CIVIL, ARCHITECTURAL AND

ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING
 FUNDAMENTALS OF ENGINEERING REVIEW

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 MATHEMATICS
1. What is the equation of an ellipse with a center at (0,0) that passes through
points: (-2,0), (0,3), and (2,0) ?

𝑥𝑥 2 𝑦𝑦 2
A) + =1
4 9

𝑥𝑥 2 𝑦𝑦 2
B) + =1
9 4

𝑥𝑥 2 𝑦𝑦 2
C) − =1
4 9

𝑥𝑥 2 𝑦𝑦 2
D) − =1
9 4

2. What is the equation of a sphere with a center at (0,1,-2) and a radius of

9?

A) (𝑥𝑥 + 1)2 + (𝑦𝑦 + 1)2 + (𝑧𝑧 + 2)2 = 9

B) (𝑥𝑥 + 1)2 + (𝑦𝑦 + 1)2 + (𝑧𝑧 + 2)2 = 81

C) 𝑥𝑥 2 + (𝑦𝑦 + 1)2 + (𝑧𝑧 − 2)2 = 81

D) 𝑥𝑥 2 + (𝑦𝑦 − 1)2 + (𝑧𝑧 + 2)2 = 81

3. What are the center coordinates and radius of the circle represented by
the equation,
𝑥𝑥 2 + 𝑦𝑦 2 + 12𝑦𝑦 − 2𝑥𝑥 + 12 = 0

A) (1, -6) ; 12
B) (-1, 6) ; √12
C) (1, -6) ; 25
D) (1, -6) ; 5

4. A (40cm) outside diameter pipe has walls (4cm) thick. What is the area
of flow if it is filled to a depth 1/3 of its diameter?

A) 65 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐2
B) 150 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐2
C) 235 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐2
D) 258 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐2
5. Evaluate the following integral.

� 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 2 𝑥𝑥 sin 𝑥𝑥 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑

1
A) 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠2 𝑥𝑥 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 2 𝑥𝑥 + 𝐶𝐶
2
1
B) 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠3 𝑥𝑥 + 𝐶𝐶
3
1
C) − 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠3 𝑥𝑥 + 𝐶𝐶
3
2
D) − 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠3 𝑥𝑥 + 𝐶𝐶
3

6. What is dy/dx if y = (2𝑥𝑥)𝑥𝑥 ?

A) (2𝑥𝑥)𝑥𝑥 (2 + ln 2𝑥𝑥)

B) 2𝑥𝑥(1 + ln 2𝑥𝑥)𝑥𝑥

C) (2𝑥𝑥)𝑥𝑥 (ln 2𝑥𝑥 2 )

D) (2𝑥𝑥)𝑥𝑥 (1 + ln 2𝑥𝑥)
7. What is the matrix product “AB” of matrices A and B ?

2
A = [1 2 3] B= �−3�
4

2
A) �−6�
12

B) [8]

C) [20]

D) [2 −6 12]

8. What is the determinant of matrix A?

3 2
A=� �
4 6

A) 0
B) 10
C) 18
D) 30
E)
9. What is the cross product, A x B, of vectors A and B ?

𝑨𝑨 = 𝒊𝒊 + 𝟒𝟒𝟒𝟒 + 𝟔𝟔𝟔𝟔
𝑩𝑩 = 𝟐𝟐𝒊𝒊 + 𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑 + 𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓

A) 𝑖𝑖 − 𝑗𝑗 − 𝑘𝑘
B) −𝑖𝑖 + 𝑗𝑗 + 𝑘𝑘
C) 2𝑖𝑖 + 7𝑗𝑗 − 5𝑘𝑘
D) 2𝑖𝑖 + 7𝑗𝑗 + 5𝑘𝑘

10. What is the angle between the two given vectors A and B ?

𝑨𝑨 = 𝟒𝟒𝟒𝟒 + 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 + 𝟔𝟔𝟔𝟔

𝑩𝑩 = 𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐 − 𝟖𝟖𝟖𝟖 + 𝟔𝟔𝟔𝟔

A) -84.3°
B) 84.3°
C) 101.2°
D) 122.4°
11. Given vectors A, B, and C, what is the value of (𝑨𝑨 + 𝑩𝑩) ∙ (𝑩𝑩 + 𝑪𝑪)?

𝑨𝑨 = 𝟒𝟒𝟒𝟒 + 𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐 + 𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐

𝑩𝑩 = 𝟖𝟖𝟖𝟖 + 𝟒𝟒𝟒𝟒 + 𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐
𝑪𝑪 = 𝟔𝟔𝟔𝟔 + 𝟖𝟖𝟖𝟖 + 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏

A) 42

B) 84

C) 122

D) 288
 PROBABILITY AND STATISTICS

12. What is the mean and sample standard deviation of the following
numbers?
71.3
74.0
74.25
78.54
80.6

A) 74.3 ; 2.7
B) 74.3 ; 3.7
C) 75.0 ; 2.7
D) 75.7 ; 3.8

Questions 13 & 14 Refer to the Following Situation

Samples of Aluminum were tested for stiffness. The following frequency
distribution was observed. The distribution is assumed to be normal.
Stiffness Frequency
2480 23
2440 35
2400 40
2360 33
2320 21
13. What is the mean of the observed stiffness measurements?

A) 2367
B) 2398
C) 2402
D) 2419

14. What is the standard deviation of the population from which the
samples were taken?

A) 19
B) 23
C) 37
D) 51

15. If you toss a standard coin 10 times, what is the probability of getting
exactly 4 heads?

A) 0.1
B) 0.2
C) 0.4
D) 0.5
 COMPUTATIONAL TOOLS

16. In a spreadsheet, the number in Cell A4 is set to 6. Then A5 is set to

A4+$A$4. This formula is copied into Cells A6 and A7 with automatic
referencing. The number shown in Cell A7 is _______.

A) 6
B) 12
C) 18
D) 24

17. A spreadsheet display shows the following values in Column A:

A B
1 -2
2 -1
3 0
4 1
5 2

Cell B1 contains the formula $A1^3 + A$1^2-3. The formula in Cell B1 is

copied down in Column B with automatic referencing. The formula in Cell
B5 will be:

A) $A1^3+A$5^2_3
B) A5^3+B$1^2-3
C) $A5^3+A$1^2-3
D) A5^3+A5^2-3
18. The following segment of code describes a segment of a program:

Set A = 17
Set K = 2
While K ≤ 4
A = A/K
K=K+1
End While
Print A

The value of A that is printed is most nearly:

A) 0.71
B) 2.83
C) 4.25
D) 408

19. The flowchart for a computer program contains the following

segment:

VAR = 0
IF VAR < 5, THEN VAR = VAR + 2
OTHERWISE EXIT LOOP
LOOP

What is the value of VAR at the end of this routine?

A) 0
B) 2
C) 4
D) 6
 ETHICS AND PROFESSIONAL PRACTICE

20. An engineering professor with a professional engineering license and

20 years of experience in engineering education is asked to consult on a
building design. Can the professor accept this request?

A) Yes, but she should review and comment on only those portions of the
project in which she is qualified by education and experience.
B) Yes, a professor is a subject matter expert and as such should be fully
competent to review the design.
C) Yes, as a licensed professional engineer, the professor has demonstrated
her competence I engineering and may review the design.
D) No, there is a tremendous difference between working in academia and
having professional experience. The review should be conducted by a
practicing engineer.

21. Complete the sentence: “State registration boards, boards of ethical

review, oversight committees, and internal audit departments ae used
in industry and government because ________

I. illegal and unethical actions must be punished.”

II. people must be shown that the rules will be enforced.”
III. there is something to be learned from all errors in judgement.”

A) I only
B) II only
C) III only
D) I, II, and III
22. Two engineers submitted sealed bids to a prospective client for a
design project. The client told engineer “A” how much engineer “B” had
bid and invited engineer “A” to beat that amount. Engineer “A” would
like to perform the project and believes he is the best choice for the job.
What should he do?

A) He should submit another bid, but only if he can perform the work
adequately at he reduced price.
B) He should withdraw from consideration for the project.
C) He should remain in consideration for the project, but not change his
bid.
D) He should bargain with the client for the cost of the work.
23. A local engineering professor acts as the technical advisor for the
local city council. A few weeks before the council is scheduled to award
a large construction contract, the professor is approached by one the
competing companies and offered a consulting position. Under what
circumstances would it be ethical to accept the job?

A) Both the company and council must know about, and approve of the
arrangement.
B) The professor should arrange not to begin work until after the council’s
vote.
C) The professor may accept the job if the advisory position to the council
is on a voluntary basis
D) The professor must not participate in any discussions concerning the
project for which the company is competing.
 ENGINEERING ECONOMICS

24. A warehouse building was purchased 10 years ago for $250,000.

Since then, the effective annual interest rate has been 8%, inflation has
been steady at 2.5%, and the building has had no deterioration or
decrease in utility. What should the warehouse sell for today?

A) $427,000
B) $540,000
C) $678,000
D) $691,000

25. A mine is projected to produce $20,000 during its first year of

operation, $19,000 the second year, $18,000 the third year, and so on. If
the mine is expected to produce for a total of 10 years, and the effective
annual interest rate is 6%, what is the present worth?

A) $118,000
B) $125,000
C) $150,000
D) $177,000
26. An excavator initially costing $25,000 will have a salvage value of
$6,000 after five years. Using MACRS depreciation, what will its book
value be after the third year?

A) $5,470
B) $7,200
C) $10,000
D) $13,600

27. The construction of a break room for a company is expected to cost

$1,200 and have annual maintenance costs of $300. At an effective
annual interest rate of 5%, what is the project’s capitalized cost?

A) $1,500
B) $2,700
C) $7,200
D) $18,000
 STATICS

28. The five forces shown act at Point “A”. What is the magnitude of the
resultant force?

A) 32 N
B) 156 N
C) 182 N
D) 234 N

29. An angle bracket is subjected to the forces and couple shown.

Determine the equivalent force-couple system at point “A”.
A) 114 N at 15.3°; 50 N·m
B) 292 N at -5.9°; 103 N·m
C) 292 N at 174.1°; -103 N·m
D) 333 N at 42.9°; 53 N·m

30. A support is acted upon by a moment and several concentrated

forces, as shown. Find the missing force “F” and corresponding distance
“X” that will maintain equilibrium on the member shown.

A) 𝐹𝐹 = 5 𝑁𝑁; 𝑥𝑥 = 0.8 𝑚𝑚
B) 𝐹𝐹 = 10 𝑁𝑁; 𝑥𝑥 = 0.6 𝑚𝑚
C) 𝐹𝐹 = 20 𝑁𝑁; 𝑥𝑥 = 0.2 𝑚𝑚
D) 𝐹𝐹 = 20 𝑁𝑁; 𝑥𝑥 = 0.4 𝑚𝑚
31. Where can a couple be moved on a rigid body to have an equivalent
effect?

A) Along the line of action

B) In a parallel plane
C) Along the perpendicular bisector joining the two original forces
D) Anywhere on the rigid body

32. Three concurrent forces act as shown. If the forces are in equilibrium,
and 𝐹𝐹2 is 11 N, what is the magnitude of 𝐹𝐹1 ?

A) 8 𝑁𝑁
B) 10 𝑁𝑁
C) 11 𝑁𝑁
D) 12 𝑁𝑁
33. Determine the force in member “AG” for the pin-connected truss
shown.

A) 25,000 N (compression)
B) 31,500 N (compression)
C) 37,500 N (tension)
D) 50,000 N (tension)
34. Find the force in member “BC”.

A) 16,000 𝑁𝑁 (𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡)
B) 50,000 𝑁𝑁 (𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡)
C) 50,000 𝑁𝑁 (𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐)
D) 52,700 𝑁𝑁 (𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐)
35. Find the tension “T”, that must be applied to Pulley “A” to lift the
1,200 N weight.

A) 100 𝑁𝑁
B) 300 𝑁𝑁
C) 400 𝑁𝑁
D) 600 𝑁𝑁

36. A 2 kg block rests on a 34° incline. If the coefficient of static friction is

0.2, how much additional force, 𝐹𝐹1 , must be applied to keep the block
from sliding down the incline?

A) 7.7 𝑁𝑁
B) 8.8 𝑁𝑁
C) 9.1 𝑁𝑁
D) 14 𝑁𝑁
 DYNAMICS

37. The velocity (in m/s) of a falling object is described by the equation
𝑣𝑣 = 32 + 𝑡𝑡 + 6𝑡𝑡 2 . What is the acceleration at time 𝑡𝑡 = 2𝑠𝑠?

A) 9.8 m/𝑠𝑠 2
B) 25 m/𝑠𝑠 2
C) 32 m/𝑠𝑠 2
D) 58 m/𝑠𝑠 2

38. The location of a particle moving in the 𝑥𝑥 − 𝑦𝑦 plane is given the

parametric equations 𝑥𝑥 = 𝑡𝑡 2 + 4𝑡𝑡, and 𝑦𝑦 = (1/4)𝑡𝑡 4 − 60𝑡𝑡, where 𝑥𝑥
and 𝑦𝑦 are in meters and 𝑡𝑡 is in seconds. What is the particle’s velocity at
𝑡𝑡 = 4𝑠𝑠 ?

A) 8.95 m/s
B) 11.3 m/s
C) 12.6 m/
D) 16.0 m/s
39. A projectile is fired from a cannon with an initial velocity of 1000 m/s
and at an angle of 30° from the horizontal. What distance from the
cannon will the projectile strike the ground if the point of impact is 1500
m below the point of release?

A) 8200 m
B) 16,000 m
C) 67,300 m
D) 90,800 m

40. For the pump shown, the radius of the crank is 𝑟𝑟 = 0.3 𝑚𝑚, and the
rotational speed is 𝑛𝑛 = 350 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟. What is the tangential velocity of
Point “A” on the crank corresponding to an angle of 𝜃𝜃 = 35° from
horizontal?

A) 0 m/s
B) 1.1 m/s
C) 10 m/s
D) 11 m/s
41. The position (in rad) of a vehicle traveling around a curve is
described by the function of time (in seconds).

𝜃𝜃(𝑡𝑡) = 𝑡𝑡 3 − 2𝑡𝑡 2 − 4𝑡𝑡 + 10

What is the angular velocity at 𝑡𝑡 = 3𝑠𝑠 ?

A) -16 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 /𝑠𝑠

B) -4 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 /𝑠𝑠
C) 11 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 /𝑠𝑠
D) 15 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 /𝑠𝑠
 MECHANICS OF MATERIALS

42. For the beam loaded as shown, which of the following diagrams
correctly represents the shape of the shear diagram? (Diagram not to
scale)
43. For the beam shown, find the vertical shear at point “B”.

A) 9.2 kN
B) 170 kN
C) 390 kN
D) 400 kN

44. The pressure gauge in an air cylinder reads 1,680 kPa. The cylinder is
constructed of a 12 mm rolled-steel plate with an internal diameter of
700 mm. The tangential stress (MPa) inside the tank is most nearly:

A) 25
B) 50
C) 77
D) 100
45. Which of the following is true when a circular shaft is subjected to
torsion force only?
A) Maximum shear stress occurs at the outermost fibers
B) No shear stress is present throughout the shaft
C) Constant shear stress occurs throughout the shaft
D) Maximum shear stress occurs at the center of the shaft

46. A hollow aluminum shaft has one end fixed, and one end attached to
a gear with an outside diameter of 40 cm as shown. The gear is
subjected to a tangential force of 45 kN. The aluminum has a shear
modulus of 2.8 × 1010 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃. What is the maximum angle of twist in the
shaft?

A) 0.016 rad
B) 0.025 rad
C) 0.057 rad
D) 0.250 rad
47. A 10 kg axial load is uniformly carried by an aluminum pipe with an
outside diameter of 10 cm, and an inside diameter of 9.6 cm. The length
of the pipe is 1.2 m. The modulus of elasticity is 7.5 × 104 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀. How
mush is the pipe compressed?

A) 0.00026 mm
B) 0.0026 mm
C) 0.11 mm
D) 25 mm

48. A straight bar with a uniform cross-section is placed under tension.

The cross-section is 6.5 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐2 , and the length is 4𝑚𝑚. When the tensile
loading reaches 85kN, total elongation is 2.5 mm. What is the modulus
of elasticity?

A) 210 𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝑎𝑎
B) 240 𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺
C) 270 𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺
D) 300 𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺
49. Using Mohr’s circle, what is the maximum shear stress on the
following element?

A) 20 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀
B) 42 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀
C) 45 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀
D) 50 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀

50. A rectangular steel beam is held between two rigid supports 2.25m
apart. The modulus of elasticity of the steel is 2100 𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺, the coefficient
of thermal expansion is 11.7 × 10−6 /°𝐶𝐶 . The cross-sectional area of
the beam is 6.5 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐2 . If the temperature of the beam increases by 30° C,
what is the stress induced in the beam?

A) 67.5 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀 (𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐)

B) 73.7 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀 (𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐)
C) 99.5 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀 (𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡)
D) 166 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀 (𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡)
 MATERIALS

51. The following preliminary concrete mix has been designed assuming
the aggregates are in oven-dry conditions.

𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊 = 305 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙/𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦3

𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶 = 693 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙/𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦 3
𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 (𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆) = 1,674 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙/𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦 3
𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 (𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆) = 1,100 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙/𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦 3

The properties of the aggregates used are as follows:

The amount of water (𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙/𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦3 ) that would be used in the final mix is most
nearly:

A) 206
B) 222
C) 305
D) 388
52. The test that measures the energy required to fracture a specimen at
a given temperature is the:

A) Endurance Test
B) Brinell Test
C) Charpy Test
D) Rockwell Test

53. In general, a metal with high hardness will also have:

A) High impact strength

B) High electrical conductivity
C) Good formability
D) High yield strength

54. A flexible pavement system is designed using the AASHTO structural

number design method with the following criteria. If the minimum
thickness of surfacing and base are used, what is the required thickness
(in.) of the subbase?

Minimum Strength
Material
Thickness Coefficient
Asphalt Concrete Surfacing 2 in. 0.44
Aggregate Base 4 in. 0.25
Aggregate Subbase 4 in. 0.10
Design Structural Number = 2.50

A) 4 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖.
B) 4.6 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖.
C) 6.2 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖.
D) 8 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖.
 FLUID MECHANICS
55. The density of the air flowing in a tube is 1.15 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘 /𝑚𝑚3 . A pitot tube is
placed in the duct as shown. The static pressure in the duct is measured
with a pressure gage. Use the gage readings to determine the velocity of
the air.

A) 42 𝑚𝑚/𝑠𝑠
B) 102 𝑚𝑚/𝑠𝑠
C) 110 𝑚𝑚/𝑠𝑠
D) 150 𝑚𝑚/𝑠𝑠

56. What is the atmospheric pressure on a planet if the absolute

pressure is 200 𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾, and the gage pressure is 20 𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾?

A) 20 𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾
B) 100 𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾
C) 180 𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾
D) 220 𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾
57. The pitot tube shown is placed at a point where the velocity is 2.0
m/s. The specific gravity of the fluid is 2.0, and the upper portion of the
manometer contains air. The reading “h” of the manometer is most
nearly:

A) 0.20
B) 0.40
C) 10.0
D) 20.0

58. If the standard density of water is 1,000 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘 /𝑚𝑚3 , a fluid having a
specific gravity of 1.263 and an absolute dynamic viscosity of
1.5 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘 /(𝑚𝑚 ∙ 𝑠𝑠) has a kinematic viscosity (𝑚𝑚2 /𝑠𝑠) of most nearly:

A) 528
B) 1.89 × 10−3
C) 1.50 × 10−3
D) 1.19 × 10−3
 HYDRAULICS AND HYDROLOGIC SYSTEMS

59. A flow of 15.5 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 enters the pipe system at point “A” as shown, the
flow then exits points “B” and “C”. Given the pipe data in the table, and
assuming all pipes are at the same elevation, what is the head loss (ft) of
pipe “CB”?

A) 0.23
B) 0.18
C) 0.13
D) 0.05
60. A 100-acre parcel of land has a rainfall intensity of 1.5 in. /hr and a
rational runoff coefficient “C” of 0.10. The flow rate (cfs) of this site is
most nearly:

A) 10.0
B) 15.0
C) 50.0
D) 75.0

61. A pump station delivers wastewater from a sump at an elevation of

78 ft. to a maintenance hole with a water surface elevation of 112 ft.
The static head (ft) for this pump is most nearly:

A) 17
B) 34
C) 44
D) 78
62. A watershed of 525,000 square feet experiences a rainfall event of
2.5 in/hr. The runoff coefficient “C” is 0.14. The flowrate from this site
is:

A) 1.8 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
B) 4.2 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
C) 8.4 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
D) 106 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐

63. A 2-m wide rectangular channel has a bed slope of 0.0005, a normal
depth of 1.5-m, and a Manning’s roughness coefficient of 0.015. The
critical depth is:

A) 0.32 𝑚𝑚
B) 0.51 𝑚𝑚
C) 0.64 𝑚𝑚
D) 1.28 𝑚𝑚

64. The pressure in a water main at ground level is 85 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝. A engineer

has been hired to design a 5-story building with 12ft between floors.
Neglecting friction losses, the pressure (psi) on the fifth floor will be
most nearly:

A) 26
B) 31
C) 59
D) 111
65. Waste activated sludge has a kinematic viscosity of 20 × 10−5 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 2 /𝑠𝑠,
at the same temperature, water has a kinematic viscosity “𝑣𝑣”, of
10−5 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 2 /𝑠𝑠. The relative roughness of the piping is 0.001. The pressure
drop for the flow of water has been determined to be 1.0𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝, with a
Reynolds number of 107 . If waste activated sludge flows at the same
velocity through the piping system, the pressure drop (𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝), is most
nearly:

A) 1.0
B) 2.0
C) 3.0
D) 4.0

66. Two tanks are connected by a 9,000 ft length of 12-in(I.D.) PVC pipe.
The Hazen-Williams value “C” is 150. Water at 60°F is flowing through
the pipe at a velocity of 10 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 /𝑠𝑠. The tanks are open to the
atmosphere. The entrance, exit and minor losses are negligible. What is
the difference between the water surface elevations in the two tanks?

A) 81 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
B) 167 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
C) 181 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
D) 447 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
67. An area with a composite surface runoff coefficient of 0.65, the
surface runoff flows toward a street from the land on both sides. The
watershed are extends 100ft on each side of the street centerline. The
street has curbs and gutters, and there is a curb inlet (basin) on both
sides of the street. The capacity of a curb inlet to pick up runoff is
10 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐. Local ordinance requires designing for a rainfall event maximum
of 6.8 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 /ℎ𝑟𝑟. The distance between the inlets along the street should
be most nearly:

A) 980
B) 640
C) 490
D) 230

STRUCTURAL ANALYSIS

68. The 40-kip vertical load at Joint C in the steel truss shown produces
the forces given in the accompanying table. The cross-sectional area of
the members is 4.0 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖2 , the lengths are given in the table. The modulus
of elasticity of the steel is 29,000 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘. The downward vertical
displacement of Joint C is:

A) 1.046
B) 0.294
C) 0.132
D) 0.102
69. Determine what type of structure the frame below is:

A) Unstable
B) Stable and Determinate
C) Indeterminate (1 degree)
D) Indeterminate (2 degrees)

70. A concentrated load of 20 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘 moves through the truss shown.

Discounting the weight of the truss, what is the maximum force in
Member “CD” due to the moving load:
A) 50 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘
B) 37.5 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑝𝑝𝑠𝑠
C) 25 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘
D) 12.5 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘
71. Which of the vertical-load influence lines shown is correct for
Member “𝑈𝑈2 𝑈𝑈3 ” of the truss shown below?

A) Option A
B) Option B
C) Option C
D) Option D
72. Match each of the beams diagrammed below with its correct
description.
73. The beam shown is known as a:

A) Simply supported beam

B) Continuously loaded beam
C) Cantilever Beam
D) Statically indeterminate beam
 STRUCTURAL DESIGN

74. The 𝑊𝑊 21 × 57 steel beam shown has the compression flange

braced at the one-third points over its full length. Assume 𝐹𝐹𝑦𝑦 = 50 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘
and 𝐶𝐶𝑏𝑏 = 1.0 for the critical segment. The maximum factored load
𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘
𝑤𝑤𝑢𝑢 � � that the beam can carry is:
𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓

A) 2.658
B) 3.360
C) 4.302
D) 4.778
75. The figure shown below is cross-section of a steel rectangular beam.
The beam is subjected to transverse loading applied I the Y-direction.

What area on the cross-section will experience maximum normal stress?

76. What is the value of “φ” that should be used when computing the
design moment strength 𝜙𝜙𝑀𝑀𝑛𝑛 for the beam shown?

A) 0.80
B) 0.81
C) 0.84
D) 0.90
77. The reinforced concrete beam is subjected to a factored moment
𝑀𝑀𝑢𝑢 = 648 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 − 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘. For concrete with 𝑓𝑓𝑐𝑐′ = 4,000𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 and the steel
𝑓𝑓𝑦𝑦 = 60,000𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝. The beam is reinforced as shown. Assume 𝜙𝜙 = 0.90.
What is the minimum overall width (to the nearest inch) for this beam?

A) 15
B) 13
C) 12
D) 10

78. What is the flexural design strength of the reinforced concrete beam
shown? Assume 𝑓𝑓𝑐𝑐′ = 4,000𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝, and 𝑓𝑓𝑦𝑦 = 60,000𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝.

A) 258 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 − 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘

B) 289 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 − 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘
C) 314 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 − 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘
D) 349 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 − 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘
79. What is the flexural design strength of the reinforced concrete beam
shown? Assume 𝑓𝑓𝑐𝑐′ = 4,000𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝, and 𝑓𝑓𝑦𝑦 = 60,000𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝.

A) 354 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 ∙ 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘

B) 319 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 ∙ 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘
C) 297 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 ∙ 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘
D) 267 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 ∙ 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘
 GEOTECHNICAL ENGINEERING

80. The direct shear test results of a sand are shown below, what is the
angle of friction?
𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 = 16 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 2
𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 = 512 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙
𝑆𝑆ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 = 16 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝
A) 0°
B) 27°
C) 30°
D) 63°

81. An undisturbed sample of soil contains solids with a specific gravity

of 2.70, a moisture content of 10.5%, and a void ration of 0.63. What is
the degree of saturation of this sample?

A) 22%
B) 36%
C) 45%
D) 65%
82. A soil test indicates a level site has a 10-ft upper layer of sand. The
groundwater table is located at the surface. The unit weight of the sand
is 135.0 pcf. What is the effective overburden stress at a depth of 10 ft?

A) 1,985 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝
B) 1,450 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝
C) 725 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝
D) 615 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝

83. A retaining wall is 12-ft tall, and is backfilled with a granular soil type.
The soil has an internal angle of friction of 30°, and a unit weight of
125pcf. What is the Rankine passive earth pressure on the wall?

A) 2,250 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 /𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 2

B) 3,000 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 /𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 2
C) 9,000 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 /𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 2
D) 27,000 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 /𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 2

84. A normally-consolidated clay layer has a thickness of 10-ft. The layer

is surcharged. The coefficient of consolidation is 0.16 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 2 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 and
the time factor is 1.2 for = 50% . The clay layer is located between two
layers of dense sand. What is the time required for 50% consolidation?

A) 750 days
B) 188 days
C) 38 days
D) 5 days
85. The flow net shown is the cross-section of a dam with a length of
600-ft (perpendicular to the cross-section). Assuming uniformity, what is
the total seepage (𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 3 /day) under the dam?

A) 453,600
B) 51,840
C) 37,800
D) 63
 TRANSPORTATION ENGINEERING

86. At a two-way controlled intersection, determining the sight distance

required for minor street movements is controlled by:

A) Decision sight distance

B) Stopping sight distance
C) Departure sight distance
D) Approach sight distance

87. A highway lane has a volume of 1,400 vehicles/hr, and an average

vehicle speed of 45 mph. What is the time spacing between vehicles
(center to center) in seconds?

A) 2.6
B) 5.2
C) 15
D) 31
88. At a crosswalk, the initial “WALK” signal is displayed for 6.0 sec, after
which a “DON’T WALK” is displayed. The pedestrian walking speed is 4
ft/sec, and the intersection is 50-ft wide. After the green light, the
yellow interval is 3.5 sec. The all-red interval is 0.5 sec, during which, no
pedestrians are in the crosswalk. What is the length of time the green
must be displayed?

A) 8.5 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠
B) 10.5 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠
C) 15.0 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠
D) 22.0 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠

89. A person is driving on a gravel road. A moose suddenly leaps into the
road. The car was travelling 50 mph, and is on a 10% downgrade when
the moose appears. Assume a reaction time of 1.5 sec, and a friction
coefficient of the gravel of 0.65.What is the total distance required to
stop?

A) 153 ft
B) 220 ft
C) 239 ft
D) 262 ft
90. An equal tangent vertical curve has the following characteristics:

𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿ℎ 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 = 800𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓

𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 = 30 + 00
𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 = 200.0 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔 = +4%
𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔 = −6%

The elevation of the curve at Station 31+00 is:

A) 244.6 ft
B) 211.6 ft
C) 209.6 ft
D) 190.4 ft

91. Using a given loading condition, which of the following pavement

design types will result in the thinnest pavement?

A) Composite hot-mix asphalt over Portland cement concrete

B) Portland cement concrete
C) Warm-mix asphalt
D) Hot-mix asphalt
92. Two crash reduction measures are being considered to address
safety for an urban intersection reconstruction project. The crash
reduction factors are 0.25 and 0.15, and are mutually exclusive. If the
expected number of crashes per year is 10, and no growth in traffic is
anticipated, what is the number of expected crashes per year?

A) 3.6
B) 4.2
C) 6.4
D) 7.2

93. A horizontal curve has the following characteristics:

𝐼𝐼 = 40°50′
𝑅𝑅 = 600.00
𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆 = 20 + 00

What is the station of “PT”?

A) 22+30.21
B) 22+22.37
C) 22+04.27
D) 22+01.52
 ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING

94. A municipal softening plant produces a supply of 5 MGD. The plant

operates two clarifiers, each has a diameter of 65 ft, and a side depth of
12 ft. What is the clarifier residence time assuming parallel operation?

A) 3.42 hr
B) 2.86 hr
C) 1.82 hr
D) 0.85 hr

95. A water treatment plant uses filters with a surface area of 100 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 2 .
The backwash cycle flow rate is 15 gpm/ 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 2 , with a duration of 12 min.
What is the quantity of water required for the backwash cycle?

A) 3,800 gal
B) 12,600 gal
C) 18,000 gal
D) 144,000 gal

96. A municipal wastewater treatment facility processes a flow with a 5-

day BOD of 200 mg/L at 20°C. If the BOD rate constant at 20°C is
0.23 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 −1 , what is the ultimate BOD (mg/L) of the raw wastewater?

A) 413
B) 293
C) 187
D) 135
97. Your firm has been tasked with designing as aerobic system to
biodegrade benzene (𝐶𝐶6 𝐻𝐻6 ). The biodegradation process follows the
reaction below. The benzene concentration is 500 mg/L. What is the
amount of oxygen is required to completely biodegrade the benzene?

𝐶𝐶6 𝐻𝐻6 + 𝑂𝑂2 → 𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶2 + 𝐻𝐻2 𝑂𝑂

A) 400 mg/L
B) 520 mg/L
C) 870 mg/L
D) 1,540 mg/L

98. Which of the following is associated with the corrosion of sanitary

sewer piping?

A) BOD
B) Fats, oils, grease
C) 𝐻𝐻2 𝑆𝑆
D) 𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁3

99. A mixture of gas at 25°C and at 1 atm contains 100mg/L of 𝐻𝐻2 𝑆𝑆 . The
partial pressure exerted by the 𝐻𝐻2 𝑆𝑆 is:

A) 0.14 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎
B) 0.072 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎
C) 0.0056 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎
D) 0.0029 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎
 CONSTRUCTION

100. As-built drawings, warranties, and manuals are provided to the

owner/client during which phase of construction?
A) Feasibility
B) Bidding
C) Procurement
D) Close-out

101. A loader has a bucket capacity of 3 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦3 , and the time required to
place one bucket of soil into a waiting truck is 1 min. The loader is
supported by 4 trucks, each truck has a haul capacity of 15 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦 3 , and a
drive time of 12 min. What is the ideal productivity of this system?

A) 142𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦3 /ℎ𝑟𝑟
B) 180𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦3 /ℎ𝑟𝑟
C) 212𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦3 /ℎ𝑟𝑟
D) 287𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦3 /ℎ𝑟𝑟
102. Four excavators with different bucket sizes are available for rental.
The rental rate is directly proportional to the bucket size. Assume that
production (loose 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦 3 /ℎ𝑟𝑟) is equal to excavator cycles per hour times
bucket payload per cycle. Which excavator is the most efficient?

A) Excavator 1
B) Excavator 2
C) Excavator 3
D) Excavator 4

103. An embankment with a volume of 320,000 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦3 will be constructed

from borrow on the site. The dry unit weight of the borrow material is
106 pcf, and the moisture content is 18.2%. The embankment material
will have a unit weight of 122 pcf, and a moisture content of 16.7%.
What volume of borrow is needed to construct the embankment?

A) 247,800 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦 3
B) 298,600 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦3
C) 315,500 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦3
D) 357,200 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦3
104. A road project has the following cross-sectional areas needing to be
excavated (cut). Using the prismoidal method, what is volume of earth
to excavated between Section 4+35, and Section 5+56?

A) 1,420 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦 3
B) 1,760 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦3
C) 1,860 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦3
D) 1,980 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦 3
 SURVEYING
105. What is the value of Angle “A” in the following figure?

A) 29°15’31”
B) 30°18’47”
C) 31°26’12”
D) 39°05’38”

106. The area enclosed by the points O, PT, PI, and PC is 83,164𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 2 . What
is the area of the shaded portion?

A) 2,450 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 2
B) 2,879 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 2
C) 3,386 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 2
D) 5,263 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 2
107. A closed traverse runs from Point “B” to Point “K”. The bearings and
distances are as follows:

What is the error in closure?

A) 0.08
B) 0.12
C) 0.26
D) 0.35
 ANSWER KEY
1. A 28. D 55. A 82. C
2. D 29. C 56. C 83. D
3. D 30. C 57. D 84. B
4. C 31. D 58. D 85. C
5. C 32. B 59. C 86. C
6. D 33. C 60. B 87. A
7. B 34. D 61. B 88. C
8. B 35. A 62. B 89. D
9. C 36. A 63. C 90. C
10. B 37. B 64. C 91. B
11. D 38. C 65. A 92. C
12. D 39. D 66. C 93. C
13. C 40. D 67. A 94. B
14. D 41. C 68. A 95. C
15. B 42. B 69. B 96. B
16. D 43. A 70. B 97. D
17. C 44. B 71. B 98. C
18. A 45. A 72. SEE
SOLUTION 99. B
19. D 46. C 73. C 100. D
20. A 47. B 74. B 101. B
21. D 48. A 75. SEE
SOLUTION 102. C
22. C 49. C 76. C 103. C
23. D 50. B 77. A 104. C
24. D 51. B 78. A 105. B
25. A 52. C 79. D 106. B
26. B 53. D 80. B 107. B
27. C 54. C 81. C
 MATHEMATICS
1. What is the equation of an ellipse with a center at (0,0) that passes
through points: (-2,0), (0,3), and (2,0) ?

𝑥𝑥 2 𝑦𝑦 2
A) + =1
4 9

𝑥𝑥 2 𝑦𝑦 2
B) + =1
9 4

𝑥𝑥 2 𝑦𝑦 2
C) − =1
4 9

𝑥𝑥 2 𝑦𝑦 2
D) − =1
9 4

SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “ELLIPSE”

Formula (pg. 26)

Use known values: (0,0) as center, input these values into formula

(𝑥𝑥−0)2 (𝑦𝑦−0)2
+ = 1
𝑎𝑎2 𝑏𝑏2

Substitute first point (2,0) into equation

(2−0)2 (0−0)2 (2)2 (0)2

+ = 1 + = 1
𝑎𝑎2 𝑏𝑏2 𝑎𝑎2 𝑏𝑏2

𝑎𝑎 2 = 4 𝑎𝑎 = 2

Substitute second point (0,3) into equation

(0−0)2 (3−0)2 (0)2 (3)2

+ = 1 + = 1
𝑎𝑎2 𝑏𝑏2 𝑎𝑎2 𝑏𝑏2

𝑏𝑏 2 = 9 𝑏𝑏 = 3
Substituting into original formula

(𝑥𝑥−0)2 (𝑦𝑦−0)2 (𝑥𝑥)2 (𝑦𝑦)2

+ = 1 + = 1
𝑎𝑎2 𝑏𝑏2 22 32

𝒙𝒙𝟐𝟐 𝒚𝒚𝟐𝟐
Answer is (A) + = 𝟏𝟏
𝟒𝟒 𝟗𝟗
 2. What is the equation of a sphere with a center at (0,1,-2) and a radius of
9?

A) (𝑥𝑥 + 1)2 + (𝑦𝑦 + 1)2 + (𝑧𝑧 + 2)2 = 9

B) (𝑥𝑥 + 1)2 + (𝑦𝑦 + 1)2 + (𝑧𝑧 + 2)2 = 81

C) 𝑥𝑥 2 + (𝑦𝑦 + 1)2 + (𝑧𝑧 − 2)2 = 81

D) 𝑥𝑥 2 + (𝑦𝑦 − 1)2 + (𝑧𝑧 + 2)2 = 81

SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “SPHERE”

Formula (pg. 22)

Substitute known values (0, 1, -2) into standard form equation

(𝑥𝑥 − 0)2 + (𝑦𝑦 − 1)2 + (𝑧𝑧 − [−2])2 = 𝑟𝑟 2

𝑥𝑥 2 + (𝑦𝑦 − 1)2 + (𝑧𝑧 + 2)2 = 92

 Answer is (D) 𝒙𝒙𝟐𝟐 + (𝒚𝒚 − 𝟏𝟏)𝟐𝟐 + (𝒛𝒛 + 𝟐𝟐)𝟐𝟐 = 𝟖𝟖𝟖𝟖

3. What are the center coordinates and radius of the circle represented by
the equation,
𝑥𝑥 2 + 𝑦𝑦 2 + 12𝑦𝑦 − 2𝑥𝑥 + 12 = 0

A) (1, -6) ; 12
B) (-1, 6) ; √12
C) (1, -6) ; 25
D) (1, -6) ; 5

SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “CIRCLE”

Formula (pg. 27)

Factor equation terms into standard form

(𝑥𝑥 2 − 2𝑥𝑥) + (𝑦𝑦 2 + 12𝑦𝑦) + 12 = 0 (𝑥𝑥 2 − 2𝑥𝑥) + (𝑦𝑦 2 + 12𝑦𝑦) = −12

Provide for completion of squares

(𝑥𝑥 2 − 2𝑥𝑥 + 1) + (𝑦𝑦 2 + 12𝑦𝑦 + 36) = −12 + 1 + 36

Simplify

(𝑥𝑥 − 1)2 + (𝑦𝑦 + 6)2 = 25

Center Coordinates: ( -1, 6 )

Radius: √𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐 = 5

Answer is (D) (1, -6) ; 5

4. A (40cm) outside diameter pipe has walls (4cm) thick. What is the area
of flow if it is filled to a depth 1/3 of its diameter?

A) 65 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐2
B) 150 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐2
C) 235 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐2
D) 258 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐2
SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “CIRCULAR”

Formula (pg. 25)

Find interior diameter: (OD) - 2 (Wall Thickness) = ID

(40 cm) - 2(4 cm) = 32 cm ID

𝑟𝑟−𝑑𝑑
Find Angle “φ” : 𝜙𝜙 = 2 �arccos � �� d = 1/3 ID d = 1/3(32) = 10.67
𝑟𝑟

16−10.67
𝜙𝜙 = 2 �arccos � �� 𝜙𝜙 = 2.46 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟
10.67

�𝑟𝑟 2 (𝜙𝜙−sin 𝜙𝜙)� �162 (2.46−sin 2.46)�

Find the Area: A= A=
2 2
 A = 234.77

Answer is “C” 235 𝒄𝒄𝒄𝒄𝟐𝟐

5. Evaluate the following integral.

� 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 2 𝑥𝑥 sin 𝑥𝑥 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑

1
A) 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠2 𝑥𝑥 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 2 𝑥𝑥 + 𝐶𝐶
2
1
B) 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠3 𝑥𝑥 + 𝐶𝐶
3
1
C) − 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠3 𝑥𝑥 + 𝐶𝐶
3
2
D) − 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠3 𝑥𝑥 + 𝐶𝐶
3

SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “INTEGRALS”

INTEGRAL IDENTITIES (pg. 29)

Use “u” substitution

u = cos x du = (- sin x) dx

Substitute into original equation:

∫ 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 2 𝑥𝑥 sin 𝑥𝑥 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 ∫ 𝑢𝑢2 ( −𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑)

Integrate:

1 3
− 𝑢𝑢 + 𝐶𝐶
3
Back- Substitute “u”:
1
− 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 3 𝑥𝑥 + 𝐶𝐶
3

Answer is “C”

6. What is dy/dx if y = (2𝑥𝑥)𝑥𝑥 ?

A) (2𝑥𝑥)𝑥𝑥 (2 + ln 2𝑥𝑥)

B) 2𝑥𝑥(1 + ln 2𝑥𝑥)𝑥𝑥

C) (2𝑥𝑥)𝑥𝑥 (ln 2𝑥𝑥 2 )

D) (2𝑥𝑥)𝑥𝑥 (1 + ln 2𝑥𝑥)
SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “DERIVATIVE”

Formula (pg. 29)

u = 2x

v=x

Substitute values into formula:

𝑑𝑑(2𝑥𝑥)𝑥𝑥
= 𝑥𝑥(2𝑥𝑥)𝑥𝑥−1 (2) + (ln 2𝑥𝑥)(2𝑥𝑥)𝑥𝑥 (1)
𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑

Simplify:
(2𝑥𝑥 )𝑥𝑥 + (2𝑥𝑥)𝑥𝑥 ln 2𝑥𝑥 (2𝑥𝑥)𝑥𝑥 (1 + ln 2𝑥𝑥)

Answer is “D”
 7. What is the matrix product “AB” of matrices A and B ?

2
A = [1 2 3] B= �−3�
4

2
A) �−6�
12

B) [8]

C) [20]

D) [2 −6 12]

SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “MATRIX”

Matrices (pg. 34)

 2
Multiply the matrices: A = [1 2 3] B= �−3�
4

AB = [(1 ∙ 2) + (2 ∙ −3) + (3 ∙ 4)] = [8]

Answer is “B”

8. What is the determinant of matrix A?

3 2
A=� �
4 6

A) 0
B) 10
C) 18
D) 30
SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “DETERMINANT”

Determinants (pg. 35)

2 x 2 Matrix gives a

second-order determinant

𝑎𝑎1 𝑎𝑎2 3 2
�𝑏𝑏 𝑏𝑏2 � = 𝑎𝑎1 𝑏𝑏2 − 𝑎𝑎2 𝑏𝑏1 � � = (3 ∙ 6) − (4 ∙ 2) = 10
1 4 6

Answer is “B”
 9. What is the cross product, A x B, of vectors A and B ?

𝑨𝑨 = 𝒊𝒊 + 𝟒𝟒𝟒𝟒 + 𝟔𝟔𝟔𝟔
𝑩𝑩 = 𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐 + 𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑 + 𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓

A) 𝑖𝑖 − 𝑗𝑗 − 𝑘𝑘
B) −𝑖𝑖 + 𝑗𝑗 + 𝑘𝑘
C) 2𝑖𝑖 + 7𝑗𝑗 − 5𝑘𝑘
D) 2𝑖𝑖 + 7𝑗𝑗 + 5𝑘𝑘

SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “Cross product”

Cross product (pg. 35)

Remember cross product of the vectors

Results in (+𝒊𝒊 , −𝒋𝒋 , +𝒌𝒌)

Perform cross product to determine resultant vector:

 𝑖𝑖 𝑗𝑗 𝑘𝑘
AxB = �1 4 6� =
2 3 5

[(4 ∙ 5) − (3 ∙ 6)]𝑖𝑖 − [(1 ∙ 5) − (2 ∙ 6)]𝑘𝑘 + [(1 ∙ 3) − (2 ∙ 4)]𝑘𝑘

[(20) − (18)]𝑖𝑖 − [(5) − (12)]𝑘𝑘 + [(3) − (8)]𝑘𝑘
[2]𝑖𝑖 − [−7]𝑘𝑘 + [−5]𝑘𝑘

Answer is “C”
10. What is the angle between the two given vectors A and B ?

𝑨𝑨 = 𝟒𝟒𝟒𝟒 + 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 + 𝟔𝟔𝟔𝟔

𝑩𝑩 = 𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐 − 𝟖𝟖𝟖𝟖 + 𝟔𝟔𝟔𝟔

A) -84.3°
B) 84.3°
C) 101.2°
D) 122.4°

SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “DOT PRODUCT”

Dot Product (pg. 35)

|𝐴𝐴||𝐵𝐵| cos Ɵ =

��(4)2 + (12)2 + (6)2 � ��(24)2 + (−8)2 + (6)2 � cos Ɵ

= (14) (26) cos Ɵ

𝐴𝐴 ∙ 𝐵𝐵 = 𝑎𝑎𝑥𝑥 𝑏𝑏𝑥𝑥 + 𝑎𝑎𝑦𝑦 𝑏𝑏𝑦𝑦 + 𝑎𝑎𝑧𝑧 𝑏𝑏𝑧𝑧

𝐴𝐴 ∙ 𝐵𝐵 = (4)(24) + (12)(−8) + (6)(6)

𝐴𝐴 ∙ 𝐵𝐵 = 36

36 = (14)(26) cos 𝜃𝜃

cos 𝜃𝜃 = 0.0989

𝜃𝜃 = cos−1 0.0989

𝜃𝜃 = 84.3°

Answer is “B”
 11. Given vectors A, B, and C, what is the value of (𝑨𝑨 + 𝑩𝑩) ∙ (𝑩𝑩 + 𝑪𝑪)?

𝑨𝑨 = 𝟒𝟒𝟒𝟒 + 𝟐𝟐𝒋𝒋 + 𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐

𝑩𝑩 = 𝟖𝟖𝟖𝟖 + 𝟒𝟒𝟒𝟒 + 𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐
𝑪𝑪 = 𝟔𝟔𝟔𝟔 + 𝟖𝟖𝟖𝟖 + 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏

A) 42

B) 84

C) 122

D) 288

SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “VECTORS”

Vectors (pg. 35)

Addition of vectors to be

performed followed by

dot product
Perform addition of vectors:

4𝑖𝑖 2𝑗𝑗 2𝑘𝑘 8𝑖𝑖 4𝑗𝑗 2𝑘𝑘

8𝑖𝑖 4𝑗𝑗 2𝑘𝑘 6𝑖𝑖 8𝑗𝑗 10𝑘𝑘
𝐴𝐴 + 𝐵𝐵 = 𝐵𝐵 + 𝐶𝐶 =
12𝑖𝑖 6𝑗𝑗 4𝑘𝑘 14𝑖𝑖 12𝑗𝑗 12𝑘𝑘

Perform dot product:

(𝐴𝐴 + 𝐵𝐵) ∙ (𝐵𝐵 + 𝐶𝐶 ) = (12)(14) + (6)(12) + (4)(12) = 288

Answer is “D”
 PROBABILITY AND STATISTICS

12. What is the mean and sample standard deviation of the following
numbers?
71.3
74.0
74.25
78.54
80.6

A) 74.3 ; 2.7
B) 74.3 ; 3.7
C) 75.0 ; 2.7
D) 75.7 ; 3.8
SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “STATISTICS”

Statistics (pg. 37)

First formula for

mean

Second formula
for standard
deviation

1 1
𝑋𝑋� = ∑𝑛𝑛𝑖𝑖=1 𝑋𝑋𝑖𝑖 �5� (71.3 + 74.0 + 74.25 + 78.54 + 80.6)
𝑛𝑛

𝑋𝑋� = 75.7
1
𝑆𝑆 = ��� � ((71.3 − 75.7)2 (74.0 − 75.7)2 (74.25 − 75.7)2 (78.54 − 75.7)2 (80.6 − 75.7)2 )�
5−1

S = 3.75
Answer is “D”
 Questions 13 & 14 Refer to the Following Situation
Samples of Aluminum were tested for stiffness. The following frequency
distribution was observed. The distribution is assumed to be normal.
Stiffness Frequency
2480 23
2440 35
2400 40
2360 33
2320 21

13. What is the mean of the observed stiffness measurements?

A) 2367
B) 2398
C) 2402
D) 2419

SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “MEAN”

Mean (pg. 37)

First we need to determine “n”:

Sum the frequencies 𝑛𝑛 = (23 + 35 + 40 + 33 + 21)

n = 152
Second use the mean formula:
1
𝑋𝑋� =
1
∑𝑛𝑛𝑖𝑖=1 𝑋𝑋𝑖𝑖 � � �(23)(2480) + (35)(2440) +
𝑛𝑛 152
(40)(2400) + (33)(2360) + (21)(2320)�

𝑋𝑋� = 2402

Answer is “C”

14. What is the standard deviation of the population from which the
samples were taken?

A) 19
B) 23
C) 37
D) 51

SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “STANDARD DEVIATION”

Standard Deviation (pg. 37)

Find the standard deviation for the population:

1 (23)(2480 − 2402)2 + (35)(2440 − 2402)2 + (40)(2400 − 2402)2

𝑆𝑆 = ��� �� ��
152 − 1 +(33)(2360 − 2402)2 +(21)(2320 − 2402)2

S = 50.8

Answer is “D”

15. If you toss a standard coin 10 times, what is the probability of

getting exactly 4 heads?

A) 0.1
B) 0.2
C) 0.4
D) 0.5

SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “PROBABILITY”

Probability (pg. 39)

p = 0.5 (Chance of getting a head)

q = 0.5 (Chance of not getting a head)

n = 10 (Number of trials)

x = 4 (Number of heads)

10! (10)(9)(8)(7)
𝑃𝑃10 (4) = (0.54 )(0.56 ) = (0.5)10
4! 6! (4)(3)(2)(1)

= 0.2051

Answer is “B”
 COMPUTATIONAL TOOLS

16. In a spreadsheet, the number in Cell A4 is set to 6. Then A5 is set to

A4+$A$4. This formula is copied into Cells A6 and A7 with automatic
referencing. The number shown in Cell A7 is _______.

A) 6
B) 12
C) 18
D) 24

SOLUTION
A
4 6
5 A4+$A$4 = 12
6 A5+$A$4 = 18
7 A6+$A$4 = 24

Answer is “D”
 17. A spreadsheet display shows the following values in Column A:

A B
1 -2
2 -1
3 0
4 1
5 2

Cell B1 contains the formula $A1^3 + A$1^2-3. The formula in Cell B1 is

copied down in Column B with automatic referencing. The formula in Cell
B5 will be:

A) $A1^3+A$5^2_3
B) A5^3+B$1^2-3
C) $A5^3+A$1^2-3
D) A5^3+A5^2-3

SOLUTION
B
1 $A1^3+A$1^2-3
2 $A2^3+A$1^2-3
3 $A3^3+A$1^2-3
4 $A4^3+A$1^2-3
5 $A5^3+A$1^2-3

Answer is “C”
 18. The following segment of code describes a segment of a program:

Set A = 17
Set K = 2
While K ≤ 4
A = A/K
K=K+1
End While
Print A
The value of A that is printed is most nearly:
A) 0.71
B) 2.83
C) 4.25
D) 408

SOLUTION

K=2 A = 17/2 8.5

K=3 A = 8.5/2 2.83

K=4 A = 2.83/2 0.71

Answer is “A”
19. The flowchart for a computer program contains the following
segment:

VAR = 0
IF VAR < 5, THEN VAR = VAR + 2
OTHERWISE EXIT LOOP
LOOP

What is the value of VAR at the end of this routine?

A) 0
B) 2
C) 4
D) 6

SOLUTION

Step VAR
1 0
2 2
3 4
4 6

At the conclusion of the routine, VAR = 6

Answer is “D”
 ETHICS AND PROFESSIONAL PRACTICE

20. An engineering professor with a professional engineering license and

20 years of experience in engineering education is asked to consult on a
building design. Can the professor accept this request?

A) Yes, but she should review and comment on only those portions of the
project in which she is qualified by education and experience.
B) Yes, a professor is a subject matter expert and as such should be fully
competent to review the design.
C) Yes, as a licensed professional engineer, the professor has demonstrated
her competence I engineering and may review the design.
D) No, there is a tremendous difference between working in academia and
having professional experience. The review should be conducted by a
practicing engineer.

SOLUTION
It is perfectly legal and ethical for the professor to consult on the building
design. She should, however, review and comment on only those portions
with which she possesses technical competence. The fact she is a professor
with 20 years of experience does not necessarily mean she is fully
knowledgeable in all current design practices.

Answer is “A”
 21. Complete the sentence: “State registration boards, boards of ethical
review, oversight committees, and internal audit departments ae used
in industry and government because ________

IV. illegal and unethical actions must be punished.”

V. people must be shown that the rules will be enforced.”
VI. there is something to be learned from all errors in judgement.”

A) I only
B) II only
C) III only
D) I, II, and III

SOLUTION

Professionals can make mistakes. They may act out of ignorance,

inexperience, or greed. Regardless of the motive, in order to protect the
public, the system must react to keep the action form being repeated by
the same individual or by others.

Answer is “D”
 22. Two engineers submitted sealed bids to a prospective client for a
design project. The client told engineer “A” how much engineer “B” had
bid and invited engineer “A” to beat that amount. Engineer “A” would
like to perform the project and believes he is the best choice for the job.
What should he do?

A) He should submit another bid, but only if he can perform the work
adequately at he reduced price.
B) He should withdraw from consideration for the project.
C) He should remain in consideration for the project, but not change his
bid.
D) He should bargain with the client for the cost of the work.

SOLUTION
It would be unfair and unethical for engineer “A” to submit another bid.
Depending on the regulating authority, it may be illegal. He does not, however,
need to remove himself from the project.

Answer is “C”
 23. A local engineering professor acts as the technical advisor for the
local city council. A few weeks before the council is scheduled to award
a large construction contract, the professor is approached by one the
competing companies and offered a consulting position. Under what
circumstances would it be ethical to accept the job?

A) Both the company and council must know about, and approve of the
arrangement.
B) The professor should arrange not to begin work until after the council’s
vote.
C) The professor may accept the job if the advisory position to the council
is on a voluntary basis
D) The professor must not participate in any discussions concerning the
project for which the company is competing.

SOLUTION
The professor’s association with the company is bound to influence his
advice to the board, even if the job doesn’t start until later. Regardless of whether
the board understands and approves of this situation, the engineer is obligated to
withdraw from any of the council’s discussions concerning the project.

Answer is “D”
 ENGINEERING ECONOMICS

24. A warehouse building was purchased 10 years ago for $250,000.

Since then, the effective annual interest rate has been 8%, inflation has
been steady at 2.5%, and the building has had no deterioration or
decrease in utility. What should the warehouse sell for today?

A) $427,000
B) $540,000
C) $678,000
D) $691,000

SOLUTION
The current price should be the future worth (from 10 years ago) adjusted for
inflation. Use the inflation adjusted interest rate, d, together with the single
payment compound amount factor.

Reference Manual Search Term: “INTEREST”

Interest (pg. 131)

d = i + f +if 0.08 + 0.025 + (0.08)(0.025) = 0.107

F = P(F/P,d%,n) ($250,000)(1 + 0.107)10 = $690,902

Answer is “D”

25. A mine is projected to produce $20,000 during its first year of

operation, $19,000 the second year, $18,000 the third year, and so on. If
the mine is expected to produce for a total of 10 years, and the effective
annual interest rate is 6%, what is the present worth?

A) $118,000
B) $125,000
C) $150,000
D) $177,000
SOLUTION
The cash flow is equivalent to a $20,000 annual series with a -$1,000 gradient.

Reference Manual Search Term: “INTEREST”

Interest (pg. 131)

Use these 2 formulas

P = ($20,000)(P/A, 6%, 10) – ($1,000)(P/G, 6%, 10)

P = ($20,000)(7.3601) – ($1,000)(29.6023)

P = $117,600

Answer is “A”
 26. An excavator initially costing $25,000 will have a salvage value of
$6,000 after five years. Using MACRS depreciation, what will its book
value be after the third year?

A) $5,470
B) $7,200
C) $10,000
D) $13,600

SOLUTION
Book value is the initial cost minus the accumulated depreciation. Use the MACRS
factors for a 5 year recovery period. Sum the percentages for years 1-3.

Reference Manual Search Term: “MACRS”

MACRS (pg. 132)

Book Value (BV) = Initial Cost - ∑ 𝐷𝐷𝑗𝑗

BV = ($25,000) – (1 – (0.20 + 0.32 + 0.192))

BV = $7,200

Answer is “B”
 27. The construction of a break room for a company is expected to cost
$1,200 and have annual maintenance costs of $300. At an effective
annual interest rate of 5%, what is the project’s capitalized cost?

A) $1,500
B) $2,700
C) $7,200
D) $18,000

SOLUTION
Find the capitalized cost of the annual maintenance and add it to the initial
construction cost.

Reference Manual Search Term: “CAPITALIZED COST”

Capitalized Cost (pg. 132)

P = (A/i) + Construction Costs

P = ($300/0.05) + $1,200

P = $7,200

Answer is “C”
 STATICS

28. The five forces shown act at Point “A”. What is the magnitude of the
resultant force?

A) 32 N
B) 156 N
C) 182 N
D) 234 N

SOLUTION
Sum the forces about the X and Y axis:

� 𝐹𝐹𝑥𝑥 = 30 𝑁𝑁 + (45 𝑁𝑁) cos 30° + (60 𝑁𝑁) cos 60° + (75 𝑁𝑁) cos 90° + (90 𝑁𝑁) cos 120°

� 𝐹𝐹𝑥𝑥 = 54 𝑁𝑁

� 𝐹𝐹𝑦𝑦 = 30 𝑁𝑁 + (45 𝑁𝑁) sin 30° + (60 𝑁𝑁) sin 60° + (75 𝑁𝑁) sin 90° + (90 𝑁𝑁) sin 120°

� 𝐹𝐹𝑦𝑦 = 227.4 𝑁𝑁
 𝑅𝑅 = �(54 𝑁𝑁)2 + (227.4 𝑁𝑁)2

𝑅𝑅 = 233.7 𝑁𝑁
Answer is “D”

29. An angle bracket is subjected to the forces and couple shown.

Determine the equivalent force-couple system at point “A”.

A) 114 N at 15.3°; 50 N·m

B) 292 N at -5.9°; 103 N·m
C) 292 N at 174.1°; -103 N·m
D) 333 N at 42.9°; 53 N·m

SOLUTION

Use clockwise from the horizontal as positive direction for angles and moments.

The inclined force’s orientation can be described using a 3-4-5 triangle.

3
𝑅𝑅𝑥𝑥 = −200 𝑁𝑁 − � � (150 𝑁𝑁) = −290 𝑁𝑁
5
 4
𝑅𝑅𝑦𝑦 = 150 𝑁𝑁 + � � (150 𝑁𝑁) = 30 𝑁𝑁
5

𝑅𝑅 = �(−290 𝑁𝑁)2 + (30 𝑁𝑁)2 = 291.5 𝑁𝑁

30 𝑁𝑁
𝜃𝜃 = tan−1 � � = 174.1° (180° − 5.9°) 𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶
−290 𝑁𝑁

𝑀𝑀𝐴𝐴 = � 𝑀𝑀𝑛𝑛

4
𝑀𝑀𝐴𝐴 = (−200 𝑁𝑁)(0.13 𝑚𝑚) − (150 𝑁𝑁)(0.30 𝑚𝑚) + � � (150 𝑁𝑁)(0.15 𝑚𝑚) − 50 𝑁𝑁 ∙ 𝑚𝑚
5

𝑀𝑀𝐴𝐴 = −103 𝑁𝑁 ∙ 𝑚𝑚

The resulting force-couple system at point “A” is:

𝐹𝐹 = 291.5 𝑁𝑁 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 174.1°

𝑀𝑀 = −103 𝑁𝑁 ∙ 𝑚𝑚

Answer is “C”
 30. A support is acted upon by a moment and several concentrated
forces, as shown. Find the missing force “F” and corresponding distance
“X” that will maintain equilibrium on the member shown.

A) 𝐹𝐹 = 5 𝑁𝑁; 𝑥𝑥 = 0.8 𝑚𝑚
B) 𝐹𝐹 = 10 𝑁𝑁; 𝑥𝑥 = 0.6 𝑚𝑚
C) 𝐹𝐹 = 20 𝑁𝑁; 𝑥𝑥 = 0.2 𝑚𝑚
D) 𝐹𝐹 = 20 𝑁𝑁; 𝑥𝑥 = 0.4 𝑚𝑚

SOLUTION

Sum the forces in the y-direction, and moments about Point “A”:

� 𝐹𝐹𝑦𝑦 = −60 𝑁𝑁 + 10 𝑁𝑁 + 20 𝑁𝑁 + 10 𝑁𝑁 + 𝐹𝐹

𝐹𝐹 = 20 𝑁𝑁

� 𝑀𝑀𝐴𝐴 = 20 𝑁𝑁 ∙ 𝑚𝑚 − (20 𝑁𝑁)(0.2 𝑚𝑚) − (10 𝑁𝑁)(0.2𝑚𝑚 + 𝑥𝑥) − (20 𝑁𝑁)(0.4𝑚𝑚 + 𝑥𝑥 )

4 + 2 + 10𝑥𝑥 + 8 + 20𝑥𝑥 = 20

𝑥𝑥 = 0.2 𝑚𝑚

Answer is “C”
 31. Where can a couple be moved on a rigid body to have an equivalent
effect?

A) Along the line of action

B) In a parallel plane
C) Along the perpendicular bisector joining the two original forces
D) Anywhere on the rigid body

SOLUTION

Since a couple is composed of two equal but opposite forces, the X- and Y-
components will always have a cancelling effect, no matter the orientation.
Therefore, only the moment produced by the couple remains.

Answer is “D”
 32. Three concurrent forces act as shown. If the forces are in
equilibrium, and 𝐹𝐹2 is 11 N, what is the magnitude of 𝐹𝐹1 ?

A) 8 𝑁𝑁
B) 10 𝑁𝑁
C) 11 𝑁𝑁
D) 12 𝑁𝑁

SOLUTION

Establish the line of force 𝐹𝐹3 as the y-axis. The x-components of forces 𝐹𝐹1 and 𝐹𝐹2
must be equal and opposite. The sum of x-components of the forces is:

� 𝐹𝐹𝑥𝑥 : 𝐹𝐹2,𝑥𝑥 + 𝐹𝐹1,𝑥𝑥 = 0

(11 𝑁𝑁) cos(140° − 90°) − 𝐹𝐹1 cos(135° − 90°) = 0

𝐹𝐹1 = 10 𝑁𝑁

Answer is “B”
 33. Determine the force in member “AG” for the pin-connected truss
shown.

A) 25,000 N (compression)
B) 31,500 N (compression)
C) 37,500 N (tension)
D) 50,000 N (tension)

SOLUTION

Select the positive directions to be upward and to the right, and positive
moments as the clockwise direction. Find the reactions at Point “A”.

� 𝑀𝑀𝐸𝐸 = 0

60𝑚𝑚
𝑅𝑅𝐴𝐴𝑦𝑦 (60𝑚𝑚) + (25,000 𝑁𝑁)(10𝑚𝑚 + 20𝑚𝑚) − (50,000 𝑁𝑁) � �
2
𝑅𝑅𝐴𝐴𝑦𝑦 = 12,500 𝑁𝑁 (𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢)

Sum the forces in the X direction:

� 𝐹𝐹𝑥𝑥 = 0 = 𝑅𝑅𝐴𝐴𝑥𝑥 + 25,000 𝑁𝑁

 𝑅𝑅𝐴𝐴𝑥𝑥 = −25,000 𝑁𝑁 (𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 𝑡𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑒 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙)

Use the method of joints to determine forces in member at pin “A”:

� 𝐹𝐹𝑦𝑦 = 0 = 12,500 𝑁𝑁 + 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 sin 45°

𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 = −17,678 𝑁𝑁 (𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐)

� 𝐹𝐹𝑥𝑥 = 0 = −25,000 𝑁𝑁 − (17,678 𝑁𝑁) cos 45° + 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴

𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 = 37,500 𝑁𝑁 (𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡)

Answer is “C”

34. Find the force in member “BC”.

 A) 16,000 𝑁𝑁 (𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡)
B) 50,000 𝑁𝑁 (𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡)
C) 50,000 𝑁𝑁 (𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐)
D) 52,700 𝑁𝑁 (𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐)

SOLUTION

Find the reactions at Point “C”:

� 𝑀𝑀𝐴𝐴 = 0 = −𝑅𝑅𝐶𝐶𝑥𝑥 (30 𝑚𝑚) + (50,000 𝑁𝑁)(10 𝑚𝑚)

𝑅𝑅𝐶𝐶𝑥𝑥 = 16,667 𝑁𝑁 (𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 𝑡𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑒 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟ℎ𝑡𝑡)

� 𝐹𝐹𝑥𝑥 = 0 = 16,667 𝑁𝑁 + 𝑅𝑅𝐴𝐴𝑥𝑥

𝑅𝑅𝐴𝐴𝑥𝑥 = −16,667 𝑁𝑁 (𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 𝑡𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑒 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙)

Use method of joints.

First determine the length of member “BC”:

�(10 𝑚𝑚)2 + (30 𝑚𝑚)2 = 31.62 𝑚𝑚

10
The X-component of force “BC” is � � of the total force.
31.62

For Pin “C”:

10 𝑚𝑚
� 𝐹𝐹𝑥𝑥 = 0 = 16,667 𝑁𝑁 − 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 � �
31.62 𝑚𝑚
𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 = 52,700 𝑁𝑁 (𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐)

Answer is “D”
35. Find the tension “T”, that must be applied to Pulley “A” to lift the
1,200 N weight.

A) 100 𝑁𝑁
B) 300 𝑁𝑁
C) 400 𝑁𝑁
D) 600 𝑁𝑁
SOLUTION

Draw a free body diagram of the pulley system:

Sum the forces in the Y-direction:

� 𝐹𝐹𝑦𝑦 = 0 = −12,000 𝑁𝑁 + 4𝑇𝑇 + 8𝑇𝑇

12,000 𝑁𝑁 = 12𝑇𝑇

𝑇𝑇 = 100 𝑁𝑁

Answer is “A”
36. A 2 kg block rests on a 34° incline. If the coefficient of static friction
is 0.2, how much additional force, 𝐹𝐹1 , must be applied to keep the
block from sliding down the incline?

A) 7.7 𝑁𝑁
B) 8.8 𝑁𝑁
C) 9.1 𝑁𝑁
D) 14 𝑁𝑁

SOLUTION
Draw the free body diagram of all forces acting upon the body:

Select coordinate axis parallel and normal to the incline. Sum the forces:

� 𝐹𝐹𝑦𝑦 = 0 = 𝐹𝐹 + 𝐹𝐹𝑓𝑓 − 𝑊𝑊 sin 𝜙𝜙

𝐹𝐹 = 𝑊𝑊 sin 𝜙𝜙 − 𝐹𝐹𝑓𝑓
 𝐹𝐹 = 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 sin 𝜙𝜙 − 𝜇𝜇𝑠𝑠 𝑁𝑁

𝐹𝐹 = 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 sin 𝜙𝜙 − 𝜇𝜇𝑠𝑠 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐

= 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 (sin 𝜙𝜙 − 𝜇𝜇 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐)

𝑚𝑚
= (2 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘) �9.81 2 � (sin 34° − (0.2) cos 34°)
𝑠𝑠

𝐹𝐹 = 7.7 𝑁𝑁

Answer is “A”
 DYNAMICS

37. The velocity (in m/s) of a falling object is described by the equation
𝑣𝑣 = 32 + 𝑡𝑡 + 6𝑡𝑡 2 . What is the acceleration at time 𝑡𝑡 = 2𝑠𝑠?

A) 9.8 m/𝑠𝑠 2
B) 25 m/𝑠𝑠 2
C) 32 m/𝑠𝑠 2
D) 58 m/𝑠𝑠 2

SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “ACCELERATION”

Acceleration (pg. 72)

𝒅𝒅𝒅𝒅
Use the formula for acceleration: 𝒂𝒂 =
𝒅𝒅𝒅𝒅
 𝒅𝒅�𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑+𝒕𝒕+𝟔𝟔𝟔𝟔𝟐𝟐 �
Substitute given value of “𝑣𝑣 ”: 𝒂𝒂 =
𝒅𝒅𝒅𝒅

Take the derivative: 𝒂𝒂 = 𝟏𝟏 + 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏

At = 𝟐𝟐 : 𝒂𝒂 = 𝟏𝟏 + 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏(𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐) = 𝒂𝒂 = 𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐 𝒎𝒎/𝒔𝒔𝟐𝟐

Answer is “B”
 38. The location of a particle moving in the 𝑥𝑥 − 𝑦𝑦 plane is given the
parametric equations 𝑥𝑥 = 𝑡𝑡 2 + 4𝑡𝑡, and 𝑦𝑦 = (1/4)𝑡𝑡 4 − 60𝑡𝑡, where 𝑥𝑥
and 𝑦𝑦 are in meters and 𝑡𝑡 is in seconds. What is the particle’s velocity at
𝑡𝑡 = 4𝑠𝑠 ?

A) 8.95 m/s
B) 11.3 m/s
C) 12.6 m/
D) 16.0 m/s

SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “VELOCITY”

Velocity (pg.72)
Take the velocities with respect to x and y, then derive:

𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝑑𝑑 (𝑡𝑡 2 + 4𝑡𝑡)

𝑣𝑣𝑥𝑥 = = = 2𝑡𝑡 + 4
𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑
𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝑡𝑡 4
𝑣𝑣𝑦𝑦 = = 𝑑𝑑 � − 60𝑡𝑡� = 𝑡𝑡 3 − 60
𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 4

At 𝑡𝑡 = 4 𝑠𝑠:

𝑣𝑣𝑥𝑥 = (2)(4𝑠𝑠) + 4 = 12 𝑚𝑚/𝑠𝑠

𝑣𝑣𝑦𝑦 = (4𝑠𝑠)3 − 60 = 4 𝑚𝑚/𝑠𝑠

Take the square root of both components squared to find magnitude:

𝑣𝑣 = �(12 𝑚𝑚/𝑠𝑠)2 + (4 𝑚𝑚/𝑠𝑠)2 = 12.6 𝑚𝑚/𝑠𝑠

Answer is “C”
 39. A projectile is fired from a cannon with an initial velocity of 1000
m/s and at an angle of 30° from the horizontal. What distance from the
cannon will the projectile strike the ground if the point of impact is 1500
m below the point of release?

A) 8200 m
B) 16,000 m
C) 67,300 m
D) 90,800 m

SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “PROJECTILE”

Projectile Motion (pg.74)

𝑦𝑦 = 1500 𝑚𝑚 since it is below the point of release.

9.81 𝑚𝑚/𝑠𝑠 2 𝑚𝑚
𝑦𝑦 = −𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔 2 / 2 + 𝑣𝑣𝑜𝑜 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠(𝜃𝜃)𝑡𝑡 + 𝑦𝑦𝑜𝑜 = � � 𝑡𝑡 2 − �1000 � 𝑡𝑡 sin 30° − 1500𝑚𝑚 = 0
2 𝑠𝑠
 𝑚𝑚
(4.905 𝑚𝑚/𝑠𝑠 2 )𝑡𝑡 2 − �500 � 𝑡𝑡 − 1500𝑚𝑚 = 0
𝑠𝑠
Use the quadratic formula to find “t”:

−𝑏𝑏 ± √𝑏𝑏 2 − 4𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 500 ± �(−500)2 − 4(4.905)(−1500)

𝑡𝑡 = = 𝑡𝑡 =
2𝑎𝑎 (2)(4.905)

𝑡𝑡 = 104.85 𝑠𝑠 (𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖)

Solve for 𝑥𝑥 distance:

𝑥𝑥 = 𝑣𝑣𝑜𝑜 𝑡𝑡 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 + 𝑥𝑥𝑜𝑜 (𝑥𝑥𝑜𝑜 = 0)

𝑚𝑚
𝑥𝑥 = �1000 � ( 104.85 𝑠𝑠) cos 30°
𝑠𝑠
𝑥𝑥 = 90,803 𝑚𝑚

Answer is “D”

40. For the pump shown, the radius of the crank is 𝑟𝑟 = 0.3 𝑚𝑚, and the
rotational speed is 𝑛𝑛 = 350 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟. What is the tangential velocity of
Point “A” on the crank corresponding to an angle of 𝜃𝜃 = 35° from
horizontal?

A) 0 m/s
B) 1.1 m/s
C) 10 m/s
D) 11 m/s
SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “CIRCULAR”

Circular Motion (pg. 73)

Using the relationship between the tangential and rotational variables:

𝑣𝑣𝑡𝑡 = 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 (𝜔𝜔 = 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑡𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑒 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 )

𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 1𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚
𝜔𝜔 = (350 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟/𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚) �2𝜋𝜋 �� �
𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 60𝑠𝑠
𝜔𝜔 = 36.65 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟/𝑠𝑠
𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟
𝑣𝑣𝑡𝑡 = (0.3 𝑚𝑚) �36.65 �
𝑠𝑠
𝑣𝑣𝑡𝑡 = 11.0 𝑚𝑚/𝑠𝑠

Answer is “D”
 41. The position (in rad) of a vehicle traveling around a curve is
described by the function of time (in seconds).

𝜃𝜃(𝑡𝑡) = 𝑡𝑡 3 − 2𝑡𝑡 2 − 4𝑡𝑡 + 10

What is the angular velocity at 𝑡𝑡 = 3𝑠𝑠 ?

A) -16 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 /𝑠𝑠

B) -4 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 /𝑠𝑠
C) 11 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 /𝑠𝑠
D) 15 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 /𝑠𝑠

SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “ANGULAR”

Angular (pg. 77)

Using the formula for velocity with respect to time:

𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝑑𝑑(𝑡𝑡 3 − 2𝑡𝑡 2 − 4𝑡𝑡 + 10)

𝜔𝜔(𝑡𝑡) = = 𝜔𝜔(𝑡𝑡) =
𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑
Take the derivative:

𝜔𝜔(𝑡𝑡) = 3𝑡𝑡 2 − 4𝑡𝑡 − 4

Find the velocity at = 3𝑠𝑠 :

𝜔𝜔(3) = (3)(3)2 − 4(3) − 4

𝜔𝜔(3) = 11 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 /𝑠𝑠

Answer is “C”
 MECHANICS OF MATERIALS

42. For the beam loaded as shown, which of the following diagrams
correctly represents the shape of the shear diagram? (Diagram not to
scale)

SOLUTION
Due to symmetry of the moments caused by the applied loads, the
reactions at Point “A” and Point “B” are equal. The shear on the left end of
the beam is equal to + 18 kN. The shear is constant from “A” to “B”,
decreases by 18 kN at “B”, and is constant from “B” to “C”. From “C” to “D”
the shear decreases linearly from zero to -18kN.

Answer is “B”
 43. For the beam shown, find the vertical shear at point “B”.

A) 9.2 kN
B) 170 kN
C) 390 kN
D) 400 kN

SOLUTION

Find the vertical reaction at Point “A”:

� 𝑀𝑀𝑐𝑐 = 𝑅𝑅𝐴𝐴 (6𝑚𝑚) − (110𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘/𝑚𝑚)(2.5𝑚𝑚)(4.75𝑚𝑚) − (60𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘/𝑚𝑚)(3.5𝑚𝑚)(1.75𝑚𝑚) = 0

𝑅𝑅𝐴𝐴 = 259.2 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘

Sum the forces from the left to Point “B”:

𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘
𝑣𝑣𝐵𝐵 = 259.2 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘 − �100 � (2.5𝑚𝑚) = 9.2 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘 (𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 )
𝑚𝑚

Answer is “A”
 44. The pressure gauge in an air cylinder reads 1,680 kPa. The cylinder is
constructed of a 12 mm rolled-steel plate with an internal diameter of
700 mm. The tangential stress (MPa) inside the tank is most nearly:

A) 25
B) 50
C) 77
D) 100

SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “PRESSURE VESSEL”

Cylindrical Pressure Vessel (pg. 80)

Using formula for “inside stress”

𝑟𝑟𝑜𝑜2 + 𝑟𝑟𝑖𝑖2 (3622 ) + (3502 )

𝜎𝜎𝑡𝑡 = 𝑃𝑃1 2 = 1.680𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀 = 49.8 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀
𝑟𝑟𝑜𝑜 − 𝑟𝑟𝑖𝑖2 (3622 ) − (3502 )

Answer is “B”
 45. Which of the following is true when a circular shaft is subjected to
torsion force only?
A) Maximum shear stress occurs at the outermost fibers
B) No shear stress is present throughout the shaft
C) Constant shear stress occurs throughout the shaft
D) Maximum shear stress occurs at the center of the shaft

SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “TORSION”

Torsion (pg. 82)

Maximum stress is produced when “r” is largest, i.e. the outermost fibers.

Answer is “A”

46. A hollow aluminum shaft has one end fixed, and one end attached to
a gear with an outside diameter of 40 cm as shown. The gear is
subjected to a tangential force of 45 kN. The aluminum has a shear
modulus of 2.8 × 1010 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃. What is the maximum angle of twist in the
shaft?

A) 0.016 rad
B) 0.025 rad
C) 0.057 rad
D) 0.250 rad

SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “TORSION”

Torsion (pg. 82)
Find the torque imparted at the center of the gear:
0.40𝑚𝑚
𝜏𝜏 = 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 = � � (45,000 𝑁𝑁) = 9,000 𝑁𝑁 ∙ 𝑚𝑚
2
Find “𝐽𝐽” the polar moment of inertia:
𝜋𝜋 4 𝜋𝜋
𝐽𝐽 = (𝑟𝑟𝑜𝑜 − 𝑟𝑟𝑖𝑖4 ) = � � [(0.05𝑚𝑚4 ) − (0.0375𝑚𝑚4 )] = 6.71 × 10−6 𝑚𝑚4
2 2
Substitute to find angle of twist:

𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇 (9,000𝑁𝑁 ∙ 𝑚𝑚)(1.2𝑚𝑚)

𝜙𝜙 = = = 0.057 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟
𝐽𝐽𝐽𝐽 (2.8 × 1010 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃)(6.71 × 10−6 𝑚𝑚4 )

Answer is “C”

47. A 10 kg axial load is uniformly carried by an aluminum pipe with an

outside diameter of 10 cm, and an inside diameter of 9.6 cm. The length
of the pipe is 1.2 m. The modulus of elasticity is 7.5 × 104 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀. How
mush is the pipe compressed?

A) 0.00026 mm
B) 0.0026 mm
C) 0.11 mm
D) 25 mm
SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “AXIAL”

Uniaxial Loading… (pg. 80)

Find the deformation:

𝑚𝑚
𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 (10 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘) �9.81 2 � (1.2𝑚𝑚)
𝛿𝛿 = = 𝜋𝜋 𝑠𝑠 = 2.55 × 10−6 𝑚𝑚
𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 ((0.10𝑚𝑚) − (0.096𝑚𝑚) )(75 × 10 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃)
2 2 9
4
Answer is “B”

48. A straight bar with a uniform cross-section is placed under tension.

The cross-section is 6.5 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐2 , and the length is 4𝑚𝑚. When the tensile
loading reaches 85kN, total elongation is 2.5 mm. What is the modulus
of elasticity?

A) 210 𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺
B) 240 𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺
C) 270 𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺
D) 300 𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺
SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “DEFORMATION”

Deformation (pg. 80)

Reordering the equation:

𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃
𝛿𝛿 = = 𝐸𝐸 =
𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴
𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 (85,000𝑁𝑁)(4𝑚𝑚)(100𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐/𝑚𝑚)2
𝐸𝐸 = = = 2.09 × 1011 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 (210 𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺)
𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 (6.5𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐2 )(0.0025𝑚𝑚)

Answer is “A”
 49. Using Mohr’s circle, what is the maximum shear stress on the
following element?

A) 20 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀
B) 42 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀
C) 45 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀
D) 50 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀

SOLUTION

Stress in 𝑥𝑥 −direction is tensile, therefore “+”. Stress in 𝑦𝑦 −direction is

compressive, therefore “-“.

𝜎𝜎𝑥𝑥 = 50 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀 𝜎𝜎𝑦𝑦 = −30 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀 𝜏𝜏𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 = 20 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀

Reference Manual Search Term: “MOHR’S”

Mohr’s Circle (pg. 81)
Calculate the center of Mohr’s circle:

𝜎𝜎𝑥𝑥 + 𝜎𝜎𝑦𝑦 (50 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀) + (−30 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀)

𝜎𝜎𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 = = = 10 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀
2 2
Plot the point 𝑝𝑝1 :

𝑝𝑝1 = (50 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀, −20 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀)

Draw Mohr’s circle:

The maximum shear stress

happens at the top of the circle.

The maximum shear stress can also be calculated using the radius:

2
𝜎𝜎𝑥𝑥 − 𝜎𝜎𝑦𝑦 2 50 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀 − (−30 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀)
𝑅𝑅 = �� 2
� + 𝜏𝜏𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 = �� � + (20 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀)2 = 44.7 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀
2 2

Answer is “C”
 50. A rectangular steel beam is held between two rigid supports 2.25m
apart. The modulus of elasticity of the steel is 2100 𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺, the coefficient
of thermal expansion is 11.7 × 10−6 /°𝐶𝐶 . The cross-sectional area of
the beam is 6.5 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐2 . If the temperature of the beam increases by 30° C,
what is the stress induced in the beam?

A) 67.5 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀 (𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐)

B) 73.7 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀 (𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐)
C) 99.5 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀 (𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡)
D) 166 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀 (𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡)

SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “THERMAL”

Thermal (pg. 81)

To determine the stress induced by the deformation, we combine the

deformation equation with the uniaxial loading.
𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 𝜎𝜎𝜎𝜎
𝛿𝛿 = 𝛼𝛼𝛼𝛼(𝑡𝑡 − 𝑡𝑡0 ) − = 0 = 𝛼𝛼𝛼𝛼(𝑡𝑡 − 𝑡𝑡0 ) −
𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 𝐸𝐸
𝜎𝜎 = 𝛼𝛼 (𝑡𝑡 − 𝑡𝑡0 )𝐸𝐸 = (11.7 × 10−6 /°𝐶𝐶 )(30°𝐶𝐶 )(2.1 × 1011 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃)

7.37 × 1017 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 (73.7 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀)

Answer is “B”
 MATERIALS

51. The following preliminary concrete mix has been designed assuming
the aggregates are in oven-dry conditions.

𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊 = 305 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙/𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦3

𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶 = 693 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙/𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦 3
𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 (𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆) = 1,674 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙/𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦 3
𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 (𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆) = 1,100 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙/𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦 3

The properties of the aggregates used are as follows:

The amount of water (𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙/𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦3 ) that would be used in the final mix is most
nearly:

A) 206
B) 222
C) 305
D) 388

SOLUTION

The moisture content includes water that is needed to bring the aggregates to
SSD conditions and the excess water that is used in the mix. Since the used
moisture of the aggregates is greater than the absorption, excess water is present
and must be subtracted from the water added to the mix (305 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙/𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦3 ).

(2.0% − 0.5%) 6.0% − 0.7%

305 − � � × 1,674 − � � × 1,100 = 221.6 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙/𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦3
100 100

Answer is “B”

52. The test that measures the energy required to fracture a specimen at
a given temperature is the:

A) Endurance Test
B) Brinell Test
C) Charpy Test
D) Rockwell Test

SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “CHARPY”

Charpy (pg. 64)
 Answer is “C”

53. In general, a metal with high hardness will also have:

A) High impact strength

B) High electrical conductivity
C) Good formability
D) High yield strength

SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “HARDNESS”

Hardness (pg. 64)

By definition, a metal with high hardness has a high tensile strength and yield
strength.

Answer is “D”
 54. A flexible pavement system is designed using the AASHTO structural
number design method with the following criteria. If the minimum
thickness of surfacing and base are used, what is the required thickness
(in.) of the subbase?

Minimum Strength
Material
Thickness Coefficient
Asphalt Concrete Surfacing 2 in. 0.44
Aggregate Base 4 in. 0.25
Aggregate Subbase 4 in. 0.10
Design Structural Number = 2.50

A) 4 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖.
B) 4.6 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖.
C) 6.2 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖.
D) 8 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖.

Reference Manual Search Term: “AASHTO”

AASHTO (pg. 173)

Using the AASHTO formula with the known Structural Number:

𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆 = 𝑎𝑎1 𝐷𝐷1 + 𝑎𝑎2 𝐷𝐷2 + 𝑎𝑎3 𝐷𝐷3 =

2.50 = (0.44)(2𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖) + (0.25)(4𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖) + (0.10)(𝐷𝐷3 )

𝐷𝐷3 = 6.2 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖.

Answer is “C”
 FLUID MECHANICS
55. The density of the air flowing in a tube is 1.15 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘 /𝑚𝑚3 . A pitot tube is
placed in the duct as shown. The static pressure in the duct is measured
with a pressure gage. Use the gage readings to determine the velocity of
the air.

A) 42 𝑚𝑚/𝑠𝑠
B) 102 𝑚𝑚/𝑠𝑠
C) 110 𝑚𝑚/𝑠𝑠
D) 150 𝑚𝑚/𝑠𝑠

SOLUTION

The static pressure is 6,000 Pa, the pitot tube indicates 7,000 Pa.

Reference Manual Search Term: “FLUID FLOW”

Fluid Flow (pg. 111)
Using the known values in the equation:

2 2
𝑣𝑣 = �� � (𝑃𝑃0 − 𝑃𝑃𝑠𝑠 ) 𝑣𝑣 = �� � (7,000𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 − 6,000 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃)
𝜌𝜌 1.15 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘 /𝑚𝑚3

𝑣𝑣 = 41.7 𝑚𝑚 /𝑠𝑠

Answer is “A”

56. What is the atmospheric pressure on a planet if the absolute

pressure is 200 𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾, and the gage pressure is 20 𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾?

A) 20 𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾
B) 100 𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾
C) 180 𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾
D) 220 𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾

SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “GAGE PRESSURE”

Gage pressure (pg. 103)
 Rearranging the equation results in:

𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 = 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 − 𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃

𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 = 200𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾 − 20𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾

𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 = 180𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾

Answer is “C”

57. The pitot tube shown is placed at a point where the velocity is 2.0
m/s. The specific gravity of the fluid is 2.0, and the upper portion of the
manometer contains air. The reading “h” of the manometer is most
nearly:

A) 0.20
B) 0.40
C) 10.0
D) 20.0

SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “MANOMETER”

Manometer (pg. 104)
Substituting the known pressures using the manometer equation into the Energy
Equation:

𝜌𝜌𝑣𝑣 2
= 𝑔𝑔ℎ(𝜌𝜌 − 𝜌𝜌𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 )
2
Rearranging the equation:

𝜌𝜌𝑣𝑣 2 𝑣𝑣 2 (2)2
ℎ= ≈ ≈ = 0.204 𝑚𝑚
2𝑔𝑔(𝜌𝜌 − 𝜌𝜌𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 ) 2𝑔𝑔 (2)(9.8)

Answer is “D”

58. If the standard density of water is 1,000 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘 /𝑚𝑚3 , a fluid having a
specific gravity of 1.263 and an absolute dynamic viscosity of
1.5 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘 /(𝑚𝑚 ∙ 𝑠𝑠) has a kinematic viscosity (𝑚𝑚2 /𝑠𝑠) of most nearly:

A) 528
B) 1.89 × 10−3
C) 1.50 × 10−3
D) 1.19 × 10−3

SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “KINEMATIC VISCOSITY”

Kinematic Viscosity (pg.105)
The relationship between dynamic and kinematic viscosities is:

𝑣𝑣 = 𝜇𝜇 /𝜌𝜌

Substituting our known values:

𝑣𝑣 = 1.5 /1.263(1,000) = 0.001188 1.19 × 10−3

Answer is “D”

HYDRAULICS AND HYDROLOGIC SYSTEMS

59. A flow of 15.5 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 enters the pipe system at point “A” as shown, the
flow then exits points “B” and “C”. Given the pipe data in the table, and
assuming all pipes are at the same elevation, what is the head loss (ft) of
pipe “CB”?

A) 0.23
B) 0.18
C) 0.13
D) 0.05
 SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “HEAD LOSS”

Head Loss (pg. 106)

Using the equation for each pipe section:

200 22
ℎ𝑓𝑓,𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 = 0.03 � �� � = 0.186 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
2 2 × 32.2

200 1.32
ℎ𝑓𝑓,𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 = 0.03 � �� � = 0.052 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
3 2 × 32.2

ℎ𝑓𝑓,𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶 = ℎ𝑓𝑓,𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 − ℎ𝑓𝑓,𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 = 0.186 − 0.052 = 0.134𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓

Answer is “C”
 60. A 100-acre parcel of land has a rainfall intensity of 1.5 in. /hr and a
rational runoff coefficient “C” of 0.10. The flow rate (cfs) of this site is
most nearly:

A) 10.0
B) 15.0
C) 50.0
D) 75.0

SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “RATIONAL”

Rational Formula (pg. 165)

Using the formula:

𝑄𝑄 = 𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶 𝑄𝑄 = (0.10)(1.5)(100) = 15 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐

Answer is “B”
 61. A pump station delivers wastewater from a sump at an elevation of
78 ft. to a maintenance hole with a water surface elevation of 112 ft.
The static head (ft) for this pump is most nearly:

A) 17
B) 34
C) 44
D) 78

SOLUTION

The static head in this system is represented by the difference in elevation:

𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆 𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻 = 112𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 − 78𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 = 34𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓

Answer is “B”

62. A watershed of 525,000 square feet experiences a rainfall event of

2.5 in/hr. The runoff coefficient “C” is 0.14. The flowrate from this site
is:

A) 1.8 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
B) 4.2 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
C) 8.4 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
D) 106 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “RATIONAL”

Rational Formula (pg. 165)

Before using the Rational Formula, the area must first be converted from 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 2 to
acres, using the conversion factors found in the reference:

1 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 = 43,560𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 2

525,000𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 2
= 12.05𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎
43,560𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 2 /𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎

Substituting into the Rational Formula:

𝑄𝑄 = 𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶 𝑄𝑄 = (0.14)(2.5)(12.05) = 4.2 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐

Answer is “B”
 63. A 2-m wide rectangular channel has a bed slope of 0.0005, a normal
depth of 1.5-m, and a Manning’s roughness coefficient of 0.015. The
critical depth is:

A) 0.32 𝑚𝑚
B) 0.51 𝑚𝑚
C) 0.64 𝑚𝑚
D) 1.28 𝑚𝑚

SOLUTION

First solve for the flow Q using the Manning’s Equation:

Reference Manual Search Term: “MANNING’S EQUATION”

Manning’s (pg. 167)

1.0 3 2/3
𝑄𝑄 = (2 ∙ 1.5) � � (0.005)1/2
(0.015) 5

𝑄𝑄 = 3.18 𝑚𝑚3 /𝑠𝑠

Use the flow number along with a Froude number of “1”:

𝑄𝑄
𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹 = 1 =
𝐴𝐴�𝑔𝑔𝑦𝑦𝑐𝑐
 3.18
𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹 = 1 =
2(𝑦𝑦𝑐𝑐 )�(9.81)𝑦𝑦𝑐𝑐

𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹 = 0.636𝑚𝑚

Answer is “C”

64. The pressure in a water main at ground level is 85 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝. A engineer

has been hired to design a 5-story building with 12ft between floors.
Neglecting friction losses, the pressure (psi) on the fifth floor will be
most nearly:

A) 26
B) 31
C) 59
D) 111

SOLUTION

Calculate the pressure difference between the fifth floor and the ground level:

3)
12𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 1𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 2
(62.4 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 /𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 �5 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 × �� � = 26 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝
𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 144𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖2

𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓ℎ 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 = 85𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 − 26𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 = 59𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝

Answer is “C”
 65. Waste activated sludge has a kinematic viscosity of 20 × 10−5 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 2 /𝑠𝑠,
at the same temperature, water has a kinematic viscosity “𝑣𝑣”, of
10−5 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 2 /𝑠𝑠. The relative roughness of the piping is 0.001. The pressure
drop for the flow of water has been determined to be 1.0𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝, with a
Reynolds number of 107 . If waste activated sludge flows at the same
velocity through the piping system, the pressure drop (𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝), is most
nearly:

A) 1.0
B) 2.0
C) 3.0
D) 4.0

SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “REYNOLDS NUMBER”

Reynolds (pg. 115)
For the same piping system and velocity, head loss is proportional to the friction
factor. For this case the Reynolds number is very large, indicating fully turbulent
flow conditions. Referring to the Moody Diagram, the friction factor depends on
pipe roughness but not Reynolds numbers when they are very large, thus ƒ ≅
0.02 for both applications, and pressure drops are equal.

Answer is “A”

66. Two tanks are connected by a 9,000 ft length of 12-in(I.D.) PVC pipe.
The Hazen-Williams value “C” is 150. Water at 60°F is flowing through
the pipe at a velocity of 10 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 /𝑠𝑠. The tanks are open to the
atmosphere. The entrance, exit and minor losses are negligible. What is
the difference between the water surface elevations in the two tanks?

A) 81 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
B) 167 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
C) 181 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
D) 447 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓

SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “HAZEN”

Hazen-Williams (pg. 106)
S indicates the grade line (ℎ /9,000𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓)

Using the Hazen-Williams equation, solve for “h”:

𝑣𝑣 = 𝑘𝑘1 𝐶𝐶𝑅𝑅0.63 𝑆𝑆 0.54

10 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 /𝑠𝑠 = (1.318)(150)(12\12\4)0.63 (ℎ /9,000𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓)0.54

ℎ = 180.7 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓

Answer is “C”

67. An area with a composite surface runoff coefficient of 0.65, the

surface runoff flows toward a street from the land on both sides. The
watershed are extends 100ft on each side of the street centerline. The
street has curbs and gutters, and there is a curb inlet (basin) on both
sides of the street. The capacity of a curb inlet to pick up runoff is
10 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐. Local ordinance requires designing for a rainfall event maximum
of 6.8 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 /ℎ𝑟𝑟. The distance between the inlets along the street should
be most nearly:

A) 980
B) 640
C) 490
D) 230
SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “RUNOFF”

Runoff (pg. 165)

𝑄𝑄 = 𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶

Rearranging the equation:

𝑄𝑄 10
𝐴𝐴 = = = 2.26 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎
𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶 (0.65)(6.8)

Catchment Area :

2.26 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎(43,560𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 2 /𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎) = 98,400𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 2

Area (remembering there are 2 sides of the road):

𝐴𝐴 = 100(𝐿𝐿)
98,400
𝐿𝐿 = = 984 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
100
Answer is “A”
 STRUCTURAL ANALYSIS

68. The 40-kip vertical load at Joint C in the steel truss shown produces
the forces given in the accompanying table. The cross-sectional area of
the members is 4.0 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖2 , the lengths are given in the table. The modulus
of elasticity of the steel is 29,000 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘. The downward vertical
displacement of Joint C is:

A) 1.046
B) 0.294
C) 0.132
D) 0.102
SOLUTION
Apply a downward 1-kip load (unit load) at Joint “C” and compute the
forces “ƒ” in bars.

𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹
Multiply each members change in length ∆𝐿𝐿 = by its force (Divide “F” by
𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴
40)
Sum the resultant displacements:

Answer is “A”

69. Determine what type of structure the frame below is:

A) Unstable
B) Stable and Determinate
C) Indeterminate (1 degree)
D) Indeterminate (2 degrees)
 SOLUTION
Reference Manual Search Term: “DETERMINATE”
Determinate (pg. 68)

Unknown reactions and internal forces at internal pins: 6 × 2 = 12

Rigid body components (shown as FBD’s) and 3 resultant equations per

component: 4

Number of equations: 4 x 3 = 12

There are 12 equations, and 12 unknowns > determinate (stable by member

arrangement)

Answer is “B”

70. A concentrated load of 20 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘 moves through the truss shown.

Discounting the weight of the truss, what is the maximum force in
Member “CD” due to the moving load:
A) 50 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘
B) 37.5 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘
C) 25 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘
D) 12.5 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘
SOLUTION

The maximum force in “CD” occurs when the wheel is placed at the maximum
point on the influence line:

𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀 𝐹𝐹𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶 = (1.875)(20𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘) = 37.5 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘

Answer is “B”
71. Which of the vertical-load influence lines shown is correct for
Member “𝑈𝑈2 𝑈𝑈3 ” of the truss shown below?

A) Option A
B) Option B
C) Option C
D) Option D
SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “INFLUENCE LINE”

Influence Line (pg. 152)

Answer is “B”

72. Match each of the beams diagrammed below with its correct
description.
SOLUTION

73. The beam shown is known as a:

A) Simply supported beam

B) Continuously loaded beam
C) Cantilever Beam
D) Statically indeterminate beam
SOLUTION

“CANTILEVER”
Reference Manual Search Term:
Cantilevered Beam (pg. 86)

By definition, a cantilevered beam statically determinate, and loaded at a specific

point.

Answer is “C”
 STRUCTURAL DESIGN

74. The 𝑊𝑊 21 × 57 steel beam shown has the compression flange

braced at the one-third points over its full length. Assume 𝐹𝐹𝑦𝑦 = 50 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘
and 𝐶𝐶𝑏𝑏 = 1.0 for the critical segment. The maximum factored load
𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘
𝑤𝑤𝑢𝑢 � � that the beam can carry is:
𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓

A) 2.658
B) 3.360
C) 4.302
D) 4.778

SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “W SHAPE”

W Shapes Table (pg. 159)
For 𝑊𝑊 21 × 57:

𝜙𝜙𝑀𝑀𝑝𝑝 = 484 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 − 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘 𝐿𝐿𝑝𝑝 = 4.77𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝐿𝐿𝑟𝑟 = 14.3𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 = 20.1

Since 𝐿𝐿𝑝𝑝 < 𝐿𝐿𝑏𝑏 = 10 < 𝐿𝐿𝑝𝑝

𝜙𝜙𝑀𝑀𝑛𝑛 = 𝜙𝜙𝑀𝑀𝑝𝑝 − 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 × �𝐿𝐿𝑏𝑏 − 𝐿𝐿𝑝𝑝 � = 484 − 20.1 × (10.0 − 4.77) = 378.9 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 − 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘

8 𝜙𝜙𝑀𝑀𝑛𝑛 8(378.9)
𝑤𝑤𝑢𝑢 = = = 3.368 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘 /𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
𝐿𝐿2 (30)2

Answer is “B”

75. The figure shown below is cross-section of a steel rectangular beam.

The beam is subjected to transverse loading applied I the Y-direction.

What area on the cross-section will experience maximum normal stress?

SOLUTION

The maximum normal stress in a beam due to transverse loading occurs at the
outermost fibers.

76. What is the value of “φ” that should be used when computing the
design moment strength 𝜙𝜙𝑀𝑀𝑛𝑛 for the beam shown?

A) 0.80
B) 0.81
C) 0.84
D) 0.90
SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “CONCRETE”

Concrete (pg. 154)

(5.08)(60) 𝛼𝛼 7.47
𝐴𝐴𝑠𝑠 = 5.08𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖2 𝑎𝑎 = = 7.47𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝑐𝑐 = = = 8.79𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖
(0.85)(4)(12) 𝛽𝛽1 0.85
𝑑𝑑𝑡𝑡 − 𝑐𝑐 12.71
𝑑𝑑𝑡𝑡 − 𝑐𝑐 = 21.5 − 8.79 = 12.71𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝜀𝜀𝑡𝑡 = (0.003) = (0.003) = 0.004338
𝑐𝑐 8.79

0.004 < 𝜀𝜀𝑡𝑡 < 0.005 = 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 𝜙𝜙

𝜙𝜙 = 0.48 + (83)(0.004338) = 0.84

Answer is “C”

77. The reinforced concrete beam is subjected to a factored moment

𝑀𝑀𝑢𝑢 = 648 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 − 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘. For concrete with 𝑓𝑓𝑐𝑐′ = 4,000𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 and the steel
𝑓𝑓𝑦𝑦 = 60,000𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝. The beam is reinforced as shown. Assume 𝜙𝜙 = 0.90.
What is the minimum overall width (to the nearest inch) for this beam?

A) 15
B) 13
C) 12
D) 10
SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “BEAM”

Reinforced Beam (pg. 155)

𝑀𝑀𝑢𝑢 𝑎𝑎 1 𝐴𝐴𝑠𝑠 𝑓𝑓𝑦𝑦

𝑀𝑀𝑛𝑛 = = 𝐴𝐴𝑠𝑠 𝑓𝑓𝑦𝑦 �𝑑𝑑 − � = 𝐴𝐴𝑠𝑠 𝑓𝑓𝑦𝑦 �𝑑𝑑 − × �
𝜙𝜙 2 2 0.85𝑓𝑓𝑐𝑐′ 𝑏𝑏

The area of steel:

𝐴𝐴𝑠𝑠 = 8(0.79𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖2 ) = 6.32𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖2

Distance to the center (between the rows of reinforcement):

𝑑𝑑 = 30 − 3.5 = 26.5𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖

Substitute into equation:

(648)(12) 1 (6.32)(60)
= (6.32)(60) �(26.5) − � � � �� 𝑏𝑏 = 14.98𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖
0.9 2 (0.85)(4)𝑏𝑏

Answer is “A”

78. What is the flexural design strength of the reinforced concrete beam
shown? Assume 𝑓𝑓𝑐𝑐′ = 4,000𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝, and 𝑓𝑓𝑦𝑦 = 60,000𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝.

A) 258 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 − 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘

B) 289 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 − 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘
C) 314 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 − 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘
D) 349 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 − 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘
SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “BEAM”

Reinforced Beam (pg. 155)

4𝜋𝜋(1)2
𝑑𝑑 = 20 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝐴𝐴𝑠𝑠 = = 3.14 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖2
4
Calculate “a”:

𝐴𝐴𝑠𝑠 𝑓𝑓𝑦𝑦
𝑎𝑎 = = 3.46 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖.
0.85𝑓𝑓𝑐𝑐′ 𝑏𝑏
𝑎𝑎 3.46
Find 𝑀𝑀𝑛𝑛 : 𝑀𝑀𝑛𝑛 = 𝐴𝐴𝑠𝑠 𝑓𝑓𝑦𝑦 �𝑑𝑑 − � (3.14)(60) �20 − � = 3,443 𝑘𝑘 ∙ 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖
2 2

Convert to 𝑘𝑘 ∙ 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓:

1 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
3,443 𝑘𝑘 ∙ 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 � � = 286.9 𝑘𝑘 ∙ 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
12 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖
Calculate the resistance factor “φ”:

𝑑𝑑 − 𝑐𝑐 20 − (3.46 /0.85)
𝐸𝐸𝑠𝑠 = 𝐸𝐸𝑐𝑐 � � = 0.003 � � = 0.012 > 0.005 > 𝐸𝐸𝑦𝑦
𝑐𝑐 (3.46 /0.85)

𝜙𝜙 = 0.90

𝜙𝜙𝜙𝜙𝑛𝑛 = 0.90(286.9) = 258 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 ∙ 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘

Answer is “A”
 79. What is the flexural design strength of the reinforced concrete beam
shown? Assume 𝑓𝑓𝑐𝑐′ = 4,000𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝, and 𝑓𝑓𝑦𝑦 = 60,000𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝.

A) 354 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 ∙ 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘

B) 319 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 ∙ 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘
C) 297 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 ∙ 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘
D) 267 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 ∙ 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘

SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “BEAM”

Reinforced Beam (pg. 155)

𝑑𝑑 = 18 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖. 𝐴𝐴𝑠𝑠 = 3(1.27𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖2 ) = 3.81 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖2

Calculate “a”:

𝐴𝐴𝑠𝑠 𝑓𝑓𝑦𝑦 (3.81)(60)

𝑎𝑎 = = = 4.80 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖.
0.85𝑓𝑓𝑐𝑐′ 𝑏𝑏 0.85(4)(14)
𝑎𝑎 4.80
Find 𝑀𝑀𝑛𝑛 : 𝑀𝑀𝑛𝑛 = 𝐴𝐴𝑠𝑠 𝑓𝑓𝑦𝑦 �𝑑𝑑 − � (3.81)(60) �18 − � = 3,564 𝑘𝑘 ∙ 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖
2 2

Convert to 𝑘𝑘 ∙ 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓:

1 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
3,564 𝑘𝑘 ∙ 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 � � = 297 𝑘𝑘 ∙ 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
12 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖
Calculate the resistance factor “φ”:

𝑑𝑑 − 𝑐𝑐 18 − (4.8 /0.85)
𝐸𝐸𝑠𝑠 = 𝐸𝐸𝑐𝑐 � � = 0.003 � � = 0.0066 > 0.005
𝑐𝑐 (4.8 /0.85)

𝜙𝜙 = 0.90

𝜙𝜙𝜙𝜙𝑛𝑛 = 0.90(297) = 267 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 ∙ 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘

Answer is “D”

GEOTECHNICAL ENGINEERING

80. The direct shear test results of a sand are shown below, what is the
angle of friction?
𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 = 16 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 2
𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 = 512 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙
𝑆𝑆ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 = 16 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝
A) 0°
B) 27°
C) 30°
D) 63°
SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “SHEAR STRESS”

Shear stress (pg. 149)

Solve for the total normal stress:

𝑃𝑃 (512 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙)
𝜎𝜎𝑛𝑛 = = = 32 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 𝜏𝜏 = 16 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝
𝐴𝐴 (16𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖2 )

Solve for “φ”:

16
𝜙𝜙 = tan−1 � � ≅ 27°
32

Answer is “B”
 81. An undisturbed sample of soil contains solids with a specific gravity
of 2.70, a moisture content of 10.5%, and a void ration of 0.63. What is
the degree of saturation of this sample?

A) 22%
B) 36%
C) 45%
D) 65%

SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “SATURATION”

Degree of saturation (pg. 146)

Looking at the relationships between the formulas:

𝐺𝐺𝑠𝑠 (𝜔𝜔) = (𝑆𝑆)(𝑒𝑒) (2.70)(0.105) = (𝑆𝑆)(0.63)

𝑆𝑆 = 45%

Answer is “C”
 82. A soil test indicates a level site has a 10-ft upper layer of sand. The
groundwater table is located at the surface. The unit weight of the sand
is 135.0 pcf. What is the effective overburden stress at a depth of 10 ft?

A) 1,985 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝
B) 1,450 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝
C) 725 𝑝𝑝𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠
D) 615 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝

SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “EFFECTIVE STRESS”

Effective stress (pg. 149)

Calculate the effective stress:

𝜎𝜎 ′ = 𝜎𝜎 − 𝑢𝑢 𝜎𝜎 ′ = (135)(10) − (62.4)(10) = 726 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝

Answer is “C”
 83. A retaining wall is 12-ft tall, and is backfilled with a granular soil type.
The soil has an internal angle of friction of 30°, and a unit weight of
125pcf. What is the Rankine passive earth pressure on the wall?

A) 2,250 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 /𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 2

B) 3,000 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 /𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 2
C) 9,000 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 /𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 2
D) 27,000 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 /𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 2

SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “RANKINE”

Rankine active (pg. 149)

Calculate the passive pressure:

𝜙𝜙 30
𝐾𝐾𝑝𝑝 = 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡2 �(45°) + � 𝐾𝐾𝑝𝑝 = 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡2 �(45°) + � 𝐾𝐾𝑝𝑝 = 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡2 (60) = 3.0
2 2
1 1
𝑃𝑃𝑝𝑝 = � � (𝛾𝛾)(𝐻𝐻 2 )�𝐾𝐾𝑝𝑝 � 𝑃𝑃𝑝𝑝 = � � (125)(122 )(3.0) = 27,000 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 /𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 2
2 2

Answer is “D”
 84. A normally-consolidated clay layer has a thickness of 10-ft. The layer
is surcharged. The coefficient of consolidation is 0.16 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 2 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 and
the time factor is 1.2 for = 50% . The clay layer is located between two
layers of dense sand. What is the time required for 50% consolidation?

A) 750 days
B) 188 days
C) 38 days
D) 5 days

SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “CONSOLIDATION”

Consolidation (pg. 147-148)

Calculate the time required for 50% consolidation:

2 (52 )
𝐻𝐻𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑
𝑡𝑡 = (𝑇𝑇) � � = (1.2) � � = 187.5 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑
𝑐𝑐𝑣𝑣 0.16

Answer is “B”
 85. The flow net shown is the cross-section of a dam with a length of
600-ft (perpendicular to the cross-section). Assuming uniformity, what is
the total seepage (𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 3 /day) under the dam?

A) 453,600
B) 51,840
C) 37,800
D) 63

SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “FLOW NET”

Flow nets (pg. 146)

Using the equation for flow nets:

𝑁𝑁𝑓𝑓 1 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 3.5
𝑄𝑄 = 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘 � � = (0.0004) � � (50𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓) � � = 0.000729 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 3 /sec per ft.
𝑁𝑁𝑑𝑑 12 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 8
 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 3
0.000729 per ft. (3600 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠/ℎ𝑟𝑟)(24 ℎ𝑟𝑟/𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑) = 63 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 3 / day per ft of wall
s

𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆 = (𝑄𝑄 )(𝐿𝐿) = (63 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 3 / day per ft of wall)(600𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓) = 37,800 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 3 / day

Answer is “C”

TRANSPORTATION ENGINEERING
86. At a two-way controlled intersection, determining the sight distance
required for minor street movements is controlled by:

A) Decision sight distance

B) Stopping sight distance
C) Departure sight distance
D) Approach sight distance

SOLUTION

Departure sight is based on a vehicle stopped, looking at major street vehicles for
acceptable gaps.

Answer is “C”
 87. A highway lane has a volume of 1,400 vehicles/hr, and an average
vehicle speed of 45 mph. What is the time spacing between vehicles
(center to center) in seconds?

A) 2.6
B) 5.2
C) 15
D) 31

SOLUTION
3,600𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠/ℎ𝑟𝑟
Vehicle Spacing: 𝑆𝑆 = � � = 2.57 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠/𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣ℎ𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖
1,400 𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣ℎ𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖/ℎ𝑟𝑟

Answer is “A”

88. At a crosswalk, the initial “WALK” signal is displayed for 6.0 sec, after
which a “DON’T WALK” is displayed. The pedestrian walking speed is 4
ft/sec, and the intersection is 50-ft wide. After the green light, the
yellow interval is 3.5 sec. The all-red interval is 0.5 sec, during which, no
pedestrians are in the crosswalk. What is the length of time the green
must be displayed?

A) 8.5 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠
B) 10.5 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠
C) 15.0 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠
D) 22.0 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠
SOLUTION

The green light signal length equals the length of the WALK signal, plus the time
to cross the crosswalk, minus the yellow signal length:

50𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺 𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿ℎ𝑡𝑡 = (6.0𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠) + � � − 3.5 sec = 15.0𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠
4𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 /𝑠𝑠

Answer is “C”

89. A person is driving on a gravel road. A moose suddenly leaps into the
road. The car was travelling 50 mph, and is on a 10% downgrade when
the moose appears. Assume a reaction time of 1.5 sec, and a friction
coefficient of the gravel of 0.65.What is the total distance required to
stop?

A) 153 ft
B) 220 ft
C) 239 ft
D) 262 ft

SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “STOPPING”

Stopping Sight Distance (pg.169)
Distance to stop:

𝑣𝑣 2
𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷 = 1.47𝑉𝑉𝑡𝑡 + � �
𝑎𝑎
30 �� � ± 𝐺𝐺�
32.2

502
1.47(50 × 1.5) � � = 261.8 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
30�(0.65) − 0.10�

Answer is “D”

90. An equal tangent vertical curve has the following characteristics:

𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿ℎ 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 = 800𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓

𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 = 30 + 00
𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 = 200.0 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑒𝑒 = +4%
𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔 = −6%

The elevation of the curve at Station 31+00 is:

A) 244.6 ft
B) 211.6 ft
C) 209.6 ft
D) 190.4 ft

SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “CURVE”

Vertical Curve (pg. 176)

Calculate the PVC station:

𝐿𝐿 800
𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 = 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 − � � = (30 + 00) − � � = 26 + 00
2 2
Find the elevation of PVC:
𝐿𝐿 8
𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 = 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 − 𝑔𝑔1 � � = 200 − (−6) � � = 224.0 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
2 2
Find elevation of station 31+00:

(𝑔𝑔2 − 𝑔𝑔1 ) 2
𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸 = 𝑌𝑌𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 + 𝑔𝑔1 𝑥𝑥 + � � 𝑥𝑥
2𝐿𝐿

(10)
𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸 = (224.0) + (−6)(5) + � � (5)2 = 209.6 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
2(8)

Answer is “C”

91. Using a given loading condition, which of the following pavement

design types will result in the thinnest pavement?

A) Composite hot-mix asphalt over Portland cement concrete

B) Portland cement concrete
C) Warm-mix asphalt
D) Hot-mix asphalt
SOLUTION

Under ideal conditions, any design containing asphalt mixture will result in a
thicker product.

Answer is “B”

92. Two crash reduction measures are being considered to address

safety for an urban intersection reconstruction project. The crash
reduction factors are 0.25 and 0.15, and are mutually exclusive. If the
expected number of crashes per year is 10, and no growth in traffic is
anticipated, what is the number of expected crashes per year?

A) 3.6
B) 4.2
C) 6.4
D) 7.2

SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “CRASH”

Crash Reduction (pg. 172)
The reduction measures are mutually exclusive:

𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶 = 𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶1 + (1 − 𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶1 )𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶2

𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶 = 0.25 + (1 − .025)0.15 = 0.36

Crashes prevented:

𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒(0.36) = 3.6

𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 − 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 = 10 − 3.6 = 6.4

Answer is “C”

93. A horizontal curve has the following characteristics:

𝐼𝐼 = 40°50′
𝑅𝑅 = 600.00
𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆 = 20 + 00

What is the station of “PT”?

A) 22+30.21
B) 22+22.37
C) 22+04.27
D) 22+01.52
SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “CURVE”

Horizontal Curve (pg. 175)

Using the formula for tangent distance:

𝐼𝐼 40.833°
�
𝑇𝑇 = 𝑅𝑅 tan 2� 𝑇𝑇 = (600)𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 � � = 223.34
2

𝜋𝜋 𝜋𝜋
𝐿𝐿 = 𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅 � � 𝐿𝐿 = (600)(40.833°) � � = 427.61
180 180
𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 = 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 − 𝑇𝑇 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 = (20 + 00.00) − 223.34 = 17 + 76.66

𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 = 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 − 𝐿𝐿 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 = (17 + 76.66) − 427.61 = 22 + 04.27

Answer is “C”
 ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING

94. A municipal softening plant produces a supply of 5 MGD. The plant

operates two clarifiers, each has a diameter of 65 ft, and a side depth of
12 ft. What is the clarifier residence time assuming parallel operation?

A) 3.42 hr
B) 2.86 hr
C) 1.82 hr
D) 0.85 hr

SOLUTION

Residence time equals flow rate divided by volume:

Volume of clarifiers:

(65)2
2 �𝜋𝜋(12𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓) � = 79,640 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 3
4

Flow volume per hour:

5 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀 106 𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔 /𝑀𝑀

𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹 = � 3
�� � = 27,853 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 3 /ℎ𝑟𝑟
7.48 𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔 /𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 24ℎ𝑟𝑟 /𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑

Residence Time:

79,640 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 3
� � = 2.86 ℎ𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜
27,853 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 3 /ℎ𝑟𝑟

Answer is “B”
 95. A water treatment plant uses filters with a surface area of 100 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 2 .
The backwash cycle flow rate is 15 gpm/ 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 2 , with a duration of 12 min.
What is the quantity of water required for the backwash cycle?

A) 3,800 gal
B) 12,600 gal
C) 18,000 gal
D) 144,000 gal

SOLUTION

Solve for the volume required:

𝑉𝑉 = (100 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 2 )(15 𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔 /𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 2 )(12𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚) = 18,000 𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔

Answer is “C”

96. A municipal wastewater treatment facility processes a flow with a 5-

day BOD of 200 mg/L at 20°C. If the BOD rate constant at 20°C is
0.23 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 −1 , what is the ultimate BOD (mg/L) of the raw wastewater?

A) 413
B) 293
C) 187
D) 135

SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “BOD”

BOD Exertion (pg. 185)
Solving for BOD ultimate:

𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝑡𝑡 = 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢 [1 − 𝑒𝑒 −𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘 ]

𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚
200 = 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢 �1 − 𝑒𝑒 (−0.23)(5) � = 292.7 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 /𝐿𝐿
𝐿𝐿
Answer is “B”

97. Your firm has been tasked with designing as aerobic system to
biodegrade benzene (𝐶𝐶6 𝐻𝐻6 ). The biodegradation process follows the
reaction below. The benzene concentration is 500 mg/L. What is the
amount of oxygen is required to completely biodegrade the benzene?

𝐶𝐶6 𝐻𝐻6 + 𝑂𝑂2 → 𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶2 + 𝐻𝐻2 𝑂𝑂

A) 400 mg/L
B) 520 mg/L
C) 870 mg/L
D) 1,540 mg/L
SOLUTION

First, balance the equation:

(1)𝐶𝐶6 𝐻𝐻6 + (7.5)𝑂𝑂2 → (6)𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶2 + (3)𝐻𝐻2 𝑂𝑂

𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 1 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 7.5 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 𝑂𝑂2 32 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 𝑂𝑂2

500 (𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵) � �� �� � = 1,540 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚/𝐿𝐿
𝐿𝐿 78 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 𝑂𝑂2

Answer is “D”

98. Which of the following is associated with the corrosion of sanitary

sewer piping?

A) BOD
B) Fats, oils, grease
C) 𝐻𝐻2 𝑆𝑆
D) 𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁3

SOLUTION

𝐻𝐻2 𝑆𝑆 is the primary product produced under conditions that can cause
corrosion in piping systems.

Answer is “C”
 99. A mixture of gas at 25°C and at 1 atm contains 100mg/L of 𝐻𝐻2 𝑆𝑆 . The
partial pressure exerted by the 𝐻𝐻2 𝑆𝑆 is:

A) 0.14 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎
B) 0.072 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎
C) 0.0056 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎
D) 0.0029 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎

SOLUTION

Calculate the molar weight of 𝐻𝐻2 𝑆𝑆 :

𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀 𝐻𝐻2 𝑆𝑆= 34 g/mol

100𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 1𝑔𝑔
𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀 𝐻𝐻2 𝑆𝑆 = � �� � = 0.0029 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 𝐻𝐻2 𝑆𝑆
1,000𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚
34𝑔𝑔
𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚
Using ideal gas law:

𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 (0.0029 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 )(0.08206)(298 𝐾𝐾 )

𝑉𝑉 = = = 0.072 𝐿𝐿
𝑃𝑃 1 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎
Calculate the partial pressure:
0.072 𝐿𝐿
= 0.072
1 𝐿𝐿
Answer is “B”
 CONSTRUCTION

100. As-built drawings, warranties, and manuals are provided to the

owner/client during which phase of construction?
A) Feasibility
B) Bidding
C) Procurement
D) Close-out

SOLUTION

All of these items are generally provided to the owner/ client during the close-out
phase of construction.

Answer is “D”

101. A loader has a bucket capacity of 3 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦3 , and the time required to
place one bucket of soil into a waiting truck is 1 min. The loader is
supported by 4 trucks, each truck has a haul capacity of 15 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦 3 , and a
drive time of 12 min. What is the ideal productivity of this system?

A) 142𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦3 /ℎ𝑟𝑟
B) 180𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦3 /ℎ𝑟𝑟
C) 212𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦3 /ℎ𝑟𝑟
D) 287𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦3 /ℎ𝑟𝑟
SOLUTION

Calculate the time to load 1 truck: 15𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦3 / 3𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦3 / min = 5 min

There are 4 trucks, 5 minute loading plus drive = 17 min.

17 min < 20 min: Loader limited

60 min/ℎ𝑟𝑟
𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶 = � � [15 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦3 /𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 ] = 180𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦 3 /ℎ𝑟𝑟
5 min/𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡

Answer is “B”

102. Four excavators with different bucket sizes are available for rental.
The rental rate is directly proportional to the bucket size. Assume that
production (loose 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦 3 /ℎ𝑟𝑟) is equal to excavator cycles per hour times
bucket payload per cycle. Which excavator is the most efficient?

A) Excavator 1
B) Excavator 2
C) Excavator 3
D) Excavator 4
SOLUTION

Calculate the production rates for each excavator:

60 min/ℎ𝑟𝑟
Production of excavator 3: � � [15 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦3 /𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 ]= 180 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦 3 / hr.
5 min/𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡

Upon calculating all 4 excavator types, option 3 has the highest production rate.

Answer is “C”

103. An embankment with a volume of 320,000 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦3 will be constructed

from borrow on the site. The dry unit weight of the borrow material is
106 pcf, and the moisture content is 18.2%. The embankment material
will have a unit weight of 122 pcf, and a moisture content of 16.7%.
What volume of borrow is needed to construct the embankment?

A) 247,800 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦 3
B) 298,600 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦3
C) 315,500 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦3
D) 357,200 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦3

SOLUTION

Dry unit weight of embankment material:

100
122𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 � � = 104.5 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝
116.7
Divide the dry unit weight by the borrow:

104.5
� � (320,000 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦3 ) = 315,470 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦 3
106

Answer is “C”
 104. A road project has the following cross-sectional areas needing to be
excavated (cut). Using the prismoidal method, what is volume of earth
to excavated between Section 4+35, and Section 5+56?

A) 1,420 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦3
B) 1,760 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦3
C) 1,860 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦3
D) 1,980 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦 3

SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “PRISMOIDAL”

Prismoidal Formula (pg. 176)

Calculate the volume of soil to be excavated:

𝑉𝑉 = 𝐿𝐿[(322 + (4)(395) + 418) ] ÷ [(6)(27)] = 1,862 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦 3

Answer is “C”
 SURVEYING
105. What is the value of Angle “A” in the following figure?

A) 29°15’31”
B) 30°18’47”
C) 31°26’12”
D) 39°05’38”

SOLUTION

Reference Manual Search Term: “LAW OF COSINES”

Law of Cosines (pg. 23)
Using the Law of Cosines:

𝑎𝑎2 = 𝑏𝑏 2 + 𝑐𝑐 2 − 2𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏 cos 𝐴𝐴

(4802 ) + (7202 ) − (3902 )

cos 𝐴𝐴 = = 30°18′47"
(480)(720)

Answer is “B”

106. The area enclosed by the points O, PT, PI, and PC is 83,164𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 2 . What
is the area of the shaded portion?

A) 2,450 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 2
B) 2,879 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 2
C) 3,386 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 2
D) 5,263 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 2

SOLUTION
Find the portion of the circle:

𝐴𝐴 = 𝜋𝜋𝑟𝑟 2 𝐴𝐴 = 𝜋𝜋(500 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓)2 = 785,398𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 2

Find the portion of the circle the area represents:

36°48′
= 0.1022
360°
 (785,398 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 2 )(0.1022) = 80,285 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 2

The shaded area is outside of the circular area:

83,164 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 2 − 80,285 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 2 = 2,879 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 2

Answer is “B”

107. A closed traverse runs from Point “B” to Point “K”. The bearings and
distances are as follows:

What is the error in closure?

A) 0.08
B) 0.12
C) 0.26
D) 0.35

SOLUTION

Draw a diagram indicating bearings and distances:

Tabulate the coordinates on a table, find error amount:

∆ 𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿 = 11,511.27 − 11,511.15 = 0.12

Answer is “B”