms have with each other and with their abiotic environment.
a. Ecology b. ecosystem c. energy d. pyramid
11. It is a community of living organisms (plants, animals and microbes) in conjunction with the nonliving
components of their environment (things like air, water and mineral soil), interacting as a system.
a. Energy b. ecosystem c. pyramid d. ecology
12. It is a diagrammed representation of how the sun’s energy flows in a community.
a. Ecosystem b. energy pyramid c. food chain d. food web
13. It is a linear sequence of links starting from species that are called producers and ends at species that are called
decomposers.
a. Food b. food chain c. food web d. system
14. It is a representation (usually an image) of what-eats-what in an ecological community.
a. Food chain b. food web c. herbivores d. population
15. It is a heterotroph that is dependent on plants for nutrition.
a. Food web b. herbivores c. population d. food
16. These are microorganism whose action results in the assimilation of free atmospheric nitrogen into the soil.
a. Herbivores b. nitrogen-fixing bacteria c. bacteria d. fixing
17. It is a group of species capable of reproduction (interbreeding).
a. System b. population c. producer d. food chain
18. It is an organism that can produce its own food.
a. Population b. producer c. energy d. food web

Test II: IDENTIFICATION: Identify what is being described or defined in each of the item below. Write your answer
on the blank provided before each number.
______________19. It is a community of living organisms (plants, animals and microbes) in conjunction with the
nonliving components of their environment (things like air, water and mineral soil), interacting as a
system.
______________20. A diagrammed representation of how the sun’s energy flows in a community.
______________21. It is a linear sequence of links starting from species that are called producers and ends at species
that are called decomposers.
______________22. It is a representation (usually an image) of what-eats-what in an ecological community.
______________23. A heterotroph that is dependent on plants for nutrition.
______________24. These are microorganism whose action results in the assimilation of free atmospheric nitrogen into
the soil.
______________25. A group of species capable of reproduction (interbreeding).
______________26. An organism that can produce its own food.
______________27. These are bacteria found in the soil that plays an important role in the degradation of organic matter
in the soil.
______________28. It is a group of organisms which are capable of manufacturing their own food by utilizing inorganic
carbon sources such as carbon dioxide.
______________29. It is the degree of variation of life forms. This is essential to the health of our planet’s ecosystem.
______________30. It is the global sum of all ecosystems.
______________31. In ecology, it is refers to the assemblage or association of different populations of two or more
species.
______________32. It is an organism that is dependent on plants and other animals for nutrition.
______________33. An organism, usually a bacterium or a fungus, that breaks down the cells of dead plants and animals.
______________34. These are microorganisms whose action results in the conversion of nitrates into free atmospheric
nitrogen, thus depleting the nitrogen available for plants.
______________35. These are heterotrophs that obtain nutrients by consuming detritus (decomposing plant or animal
parts).
______________36. It is the scientific analysis and study of interactions among organisms and their environment, such as
the interactions organisms have with each other and with their abiotic environment.

Test III: TRUE or FALSE: Write True if the statement is correct, otherwise False, on the blank provided before the
number.
_________37. Food web is a representation (usually an image) of what-eats-what in an ecological community.
_________38. Herbivore is a heterotroph that is dependent on plants for nutrition.
_________39. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria are microorganism whose action results in the assimilation of free
atmospheric nitrogen into the soil.
_________40. Population is a group of species capable of reproduction (interbreeding).
_________41. Producer is an organism that can produce its own
_________42. Detritivores are heterotrophs that obtain nutrients by consuming detritus.
_________43. Ecology is the scientific analysis and study of interactions among organisms and their environment,
such as the interactions organisms have with each other and with their abiotic environment.
_________44. Ecosystem is a community of living organisms (plants, animals and microbes) in conjunction with
the nonliving components of their environment (things like air, water and mineral soil), interacting as a
system.
_________45. Energy pyramid is a diagramed representation of how the sun’s energy flows in a community.
_________46. Ammonifying Bacteria are bacteria found in the soil that plays an important role in the degradation
of organic matter in the soil.
_________47. Autotroph is a group of organisms which are capable of manufacturing their own food by utilizing
inorganic carbon sources such as carbon dioxide.
_________48. Biodiversity is the degree of variation of life forms.
_________49. Biosphere is the global sum of all ecosystems.
_________50. Community is refers to the assemblage or association of different populations of two or
more species.
_________51. Consumer is an organism that is dependent on plants and other animals for nutrition.
_________52. Decomposer is an organism, usually a bacterium or a fungus, that breaks down the cells of dead plants and
animals.
_________53. Denitrifying bacteria are microorganisms whose action results in the conversion of nitrates into
free atmospheric nitrogen, thus depleting the nitrogen available for plants.
_________54. Food chain is a linear sequence of links starting from species that are called producers and ends at
species that are called decomposers.
Test IV: ESSAY: Answer the question below. Write your answer in a separate sheet of paper.
1. How does one keep the body healthy?
2. Explain the structure of the digestive system.
Rubric for the essay writing
CRITERIA 4 3 2 1
Content Clearly Well Adequately Did not elaborate
elaborate elaborate elaborate important details
important important important
details details details
Spelling No errors in 1-3 errors 4-6 errors 7 and more error in
and spelling, in spelling, in spelling, spelling, rules of
Grammar rules of rules of rules of grammar and
grammar grammar grammar punctuation
and and and
punctuation punctuatio punctuatio
n n

Total
 Notre Dame of Masiag, Inc.
Masiag, Bagumbayan, Sultan Kudarat
Government Recognition No. 018, s. 1993
TIN: 000-578-187 (Non VAT)
“Service for the love of God through Mary”
SCIENCE 8
4TH FINAL EXAM
Name: ________________________________ Grade/Sec: _____________ Score:_______
Test I: MULTIPLE CHOICE: Read each sentence below and choose your answer from the 4 given choices by
encircling the letter of it.
1. It is a characteristics passed from parents to their offspring.
a. Inherited trait b. behaviour c. function d. learned trait
2. It is a behaviour that is developed by observing others or by being taught is
a. Acquired trait b. inherited trait c. adaptation d. function
3. The passing down of traits from parent to offspring.
a. Heredity b. environmental traits c. recessive trait d. punnet square
4. What is NOT an example of an inherited TRAIT?
a. Speaking a language b. eye color c. tongue rolling d. height
5. Which of these is not an inherited trait?
a. a horse pulling a plow b. a bird building a nest c. a turtle burying its eggs d. a bear hibernating in winter
6. Which characteristic would most likely be inherited by a baby?
a. brown hair b. crying a lot c. ability to jump high d. his ability to talk
7. The following are inherited traits of humans EXCEPT...
a. long hair b. blue eyes c. long eyelashes d. small dimples
8. Which characteristic is inherited?
a. hair colour b. sleeping late c. enjoying hiking d. loving to read
9. Which is an example of a acquired characteristic?
a. colour of a dog's fur c. colour blindness of a person
b. the ability of a mouse to run a maze d. a person's ability to roll their tongue
10. Which best explains why a child may look like his father, but is not able to play basketball as well as him?
a. Physical characteristics are inherited, but the ability to shoot a basketball is not.
b. The ability to shoot a basketball is inherited, but physical characteristics are not.
c. The child chooses to look like his father, but he does not choose to play basketball.
d. He hates playing basketball so he doesn't care if his dad can play.
11. Which best describes an inherited trait?
a. a characteristic one chooses to express c. a characteristic one receives from the food one eats
b. a characteristic that is passed on from one's parents d. a characteristic that is influenced by one surroundings
12. _________ is known as the product of parents
a. Toddler b. Offspring c. Adolescent d. Infant
13. __________are located on the chromosomes of DNA, these are the instructions, which determines the inherited
traits of offspring.
a. Traits b. Genes c. Chromosomes d. Cells
14. _______ is the study of heredity; the study of the passing on of inherited traits from parents to offspring.
a. Chemistry b. Genetics c. Zoology d. Biology
15. The stronger (dominant) genes that show up in offspring are known as _________. Examples include brown
eyes, brown hair
a. recessive genes b. dominant genes c. inherited traits d. learned behaviours
16. _______ are the weaker genes which hide behind the dominant genes. It takes two or more of the genes to show
up in order for this trait to be represented in offspring. Examples include blond hair, green, blue, or hazel eyes.
a. Dominant genes b. Recessive genes c. Chromosomes d. Inherited traits
17. Genes are located on the ________ of DNA. Each human contains 46. We get 23 from our mom and 23 from our
dad.
a. Traits b. Chromosomes c. Chloroplasts d. Cells
18. Which of these is an inherited trait?
a. where a person lives b. a person's height c. a person's ability to write d. a person learning a new language
 19. Which of the following is an inherited trait?
a. Marco's excellent Spanish b. Tara's red hair c. Ryan's bank account d. Betty's dancing skills
20. Which is a trait that people are born with?
a. The dislike of certain foods c. The ability to play the piano
b. The ability to roll your tongue d. The ability to speak a foreign language

Test II: IDENTIFICATION: Identify what is being described or defined in each of the item below. Choose your answer
from the box below and it on the blank provided before each number.
Offspring Chromosomes
Genes a person's height
Genetics brown hair
Dominant genes Inherited trait
Recessive genes Acquired trait
__________21. It is known as the product of parents.

__________22. These are located on the chromosomes of DNA, these are the instructions, which determines the inherited
traits of offspring.
__________23. It is the study of heredity; the study of the passing on of inherited traits from parents to offspring.
__________24. The stronger (dominant) genes that show up in offspring are known as
__________25. These are the weaker genes which hide behind the dominant genes. It takes two or more of the genes to
show up in order for this trait to be represented in offspring.
__________26. Genes are located on the ________ of DNA.
__________27. This is an inherited trait.
__________28. It is the characteristic would most likely be inherited by a baby.
__________29. It is a characteristics passed from parents to their offspring.
__________30. It is a behaviour that is developed by observing others or by being taught is

Test III: TRUE or FALSE: Write True if the statement is correct, otherwise False, on the blank provided before the
number.
__________31. Inherited trait is a characteristics passed from parents to their offspring.
__________32. Acquired trait is a behaviour that is developed by observing others or by being taught.
__________33. Heredity is passing down of traits from parent to offspring.
__________34. Speaking a language is NOT an example of an inherited TRAIT.
__________35. A horse pulling a plow is not an inherited trait.
__________36. Brown hair is characteristic would most likely be inherited by a baby.
__________37. Except long hair are inherited traits of humans.
__________38. Hair colour is inherited.
__________39. Colour of dog’s fur is an example of a acquired characteristic.
__________40. Physical characteristics are inherited.
__________41. Characteristic one receives from the food one eats
__________42. Toddler is known as the product of parents
__________43. Traits are located on the chromosomes of DNA.
__________44. Chemistry is the study of heredity; the study of the passing on of inherited traits from parents to offspring.
__________45. Recessive genes that show up in offspring.
__________46. Dominant genes are the weaker genes which hide behind the dominant genes.
__________47. Genes are located on the traits of DNA.
__________48. A person ability is an inherited trait.
__________49. Ryan’s bank account is an inherited trait.
__________50. The ability to play the piano is a trait that people are born.

Test IV: ESSAY: Answer the following question below and write it on a separate sheet of paper.
1. Why are there differences among organisms of the same species?
2. Why is it important and necessary to have varied plants and animals?
 Rubric for the essay writing
CRITERIA 4 3 2 1
Content Clearly Well Adequately Did not elaborate
elaborate elaborate elaborate important details
important important important
details details details
Spelling No errors in 1-3 errors 4-6 errors 7 and more error in
and spelling, in spelling, in spelling, spelling, rules of
Grammar rules of rules of rules of grammar and
grammar grammar grammar punctuation
and and and
punctuation punctuatio punctuatio
n n

Total