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Page 1 of 55
Yabatech Online Forum www.yctforum.com
SUBJECT: CHEMISTRY
INSTRUCTIONS: ANSWER ALL THE QUESTIONS FROM THE OPTIONS
GIVEN BELOW
1. There are two (2) isotopes of chlorine with mass numbers 35 and 37 respectively.
If the isotopes exist in the ratio 3:1 the lighter isotope being more abundant, what is
the relative atomic mass of chlorine? (a) 25.5 (b) 45.5 (c) 35.5 (d) 30.5
2. The amount of methane molecules, CH4 in 8.0 grams of methane is? (a) 0.5ml (b)
45.5 (c) 35.5 (d) 30.5
3. The pH of a solution containing 0.5 x 106m H2SO4 is (a) 6.3 (b) 6.5 (c) 6.0 (d) 5.0
4. In which of the following is the oxidation number of nitrogen zero? (a) NH3 (b)
NaNO3 (c) HNO2 (d) NCI3
5. Which of the following techniques can be used to separate solutes from a solution
(a) Sieving (b) Sublimation (c) Distillation (d) Chromatography
6. A certain compound an analysis yielded 2.00g carbon 0.34g hydrogen and 2.67g
oxygen. If the relative molecular mass of the compound is 60, calculate its
molecular formula (a) C3H6O3 (b) C2H5O2 (c) CHO (d) C2H4O2
7. 375cm3 of a gas pressure of 770mmHq. Find the volume if the pressure is

reduced to 750mmHq (a) 385cm3 (b) 785cm3 (c) 985cm3 (d) 685cm3
8. A given mass of a gas occupies 850cm3 at 320k and 0.92 x 105Nm2 pressure.
Calculate the volume (a) 330.5cm3 (b) 541cm3 (c) 660.5cm3 (d) 820.7cm3
9. On faraday is equal to (a) 9650 Coulombs (b) 96500 Coulombs (c) One mole of
electrons (d) Half a mole of electrons
10. The solubility of alcohols in water is due to (a) Their ionic character (b) Their low
building point (c) Hydrogen bonding (d) Their low freezing point
11. Which of the following compound is amphoteric in nature (a) Si02 (b) K2S
(c) CaO (d) A12O3
12. Which of the following allotropes of sulphur has no regular crystalline shape (a)
Plastic sulphur (b) Monodinic sulphur (c) Amorphous Sulphur (d) Rhombioc
Sulphur
13. Calculate the solubility in gdm-3 at 298k of calcium fluoride in a solution

containing 0.1moldm-3 Na+-1 (ksp of caF2 = 3.9 x 1011mol3dm-9, C2=40.0,
F=19.60g mol-7). (a) 98gmol-1 (b) 78gmol-1 (c) 97gmol-1 (d) 62gmol-1
Page 2 of 55
14. Find the pH of 6.05mol dm-3 phosphoric acid (a) 2.7 (b) 0.59 (c) 0.52 (d) 0.51
15. In what ratio must 0.2 mol dm-3 solution of ammonia and ammonium chloride be
mixed to obtain a buffer solution of OH 4.2 (ka of NH4+ = 6.0x 10-10 moldm -3)
(a) 3:1 (b) 1:4 (c) 4:1 (d) 2:3
16. A property of a substance that can be used to obtain the heat evolved or absorbed
in a chemical reaction is termed? (a) Heat change (b) Enthropy (c) Enthapy (d)
Thermochemistry
17. Calculate the amount of heat evolved when 500kg of ammonia is produce
according to the equation below N2(g) + 3H29(g)  2NH3(g); dH = 91.8KJ
(N=14.0; H + 1.00g m0l-1) (a) 2,35 x 105KJ (b) 3.15 x 106Kj (c) 1.35 x 106KJ
(d) 1.35 x 106KJ
18. Which of the following Quantum numbers determines the angular momentum of
the election in its orbital motion around the nucleus (a) Principal Q.N (b)
Magnetic Q.N (c) Subshell Q.N (d) Spin Q.N
z
z
x x
y
y
(a) (c)
(b)
Use the figure above to answer the following questions.
19. Which one has dumb-bell shape with a directional nature?
20. Which one has the lowest quanta?
21. Fig (b) Represent (a) D-orbital (b) S-orbital (d) P-orbital
22. In a laboratory 1.55grams of an organic compound containing carbon, hydrogen

and oxygen is combusted for analysis. Combustion resulted in 1.45gramms of
carbon (iv)oxide and 0.890grams of steam. What is the empirical formula of the
organic compound (a) C2H5O2 (b) CH3O2 (c) C5H5O2 (d) C2H5O2
23. 0.02g of anhydride of carbon occupies 56.0cm3 s.t.p. when vapourized and
contains 1.129% by mass of hydrogen. What is the formula of the hydrocarbon?
(a) C2H2 (b) CH2 (c) C2H4 (d) C2H2
24. Arogadro’s number was determined experimentally and found to be (a) 6.02 x
1023 (b) 0.6 x 1023 (d) 6.2 x 10-23 (d) 6.0 x 1019
Page 3 of 55
25. Calculate the number of Copper atoms in one naira coin which weighs 7.39
grams. Assume the material from which the coin is made is 86% copper
(Cu=63.5qmol-1) (a)0.63 x 1022atoms (b) 6.3 x 1023atoms (c) 6.2 x 10-23 (d) 6.0
x 1019
26. All the following will liberate a gas when reacted with dilute hydrochloric acid
except (a) Sodium tetraoxosulphate (vi) salt (b) Sodium trioxocarbonate (iv) slat
(c) Sodium Sulphide (d) Sodium trioxonitrate (v)
27. Elements P has an atomic number of 12 while element Q has an atomic number
15. Combination of P and Q gave a compound PmQn. The respective values of m
are (a) 2 and 2 (b) 2 and 1 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 2
28. The amount of heat evolved when one mole of hydrogen ions H+ from an acid
reacts with one mole of hydroxide ions, OH-: from an alkali to form one mole of
H2O under standard condition is said to be: (a) Standard heat of combustion (b)
Standard heat of formation (c) Standard heat of solution (d) Standard heat of
neutralizatin
29. Which of the following organic compound are formed when a carboxylic acid
reacts with an alkanol (a) Alkanols (b) Esters (c) Alkynes (d) AmidesCH3
30. CH3 CCHCH: The IUPAC name of the formula is NH2 (a) 2-oxo-butan-2-one
(b)3-amino-butan-2-one (c) 3, amino-butan-2-pmc (d) 3-amino, butan-2-one
31. C2H2 + 902 ---- 6CO2 + 6H2O the hydrocarbon, CxHy in the reaction above is
most likely (a) An alkyne (b) An alkane (c) An alkene (d) A benzene
32. During a compression process involving an ideal gas at pressure P2, when the
volume V2 of the gas was halved, the temperature in Kelvin increase by half its
initial value. The final pressure P2 is given by; (a) 12Pki (b) 3Pi (c) 6Pi (d) 1.5Pi
33. Atoms with the same number of protons and electron but different numbers of
neutrons is said to be (a) Atomic mass (b) Isotopes (c) Mass number (d)
Spontaneous
34. Choose the correct option from the below option. (a) Atomic radius decreases
access a period (b) Atomic radius decreases across a group (c) Electronegativity
decreases across a group (d) Electronegativity decreases across a period
35. The equation above best explain (a) Boyle’s law (b) Charle’s law (c) Ideal gas
equation (d) Avogadro’s law
36. How many glucose molecules are there in 5.23 grams of C6H12O6? (a) 1.75 x
1022 molecules (b) 17.5 x 1022 molecules (c) 0.175 x 1022 molecules (d) 1.75 x
10-22 molecules
Page 4 of 55
37 . The flam used by welders in cutting metal is (a) Butane gas flame (b) Acetylene
(c) Hydroflame (c) kerosene flame (d) Oxy-acetylene (e) Oxygen flame
38. Which of these will dilute in HCL, Mg, Fe, Pb, and Cu (a) All the metals (b) Mg
Fe and Cu (c) Mg, Fm and Pb (d) Mg and Fe only (e) Mg only
39. Stainless steel is an alloy of (a) Carbon, ion and chromium (b) Carbon, iron and
copper (c) Carbon, iron and silver (d) Carbon and iron only
40. A gas that can behave as a reducing agent towards chlorine and as an oxidizing
agent toward hydrogen sulphide is (a)O2 (b) SO2 (c) HN3 (d) CO2
41. The hybridization of the carbon atom is ethyne is (a) Sp2 (b) SP3 (c) SP2 (d) SP
(e) ES
42. In the haber process for the manufacturer of ammonia, finely divided iron is used
as (a) An ionizing agent (b) A reducing agent (c) A catalyst (d) A dehydrating
agent (e) An oxidizing agent
43. At STP how many litres of hydrogen can be obtained from the reaction of 500cm3
of 0.5M H2SO4 excess zinc metal (a) 22.4dm3 (b) 11.2dm2 9 (c) 65dm3 (d)
0.00dm3
44. Which of the following roles does sollodium chloride play is soap preparation? If
(a) Reacts with glycerol (b) Purifies the soap c) Accelerates the decomposition of
the fat and oil (c) Separates the soap from the glycerol (e) Coverts the fat acid to
its sodium salt.
45. The function of sulphur during the vulcanization of rubber is to (a) Act as catalyst
for the polymerization of rubber molecules (b) Convert rubber from thermosetting
plastic polymer (c) Form chains which bind rubber molecules together (d) Break
down rubber polymer
46. Which of the following compound is NOT formed by the action of chlorine on
methane? (a) CH3CI (b) C2H5CI (c) CH2CH2 (d) CH2CI3 (e) CH4CI
47. Starch can be converted to ethyl alcohol by (a) Distillation (b) Fermentation (c)
Isomerisation (d) Cracking (c) Osmosis
48. 50cm3 of hydrogen are sparked with 100cm3 of oxygen of 1100c and 1 at m. If
the whole reaction mixture passes through an alkaline solution of pyrogallol, the
volume of the residual gas is (a) 125cm3 (b) 100cm3 (c) 75cm3 (d) 50cm3
49. How many isomer can be formed from organic compounds with the formula
C3H8O (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (e) 1
50. Which of the following physical properties decreases across the periodic table (a)
Ionization potential (b) Electron affinity (c) Electron negativity (d) Atomic radius
(e) Electro-positive reaction
Page 5 of 55
BIOLOGY/AGRICULTURE
SECTION A
1. Which of the following is the reason for carrying out quarantine programs in
agriculture?
(a) Important the genetic qualities of plants and animals
(b) Ensuring that importers obtain valid license
(c) Adapting plants animals to new areas
(d) Screening and isolating imported disease stock
2. One of the following is not an agricultural program in Nigeria

(a) Operation feed the nation
(b) Directorate of food, road and rural infrastructure
(c) Farm settlement scheme
(d) Green revolution
3. The ginnery industry uses which of the following raw material?

(a) Pulp wood (b) Oil seeds (c) Sorghum (d) Cotton
4. Lands for wildlife (a) Must not be good for agricultural and forestry (b) Should be
a land sparse with population (c) Must be a plain, hill or valley (d) All of the
above
5. The humpless breed of cattle which also possess short horn is

(a) Gudali (b) White Fulani (c) Red Bororo (c) Muturu
6. Which of the husbandry practices is not carried out on pig farming?

(a) Castration of excess males
(b) Application of iron supplements
(c) Numbering by ear notching or tattooing
(d) Shearing of hairs of the skin
7. In the prevention of yam beetles, the sets should be treated with the following
except (a) Aldrin (b) Dieldrin (c) Nuvaeron 40FC (d) Aldrin and Dieldfrin
8. Selection of breeding male based in the performance of their female relatives is

know as (a) Sib selection (b) Individual selection (c) Tandem selection (d)
Progeny testing
9. Food and mouth disease is caused by (a) Parasite (b) Bacteria (c) Virus (d) Fungi
10. The leghorn and the Cornish breeds of fowl are well noted for their (a) High egg
and meat production respectively (b) High meat and egg production respectively
(c) Feathers (d) None of the above
Page 6 of 55
11. The mechanical methods of weed control include the following except (a) Hand
pulling (b) Flooding (c) Use of parasite (d) Burning
12. Newcastle diseases is caused by (a) Virus (b) Bacteria (c) Protozoa (d) None of
the above
13. The growing of plants under cold conditions is known as (a) Etiolation (b)
Vernalization (c) Survival (d) Condensation
14. Sources of potassium include the following except (a) Organic manure (b) Oil-
palm bunch (c) Mica (d) All of the above
15. One of the following is a symbiotic organism in Nitrogen fixation (a) Clostridium
(b) Azotobacter (c) Rhizobium (d) Nitrobacter
16. Excess Nitrogen in the soil leads to (a) Stunted growth (b) Leaves tending to drop
(c) Encouraging root development (d) Delayed fruiting and ripening fruit
17. The application of water to sub-oil through perforated pipes is know as (a)
Flooding (b) Surface irrigation (c) Subsurface irrigation (b) Sprinkler irrigation
18. Farm net worth is the difference between (a) Cost and returns (b) Assets and
liabilities (c) Profit and loss (d) Credit and debit
19. A measure to ameliorate soil acidity is (a) Addition of organic manure (b)
Addition of lime (c) Addition of fertilizer (d) Leaching
20. The following are breeds of cattle in Nigeria except (a) Holstein (b) White Fulani
(c) Sokoto Gudali (d) Muturu
21. Modem genetic has led to the development of (a) Transgenic plants (b)
Genetically engineered plants (c) Genetically modified organism (d) All of the
above
22. The main abiotic stresses of maize in Africa are (a) Drought and rust (b) Drought
and lodging (c) Lodging and bores (d) Streak and wilting
23. The following are leguminous crop except (a) Cowpea (b) Groundnuts (c) Maize
(d) Soya beans
24. One of the following is an example of written agriculture extension channels (a)
TV programmes (b) Focus group discussion (c) Radio broadcasting (d) Handouts
Page 7 of 55
ANSWER
1. D 2. C 3. D 4. C 5. D 6. D
7. A 8. D 9. C 10. A 11. C 12. A
13. B 14. D 15. C 16. D 17. C 18. D
19. B 20. A 21. D 22. B 23. C 24. D
SECTION B
1. The most important limiting factor in crop production is (a) Rainfall (b)
Temperature (c) Light (d) Humidity
2. Rocks formed the already existing rocks as a result of sudden charges in form and
structure is known as (a) Igneous rock (b) Sedimentary rocks (c) Sedentary rocks
(d) Metamorphic rocks
3. Which of the following facilities has been identified as the most important in
reducing soil fertility? (a) Leaching (b) (d) Grazing
4. If a sample of soil is shaken up with water in glass jar and allowed to stand for a
few minutes, in which order the contents settle at the bottom of the jar and
allowed to stand for a few minutes (a) Coarse sand, fine sand, organic matter, silt
and clay (b) Coarse and fine sand, clay silt and organic matter (c) Coarse sand,
silt, organic matter, clay and fine sand (d) Coarse sand, fine sand, silt clay and
organic matter
5. Pasteurization of milk involves the use of (a) Sunshine (b) Heat (c) Cold (d)
Disinfectant
6. Aldrin dust is commonly used in yam production for preventing the (a) Attack by
yam beetles only (b) Attack by termites only (c) Attack by yam beetles and
termites (d) Attack by fungi
7. Debeaking is important in poultry production (a) Stops excessive eating (b)

Prevent birds from picking contaminated food (c) Prevents cannibalism among
the birds (d) Prevents spread of diseases
8. The correct sequence of the phases in rice production from early stages to when it
is sent for sale, is as follows (a) Sowing, transplanting, harvesting, winnowing,
threshing (b) Sowing, transplanting, winnowing, threshing, harvesting (c) Sowing,
transplanting, threshing, winnowing, harvesting
9. When a soil its plant nutrients, it may be attributed to all of the following except
(a) Removal by plant (b) Leaching (c) Oxidation (d) Erosion
Page 8 of 55
10. What is the term used to describe the method of breeding which relies on the
introduction of semen into the mature female by the animal breeder? (a) cross
breeding (b) Artificial breeding (c) Inbreeding (d) Hybridization
11. The vector of Magana disease in cattle is (a) Tsetse fly (b) The round worm (c)
Lice (d) The tapeworm
12. Which of the following is not a reason for keeping livestock records? They (a)
provide information which can be used to correct management lapses (b) can be
used for national agricultural plans (c) are used to determine when to apply
vaccines (a) are used for determining the numbers of consumers
13. The abbreviation A.E.R.L.S means (a) Agricultural Extension and Research
Liaison service (b) Agricultural Education and Rural Liaison Service (c)
Agricultural Extension and Rural Literacy Service (d) Agricultural Experimental
and Laboratory Service
14. Which of the following is an Agricultural Extension Programme (a) Individual

contact (b) Storage of harvested product (c) Mass contact (d) Agricultural show
15. In agricultural reproduction, fixed capital include the following items except (a)
Building (b) Equipment (c) Fertilizers (d) Machinery
16. The most important reproductive hormone in male animals is (a) Oestrogen (b)
Relaxin (c) Androgen (d) Progesterone
17. Farm input includes the following except (a) Capital (b) Fertilizer (c) Farm tool
(c) Agricultural education
18. Meat production from sheep is generally known as (a) Beef (b) Pork (c) Veal (d)
Mutton
19. The money realized from a depreciable asset after it has stayed its useful life with
the original owner is referred to as (a) Loss account (b) Salvage value (c) Debt (d)
Networth
20. Which of the following crops is propagated by suckers (a) Pineapples (b) Citrus
(c) Tobacco (d) Carrot
ANSWERS
1. D 2. D 3. C 4. D 5. B
6. A 7. C 8. D 9. C 10. B 11 A
12. D 13. A 14. A 15. C 16. C 17. D
18. D 19. B 20 A
Page 9 of 55
APTITUDE TEST 1
INSTRUCTION: If the numbers 485676321235 is CHRONOMETER, use this

information to answer questions 1 – 10
1. What number is represented by the code CHORE (a) 84652 (b) 86542 (c) 68542
(d) 48652 (e) 48562
2. What number is represented by the code MENTO (a) 32322719 (b) 3237216 (c)
3322716 (d) 3327216 (e) 3726316
3. What code is represented by the number 865565 (a) Chrom (b) Horror (c) Meteor
(d) Terror (e) Tremor
4. What code is represented by the number 865565 (a) Tremor (b) Remote
(c) Remote (d) Meteor (e) Tremor
5. Represent the word Reteno by the code (a) 458362 (b) 521726 (c) 512276
(d) 517126 (e) 521276
6. What number is represented by the code MONO? (a) 3716 (b) 3676 (c) 3316
(d) 7216 (e) 6316
7. What code is represented by the number 8653672 (a) Chrom (b) Horror
(c) Meteor (d) Terror (e) Tremor
8. The number 523612523612 is decoded as (a) Tremor (b) Remote (c) Remote (d)
Meteor (e) Meter
9. What number is represented by the code chrome (a) 186321 (b) 18362 (c) 236322
(d) 485632 (e) 458362
10. The number 52123676584 is decoded as (a) Chromeonmet (b) Hrroromento (c)
Hormonetole (d) Reternionorhc (e) Tremoronomet
Choose the lettered pair of words that is related in the same way as the pair in capital
letter.
11. ABDICATE: THONE: (a) Rule: Nation (b) Revolt: Government (c) Defeat:
Candidate (d) Impeach: Politician (e) Resign: Office
12. Castigate wrongdoing: (a) Congratulate: Success (b) Amputate: Crime

(c) Annotate: Consultation (d) Deface: Falsehood (e) Fulminate: Habit
13. CANT: SPEECH: (a) Dogma: Belief (b) Flattery: Praise (c) Skill: Faculty
(d) Dance: Minuet (e) Diatribe: Essay
Page 10 of 55
14. APOSTATE: BELIEF: (a) Patriot: Tolerance (b) Libertine: Debauchery

(c) Gadfly: Resentment (d) Ascetic: Comfort (e) Hedonist: Indulgence
15. EXCULPATE: BLAME: (a) Abash: Shame (b) Forswear: Violence (c) Decipher:
Code (d) Compensate: Crime (e) Forgive: Debt
16. UNDUENT: IRRITATION: (a) Acid: Corrosion (b) Balm: Relief (c) Bridle:
Mobility (d) Sextant: Direction (e) Debate: Controversy
17. MAVEN: EXPERTISE: (a) Monarch: Wisdom (b) Athlete: Determination (c)
Neophyte: Honesty (d) Lummox: Grace (e) Supplicant: Humility
18. STAND: TREE: (a) Park: Bench (b) Academy: Cadet (c) Wool: Yam (d) Flotilla:
Ship (e) Hospital: Patient
19. INCHOATE: FROM: (a) Languid: Vitality (b) Diverse: Harmony (c)
Spontaneous: Judgment (d) Inept: Recognition (e) Circumscribed: Limit
20. PAHEGYRIC: CRITICAL: (a) Farce: Subtle (b) Biography: Analytical (c)
Diatribe: Passionate (d) Satire: Humorous (e) Abstract: Concise
21. Under the military regime in Nigeria, state enactment is known as (a) Laws (b)
Decrees (c) Edicts (d) Promulgations
22. Which of the following functions is performed by both political parties and
pressure groups (a) Contesting election (b) Interest articulation (c) Formal
opposition to government (d) Working for the interest of their members
23. Sovereignty is limited by (a) The criminal case (b) Decrees (c) The legal system
(d) International law
24. Which of the following is the least democratic election process (a) First past
(b) The post system (c) Proportional representation (d) Indirect election
(e) Co-option
25. General Ibrahim Babagida stepped down from office on (a) August 26, 1993 (b)
August 27, 1993 (c) June 22, 1993 (d) June 17, 1993 (e) August 25, 1985
26. The military normally belongs to the arm(s) of government known as (a) The
Legislature and the Judiciary (b) The Executive (c) The Judiciary (d) The
Judiciary and the Executive
27. The exercise of political power involves (a) Winning elections (b) Using the
police (c) Deciding cases (d) Allocating values
Page 11 of 55
28. An important function of the legislature is (a) Judicial review (b) Review of
Executive policies and actions (c) Lobbying (d) Defending government policies
29. An indispensable aspect of the constitution of a democratic state is (a) Press

censorship (b) Presidentialism (c) Fundamental human rights (d) Socialism
ideology
30. _________ is the present secretary to the Federal government (a) Professor Jerry
Gana (b) Chief Ufot Ekaette (c) Alhaji Baba Gana Kingible (d) Alhaji Aminu
Saeh
31. The premier University of Education in Nigeria is (a) University of Ibadand (b)
Yaba Higher College (c0 University of Education, Winneba (d) Rai Solarin
University of Education (e) University of Benin
32. Nigeria became an independent nation on (a) January 1, 1955 (b) October 1, 1957
(c) October 1, 1960 (d) October 1, 1963 (e) January 15, 1966
33. The process by which green plants make their own food is called (a) Diffusion (b)
Transpiration (c) Phototropism (d) Photosynthesis (e) Respiration
34. Which of the following is not a national symbol (a) Flag (b) Anthem (c) Birth
Certificate (d) Coat of arms (e) Currency
35. Which of the following is grouped as a flesh-eating animal (a) Cow (b) Goat (c)
Elephant (d) Cat (e) Horse
36. Which of the following bodies is responsible for conducting elections in Nigeria
(a) Federal electoral board (b) National electoral commission (c) Dependent
national electoral commission (d) Independent national elections
commission (e) Independent national electoral commission
37. Which of the following gases is used for putting out fire? (a) Oxygen (b) Nitrogen
(c) Carbon dioxide (d) Chlorine (e) Hydrogen
38. General Sanni Abacha died on (a) June 8, 1998 (b) July 7, 1998 (c) November 17,
1993 (d) October 1, 1995 (e) May 29, 1999
39. Which of the following protects the brain from damage? (a) Backbone (b) Rib
cage (c) Tendon (d) Muscle (e) Skull
40. The two registered arties for the 1991 election are the (a) SDP and NRC (b) NPN
and PRP (c) UPN and NPP (d) NAP and MOP (e) PFN and PSP
41. All the following are important for good health except (a) Fresh air (b) Balanced
diet (c) Medical care (d) Sound education (e) Good sanitation
Page 12 of 55
42. The smallest social unit within a society is the (a) Church (b) School (c) Family
(d) Father (e) Classroom
43. Thermometer is an instrument used for measuring (a) Rainfall (b) Temperature (c)
Pressure (d) Force (e) Time
44. Plants that grow where they are not wanted are called (a) Parasite (b) Weeds (c)
Cover crops (d) Cash crops (e) Mushroom
APTITUDE TEST
SAMPLE
3 4 5 6 9 4
35 60
Use the sample above to answer questions 45 – 49

2 3 ?
20
45. (a) 25 (b) 15 (c) 10 (d) 8 (e) 4
? 8 4
64
46. (a) 8 (b) 12 (c) 16 (d) 32 (e) 52
8 3 9
?
47. (a) 24 (b) 27 (c) 35 (d) 72 (e) 99
11 0 5
48. (a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 16 (d) 22 (e) 55
Page 13 of 55
7 9 0
49. (a) 10 (b) 16 (c) 19 (d) 0 (e) 2
?
50. If 12 men can finish a piece of work in 8 days, how may days will 6 men take to
do the same piece of work, working at the same rate?
51. The average of 7 numbers is 42. The last two numbers are 37 and 32. What is the
average of the first 5 number?
52. Three bells roll at intervals of 15 minutes, 20 minutes and 30 minutes. If they toll
together at 10:30am, when will they toll together again? (a) 11:15am (b) 11:30am
(c) 12:05am (d) 11:20pm (e) 11:30pm
53. The product of three numbers is 2145. Two of them are 13 and 15. What is the
third number? (a) 21 (b) 45 (c) 11 (d) 14 (e) 17
Sample I
1 7 13
3 15 27
½ 1½ 2½
Use the above sample to answer question 54 – 55

54.
? 12 20
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8 (e) 10
55.
½ 1½ ?
(a) ½ (b) 1¼ (c) 9/2 (d) 5 (e) 5/4
Sample II
3 4 5 1 7 8
16 9 1 25 64 49
Use the above sample to answer questions 56 – 58

56.
? 2
4 0
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 7 (e) 0
Page 14 of 55
57. ½ 10
100 ?
(a) 100 (b) 4 (c) ¼ (d) 8 (e) 110
58. 5 ?
169 25
(a) 13 (b) 15 (c) 5 (d) 8 (e) 11
APTITUDE TEST (1-50)

Use the example to answer question 1 – 3
1. Chukwu is to super eagles as _________ is to flying eagles (a) Samson Siasia (b)
Onigbinde Adegboye (c) Segun Odegbami (d) Paul Hamiton
2. FILTH is to disease as CEAN is to ________ (a) Safety (b) Water (c) Dirty
(d) Health
3. Which of the following is the correct response to the following expression? I

sincerely wish you the best of luck in your examination (a) Congratulations (b)
(c) Thank you (d) Yes
4. How many minutes are there in half of a leap year? (a) 261,000 minutes (b)
100.980 minutes (c) 263,520 (d) 261,420 minutes
5. The best profession for an individual is that which (a) He has ability for (b) Is
needed in the society (c) Can bring a lot of revenue (d) Doesn’t have many people
Which of the following is not strictly in the family? Use this to answer questions 6 – 8.
6. (a) Nigerian army (b) Nigerian navy (c) Nigerian policy (d) Nigerian air force
7. (a) Egg (b) Beef (c) Soya milk (d) Diary milk
8. (a) Nigeria (b) South Africa (c) Ghana (d) Togo
9. A teacher can promote functional participation of pupils in the lesson through (a)
Jokes (b) Discipline (c) Questionnaire (d) Speaking loud
Page 15 of 55
10. Which of the following statement is odd (a) Two many cooks spoil the broth (b)
Make hay while the sun shines (c) A stitch in time says mine (d) Strike while the
iron is hot
11. A major issue that constitute national crises in Nigeria presently is (a) Creation of
states (b) Wage increases (c) Resource control (d) Funding of universities
12. David Mark is to Musa Yar-adua as Gbenga Daniel is to (a) Egbetokun (b) Titi
Oseni (c) Salmot Badru (c) Niran Malaolu
13. Who among the following has brought world honour to Nigerian comparable to
(a) Wole Soyinka (b) Austin Okocha (c) Femi Anikulapo (d) Agbani Darego (e) Dele
Olojede
14. Which of the following pairs of words best complete the following sentence in a
news item over a radio station? “A__ of roses___ presented to the visitor on arrival at
the airport” (a) Bouquet is (b) Bouquet are (c) Bouquet was (d) Bouquet were
15. The first full fledge university in Nigeria is (a) Obafemi Awolowo University, Ile
Ife (b) University of Nigeria, Nsukka (c) Ahamadu Bello University, Zaria (d) None
of the above
What are the full meanings of the following acronyms in questions 16 – 20
16. NDLEA (a) Nigeria Drug and Lea Enforcement Agency (b) National Defence and
Law Enforcement (c) National Drug Law Enforcement Agency (d) National Drug
and Law Enforcement Agency
17. NEEDS (a) National Economic Empowerment Development Strategy (b)

National Economic and Empowerment Development Scheme (c) National
Economic Empowerment Development (d) Nigeria Economic Empowerment
Development Strategy
18. NAFDAC (a) Nigerian Agency for Development Agent Conspiracy (b) National
Agency for Food and Drug Administration and Control (c) National Agency for
Food and Drug Administration Commission (d) Nigerian Agency for Food and Drug
Administration and Control
19. EFCC (a) Economic and Financial Crimes Council (b) Economic and Financial
Control Commission (c) Economy and Financial Commission (d) Economic and
Financial Crimes Commission
20. UNICEF (a) United Nations International Children Education Fund (b) United
Nations Children Education Fund (c) United Nigerian International Children
Education Fund (d) United Nigerian International Children Education and Fund
Page 16 of 55
21. Organization of African Unity (OAU) is now know as ________ (a) African
Union (b) African Economic Union of African Union (c) African Unity (d) Organization
22. Nigeria became a Republic State in the year (a) 1960 (b) 1961 (c) 1962 (d) 1963
23. Chose the correct response to the following expression “You don’t know the
square root of 144” (a) Yes, I don’t (b) Yes, I do, it is 12 (c) No, I do (d) No, I don’t
24. HEAT is to Ashes as CARPENTARY is to _______ (a) Sawdust (b) Carpenter (c)
Chisel (d) Wood
In coded “UNIVERSITY” is written as 8143925670. Use this to answer questions 33-35
25. Which of the following represents TIVS? (a) 7436 (b) 7564 (c) 7635 (d) 8435
26. Which of the following represents Rivers? (a) 341256 (b) 243923 (c) 254926 (d)
4263925
27. The word which represents “7135” is______ (a) Tnvs (b) True (c) Tree (d) Tiny
28. A good lesson is one which a teacher (a) Starts from known to unknown (b) Is
very audible (c) Give comprehensive note to pupils (d) Is very nice
CURRENT AFFIARS QUESTIONS
1. What is the name of the President of the Federal Republic of Nigeria? (a)
Goodluck Ebele Johnathan (b) Goodluck Ebele Jonathan (c) Goodluck Ebene
Jonathan (d) Goodluck Eseme Jonathan
2. What is the name of the speaker of the Federal House of Representative? (a)
Yayale Hammed (b) David Mark (c)Sanusi Soludo (d) Rt. Hon. Dimeji Bankole
3. What is the name of the Secretary to the Federal Government? (a) Yayale
Hammed (b) Liyel Imoke (c) Sanusi Daggash (d) Grace Bent
4. What is the name of the Vice President of Nigeria? (a) Badamosi Babagida (b)
Namadi Sambo (c) Teslim Folarin (d) Gani Fawehimmi
5. Who is the first African to be awarded the Nobel Prize in Literature (a) Dario Fo
(b) Wole Soyinka (c) Toni Morison (d) John Maxwell Coetze
6. What is the estimated population of Nigeria (a) 152million (b) 1.5 Billion (c) 150
Million (d) 190 Million
Page 17 of 55
7. What are the colours on the Nigeria flag? (a) Green and Red (b) Green and White
(c) Green and Pink (d) Yellow and Blue
8. The amalgamation of the Southern and Northern Protectorates took place in the
year (a) 1955 (b) 1987 (c) 1980 (d) 1914
9. The leader of the Action Group Political Party was (a) Samuel Ladoke Akintola
(b) Obafemi Awolowo (c) Aguiyi Ironsi (d) Earnest Shonekan
10. The premier University of Nigeria is? (a) University of Ife (b) University of
Ibadan (c) University of Nigeria (d) University of Calabar
11. The first atomic bomb ever used in world’s history landed in (a) Hiroshima (b)
Nagasaki (c) Pearl Harbor (d) New York City
12. The Second World War started in what year? (a) 1922 (b) 1876 (c) 1956 (d) 1939
13. Who is the father of Modern Nigeria? (a) Chukwemeka Ojukwu (b) Obafemi
Awolowo (c) Sultan of Sokoto (d) Olusegun Obasanjo
14. The second Nigeria President to die in the Aso Rock is? (a) Sanni Abacha (b)
Aguiyi Ironsi (c) Murtala Mohamed (d) Musa Ya’ardua
15. Nigeria became a republic in what year? (a) 1960 (b) 1963 (c) 1961 (d) 1957
16. __________ is the first American President to visit Nigeria? (a) George
Washington (b) Bill Clinton (c) Walker Bush (d) Barrack Obama
17. Who is the first female speaker of the House of Representative in Nigeria? (a)
Afolashade Grace Bent (b) Iyabo Obasanjo (c) Patricia Ette (d) Mrs. Abike Dabiri
18. General Abdulsalam Abubakar returned power to democratically elected president

in what year? (a) 1998 (b) 1999 (c) 2009 (d) 1993
19. What is the currency spent in India? (a) Dollars (b) Pounds (c) Purples (d) Dutch
Mark
20. A motion demanding self-governance in Nigeria in 1956 was introduced in the

House of Representative by (a) Chief Abafemi Awolowo (b) Dr. Nnamdi Azikiwe (c)
Anthony Enahoro (d) Tafawa Balewa
21. The civil war in Nigeria started in the year (a) 1987 (b) 1990 (c) 1994 (d) 1967
22. A ________ of a country is the totality of all rules, regulations and principles
made and accepted by or for the people within an organized and with which their
conducts is measure is called (a) Law (b) Constitution (c) Electoral Act (d) Decree
Page 18 of 55
23. Which of the following is not an Executive arm of the Government (a) Governor
(b) Deputy Governor (c) Speaker of the House of Representatives (d) President
24. __________ is the highest football ruling body (a) FIFA (b) NFF (c) UEFA (d)
LA LIGA
25. Nigeria has ________ Local Government Areas (a) 166 (b) 774 (c) 776 (d) 768
26. The _________ is the apex court in Nigeria (a) Sharia Court of Appeal (b)
Supreme Court (c) High Court (d) Presidential Court
27. Who is the first Prime Minister in Nigeria (a) Sir Ahmadu Bello (b) Dr. Nnnamdi
Azikiwe (c) Namadi Sambo (d) Sir Abubakar Tafawa Balewa
28. What system of Government did Nigeria operate in the first Republic (a)
Parliamentary (b) Unitary (c) Military (d) Presidential
29. Where is Marble mind in Oyo? (a) Saki (b) Igbeti (c) Oyo Town (d) Ibadan
30. Shiroro water is in what state? (a) Niger (b) Sokoto (c) Kebbi (d) Kaduna
31. Nigeria witnessed the first military coup led by (a) Aguiyi Ironsi (b) Major
Danjuma (c) Major Chuwuma Nzeogwu (d) Major Ojukwu
32. President Barrack Obama of the United State of America is of _________ origin
(a) Nigerian (b) Nigerian (c) Burundi (d) Ghana
33. The state judiciary is headed by the _______ (a) Chief of Staff (b) Chief
Magistrate (c) Chief Judge (d) Chief of Army Staff
34. _________ is the head of the administration in a University (a) Provost (b)
Principal (c) Vice Chancellor (d) Rector
35. Who is the present minister of education? (a) Dr. Sam Egwu (b) Prof. Babalola
(c)……….. (d) Prof. Jubal Amino
36. The premier University of Nigeria was established in year (a0 1960 (b) 1984 (c)
1956 (d) 1955
37. The Organization of African Unity is now known as (a) Organization for African
Unity (b) Organization Economic for African Unity (c) African Union (d)
ECOMOG
38. The meat from pig is called (a) Sardine (b) Pork (c) Lad (d) Beef
Page 19 of 55
39. Which of these anti-graft agencies is concerned with money laundering (a)
NDLEA (b) EFCC (c) NAFDAC (d) ICPD
40. In Nigeria’s first Republic (1963 – 1966) the political parties were (a) PDP, AC,
ANPP (b) NPC, NCNC, AG (c) USP, SDP, NRC (d) NNPC, SMD, NCP
41. Tin is mined in (a) Jos (b) Enugu (c) Akwa Ibom (d) Ibadan
42. Where is Nigeria’s hydroelectric station (a) Ilorin (b) Ife (c) Warri (d) Kainji Dam
43. All Universities in Nigeria are under (a) JAMB (b) WAEC (c) NECO (d) NUC
44. Ken Saro Wiwa and the eight Ogoni leaders were killed on (a) November 1996
(b) September 1995 (c) July 1983 (d) December 1993
45. Sanusi Lamido was appointed the Governor Central Bank on (a) June 2009 (b)
August 2008 (c) April 2005 (d) January 2010
46. President Barrack Obama was sworn into office on (a) 19th January 2009 (b) 20th
January 2009 (c) 21st January 2009 (d) 30th January 2009
47. The occurrence of the day and night is caused by (a) Revolution of the earth (b)
Rotation of the earth on its axis from west to east (c) Stagnation of the earth (d)
Movement of the earth from North to South
48. The process of soil formation is called (a) Weathering of rocks (b) Breaking of
soil (c) Welding of rocks (d) Molten Magma
49. A Nigerian who has been the secretary of the commonwealth is (A) Philip
Emagwali (b) Wole Soyinka (c) Emeka Anyaoku (d) Professor Maurice Iwu
50. This Nigerian leader resisted colonial rule and was later exiled by the colonial
masters (a) King Ben Jamiu (b) King Jaja of Opobo (c) Alafin of Oyo (d) Ooni of
Ife
51. What does INEC stand for? (a) Independent National Electoral Commission (b)
Independent National Export Council (c) International Expenditure Council (d)
Independent Nigerian Election Control
52. ECOWAS was established (a) 1975 (b) 1956 (c) 1922 (d) 1960
53. The oldest written constitution is the (a) Israeli constitution (b) Roman
constitution (c) British constitution (d) Nigerian constitution
54. The first indigenous governor-general of Nigeria was (a) Ahmadu Bello (b)
Sadauna of Sokoto (c) Dr. Nnamdi Azikiwe (d) Obafemi Awolow
Page 20 of 55
55. The action group crisis in the west was in which year? (a) 1923 (b) 1966 (c) 1963
(d) 1987
56. The father of art education in Nigeria is (a) Aina Onabolu (b) Ben Enwowu (c)
Professor Harry Akande (d) Solomon Lar
57. The first person to translate English bible into Yoruba language was (a) Venn.
Bbarimisa Onabule (b) Benjamin Franklin (c) Rev. Ajayi Crowther (d) Rev.
Olukoyi Ransome Kuti
58. An individual that wears a new dress for people to see and buy is called (a) Tailor
(b) Seamstress (c) Model (d) Designer
59. Who stopped the killing of twins in Calabar? (a) Mary Magdalene (b) Jesus Christ
(c) Holy Spirit (d) Mary Slessor
60. What does the black shield in the Nigeria coat of Arms stand for (a) Strength (b)
Dignity (c) Peace (d) Unity
ANSWER TO CURRENT AFFAIRS QUESTIONS
1. A 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. B 6. B
7. B 8. D 9. B 10. B 11. A 12.
D 13. D 14. D 15. B 16. B 17. C
18. B 19. C 20. C 21. D 22. B 23.
C 24. A 25. B 26. B 27. D 28. A
29. B 30. A 31. C 32. B 33. C 34.
C 35. 36. B 37. C 38. C 39. B
40. B 41. A 42. D 43. D 44. A 45.
A 46 B 47. B 48. A 49. C 50. B
51. A 52. A 54. C 55. B 56. B 57.
C 58. C 59. D 60. A
Page 21 of 55
A. Skin, Abyss
B. Skin, Craven
C. Skin, Storm
D. Hide, Abyss
E. Hide, Storm
ANSWER KEY
1. B N 2. C 3. A 4. C 5. C 6. C
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. In 1892 the Sierra Club was formed. In 1908 an area of coastal redwood trees
north of San Francisco was established as Miur Woods National Monument. In the Sierra
Nevada mountain, a walking trail from Yosemite Valley to Mount Whitney was
dedicated in 1983. it is called John Muir Trail.
John Muir was born in 1883 in Scotland. His family name means “Moor” which is a
meadow full of flowers and animals. John loved nature from the time he was small. He
also liked to climb rocky cliffs and walls.
When John was eleven, his family moved to the United States and settled in Wisconsin.
John was good with tools and soon became an inventor. He first invented a model of a
sawmill. Later he invented alarm clock that would cause the sleeping person to be tipped
out of bed when the timer sounded.
Muir left home at an early age. He took a thousand mile walk south to the Gulf of Mexico
in 1867 and 1868. then he sailed for San Franciso. The city was too noisy and crowded
for Muir, so he headed inland for the Sierra Navadas.
When Muir discovered the Yosemite Valley in the Sierra Nevadas, it was as if he had
come home. He loved the mountains, the wildlife and the trees. He climbed the
mountains and even climbed trees during thunderstorms in order to get closer to the wind.
He put forth the theory in the late 1860’s that the Yosemite valley had been formed
through the action of glaciers. People ridiculed him. Not until 1930 was Muir’s theory
proven correct.
Muir began to write articles about the Yosemite Valley to tell readers about its beauty.
His writing also warned people that Yosemite was in danger from timber mining and
shepp ranching interests. In 1901 Theodore Roosevelt became president of the United
States. He was interested in conservation. Muir took the president through Yosemite, and
Roosevelt helped get legislation passed to create Yosemite National Park in 1906.
although Muir won many conservation battles, he lost a major one. He fought to save the
Hetch Valley, which people wanted to dam in order to provide water for San Francisco.
Page 22 of 55
In the late 1913 a bill was signed to dam the valleyt. Muir died in 1914. Some people say
losing the fight to protect the valley killed Muir.
1. What happened first?

A. The Muir family moved to the United States
B. Muir Woods was created
C. John Muir learned to climb rocky cliffs
D. John Muir walked to the Gulf of Mexico
D. Muir visited along the east coast
2. When did Muir invent a unique form of alarm clock?
A. While the family still lived in Scotland

B. After he sailed to San Francisco
C. After he traveled in Yosemite
D. While the Muir family lived in Wisconsin
E. After he took the long walk
3. What did John Muir do soon after he arrived in San Francisco?
A. He ran outside during an earthquake

B. He put forth a theory about how Yosemite was formed
C. He headed Inland for the Sierra Nevadas
D. He began to write articles about the Sierra Nevadas
E. He wrote short stories for the local newspaper
4. When did John Muir meet Theodore Roosevelt?
A. Between 1901 and 1906

B. Between 1883 and 1868
C. Between 1906 and 1914
D. Between 1868 and 1901
E. Between 1906 and 1901
5. What happened last?
A. John Muit died.

B. John Muir Trail was dedicated
C. Muir’s glacial theory was proven
D. The Sierra Club was formed
E. John’s family visited him
6. When using a metal file, always remember to bear down on the forward stoke
only. On the return stroke, lift and file clear of the surface to avoid dulling the
instrument’s teeth. Only when working on very soft metals is it advisable to drag the
file’s teeth slightly on the return stoke. This helps clear out metal pieces from between
the teeth.
Page 23 of 55
It is best to bear down just hard enough to keep the file cutting at all times. Too little
pressure uses only the tips of the teeth; too much pressure can chip the teeth. Move the
file in straight lines across the surface. Use a vice to grip the work so that your hands are
free to hold the file. Protect your hands by equipping the file with a handle. Buy a
wooden handle and install it by inserting the pointed end of the file into handle hole.
7. When using a file_______
A. Always bear down on the return stroke

B. Move it in a circle
C. Remove
D. Press down on the forward stroke
E. Wear protective gloves
8. When working on soft metals, you can

A. Remove the handle
B. Clear metal pieces from the teeth
C. Bear down very hard on the return stroke
D. File in circles
E. Strengthen them with added wood
9. Protect your hands by
A. Julling the teeth

B. Draggin the teeth on the backstroke
C. Using a file
D. Installing a handle
E. Wearing safety gloves
“Old woman”, grumbled the burly white man who had just heard sojourner truth speak,
“Do you think your talk about slavery does any good? I don’t care any more for your talk
than I do for the bite of a flea.”
The tall, imposing black woman turned her piercing eyes on him “Perhaps not,” she
answered, “but I’ll keep you scratching.”
The little incident of the 1840s sums up all the sojourner truth was: utterly dedicated to
spreading her message, afraid of no one, forceful and witty in speech. Yet forty years
earlier, who could have suspected that a spindly slave girl growing up in a damp cellar in
upstart New York would become one of the most remarkable women in American
history? Her name then was Isabella (many slaves had no last names), and by the time
she was fourteen she had seen both parents die of cold and hunger. She herself had been
sold several times. By 1872, when New York freed its slaves, she had married and borne
five children.
Page 24 of 55
The first hint of Isabella’s fighting spirit came soon afterwards, when her youngest son
was illegally seized and sold. She marched to the courthouse and badgered officials until
her son was returned to her.
In 1843, inspired by religion, she changed her name to Sojourner (meaning “one who
stays briefly”). Truth, and, with only pennies in her purse, set out to preach against
slavery. From New England to Minnesota she trekked, gaining a reputation for her plain
but powerful and moving words. Incredibly, despite being blank and female (only white
males were expected to be public speakers), she drew thousands to town halls, tents, and
Churches to hear her powerful deep-voiced pleas on equality for blacks and for women.
Often she had to face threatening hoodlums. Once she stood before armed bullies and
sang a hymn to them. Awed by her courage and her commanding presence, they
sheepishly retreated.
During the civil war, she cared for homeless ex-slaves in Washington. President Lincoln
invited her to the White House to bestow praise on her. Later, she petitioned Congress to
help former slaves get land in the West. Even in her old age, she forced the city of
Washington to integrate its trolley cars so that black and white could ride together.
Shortly before her death at eighty six, she was asked what kept her going, “I think of the
great things,” replied Sojourner.
10. The imposing black woman promised to keep the white man
A. Searching
B. Crying
C. Hollering
D. Scratching
E. Fleeing
11. This incident occurred in the
A. 1760s
B. 1900s
C. 1840s
D. 1920s
E. 1700s
12. Sojourner truth was raised in a damp cellar in
A. New York
B. Georgia
C. New Jersey
D. Idaho
Page 25 of 55
E. Maryland
13. Isabella lost both parents by the time she was
A. Twenty Seven
B. Two
C. Seven
D. Fourteen
E. Nineteen
14. When New York freed its slaves, Isabella had
A. Problems
B. No Children
C. Five Children
D. An Education
E. Three Children
15. Her change in name was inspired by
A. A fighting Spirit
B. Religion
C. Her Freedom
D. Officials
E. Friends
16. She traveled from New England to
A. Canada
B. Califomai
C. Minnesota
D. Alaska
E. Virgina
17. She forced the city of Washington to
A. Integrate its trolleys

B. Give land grants
C. Care for ex-slaves
D. Provide food for ex-slaves
18. She preached against
A. Smoking
B. Slavery
C. Alcohol
Page 26 of 55
D. Hoodlums
E. Women having no rights
19. Sojourner Truth died at
A. 48
B. 72
C. 63
D. 86
E. 88
The Galapagos Islands are in the Pacific Ocean, off the western coast of South America.
They are a rocky, lonely spot, but they are also one of the most unusual places in the
world. One reason is that they are the home of some of the last giant tortoise left on earth.
Weighing hundreds of pounds, these tortoises, or land turtles, wander slowly around the
rocks and sand of the Island. Strangely each of these Islands has its own particular kinds
of tortoises. There are seven different kinds of tortoises on the eight Islands, each kind
being slightly different from the other.
Hundreds of years ago, thousands of tortoises wandered around these Islands. However,
all that changed when people started landing there. When people first arrived in 1535,
their ship had no refrigerators. This meant that fresh food was always a problem for the
sailors on board. The giant tortoises provided a solution to this problem.
Ships would anchor off the Islands, and crews would now ashore and seize as many
tortoises as they could. Once the animals were aboard the ship, the sailors would roll the
tortoises onto their backs. The tortoises were completely helpless once on their backs, so
they could only tie there until used for soups and stews. Almost, 100,000 tortoises were
carried off in this way.
The tortoises faced other problems, too. Soon after the first ships, settlers arrived bringing
pigs, goats, donkeys, dogs and cats. All of these animals ruined life for the tortoises.
Donkey and goats ate all the plants that the tortoises usually fed on, while the pigs. Dogs
and cats consumed thousands of baby tortoises each year. Within a year, it was hard to
find any tortoise eggs or even any baby tortoises.
By the early 1900s, people began to worry that the last of the tortoises would soon die
out. No one, however, seemed to care enough to do anything about the problem. More
and more tortoises disappeared, even though sailors no longer needed them for food. For
another fifty years, this situation continued. Finally, in the 1950s, scientist decided that
something must be done.
The first part of their plan was to get rid of as many cats, dogs and other animals as they
could. Next, they tried to make sure that more baby tortoises would be born. To do this,
they started looking for wild tortoise eggs. They gathered the eggs and put them in safe
Page 27 of 55
containers. When the eggs hatched, the scientist raised the tortoises in special pens. Both
the eggs and tortoises were numbered so that the scientist knew exactly which kind of
tortoises they had and which Island they came from. Once the tortoises were old enough
and big enough to take care of themselves, the scientists took them back to their islands
and set them loose. This slow, hard work continues today, and thank to it, the number of
tortoises is now increasing every year. Perhaps these wonderful animals will not
disappear after all.
20. What happened first?
A. Sailors took tortoises aboard ships

B. The tortoises meat was used for soups and stews
C. Tortoises were put onto their backs
D. Settlers brought other animals to the islands
E. Pigs had been all the sailors had to eat
21. What happened soon after people brought animals to the islands?
A. Tortoise eggs were kept in safe containers

B. Scientists took away as many animals as they could
C. The animals ate the tortoises’ food and eggs
D. The tortoises fought with the other animals
E. The tortoises continued to wander freely
22. When did people start to do something to save the tortoises?
A in the 1500s B. in the 1950s C. in the early 1900s

D. in the 1960s E. in the 1400s
23. What happens right after the tortoise eggs hatch?
A. The scientists take the tortoises back to their islands

B. The scientists get rid of cats, dogs, and other animals
C. The sailors use the tortoises for food
D. The scientist raised the tortoises in special pens
E. The scientist encouraged the villagers to help.
24. What happened last?
A. The tortoise began to disappear

B. The number of tortoise began to grow
C. Scientists took away other animals
D. Tortoise were taken back to their home islands
E. The number of tortoise began to decrease.
Page 28 of 55
The first person in the group starts off by naming anything that is geographical. It could
be a city, state, country, river, lake, or any proper geographical term. For example, the
person might say, “Boston.” The second person has ten seconds to think of how the word
ends and come up with anther geographical term starting with that letter. The second
participant might say, “Norway,” since the geographical term has to start with “N” The
third person would have to choose a word beginning with “Y”. If a player fails to think
of a correct answer within the time limit, that player is out of the game. The last person
to survive is the champion.
25. This game may help you with -
A. history B. music C. geography D. sports E. current events
26. The person trying to answer needs -
A. no time limit
B. to know geography only
C. to ignore the last letters of words
D. to know something about spelling and geography
E. to be a good speller
27. Before you choose your own word, think about how-
A. the last word starts B. the last word ends C. smart you are
D. long the last word is E. the spelling of the first word
28. The answer must be-
A. in New York B. within the United States C. proper

geographical terms
D. in the same region E. along a coast line
Charles A. Lindbergh is remembered as the first person to make a non-stop solo flight
across the Atlantic, in 1927. this fear, when Lindbergh was only twenty-five years old,
assured him a lifetime of fame and public attention
Charles Augustus Lindbergh was more interested in flying airplanes than he was in
studying. He dropped out of the University of Wisconsip after two years to earn a living
performing daredevil airplane stunts at country fairs. Two years later, he joined the
United States Army so that he could go to the Army Air Service flight-training school.
After completing his training, he was hired to fly mail between St. Louis and Chicago.
Then came the historic flight across the Atlantic. In 1919, a New York City hotel owner
offered a prize of $25,000 to the first pilot to fly non-stop from New York to paris. Nine
St. Louis business leaders helped pay for the plane Lindbergh toured the world as a U. S.
goodwill ambassador. He met his future wife, Anne Morrow, in Mexico, where her
father was the United States ambassador.
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During the 1930s, Charles and Anne Lindbergh worked for various airline companies,
charting new commercial air routes. In 1931, for a major airline, they charted a new
route from the east coast of the United States to the Orient. The shortest, most efficient
route was a great curve across Canada, over Alaska, and down to China and Japan. Most
pilots familiar with the Aretic did not believe that such a route was possible. The
Lindberghs took on the task pf proving that it was. They arranged for fuel and supplies to
be set out along the route. On July 29, they took off from Long Island in a specially
equipped small seaplane. They flew by day and each night landed on a lake or a river
and camped. Near Nome, Alaska, they had their first serious emergency. Out of
daylight and nearly out of fuel, they were forced down in a small ocean inlet. In the next
morning’s light, they discovered they had landed on barely three feet of water. On
September 19, after two more emergency landings and numerous close calls, they landed
in China with the maps for a safe airline passenger route.
Even while actively engaged as a pioneering flier, Lindbergh was also working as an
engineer. In 1935, he and Dr. Alexis Carrel were given a patent for an artificial heart.
During World war I in the 1940s, Lindbergh served as a civilian technical advisor in
aviation. Although he was a civilian, he flew over fifty combat missions in the Pacific.
In the 1950s. Linbergh helped design the famous 747 jet airliner. In the later 1960s, he
spoke widely on conservation issues. He died August 1974, having lived through
aviation history from the time of the first powered flight to the first steps on the moon
and having influenced a big part of that history himself.
9. What did Lindbergh do before he crossed the Atlantic?
A. He charted a route to China

B. He graduated from flight-training school
C. He married Anne Morrow
D. He acted as a technical advisor during World War II
E. He was responsible for the fuel supply for planes.
30. What happened immediately after Lindbergh crossed the Atlantic?
A. before he took off from Long Island

B. before Charles worked with dr. Carrel
C. after World War II
D. when he was thirty
33. What event happened last?
A. Lindbergh patented an artificial heart

B. The Lindberghs mapped a route to the Orient
C. Lindbergh helped design the 747 airline
D. Lindbergh flew fifty combat missions.
E. Charles finally was given an honorary degree from college
Page 30 of 55
Always read the meter dials from the right to the left. This procedure is much easier
especially if any of the dial hands are near the zero mark. If the meter has two dials, and
one is smaller than the other, it is not imperative to read the smaller dial since it only
registers a small amount. Read the dial at the right first. As the dial turns clockwise,
always record the figure the pointer has just passed. Read the next dial to the left and
record the figure it has just passed. Continue recording the figures on the dials from right
to left. When finished, mark off the number of units recorded. Dials on water and gas
meters usually indicate the amount each dial records.
34. These instructions show you how to -
A. read a meter B. turn the dials a meter C. install a gas meter

D. repair a water meter E. be prepared for outside employment
35. Always read the meter dials -
A. from top to bottom B. from right to left C. from left to right

E. from the small to the large dial E. from the large dial to the small
dial
36. As you read the first dial, record the figures
A. on the smaller dial B. the pointer is approaching

C. the pointer has just passed D. at the top E. at the bottom
37. When you have finished reading the meter, mark off-
A. the number of units recorded. B. the figures on the small dial

C. the total figures D. all the zero marks E. the last reading of the
month
The village of Vestmannaeyjar, in the far northern country of joeland, is as bright

and clean and up-to-date as any American or Canadian suburb. It is located on the island
of Heimaecy, just off the mainland. One January night in 1973, however, householders
were stocked from their sleep. In some backyards red-hot liquid was spurting from the
ground. Flaming “skyrockets” shot up and over the houses. The island’s volcano,
Helgafell, silent for even thousand years.
Luckily, the island’s fishing fleet was in port and within twenty-four hours almost
everyone was ferried to the mainland. But then the agony of the island began in earnest.
As in a nightmare, fountains of burning lava sported three hundred feet high. Black,
baseball-size cinders rained down. an evil-burning throat-searing cloud of smoke and gas
erupted into the air, and a river of lava flowed down the mountain. The constant shriek of
escaping steam was punctuated by ear-splitting explosions.
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As time went on, the once pleasant village of Vestmannaeyjar took on a weird aspect. Its
street lamps still burning against the long Aretic night, the town lay under a thick blanket
of cinders. All that could be seen above the ten-foot black drifts were the tips of street
signs. Some houses had collapsed under the weight of cinders; others had burst into
flames as the heat ignited their oil storage tanks. Lighting the whole lurid scene, fire
continued to shoot from the mouth of the looming volcano.
The eruption continued for six months. Scientists and reporters arrived from around the
world to observe the awesome natural event. But the town did not die that easily. In
July, when the eruption ceased, the people of Heimaey Island returned to assess the
chances of rebuilding their homes and lives. They found tons of ash covering the ground.
The leclanders are a tough people, however, accustomed to the strange and violent nature
of their Aretic land. They dug out their homes. They even used the cinders to build new
roads and airport runways. Now the new homes of Heimaey are warned from water pipes
heated by molten lava.
38. The village is located on the island of -
A. Vestmannaeyjar B. Hebrides C. Heimaey D. Helgafell E.

Heimma
39. The color of the hot liquid was -

A. orange B. black C. yellow D. red E. grey
40. This liquid was coming from the -
A. mountains B. ground C. sea D. sky E. ocean
41. The island’s volcano had been inactive for-
A. seventy years B. seven thousand years

C. seven thousand months D. seven hundred years E. seventy decades
42. Blackcinders fell that were the size of -
A. baseballs B. pebbles C. golf balls D. footballs E. hail-stones
43. Despites the eruption -
A. buses kept running B. the radio kept broadcasting C. the police kept
working D. street lamps kept burning E. the television kept broadcasting
44. This volcanic eruption lasted for six ___
A. weeks B. hours C. months D. days E. years
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Answers
1. C 2. D 3. C 4. A 5. B 6. B 7. D 8. B 9. D 10. D 11. C 12. A 13. D 14.
C 15. B 16. C 17. A 18. B 19. D 20. A 21. C 22. B 23. D 24. B 25. C 26. D
27. B 28. C 29. B 30. D 31. D 32. B 33. C 34. A 35. B 36. C 37. A 38. C 39. D
40. B 41. B 42. A 43. D 44. C
PRACTICAL QUESTIONS
1. After practice, the girl’s softball team stated, “We’re famished”

Famished means
A. Fatigued B. Hungry C. Excited D. Ready
2. The newborn baby was enamored with the rattle

Enamored means
A. Fascinated B. happy C. Unsure what to do D. Aggravated
3. When having a problem, it is best to dissect situation then act.

Dissect means
A. Control B. Discuss C. Ignore D. Analyze
4. The bouncer’s countenance discouraged brawls

Countenance means
A. Message B. Presence C. Expression D. Strength
5. The child apprized her father’s authority and behaved herself in church.
Apprized means
6. The aural component of balance is critical for postural control ambulation.

Aural means related to the
A. Eyes B. Ears C. Nose D. Hands
7. The wound exhibited signs of copious drainage requiring medical Intervention.

Copious means
A. Minimal B. Clear C. Maximal D. Foul
8. The scientist was able evoke powerful emotion from her audience.
Evoke means
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9. The official exhibited a heedless attitude when dealing with the dignitaries
Heedless means
A. Thoughtless B. Pleasant C. Friendly D. Bitter
10. The general tried to instill in his troops the hope of victory.
Instill means
A. Infuse B. Delay C. Inscribe D. Indict
11. The winning team of the World Series often has a jovial attitude.
Jovial means
A. Merry B. Sad C. Somber D. Laborious
12. A lyre was played in ancient Rome.

The Iyre is a
A. Stringed instrument in the harp class B. Percussion instrument

C. Wind instrument in the wind class D. Rhythmical percussion device
ANSWERS
1. B 2. A 3. D 4. C 5. A 6. B 7. C 8. C 9. A 10. A 11. A 12. A
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
Choose the correct option below:
1. Hours of driving laid ahead of us.
A. laid B. have lain C. lay D. has lay E. lie
2. By the time we get to the pinic area, the rain will stop
A. will stop B. shall stop C. will has stopped D. shall have stopped
E. will have stopped
3. If Judy would not have missed the deadline, the yearbook delivery would have
been on time.
A. would not have missed B. should have not missed

C. wouldn’t have missed D. had not missed E. would have not missed
Page 34 of 55
4. We spent Sunday afternoon wandering aimless in the park
A. wandering aimless B. wandering aimlessly C. wandering without

purpose D. wandering in an aimless manner E. wandering almost
aimlessly
5. Only after I went home did I remember my dental appointment.
A. went home B. had went home C. had gone home

D. gone home E. should go home
6. The book lay open at page 77
A. lay open B. laid open C. lied open D. lain open E. was laid open
7. By this time next year Johanna will begin classes at the University classes
A. will begin classes B. will have begun classes C. has began classes
D. should begin classes E. should have begun classes
8. After comparing my air conditioner with the one on sale, I decided that mine was
the most efficient.
A. was the most efficient B. should be the most efficient C. was the more
efficient
D. was, by far the most efficient E. should be considered the most efficient
9. I would have liked to have gone swimming yesterday.

A. to have gone swimming B. to go swimming
C. to had gone swimming D. to go to swim E. to of gone
swimming
10. I wish I read the chapter before I tried to answer the questions.
A. read the chapter B. would read the chapter C. should of read the
chapter
D. could have read the chapter E. had read the chapter
11. Nathanael West said that he’d never have written his satirical novel if he had not
visited Hollywood.
A. have written his B. would have written his C. could of written his
D. could have written his E. should of written his
12. The smell from the paper mill laid over the town like a blanket.
A. laid B. has lain C. will lie D. lay E. has laid
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13. When I was halfway down the stairs, I suddenly knew what I had wanted to have
said
A. to have said B. to say C. to have been said D. to had say e. to
say
14. I would be more careful if I had been you.

A had been B. could have been C. was D. were E. could have
been
15. They read where the governor has appointed a special committee to improve the
school calendar.
A. where B. how C. were D. where E. wear
16. In study hall I sit besides Paul Smith, who is captain of the swim team and one of
the best swimmers in the state.
A. sit besides B. sat beside C. have set beside D. sit beside E. have sit
beside
17. This classic has been read with enjoyment for nearly two hundred years.
A. has been read B. will have been read
C. shall have been read D. is being read E. was read
18. Many nineteenth-century biographers rely on their imagination, not on real facts.
A. rely on their imagination B. relied on their imagination C. have

relied on their imagination D. could have relied on their imagination E. could
rely on their imagination.
19. The private lives of politicians, general and other notables fascinates the reading
public.
A. fascinates the reading B. have fascinated the reading C. will fascinate the
reading D. fascinate the reading E. has fascinate the reading
20. That small man chose a seat near the door and carefully sat down.
A. sat B. will sit C. could of sat D. have sit down E. set down
21. Last summer I worked in the chemical laboratory at the Brass Company; most the
work came into the lab for testing marked with the words top priority.
A. words top priority B. words-top priority C. words: Top priority

D. word, “Top Priority” E. Words “top priority”.
Answer Key
1. C 2. E 3. D 4. B 5. C 6. A 7. B 8. C 9. A 10. E 11. A 12. D 13. E 14. D
15. A 16. D 17. A 18. B 19. D 20. A 21. D
Page 36 of 55
GRAMMER PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Everyone in the bank-including the manager and the tellers, ran to the door when
the fire alarm rang.
A. tellers, ran B. tellers: ran C. tellers, had run D. tellers-ran E. tellers’

ran”
2. To no ones surprise Joe didn’t have his homework ready

A. no ones surprise B. noones surprise C. no-ones surprise
D. no ones surprise E. no one’s surprise
3. If he would have read “The White Birds,” he might have liked William Butle
Yeats’s poetry.
A. would have read B. could have read C. would of read
D. could of read E. had read
4. After the hurricane, uprooted trees were laying all over the ground
A. were laying B. lying C. were lying D. were laid E. was laid
5. Ralph Waldo Emerson (1803-1882), the great Transcendentalist philosopher,

wrote in his essay “Self-Reliance” of the need for an individual to develop his
capacities.
A. essay “Self-Reliance” B. essay., “Self-Reliance” C. essay: Self-
Reliance
D. essay, Self-Reliance E. essay; “Self-Reliance”
6. The recently built children’s amusement park has been called “ a boon to the
community “by its supporter and “an eyesore” by its harshest critics.
A. and an “eyesore” by its harshest B. and, an eyesore, “ by its

harshest
C. and an eyesore, by its harshest D. and an eyesore-by its’ harshest
E. and-“an eyesore”- by its’ harshest
7. I always have trouble remembering the meaning of these two common verbs,
affect (to change” or “to influence”) and effect (“to cause” or “ to accomplish).”
A. reading- “The Fall of the House of Usher:”,
B. reading The Fall of the House of Usher,
C. reading, “The Fall of the House of Usher, “
E. reading: The Fall of the House of Usher-
8. My class just finished reading- “ “The Fall of the House of Usher:”, a short story
by Edgar Allen Poe.
A. ran perfect B. ran perfectly C. could run perfect
Page 37 of 55
D. could of run perfect E. would run perfectly
10. “Are there two e’s in beetle,” asked Margo?

A. there two e’s in beetle,” asked Margo? B. their two e’ in beetle?” asked
Margo,
C. there two e’s in beetle,” asked Margo? D. there two e’s in beetle?”asked
Margo,
E. there two e’s in beetle. Asked Margo?
11. The circus audience received a well-deserved round of applause for the perfectly
tims acrobatic stunt.
A. audience received a well- deserved B. audience gave a well deserved

C. audience did receive a well deserved D. audience gave a well-deserved
E. audience did get a well-deserved
12. Looking directly at me, my Mother said, “There are your options: the choice is
yours.”
A. Mother said, “ These are your options: the choice is
B. Mother said- these are your options, the choice is
C. Mother had said, These are your options; the choice is
D. Mother had said, “These are your options; the choice is
E. Mother said, “These are your options; the choice is
13. Porcupine is from Latin porcus, “pig” and spina, “spine.”
A. porcus, “pig” and “spine.” B. Porcus – pig and spina, “spine.”

C. Porcus –pig and Spina, “spine” D. Porcus-Pig-Spina-spin.”
E. Porcus, “pig,” and spina “spine”.
14. Seeing the dolphins, some sharks, a killer whale, and a Moray eel made the visit
to the marine park worthwhile.
A. a killer whale, and a Moray eel made the visit

B. a killer whale, and a moray eel made the visit
C. a killer whale and a moray eel makes the visit
D. a killer whale and a Moray eel makes the visit
E. a killer whale and a moray eel made the visit
15. Still the fact that a planet exists outside our solar system encourages hope that
other solar systems exist, and in them, perhaps, a planet that does support life.
A. that a planet exists outside our solar system encourages hope that other solar
systems exist, and
B. that a Planet exists out side solar system encourages hope that other solar
systems exist and
Page 38 of 55
C. could be that a planet exists outside our solar system encourages hope that
other solar systems exist, and
D. that a planet exist outside our solar systems encourage hope that other solar
systems exist, and
E. that a planet does exists out side our solar system encourages hope that other
solar systems exist, and
16. Mail-order shopping can be convenient and timesaving with appropriate

precautions, it is safe as well.
A. can be convenient and timesaving
B. can be convenient and timesaving
C. should be convenient and time saving;
D. could be convenient and time saving;
E. can be convenient and time-saving;
17. Among the many fields of science, no matter what turns you on, there are several
fields of study.
A. science, no matter what turns you on,
B. Science, no matter which you, chose,
C. Science, no matter which you chose,
D. Science, no matter which of these you chose
E. science, no matter which you choose,
18. The fact that boxing is known to cause head injuries and brain damage should
lead us to inform the public and push for a ban on boxing.
A. should lead us to inform
B. could lead us to inform
C. should of led us to inform
D. will lead us to inform
E. should have led us to inform,
19. The first part of the test was on chemistry, the second on mathematics, and the
third on english.
A. on mathematics, and the third on English.
B. on mathematics; and the third on English.
C. on Mathematics. And the third on English.
D. on mathematics, and the third on English.
E. on mathematics: and the third on English.
20. The Diary of Anne Frank showed a young girl’s courage during two years of
hiding.
A. showed a young girl’s courage
B. shows a young girl’s courage
C. did show a young girls courage
D. has shown a young girl’s courage
E. showed a young girl’s courage
Page 39 of 55
21. In August my parents will be married for twenty-five years.

A. will be married for twenty-five years
B. shall have been married for twenty-five years
C. will have been married for twenty-five years
D. will be married for twenty-five years
E. will have married for twenty-five years
ANSWER KEY
1. D 2. E 3. E 4. C 5. A 6. A 7. B 8. C 9. B 10. D 11. D 12. E 13. A 14. B 15.
A 16. E 17 E 18. A 19. D 20. B 21. C
ECONOMICS
1. Economics is a science which deals basically with

(A) The factors of production
(B) Allocation of scarce resources to satisfy human wants
(C) Oil exportation
(D) The Gross Domestic Production (GDP)
2. A movement along a given demand curve for a good is caused by a change in
(A) The price of the goods (B) Consumer Income
(C) Population (D) The prices of other goods
3. In the study of Economics, land, Labour, Capital and Entrepreneur are referred to
as factors of production.
(A) Profitable to the production process
(B) Purchase for the purpose of production
(C) Combined in the Production process
(D) Brought into the factory
4. Which of the following is NOT an argument for locating industries in rural areas?
(A) Rural Areas supply Agricultural raw materials
(B) The price of development will be quickened in rural areas?
(A) Employment will be provided for rural inhabitants
(B) Capital is easily available in rural areas
5. Retailers in an economy performs the function of
(A) Production (B) Exchange
(C) Distribution (D) Investment
6. In a sole proprietorship the decisions are made by the
(A) Government (B) Board of Directors
(C) Management (D) Owner
7. Which of the following are direct taxes?
(A) Sales taxes (B) Excite Duties
(C) Income and company taxes (D) Commodities taxes
8. The situation in which the total amount for government spending exceeds total
revenues s called
(A) Balanced budget (B) Budget Surplus
(C) Budget deficit (D) Fiscal Surplus
Page 40 of 55
9. Economics is founded on the principle that

(A) Human wants are more than human needs
(B) Materials things are more than human needs
(C) The means of satisfying human wants are limited, while human wants are
limitless
10. An economic system in which most capital goods are known as
(A) Planned economy (B) Mixed economy
(C) Capitalist economy (D) Socialist economy
11. Which of the following statement is correct? The Central Bank
(A) Prints the country’s currency
(B) Handles the collection of debts owned by the govt.
(C) Lends money to businessman
(D) Issue the country’s currency
12. A production possibility curve shows
(A) How much f the resources of society are used to produce a particular
commodity
(B) The rate of inflation
(C) The rate of unemployment in the country
(D) The various combinations of two commodities that can be produced
13. Middlemen in an economy perform the function of
(A) Protection (B) Hoarding
(C) Distribution (D) Exchange
14. A commercial bank is unique in that it is the only institution that
(A) makes loans to private people and businessman
(B) accepts deposit
(C) can store people’s valuables
(D) saves money through the granting of credits
15. Disposable income is the same thing as
(A) personal income minus personal saving
(B) personal income minus taxes
(C) national income minus depreciation
(D) exports minus imports
16. The expression “Terms of trade” means
(A) The Trade agreement between two countries
(B) The difference in the volumes of exports of two countries
(C) The quality of exports
(D) The value of a unit of export in relation to the value of a unit import
17. One of the reasons why the conditions of supply of a commodity may change is
(A) a change in real income
(B) changes in the technique of production
(C) A change of fashion or taste
(D) changes in the prices of the commodity itself
18. By definition, UTILITY means
(A) usefulness (B) power of satisfying a want
(C) Beneficial (D) consumable
Page 41 of 55
19. The total value of goods and services sold and brought by a country across its
border during a given period, usually a year is known as
(A) visible trade (B) invisible trade
(C) Balance of payment (D) term of trade
20. Which of the following is NOT usually the function of a wholesaler
(A) transport (B) Advertising (C) Storage (D) Branding
21. Which of the following is not a determinant of changes in supply
(A) changes in the cost of production (B) changes in the number of buyer
(C) whether (D) Changes in the number of producer
22. Inflation can be curbed by
(A) Increasing aggregate demand (B) Paying higher wages
(C) Reducing aggregate demand (D) A deficit budget
23. Which is NOT an important factor responsible for high concentration of
population in some parts of Nigeria?
(A) Climatic influences (B) Development of trade and market
(C) Soil fertility (D) Processing of petroleum
24. The most dominant economic activity which employs the largest number of people in
west Africa is
(A) Manufacturing (B) Transport (C) Government (D)Agriculture
25. Which of the following countries is not a member of the economic community of
West African state?
(A) Sierra Leone (B) Sudan (C) Gambia (D) guinea
26. Differentiated product is the characteristics feature of
(A) Perfect competition (B) pure competition
(C) Monopolistic competition (D) Monopoly
27. A tax that increases at a higher percentage as income increases is called
(A) a proportional tax (B) a regressive tax
(C) a progressive tax (D) an income tax
28. The price paid for labour services is the
(A) Commission rate (B) income rate (C) salary rate (D) wage rate
29. If a monopoly is attempted to maximize profit, which of the following should it
attempt to do
(A) Set price equal to TC
(B) Equate marginal cost to marginal revenue
(C) Maximize profit per unit
(D) Maximize revenue
30. Which of the following is NOT a goal of modern budgets?
(A) The control of inflation
(B) The reduction in income inequality
(C) The shift of all resources from the private to the public
(D) Economic development
31. ECOWAS will enable the countries involved to achieve
(A) Comparative political advantages over other countries not in the region
(B) A large market for their products
(C) Military superiority over countries not in the region
(D) Lower the transportation cost of goods within the region
Page 42 of 55
32. The difference between the GROSS DOMESTIC PRODUCT and the GROSS
NATIONAL PRODUCT is the
(A) Allowances for total depreciation
(B) Total interest payment
(C) Total tax and income payment
(D) eradication of illiteracy
33. Economic development is defined as
(A) Positive change plus growth
(B) Availability of more goods and services
(C) Outward shift of the production possibility curve
(D) Growth in national income
34. When the import of a commodity is limited to a definite quantity by using a trade
control method, this is known as
(A) Tariffs (B) quotas (C) devaluation (D) revaluation
35. Money performs a number of functions. ONE of these functions makes it possible for
any person to provide for old age. Because of that particular function, money is regarded
as
(A) Medium of exchange (B) measure of value (C) unit of account (D) store of value
36. A greater burden on the taxes on essential goods is borne by the
(A) Middle income group (B) higher income group
(C) Lower income group (D) people falling between the middle and the higher income
group
37. Demand for a factor of production is
(A) A composite demand (B) a joint demand
(C) A derived demand (D) a clasticity of demand
38. Nigeria is currently implementing the
(A) Third development plan (B) second development plan
(C) Fourth development plan (D) first development plan
39. Frictional unemployment
(A) Is total unemployment minus structural unemployment
(B) Occurs when the unemployed are persons with specific training
(C) Occurs when the number of the job seekers exceeds the number of vacancies
(D) Occurs when people are changing jobs
40. the most acceptable measure for trade protection is to
(A) Improve standards of living (B) protect infant industries
(C) Safeguard strategies industries (D) promote foreign trade
41. People hold money for
(A) Charity (B) safe keeping (C) profit making (D) speculative purposes
ANSWERS
1 B 2 A 3 C 4 D 5 C 6 D 7 C 8 C 9 C 10 C 11 A 12 C 13 C 14 C 15 B 16 D 17
B 18 B 19 C 20 D 21 D 22 D 23 D 24 D 25 B 26 C 27 C 28 C 29 B 30 C 31 B
32 B 33 B 34 B 35 D 36 C 37 C 38 C 39 D 40 B 41 D
Page 43 of 55
GOVERNMENT
1. According to Karl Marx, the mode of production that precede Capitalism is

(A) Communalism
(B) Feudalism
(C) Capitalism
(D) Mercantilism
2. The first country in West African to become independent was
(A) Niger (B) Ghana (C) Republic of Guinea (D) Guinea Bissau
3. The emirate system of administration can be linked to a
(A) Confederal system of government
(B) Unitary system of government
(C) Federal system of government
(D) Constitutional monarch
4. A problem of Nigeria federalism that was resolved by the Supreme Court
between the federal government and the littoral states centered on sources is
(A) Maximization
(B) Generalization
(C) Derivation
(D) Control
5. The headquarters of the international court of Justice is in
(A) Washington D.C.
(B) Paris
(C) London
(D) The Haque
6. Unicameral legislature is common feature of
(A) Unitarism
(B) Federalism
(C) Presedentialism
(D) Parliamentarism
7. One of the sources of constitution is
(A) common law
(B) corporate law
(C) statutory law
(D) constitutional law
8. In the present local government structure, traditional rulers play
(A) an advisory role
(B) an executive role
(C) a judicial role
(D) legislative role
9. The economic community of West African states was established in
(A) May 1975
(B) May 1963
(C) May 1966
(D) May 1996
10. Laws made by local government are called
Page 44 of 55
(A) Act of parliament

(B) Local government laws
(C) Bye-laws
(D) Local government decrees
11. Fascism was a type of dictatorial government establishment in
(A) Germany
(B) Russia
(C) Key Israel
(D) Italy
12. Public opinion can be expressed through
(A) Census
(B) General strike
(C) Socialization
(D) Destruction
13. Which of the following is NOT necessarily the feature of a Nation?
(A) Government
(B) Population
(C) Sovereignty
(D) Territory
14. The key word for explaining the term authority is
(A) Right
(B) Ability
(C) Control
(D) Power
15. The National Youth Service Corp (NYSC) was established in
(A) 1960
(B) 1963
(C) 1973
(D) 1975
16. Remove by impeachment applies to the position of
(A) Prime minister
(B) Cabinet minister
(C) President
(D) Chief judge
17. The British took over Nigeria through
(A) Negotiation
(B) Bargaining
(C) War
(D) The sea
18. What was the primary suppose of the Sir Henry Willink Commissional of
inquiry?
(A) To approve the independent of Nigeria
(B) To allay the fears minorities in Nigeria
(C) To amalgamate northern and southern Nigeria
(D) To make Lagos a British
19. Politics is an act for
Page 45 of 55
(A) Man to govern himself

(B) Man to create governments
(C) States to control its destiny
(D) Man to dominate others
20. A political concept that defines the beliefs, attitudes and values of a society is
called
(A) Political socialization
(B) Political culture
(C) Political transformation
(D) Referendum
21. The benefits of separation of powers include the following except
(A) Prevention of tyranny
(B) Check of abuse
(C) Promoting democracy with free and fair elections
(D) Avoidance of arbitrariness
22. The first black American president was sworn into office on
(A) 17th Jan, 2009
(B) 19th Jan, 2009
(C) 18th Jan, 2009
(D) 20th Jan, 2009
23. In a federal system
(A) The centre is weak
(B) Plurality is abnormal
(C) There is nothing like autonomous units
(D) There is unity in diversity
24. Who is regarded as a father of communism?
(A) Kari Marx
(B) V.I. Lenin
(C) Benito Mussolloni
(D) A.V.Dicey
25. 1976 local government elections in Nigeria was based on
(A) Multi-party system
(B) Two-party system
(C) Zero-party system
(D) One-party system
26. A scholar that is known with the principle of right to life, right to personal
liberty/property is
(A) Thomas Hobbes
(B) Jean Bodin
(C) Harold Laxwell
(D) John Locke
27. Which of these men introduced indirect rule in Nigeria?
(A) Mungo Park
(B) Dr. Nnamdi Azikwe
(C) Lord Luggard
(D) Sir James Roberson
Page 46 of 55
28. Local government areas in Nigeria are officially delineated?

(A) 654
(B) 650
(C) 820
(D) 774
29. Which of the following political parties did not participate in the 1979 general
elections in Nigeria?
(A) Unity party of Nigeria
(B) National party of Nigeria
(C) Social democratic party
(D) Great Nigeria people’s party
30. Democracy means a system of government in which
(A) The majority rule
(B) The minority rule
(C) There is no party system
(D) None of the above
31. Democracy was first practiced in
(A) Ghana
(B) United state of America
(C) Greece
(D) Britain
32. All but one of the following is not a symbol of political culture
(A) A national flag
(B) The government
(C) An anthem
(D) The constitution
33. Nigeria’s first participation in United nations Peace-keeping operation was in
(A) Angola
(B) Congo
(C) Chad
(D) Lebanon
34. The greatest factors that influenced Nigeria’s foreign policy in the early part
of the Gowon regime was
(A) The oil boom
(B) Afro centrism
(C) Angola-Nigeria defense pact
(D) The civil war
35. One of the greatest advocate of socialism was
(A) Kari marx
(B) A.V.Dicey
(C) Adam Smith
(D) Baron deMontesqueu
36. The centenary anniversary of the amalgamation of northern and southern
Nigeria will be celebrated in
(A) 2060
(B) 2063
Page 47 of 55
(C) 2014
(D) 2007
37. A major issues distinguishes pressure groups from political parties is
(A) Membership drive
(B) Objectives
(C) Voting pattern
(D) Ideology
38. A nation consists of people with
(A) Common history
(B) Common ancestry
(C) A shared set of values
(D) A,B,C above
39. A totalitarian state is based on
(A) Multi-party system
(B) Total protection of civil right
(C) The totality of the state processes
(D) Cohesion as the instrument of government.
40. In the pre-colonial Yoruba political system, legislative functions were
performed by the
(A) Alaafin
(B) Ogboni
(C) Oyomesi
(D) Itari
ANSWERS TO THE ABOVE QUESTIONS
1A 2B 3B 4 D 5 D 6 A 7 C 8 A 9 A 10 C 11 D 12 B 13 C 14 A 15 C
16 C 17 B 18 B 19 A 20 B 21 A 22 D 23 D 24 A 25 D 26 B 27 C 28 D 29 C
30 A 31C 32 B 33 B 34 A 35 A 36 C 37 B 38 A 39 C 40 C
Page 48 of 55
11) Two progressive waves of frequency

PHYSICS 300Hz are superimposed adjacent modes
are 1.5m apart. Calculate the speed of the
1) The energy contained in wire when it is progressive waves.
extended by 0.02m by a force of 500N 12) A listener can detect the instrument from
is which a note is being sounded due to the
a. 10 -1J b. 10-3 J c. 10J d. 5J fact that different instruments produce the
2) A 5g block is released from rest on a same note with different.
Smooth plane inclined at an angle of a. Overtone b. Intensity
300 to the horizontal. What is the c. Loudness d. Frequencies
acceleration down the plane? 13) Determine the amount of heat generated
a. 5.0ms-3 b. 8.7m-2 in a load of resistance 8-ohms if an
c. 25ms-2 d. 5.8ms-2 9 = 10ms-2 alternating current of peak value 5A
3) A 500kg car was initially at rest passes through it of 100s
traveled with an acceleration of 5ms2 , a. 20kj b. 40kj c. 5kj d. 4kj
what is it’s kentic energy after 4s? 14) The relationship between the directions of
a. 2.5 c 103J b. 105J the magnetic field, the current and the
c. 5 x 103J d. 5 x 10 5J motion of a current – carrying wire in the
4) The temperature at which the water field is easily remembered using.
vapour in the air saturates th air and a. Maxwell’s screw rule
begins to condense is b. Ampere’s swimming rule
a. boiling point b. Triple pt c. Right – land grip rule
c. Dew point d. Melting pt d. Fleming’s left hand rule
5) The period of a sample pendulum will 15) Calculate the length of displaced….
Increase by what factor if its Pendulum bob that passes its lowest point
inextensible length increased by a twice every second. (g=10m/S2)
factor of four a. 1.000m b. 0.253m
a. 2 b. 4 c. 2 d. ¼ c. 0.450m d. 0.58m
6) The speed of light in air is 16) A vehicle of mass m is driven by an
3 c 108ms-1, if the refractive index of engine of power P from rest. Find
Light in water minimum time it will take to acquire a
a. 2.25 c 108 ms -2 b. 2.25 x 10 8 speed.
7) It is known that an atomic nucleus a. Mv2
comprises of positively charged protons. P
Which of the following also exist in the b. Mv2
Nucleus. 2P
a. A beta particle b. An alpha particle c. Mv
c. A neutron d. An neutron 2p
8) The silver wall of a flask of a vacuum d. Mv
prevents heart loss due to 2p
a. Conduction b. Convection 17. A nail is pulled from a wall with a sting
c. Radiation d. Diffraction tied to the nail. If the string is included
9) The electromagnetic waves that are at angle of 300 to the wall and the tension
sensitive to temperature changes are in the string is 50 N, the effective force
a. Ultar-violet rays b. Gamma –rays used in pulling the nail is:
c. Infra-rays d. X-ray a. 25N b. 25 3N c. 50 N d. 5 N
10) A car engine uses 28KW useful power 18) A 70kg man ascends a flight of stairs of
to provide driving force of 600N that height 4 in 7 s. the power expanded by
moves the car at a constant speed. the man is:
Calculate the speed of the car a. 40W b. 100W c. 280W d. 400W
Page 49 of 55
a. 40ms-1 b. 25ms-1 c. 4.0ms-1 d. 2.5ms-1

19) The scent from a jar of perfume opened in 29) A platinum resistance thermometer has a
one corner of a room is picked up in resistance of 4ohms at 0 0 C and 10ohms at
another part of the room. The perfume 1000 C, assuming the resistance changes
move through the air molecules by uniformly with temperature; calculate the
a. Evaporation b. Osmosis resistance of the thermometer when the
c. Diffusion d. Convection temperature is 450C.
20) A convex lens of focal length 10.0cm is a. 14.0 ohms b. 6.7 ohms
Used to form a real which is half the size c. 3.2 ohm d. 2.7 ohms
of the object. How far from object is the 30) Two bodies, P and Q are in thermal
image? equilibrium, which of the following
21) An object of height 3.00cm is placed 10m statements about the bodies is correct?
in front of a biconvex lens of focal length a. The temperature time of Q is highest
15cm. the image of the objects. than that of P.
a. Real and 3.00cm tall b. P and Q have the same heart capacity
b. Virtual and 3.00cm tall c. P and Q have the same mass
c. Virtual and 9.0cm tall d. P and Q at the same temperature
d. Real and 9.00cm tall 31) Which of the following is not one of the
22) The most suitable type of mirror used for assumptions of kinetic theory?
the construction of a searchlight is the a. All collision are elastic
a. Concave mirror b. Spherical mirror b. The molecules move in a straight line
c. Convex mirror d. Parabolic mirror before collusion
23) Light waves and ripples of water are c. The number of molecules in small
similar because both volume is small
a. Are longitudinal waves d. All molecules are identical for a
b. Can be diffracted and reflected given
c. Have the same velocity gas
d. Have the same frequency 32) The magnetic force on a moving charge
24) Three 4-resistor were and connected in cannot change its speed because
series by ‘Tole while Ade connected the a. The force is perpendicular to the
same set of resistor in parallel. The ratio direction of motion
of the value obtained by Ade to that b. The force is zero
obtained by ‘Tola is: c. The force is in the direction of motion
a. 1:2 b. 1:9 c. 1:10 d. 1:5 d. There is no motion at all.
25) The principle of operation of an induction 33) Water flows through a tube at the rate of
coil is based on 500cm3/s. What is the rate in litres/hr?
a. Ohm’s law b. Ampere’s law a. 5.2x 10/hr b. 1.8 x 10 3 lit/hr
c. Faraday’s law d. Coulomb’s law c. 1.4 x 10/hr d. 2.2 x 10-17hr
26) The half life of radioactive element is 9 34) A uniform metre rule of mass 90g is
days. What fraction of atoms decayed in pivoted at the 40cm mark. If the rule is
36 days? in equilibrium with an unknown mass,
a. 1/16 b. ¼ c. ½ d. 15/16 m, placed at the 10cm mark and a 72g
27) A piece of metal of relative density 5.0 mass at 70cm mark determine, m
Weight N in air calculates its weight when a. 72g b. 102g c. 198g d. 804g
fully immersed in water. 35) A projectile is launched horizontally from
a. 4/5 N b. 5 N c. 48 N d. 60 N the top of a cliff 200m above the sea with
28) A force acts on a body for 0.5 0 changing its a velocity of 40m’s. How long does it
momentum from 16.0kgms1 to 21.0kgms-1 take to hit the sea (take g = = 10m/s)
calculate the magnitude of the force. a. 5.3s b. 10.3s c. 4.3s d. 6.3s
-1
36) A bus traveling at 15ms Pageaccelerates
50 of 55
-2
uniformly at 4ms . What is the distance
covered in 10S?
a. 12.0N b. 37.0N d. 32.0N d. 10.0N
37) What is the efficiency of a crane that used

current of SA at 150V to raise 450Kg
load at the rate of -7m every minutes.
a. 42.9% b. 29.4% c. 49.2% d. 92.4%
38) At what angle would a concave mirror
reflect a ray of light incident on it passing
through the curvature of the mirror?
a. 1800 b. 45 0 c. 9 0 d. 90 0
39) A heater of resistance 9 ohm is connected
to a cell of emf/24V, and internal
resistance 3 ohm. What current is
drawing from the cell?
40) If a 3kg mass is made to show down from
a speed of 65cms-1 to 15cms-1 in 0.25,
what average resistance force acted on the
mass?
a. 0.75N b. 75N c. 7.5N d. 650N
Page 51 of 55
MATHEMATICS
1. The interior angles of a pentagon are: 180 0.800. 780, and x. the value of x is
a. 750 b. 1800 c. 120 0 d. 840
2. All the vertices of an isosceles triangle lie on a circle and each of the base angles
of the triangles is 65 0 the angle subtended at the centre of the by the base of the
triangle is:
a. 1300 b. 1150 c. 1000 d. 65 0
3. The volume of a certain sphere is numerically equal to twice its surface area, the
diameter of the sphere is:
a. 6 b. 9 c. 12 d. 6
4. Simplify 1+2-3÷ [(1+ 2 of 6)}]
3 7
a. -8
33
b. 22
11
c. 33
21
d. -21
8
5. If 1 + 1 = 5, find x
1 + 1
1 + 1/x
a. 3
7
b. 7
3
c. -3
7
d. -7
3
6. How long it takes a sum of money invested at 8% simple interest to double the
original sum?
a. 8 years b. 10.5 years
c. 12 years d. 12.5 years
7. If x = 0.0012 + 0.00074 + 0.003174, what is the difference between X to decimal
places and x to 2 significant figure?
a. 0.01 b. 0.0051
b. 0.1 c. 0.005
8. The angle of depression of two points A are on a place filed from the top of a mast
erect between A and B are 300 and 45 0 respectively if A is westward of B, find
/AB/ if the height of the mast is 15m from the field.
a. 15 3m b. 5 (3 + 3)m
c. 15(1+ 3)m d. 15( 3-1)
Page 52 of 55
9. In a survey of 100 students in an institution 80 students speak Yoruba, 22 speak

Igbo, while 6 speak neither Igbo nor Yoruba. How many students speak Yoruba
and Igbo?
a. 96 b. 8 c. 64 d. 12
10. C
D
B
Q
A T1
T
TQ is tangent to the circle ABCDT, angle
DTQ =400, angle ATT=300, then angle A7 is
a. 700 b. 900 c. 2500 d. 1100
11. The expression a3 + b3 is equal to
a. (a3 + b)(a-ab÷b2)
b. (a-b2) (a2-ab-b2)
c. (a-b) (a2+abb2)
d. (a+b) (a2-ab÷b2)
12. A Cylinder has height 4cm and base radius its volunieto 3 significant figure is
a. 314cm2
b. 31.42cm2
c. 251.4cm2
d. 251cm2
13. Let log y + log 3 = 3. Then, y is
a. 10 ’
x
b. x ’
10
-3
c. x
10
-4/3
d. 10
x
14. A cyclist rode for 30 minutes at x km/hr and due to a breakdown he had to push the
byke for 2hrs at x -5km/hr. If the total distance covered is less than 60km, what is
the range of values for x?
a. x < 14
b. x < 20
c. x < 29
d. x < 28
Dividing 2x1 – x- 2 – 5x + 1 by x + 3 give the remainder
a. -3 b. 47 c. 61 d. -47
Page 53 of 55
15. Find A2 + AB-2A

a. -5 -9
12 14
-1 -1
b.
-4 7
-4 -4
c.
12 13
0 -4
d.
-8 -6
18. Two fair coins are lossed simultaneously. What is the probability of obtaining at
least 1 tail turns up?
a. 1
4
b. 3
4
c. 1
2
d. 1
19. A bag contains 10 balls of which 3 are rd and 77 are white. Two balls are drawn at
V random. Find the probability of none of the ball is red is red if the draw is with
replacement
a. 09 b. 1 c. 0.4 d. 0.49
20. Without replacement

a. 0.1 b. 0.47 c. 0.42 d. 0.21
21. Regular polygon has each of it angles as 160 0 What is the number of sides of the
polygon?
a. 36 b. 9 c. 18 d. 20
22. Find the number of terms in an arithmetic progression given that the first and last
terms are 31 and 37 a respectively and that its common difference is 4a.
a. 20 b. 15 c. 10 d. 620
23. Assuming that log 4.4-1.4816 and log, 7.7=2.01 42 then the value of log 7/4 is
a. 3.3958 b. 1.3594 c. 0.5326 d. 0.4816
24. Find the derivation of log a (3+2)

a. 3
3x +2
b. 3 log
3x + 2
c. 3
log
d. 1/3 log
Page 54 of 55
25. Find the remainder when 4x3 + 6x2+3x+2 is divided by 2x + 3

a. /5 b. -5/2 c. 2 d. 5
26. In an examination 18 candidates passed Mathematics, 17 candidates passes Physics
11 candidates passed both subjects and one candidate failed both subject. Find the
number of candidates that passed Mathematics only.
a. 6 b. 17 c. 2 d. 3
Page 55 of 55

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7. 375cm3 of a gas pressure of 770mmHq. Find the volume if the pressure is

13. Calculate the solubility in gdm-3 at 298k of calcium fluoride in a solution

19. Which one has dumb-bell shape with a directional nature?

20. Which one has the lowest quanta?

22. In a laboratory 1.55grams of an organic compound containing carbon, hydrogen

2. One of the following is not an agricultural program in Nigeria

3. The ginnery industry uses which of the following raw material?

5. The humpless breed of cattle which also possess short horn is

6. Which of the husbandry practices is not carried out on pig farming?

8. Selection of breeding male based in the performance of their female relatives is

7. Debeaking is important in poultry production (a) Stops excessive eating (b)

14. Which of the following is an Agricultural Extension Programme (a) Individual

INSTRUCTION: If the numbers 485676321235 is CHRONOMETER, use this

12. Castigate wrongdoing: (a) Congratulate: Success (b) Amputate: Crime

14. APOSTATE: BELIEF: (a) Patriot: Tolerance (b) Libertine: Debauchery

29. An indispensable aspect of the constitution of a democratic state is (a) Press

Use the sample above to answer questions 45 – 49

45. (a) 25 (b) 15 (c) 10 (d) 8 (e) 4

46. (a) 8 (b) 12 (c) 16 (d) 32 (e) 52

48. (a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 16 (d) 22 (e) 55

Use the above sample to answer question 54 – 55

Use the above sample to answer questions 56 – 58

(a) 100 (b) 4 (c) ¼ (d) 8 (e) 110

APTITUDE TEST (1-50)

3. Which of the following is the correct response to the following expression? I

8. (a) Nigeria (b) South Africa (c) Ghana (d) Togo

What are the full meanings of the following acronyms in questions 16 – 20

17. NEEDS (a) National Economic Empowerment Development Strategy (b)

In coded “UNIVERSITY” is written as 8143925670. Use this to answer questions 33-35

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18. General Abdulsalam Abubakar returned power to democratically elected president

20. A motion demanding self-governance in Nigeria in 1956 was introduced in the

ANSWER TO CURRENT AFFAIRS QUESTIONS

1. What happened first?

A. While the family still lived in Scotland

3. What did John Muir do soon after he arrived in San Francisco?

A. He ran outside during an earthquake

4. When did John Muir meet Theodore Roosevelt?

A. Between 1901 and 1906

5. What happened last?

A. John Muit died.

7. When using a file_______

A. Always bear down on the return stroke

8. When working on soft metals, you can

9. Protect your hands by

A. Julling the teeth

11. This incident occurred in the

12. Sojourner truth was raised in a damp cellar in

13. Isabella lost both parents by the time she was

14. When New York freed its slaves, Isabella had

15. Her change in name was inspired by

16. She traveled from New England to

17. She forced the city of Washington to

A. Integrate its trolleys

18. She preached against

19. Sojourner Truth died at

20. What happened first?

A. Sailors took tortoises aboard ships