PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI

THANH HÓA ĐỘI DỰ TUYỂN TỈNH

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC NĂM HỌC 2019-2020

Số báo danh Môn thi: Tiếng Anh

..................... Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Ngày thi:
Đề này có 06 trang.

SECTION A – LISTENING (15 pts)

HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU

* Bài nghe gồm 3 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau khoảng 15 giây, mở đầu và kết
thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu.
* Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. Thí sinh có 3 phút để hoàn chỉnh bài trước tín hiệu
nhạc kết thúc bài nghe.
* Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.
Section I. You will hear a radio interview with Jack William, who is talking about a town called
Swanton. For each question, write your answer A, B or C in the numbered box below. (6 pts)
1. Where is the town of Swanton located?
A. near the sea B. by a lake C. on a hill
2. What does Jack like most about living in Swanton?
A. There are opportunities for climbing nearby.
B. There is plenty of activity in the town.
C. There is interesting wildlife near the town.
3. What does Jack say about entertainment in Swanton?
A. a music festival takes place in the town
B. Its football club has done well this year.
C. An arts centre has recently opened.
4. Jack is worried about the environment of Swanton because
A. the water in the river is dirty.
B. There are few wild birds around today.
C. pollution has destroyed the plants in one area.
5. What does Jack say about the way Swanton has changed?
A. He preferred the town when it was smaller.
B. He thinks it is a more interesting place.
C. He is sorry that there are fewer jobs available.
6. Jack is positive about the future of Swanton because.
A. there is a successful new shopping centre.
B. there will soon be a new airport.
C. a new university is opening.
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Section II. You will hear a woman talking on the radio about a singing course she attended. For
each question, fill in the missing information in the numbered space. Write NO MORE THAN
THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer (9 pts)
SINGING FOR BEGINNERS
Place: Brownstoke College
Course details:
• The course lasts (7) ……………………………
• Lena Phipps, a very good former (8) ………………………….., singer is the tutor.
• The maximum number of students per course is (9) …………………………
• All classes start with exercises that helps students to (10) …………………..
• The warm-up exercises are followed to (11) …………………… the quality of voice.
• Students learn to sing (12) ………………………., modern and pop songs.
• Accommodation is in single or (13) ………………………….. rooms.
• Cooked breakfast, lunch and dinner are included.
• There’s a very good lunch, especially (14) ……………………………
• Date the next course starts (15) ……………………………., 24th September.

SECTION B: PHONETICS (5 pts)

Question I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the
same line. (3 pts)
16. A. pour B. flour C. scour D. sour
17. A. teethe B. wreath C. southern D. worthy
18. A. hatred B. relieved C. dogged D. sacred
Question II. Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words in
each question. (2 pts)
19. A. visit B. broadcast C. refer D. travel
20. A. mysterious B. competent C. temperate D. pregnancy
SECTION C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 pts)
Question I. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (10 pts)
21. He is really shy_________ girl.
A. by B. at C. for D. with
22. He always takes full ______ of the mistakes made by these competitors.
A. advantage B. benefit C. profit D. advice
23. Everyone was going away on holiday this week, ______ ?
A. wasn’t it B. wasn’t he C. weren’t they D. wasn’t she
24. The flight instructor, ________ at the air base, said that orders not to flight had been given
A. when interviewed B. when he interviewed
C. when his interview D. when interviewing
25. The jokes Jack tells are as old as _________.
A. the earth B. the mountains C. the hills D. the oceans
26. The material world greatly influences ________ young people________ old people.
A. x/ more than B. far more/ than C. x/ greater than D. as/ as
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27. It was a service _________I will be eternally grateful.
A. to which B. for which C. to whom D. for whom
28. The government is thinking of ________ law to make it compulsory for cyclists to wear helmet.
A. bringing in B. bringing up C. bringing down D. bringing forward
29. The actor never____________ the potential he showed in his early career.
A. fulfilled B. assumed C. gained D. accomplished
30. He got an excellent grade in his examination _________the fact that he head not worked
particularly hard.
A. on account of B. because C. in spite of D. although
Question II. Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. (8 pts)
31. Were the painting genuine, it (be) worth thousands of pounds.
32. My uncle would rather that I (not leave) yesterday.
33. Alex has a test tomorrow that he needs to study for. He (not watch) TV right now.
34-35. He (hope) _______ that he (graduate)_________ this semester but he couldn’t finish this
thesis in time.
36. Fred was pleased (admit) to the college.
37. It’s imperative that the wildlife program (broadcast)_________.
38. “We need better traffic rules.” “Yes, then there (not be) so many accidents.
Question III. Supply the correct form of the words given. (7 pts)
39. Have you read the latest about Ronaldo’s private life? (REVEAL)
40. He works for UNESCO in a purely role. (ADVICE)
41. The sun and the moon are often . (PERSON)
42. This city has over half a million (INHABIT)
43. They told me the museum was open today but I was obviously _________. (INFORM)
44. People used to suffer from their life-time physical . (NORMAL)
45. Playing a sport together will teach your children about fair play, and (SPORT)
working with others.
Question IV. There are FIVE mistakes in the text (from 46 to 50). Identify each mistake, write it
down and give your correction. (5pts)
As far back as 700 B.C, man has talked about children to be cared for by wolves. 1. ____
Romulus and Remus, the legendary twin founders of Rome, were purported to have 2. ____
been cared for by wolves. It is believed that when a she-wolf loses her litter, she 3. ____
seeks a human child to take its place. 4. ____
This seeming preposterous idea did not become credible until the late nineteenth 5. ____
century when a French doctor actually found a naked ten-year-old boy wandering in 6. ____
the woods. He did not walk erect, could not speak intelligibly, or could lie relate to 7. ____
people. He only growled and stared of them. Finally the doctor won the boy's 8. ____
confidence and began to work with him. After many long years of devoted and 9. ____
patient instruction, the doctor was able to have the boy to clothe and feed himself, 10. ____
recognize and utter a number of words, as well as write letters and form words. 11. ____
SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)
Question I. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE
word in each space (10pts)
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 The American flag is the end product of a long evolution. Each of its component parts has its own
history. The very first American flag was (51)_____ in the skies over Boston on January 1, 1776, by the
American forces there. This first flag (52)____ of thirteen red and white stripes representing the number
of American colonies. It also included the British Cross of St. George and Cross of St. Andrew. It could
be considered (53)_______ ironic that these symbols of British rule were included on the American flag
in that the American colonists were fighting (54)______ independence from the British.
The origin of the stars on the current flag is obscure; that is, the stars could possibly have been
taken from the flag of Rhode Island, or they could have been taken from the coat of arms of the
Washington family. According to legend, this first flag with stars was sewn by Betsy Ross, a
Philadelphia seamstress who was (55) for her clever needlework. This (56)________ of the
flag contained thirteen stars and thirteen stripes, one for (57)__________ of the thirteen colonies
battling for independence.
The (58)________ idea was to add one star and one stripe for each state that joined the new,
young country. However, (59) 1818, the number of states had grown to twenty, and it did
not work well to keep adding stripes to the flag. As a result, Congress made the (60) to
revert to the original thirteen stripes representing the thirteen original colonies and adding a star each
time a new state was admitted. This has been the policy ever since.
Question II. Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for
each space. (10 pts)
The British Wind Energy Association was founded 30 years ago by a group of scientists. At
that time, the (61) _____ “alternative energy” was used to describe the generation of wind, water and
solar power. These days, we tend to refer to them as “renewable energy” and the use of this name (62)
_____ a real change in their status. These sources of energy, far from being alternative, have now
become mainstream and are (63) _____ to make a significant contribution to the country’s energy
needs in the future. Two closely linked developments (64) _____ behind this (65) ____ in status.
Firstly, over the past decade or so, the price of oil and gas has been rising (66) _____, reflecting the
extent to which reserves of these fossil fuels are becoming (67) ____. However, price is only part of
the explanation. (68) ____ as important is the growing consensus that carbon emissions must be
curbed. The scientific evidence for climate change is now irrefutable, and both policy makers and the
(69) _____ public are finally in agreement that doing nothing about the prospect of global warming is
no longer a viable option. Renewable energy represents one real way of (70) _____ both issues.
61. A. caption B. title C. term D. label
62. A. regards B. reproduces C. reminds D. reflects
63. A. set B. held C. put D. stood
64. A. sit B. reside C. lie D. recline
65. A. move B. shift C. switch D. jump
66. A. equally B. serenely C. habitually D. steadily
67. A. depleted B. decreased C. depressed D. debased
68. A. Just B. Still C. Much D. Yet
69. A. deeper B. greater C. larger D. wider
70. A. coping B. engaging C. addressing D. dealing
Question III. Read the passage and choose the best answers to the questions below. (10 pts)
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 Millions of people are using cell phones today. In many places, it is actually considered unusual
not to use one. In many countries, cell phones are very popular with young people. They find that the
phones are more than a means of communication – having a mobile phone shows that they are cool
and connected.
The explosion in mobile phone use around the world has made some health professionals worried.
Some doctors are concerned that in the future many people may suffer health problems from the use
of mobile phones. In England, there has been a serious debate about this issue. Mobile phone
companies are worried about the negative publicity of such ideas. They say that there is no proof that
mobile phones are bad for your health.
On the other hand, medical studies have shown changes in the brain cells of some people who use
mobile phones. Signs of change in the tissues of the brain and head can be detected with modern
scanning equipment. In one case, a travelling salesman had to retire at young age because of serious
memory loss. He couldn’t remember even simple tasks. He would often forget the name of his own
son. This man used to talk on his mobile phone for about six hours a day, every day of his working
week, for a couple of years. His family doctor blamed his mobile phone use, but his employer’s
doctor didn’t agree.
What is it that makes mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is radiation. High-tech
machines can detect very small amounts of radiation from mobile phones. Mobile phone companies
agree that there is some radiation, but they say the amount is too small to worry about.
As the discussion about their safety continues, it appears that it’s best to use mobile phones less
often. Use your regular phone if you want to talk for a long time. Use your mobile phone only when
you really need it. Mobile phones can be very useful and convenient, especially in emergencies. In the
future, mobile phones may have a warning label that says they are bad for your health. So for now,
it’s wise not to use your mobile phone too often.
71. According to the passage, cell phones are especially popular with young people because_____.
A. they keep the users alert all the time
B. they make them look more stylish
C. they cannot be replaced by regular phones
D. they are indispensable in everyday communications
72. The word “means” in paragraph 1 most closely means_________.
A. meanings B. expression C. transmission D. method
73. Doctors have tentatively concluded that cell phones may_______.
A. change their users’ social behaviors B. change their users’ temperament
C. cause some mental malfunction D. damage their users’ emotions
74. “Negative publicity” in paragraph 2 most likely means______.
A. widespread opinion about bad effects of cell phones
B. information on the lethal effects of cell phones
C. the negative public use of cell phones
D. poor ideas about the effects of cell phones
75. The changes possibly caused by the cell phones are mainly concerned with______.
A. the smallest units of the brain B. the mobility of the mind and the body
C. the resident memory D. the arteries of the brain
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76. The man mentioned in the passage, who used his cell phone too often, ________.
A. had a problem with memory B. abandoned his family
C. suffered serious loss of mental ability D. could no longer think lucidly
77. The word “potentially” in the paragraph 4 most closely means______.
A. certainly B. obviously C. possibly D. privately
78. According to the passage, what makes mobile phones potentially harmful is______.
A. their radiant light B. their raiding power
C. their power of attraction D. their invisible rays
79. According to the writer, people should ______.
A. keep off mobile phones regularly B. never use mobile phones in all cases
C. only use mobile phones in medical emergencies D. only use mobile phones in urgent cases
80. The most suitable title for the passage could be_______.
A. The Way Mobile Phones Work B. Technological Innovations and Their Price
C. The Reasons Why Mobile Phones Are Popular D. Mobile Phones: A Must of Our Time
SECTION E: WRITING (20 pts)
Question I. Complete each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the
sentence printed above it. (5 pts)
81. According to the report, the Major is in a hurry for the town festival.
→The Major is_________________________________________.
82. She never seems to succeed even though she studies much.
→Much ___.
83. You can ring this number whenever there is any difficulty.
→Should_____________________________________________.
84. I didn’t arrive in time to see her.
→I wasn’t ____________________________________________.
85. The noise next door did not stop until after midnight.
→It was ____.
Question II. Complete the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one, using
the words given. You MUST use between TWO and SIX words. (5 pts)
86. Local residents said they were against the new traffic scheme. (DISAPPROVAL)
→ Local residents _________________________________________ the new traffic scheme.
87. He thinks his friends do not appreciate him. . (GRANTED)
→ He dislikes ________________________________________ by his friends.
88. The news was a shock to us. (ABACK)
→We_______________________________________ _______ the news.
89. She was going to hand in her notice when the boss decided to promote her. (POINT)
→ She ___________________________ in her notice when the boss decided to promote her.
90. I tried to talk to Jack about the problem but he was too busy. (WORD)
→ I tried to ______________________ about the problem but he was too busy.
Question III. Write a paragraph 100 - 150 words about the benefits of taking online courses.

…………….. THE END ……………….

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