BNB Hs. 2002 E.C 2nd Sem. (II) Model Exam

BNB LEARNING CENTRE PERPARATORY SCHOOL
2002 E.C 2nd SEMESTER MATHEMATICS MODELEXAM III FOR GRADE 12

Max: Mark 70%
Time allowed 3:00
Choose the correct answer and write the Letter of your answer on the
separate answer sheet.
1. Which of the following is not a rational function?
A. f ( x) 
 x  1 2 
4x 2
C. f ( x) 
3
 8  x 1
x2 1 x x2  x3
| x 2  1| 1 1 1
B. f ( x)   3 D. f ( x)   2  3
x( x  1) x x x
2. In the figure shown below, AB is a diameter,  is the center of the circle.
AC // OD and m(<CAB) = 440. Then what is m(<ODC)? C
D
A. 68
B. 70 44
A B
O
C. 57
D. 88
Q
3. Given A, B as the points (5, 2) and (-3, -6) respectively. What is the coordinates of
P, if P divides AB Internally in the ratio 3:5?
A. (17, 14) B. (2, -1) C. (0, 1) D. (-2, 3)
4. Let a polynomial f(x) has root -2, 0 and 1 with respectively multiplicity 1, 3 and 2
and f(-1) = 8. Then which of the following is the value of f(2)?
A. 32 B. -64 C. 48 D. -24
5. If the volume of a cube is increasing at the rate of 6cm 3/sec. when the length is
2cm, then what is the rate at which the total surface area is increasing at that time
in cm2/s.
A. 12 B. 22 C. 3 D. 24
If (x) = ex 2 e .3e , then what is the antiderivative of f(x)?
x x
6.
x
6e
A. 6e . ex + c C. c
x
ln 6
x
6e .e x
c
x
B. 6e ln6 + c D.
ln 6
BNB Learning Centre, Preparatory School Mathematics Model Exam III,2010 G.C.
By Leul A.
x 2  x  11 x  2 x  3
7. Which of the following is the solution set of the equation   1
x2  x  6 3  x x  2
?
A.  B. IR C. IR\ {-2, 3} D. {-2, 3}
8. Which of the following is an equation of the tangent line at the indicated point on
2
 4
the graph of the function f ( x)   x   , at (-1, f(-1))?
 x
A. y = 30x + 39 C. y = -30x + 29
B. y = -27x – 11 D. y = 16x - 19
9. Which of the following is a divergent sequence?


  101 
1 2 n


A.  999 n 1 C.   

 100  
 n 1
 

 99 
9 n

 
    
1 n

B.    D.   

 88  
 n 1 
 12  
 n 1
10. Let a hyperbola has center (-3, 1), a = 4, horizontal transverse axis, length of latus
rectum is 8 units. Then what is the equation of the hyperbola that satisfy the above
specification?
A. (x + 3)2 – (y – 1)2 = 16 C.
 x  3 2 
 y  1 2 1
4 16
B. 4(x + 3)2 – 9(y – 1)2 = 36 D.

 y  1 2 
 x  1 2 1
16 16
e ( x  e  x ln x )dx ?
x
11. What is the value of this definite integral
A. xex - ex + xlnx – x + c C. xex – ex + lnx – x + c
B. xex + ex + xlnx + c D. xex – xlnx –x + c
12. If there are N bacteria present after 50 days, then after how many days were there
N
present?
8
A. 47 days B. 30 days C. 40 days D. 48 days
13. Suppose f(x) = X2 – 4 if x < 3 Then which of the following is false?

8–x if x > 3
A. 0 and 3 are critical numbers C. the relative maximum value is 5

B. f increasing on (0, 3) D. f (3)  5
By Leul A.
x2  2x
14. Let f(x) = x2 –2x – 3 and g(x)= . Then which of the following is false?
x
A. Lim
x 3 
f ( x) exists C.
Lim
x 2 f(x) = 
f ( x) 3 f ( x)
B.
Lim
x2  D.
Lim
x 0 

g ( x) 4 g ( x)
Given U = The set of whole numbers p(x), q(x), and s(x) are open
propositions such that: (for Q 15 and Q 16)
P(x): x is an even number
Q(x): x is a prime number
S(x): x is a perfect square
15. Which of the following is not a correct corresponding truth value from the above
given open propositions?
A. (x) [P(x)  S(x)] is False C. (x) [Q(x)  P(x)] is True
B. (x) [Q(x)  S(x)] is False D. (x) [S(x)  P(x)] is True
16. Based on the give open propositions which of the following is possible to describe
the argument symbolically. If x is an even number, then it is a prime number.
Neither x is a prime number nor an odd number. x is a perfect square.
Therefore x is not a prime number.
A. p  q, q   p, s q C. p  q,  (q   p),
s q
B. p  q,  q  p, s q D. p  q,  q   p,
s q
x2
17. Lim
2  4x  x 2
x2-
A. -1 B. +  C. 0
D. - 
1 1
18. The solution set of the inequality  2 < 0?
x  1 x  2x  1
2
A. IR\{-1, 0, 1} C. (-  , -1) U (1, )

B. (-1, 0] D. (-1, 0] U (1, )
n ln 27
 1 
19. The sequence 1   converges to:
 3n 
e
A. C. 3
3
B. 3
e D. 0
By Leul A.
20. Which of the following is the standard form of the ellipse if the sum of those
distances from any point on the ellipse to the foci is 10; the foci are (1, -2) and
(9, -2)?
( x  2) 2  y  5  x  5 2   y  2  2
2
A.  1 C. 1
25 16 25 9
B.
 x  2  2   y  5 2 1 D.
 y  5 2   x  2  2 1
6 16 16 9
3 3i
21. The polar form of the complex number z  is:
2 2i
A. 3 (cos 105 0  i sin 105 0 ) C. 3 (cos 180 0  i sin 180 0 )
3
B. (cos 120 0  i sin 120 0 ) D. 2 3 (cos 135 0  i sin 135 0 )
2
if x
22. Let the function f be defined by f(x) = K2 – x – 2 if x = 0
What is the value of the constant k that makes the function continuous on
(-  ,  )?
9 7
A. -2 and 2 C. and
10 11
5 11
B. and D. -1 and 1
7 10
1
23. Let F ( x)   cos t dt then F (x )  ?

2
2
x
A. 2x2sin2x C. 2xcos2|x|
B. -2xcos2|x| D. -2x3cos2x2
24. What is the area of the region bounded by the graphs of y = 2 x, y = 2-x and the line
x = 2 on the same set of axes.
9 3 3
A. B. C. 3nl 2 D.
4 ln 2 2 ln 2 4 ln 2
Lim tan 4 2 x
25. is equal to:
x0 4x 4
A. ¼ B. 4 C. 2 D. 1/8
26. What is the coordinates of the fourth vertex if the three consecutive vertices of a
parallelogram are (-4, 1), (2, 3) and (8, 9)?
A. (-3, 4) B. (0, 7) C. (2, 7) D. (-2, 5)
27. By
Which of
Leul A. the following is the derivative of f(x) = sec 4 (2x2)?
A. 16xsec4 (2x2) tan (2x2) C. 16xsec3 (2x2) tan (2x2)
B. 8xsec3 (2x2+) tan (2x2) D. 12xsec4 (2x2) tan (2x2)
28. A satellite is traveling around the earth in an elliptical orbit having the earth at one
focus and an eccentricity 1/3. The closed distance that the satellite gets to the earth
is 300ml. Then what is the farthest distance that the satellite gets from the earth?
A. 900ml C. 150ml
B. 600ml D. 450ml
29. Let G(x) = f(g(x)) .g(2 – x), where g(x) = x f (1)  f (1)  4 ,
g(x) = f ( x) f (2)  2, f ( 2)  4 then what is the value of G(1) ?

A. 0 B. 2 C. -5 D. 8
30. What is the value of a so that, when f(x) = a2 x6 + 2ax3 + 1 is divided by x + 1, the
reminder is 1?
A. 12 B. 2 C. -3 D. 1
31. On which of the following interval is the function of f(x) = x 2 ex strictly decreasing?
A. (-2, 0) C. (0, )
B. (-  , -2) D. (0, 2)
32. Which of the following is not true about the function f(x) = x1/3?
A. f has a point of inflection at (0, 0)
B. for x < 0, the graph is concave upward
C. the y – axis is the tangent line to the graph of this function at (0, 0)
D. f has relative extrema at x = 0
33. Let f ( x)  e  x  cos x f (0)  1 f(0) = 1. Then f(x) is given by
A. e-x –cosx + 1 C. e-x + cosx – 1
B. –e-x + sinx – 1 D. –e-x – sinx – 1
3
4tdt
34. What is the value of the definite integral 
0 t2 1
?
A. -2/3 B. 4 C. 2 3 D. -2
35. The distance between the point (-1, 1) and the point p(a, b) on the line whose
equation y – x + 1 = 0 is 3. Which of the following is the possible coordinate of p?
A. (1, 0) B. (-2, -1) C. (2, 1) D. (-1, 0)
36. What number makes equation 3Log x  4 Log 16  2 Log 2 ?
16 x x
A. 4 B. ½ C. 16 D. 1/8
e4
BNB LearningdxCentre, Preparatory School Mathematics Model Exam III,2010 G.C.
37.  =?
Bye Leul
2 x A.
ln x
e 1
A. 1 B. e4 – e C. ½ D.
2e
38. Which of the following is the volume generated when the area between the curve
y = x1/2 and the line y = x is rotated about the x – axis?
4 2 5
A. B. C.
3 3 6

D.
6
39. Let the sum of the 3rd and7th terms of an A.P is 38, and the 9th term is 37. Then
what is the first term of this arithmetic progression?
A. 10 B. -2/3 C. 9/2 D. 1
 n2   n2 
40. If the sequences   and   are both divergent, then which of the
n  3 n  4
following is true about these sequence?

 n2 n2 
A.    is convergent
n  3 n  4

 n2 n2 
B.    is a decreasing sequence
 n  3 n  4  n 4

 n2 n2  1
C.    has lub = glb
 n  3 n  4  n4 2
D. none of the above

41. Which of the following is the rectangular form of the polar form
[cos(200 0 )  i (sin(200 0 )].2[cos(165 0 )  i (sin(165 0 )

3
(cos(25 0 )  i (sin(25 0 ))
A. 3  2i C. 3 3  3i
B. 3 i D. 3  3i
42. Let the 3rd and 6th terms of a G.P geometric progression are -8/3 and 8/81
respectively. Then what is its sum to infinity?
A. -36 B. -18 C. 24 D. 12
x2 a
43. What is the value of a so that  will have a relative extrema at x = -2?
2 x
a. 4 B. -8 C, -3/2 D. ½
 3 k A.
ByLeul 1
 1 
k 1
44.   k  3  4   is equal to:

k 1  4   
A. 9/4 B. 17/5 C. ½ D. 17/20
1  3i  5  i 
45. Which of the following is true about the complex number z  ?
(1  i )
A. |z| = 124
B. the conjugate of z is -3 + 11i
1 7i
C. the multiplicative inverse of z is 
5 121
D. the simplified of z = 11 + 3i
46. If G(x) = (ln(x + 1)4) then what is G(4)(0)?
1
A. B. -12 C. -24 D/ 64
24
47. A lake polluted by bacteria is treated with an antibacterial chemical. After t days,
the number N of bacteria per ml of water is approximated by
 t  t 
N (t )  20  ln    30 for [1, 15] what is the minimum number of bacteria
 12  12  
during this time?
A. 11 B. 12 C. 63 D. 50
48. Which of the following is not true about then graph of the rational function
4x 2
f ( x)  ?
x2  x
A. y = 4 is the horizontal asymptote
B. the vertical asymptote of the graph of f are x = 0, x = -1
C. the range of the function is IR/{0, 4}
D. the graph has no x and y -intercept
49. A clerk is assigned a job that she can complete in 8 hours. After she has been
working 2 hours, another clerk, who is able to do this job in 10 hours, is assigned
to help her. In how many hours will the clerks working together complete the job?
1 1 1
A. 5 hrs B. 6 hrs C. 3 hrs D.
2 3 3
4
4 hrs
9

 n 3  1
50. What is the glb of the sequence  3  ?
 n  1 n 1
A. 1 B. 0 C. 9/7 D. -1
3 2
51.
BNB WhichCentre,
Learning one is the largest open
Preparatory interval where the
School function f(x)
Mathematics = -2xExam
Model + 9xIII,2010
+ 168x-3
G.C.
By Leul A.
is concave upward?
A. (2/3, ) C. (-3/2, 3/2)
B. (-  , 3/2) D. (-  , 2/3)
 5 1 3 7
52. What the limit of the sequence , , , ...?
3 5 7 9
A. 1/3 B. 2 C. 3/2 D. 
53. From the rectangular piece of flat metal (look the figure), the shaded square (each
of side xcm) are removed and the lines to make a tray. Then what is the value of x
which will make this volume a maximum?
A. 4/5
x
x
B. 3
10
C. 2
D. 5/2 16
Trig-Vector Question
 3
54. The exact value of tan(arc cos  2  is:
 
3 3  3
A. ½ B. C. D.
2 3
3
3
55. Let the parametric vector equation of a line l is (x, y) = (-3, 2) + t(4, -6). Then the
rectangular form of line equation is:
A. -3x + 4y = 4 C. 3y + 2x = 5
B. 3y + 2x – 1 = 0 D. 2y + 3x = -5
56. What is the equation of a tangent line to the circle x 2 + y2 – 2x + 4y + 1 = 0 at the
point (3, -2)?
A. x = 3 C. x = -2
B. x + y = 1 D. y = -3

57. Which of the following is the vector V which is perpendicular to the vector
    
W  2i  3 j and satisfy the conduction V .(i  2 j )  2 ?
   
A. 6i  4 j C. 2i  4 j
   
B.  6i  4 j D.  5i  3 j
58.
BNB WhichCentre,
Learning of the following is the
Preparatory solution set of theMathematics
School trigonometricModel
equation
Exam III,2010 G.C.
By Leul
2 sin 2 A.
x - cos 2x = 2 ? For [00, 2700]
A. {300, 1200, 2400} C. {1200, 1500, 2250}
B. {600, 1200, 2400} D. {600, 1200}
tan 2   cot 2   2
59. The simplified form of the trigonometric expression is:
2 sec 2   2cse 2
A. sin 2  B. ½ C. sin x + cos x D. 1
60. In the figure below, what is the exact value of b? (Hint: use a double – angle
ˆ B) .
formula. DC = 12 units, CB = 4 units. AB = 6 units. m( DA
A. 13 units
12 units
B. 4 units
C
C. 4 2 units  4 units

D. 5 3 units A B
b
61. What is the image of the point P ( 2 3 ,0 ) under the rotation of 3000 clock wise
about the origin?
A. ( 3 ,0 ) B. (0, 3) C. ( 3 ,3) D.
( 3 ,3)
        
62. Let A, B and W are vectors such that A  i  3 j , B  2i  j and W i 4j . Then
  
what are the scalars h and K respectively such that W  hA  KB ?
A. -1 and 2 B. -2 and 1 C. -4 and 3 D. -1 and 1
63. Which of the following is the image of hyperbola equation (y – 2) 2 – (x + 1)2 = -4

after it has been reflected by the line y + x = 0?
A. (x – 2)2 – (y + 1)2 = 4 C. (x + 2)2 – (y – 1)2 = 4
B. (y + 1)2 – (x – 2)2 = 4 D. (y – 1)2 – (x + 2)2 = 4
5
64. Let cos   where  is an acute angle. What the value of tan(  /2)?
9
14 7
A. B. 1/3 C. 2 2 D.
7 3
65. A translation T trans forms the center of the circle x 2 + (y – 2)2 = 9 in to a new circle
(x + 1)2 + (y -1)2 = 9. If a line l whose parametric equation is given by (x, y) =
(0, 1) + t(2, -1) for all t  IR, is translated by T, then which of the following is the
image of this line l?
A. 2y + x + 1 = 0 C. 2x + y – 2 = 0
B. 3y + 2x – 3 = 0 D. y = x
By Leul A.
66. Which of the following is the image of the circle x 2 + (y – 2)2 = 4 under the rotation
of 1800 clock wise direction about the origin?
A. (x + 2)2 + y2 = 4 C. (x – 2)2 + y2 = 4
B. x2 + (y + 2)2 = 4 D. (y – 2)2 + x2 = 4
 
67. Which of the following is not true about the graph of f ( x)  3  2 cos t  ?
3 2
A. the phase shift is 3/2
B. its range is [1, 5]
 3 15 
C. one cycle of f covers on the interval  , 
2 2 

D. if f is oscillating according to the simple harmonic motion then is its phase
2
angle.
68. Which one is false?
A. cos(-  ) + cos  = 2 sin (900 -  ) C. 4 sin(4  ) cos(4  ) = 2
sin (8  )
1
B. sin2(5  ) + cos2(5  ) = 1 D. sin 1  
sin 
    
69. Which one is the unit vector having the same direction as 2 A  B if Ai  j and
  
B  5i  2 j ?
   
 3i 4j 4i 3j
A.  C. 
5 5 7 7
   
6i j 2i 4j
B.  D. 
5 5 3 3
   1 2 
70. Given u and v be two vectors such that u , cos  = 1/8 and v is a unit

4
 
vector. Then what is the magnitude (norm) or 2u  v ?
A. 3 C. 3/2
5
B. 2 D. 5/2
“Play Today and Pay Tomorrow; Pay Today and Play Tomorrow!”
I thank you for the palmy days we had together
BNB Mathematics Final Model Exam BNB Set by

nd
2002 E.C 2 SEMESTER PHYSICS MODEL III EXAM FOR GRADE 12
Time allowed 2
hours
General directions

SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE EXAMINATION FOR GRADE 12
GINBOT 2002/MAY 2010
TIME ALLOWED 3 Hours
GENERAL DIRECTIONS:
 THIS BOOKLET CONTAINS SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE EXAMINATION

FOR GRADE 12 CANDIDATES ONLY.
 IN THIS EXAMINATION, THERE ARE A TOTAL OF 67 MULTIPLE-
CHOICE QUESTIONS. CAREFULY SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER
AND BLACKEN ONLY THE LETTER OF YOUR CHOICE ON THE
SEPARATE ANSWER SHEET PROVIDED.
 FOLLOW THE INSTRUCTIONS ON THE ANSWER SHEET AND
EXAMINATION PAPER CAREFULY.
 YOUR ANSWER MARK SHOULD BE HEAVY AND DARK, COVERING
THE ANSWER SPACE COMPLETELY.
 USE ONLY PENCIL TO MARK YOUR ANSWERS.
 ANY FORM OF CHEATING OR AN ATTEMPT TO CHEAT IN THE
EXAMINATION WILL RESULT IN AN AUTOMATIC DUSMISSAL FROM
THE EXAMINATION HALL AND CANCELATION OF YOUR SCORE(S).
 TURN THIS PAGE NOT OVER UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.
BNB Learning Centre, Preparatory School Scholastic Aptitude Exam, 2010 G.C. By
Anteneh A. & Leul A.
2002 E.C SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE EXAMINATION FOR GRADE 12
GINBOT 2002/MAY Time Allowed 1:45

2010
SECTION ONE: Verbal Reasoning

This section contains a total of verbal reasoning questions with sub-
sections of Analogy, Antonyms, Synonyms, Sentence Completion,
Language Usage, Reading Comprehension, and Logical and Analytical
Reasoning Items. Each sub-section has its own direction.
Analogy
DIRECTION: Questions 1 – 6 deals with analogy questions. A related pair of
words written in capital letters is followed by four pairs of words or
phrases. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that
expressed in the original capitalized pair. Then find the corresponding
question number on the separate answer sheet and blacken the letter of
your choice.
1. DEN: LION
(A) Pen: Cow (C) Pig: Sty
(B) Dog: Kennel (D) Book: Library
2. PILGRIMAGE: JOURNEY
(A) Member: Expedition (C) Preacher: Sermon
(B) Shrine: Place (D) Voyage: Route
3. ENFRANCHISE: SLAVERY
(A) Emotion: Mathematics (C) Anatomy: Physiology
(B) Liberate: Confine (D) Bondage: Subjugation
4. MONK: NUN
(A) Hen: Pullet (C) Wizard: Witch
(B) Cat: Mew (D) Car: Garage
5. BELT: WAIST
(A) Garment: Cloth (C) Scarf: Neck
(B) Hat: Shoe (D) Water: Wave
6. EMBROIDER: CLOTH
(A) Carve: Knife (C) Stain: Glass
(B) Chase: Metal (D) Gild: Gold
BNB Learning Centre, Preparatory School Scholastic Aptitude Exam, 2010 G.C.
By Anteneh A.
Antonyms
DIRECTION: Questions 7 – 9 consist of a word printed in capital letters,
followed by four words. Choose the word or phrase that is most nearly
opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters and blacken the circle
beneath the letter of your choice on the separate answer sheet provided.
7. CROOKED:
(A) Fresh (C) Stout
(B) Straight (D) Deficit
8. PROGENY:
(A) Sterile (C) Ancestor
(B) Thrift (D) Dissent
9. VENIAL:
(A) Unpardonable (C) Stern
(B) Profane (D) Chaos
Synonyms
DIRECTION: Questions 10 – 12 consist of words printed in capital letters,
followed by four words. Choose the word or phrase that is most nearly
similar in meaning to the word in capital letters and blacken the circle
beneath the letter of your choice on the separate answer sheet provided.
10. SCANDAL:
(A) Swallow (C) Scatter
(B) Succor (D) Slander
11. SURPLUS:
(A) Excess (C) Custom
(B) Minute (D) Submit
12. IMPOTENT:
(A) Impolite (C) Reverence
(B) Weak (D) Locked
Sentence Completion
DIRECTION: Questions 13 – 16 contain incomplete sentences. Beneath
each sentence there are four pairs of words. The first word of the pair goes
to the first blank space and the second word to the second blank space in
the sentence. Choose the pair that best completes the sentence. Then
blacken the letter of your choice on the separate answer sheet provided.
By Anteneh A.
13. The essay was both and : although
concise, it was profoundly moving.
(A) argumentative – rationalistic (C) meandering – denigrating
(B) terse – poignant (D) frictional – touching
14. The leader was about his achievements and was unwilling to
them before anyone.
(A) sure – present (C) modest – discuss
(B) enthusiastic – hesitant (D) boastful – disclose
15. is to Asses as Moo is to .
(A) Bray – Cows (C) Roar – Wolves
(B) Bellow – Elephants (D) Hiss – Dogs
16. Not only are fooled by propaganda; we can all be
missed if we are not .
(A) illiterate –mature (C) fatuous – mature
(B) ignorant – cynical (D) gullible – wary
17. Because she had a reputation for , we were surprised and pleased
when she greeted us so .
(A) querulousness – affably
(B) insolence – irately
(C) arrogance – disdainfully
(D) insouciance – cordially
Language Usage
DIRECTION: Questions 18 – 20 consist of sentences in which four words or
phrases are underlined. The four underlined parts of the sentence are
marked A, B, C, D. You are to identify the one that would NOT be accepted
in standard written English. Then find the corresponding question number
on the separate answer sheet and blacken the letter of your choice.
18. If we do our tasks as planned, Yitbarek and me will leave for London on Thursday
morning.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
19. She insists to wear only miniskirts whatever people say.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
20. There is unresolved controversy as to whom is the real author of the plays
commonly
(A) (B) (C) (D)
created to William Shakespeare
By Anteneh A.
Reading comprehension
DIRECTION: Read the passage below carefully and answer question 21 –
27. Each question will be based on the information stated or implied in the
passage. Then find the corresponding question number on the separate
answer sheet and blacken the letter of your choice.
I never met my first love. She must have been a sweet and sad child. Her photographs
inspire my imagination to reconstruct the outlines of her soul, simple and austere as a
primitive church, extensive as a castle, stately as a flower, deep as well. Purity of brow,
which, like the throat, the hands, the entire body, must have been carved in crystal or
marble; the very soft lines of the face; the deep-set eyes with a look of surprise, sweet
and sad, beneath the veil of the eyelashes, a brief mouth with fine lips, immune to
sensuality; docile hair, harmonious and still; simply dressed in harmony with the obvious
distinction and mobility of her bearing; all of her, a glow with the obvious distinction and
nobility of her bearing; all of her, a glow with innocence and a certain gravity in which
are mixed the delights of childhood and the reverie of first youth. Her photographs invite
one to try to imagine the timbre and rhythm of her voice, the ring of her laughter, the
depth of her silences, the cadence of her movements, the direction and intensity of her
glances. Her arms must have moved like the wings of a musical and tranquil bird; her
figure must have yielded with the gentleness of a lily in an April garden. How many
times her translucent hands must have trimmed the lamps of the vigilant virgins who
know not the day or the hour; in what moments of rupture did her mouth and eyes
accentuate their sadness? When did they emphasize her sweet smile?
No, I never met her. And yet, even her pictures were with me for a long time after she
died. Long before then, my life was filled with her presence, fashioned of unreal images
devoid of all sensation; perhaps more faithful, certainly more vivid, than these almost
faded photograph. Hers was a presence without volume, line or color; an elusive
phantom, which epitomized the beauty of all faces without limiting itself to any one, and
embodied the delicacy the best and loftiest spirits, indefinitely.
I now believe that an obscure feeling, a fear of reality, was the cause of my refusal to
exchange the formless images for a direct knowledge of her who inspired them. How
many times, just when the senses might have put a limit to fancy did I avoid meeting
her; and how many others did fate intervene! On one of the many occasions that I
watched the house in which my phantom lived, I decided to knock, but the family was
out.
By Anteneh A.
21. What does the writer mean when he says, “I never met my first love” (line 1)?
(A) He loved unconditionally
(B) His first love died young.
(C) He fell in love with someone he never really knew.
(D) His first love was not a human being.
22. The description in paragraph 1 moves from
(A) sound to sight. (C) sight to touch.
(B) sight to sound to movement. (D) touch to sound to sight.
23. The word docile is used to imply
(A) wildness (C) manageability
(B) conformity (D) indifference
24. When the writer says he is “devoid of all sensation”, he means that he
(A) has no sense of who the subject might be.
(B) does not see, hear or touch the subject.
(C) has little judgment.
(D) feels nothing of the subject.
25. Unlike the previous paragraphs, paragraph 3
(A) suggests an explanation for the author’s behavior.
(B) mentions the elusive qualities of the subject.
(C) expresses regret for losing the subject’s love.
(D) compares the subject to someone the author loved later.
26. How might you reword the phrase “the senses might have put a limit to fancy”?
(A) My good taste enabled me to dream without limits.
(B) Seeing her might have stopped my fantasies.
(C) Good sense would have made things plainer.
(D) I could sense that she wanted to end my dreams.
27. Which of these might be a good title for this excerpt?
(A) “A Tragic Love Affair” (C) “Love and Photography”
(B) “First and Only Love” (D) “Remembrance of a Phantom Love”
Logical and Analytical Reasoning

DIRECTION: Questions 28–40 deal with logical and analytical reasoning
questions. Read the given set of conditions and assumptions for each
question. Choose the answer that you think is most appropriate among the
given alternatives. Then find the correct question number and blacken the
letter of your choice on the separate answer sheet provided.
By Anteneh A.
28. Ever since I arrived at the university last week, I have been shocked by the poor
behavior of the students. The student population is completely lacking in proper
social skills.
Which of the following, if true, would weaken the above conclusion?
(A) The university numbers over 50,000 students.
(B) The narrator was reluctant to stay at the college.
(C) Social skills should not be expected of college students.
(D) Students who are away from their parents often exhibit rude behavior.
29. Consider the following statements
I. At least one man is good.
II.At most one man is good.
III. One or more men are good.
IV. A few men are good.
V. There exists a man who is good.
VI. There is no man who is not good.
Which of the above statements are correct rephrases for the statement “Some men
are good”?
(A) II, IV, V, VI (C) I, III, IV, V
(B) I, III, V, VI (D) II, III, IV, VI
30. Is it wrong for doctors to lie about their patients illness? Aren’t doctors just like
any other people who hire to do a job for us? Just as other workers would be guilty
of violating their good faith contracts with us if they were to do this; doctors who lie
to their patients about their illnesses violate these contracts as well and this is
clearly wrong.
The conclusion of the argument is best expressed by one of the following.
(A) It is wrong for doctors to lie about their patients illnesses.
(B) Doctors often lie to their patients about their illness.
(C) Doctors are just hired like other workers.
(D) Doctors, like other hired service givers, enter into good faith contracts with us
when we hire them.
31. Friends and I were chatting over dinner in a restaurant. Melat at the next table
told her mobile phone caller to hold on. She stepped outside to talk. When she
returned, I said, “that very thoughtful”. She nodded and said to me, “I have choice”.
What is the logical conclusion of the girl’s response?
By Anteneh A.
(A) She was acknowledging the person’s complement.
(B) She wanted to talk lower to her caller.
(C) She was complaining that the chatting friends making too much noise.
(D) She had some secrets that she wanted only the caller hear.
32. The facts show the most people of the world are afraid of the number ‘13’ and
the day ‘Friday’.
In France, for instance, no house is given the number ‘13’. Friday the 13th is often
considered the unluckiest of days, some believe it to be the day that Eve tempted
Adam with the Apple, the day the great flood began and the day Jesus died.
In America, many modern skyscrapers, condos and apartments skip the number
‘13’; floor above level 12 is numbered 14.
Which of the following is a valid conclusion?
(A) Many people of the world are superstitious about the number 13 on Friday.
(B) The fear of number 13 and Friday by the people is irrational.
(C) Everyone is superstitious about something.
(D) Many people of the world are superstitious about the number 13 and Friday.
33. Three ships are berthed next to each other. A blue ship is to the right of a red
ship and to the left of a green ship. If the blue ship and the green ship change
places then, which one of the following is true?
(A) The red ship and the blue ship are next to each other.
(B) The green ship is between the red ship and the blue ship.
(C) The red ship is immediately to the left of the blue ship.
(D) The red ship is in the middle.
DIRECTION: Each question or group of questions is based on a passage or set of

conditions. For each question, select the best answer from the given alternatives.
Refer to the following conditions below to answer questions 34 – 36.
i. Either A is last and E is first or A is first and E is last.

ii. B finishes ahead of C.
iii. Every football team plays in and finishes every match.
iv. There are no ties in any match; that is, no teams ever finish in the same
position in a match.
By Anteneh A.
34. If a sixth team, F, enters a match and finishes ahead of D and B, which of the
following cannot be true?
(A) C finishes third. (C) F finishes fifth.
(B) D finishes fourth. (D) B finishes ahead of E.
35. If A finishes first, in how many different orders is it possible for the other teams to
finish?
(A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 2
36. If exactly 1 football team finishes between A and B, which of the following must
be true?
(A) E finishes first. (C) B finishes fourth.
(B) A finishes first. (D) C finishes fourth.
Questions 37 - 40 are based on the following statement.
The first person in the group starts off by naming anything that is geographical. It
could be a city, state, country, river, lake, or any proper geographical term. For
example, the person might say, “Paris”. The second person has ten seconds to
think of how the word ends and come up with another geographical term starting
with that letter. The second participant might say, “Spain,” since the geographical
term has to start with “S”. The third person would have to choose a word beginning
with “N”. If a player fails to think of a correct answer within the time limit, that player
is out of the game. The last person to survive is the champion.
37. This game may help you with
(A) history (C) current events
(B) geography (D) sports
38. The person trying to answer needs
(A) no time limit. (C) to know something about spelling and geography.
(B) to know geography only. (D) to be a good speller.
39. Before you choose your own word, think about how
(A) the last word starts. (C) long the last word is.
(B) smart you are. (D) the last word ends.
40. The answer must be
(A) in Boston. (C) proper geographical term.
(B) in the same region. (D) along a coast line.
By Anteneh A.
ENGLISH MODEL EXAMINATION III FOR GRADE 12
GINBOT 2002/MAY 2010
TIME ALLOWED 2 HOURS
GENERAL DIRECTIONS:
THIS BOOKLET CONTAINS ENGLISH EXAMINATION. IN THIS EXANIMATION,

THERE ARE A TOTAL OF 120 QUESTIONS DIVIDED INTO EIGHT SECTIONS.
EACH SECTION CONTAINS MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS CONSISTING OF
FOUR POSSIBLE ANSWERS. CAREFULLY SELECT THE BEST ANSWER AND
BLACKEN ONLY THE LETTER OF YOUR CHOICE ON THE SEPARATE
ANSWER SHEET PROVIDED. FOLLOW THE INSTRUCTIONS ON THE ANSWER
SHEET AND THE EXAMINATION PAPER. CAREFULLY USE ONLY PENCIL TO
MARK YOUR ANSWERS. YOUR ANSWER MARK SHOULD BE HEAVY AND
DARK, COVERING THE ANSWER SPACE COMPLETELY. PLEASE ERASE ALL
UNNECESSARY PENCIL/PEN MARKS COMPLETELY FROM YOUR ANSWER
SHEET.
YOU ARE ALLOWED TO WORK ON THIS EXAM FOR 2 HOURS. WHEN TIME
IS CALLED, YOU MUST IMMEDIATELY STOP WORKING, PUT YOUR PENCIL
DOWN, AND WAIT FOR FURTHER INSTRUCTIONS.
ANY FORM OF CHEATING OR AN ATTEMPT TO CHEAT IN THE EXAMINATION

WILL RESULT IN AN AUTOMATIC DISMISSAL FROM THE EXAMINATION
HALL AND CANCELLATION OF YOUR SCORE(S).
PLEASE MAKE SURE THAT YOU HAVE WRITTEN ALL THE REQUIRED
INFORMATION ON THE ANSWER SHEET BEFORE YOU WORK ON THE
EXAMINATION.
TURN THIS PAGE NOT OVER UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.
nd
2002 E.C 2 SEMESTER ENGLISH MODEL EXAM III FOR GRADE 12
GINBOT 2002/MAY Time Allowed 2
2010 Hours
SECTION ONE: Word Order (1-5)
DIRECTION: The following words are not in the proper order. When put in the
right order, they give correct English sentences. Choose the correct sentence
from the given alternatives, and blacken the letter of your choice in the separate
answer sheet provided.
1. was the spot down at the criminal gunned right.

A. The spot was gunned down right at the criminal.
B. The right spot at the criminal was gunned down.
C. The criminal was gunned down right at the spot.
D. The right spot was gunned down at the criminal.
2. broken Lake the had Tana girl when into arm her fell she
A. The girl had fell into Lake Tana when she broke her arm.
B. When she fell into Lake Tana, the broken girl had the arm.
C. The girl had her arm broken when she fell into Lake Tana.
D. When her arm had broken, the girl she fell into Lake Tana.
3. followed walking the murderer was through forest he that realized the being
A. Through walking the forest, he realized that the murderer was being followed.
B. The murderer was being realized followed that he walking through the forest.
C. He realized that the murderer was being followed through walking the forest.
D. Walking through the forest, the murderer realized that he was being followed.
4. bad her wot too she is a tells that salty is cook
A. She is a bad cook tells that her wot is too salty.
B. Her wot is too salty tells that she is a bad cook.
C. That tells her wot is too salty she is a bad cook.
D. That her wot is too salty tells she is a bad cook.
5. have flats and of estate lots agents information houses on
A. Lots of information on houses and flats have estate agents.
B. Agents have lots of estate information on houses and flats.
C. Estate agents have lots of information on houses and flats.
D. Estate agents have lots of houses and flats on information.
BNB Learning Centre, Preparatory School English Model Exam III,2010 G.C.
By Anteneh A.
SECTION TWO: Paragraph Coherence (6 – 10)
DIRECTION: The sentences a –e in each of the questions from 6 – 10 make up one
paragraph. But the sentences are not in the correct order. There are four alternatives
given in each case. Choose the letter of the correct order and blacken the space that
corresponds to your choice in the separate answer sheet provided.
6. a. The shape each depends on its size, speed and purpose.

b. The concord, for example, is one particular type.
c. The concord is the fastest passenger airliner.
d. There are many types of aircraft.
e. It has a nose that drops down on landing and takeoff.
A. d b e c d C. d b c e a
B. d b a c e D. d a b e c
7. a. So what is your overall opinion on this?
b. Still few others see it positively for the children’s life.
c. While others consider it as valuable experience.
d. In many countries, children are engaged in some kind of paid work.
e. Some people regard this as a completely wrong experience.
A. d e b c a C. d e c b a
B. e d c a b D. d e a c b
8. a. Living with differences but keeping one’s own integrity is clearly the hallmark of effective
education today.
b. It has to do with more than race and class.
c. There is no magic formula for that kind of integration.
d. In short, it needs getting ourselves together.
e. It has to do with the entire range of the country’s diversity that each of us feels within
himself.
A. c b e a d C. c e b a e
B. a c b d e D. a e b c d
9. a. Two months ago I bought this fridge.
b. I phoned the company, but nobody came.
c. I seat it at ‘medium’ and it froze everything.
d. But I have had nothing but trouble from it.
e. For a start the ‘cold control’ did not work.
A. a b c d e C. e d a c b
B. a e c d b D. a d e c b
By Anteneh A.
10. a. You cannot therefore blame me for all the fault.
b. But I also know that I am not devil.
c. I know I am not a saint.
d. You must also share part of the blame.
e. Otherwise, you will be very unfair
A. d e a b c C. a b c d e
B. c b e d a D. c b a d e
SECTION THREE: Comprehension (11 - 15)

DIRECTION: Choose the sentence that has the nearest meaning to that of the
given sentence and blacken the letter of your choice on the separate answer
sheet provided.
11. He was all ears as she recounted the strange story.
A. He listened very carefully as she recounted the strange story.
B. He could hardly listen as she recounted the strange story.
C. He couldn’t hear anything although he tried his best.
D. He was very surprised at the strange story she was recounting.
12. He ran away lest he should be seen by the police.
A. He ran away although the police didn’t tell him to be seen around.
B. He ran away because the police told him not to be seen around.
C. He ran away because he is afraid of the police.
D. He ran away in order that he should not be seen by the police.
13. The match ended in a draw, with the score three all.
A. The match ended with the total score of the two teams being three.
B. The artist drew three pictures of the best players from the two teams.
C. There was no winner and no loser, with each team scoring three goals.
D. The referee ended the match after one of the teams scored three goals.
14. To hung her would be the unkindest cut of all.
A. It she was hanged, she would be cut.
B. It would cut her if she was hanged.
C. It she was hanged, her hands would be cut off unkindly.
D. It would be the most unkind thing possible to hang her.
15. Who else but Natnael would have played a trick like that?
A. It is Natnael and not anyone else who did (played) a trick like that.
B. People blame Natnael for a trick he is not responsible for.
C. Natnael can not do a trick like that.
D. People do not know whether it is Natnael or someone else who did the trick like that.
By Anteneh A.
SECTION FOUR: Reading Comprehension (16 - 31)
DIRECTION: There are two passages in this section. Read each of them
carefully and answer the questions according to the information therein. Each
question has four choices, A – D. Choose the best alternative and blacken the
letter of your choice in the separate answer sheet provided.
PASSAGE I
“Desert Travel in the Nineteenth Century”
In the nineteenth century Cairo was the great terminal of the Caravan routes that spread
out over northern Africa and the Near East. No one dreamed of traveling alone through the desert
anymore than one would dream of crossing the Atlantic in a Canoe. A traveler would wait until a
caravan was being formed in Cairo and would then apply to the leader for permission to
accompany it. Sometimes months would go by before all was ready. Then on a certain day the
order to march would be given and a long straggling procession of camels, mules, donkeys, and
men on foot would set off into the desert. Incoming caravans signaled their arrival at the pyramids
and were told where to cross the Nile and encamp. There were no clearly defined tracks in the
desert, merely a general line of march that led from one oasis or water-hole to the next. The
distances covered were prodigious. One route went north-east to Damascus, where the traveler
could join other Caravans heading for Aleppo and Baghdad, while another carried the pilgrims
down to Mecca and the Red Sea. A third route followed the general course of the Nile to Sennar
and Darfur in the Sudan and a fourth led off the Fezzan in the west. Every journey was an
adventure and traders, like migratory birds, were controlled by the seasons and beset at every
stage by unpredictable hazards such as wars, Bedouin raids, drought, floods, and sickness. Two
years on the road was nothing to an experienced merchant. Taking with him his wives, his
children and his slaves, he would go on and on wherever the markets offered a profit. In the end
nomadism became an object in itself, and many of these men could endure no other way of life.
No one knew the extent of this vast, haphazard net work. It was quite possible for a man to travel
from Egypt to Timbuktu on the other side of Africa and it is certain that Indian and even Chinese
goods appeared in the bazaars in Cairo.
(Adapted from: Alan Moorhead, The Blue Nile)
16. All tracks through the desert ended in .
A. Cairo B. Aleppo C. Sennar D. the Red Sea
17. To travel alone through the desert was more difficult than
A. traveling along the general course of the Nile.
B. going along the Caravan.
C. crossing the Atlantic in a small boat.
D. walking along a clearly defined track.
By Anteneh A.
18. A Caravan consisted of .
A. a number of men C. a number of camps
B. a number of animals and people D. a number of animals
19. When the Caravans reached the pyramids, they
A. were told to cross the Nile
B. applied to the reader for permission to start the journey.
C. were informed where to cross the Nile.
D. were signaled by the incoming Caravans.
20. The route followed by the Caravans were determined by
A. clearly defined tracks. C. the general line of travel from one oasis to the next.
B. the leader of the Caravan. D. no track at all.
21. To reach Sennar, a traveler should follow the route.
A. to north east.
B. to Fezzar in the west.
C. that went along the bank of the Nile river.
D. with other pilgrims down to Mecca and the Red Sea.
22. Before the Caravans started their journey,
A. they knew that they would have difficulties on the routes because of Bedouin raids,
floods and sickness.
B. they could not know what sorts of difficulties they would have to face on their way.
C. they knew that there would be wars and droughts on their way.
D. they did not know that their journey would be an adventure.
23. A pilgrim is .
A. a Muslim C. one who travels on foot
B. a nomad D. one who travels to a holy place
PASSAGE II
Sport and games are the possession of no one country or race. They belong to all
countries from time immemorial. But sport, to use in its widest sense, is an older thing in Britain
than elsewhere, with a more settled custom and a more generally accepted place in the normal
life. Because it is ancient it is an almost inevitable part of the average boy’s up bringing. Even if
he does not like games - and the average boy does like them - he is almost of necessity familiar
with them during certain years of his life. Even if he gives them up altogether when he grows up
the familiarity remains, so that he unconsciously applies to the affairs of workaday life
expressions which really belong to the language of sport. In fact sport is one of the most obvious
By Anteneh A.
features in the general background of life, and of all interests it is perhaps the one which is
common to the greatest number of people of all classes. It is said that when the Briton buys a
newspaper he turns first of all to the sporting pages. That is not true in times of political anxiety,
but it is probably as true as are most generalizations in more easygoing times, and many of the
names that figure on those pages are in the nature of household words. This does not necessarily
imply and grave lack of a sense of promotion. It does not follow that he thinks sport the most
important thing in life or that the man who has made a long score or won a big race is a greater
man than the Prime Minster. It only means that he keeps a warm corner in his heart for sport and
that he likes to think about it and talk about it in hours of ease. It is a definite part of his life which
gives him much pleasure and interest, and it’s a great and for the moment an absorbing contrast
to work: but to say that it is all or anything like all in his life would be utterly unfair. Moreover, I
think that modern youth has got in this matter a better sense of promotion than the generations
that have preceded it, and has a better notion of the place that sport can justifiably occupy.
(Oxford School Certificate)
24. Games are
A. not liked by the ordinary boys of Britain. C. liked by all boys of Britain.
B. not liked by any boys of Britain. D. liked by all boys of Britain in general.
25. Taking part in games is for all boys while in schools.
A. a compulsory thing C. an unfamiliar thing
B. an optional thing D. an unnecessary thing
26. Sports and games
A. have little influence on the majority of people of England.
B. are as interesting as any other thing for the greatest number of people.
C. maintain a common interest among the majority of people of Britain.
D. are looked upon as uninteresting by the common people of Britain.
27. As soon as the people of Britain buy newspapers, they:
A. turn to the pages where political affairs are mentioned.
B. always look at the sporting pages first.
C. look at the sport pages first except at times of some keen political interest.
D. turn to the many of the names on sporting pages.
28. The man who scores more in games, or the winner of a big race
A. is more important than the Prime Minister of Britain.
B. has only a lower place than the Prime Minister.
C. is considered to be equal to the Prime Minister.
D. is considered to be a greater man than the Prime Minister.
By Anteneh A.
29. The virtues acquired through sports and games later lives of the people of Britain.
A. are useless in the B. will not last in the C. govern the D.
help ruin the
30. “ to say it is all or anything like all in his life would be
utterly unfair.” This means፡
A. For an English-man sport is all and anything like all.
B. It is wrong to say that sport is the best thing for him in his life.
C. It is appropriate to say that sport is the best thing in his life.
D. It is unfair if we say that sport is not like other things.
31. An Englishman “keeps a very warm corner in his heart for sport” means:
A. A warm corner is set apart for sport in his heart.
B. In every home there will be a warm place for conducting sports.
C. He has a hate towards sports.
D. He has a love for sports.
SECTION FIVE: Vocabulary

A. Completion (32 - 42)
DIRECTION: Question 32 – 42 are incomplete sentences. There are four
alternative words or phrases, A – D, given below each question. Choose the one
that best completes the sentences and blacken the letter of you choice in the
space provided in the answer sheet.
32. If one who deals with the diseases of children is called pediatrician, one who assists
women at child-birth is called .
A. Dermatologist C. Obstetrician
B. Gynecologist D. Anthropologist
33. The contraband goods which were discovered on the Dire Dawa to Addis Ababa train were
by the police.
A. plundered C. confiscated
B. borrowed D. looted
34. With the growth in trade, the port of Assab is becoming
increasingly important to the Ethiopian economy.
A. coffee C. domestic
B. maritime D. in-land
35. As my wife was about to we rushed her to the maternity ward of the
hospital.
A. depart B. faint C. deliver D. fall ill
By Anteneh A.
36. His face is so blue and pale. He looks as as an old shoes.
A. sharp C. shapeless
B. horny D. soleless
37. Kontire and Eshokua decided on a divorce because they discovered that they were
.
A. incompatible C. comrades
B. valiant D. compatible
38. God has the supreme of all things.
A. disposition B. entrust C. shudder D. confidence
39. The law states that anyone who had a criminal record is eligible for election.
A. il- B. im- C. in- D. dis-
40. The mechanic was so to fix my automobile, and he really did.
A. confidential C. confident
B. confidence D. confiding
41. A number of people following a funeral are called .
A. cortege B. troupe C. coffle D. bevy
42. I am for a party Haile Resort tonight.
A. taking my friend out C. taking my friend over
B. taking my friend up D. taking my friend off
B. Substitution (43 - 53)

DIRECTION: Questions 43 – 53 each has an underlined word or phrase. There
are four alternatives given after each sentence. Choose one word or phrase that
best keeps the meaning of the given sentence if it is substituted for the
underlined word or phrase. Then blacken the letter of your choice in the space
provided in the answer sheet.
43. We all oppose the holocaust which took away lines of many people.
A. large scale destruction C. large scale revolution
B. large scale migration D. large scale imprisonment
44. The use of cheap water power could drastically reduce the cost of production process.
A. carelessly C. slowly
B. extremely D. apparently
45. She was very happy at her cleverness. But when she came to know the reality, she laughed
on the other side of her face.
A. changed from sorrow to joy C. remained silent
B. changed from joy to sorrow D. remained happy
46. The well-dressed woman walked off with the necklace from the jeweler’s shop.
A. ran away B. stole C. bought D. caught
47. The accident was a near thing for the passengers.
A. a closer thing C. a narrow escape
B. an imaginary escape D. unreal thing
48. When he was in a college, he used to run after girls.
A. following a girl for sexual love C. following a girl for disapproval
B. following a girl for admiration D. following a girl for marriage
49. His hopes of making a fortune were dashed when his factory burnt down.
A. destroyed B. sank C. grown D. forgotten
50. X: How long would you stay here?
Y: Only for a fortnight.
A. a period of four weeks C. a period of two weeks
B. a period of two days D. a period of four days
51. I felt invigorated after my run.
A. felt fresh and full of energy C. felt sad
B. felt tired D. felt aggressive
52. After her success in the Medical Entrance Examination, she felt on top of the world.
A. felt very excited because of success C. felt very excited because of loss
B. felt very disgraced because of success D. felt very lonely because of loss
53. The poor rickshaw puller made just enough money to keep the wolf from the door.
A. get just enough food or money to live C. chase the wild animal away from the door
B. borrow enough food or money to live D. tame the animal around the door
SECTION SIX: Grammar (54 - 93)

DIRECTION: Questions 54 – 93 are incomplete sentences. There are four
alternative words/phrases, A – D given below each question. Choose the
word/phrase that best completes the sentence and blacken the letter of your
choice in the space provided in the answer sheet.
54. We were certainly hapless to bring the cup from Debub Academy. We wish we by
the referees.
A. had not been biased C. have not been biased
B. were not biased D. didn’t bias
55. His hair was quite white when he was released from the concentration camp. He
terribly.
A. cannot have suffered C. could have suffered
B. can have suffered D. must have suffered
56. All the passengers on the board were killed when the ship in which they were sailing
by an unidentified submarine.
A. sank C. was sunk
B. were sunk D. sunk
57. Definitely the guests from England in the afternoon.
A. will come C. are coming
B. come D. will be coming
58. The more peace there is in the country, it is for the people.
A. the more C. the lesser
B. the better D. the worse
59. They were discussing the crime that took place last month; , she happened to
interrupt.
A. meanwhile B. before C. but D. after
60. that you were absent for a week from work, he would have fined you a lot of
money.
A. If the director knew C. Had the director known
B. If the director knows D. Had the director know
61. She is still at school. She hopes to go to university next year, but she anywhere yet.
A. will not have applied C. have not applied
B. will not apply D. has not applied
62. He jumped off the train while it was moving. He did not see that a car .
A. is coming C. was to come
B. was coming D. coming
63. I think we ought to take raincoats with us. It rain.
A. may B. ought to C. will D. had to
64. her some money if she had asked you for it?
A. Will you have lent C. Will you be lending
B. Would you be lending D. Would you have lent
65. The army is acting the police in the hunt for the terrorist.
A. despite C. although
B. in conjunction with D. but
66. She had not been made the story about the queen.
A. telling B. to tell C. tell D. to telling
67. She did the assignment to her boy friend. The underlined word is .
A. a complement C. a predicate
B. an indirect object D. a direct object
68. The wallet in the boy put his identity card was stolen in the bus station.
A. that B. whom C. whose D. which
69. Beware those wolves under sheep’s clothing.
A. of B. by C. for D. with
70. She is not happy what is happening.
A. of B. by C. with D. in
71. Nardos thinks that she is superior her colleagues.
A. than B. from C. to D. at
72. By September next year, we our result in this examination.
A. will have known C. will know
B. have known D. would know
73. They have rebuilt the bridge that it is now than ever.
A. the widest of all times C. more stronger
B. the most beautiful one D. more reliable
74. Nardos had come to visit them, ?
A. did she C. had she
B. hadn’t she D. didn’t she
75. We had better walk, it a bus.
A. wasn’t worth to take C. isn’t worth to take
B. isn’t worth taking D. wasn’t worth taking
76. waiting for her passionate response to my love question, I did nothing.
A. However B. Although C. In spite of D. Because
77. My uncle died in the war when he was young, but his wife died old age.
A. by B. of C. in D. because
78. Daniel: What did your sister ask you yesterday?
Mame:
A. She asked me why did I go to the market.
B. She asked me why I went to the market?
C. She asked me why did I go to the market?
D. She asked me why I went to the market.
79. My room is situated on ground floor of our house; door from our
dining-room leads to my room.
A. the /the B. a /the C. the /a D. a /a
80. the car over-turned three times, the driver escaped with only a few minor
injuries.
A. Since B. Although C. Despite D. In spite of
81. to the other side of the street, the girls went into a shop to buy some clothes.
A. They crossed B. They crossing C. Crossing D. Being crossed
82. The athlete for winning the race.
A. congratulated C. will congratulate
B. has congratulated D. was congratulated
83. By the end of the year 2011, all the major road projects connecting Addis Ababa with
regional cities and towns .
A. were to be completed C. will have been completed
B. will be completed D. would have been completed
84. has any knowledge of what an election really is.
A. Anyone B. Someone C. Everyone D. No one
85. While the couples breakfast, the postman knocked at the door to deliver the mail.
A. were eating B. had eaten C. ate D. have been eating
86. She no habit of going to night clubs on a Sunday.
A. has had B. had C. has D. is having
87. The guests have said nothing to .
A. I, David and you C. you, David and I
B. David, you and I D. I, you and David
88. “They” a pronoun.
A. is B. are C. were D. will
89. One may play tennis and fishing, but he cannot jogging and
aerobics at the same time.
A. go – do B. do – play C. go – play D. play – do
90. The soldiers seldom march nicely across the beach. The underlined adverbs respectively
entail:
A. manner /frequency /place C. time /manner /place
B. frequency /manner /place D. frequency /time /place
91. Either the children or the father willing to attend the conference.
A. has B. is C. are D. does
92. I have rarely seen flamboyant girl in my life that made he burn with the fire of love.
A. so B. such C. such a D. very
93. The meeting was held
A. at 8 o’clock in the conference hall last month on Tuesday.
B. last month at 8 o’clock in the conference hall on Tuesday.
C. in the conference hall at 8 o’clock on Tuesday last month.
D. on Tuesday at 8 o’clock last month in the conference hall.
SECTION SEVEN: Communication (94 - 104)
DIRECTION: Questions 94 – 104 are presented in the form of two line dialogues.
The part said by one of the speakers is given, and a blank space is left for the
other. Each dialogue is followed by alternative responses, A – D. Choose the
response that is most appropriate to complete the dialogue and blacken the
letter of your choice in the space provided in the answer sheet.
94. Son: ?
Dad: I’ll have to talk to your mom.
A. Can I go to the toilet
B. Do chocolates give you illness
C. Dad, what comes after Tuesday
D. Would you buy me a mobile phone
95. Manager: John, this is Mr Daniel, one of my assistants.
John:
A. Hi, Mr Daniel.
B. Hello, Mr Daniel
C. How are you, Mr Daniel?
D. How are you doing, Mr Daniel?
96. X: How do you feel about our new manageress?
Y:
A. She is new to the school.
B. To be honest, she puts me off.
C. She invited us to a dinner party.
D. Did she study management?
97. X: My mother complains I don’t help her.
Y: Don’t you think she has a point?
A. Don’t forget her!
B. You ought to be more sensible
C. That worries you
D. Ok! All mothers do that
98. Husband:
Wife: Yes, I’m just a bit worried, that’s all.
A. Aren’t you feeling well?
B. You feel well, don’t you?
C. Why are you so quiet?
D. What is troubling you?
By Anteneh A.
99. Teacher: Don’t you wait to find out the results?
Student: .
A. Yes, I find out the results
B. No, I think I’ll come back later
C. No, I wait to find out the results
D. Yes, I wait
100. You:
Operator: I’m afraid the line is engaged at the moment. Do you want to hold?
A. Could you fill it up, please?
B. Could I have the bill, please?
C. Can you tell me the code for Dire Dawa?
D. Could I have extension 402, please?
101. X: Excuse me, do you live near by?
Y:
A. Of course, what do you mean?
B. Not exactly, I am from the other part of the city.
C. Sorry, it is a mistake what you are saying.
D. You are sure, I am from the town.
102. Your friend: I’ve just been thrown out of my job.
You:
A. I don’t have a job too.
B. Life is difficult without a job.
C. I’ve always been worried about this.
D. Why don’t you apply to this new office?
103. Shopkeeper: “Red is the colour of the real gentleman,” they say.
Customer:
A. Of course ladies like it.
B. I am not a gentleman
C. I don’t care about that.
D. That might be true
104. X:
Y: Yes, that would be lovely.
A. Here’s a cup of coffee.
B. Wouldn’t you like another coffee?
C. Would you like tea or coffee?
D. I would like a cup of coffee?
SECTION EIGHT: Writing (105 - 120)
DIRECTION: The following questions are related to different aspects of writing.
Read each of them very carefully and blacken the letter of your answer in the
separate answer sheet provided.
105. If a piece of writing reads, “We were young and sometimes we went beyond the limits of
common sense. Once my friend, Hilary, was driving alone in July, with her dog Tina
guarding her clothes,” it is most likely taken from writing.
A. descriptive C. narrative
B. persuasive D. expository
106. One among the following is not Bad Listening Habit.
A. Hysterical Hearing C. Sloth and Indifference
B. Setting a Purpose D. Mental Minutiae
107. The unity /oneness/ of ideas in a paragraph is usually achieved by using .
A. appropriate paragraph C. grammar and vocabulary
B. rhetorical questions D. cohesive devices
108. “This one is really effective. Just a spoonful of it will make all your problems go.” This is
taken from a piece of writing that is most likely:
A. narrative B. argumentative C. descriptive D. expository
109. Which of the following best illustrates a descriptive writing?
A. I have often wanted to visit the cave.
B. She then entered a room where the queen slept.
C. The recreational center was very quiet.
D. We have already paid our debts.
110. Which of the following words is correctly spelt?
A. Repititive B. Athlete C. Catastroph D. Errones
111. Which one is wrongly spelt?
A. Advertisement B. Pneumonia C. Personnel D. Vengance
112. What would your doctor most likely say to you upon giving you some pills?
A. I order that you take this twice a day. C. Take this twice a day.
B. Please take this twice a day. D. Do you mind taking this twice a day?
113. “Starting up a programme on this particular computer is a simple process. You switch on the
computer and place a floppy disk into drive.” This is the best example of:
A. argumentative writing C. expository writing
B. descriptive writing D. narrative writing
By Anteneh A.
114. One of the following is not necessarily needed in writing a Curriculum Vitae (CV).
A. Favourite dish C. Work experience (if any)
B. Educational background D. References
115. One among the alternatives is not a primary source in doing research?
A. Experiment C. Interview
B. Questionnaire D. Observation
116. If a piece of writing begins with, “The people are matching to the square with their banners
held high. They are also chanting songs, and the children are showing some acrobatics,” it
is very likely that the writing is:
A. argumentation C. description
B. exposition D. narration
117. Which one of the following is most likely a part of the instructions for operating your camera?
A. Please keep the batteries out when not in use.
B. Don’t forget to keep the batteries out when not in use.
C. You will need to keep the batteries out when not in use.
D. Always keep the batteries out when not in use.
118. Which one of the following is correctly punctuated?
A. “Ruth,” said the teacher “is a wise.”
B. That day our team lost a smashing victory
C. Specifically, Philosophy includes five fields of study and discourse: logic, esthetics,
ethics, politics, and metaphysics.
D. Colds for example, are spread by coughing and sneezing.
119. Which one of the following sentences needs a semi-colon?
A. Most Americans drink coffee at breakfast some prefer tea.
B. All they needed was one thing an immediate cure.
C. He who shouts shouts to no avail.
D. Can you rapidly say peter piper picked a peck of picked peppers.
120. One among the following is wrongly punctuated.
A. Ladies’ dresses and children’s shoes are sold here.
B. The bank refused to help the company; consequently, it went bankrupt.
C. “It lasted,” he went on “about two years.”
D. How wonderful time I have passed with grade twelve students of BNB Learning Center!
“Play Today and Pay Tomorrow; Pay Today and Play Tomorrow!”
I thank you for the palmy days we had together
nd
2002 E.C 2 SEMESTER CIVICS MODEL II EXAM FOR GRADE 12
Time allowed
Directions: Each of the following questions is followed by four possible
alternatives.
1. Who appoints the prime Minister in a parliamentary democracy?
A. The party or coalition or parties that is a majority in parliaments.
B. The leader of the various parties represented in parliament.
C. The house speaker and deputy house speaker of parliament.
D. The chairpersons of the various committees of the parliament.
2. The development stage in the relation of state and religion where the state machinery is
fully used for religious interest is called:
A. Erastianism B. singularism C. secularism D. theocratism
3. The power of interpreting the FDRE constitution is vested in the:
A. house of peoples representatives C. federal supreme court
B. house of the federation D. council of head of the regional states
4. An international organization that is mainly concerned with exposing corruption around
the world is:
A. Amnesty international C. international court of justice
B. transparency international D. Anti-corruption commission
5. The Derg was able to take over power in 1974 because:
A. It was made up of communist soldiers.
B. It was able to get support of the Soviet Union.
C. There was no organized political party in the country.
D. The people trusted the army more than the parties.
6. The international organization to which Ethiopia is currently trying to gain membership is
the:
A. World Trade Organization C. International Labor Organization
B. Non-aligned movement D. Security council of the United Nations Organization
7. Civic organizations could be established for all of the following purposes except for:
A. solving a problem of a society C. performing humanitarian activities
B. attaining power D. protecting the interests of a certain group
8. The specialized agency of the United Nations that is responsible for the protection of
registered world historical and cultural heritages is:
A. UNICEF B. UNESCO C. UNHCR D. UNDP
9. In a democracy parliament makes laws who will enforce them? It is the:
A. Executive C. President of the country
B. Judiciary D. People
10. Article 19(3) of the FDRE constitution provides that an accused person has a right to:
A. refuse to appear in court C. ask to be judged by foreign judges
B. Be presumed innocent until proven guilty D. refuse to follow court procedures
11. Which of the following organizations promotes Globalization?
A. World Bank C. Amnesty International
B. United Nations D. Intonation Court
12. Of the following statements identify the one that is correct about a constitution. A
constitution is:
A. an embodiment of the will of the people.
B. a document that explains the program of the governing party.
C. A supreme law that could be changed when it contradicts.
D. A supreme law that must be amended when it is not is keeping with the other laws.
13. A socialist economy is regulated by the
A. principles of supply and demand C. will of the producers
B. rules of the producers D. will of the state
14. Basically direct democracy is possible in
A. large community C. modern community
B. small community D. feudal autocracy
15. Under the federal constitution of Ethiopia which branch of government has the right to
decree a state of emergency?
A. the council of Ministers C. the president of the federal government
B. the house of federation D. the speaker of the house of federation
16. Which of the following is False about federalism? It
A. guarantees peoples’ right to self-governance
B. limits the authority of the central government
C. widens the differences between the people of a country
D. enables citizens to exercise their rights freely
17. Which of the following does not fall within the right of property according to the federal
constitution of Ethiopia? The right to
A. acquire property C. share property
B. dispose property D. use property
18. In a democracy the ultimate political power resides in the
A. parliament B. prime minister C. people D. president
19. What is a coupd’eta? It is a
A. Mechanism by which political leaders come to power by means of force.
B. Political method by means of which leaders seize power by legal means
C. War of liberation D. Communist take over of political power
20. If a government cannot easily be removed from office by peaceful legal means what kind
of a government is this? It is:
A. limited government C. parliamentary government
B. unlimited government D. presidential government
21. One of the following principles of the foreign policy of FDRE is promoting
A. Solidarity with peoples that struggle to overthrow oppressive rulers.
B. The interests of the big powers in the Horn of Africa
C. The principles of revolutionary democracy in the region
D. Fraternal relations with neighboring countries based on equality
22. The primary purpose of the petition called Habeas Corpus is
A. determining the guilt of innocence of a detained person.
B. making a unjustly imprisoned person free
C. gaining a fair trail for an accused person
D. getting a detainee released from lawful detention
23. Combating corruption is very crucial for Ethiopia mainly because it
A. is caused by a stagnant bureaucratic system
B. shows the existence of weak administrative system
C. enables many people to get employment in anticorruption commissions
D. could bring danger to national security and order
24. A country is said to be true constitutional democracy if it has:
A. a written constitution
B. a two house parliament
C. leaders that observe rule of law
D. rules and regulations for conducting electrons
25. Who elects the members of the house of federation of FDRE?
A. the house of peoples’ representatives
B. the members of the party that won the election
C. the council of ministers of the federation
D. the state council of the regional states
26. Which of the following is one of the factors for the relatively low development of Afar,
Benishngul-Gumuz, Gambella and Somalia regional states?
A. lack of natural resources C. lack of trained human power
B. shortage of suitable land for farming D. insufficient annual rainfall
27. Which one of the following is a more important prerequisite for a country’s sustainable
economic growth?
A. good governance C. multi-party political system
B. continuous good harvest D. availability of mineral resources
28. At present affirmative action is being taken to increase the number of female students
that join higher education institutions. This measure is being taken because:
A. Previous regimes used to discourage female education.
B. It is known that girls are not eager to join universities.
C. It may encourage parents to send their daughters to school.
D. Girls are still not given equal chance to compete with boys.
29. ‘We Ethiopians are working hard to be poor.’ This is to mean that:
A. Ethiopians are mentally weak
B. Since Ethiopians are under poverty so after sometime we will be poor
C. Ethiopia is rich in natural resource even though the people are poor
D. Weak governments makes the country to be poor but now we are going to change
30. People would willing become active participants in the affairs of their country if
A. they are exempted from paying taxes
B. their government gives them a constitution
C. their human and democratic rights are respected
D. they have a right to vote during elections
31. At international level it is compulsory for any government to:
A. respect the sovereignty of other countries
B. establish diplomatic missions in all countries
C. create commercial relations with its neighbors
D. become a member of the Unite Nations Organization
32. Market economy is said to benefit consumers. This benefit is a result of:
A. the competition between producers for the market
B. government control over the price of goods
C. the monopolization of the market by some capitalists
D. the ability of the producers to sell their goods direct to the consumers
33. What does accountability of state mean?
A. Duty of the state to create modern accounting system
B. Popular power to hold government liable for misdeeds
C. Government responsibility of providing efficient service
D. Popular power to audit the accounts of the state
34. The principle of universal suffrage provides for
A. universally accepted observers to monitor elections
B. universally accepted age limit for giving vote
C. all adult citizens of a country the right to vote
D. all citizens of a country the right to vote
35. The greatest damage to our environment is done by
A. African countries, particularly Sup-Sahara nations.
B. developing nations of Asia and Latin America
C. counties of the Middle East that are constantly fighting
D. economically highly developed countries
36. One benefit that a student can get from actively participating in school clubs is
A. Additional marks from teachers who appreciate his work.
B. Experience that would be useful in the real world.
C. Lesson on how to become a dominating person.
D. The art of winning acceptance by superiors.
37. How many members does the security council of the United Nations Organization have?
A. 5 C. 15
B. 10 D. all the members of UNO
38. If you make promise to your friends, you are expected to fulfill it because you have at
least
A. legal obligation to do it C. religious obligation to fulfill it
B. moral obligation to do it D. political obligation to fulfill it
39. One of the major functions of outs of any country is
A. forcing people to accept government in power
B. punishing people who oppose a government in power
C. making laws that benefit all citizens
D. help keep domestic peace by solving controversies
40. The constitution of FDRE recognizes the separation of state and religion. This recognition
enables an individual to
A. choose between state and religion for protection
B. adopt a religion without state interference
C. be out of the jurisdiction of the state
D. attack a religion that has no state protection
41. Mass media could be used to check the accountability of government officials if it is
A. owned by private entrepreneurs C. truthful and unbiased
B. run by government D. supported by the ruling party
42. Countries of the world interdependent because
A. they are made up of rich and poor countries
B. every country requires something from the other one
C. there is ideological similarity between them
D. there is continuous cultural exchange between them
43. In order to minimize the dependency of farmers on food aid the Ethiopian government
wants the donors to be engaged in programs that would bring:
A. profits to them C. relief assistance
B. sustainable development D. popular acceptance for them
44. What are civil societies? They are:
A. part of government institutions established to support the government in its
administration
B. institutions which are not parts of the government, but working withing the law four
political ends.
C. Voluntary organizations, not parts of the government, who work to achieve common
objectives.
D. voluntary organizations, whose power is limited by law, but are part of the government
to support it politically.
45. Let us assume that an argument has emerged over the interpretation of an article of the
federal constitution of Ethiopia. Which of the following body will have a final say on the
matter?
A. the house of people’s representatives C. the house of federation
B. the judiciary D. A and C
46. A public high school called “X” provides religious education to its students. Bearing in
mind the federal constitution of Ethiopia what measure will you take if you were the
authority of the Ministry of Education?
A. Because state and religion are separate in contemporary Ethiopia everyone has the
right to promote the religion he likes.
B. Religion is a private matter consequently the school has the right to teach religious
education.
C. Since teaching religion in school is not prohibited by the federal constitution, the
school has the right to teach.
D. Since education is secular in current Ethiopia no religious education is to be permitted
in public schools.
47. What is the essence of “progressive taxation”?
A. the more you get the more you pay C. the less you get the less you pay
B. the more you get the less you pay D. the less you get the more you pay
48. Which of the following is the power of the regional government of Ethiopia?
A. determine issues relating to nationality and immigration
B. establish and administer national defense and public security
C. allocate and administer the budget
D. formulate and implement foreign policies and executive foreign relations
49. Choose the correct statement out of the following ones.
A. Increase in income and decrease in consumption will decrease saving.
B. Saving is all about money
C. Saving is equal to income minus consumption
D. One’s tradition has bearing on his saving habit
50. An autocratic government is characterized by
A. rule of the people C. rule of men
B. a limited government D. accountability of the leader
51. Citizens who flee their country in order to have a better means of income are called
a. political refuges B. social refuges C. economic refuges D.
trespassers
52. Brain drain means
A. taking the brain out of an individual C. draining the brain of an individual
B. tempting skilled individuals out of their country D. deserting an area due to natural
calamities
53. What happens when a law contradicts a constitution?
A. the law shall be null and void C. the constitution will be cancelled
B. the constitution will be amended D. both the constitution and the law shall be
null and void
54. Which of the following must be in place for rule of law to prevail in a country?
A. The government must govern according to the constitution without being transparent.
B. The government officials and the common citizens and equally observe the law.
C. The working of the government must always be transparent and unconstitutional
D. The police force and the army should be accorded more discretional power to deal
with criminals
55. What is nepotism? It is:
A. favoritism
B. making use of state treasury for personal enrichment
C. promoting the common good
D. unbiased attitude towards all citizens
56. If you were elected the prime minister of Ethiopia, on the basis of the federal constitution,
which of the following position will you have?
A. head of state
B. chairperson of the house of federation
C. head of the judiciary
D. commander in chief of the armed forces
57. Which of the following is correct about a written constitution?
A. can easily be distorted by political leaders
B. is inconvenient for quick reference
C. can easily be amended
D. enablers citizens to monitor the behavior of their government easily
58. Which statement is not correct about the concept of equality?
A. Irrespective of differences, for a specific purpose people must be treated equally.
B. People who are in similar situation for a specific purpose, must be treated similarly.
C. People who are in different situation for a specific purpose, must be traded differently.
D. A and B
59. In indirect participation citizens participate in decision making when
A. they elect their representatives
B. they participate in the judicial system
C. their representatives participate in the braches of government
D. they write their views in the media
60. The Ethiopian federal constitution in article 8 (3) states that “The sovereignty (of the
people) shall be expressed through their representatives elected in accordance with this
constitution and through their direct democratic participation” what is the emphasis of the
constitution?
A. the supremacy of the constitution
B. equality of citizens as guaranteed by the constitution
C. direct and indirect participation of citizens in the political process
D. the sovereignty of the constitution
61. Corrective justice deals with
A. How to preset your case to the court
B. Making fair distribution of benefits and burdens
C. Correcting the behavior of the judiciary
D. Rectifying mistakes and compensating the wronged on
62. Which of the following statement is wrong according to the federal constitution of
Ethiopia?
A. The prime minister of Ethiopia serves for two terms of office, each term having five
years.
B. The prime Minister of Ethiopia is elected from among members of the house of
peoples’ representatives.
C. The president of Ethiopia serves for two terms, each term having six years.
D. The president of Ethiopia shall be nominated by the house of peoples’
representatives.
63. What happens to a law passed by the house of peoples representatives, if the federal
president fails to sign it within 15 day?
A. it will be implemented without the president’ signature
B. another modified law shall be drafted
C. it will be revoked (cancelled)
D. the house of federation will decide
64. The part of the world most affected by HIV.AIDS pandemic is
A. South America C. Eastern Europe
B. Sub-Saharan Africa D. Central Asia
65. Identify the correct statement from the following.
A. Irrespective of its nature, dependency is not legitimate
B. Self-confidence and self-reliance are diametrically opposite concepts
C. One can be self-reliant without being self-confident
D. Self-reliance is a level of dependency on one’s own power and resources.
66. If two or more regional states enter into boundary disputes in Ethiopia, which of the
following organ has the power to seek solution to the problem?
A. the house of peoples’ representatives C. the house of federation
B. the judiciary D. the council of ministers
67. “Dependency syndrome” is
A. strategy that deals with how to do away with HIV/AIDS
B. mode of struggle to attain self-reliance
C. permanent tendency to lead ones’ life on outside support
D. strategy to resist any kind of support form outside
68. Which of the following statement is correct?
A. Our consumption pattern has minor effect on our environment and natural resources
B. There is a balance between human desires and available resources to satisfy those
desires
C. “Donor Fatigue” refers to a situation where donor are eager to give more aid to poor
courtiers
D. Use of family planning contributes to our saving capacity
69. Which of the following is more important ensuring transparency of the government in
Ethiopia:
A. the constitution
B. participation of citizens in the political process
C. the good will of the government
D. the strength of the police force
70. Prejudice is a term that reflects a
A. behavior marked by accommodation and tolerance
B. tendency to work with a sprit of partnership with individuals of groups
C. bias against an individual or group
D. A and B
71. Which of the following measure has less power in controlling corruption?
A. fewer rules and regulations C. simple tax laws
B. tighter control over government by citizens D. higher salary for officials
72. Who are the beneficiaries of the micro-financing institutions? They are the
A. industrial owners C. large enterprises
B. government employees D. urban and rural poor
73. Who are conscientious objectors? They are
A. Persons who consciously object the policy of the government.
B. Female activists who struggle for women rights.
C. Male activists struggle for gender equality.
D. Citizens who could not be forced to give military services because of their belief.
74. How long a state of emergency remains in effect in Ethiopian House of peoples’
representatives? for:
A. 8 month B. 1 year C. 6 month D. none
75. Which of the following philosopher is a rationalist?
A. Aristotle B. St. Thomas Aquinas C. Plato D. Locke
A. As women are oppressed in Ethiopia, the government should force them to organize
in civil societies to struggle for their rights.
B. Women’s rights cloud basically by protected by the positive attitude males have
towards them.
C. Civil societies established by women cannot influence the law making of the
government.
D. Affirmative action could rightly be called positive discrimination.
77. Which of the following philosopher is an empiricist?
A. Plato B. Aristotle C. Chomsky D. Descartes
78. What is epistemology? It is the study of:
A. knowledge B. the supernatural C. universe D. religion
79. Of the following statements which one is correct about authority?
A. Legitimate authority emanates from power.
B. One cannot have power without authority.
C. Authority presupposes absence of power. D. Legitimate power emanates form authority.
A. Deductive reasoning is always correct.
B. Inductive reasoning is always false.
C. In deductive reasoning there are two premises called major and minor premises.
D. In inductive reasoning there are two premises called major and minor premises.
81. Method of reasoning that enables a person to reach at conclusion from a general
statement or assumption is called .
A. proposition B. inductive reasoning C. deductive reasoning D. synthesis
82. Human beings perceive the different environmental stimuli thorough their senses. Which
of the following is Not a major factor in influencing perception:
A. personality B. needs C. intelligence D. gender
83. A rule of accepted standard of behavior is called
A. norm B. value C. law D. psychology
84. Labor land and capital are collectively called
A. factors of production C. outputs
B. intermediate inputs D. A and B
85. In simple terms democracy is defined as a “rule by the majority” This definition implicity
shows that:
A. The majority is always right in decision making
B. There is a minority that accepts the decision on the majority
C. There is no place for minorities in democracy
D. Majority decision is decision made unanimously
86. The constitution of FDRE grants certain powers to the member state of the federation
with the intention of:
A. Facilitating their attainment of political and economic independence
B. Making them strong enough to protect their territory from attack by foreign powers.
C. There is no place for minorities in democracy.
D. Majority decision is decision made unanimously.
87. President John F. Kennedy ones said “. . . ask not what your country can do for you-ask
what you can do for your country” by saying so what was he demanding from his people?
A. altruism C. patriotism
B. humanitarianism D. philanthropism
88. In order to conduct fruitful dialogue, the participation parties should
A. Be represented by well known individuals.
B. Have similar opinion on the matter for discussion.
C. Respect the right of others to have their own opinions.
D. Refrain form appreciating the logic of their opponents.
89. A country may justifiably refuse accept aid from a donor it the aid is:
A. Lower than the expected amount.
B. Extended without the request of the recipient country.
C. Intended for solving a specific type of problem.
D. Believed by the recipient to be detrimental to its sovereignty.
90. The Ethiopian house of peoples’ representatives is the supreme power of the federal
state because it is
A. Responsible for appointing and removing the prime minister.
B. Mandated to declare war and ratify peace treaties.
C. The only body to accept or reject election results.
D. Formed by members who are directly mandated by the people.
91. Our legal system is adversarial in nature. What does this mean? in means that it:
A. Tries to solve problems by means of negotiation.
B. Tries to solve problems through compromization.
C. Involves to identical groups or sides.
D. Involves two opposing groups or sides.
92. In any type of production activity it can be said there is effective use of time if:
A. Large quantity of goods are produced within a short period of time.
B. Quality goods are produced within the shortest possible time.
C. Time saving is given priority over the quality of goods produced.
D. The whole production activity is designed to fulfill a predetermined quota.
93. It is said that a democratic government has a responsibility of providing its citizens with
equal opportunities for development. This means:
A. Governments should create opportunities that make every citizen wealthy.
B. Governments are expected to make every opportunity.
C. Governments are expected to make every opportunity open for all citizens equally.
D. Governments should provide all opportunities except education to its citizens to
develop them.
94. Many developing countries believe that the process of Globalization will retard their
economic development because they see it as a system that:
A. Deprives them a chance for getting economic aid for international donors.
B. Puts a limit to the quality of education they intended to provide to their citizens.
C. Provides more aid to the detriment of their industrial growth.
D. Forces their economies to enter into unfair completion with that of the developed
economies.
95. Ethiopia supports the establishment of a stable government in Somalia because:
A. It wants a rapid repatriation of Somalia refugees.
B. Peace would enable her to monopolize the trade there.
C. That would bring about peace and development in the region.
D. That is what the international community expects from Ethiopia.
96. Article41(4) of the FDRE constitution obliges the state “to allocate ever increasing resource to
proved public education” because:
A. A minimum level of education is necessary for a person to fully enjoy many of the civil and
political rights.
B. Ethiopia could not get international aid for education if this article is not written in the
constitution.
C. It is customary to write this article into a democratic constitution.
D. No public fund was allocated for public education before the constitution was adopted.
97. According to the agricultural development led industrialization (ADLI) strategy of the present
government of Ethiopia accelerated economic development could be achieved by:
A. Making agriculture focus on the production of raw materials for industry and quality goods
for foreign market.
B. Market agriculture produce all the necessary raw materials for our industries and stop
import from outside.
C. Making agriculture and industry produce substitutes for all goods we import form foreign
countries.
D. Increasing the share of agriculture and decreasing that of industry in the national
economy gradually.
98. Which of the following statements sum up the current understating of freedom more?
A. Political freedoms are full expressions of freedom.
B. Freedom means enjoying democratic freedoms.
C. Freedom is impossible without development.
D. Freedom is metal not material satisfaction.
99. In election 2002 of Ethiopia how many political parties participated and how many candidates
competes for the sits in HPR respectively?
A. 39 parties and nearly 7000 candidates
B. 43 parties and nearly 7000 candidates
C. 43 parties and nearly 3500 candidates
D. 43 parties and nearly 7000 candidates
100. In which regional governments of Ethiopia the highest number of election centers are found?
A. Amhara B. Tigray C. SNNPR D. Oromiya
Lekumta Yetekededen Cherk Le Suri
Atadirg!
Set by Temesgen A.
nd
2002 E.C 2 SEMESTER BIOLOGY MODEL II EXAM FOR GRADE 12
Time allowed
Directions: Each of the following questions is followed by four possible
alternatives. Choose the best answer.
1. Evolutions is:
A. a change in the gene frequencies within the gene pool
B. a change that involve on a particular individual through mutation.
C. a genetic change in population of organism D. A and C
2. The pre biological earth’s atmosphere consisted principally all except:
A. methan, ammonia, H2S C. water vapor, NH3
B. CO2, CO D. none
3. The most logical sequence in the chemical evolution of life would be:
A. monomes polymers C, M, O, N
B. DNA polymers C, H, N
C. C, H, O, N monomers polymers
D. protein poly peptides amino acid
4. Oparin’s hypothesis was to explain all except:
A. coacervates are capable of undergoing simple metabolic activities and could grow,
replicate, and divide.
B. probionts developed as a result of assemblage of organic polymers.
C. the origin of organic molecules that are the back bone for living organisms D. none
5. S. Miller’s experiment supported the hypothesis that:
A. The first life forms required oxygen for respiration
B. Life could be created in a glass flask
C. The primitive atmospheric gases could form in monomers.
D. Electricity could create organic molecules
6. The evolution of aerobes is thought to be due to all except:
A. Their competitiveness than anaerobes in that oxygen rich atmosphere.
B. The formation of ozone layer blanketing the earth.
C. The increase in atmospheric oxygen of the planet earth. D. none
7. The theory of the inheritance of acquired characteristics was demonstrated to be wrong
b/c of all except:
A. Such traits can only be transmitted to some of the off springs but not all.
B. Acquired traits could only be due to changes in somatic chromosomes.
C. Only changes in the DNA of sex cells can be transmitted from parent to offspring.
D. all
8. One is not true about the contribution of Charles Darwin.
A. He developed the concept of “struggle for existence” and “survival of the fittest”
B. He formulated the mechanism of natural selection
C. He developed the geographical theory of unifomitarianism
D. He found over reproduction, variation, and competition are necessary for natural
selection.
9. The rapid evolution of several different specialized forms from a single primitive ancestor
is referred as .
A. Gradualism C. adaptive radiation
B. extinction D. polymorphism
10. According to Thomas Malthus theory:
A. Growth in population is arithmetically
B. The supply of food available to support organisms increase geometrically.
C. The difference in growth rate between populations and the supply of food would cause
a struggle for existence. D. All
11. Which of the following observations are not the basis for the theory of natural selection?
A. Sexually reproducing organisms give large number of offsprings, but the majority die
before maturity.
B. In a given population two individuals are exactly similar.
C. Those individuals with favorable traits will have a better chance to survive.
D. Always there exist competition between individuals for existing resource.
12. The scientist who independently reached the same conclusion as Darwin about natural
selection was:
A. Lamark B. Linneaus C. Wallace D. Malthus
13. “All sexually reproducing species produce surplus offsprings most of which die before
reaching sexual maturity”. This phrase in Darwin’s theory of evolution is explained under:
A. Variation B. fecundity C. competition D. survival of the fittest
14. The radiometric dating techniques of a fossil require all except:
A. The half-life of the isotope should be determined
B. The full-life of the isotope should be determined
C. The amount of the isotope originally present in the fossil or the rock containing it should
be known.
D. The amount of the isotopes left in the fossil or the rock should be determined.
15. The wings of butters fly and birds have similar functions but are quite different. This is an
example of:
A. Homologous organs C. analogous organs
B. vistigeal organs D. adaptive radiation
16. Which of the following structures in humans are considered to be vestigial organs?
A. the appendix B. the coccyx C. wisdom teeth D. all
17. Which of the following structures are superficially dissimilar but composed of very similar
arrangement of bones, muscles and nerves?
A. mammalian lungs and trachea of insects
B. a human hand, and insect’s wing, a bird’s wing
C. a birds wing, a human arm, a wheal’s front flipper bats wing
D. a bird’s wing, an insect’s wing
18. Which of the following is not true about geographical isolation?
A. It leads to reproductive isolation
B. It allows organisms to have similar way of development
C. It results similar distribution of organisms
D. It result b/c of barriers
19. Directional selection:
A. operates in response to gradual changes in environmental conditions
B. leads to a shift in the population mean for the selected character
C. favor, one extreme phenotype from the population
D. all
20. If two different species have reproductive structures that prevent mating, they fail to
reproduce due to:
A. genetic isolation C. hybrid sterility
B. mechanical isolation D. hybrid in viability
21. An organisms which is obtained from two different specific species (ex. Horse + donkey
= mule) may show strength better than either of the two species. This is called .
A. hybrid sterility C. hybrid vigor (hetrosis)
B. hybrid in viability D. competition
22. Speciation that occurs when one population becomes geographically separated from the
rest of the species and subsequently evolves is called .
A. sympatric speciation C. allopatric speciation
B. divergent speciation D. none
23. The earlierst hominids belong to the genus
A. Australopithecus B. Prosimians C. Afarensis D. Homo
24. If two species look very much alike and are adapted to similar environmental conditions,
but are evolutionary unrelated, the type of their evolution is referred to as:
A. sympatric evolution C. parallel
B. convergent D. divergent
25. Which of the following is man’s distinctive biological features?
A. bipedalism, learning and intelligence
B. making and using tools, rapid development of cerebral cortex
C. mechanical skills D. all
26. The process of development accomplishes all except:
A. differentiation, morphogenesis and growth
B. generates cellular differentiation and order in each generation
C. doesn’t assures the continuity of life from one generation to the next
D. none
27. For a developmental biologist, a man is:
A. the adult of the species C. the zygote and gastrula
B. a fetus D. all
28. Which one is wrong?
A. In complete metamorphosis the larva look different form the adult.
B. The larva is the feeding and growing stage.
C. In incomplete metamorphosis the young doesn’t resemble the adult.
D. There are four stages in complete metamorphosis.
29. Molting and metamorphosis are the result of the interaction of:
A. Juvenile hormone B. ecdysone C. brain hormone D. all
30. Which statement is wrong about marsupials?
A. The time that the marsupial young spend developing while attached to the nipple is
less than the time of gestation.
B. Kangaroo’s are good examples
C. They complete their development in a maternal pouch.
D. Marsupial neonates are equipped with an instinct to climb in antigravity fashion.
31. The Chorio-vitelline placenta:
A. The connection is established by the chorion lined by the allantoids
B. The cencnection is between the uterine wall and the part of the chorion lined by the
yolk sac with vitelline blood vessel.
C. The allantoic blood vessel take over the transport of substances from the mother to the
embryo. D. none
32. Which one is not included with others?
A. the aminion C. the chorion
B. the yolk sac and allantois D. the vulva
33. Which one is responsible to make qestation period to be long in placental mammals?
A. the large body size C. the presence of amniotic fluid
B. the existence of placenta D. the existence of vagina
34. During embryonic stage of development all occur except:
A. implantation occurs C. morphogenesis occurs
B. gastrulation takes place D. organogenesis takes place
35. The sporophytic generation is characterized by:
A. being multi cellular and diploid plant body
B. being multi cellular and haploid plant body
C. being multi cellular and haploid plant body
D. its ability to be always haploid cells
36. Which one is wrong statement from the following?
A. Growth in annual plants is definite.
B. Growth in perennials show determinate growth.
C. Binneal plants show definite growth.
D. Its ability to be always haploid cells.
37. Of the two nuclei in the pollen grain, the one that is directly involved in the process of
fertilization is:
A. generative nucleus C. polar nucleus and egg
B. synergid D. antipodal and egg
38. When an embryo changes in to a seeding, its model of nutrition changed from
to .
A. parasitic to autotrophic C. chemosynthetic to autotrophic
B. autotrophic to photosynthetic D. heterotrophic to autotrophic
39. The technique of growing cells outside the organism is called
A. tissue culture B. in vivo culture C. parthenocrapy D. all
40. One is false about spermatogenesis.
A. spermatogonia are haploid cells
B. sertolie cells are also called interstitial cell
C. always four haploid different spermatozoan formed
D. spermatozoan are formed in the semniferoustubles
41. Parthenogenesis is:
A. advantageous in some species in maintaining social order
B. is a vergin development
C. is an adaptation for survival in times of stress or when there is a serious decreases in
population D. all
42. Organogenesis differs from spermatogenesis in that:
A. during meiotic divisions of oegenesis, cytokinesis is unequal
B. the percustor of sperms continue to divide by mitosis throughout the reproductive years.
C. Oegenesis has long “resting” periods before the process is complete, in contrast to
spermatogenesis. D. All
43. The endoderm of gastrula gives all except:
A. liver, pancreas C. reproductive system & its organs
B. muscular system & skeletal system D. circulatory system
44. At which stage of meiosis division in females the primary oocytes remains undivided until
puberty?
A. prophase II B. prophase I C. anaphase II D. telophase I
45. Which one is true about oogenesis?
A. oogonia are diploid cells
B. at the end of cell division four equal cell (eggs) are formed
C. there are three degenerative cells formed
D. one large functional cell (egg) is formed
46. When the inner cell masses of the cells of the two-cell embryo are not completely
separated, they will develop into .
A. conjugated twins B. fraternal twins C. Siamese D. A and C
47. The hollow ball stage of the embryo is called the
A. morula B. gastrula C. blastula D. neurula
48. One of the following types of growth of a multicelluar animals, which one is correctly
defined?
A. Auxetic growth –the volume of the animals body increase without the increase in no of cells.
B. Multiplicative growth growth may be a result of the increase in no of its constituent cells.
C. Accretionnary growth the growth of the animal is based on the activity of special cells.
D. All
49. Which of the following changes are associated with aging?
A. change I the brain C. change in the cardiovascular system
B. change in the skeletal system D. all
50. The type of tumor where it is characterized by metastasis is
A. Benin B. Malignant C. Benin & Malignant D. all
51. Which of the following crops are correctly defined?
A. Annual crops – complete their life cycle in two years
B. Perennial crop – live many years
C. Biennial crops – complete their life cycle in one season
D. Ephimerau crops – complete their life cycle in two years
52. What makes Ethiopia the richest center of biodiversity?
A. its topographic variations C. its climatic condition
B. its wide range of altitude D. all
53. The greatest share of the total domestic energy in Ethiopia goes to:
A. agricultural residues B. dung C. fuel wood and tree residues D. A and B
54. The major problems forestry in Ethiopia may be due to:
A. high malaria and tsetse fly infestation in the low lands
B. problems related to policy issue
C. deforestation for cultivation D. all
55. What percentages of Ethiopia is reported to have been covered with forests and wood
land now a days?
A. 66% B. 2% C. 35% D. 85%
56. Which of the following is a physical control of pests?
A. using light, x-rays, sound waves
B. using crop rotation
C. using natural enemies of the pest
D. picking parasites such as fleas from out body
57. Genetically engineered crops are reputed for their
A. high productivity C. fast turn –over rates
B. storability D. all
58. Drugs such as opiates, morphin, heroin and coaine are include in
A. Narbotics B. sedatives C. Downers D. all
59. Which of the following is the best approach to prevent drug abuse?
A. Prevention mental disorders related to drug abuse
B. applying prevention method only at abuser level
C. applying prevention method at society level D. announcing that the drugs are illegal
60. The clinical manifestation produced by the blood protozoan parasites very considerably
because of:
A. the degree of inherent resistance C. the age and nutritional states of the animal
B. the virulence of the strain of parasites D. all
61. The light-independent phase of photosynthesis.
A. produces ATP and NADPH
B. converts CO2 to high-energy containing compounds
C. occurs in the grana of the chloroplasts
D. breaking down of H2O in to oxygen & hydrogen ion
62. Which one is wrong statement?
A. The Calvin cycle is a light-dependent rxn
B. Two turns of the Calvin cycle are required to make one glucose molecule
C. The Calvin cycle begins with ribulose phosphate D. none
63. Which element is the most responsible to make chlorophyll?
A. manganese B. magnesium C. iron D. silicon
64. The enzyme that catalyse the linking together of the nucleotide sub units is termed as:
A. DNA polymerase C. DNA helicase
B. DNA lipase D. DNA synthease
65. For a DNA molecules that has 100 cytosin, and 50 thymin base the correct number of
base pairs are:
A. 100T –cytocin and 50A – Guanine C. 50G – C and 100A – T
B. 100G – cytosine and 50A – thyamin D. none
66. If the sequence of bases on one of the stands of a DNA molecule is 5’-ATTGCGGA-3’.
The complementary strand would read.
A. 55’-ATTGCGGA -3’ C. 3’-TAACGCCT -5’
B. 1’-ATTGCGGA -3’ D. 3’-TTACGCCT -5’
67. The capsid or outer membrane of a virus:
A. is left outside the host cell at the time of replication
B. protects the nucleic acid
C. is physiologically inactive D. all
68. The correct sequence of the steps in the process of viral infections is:
A. attachment – penetration - replication - assembly - release
B. attachment – penetration – assembly – replication
C. assembly – penetration – replication – release
D. attachment – penetration – release – assembly
69. The lytic cycle in the life cycle of the phages include
A. an infective phase C. a vegetative phase
B. progeny formation phase D. all
70. One can distinguish a homozygous (BB) and heterozygous (Bb) black – coated guinea
pig? In all except:
A. by crossing each guinea pigs with a pig of recessive trait (bb)
B. by looking their phonotype
C. by doing a test cross
D. by crossing with homozygous (bb)
71. In a certain fly species gray body (B) is dominant over black body (b). Two gray flies
were mated and produced 39 gray and 13 black. The parents were probably:
A. Bb x bb B. Bb x Bb C. Bb x bb D. BB x BB
72. One of the following is true
A. allelic genes govern the same characteristics of an organism
B. gametes carry a pair of chromosome of each homologous pair
C. if genes occupy different locus they determine the same trait
D. none
73. Assuming that red coat color in horse is a dominant character and a white coat color a
recessive one, if a horse with a red coat is mated with a female horse of white coat color
and if the heterozygous offspring are reddish – but with spots of white hairs then this type
of inheritance illustrates- the principle.
A. dominance C. of crossing over
B. pleiotropy D. of incomplete dominance
74. Haploid cells to be formed from diploid cells, a kind of cell division that reduce the
number of choromosome is required process.
A. equational division C. mitosis
B. meiosis D. all
75. Which of the following phenomena makes meiosis to differ from mitosis?
A. the occurrence of synapsis during meiosis
B. the occurrence of crossing over during mitosis
C. the occurrence of chiasmate formation in mitosis
D. all
76. The type of mutation which occurs because of accidental or deliberate exposure for
various materials or conditions is mutation.
A. spontaneous C. deduce
B. induced D. simultaneous
77. If a base pair (pairs) is omitted from the sequence of a DNA molecule the change is
called .
A. deletion C. substitution
B. insertion D. translocation
78. One of the following names of enzyme is given because of the breaking down of
chemicals.
A. Ligase B. Isomerase C. Invertase D. Lyase
79. The class of enzymes and the type of rxn they catalize is/are correctly matched.
A. hydrolase hydrolysis
B. Trasferase transfer of a chemical group from one molecule to the other.
B. Isomerase internal rearrangement of compounds.
D. all
80. One of doesn’t explain the general properties of enzymes. They
A. are globular protein C. are efficient in small amount
B. are specific D. change the properties of the end products
81. Urase converts urea in to
A. ammonia and CO2 C. uric acid and CO2
B. ammonium and CO D. Dap and CO2
82. Which one is not the correct statements about enzymes?
A. All are made from amino acid molecules by forming peptide bond.
B. An apoenzyme can catalyze a rxn only by itself.
C. Pepsin has a prosthfic groups that facilitate the rxn. D. none
83. In the chemical rxn A 
E1
B 
E2
C , where E1 and E2 are enzymes, and when concentration of
the product ‘C’ increases and stops the action of E, then such a kind of enzyme regulation
is .
A. End product inhibition C. irreversible regulation
B. Allosteric regulation D. activator regulation
84. ATP acts as a rxn inhibitor in the body cells when:
A. the body needs high energy C. the conc. Of ATP is very low
B. the conc. Of ATP is very high D. it doesn’t included in hydrolase enzyme
85. Competitive reversible inhibition of enzymes:
A. occurs when the inhibitor and normal substrate of the enzyme have no resemblance
B. occurs when the inhibitor molecule occupies the than the active size.
C. Occurs when the inhibitor normal substrate of the enzyme have close similarity
D. None
86. When a chemical binds to an enzyme and change the shape of the enzyme so that the
enzyme can facilitate catalysis, then the chemical is said to be:
A. inhibitor B. reverser C. an effector D. activator
87. The enzyme that break down acetyl cholin in to acetyl and cholin during impulse
transmission
A. acetyl cholinstrase C. acetyl dehydrogenase
B. acetyl hydrolase D. hydrongenase
88. Which one is true?
A. courtship is not a behavioral activity.
B. Behavior is the product of sensory, neural and hormonal activity.
C. The study of behavior and the understanding of ecology are not interdependent.
D. Behavior doesn’t involve changes in the external and internal conditions.
89. All of the following behavioral patterns greatly influence the structure of a given
communities except:
A. mating behavior C. territorial defense
B. social cooperation D. none
90. Innate behaviors are:
A. pre-set behavioral responses C. governed by genes
B. natural & inherited D. all
Set by Mezemir Mengesha
BNB የትምህርት ማዕከል ሁለተኛ ደረጃ
የ 2002 ዓ.ም የ 2 ኛ መንፈቅ ዓመት 2 ኛ ሞዴል የአማርኛ ፈተና ለአሥረኛ ክፍል
የተፈቀደው ሰዓት
አጠቃላይ መመሪያ፡ ይህ ፈተና በአጠቃላይ 60 ጥያቄዎችን የያዘ ነው፡፡ በዚህም አራት ክፍሎች ያሉት
ሲሆን እያንዳንዱ ክፍልም የየራሱ መመሪያ አለው፡፡ በመመሪያው መሠረት ለእያ
ንዳንዱ ጥያቄ ከተሠጡት አማራጭ መልሶች እንደአጠያየቃቸው ትክክለኛውን
ምላሽ የያዘውን ሆሄ በመምረጥ በመልስ መስጫው ወረቀት ላይ አጥቁር/ሪ፡፡
ማሳሰቢያ፡ ለአንድ ጥያቄ ከአንድ በላይ መልስ መስጠት አስፈላጊ ካለመሆኑም በላይ ያስቀጣል፡፡ መልሶ
ቹም ደምቀው መጠቆር ይኖርባቸዋል፡፡
መመሪያ 1፡ ከተራ ቁጥር 1 እስከ 32 ድረስ የተለያዩ ጥያቄዎች ቀርበዋል፡፡ እያንዳንዱን ጥያቄ በማንበብ
ለጥያቄው ትክክል የሚሆነውን መልስ ከተሰጡት አማራጮች መካከል ምረጥ/ጭ፡፡
1. የቃል ክፍልን በተመለከተ ልዩ የሆነው የቱ ነው

ሀ. ሳቀ ለ. መተረ ሐ. ማራኪ መ. ናፈቀ
2. የእርባታ ቅጥያ ያረፈበት ቃል የቱ ነው
ሀ. አመለኛ ለ. ታሪካዊ ሐ. ገደላማ መ. ቤትሽ
3. ከሚከተሉት ቃላት መካከል ብዙ ቁጥር አመልካች ያልሆነው የትኛው ነው
ሀ. ቅጠላ ቅጠል ለ. እናንተ ሐ. ደራሲያን መ. ወንዳወንድ
4. ከሚከተሉት ውስጥ አንዱ በልቦለድ ዘዴዎች ውስጥ አይመደብም፡፡
ሀ. ምልሰት ለ. ታሪክ ሐ. ምልልስ መ. ገለፃ
5. የዘገባ ባህርይ ያልሆነው የትኛው ነው
ሀ. ወቅታዊነት ለ. ትክክለኛነት ሐ. እምቅነት መ. ኢምናባዊነት
6. ወደ ውጭ አገር ለመሄድ ሲጥር የነበረው ሰው ዕቅድ በክፍት ቦታው ሊገባ የሚገባው ቃል
ሀ. አቀና ለ. ቀለደ ሐ. ተቁነጠነጠ መ. ተጨናገፈ
7. የጣቴን ቀለበት አንተ አድርገው ካሣ፣
በኔማ ጣት ገብቶ አስጨነቀኝሳ፡፡ የዚህ ቅኔ ወርቅ (ድብቅ) ፍቺ የትኛው ነው
ሀ. ጣቴ በጣም ወፍሯል ሐ. የኔ ጣት በጣም ያምራል፡፡
ለ. ለካሳ ቀለበቴን ሸለምኩት መ. ችግርና ብሶት አጠቃኝ
8. ከሚከተሉት ውስጥ ለውስብስብ ዓ. ነገር ምሳሌ የሚሆነው የትኛው ነው
ሀ. የዝምታ ወርቅነት እንደኮሶ አንገሸገሻት
ለ. የአድዋ በአል በሀገራችን ተከበረ
ሐ. ህዝቦች በስልጣኔ በመገስገሳቸው ከችግር ተላቀዋል
መ. የአማርኛ ምሳሌያዊ ንግግሮች የቋንቋው ፈርጥ ናቸው፡፡
9. ፈራሁ በሚለው ቃል የባለቤት አፀፋው የትኛው ነው
ሀ. -ሁ ለ. ፈራ ሐ. እሱ መ. - ኝ
10. ‹‹ቀይ›› ከሚለው ቃል ሊመሰረት የሚችለው ቅፅላዊ ሀረግ የትኛው ነው
ሀ. ቀይ ጫማ ለ. ብስል ቀይ ሐ. ቀይ ልጅ መ. ቀይ ልብስ ገዛሁ
11. ከሚከተሉት መንደርደሪያ ዓረፍተ ነገሮች መካከል ተራኪ ድርሰት ለመፃፍ መነሻ የሚሆነው የትኛው ነ
ው
ሀ. የዶሮ ወጥ አሠራር ቅደም ተከተል . . .
ለ. ውብ የምላት ሴት . . .
ሐ. በልጅነቴ የማረሳቸው ነገሮች . . .
መ. የሙሉ ቀን ትምህርት ከፈረቃ ትምህርት የተሻለ ነው፡፡ ይኸውም . . .
12. ከሚከተሉት ውስጥ በትርጉም የሚለየው
ሀ. ዛፍ ለ. ቀውላላ ሐ. የምድር አጫዋች መ. ብቅል አውራጅ
13. ከሚከተሉት ውስጥ ባለቤት አመልካች አፀፋ የያዘው ግስ የቱ ነው
ሀ. ሆዱ ለ. መጣች ሐ. ተደሰቱ መ. ሁሉም
14. ያፍንጫ ድምፅ የትኛው ነው
ሀ. ለ ለ. መ ሐ. ወ መ. ጰ
15. (በ፣ ፐ እና ጰ) ከመካነ ፍጥረት አኳያ የ ድምፅ ናቸው፡፡
ሀ. የከንፈርና የጥርስ ለ. የከንፈር ሐ. የጥርስ መ. የትናጋ
16. ከግስ የተመሠረተ ቅፅል የትኛው ነው
ሀ. ደግ ለ. ፈሪ ሐ. የዋህ መ. ቸርነት
17. ከሚከተሉት ዐረፍተ ነገሮች መካከል ንግግራዊ ባህርይ ጐልቶ የሚታየው በየትኛው አረፍተ ነገር ነው
ሀ. ተማሪዎች በመልካም ባህርይ ታንፀዋል፡፡ ሐ. ወዬው ጉድ! ጆሮ አልሰማም አይልም
ለ. የዕረፍት ቀን ያስደስታል፡፡ መ. ሌቦቹ ቤቱን ሰብረው ዘረፉ፡፡
18. ለሌሎች ያለማሰብን የሚያንፀባርቀው ምሳሌያዊ አነጋገር የትኛው ነው
ሀ. በሬ ካራጁ ይውላል ሐ. በሰው ቁስል እንጨት መስደድ
ለ. በልጅ አመሀኝቶ ይበላል አንጐቶ መ. በሬ ያርሳል አህያ መርቱን ያፍሳል
19. ስለ አናባቢ ድምፆች ትክክል ያልሆነው የትኛው ነው
ሀ. ኢ ነዛሪ ናቸው፡፡
ለ. ነዛሪ ናቸው፡፡
ሐ. አንድን ድምፅ ከሌላው ለማገናኘት የሚያናግሩ (የሚያናብቡ) ናቸው፡፡
መ. አፈጣጠራቸው አየርን የማያግድ ነው፡፡
20. በሰዐቱ ስለደረሰ አልተቀጣም፡፡ ይህን ዓ. ነገር ውስብስብ ያደረገው መስተዋድድ የትኛው ነው
ሀ. በ- ለ. ስለ- ሐ. -ም መ. አል-
21. ከሚከተሉት ጥምረቶች ውስጥ በፉካሬያዊ ትርጉም የተጣመረው የቱ ነው
ሀ. እባብ ተንኮለኛ ለ. አንበሳ ጐበዝ ሐ. ምስጥ ክፉ መ. ሁሉም
22. ከሚከተሉት ውስጥ -ዎች የሚል አብዥ ምዕላድ የወሰደው የትኛው ነው
ሀ. ወቅቶች ለ. ቤቶች ሐ. ዕቃዎች መ. ደብተሮች
23. ከሚከተሉት ቃላት መካከል ነባር ስም የትኛው ነው
ሀ. ሥጋት ለ. ልብስ ሐ. መንገድ መ. ፍርድ
24. የልቦለድ አላባዊ ያልሆነው የትኛው ነው
ሀ. ሴራ ለ. ገለፃ ሐ. ግጭት መ. ጭብጥ
25. እንደ ደራሽ ውሃ ከተፍ አለች፡፡ ይህ ዘይቤ
ሀ. ተምሳሌት ለ. ሰውኛ ሐ. አነፃፃሪ መ. ተለዋጭ
26. ከሚከተሉት መዋቅሮች መካከል ስማዊ ሀረግ ያልሆነው የትኛው ነው
ሀ. ልጅ የገዛው ደብተር ሐ. እንደወንድሙ ትጉህ
ለ. ለም መሬት መ. ያ ታታሪ ሠራተኛ
27. ከልቦለድ ዘዴዎች በገፀ ባህርያት መካከል የሚደረግ የሀሳብ ልውውጥን የሚያሳየው የትኛው ነው
ሀ. ምልሰት ለ. ምልልስ ሐ. ገለፃ መ. ንግር
28. ‹‹ድር ቢያብር አንበሳ ያስር›› ለምሳሌያዊ አነጋገሩ አቻ ትርጉም ያለው የትኛው ነው
ሀ. ጥርስና ከናፍር ሲደጋገፍ ያምር ሐ. ከአንድ ብርቱ ሁለት መድሀኒቱ
ለ. ጤፍ ከነወንድሟ ጐተራ ትሞላለች መ. ሁሉም
29. ከሚከተሉት አረፍተ ነገሮች መካከል የጊዜ አለመስማማት ችግር የሚታይበት የትኛው ነው
ሀ. በ 1976 በየአስር አመቱ የሚካሄደው የህዝብ ቆጠራ ይካሄዳል፡፡
ለ. ልጆቹ በድንገት ሮጠ፡፡
ሐ. በሞት ምክንያት ባሏ አጥታ የምትኖር ሴት እመበለት ትባላለች፡፡
መ. አዲስ ዘመን ሲከበር በደስታ ነው፡፡
30. ‹‹ትናንት ከበድ ያለ ዘናብ የጣለ ፣በሰውም ሆነ
በንብረት ላይ የደረሰ ጥፋት እንደሌለ ተገለፀ፡፡›› በባዶ ቦታው በአያያዥነት መግባት ያለበት የትኛው ነ
ው
ሀ. ሆኖም ለ. ከዚያም ሐ. ስለሆነ መ. ቢሆንም
31. በልቦለድ ድርሠት ውስጥ ታሪኩ የተፈፀመበትን ጊዜና ስፍራ የሚያመለክተው የትኛው ነው
ሀ. አንፃር ለ. መቼት ሐ. ጭብጥ መ. ምልሰት
32. ወ/ሮ አበራሽ ኑሯቸውን ለማሸነፍ አረቄ ፣ ጠላ ፣ ጠጅ ፡፡
በቅደም ተከተል ለክፍት ቦታዎቹ የሚስማሙት
ሀ. ይጥላሉ፣ ይጠምቃለሉ፣ ያወጣሉ ሐ. ያወጣሉ፣ ይጥላሉ፣ ይጠምቃሉ
ለ. ይጠምቃሉ፣ ይጥላሉ፣ ያወጣሉ መ. ያወጣሉ፣ ይጠምቃሉ፣ ይጥላሉ
መመሪያ 2፡ ቀጥሎ ያልተሟሉ ምሳሌያዊ አነጋገሮች ቀርበዋል፡፡ ምሳሌያዊ አነጋገሮቹን በትክክል ሊያሟሉ
የሚችሉ ሀረጋትን የያዘውን በመምረጥ መልስ/ሽ፡፡
33. ሆድን በጐመን ቢደልሉት

ሀ. በሽተኛ ሆነ ሐ. አቀበት አይወጣም
ለ. ጉልበት በዳገት ይለግማል መ. ምርኩዝ አስፈለገው
34. በውል ከሄደች በቅሎዬ
ሀ. ተመልሳ አትገኝም ሐ. ያለውል የተበላች ቆሎዬ
ለ. ያለ ውል የተበላች ፈረሴ መ. ፈረስን መሸጥ ይቀላል
35. ያገሩን ሰርዶ
ሀ. ባገሩ ላም ለ. ባገሩ በሬ ሐ. ባገሩ በቅሎ መ. ባገሩ ወይፈን
36. ሆድ ያባውን
ሀ. ጌሾ ያወጣዋል ሐ. ብቅል ያወጣዋል
ለ. ኮሶ ያወጣዋል መ. አፍ ይናገራል
37. መቼ መጣሽ ሙሽራ
ሀ. መቼ ቆረጠምሽ ሽንብራ ሐ. መቼ አረረብሽ እንጀራ
ለ. መቼ ጨረስሽ ሥራ መ. መቼ ለመድሽ ትዳር
38. ዘመደ ብዙ
ሀ. እግሩ ይቀጥናል ሐ. የድሃ ድሃ ነው
ለ. ብዙ ነው መዘዙ መ. ጠላው ቀጪን ነው
39. ልጅ ያለ እናት
ሀ. ቤት ያለዕቃ ለ. ቤት ያለ ጉልላት ሐ. ሞግዚት ያለሴት መ. ባል ያለሚስት
40. ጆሮ ለባለቤቱ
ሀ. ባዳ ነው ለ. ጠቃሚ ነው ሐ. አይታይም መ. ያስደስታል
መመሪያ 3፡ ከተራ ቁጥር 41 እስከ 50 ድረስ የቀረቡት ጥያቄዎች ቀጥሎ የቀረበውን ምንባብ መሠረት ያደ
ረጉ ናቸው፡፡ ምንባቡን በአስተውሎት በማንበብ፣ ለእያንዳንዱ ጥያቄ ከቀረቡት አማራጮች
መካከል ተገቢውን መልስ ምረጥ/ጭ፡፡
በቋንቋዎች መካከል የቃላት አካላትን (ቃላት፣ ሀረጋት፣ የአርባታ ምእላድ፣ ወዘተ) ሆነ፣ የቋንቋ ባህርያ
ትን (የአገላለፅና የመዋቅር መልኮችን ) መዋዋስ የነበረ፣ ዛሬም ያለ፣ ወደፊትም የሚቀጥል ጉዳይ ነው፡፡ መዋዋ
ስን የገታ የአንድም የህብረተሰብ ታሪክ እስከዛሬ ድረስ አልተመዘገበም፡፡ ለምሳሌ ዛሬ በአማርኛ ውስጥ የምን
ጠቀምባቸው አንዳንድ ቃላት ቁርጥ አማርኛ ይምሰሉን እንጁ፣ በተውሶ የተወሰዱ ናቸው፡፡ ፊርማ፣ መኪና፣ ስ
ኳር፣ ኪሎ፣ መዲና ለዚህ እንደማስረጃ ሊጠቀሱ ይችላሉ፡፡ እርግጥ እነዚህንና መሰል ቃላትን ከተዋስን በኋላ ለ
አጠቃቀም እንዲመቹን በማሰብ ‹‹አማርኛዊ›› ባህርያትን ሰጥተናቸዋል፡፡ ለምሳሌ ‹‹ፊርማ - ፈረመ››፤ ዳን
ስ - ደነሰ›› . . . እያልን በአማርኛ ርባታ ስልት መሠረት እንገለገልባቸዋለን፡፡
በቋንቋዎች መካከል መዋዋስ አይቀሬ ነገር ቢሆንም፣ አንዳንድ መረን የለቀቀ ሁኔታ መታየቱ ተደጋፊነ
ትም፤ ዘላቂነትም የለውም፡፡ የማይዘልቅበት ምክንያት ግልጋሎቱ ወቅታዊ ሆኖ ስለሚቀር ነው፡፡ ማንኛውም
ማህበረሰብ የየዕለት ገጠመኙንና ስሜቱን የሚገልፅባቸው ቃላትና የአገላለጽ መንገዶች ይኖሩታል፡፡ እነዚያን
መንገዶች የሚጋፉበት ባእድ ቀመስ የቋንቋ ባህርያት ሲመጡ፣ ወዲያው ለመቀበል ይቸግራል፡፡ እንዲያውም ከ
ጥራዝ ነጠቆቹ ጋር እስከ መጋጨት ይደርሳል፡፡ እነዚያን አዳዲስ የቋንቋ ጠባያት ተቀብሎ ሳያፀድቃቸው ሲቀር
ስር ሳይዙ ይደርቃሉ፡፡
የባእድ ቃላትና አገላለፆች ሳያስፈልጉ (ሳይቸግር) ወደ አንድ ነባር ቋንቋ በብዛት ሲሰርጉ መመልከት መ
ረን ለቀቅነትን ይጠቁማሉ፡፡ መረን ለቀቅነቱ በሁለት አቅጣጫ ሊታይ ይችላል፡፡ አንድም ቃላቱም ሆኑ አገላለ
ፆቹ ሳያስፈልጉ (የሚያመጡት አዲስ ፅንሰ ሀሳብ ሳይኖር ) ስለመጡ ሂደቱ ተገቢነት የለውም፤ እንደገናም መጥ
ተውም አይቆዩም፡፡ ማህበረሰቡ እነሱ የሚገልፁትን ሀሳብና ስሜት የሚገለፅበት የራሱ ቃላትና የአገላለፅ መን
ገዶች ስላሉት፣ ተቀብሎ በተግባር አያውላቸውምና አመጣጣቸው ዘላቂነት አይኖረውም፡፡ ከላይ ያየናቸው (
መኪና፣ ስኳር) እና ዛሬም እየተዋስናቸው ያሉት (ቪዲዮ፣ ኮምፒዩተር፣ ዲቪዲ) ቃላት፣ አገልግሎቻቸው ከፍ
ያለ ነውና (አዲስ ነገር በማምጣታቸው) የቋንቋችንን ወዘና እየለበሱ ይኖራሉ፡፡ እንደ ዳዲ፣ ማዘር፣ አይ ላቭ ዩ
፣ ወንበር ውሰድ ያሉትን ግን የነበሩትን ቃላት አሸንፈው ለመውጣት ኃይል አያገኙም፡፡
ብሉምፊልድ የተባለው ምሁር እንደሚለው፣ የቋንቋ ውሰት፣ ስነልሳናዊ ብቻም ሳይሆን፣ ባህላዊ ተላ
ልፎም ይጨምራል፡፡ የቃላትን ውሰት የሚያስከትሉ ጉዳዮች ከባህል ጋርም ይያያዛሉ ማለት ነው፡፡ ቃላትንም
ሆነ የአገላለፅ መንገዶችን የሚዋስ ማህበረሰብ፣ የሚዋወስበትን ባለቋንቋ የሚገነዘበው ከራሱ ላቅ አድርጐ ነ
ው፡፡ ለምሳሌ እኛ ከእንግሊዘኛ ቃላትን በብዛት የምንዋስ ከሆነ፣ እንግሊዘኛ ተናጋሪዎችን ከእኛ የላቁ ህዝቦች
እንደሆኑ አድርገን እናስባለን ማለት ነው፡፡ በዚህ የተነሳ ተገቢ ከሆነ ሰብአዊ ምርታዊ ግንኙነትም አልፈን የአለ
ባበስ፣ የአኗኗር፣ የጋብቻ፣ የባህርይ፣ ወዘተ ቅጅዎችን ሁሉ ከቋንቋው ጋር ማምጣት እንመኛለን፡፡ ይህ ደግሞ
የራስን ማንነት ዝቅ ያደርጋል፡፡
በሌዊስ አባባል መሠረት፣ የዘመናችን ማህበረሰብ ለምዕራባውያን ስሜትና ፍላጐት ተሸንፏል፡፡ ይህን
ያመጣው የቴክኖሎጂ አብዮት ነው፡፡ ከህትመት ውጤቶች በተጨማሪ፣ ኤሌክትሮኒክስ ነክ መገናኛዎችም አለ
ምን ከጠርዝ አስከጠርዝ ተቆጣጥረውታል፡፡ እያንዳንዱ የነዚህ ግንኙነቶች ተጋሪ (ተቋዳሽ) ለምዕራባውያኑ ባ
ህል ተጋላጭ ሆኗል ማለት ነው፡፡ አብላጫው የባህሉ መምጫ ዘዴም ቋንቋዊ ተግባቦት መሆኑ እየታመነ ነው፡፡
ሀቁ እያንዳንዳችን ዕለታዊ ገጠመኝ ውስጥ ቁልጭ ብሎ እየታየ ነው፡፡ በተለይ በቀላሉ በትምህርቱ እልፍ ያልነ
ው የማህበረሰብ አባላትና ከተሜው በአፍ መፍቻ ቋንቋችን ስንናገር መላውን እንግሊዘኛ በርዘን ነው፡፡ ይህ ሁ
ኔታ፣ የባዕዳንን ቋንቋ ማወቅ ላቅ ያለ ግምት ያሰጣል የሚለውን ማጠቃለያ እንድንሰጥ ያደርገናል፡፡ ስነልቦናዊ
ቀውስ ከምንለው እሳቤ አኩዋያም ይታያል፡፡ ባጭሩ፣ መረን ለቀቅ የሆነ የቋንቋ አጠቃቀም ከማህበረሰባዊ ገፅ
ታው አንፃር ሲታይ አሉታዊ መልኩ ጐልቶ ይታይበታል ማለት ይቻላል፡፡
ምንጭ፡ የሻው ተሰማ፡፡ 1996፡፡ ልሳነ ብዕር
በመጠኑ ተሻሽሎ የተወሰደ፡፡
41. በቋንቋ የመዋዋስ ሂደት መረን ለቀቅነትን የሚጠቁመው
ሀ. ቃላቱም ሆነ አገላለፆቹ የሚያመጡት አዲስ ፅንሰ ሀሳብ ኖረም አልኖረም ወደ ነባር ቋንቋ ሲገቡ
ለ. ማህበረሰቡ በነባር ቋንቋው ሊገልፅ የማይችለውን ሊገልፅለት የሚያስችለውን ባዕድ ቋንቋ ሲገለገል
ሐ. የባዕድ ቃላትና አገላለፆች ሳያስፈልጉ ወደ አንድ ነባር ቋንቋ ሲሰርጉ
መ. መልሱ አልተሰጠም
42. ‹‹የቋንቋችንን ወዘና እየለበሱ ይኖራሉ፡፡›› ሲባል ምን ማለት ነው
ሀ. የአዋሹን ቋንቋ የአጠቃቀም ስርዐት ይከተላሉ፡፡
ለ. ለቋንቋዎች ማስዋቢያ ጌጥ ይሆናሉ፡፡
ሐ. የቋንቋዎች ተቀጥላ ሆነው ይኖራሉ፡፡
መ. የተዋሹን የቋንቋ አጠቃቀም ስርአተ ይከተላሉ፡፡
43. . . . ባህላዊ ተላልሮ የሚለው ሀረግ ምንን ያመለክታል
ሀ. የባህል መዘመንን ሐ. የባህል ሽግግርን
ለ. የባህል መስፋፋትን መ. የባህል እድገትን
44. ፀሐፊው የብሉምፊልድንና የሌዊስን አባባል በፅሑፉ ያካተተው ለምንድ ነው
ሀ. የባለሙያዎችን በጐ ተግባር ለሌሎች ለማስተዋወቅ
ለ. ስለባለሙያዎቹ ያለውን ዕውቀት ሌሎች እንዲያውቁለት
ሐ. ባለሙያዎቹን አለመጥቀሱ ለፅሑፉ የሚሰጠውን ግምት ያሳንሳል ከሚል ፍራቻ
መ. በፅሑፉ አማካኝነት ለሚያቀርበው ሀሳብ አስረጅ ለመጥቀስ በመሻት
45. ለምንባቡ ተስማሚ ሊሆን የሚቻለው ርዕስ የትኛው ነው
ሀ. የቋንቋ ውሰትና የባህል ትስስር ሐ. መረን ለቀቅ የቋንቋ አጠቃቀም
ለ. ቋንቋ የመዋዋስ ስልት መ. የቋንቋ ውሰት አስፈላጊነት
46. መረን ለቀቅ የቋንቋ አጠቃቀም ወጥነት የማይኖረው በምን ምክንያት ነው
ሀ. በሀገሪቱ የቋንቋ ፖሊሲ ባለመካተታቸው
ለ. ቋንቋ ተዋሹ ማህበረሰብ የህግ ጠለላ ስላልሰጣቸው
ሐ. የተወሰነ ማህበረሰብን ፍላጐት ብቻ የሚያንፀባርቅ በመሆኑ
መ. የቋንቋ ተዋሹን ማህበረሰብ የየእለት እንቅስቃሴና ሰሜት አለመግለፁና ግልጋሎቱ ውስን በመሆኑ
47. ከሚከተሉት አረፍተ ነገሮች መካከል መረን ለቀቅ የቋንቋ አጠቃቀም የማይታይበት የትኛው ነው
ሀ. አሳይመንት ባለመስራቴ ቲቸር ሃርድ ሰጡኝ፡፡
ለ. እህቴ ትናንት በአውሮኘላን ለስራ ጉዳይ ወደ አዲስ አበባ ሄደች፡፡
ሐ. ፋዘር ዛሬ አፖይንትመንት እንዳለኝ ስነግረው የኪስ ብሎኛል፡፡
መ. ከጓደኛዬ ጋር ተገናኝተን ሻይ ቡና ከወሰድን በኋላ ወደቤታችን ተመለስን፡፡
48. ፀሐፊውን እንዲፅፍ ያነሳሳው ዋና ጉዳይ ምንድ ነው
ሀ. በቋንቋ ተግባቦት ሂደት ለመዋስ የአዋሹን ፍላጐት መጠየቁን ለማመልከት
ለ. በቋንቋ ተግባቦት ሂደት መዋዋስ አስፈላጊ መሆኑን ማመልከት
ሐ. የቋንቋ መዋዋስ የስነልቦና ተፅዕኖ ማሳደሩን ለማሳየት
መ. በቋንቋ ተግባቦት ሂደት ስርአት ያጣ የቋንቋ ውሰት አላስፈላጊነቱን ለመጥቀስ
49. ‹‹መረን ለቀቅ የቋንቋ አጠቃቀም ከማህበረሰባዊ ገፅታው አንፃር ሲታይ አሉታዊ መልኩ ጐልቶ ይታያል፡፡›› ለሚለው
ሀሳብ የቀረበው ማስረጃ ምንድ ነው
ሀ. የባእድ ቋንቋን አለመናገር አላዋቂ ያስመስለናል የሚል ስጋት መኖር
ለ. የባእድ ቋንቋ ለሚናገር ሰው የላቀ ክብር መስጠት
ሐ. የራስን ቋንቋ አጥርተው ሳያውቁ ሩቅ ናፋቂ በመሆን ራስን መሸንገል
መ. ሁሉም መልሶች ናቸው፡፡
50. በምንባቡ መሠረት ትክክል የሆነው ሀሳብ የትኛው ነው
ሀ. የቃላትን ውሰት የሚያስከትሉ ጉዳዮች ባህልን አይመለከቱም
ለ. የዘመናችን ማህበረሰብ ለምዕራባውያን ስሜትና ፍላጐት መሸነፍ ያመጣው የቴክኖሎጂ አብዮት
ነው፡፡
ሐ. መረን ለቀቅ የቋንቋ አጠቃቀም ከማህበረሰባዊ ገፅታው አንፃር አዎንታዊነቱ ይጐላል፡፡
መ. በቋንቋዎች መካከል የሚደረግ መዋዋስ መረን የለቀቀ ቢሆን እንኳን
ዘለቄታ ይኖረዋል፡፡
መመሪያ 4፡ ቀጥሎ ለቀረቡትና ቃላት ፈሊጦች ትርጉም (ፍቺ) የሚሆኑትን ከተሰጡት አማራጮች በመ
ምረጥ መልስ/ሽ፡፡
51. ምንዱባን
ሀ. ችግርተኞች ለ. ጐስቋሎች ሐ. እርዳታ መ. ሀ እና ለ
52. ረብ
ሀ. ፋይዳ ለ. ርባና ሐ. ጠቀሜታ መ. ሁሉም
53. አልፋ
ሀ. መጨረሻ ለ. መጀመሪያ ሐ. ቁምነገር መ. መጠነኛ
54. እብለት
ሀ. ክህደት ለ. እምነት ሐ. ቁጣ መ. ጌጥ
55. ደባ
ሀ. ህብረት ለ. ተንኮል ሐ. ወፍራም መ. ሀዘኔታ
56. የቀለም ቀንድ
ሀ. አዋቂ ለ. ቀለምቀቢ ሐ. የመጀመሪያ መ. አላዋቂ
57. እንባ ጠባቂ
ሀ. ሀይለኛ ለ. የሚክብ ሐ. ጉልበተኛ መ. ተቆርቋሪ
58. እንብርቱን የተተኮሰ
ሀ. ሆዳም ለ. የሰማውን የማይደብቅ ሐ. ነገረኛ መ. ሀ እና ሐ
59. ሀሞተ ቢስ
ሀ. ፈሪ ለ. ደፋር ሐ. የሚመር መ. ጨካኝ
60. ቆርጦ ቅጥል
ሀ. ቀጣፊ ለ. እወደድ ባይ ሐ. አሳዛኝ መ. ታማኝ
‹‹አስተውሎ የሚራመድ ብዙ እርምጃ ይጓዛል›
አዘጋጅ ማስተዋል ሸ.
BNB LEARNING CENTRE HIGH SCHOOL
nd
2002 E.C 2 SEMESTER MATHEMATICS MODEL-II EXAM FOR GRADE 10
Time allowed
1. What is the ratio of sand to cement in a concrete mix consisting of 80% sand and 20%
cement?
A. 1:5 B. 1:4 C. 4:1 D. 6:2
2. If x and b are rational numbers and |x| = b, then which of the following is NOT true?
A. b > 0 for all x C. b = 0 if x = 0
B. b > 0 for all x 0 D. b < 0 if x < 0
2 x 2 x
3. x  is equal to:
2 2
x
A. B. x C. 3x D. 2x
2
4. Which of the following quadrilateral has congruent opposite angles?
A. trapezium C. isosceles trapezium
B. parallelogram D. none
5. In the figure below PQ is tangent to the circle O at B and m(<ABQ) = 62 0, then
m(<AOC) is equal to:
P
0
A. 14
O
0 C B
B. 28
620
C. 560 A Q
D. 620
6. What is the range of the relation R = {(x, y): y < |x|}?
A. {y: y  R} C. {y: y > 0}
B. {y: y < 0} D. {y: y  R and y  0}
7. The ratio of the perimeters of two similar triangles is 5/6. What is the ratio of their
areas?
A. 5/6 B. 6/5 C. 25/36 D. 36/25
8. Which of the following is the formula for the volume V of circular cone with base radius
r and attitude h?
4 2 1
A. V  r h B. V  r 2 h C. V=  r2h D.
3 3
none
9. What is the LCM of the numbers 28, 49 and 98?
A. 195 B. 196 C. 197 D. none
10. If in the figure below CD is the attitude to the hypotenuse of the right triangle ABC,
then which of the following is true?
A. AC2 = AD x AB A
B. CB2 = AB x BD D
C. CD2 = AD x BD
D. All C B
11. What is the length of the side of a square whose diagonal is 6cm?
A. 36cm B. 2 3a C. 3 2cm D. 36 2cm
12. Which of the following set is the solution set of the inequality x 2 – x – 2 > 0?
A. (-  , -1] U (2,  ) C. (-  , -1] U [2, )
B. (-  , -1) U (2, ) D. none
2 5
13. The simplified value of
2 5
1 1 1
A. B. C. D.
94 5 94 5 9
2
14. Which of the following sets is an infinite set?
A. The set of people living on earth.
B. The set of whole numbers less than 10,000.
C. The set of positive integers less than 100.
D. The set of seeds of maize in a quintal.
15. Which of the following drawing represents a simple closed path?
A. B. C. D.
16. The bar chart below shows the number of members of a certain club and their age
groups. What is the percentage of those members whose age is 30 to 49?
A. 60.25 30
25
B. 62.05 0
20
0
15
C. 60.05 00
10
00
D. can not be determined 5
10-19 20-29 30-39 40-49 above 50
17. In the figure below AB // CD , x, z and y are the given angles, then which of the
following is true? B
A x
A. x + z – y = 180 z
B. x – z + y = 180
y
C D
C. y – x + z = 180 D. none
18. A water container which has the shape of right circular cylinder is filled with 180  cm3
of water. If the radius of the base is 6cm, then what is the height of the container?
A. 5m B. 5cm C. 36m D. 36cm
19. Which of the following is NOT true about a regular pyramid?
A. the base is regular polygon C. lateral faces are rectangular in shape
B. its lateral edges are equal d. it is a right pyramid
20. Which of the following is NOT true about g(x)= (2/5) x?
A. g is an increasing function C. if x < 0, then f(x) > 1
B. the range of f is (0, ) D. if x > 0, then 0 < f(x) < 1
21. From the top of a building 150m height above the ground, a person sees two cars on a
straight line on a parking lot. One has an angle of depression 30 0 and the other has an
angle of depression of 600. How far apart are the two cars?
A. 200 3m B. 150 3m C. 50 3m D. 100 3m
22. The sides of the parallelogram are 8cm and 10cm. What is the lengths of the diagonals
if the largest angle is 1200?
A. 2 21cm and 2 61cm C. 2 61 cm and 2 244 cm
B. 2 21 cm and 2 31 cm D. none
 1 
23. Which of the following is the characteristics of Log  ?
 5000 
A. -1 B. -2 C. -3 D. -4
24. A wire 32cm long is cut in to two pieces, one piece is bent to form a square and the other
piece is bent to form a rectangle whose length is 2cm longer than the width. How long
should each piece be to minimize the sum of the areas of the square and the rectangle?
A. 18cm and 14cm C. both have 16cm length
B. 20cm and 12cm D. none
25. If kx2 + 8x + k = 0 has no solution, then what are the possible values of k?
A. {k: k < -4 or k > 4} C. {k: k < -4 or k < 4}
B. {k: k > -4 or k < 4} D. k: k > -4 or k < 4}
26. In the figure below AB // CD , then OA = 8cm, OC = 16cm and OD = 24cm. How long
is OB?
C
A. 12cm
B. 14cm A
D
C. 15cm
B
D. 20cm O
27. If 68.5  8.2764 , then 6850 is equal to:

A. 82.764 B. 827.64 C. 8276.4 D. can’t be determined
28. Which of the following is the condition for  PQR ~  DEF by the SAS theorem?
PQ DE PQ PR
A. <P  < D and  C. <P  <F and 
PR DF DE DF
PQ DF
B. <P  <F and  D. <P  <D and PQ  DE and PR  DF
PR DE
29. If tan  = -2 and 900 <  < 1800, then sing  is equal to:
1 2 5 1
A. B. C. D. none
5 5 5
30. Which of the following is the contra positive of P   (p  q)?
A. (p  q)  p C.  p  (p  q)
B.  (p  q)  p D. none
31. Which of the following is NOT true for any real numbers a, b and c?
A. (a +b) – c = a + b – c C. a – (b + c) = a – b + c
B. a + (b + c) = a + b + c D. a – (b + c) = a – b – c
32. In the figure below ABCD is an isosceles trapezium, DC = 6cm, AB = 12cm and AD = 5cm.
What is the area of the shaded region  DCO?
A. 4cm2
D C
B. 2cm2
O
C. 3cm2
D. 15cm2 A B
33. What is the solution set of |2x + 3| = 4?

A. {7/2, ½} D. {-7/2, ½}
B. {7/2, -1/2} C. none
34. If AUB =  , what can be said about set A and B?
A. both have at least one element C. set A is empty but not A
B. both sets are empty sets D. all except B
35. If  and  are real roots of x2 + rx + t = 0, then  2+  2
=
A. r2-2t B. t2 - rt C. t2 -r D. none
36. The vertex (the turning point) of the quadratic equation f(x) = x 2 - 5x – 10 is:
A. (5/2, 65/2) B. (5/2, -65/2) C. (5/2, 2/65) D. (2/5, -65/2)
37. What is the successor of the numeral (8999) eleven?
A. (8988)eleven B. (9000)eleven C. (899T)eleven D. (8890)eleven
38. Which of the following statement is NOT true?
A. P is F if q   p  F and  q = T C. P is F if r  (p  q)  F
B. P is T if q  p  T and  q  F D. p is T if “q when p” is F
39. If f(x) = x2 – 1, then what is the value of f(x – 1) + f( x + 1)?

2 x2
A. x2 B. 2x2 C. D.
x2 2
3 
40. If sin   and     , then cot  is:
5 2
A. ¾ B. -3/4 C. -4/3 D. 4/3
41. In ABC , AB = 4cm, BC = 5cm and m( Bˆ )  60 0 , then what is the length of AC?
A. 19cm C. 21cm
B. 20cm D. 41cm
x  y  4  0
42. Find the solution set of the simultaneous equation 
4 x  3 y  37  0
 13 41 
A.  ,  C. {(13, 41)}
 7 7 
 41 13 
B.  ,  D. {(41, 13)}
 7 7 
43. Which one of the following is quadratic equation?
A. 2x – 2 + 3 C. x2 – 3 = 2x2 + 4x + 1
B. 3x – 1 = x(x – 2)(x – 1) D. none
44. Let set A = {2, {-3}, 3,{2}}, then which one of the following is NOT true about set A?
A. {-3} A B. {2}  A C. -3 A D. {2} C A
45. Which one of the following is TRUE for any real numbers a and b if -1 < a < b < 0?
1 1 (a  b)
A. –b > -a B.  C. a + b > 0 D. 0
a b 2
46. If cos12 = k, then what is csc2 interms of k?
1 1
A. B. C. k 1 D. none
1 k 2
1 k 2
47. Two congruent frustums of cones are attached to both ends of a right circular cylinder
as shown below. What is the volume of this solid in cm 3?

A. 68 12cm
3
B. 6
4cm 2cm
 4cm
C. 28
3
4cm

D. 56
3
The next two questions are based on the frequency distribution table of a population
function given below
v 1 2 3 6 0
f 5 5 3 1 1
48. What is the median of this population?

A. 3 B. 2 C. 1 D. 6
49. What is the variance of this population function?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 2/3 D. none
50. What is the 6th term in the binomial expansion (a + b)8?
A. 56a2b6 B. 56a6b2 C. 112a2b6 D. 1120a2b6
51. The inverse of the function y = 2x2 + 3 is:
x3 x3 x3
A. B. C. D. x3  2
2 2 2
x 2 1
52. The solution of the equation Log16  Log16 
x
is
4
A. 8 B. 4 C. 16 D. -4
53. What is the value of a, if the graph of the function y = a x passes through the coordinate
(-2, 25)?
A. ½ B. 2 C. 3 D. 1/3
54. What is the place value of 7 in the numeral (174) eight?
A. once B. tens C. sixty fourth D. eights
55. If Log a  y and Log a  k , then Log a is equal to
3 2 36
A. 2(x + y) B. 2x + y C. x + 2y D. 2xy E. none

56. Which one of the following is true about the exponential function y = a x, a > o?
A. If a > 1 and x < 0, then y > 1 C. If a > 1 and x > 0, then 0 < y < 1
B. If 0 < a < 1 and x > 0, then y > 1 D. If 0 < a < 1 and x < 0, then y > 1
57. The operation  is defined for non negative real numbers a and b by a  b = b + a .
Which of the following is equal to (36  10)  6
A. 6  10 B. 10 C. 10  6 D. 6  10
58. Which of the following is NOT a prime number?

A. 2 B. 111 C. 41 D. 67
59. The solution set of (3x)24x = 6 6 is
A. {1} B. {3/2} C. {2} D.  2  }
60. Which of the following is not measure of central tendency?
A. mean B. median C. range D. mode
Set by Temesgen T
BNB LEARNING CENTRE PREPARATORY
SCHOOL
HAWASSA
2nd Semester CIVICS III model examination for grade 12

May 2010
General direction
 This booklet contains civic model examination III.

 This examination contains 100 items.
 Attempt all the items.
 Follow the instructions on the examination paper exactly.
 There is only one best answer for each item
 Choose the best answer from the suggestion options and
blacken the letter of your choice on the answer sheet.
 You will be allowed to work for 2:00 hours
 When time is called, you must immediately stop working.
 Any form of cheating will result an automatic cancellation
of your score.
“It is unfulfilled dreams that keep you alive”
Do not turn this page until you are to do to do so

HAWASSA
2nd Semester History II model examination for grade 10

May 2010
General direction
 This booklet contains history examination.

 This examination contains 80 items.
 Attempt all the items.
 Follow the instructions on the examination paper exactly.
 There is only one best answer for each item
 Choose the best answer from the suggestion options and
blacken the letter of your choice on the answer sheet.
 You will be allowed to work for 1:30 hours
 When time is called, you must immediately stop working.
 Any form of cheating will result an automatic cancellation
of your score.
“It is unfulfilled dreams that keep you olive”
Do not turn this page until you are to do to do so

nd
2002 E.C 2 SEMESTER HISTORY MODEL-II EXAM FOR GRADE 10
Time allowed
1. Which of the following is TRUE about the book called “Mein-Kampf”?

A. It is written by Adolf Hitler
B. Mossoloni introduced his philosophy by his book
C. Napoleon wrote the book while he was in prison
D. Stalin explain his five years plan by the book
2. During WWI Japan joined the
A. Triple Entent C. Axis Power
B. Triple Alliance D. Allied Power
3. Which of the following is the result of the seven year war (1756-63) fought in America?
A. the formation of the United States of America
B. end of British colonial rule in America
C. end of French colonial rule in America
D. abolition of slavery from north America
4. The Cold War different from the two world wars because of
A. it was fought only in Europe
B. involved only the USA & the USSR
C. no direct battle between the USA & USSR
D. it had effect on African countries
5. The USA entered in to World War II inorder to
A. expel French colonists from Africa
B. bring unity in Vietnam
C. drive the Japanese invaders out of USA
D. stop the spread of communism in the far east
6. Which country supported the Nationalist (Kuomintang) party during the Chinese
revolution?
A. Germany B. USA C. Japan D. USSR
7. The leaders that attended the Munich conference of September 1938.
A. Recognized the Union of Austria with Germany.
B. Approved the dismemberment of Czechoslovakia
C. Awarded the Sudetan land to Germany
D. Ordered Poland to restore Danzing to Germany
8. The French defense line covering Franco-German boarder in 1940 was called
A. the maginot line C. the stress front
B. the iron curtain D. the Siegfried line
9. America was involved into the WWII soon after Japan
A. invaded China C. attacked the Pearl Harbor
B. conquered Indo China D. conquered the Philippines
10. Which of the following did not contribute for the outbreak of WWI?
A. Arm race C. colonial rivairy
B. Balkan nationalism D. Fascism
11. What was the significance of the assassination of Franciz Ferdinand in history? The
event:
A. brought peace & stability in Europe
B. led to the colonization of the Balkan region by Turkey
C. enabled Austria to borrow money from Germany
D. known an immediate cause for the outbreak of WWI
12. Which of the following factor influenced USA to join the WWI?
A. the Russian revolution C. the disintegration of Austria Hungary
B. the expansion of Fascism D. the Germany submarine attack
13. The event, in which thousands of unarmed Russians were killed in 1905, was know as
A. the ‘Bloody Sunday’ C. the ‘Red Terror’
B. the ‘Russian Massacre’ D. the ‘Tsarist Genocide’
14. Which of the following statement explain the influence Greogor Rasputin?
A. the military weakness of Russia
B. the popular acceptance in Russia
C. the inefficiency of the Tsarist governments
D. his ability to led the Russian army
15. The peace treaty that Russia signed with Germany to stop the first world war was
known as:
A. Brest – Litovsk B. Versailles C. Appalo D. Riga
16. The colonial assembly in Uganda was known as:
A. Likiso C. Kabaka
B. Bataka D. Buganda
17. Who was the leader of the Wafdist Party?
A. Habib Bourgiba C. Gamal Abdel Nesser
B. Zeghlul Pasha D. Anwar Sadat
18. Lesotho was the new name of former
A. Boustoland C. Dahomey
B. Botswana D. Zimbabwe
19. The 1956 Suez Canal crisis (war) resulted for Egypt in
A. the political victory of Nasser over imperialism & aggression
B. lose of Sinai peninsula to Israel
C. Nasser’s resignation from his power
D. The temporary union of Egypt with Syria & Yemen
20. Stalingrad was:
A. Bolshevik capital in the Russian civil war of 1918-22
B. Head quarter of the Menshevik party
C. The great Russian victory over the Nazi German 1942-43
D. Meeting place of WWII summit conference of Allied leaders
21. Which of the following is TRUE about Hiroshima?
A. the name of the emperor of Japan during WWII
B. the USA naval base in Hawaii
C. the place treaty between Japan & the Allied power
D. Japanese city destroyed by an atomic bomb in 1945
22. Identify the correct statement about the policy of ‘appeasement’.
A. British promises to clear Italy from Ethiopia
B. The struggle of labour in Britain
C. Anglo-French failure to resist aggression by Germany, Japan & Italy
D. Chain Kai-Shek’s agreement with Chinese communist party
23. Which of the following marked the beginning of the WWII?
A. the invasion of Poland by Germany C. the invasion of China by Japan
B. the invasion of France by Germany D. the invasion of America by Japan
24. Among from the following which one is TRUE about the Comp David agreement of
1978?
A. the Arabs recognized the state of Israel
B. the Arabs & Jews agreed on the partition plan
C. Egypt gave reorganization for the state of Israel
D. Jerusalem was restored to the Arab state in Palestine
25. During the ‘Long March’ of 1934 the CCP was led by
A. Mao Zedong C. Sun yatsen
B. Choing Kai-Shek D. Ho Chiminh
26. After the victory of the CCP army, Chiang Kai-Shek:
A. committed Suicide to avoid trial C. became a political refugee in USA
B. fled to Taiwan & established the KMT gov’t D. executed in Beijing
27. The Schlieffen plan, put into operation in 1914, was:
A. the German plan to win victory in the west before the east
B. the German plan to invade Britain
C. the French plan to reconguer Alsace & Lorrin
D. the Austro-Hugarian plan to defeat Serbia
28. is the leading organ of UNO which has the power to mobilize an armed
force under UN control.
A. Security council C. General Assembly
B. Secretariat D. Trust ship council
29. The October revolution of Russia overthrew the .
A. government of Nicholas II C. provisional government
B. all Russian congress of soviet D. Duma
30. Which of the following refers to the popular resistance to Israeli occupation of
Palestinian territories?
A. Fedayeen B. Jihad C. Intifada D. Yom Kuppir
31. What was the ‘Holocaust’?
A. the enslavement of Africans in Americas
B. the massive casualties in the battles of WWII
C. the Nazi bombardment of London
D. the mass murder of European Jews in Nazi concentration camps
32. The slogan “Asia for Asians’ was adopted by
A. Chinese B. Americans C. Soviets D. Japanese
33. One of the post-liberation challenges against Emperor H/selassie was the:
A. intervention of USA in international affairs C. British military administration
B. Italian soldiers who remained in the country D. Patriotic resistance
34. Which of the following is TRUE about the role of women in the Ethiopian patriotic
resistance against Italian occupation?
A. they participated both in combat & in support capacities
B. they were entirely limited to underground activities
C. their participation was not significant at all
D. they were organized separately from the men
35. The new ideas about politics and government developed by Mossoloni is called
A. socialism B. Nazism C. popular democracy D. Fascism
36. The Ethiopian student movement is remembered as the first to rise the slogan of:
A. “Down with the Coup d’etat of 1960” C. “Down with feudalism”
B. “No taxation without representation” D. “Land to the tiller”
37. When Ethiopia was invaded by Somali Republic in 1977, she got military support from:
A. the USA C. USSR
B. Britain & France D. Portuguese
38. One of the following did not contribute for the down fall of H/selassie
A. the Ethiopian student movement C. the Eritrean armed struggle
B. the peasant rebellion in Gojjam & Bale D. the Gedeon force
39. The five UN appointed commission to solve Ethio-Eritrean problem before the
federation of the two countries in 1952 were:
A. Britain, France, Burma, India & Pakistan
B. India, Pakistan, Guatemala, Burma & Norway
C. Norway, South Africa, Pakistan, Japan & Sweden
D. Burma, Guatemala Norway, Pakistan & South Africa
40. The British commander who entered Ethiopia through British East. Africa (Kenya) &
controlled Addis Ababa on April 6, 1941 was
A. General Wingate C. Allan Cunningham
B. General Sanfored D. General Platt
41. In prominent leader of Bale peasant rebellion against H/selassie was:
A. Idris Awate C. Jagema Kell
B. Blata H/mariam Redda D. Waqu Gutu
42. Ethiopian Teachers Association in 1974 refused:
A. the USA interference in Ethiopia
B. the new educational reform program known as Educational Sector Review
C. the slogan of ‘Land to the tiller’
D. the formation of PMAC
43. Who were assigned to conduct the Development Through Co-operation Campaign
in early Derg?
A. teachers & students C. Derg members
B. the soldiers D. the workers
44. The party formed by the Derg in September 1984 was known as:
A. COPWE B. WPE C. Emaledih D. POMOA
45. The first PMAC Chairman was:
A. General Aman Michael Audom C. General Mengistu Neway
B. General Teferi Benti D. Major Mengistu H/marriam
46. The Soviet leader who introduced the restructuring program of Perestroika &
Glasnost (openness) was:
A. Lenin B. Stalin C. Michail Gorbachew D. Putin
47. Which measures of Derg seriously affected the Ethiopian feudal class?
A. Nationalization of industry
B. Nationalization of Bank & insurance
C. Nationalization of rural land & property
D. The killing of 60 high ranking officials of the feudal regime
48. The Pan-African conference that adopted a resolution demanding independence for
Africa was held in:
A. Manchester B. London C. Paris D. Brussels
49. Why we call the year 1960, ’the year of Africa’? Because
A. the UNO designed it to be called African independence year
B. many African countries gained their independence in this year
C. the OAU established in this year
D. apartied system disintegrated in 1960
50. CAPU, & ZANU carried out an armed struggle in Zimbabwe to overthrow:
A. The South African Republic Trust ship Administration
B. The British colonialism
C. The white racist government of Ian smith
D. The secession movement of the Boers
51. Which of the following state did not attend the Accra conference of April 1958?
A. Libya B. Sudan C. Tunisia D. Ethiopia
52. What was the major of discussion at the Beljin conference of 1884-1885?
A. How to partition Africa among European powered without going to war
B. How Europeans could help each other against serious African resistance
C. How to increase European economic assistance to African nation
D. How to form economically united Europeans
53. The European power who boasted about the large size of their empire by saying” the
sun never sets in our empire” in the 19thc was .
A. French B. British C. German D. Belgians
54. What was the issue at the Tennis Court Oath the June 20, 1789 in France?
A. giving France a constitution
B. demanding a greater representation for the bourgeoisies in the States-General
C. releasing political prisoners from the Bastille
D. demanding the abdication of Louis CVI
55. What is the basis for the distinction between ‘historic’ & ‘pre-historic’ times?
A. beginning of sedentary life C. development state structure
B. beginning of writing D. beginning of historical studies
56. Which of the following developments does the term the “Agricultural Revolution”,
sometimes called the “Neolithic Revolution”, refers to:
A. the beginning of the cultivation of plants by human communities
B. revolution in the agrarian societies of China & Russia
C. the adoption of artificial fertilizers in the west which revolutionized agriculture
D. the commercialization of agriculture in nineteenth century Europe
57. What does “Complex Society” in the language of Archeologists?
A. a society made up of different ethnic group
B. a society with complex political arrangement
C. a sedentary society that emerged following the domestication of plants and animals
D. a society that requires complex analysis by Archeologist
58. Which of the following directly associate with the Modern Age in history?
A. science and industry C. the en of racism
B. atheism D. colonialism & imperialism
59. What does the term ‘periodization’ refers to in the study of history?
A. the break up of history lessons to periods in the school system
B. the process of selecting the most important dates in history
C. the breaking up of time into decodes, centuries & millennium
D. the work of dividing historical time in to meaningful blocks
60. Ancient Ghana became powerful by using the wealth from
A. overseas trade B. Trans-Saharan trade C. agriculture D. handicrafts
61. What happened to Ras Michael Suhul after the battle of Sabarkusa?
A. He became the guardian of the Gondor nominal kings.
B. He was forced to return to his power base, Tigray.
C. He was appointed as governor of Semen & Wollo.
D. He was called to Gondor to pacify the city.
62. Which of the following Hominids started to use his hands for doing things?
A. Homo Habilis C. Homo Sapience
B. Austalopithecus D. Homo Erectus
63. The ruler of the Christian kingdom of Ethiopia that expelled Catholic missionaries from
the country in 17thc was:
A. Sarsa Dingle B. Fasilades C. Yeshaq D. Minas
64. Which of the following events happened at the end of the 1642-1649 English civil war?
A. king Charles I founded the Stuart Dynasty.
B. the first parliament was established in the country.
C. the monarchy was restored under king Chales I.
D. Oliver Cromwell came to power as lord protector.
65. “Man is born free, but we find him, everywhere in chain”. This quotation is taken
from the works of:
A. Voltaire B. Rousseau C. Cromwell D. Montesquieu
66. The Eastern Roman Empire came to an end because of the:
A. Ottoman conquest of Constantinople
B. invasion of Rome by German tribe
C. occupation of Byzantium by the crusaders D. fall of Jerusalem to the Muslims
67. Foreign powers intervened in the 16thc Muslim-Christian conflict in Ethiopia with the
aim of .
A. controlling the source of Blue Nile
B. making the region peaceful by stopping the war
C. reviving the wars of the crusades
D. safeguarding their economic and political interests
68. The founder of the Carthaginian civilization were the people known as
A. the Kush B. the Phoenicians C. Meroe D. the Berbers
69. What was cause of the rivalry between the Christian Highland kingdom and the
sultanate of Adal since the middle of 15thc?
A. religious centrovery C. involvement of foreign powers
B. the need to control zeila trade route D. pressure from Egypt
70. In 1543, the forces of Adal was defeated by the combined troops of Gelawdewos &
Portuguese at .
A. Woina Dega B. Shimbra Kure C. Gramba D. Gonder
71. The Oromo population movement of the sixteenth century was caused by
A. their desire to control the long distance trade
B. the breakdown of Gade socio-political institution
C. environmental & demographic problem
D. the division between the Barentu & Borena confederacies
72. Which of the following battles of the 19thc Ethiopia was fought to settle rivalry between
regional lords?
A. the battle of Kufit C. the battle of Embabo
B. the battle of Dogali D. the battle of Debarqi
73. Where was the political centre of the Wara Sheh Ras Bitwodeds during the zemene
mesafint?
A. Gonder B. Woldiya C. Debre Birhan D. Debre Tabor
74. The main aim of the “Closed door” policy of king Fasilades (1632-1667) was to isolate
Ethiopia from
A. Neighboring Muslim States C. Christian Middle East
B. Muslim Egypt D. Christian Europe
75. Before the WWII, Vietnam was part of the French colony of
A. Cochin China C. Outer Mongolia
B. Indo-China D. Indonesia
76. The Balfour declaration, which was issued by the British government in 1917, had the
aim of:
A. established a national home for the Jews in Palestine
B. dividing Palestine into independent Arab & Jewish state
C. creating democratic state in Palestine for both Jews and Arab
D. establishing Jerusalem as an internationally city ruled by UNO
77. The most powerful medieval king who conquered and brought different peoples &
states under the control the Ethiopian highland Christian state was:
A. Yekuno Amlak C. Sersa Dingle
B. Libne Dingle D. Made Tsion
78. What was Medda-Walabu in the history of Oromo before the 16thc?
A. the political & religious center of the Oromo
B. the high priests of the traditional Oromo religion
C. one of the confedaries the Oromo clans
D. the main decision making body in the Geda system
79. What common characteristics do the Gibe-states, the Leqa state, the state of Keffa &
Wollayita had just before their incorporation into the empire of Menelik II? All of them
were?
A. Christian state B. Muslim state C. Oromo state D. rule by kings
80. The major objective of the African Union, when it was established in 2004, was
A. facilitating the political integration of Africa state
B. maintaining African neutrality in the East-West conflict
C. speaking up Africa’s industrial development & prosperity
D. bringing an end to colonialism in all parts of Africa
“Bad Workers Blames the Tools”

Set by Bereket F.
nd
2002 E.C 2 SEMESTER CIVIC AND ETHICAL EDUCTION MODEL(II) EXAM FOR
GRADE 10
Time allowed 1
1. Which one of the following is required to improve the low level of saving in Ethiopia?
A. encourage extravagant expenditure
B. strengthening family
C. discouraging the use of contraceptive
D. seeking increased international aids
2. Traditional methods of saving have been widespread in Ethiopia because
A. Traditional financial institutions provide better services.
B. People would like to save their money in traditional financial institutions.
C. Formal or modern institution are not available to the majority of the people.
D. Government policy in Ethiopia encourages it.
3. The concept “political pluralism” involves
A. exercising a multiparty system
B. attending a multiparty conference
C. acting within the limits of one’s power
D. taking part in demonstration
4. Citizens ability to participate actively and knowledgeably in political and social affairs of the
community is called:
A. civic competence C. civic society
B. civic right D. civic liberty
5. Which one of the following could be categorized as economically active classes?
A. house wifes B. robbers C. students D. civil servants
6. The type of economic system that prevailed in Ethiopia under the military rule of “Dergue”
was:
A. the private enterprise system C. the market economic system
B. the command economic system D. all
7. Which one of the following indicates a continuous commitment of employees to their
organization?
A. Willingness to exert their efforts on behalf of their organization.
B. Tendency to remain in the organization because they can’t afford to leave it.
C. Belief in the goal and values of their organization.
D. Interest to identify themselves as non-members of their organization.
8. A person who players attention to different ideas and arguments could be regarded as:
A. open minded C. compassionate
B. compromising D. civic minded
9. Which one shows suitable use of natural resources?
A. deforestation C. conserving biodiversity and eco system
B. Rapid soil erosion D. increasing pollutants in environment
10. Which statement is correct about self reliance?
A. To be self reliant is to be self confident
B. A dependent person is one who is self reliant
C. Excessive self criticism is a good aspect of self reliant person
D. Self reliant people are often conformist
11. Active community participation like voting is categorized under:
A. political participation C. cultural participation
B. economic participation D. intellectual participation
12. One of the following sampling techniques ensures a satisfactory representation of different
segment of a population?
A. systematic sampling C. cluster sampling
B. simple random sampling D. stratified sampling
13. Book review is an example of
A. explore a text C. give comments
B. revise D. search for specific information
14. One of the following is correct about the status of citizens in a democratic nation.
A. citizens are free to take what ever measures they like
B. citizens take the laws in their hand
C. citizens are subjects to the state
D. citizens and their leaders are equal before the law
15. According to modern thinking, for an individual to be a patriot, he/she
A. should enjoy human or democratic rights
B. should be a citizen of that country
C. should be a member of national defense force
D. should be discriminated and oppressed
16. Of the following characters contributes to the promotion of the common good?
A. non compromising C. non consensual
B. tolerance D. self interest
17. In the context of developing countries like Ethiopia, poverty means
A. inability to meet basic needs
B. lack of entertainment facilities
C. limited access to the products of science and technology
D. fair income distribution among citizens
18. According to the constitution of the Federal Democratic Republic of Ethiopia, the term of office
of the president is
A. 5 years B. 4 years C. 7 years D. 6 years
19. The major purpose of international law and agreements is
A. establishing the rule of law in a country
B. forcing a country to accept rules and regulations
C. regulating relations among countries
D. defining the foreign policy of a country
20. Which of the following describes the nature of the first Ethiopian parliament that was
opened in 1931?
A. it was bicameral C. it was federal
B. it was unicameral D. it was republican
21. One of the following features characterized the statue law
A. it is passed by the judiciary C. it is enacted by the legislature
B. it is unwritten law D. it is part and parcel of international law
22. Gender equality refers to equality between
A. religions B. races C. sexes D. cultures
23. According to articles 5 of the FDRE constitution which one is true about Amharic?
A. it is imposed as a national language
B. it is superior to all other languages in Ethiopia
C. it is used as the working language of the Federal government
D. it is accepted as the official languages of the federal government
24. Which of the following is result of the prevalence of justice?
A. stability B. civil war C. corruption D. rebellion
25. One of the following defines accountability in a democratic state?
A. taking responsibility for ones action C. ensuring freedom of speed
B. including of adults in election D. conducting elections frequently
26. Which of the following is correct about rights known as the third generation right?
A. They represent rigid nature of human rights
B. They were known earlier than the other forms of rights
C. They are rights that secure right to life of citizens D. All
27. Tolerance is encouraged in a democratic society because it is the ability to:
A. fulfill individual responsibility C. accommodate differences
B. impose one’s out look on others D. neglect others points of view
28. Historical evidence reveals that the process of state formation in Ethiopia began with the
emergence of the kingdom of:
A. Lalibela B. Aksum C. Ifat D. Da’mat
29. Who suspended the 1955 constitution?
A. the EPDRF forces C. the transitional government of Ethiopia
B. the “Dergue” D. the monarchic regime of Haile Silassie
30. Self governance in democratic society implies
A. administration of regional states by different political parties
B. the right of national to form their own independent government
C. the ruling of a country without a constitution
D. the active involvement of citizens in their own affairs
31. One of the following is a major goal of the right to equality of people
A. creating equal opportunity for the people
B. the economic equality of all citizens in a country
C. making all people wealthy
D. ensuring absolute equality of development
32. The process of recommending candidates for an election is known as:
A. campaigning B. counting C. voting D. nominating
33. Democracy guarantees all of the following except:
A. minority rule B. rule of law C. active participation D. people’s power
34. If one thinks that other peoples have the right to hold beliefs and values that are different
from his/her own. Then such thinking is related to:
A. diversity B. discrimination C. prejudice D. tolerance
35. Which one of the following is an activity in which the federal government and regional
states in Ethiopia have equal responsibility?
A. protecting the federal constitution C. determining matters of defense force
B. determining matters of nationality D. determining matters of immigration
36. One of the following is the moral foundation of justice
A. conventions B. treaties C. values D. constitution
37. When we said “Ethiopia is a museum of peoples”
A. is mono cultural country
B. is origin of man kind
C. has displayed peoples of different cultures in her museum
D. is a country of diverse nations and nationalities
38. As a person who has Ethiopian blood line from either of his/her parents, he/she can
acquire Ethiopian citizenship through:
A. birth right B. naturalization C. adoption D. alienation
39. Citizens right to earn equal salary for equal working a good example of:
A. legal equality C. cultural equality
B. political equality D. economic equality
40. The issue of fairness in information gathering and decision making in a court is related to:
A. corrective justice C. legal justice
B. distributive justice D. procedural justice
41. Which one of the following is true of culture and religions in Ethiopia?
A. Religions that have large number of followers are superior to those that have few
worshipers.
B. The peoples of Ethiopia have the same culture
C. There is no basic difference among the peoples of Ethiopia in custom, belief and tradition.
D. Democracy recognizers people’s rights to be culturally different from others.
42. The following is requirement of distributive justice people who are:
A. Similar in their needs and capacity should be treated in different ways.
B. Different in the needs and capacity should be treated equally
C. Different in important ways should be treated equally
D. Similar in their need or capacity should be treated in equal terms
43. A constitution state is characterized by
A. limited government power C. racial discrimination
B. absence of division of power D. abuses and violation of human rights
44. The following statement is correct about government
A. A government of men is one that exercises limited power.
B. An autocratic government strictly follows the principles of separation of power.
C. A government of dictatorship is one that is characterized by the absence of rule of men
D. None
45. The right to equality entitled to the result of country’s development refers to:
A. equality of gender C. equality of status
B. equality of benefits D. equality of burdens
46. One of the following is the majors source of the rule of law in a democratic country
A. domestic law B. constitution C. international law D. convention
47. The legendary document that states the Jewish origin of the Ethiopian Monarchs known as:
A. Feta Negest B. Awde Negest C. Zekre Negest D. Kibre Negest
48. The following measure is taken by the Ethiopian government to make-up Ethiopian women
who suffered from many years of inequalities.
A. feminist action B. affirmative action C. nationalist action D. chauvinist action
49. The principle of the Ethiopian foreign policy based on
A. protection of her national interest at the expense of other countries
B. mutual respect of the sovereignty of states
C. interference in the domestic affairs of other countries to promote her national interest
D. none
50. If a person is self directed then, he/she is referred as:
A. politically independent C. economically independent
B. socially independent D. emotionally independent
Set by Temesgen A.
2002 E.C 2 SEMESTER BIOLOGY MODEL II EXAM FOR GRADE 10
nd
Time allowed
Part I: Choose the best Answer.
1. According to evolutionary theory, which of the following groups of organisms evolved lately than
the other?
A. mammals B. early fish C. echinoderms D. early amphibians
2. Suppose 2000 pea plants are produced from Tt x Tt, how many of them are expected to be tall?
A. 2000 B. 1000 C. 1500 D. 500
3. How many of them are expected to be tall if they are Tt x tt?
A. 1000 B. 2000 C. 1500 D. 500
4. The correct pair of nitrogen bases in RNA molecule is:
A. cytocin = Adenine C. Adenine = Thyamin
B. Guanin = Uracil D. Adenine = Uracil
5. If in a DNA molecule Adenine makes 23%, what is the percentage of cytosine?
A. 23% B. 45% C. 28% D. 27%
6. The mitotic cell division where the homologous chromosomes line up in the equatorial position is
at .
A. prophase B. telophase C. anaphase D. metaphase
7. The replacement of the nuclear membrane in telophase of meiosis is from
A. Endoplasmic reticulum B. Mitochondria C. Nucleus D. Nucleolus
8. DNA is different from RNA in all except:
A. it has a deoxy ribose sugar than ribose
B. it is capable of division and making its copies
C. the pairing up of nitrogen base is Adenine with Thyamin but not uracil
D. its phosphate molecule is different from RNA
9. “The struggle for existence and survival of the fittest” is the theory of:
A. creationist C. recapitulation
B. evolutionist D. embryology
10. The nucleus, if removed from a body cell of one organism and is placed in an egg cell that has
had its nucleus removed. This process, which results in the production of organism that are
generically alike is called
A. cloning C. DNA replication
B. biological adaptation D. adaptive radiation
11. One of the following is true about the organisms with pentadectyl limbs.
A. they are members of the same species
B. they have no adaptation to live in different habitat
C. they have homologous character and descended from one common ancestor
D. they all have the same genetic material
12. According to Darwin, a species that lacks the variations necessary to adapt to a changing
environment will likely become:
A. fossilized B. mutate C. dominant D. extinct
13. Mutation may occur and transmitted to the off spring, if there is change in the:
A. appendages C. chromosomes
B. somatic cells D. enzymes such as lipase
14. Which one of the following is NOT considered as an inherited trait?
A. hair style of the mother C. the attachment of ear lobes
B. the colour of the skin D. the size of the eye
15. In a process between red and white four o’clock flowers, all the F1 generations are pink. Which of
the following is correct:
A. the trait for redness is dominant C. all the traits are neither dominant nor recessive
B. the trait for pinkness is dominant D. the trait for whiteness is recessive
16. What do you call such conditions in question number 15?
A. homozygous dominant C. hybrid sterility
B. incomplete dominance D. polyploidy
17. A genetic study was conducted by crossing two red-flowered plants. The next generation was a
mixture of red-flowered and white flowered off springs. Which of the following genotypes
represents whose of the parent generations?
A. rr and rr B. Rr and Rr C. RR and rr D. RR and RR
18. Two species of wild lettuce grow in the same area, but one flowers in early spring and the other
flowers in summer. This is an example of mechanism.
A. post zygotic isolating C. geographical isolating
B. temporal isolating (seasonal) D. behavioral isolating
19. Which of the following is NOT a prezygotic isolating mechanism?
A. geographic C. prevention of gamete fusion
B. temporal D. production of sterile hybrids
20. The theory “ontogeny recapitulate phylogeny” was first stated by:
A. Darwin B. Lamark C. Heakle D. Mendel
21. Which of the following types of cells are produced by normal meiosis cell division in human sperm
or egg formation?
A. haploid B. diploid C. triploid D. quadruple
22. The ability of giving birth (off spring) but they fail before they reach sexual maturity is
A. fecundity B. competition C. adaptation D. variation
23. Which assumption is the basis for the fossil record of the evidence for evolution?
A. in undisturbed layer of the earth’s crust, the oldest fossils are found in the lowest layer
B. fossils have been found to show a complete record of the evolution of all mammals
C. the relative ages of the fossils can not be determined
D. the simplest fossil organism appeared in the atmosphere
24. One of the following is considered as homozygous dominant trait.
A. TT B. Tr C. Bb D. Rr
25. Traits controlled by genes on the X – chromosomes are known as:
A. incomplete dominance C. mutagenic
B. co-dominant D. sex-linked
26. For a given trait, the two genes of an allelic pair are different. An individual possessing this gene
is said to be:
A. homozygous for that trait C. monozygous for that trait
B. heterozygous for that trait D. recessive for the trait
27. In his experiment on garden pea, why did Mendel opened the flowers at their bud stage and
removed the stamen? To:
A. prevent self-pollination C. make them grow faster
B. prevent cross pollination D. make them fertile
28. Which of the following is true about the origin of species?
A. The origin of species is always too slow to observe in a life time
B. New species can arise within the same geographic area as the parent species.
C. Geographic isolation leads to reproductive isolation and new species could be formed.
D. all
29. Before industrial revolution in England the pale winged Biston bitularia was found to be in large
number. This is because:
A. the dark winged could be well cumoflaged
B. they were well cumoflaged on tree trunk
C. there were no soot so the pare winged were not easily observed to predator
D. B and C
30. Why Mendel select pea plant? Because
A. it possess large varieties that can easily be distinguished
B. it is easily self-pollinated
C. it artificially-cross pollinated
D. all
31. One of the following is the cause of mutation
A. mutagens C. chromosomal variation
B. gene variation D. all
32. One of the following is not the part of DNA
A. nitrogen bases B. phosphate C. sugar (deoxy ribose) D. none
33. Which of the nitrogenous bases of DNA are equal in number?
A. A = G B. G = T C. C = T D. A = T
34. Lamarkian theory is known by the doctrin:
A. use and disuse C. recapitulation
B. inheritance of acquired characteristics D. A and B
35. Suppose the blood type of the father is AA and mother is BB what will be the possible blood group
of their children?
A. all offspring have AB C. 25% AB, 50% AA and 25%BB
B. 50%AB 25%. AA, 25% BB D. all offspring have AA
36. One of the following is the cause of mutation in human beings.
A. albinism B. heamophilia C. Sickle-cell anemia D. all
37. The book entitled as “the origin of species by means of natural selection” is written by:
A. Meadel B. Lamark C. Darwin D. Heakle
38. During gamete formation a pair of alleles undergo separation. This principle is
A. recombination C. segregation
B. dominant D. fertilization
39. Homo sapiens is probably the direct descendent of
A. Lucy C. Homo erectus
B. Homo neandertalin D. Australopithecus
40. In Mendel’s experiment, when a pure round seeded plants as RR and the pure wrinkled seeded
plants as rr. The phenotypic ratio of F2-generation is:
A. 3:1 B. 1:3 C. 1:2:1 D. not easily determined
41. The sensory cell of sacculus and utricles of semicircular canal detect the:
A. direction of the head with respect to gravity C. frequency of sound vibration
B. position of the head with respect to gravity D. distance of the sound sources
42. If in case the parathyroid glands is removed which of the following most probably occurs
A. diabetes C. disturbance in blood sugar level
B. retardation D. disturbance of the amount of calcium level in the blood
43. The substance that doesn’t pass the glomerulus’s filtrations under normal condition is/are:
A. plasma protein B. RBC C. glucose D. all
44. Which one of the following are endemic mammals in Ethiopia?
A. Whateled Ibis, Walia Ibex, Gillada baboon
B. Walia Ibex, Mountain Nyala, Gillada baboon
C. Golden back bird, mountain Nyala, Walia Ibex
D. Semin Fox, Whateled Ibis, Gillada baboon
45. Some animals survive summer heat and drought by:
A. forming thick subcutaneous fat C. going in to hibernation
B. going in to Aestivation D. maintaining their body temperature constant
46. Lack of insulin in the body cause:
A. diabetes B. rickets C. arteriosclerosis D. hypertension
47. The center for temperature and CO2 regulation is:
A. cerebrum B. Medulla C. hypothalamus D. thalamus
48. Re absorption of water from t he collecting duct of the nephrons is possible by hormone.
A. insulin B. oxytocin C. ADH D. FSH
49. How does a rabbit differ from the elephant?
A. it produce less heat per gram of body mass
B. it has larger surface area to volume ration
C. it produces more heat per day b/c it feeds more food
D. it consumes more amount of food per day
50. Which of the following sets of conditions is necessary and sufficient for germination of most
seeds?
A. water, air, optimum temperature C. water, light, To
B. soil, adequate air D. soil, water, air (N2)
51. Which of the following is a non-renewable natural resources?
A. solar energy B. water C. petroleum D. soil
52. When the body is cold, the body hairs stand and small swellings are formed around the bases of
the hairs. This is because of the:
A. swelling of the root hairs C. swelling of sweat glands
B. contraction of erector muscle D. dilation of the capillaries of the skin
53. The acidity of the soil could be minimized by the addition of in the soil.
A. Al2(SO4)2 B. CaCO3 C. H2SO4 D. KNO3
54. What is the body temperature for a person sitting in a room temperature of 220C?
A. 200c B. 220c C. 370c D. not possible to guess
55. Absorption of water and minerals from the soil is possible by:
A. main roots B. root hairs C. root cape D. xylem cells
56. Which of the following receptors in the skin is correctly matched with its specific function?
A. picinian corpus cles heat C. messiner’s corpuscles touch
B. hair plexus touch and pain D. golgi mazzonir raffini pressure
57. Which of the following organs forms urea?
A. bladder B. kidney C. liver D. pancreas
58. Which of the following animal is piokilothermic?
A. lizard B. frog C. fish D. all
59. One is NOT TRUE about pruning?
A. it serves to keep the beauty of the plant
B. it makes the plant remain in desired height
C. it decreases the size & quality of the plant
D. it encourages the development of the plant
60. During light reaction phase of photosynthesis light energy is used primarily to:
A. split water in to hydrogen and oxygen
B. prepare carbohydrate
C. breakdown CO2 in to carbon and oxygen
D. chemically combine hydrogen and carbon
61. The main reason that Van Helmont’s experiment has been rejected was because: He concluded
that,
A. the plant use only minerals
B. plants undergo photosynthesis by the help of light
C. the plants us only water for increment in length
D. the plant use only CO2 for growth
62. One is not the factor that affect absorption of water from the soil.
A. temperature of the soil C. aeration (air) in the soil
B. concentration of water in the soil D. none
63. Identify the one which is wrongly matched.
A. auxin promote stem elongation C. ethylene promote fruit ripening
B. abscisic acid promote bud growth D. cytokinin stimulate cell division
64. One is not considered as a physiological method of controlling the body temperature:
A. sweating B. vasodilatation C. fat layer in adipose tissue D. bathing
65. One is the section of posterior pituitary gland:
A. oxytocin B. gonadotrophin C. growth hormone D. prolactin
66. Two much production of growth hormone cause:
A. dwarfism B. acromegally C. goiter D. gigantism
67. Which of the following types of fertilizers can bring soil fertility through microorganisms?
A. inorganic B. organic C. artificial D. chemo fertilizer
68. Sperm cell are produced in the
A. epidydims C. vasdeference
B. somniferous tubeles D. scrotum
69. The protein that is found in human sperm cell is
A. vitaline B. acrosomes C. plasma membrane D. yolk
70. Assuming that muna’s menstruation comes on Megabit 15 then the next ovulation and the next
menstruation most probably takes place in respectively.
A. Megabit 29 and Ginbot 12 C. Megabit 27 and Ginbot 13
B. Megabit 42 and Megabit 28 D. Megabit 28 and Ginbot 12
71. One can’t occur if the egg is not fertilized within a few days
A. it enters the uterus and dies C. production of progesterone ceases (stop)
B. the corpusluetum disintegrates D. the egg wait the sperm & fertilized in the oviduct
72. Asexual reproduction in animals differs from sexual in all except:
A. it is a very slow process C. it does not involve embryonic development
B. offsprings are always identical to the parent D. it involves sexual cells
73. If you see a flower without sepals and petals and if you happen to know that this flower lacks
distinct odour, you would except it to be:
A. insect pollinated C. bird pollinated
B. wind pollinated D. all of the above can be expected
74. A fruit is:
A. a fully matured gynoecium C. a fully mature ovule
B. a fully mature androecium D. a fully mature ovum
75. In some plants the stamens are much logner than the pistils. This makes it easy for the pollen
gains land on the tip of the pistil (stigma). This condition usually occurs in:
A. self-pollinated plants C. pistillate flowers
B. cross-pollinated plants D. all flowering plants
76. Which of the following is true about the human embryo?
A. its breathing rate is smaller than the breathing rate of an adult
B. its urine is accumulated in the amniotic fluid
C. its faces are removed by the umbilical cord
D. it is dependent on the mother for nutrition and excretion
77. A lady got pregnant after having mated with the first man two days before the onset of her
menstruation, and with the second, third and fourth men on the 5 th, 14th and 26th day after the
onset of menstruation respectively. The most likely father of the conceived child is:
A. 2nd B. 4th C. 3rd D. no answer
78. Identical twins have identical genotypes (gene constitution). They must develop from
A. two eggs released from the same ovary
B. two eggs released from the left and the right ovaries
C. a single egg fertilized by a single sperm which later separates into two.
D. a sing egg fertilized by two sperm cells
79. Which of the following alternative gives the correct sequence of development states of a typical
flowering plant?
A. seed germination seedling union of gametes pollination flowering
B. Seed germination seedling flowering pollination union of gametes
C. pollination seed germination seedling flowering union of gametes
D. union of gametes seedling flowering seed germination pollination
80. In the papaya plant the male and the female flowers are found on separate individual plants.
Plants with such sexual systems are best termed as:
A. dioecius C. hermaphrodite
B. monoecius D. bisexual
81. The human egg and sperm cells are similar in the both
A. are produced on 28-day cycle C. can swin
B. have equal size D. contain 46 chromosmes
82. Dawit has taken a blue cobalt chloride paper from the laboratory and he held the paper about 3cm
from his mouth and breath on it for two or three minutes. Then the blue cobalt chloride paper turns
pink. So Dawit confirmed that the exhaled air consists of
A. CO2 B. heat C. oxygen D. moisture (H2O)
83. The parts labeled at “D” and “F” are
A. transverse colon and gall bladder C. gall bladder and ascending colon
B. gall bladder and descending colon D. liver and large intestine
84. The part labeled at “E” and its function respectively are:
A. pancreas and secrete pancreatic enzymes
B. liver and release bill
C. pancreas and secrete bill and enzymes
D. pancreas and release hormones that digest food
85. Digestion of protein begins and absorption of end products of food takes place respectively in:
A. A and B B. B and C C. B and I D. I and B
86. The rate of diffusion of molecules like O2, N2, HCl water etc depends on all except:
A. the concentration of the molecules
B. their relative size
C. the nature of the molecule
D. only determined by the presence of water only
87. Prokaryotic cells differs from eukaryotic cell in
A. The presence of true nucleus
B. the absence of membrane bounded nucleus
C. the absence of membrane bounded mitochondria for cellular respiration
D. all except ‘A’
88. Organisms that use chemicals such as iron, hydrogen or ammonia are grouped in
A. chemosynthetic C. saprophytes
B. photoautotrophs D. heterotrophic
89. One of the following is the function of protein
A. repairing and building C. antibody
B. hormone formation D. all
90. Which one is true about an enzyme? They are:
A. stable at higher temperature C. specific for a particular reaction
B. vitamins used for chemical rxn to takes place D. resistant in any PH change
91. One of the following is the net chemical reaction of fermentation. This is enzymes are
A. C6H12O6 + O2 6CO2 + 6H2O + 36 ATP
B. C6H12O6  2C2H5OH + CO2 + 2ATP
yeast
C. C6H12O6 pyruvate + CO2

D. 6CO2 + 6H2O C6H12O6 + 6O2
92. The voice box of the respiratory system is
A. pharynx B. trachea C. bronchi D. larynx
93. In order to detect whether an exhaled air consists of water vapor or not we use
A. bicarbonate indicator C. blue cobalt chloride
B. thermometer D. NaOH
94. “Each kind of enzyme catalyze one kind of reaction.”
A. specific C. sensitive to PH
B. proteins D. sensitive to temperature
95. Mamo is left handed. His parents are both right handed. If right handedness R is dominant over
left handedness(r) what were the genotype of the parents.
A. RR x rr B. RR x RR C. Rr x Rr D. rr x rr E. RR x Rr
96. Two pure breeding long winged and short winged fruit flyies were crossed and produced all long
winged F1. The F2 contains long winged and short winged. Among 800 of the F2 files we except:
A. 400 long and 400 short C. 500 long and 300 short
B. 600 short and 200 long D. 600 long and 200 short
97. If you want to determine whether an ox is a hybrid or pure dominant for a given trait, it is should
be crossed with a
A. hybrid cow C. with pure dominant cow
B. cow with recessive trait D. none
98. Ato Taye who is black eyed man (B) marries W/ro Etenesh with green eyed woman (b). They
have two black eyed daughters and one green eyed son. The possible genotype of Ato Taye was:
A. BB B. bb C. Bb D. none
99. False about mitotic cell division is:
A. it halves the number of chromosome
B. takes palce all the time in somatic cells
C. only two identical cells are obtained at the end of the division
D. equal number of chromosomes with the parent cell obtained in the daughter cells
E. none
100. All are true about meiosis cell division except:
A. equational division of the cell
B. reductional division of the cell
C. four haploid daughter cells are formed
D. the process which halves the number of chromosome
Set by Mezemir M.
2002 E.C 2 SEMESTER GEOGRAPHY MODEL II EXAM FOR GRADE 10
nd
Time allowed
Choose the best answer.
1. With regards to the Ethiopian condition, in which of the following altitudinal ranges
does the Zigba tree species adapt?
A. 2000 – 3400m above sea level C. 1100 – 2200m above sea level
B. 1300 – 2550m above sea level D. 1950 – 2250m above sea level
2. As compared, plain with that of plateau or hilly areas are very much suitable for
agriculture. This is because plain:
A. areas have suitable climatic condition C. areas have many rivers
B. areas less susisseptable for soil erosion D. areas have high temperature
3. All but one of the following modes of transport is best to transport valuable & low
weight goods?
A. road transport C. rail transport
B. air transport D. water transport
4. Which of the following statement corresponds with pro-natalist population policy?
A. designed mostly in developing countries
B. primarily designed to designed to population growth
C. designed to create balance between the population growth and sluggish
economic growth
D. it is populationist policy
5. All but one of the following is not Ethiopia’s fishing ground
A. Baro C. Ziway
B. Tana D. Red sea
6. Which one of the following manufacturing industries should be located close market?
A. textile industries C. breweries
B. cement industries D. dairy industries
7. Which people of Ethiopia known internationally by their method of farming?
A. Tigray people C. Gurage people
B. Konso people D. Amhara people
8. All but one of the following natural regions of the earth is confined only in northern
hemisphere
A. equatorial rain forest C. tropical savanna
B. coniferous forest belt D. Mediterranean
9. Season is divided in to different months. Which of the following months are “autumn”
seasons?
A. June, July & August C. December, January & February
B. September, October & November D. March, April and May
10. Which of the following combination is wrongly related the region with the type of
rainfall they received?
A. Equatorial rainforest convectional
B. coniferous forest relief
C. Savanna grass land convectional
D. Mediterranean cyclonic
11. A non-biological determinants of population change refers to:
A. mortality B. mobility C. fertility D. fecundity
12. “Tid” in Ethiopia belongs to:
A. the Gallery forests C. the podo carpus forests
B. the Juniper forests D. the broad leafed rainforest
13. Which of the following statement is wrongly describes about the location of Ethiopia?
Ethiopia is located
A. south of Eritrea and north of Kenya C.30N – 150N & 330E – 480E
B. in southern hemisphere D. with in the tropics
14. Which of the following statement is wrongly explains about the features of census?
A. it is usually sponsored by governments
B. it is conducted at a regular time intervals
C. it includes every member of the country
D. it collect information from selected representatives
15. Which one of the following do not practice in Mediterranean region as human
activity?
A. production of olive oil C. commercialized intensive fruit farming
B. animal grazing D. lumbering
16. Which of the following region its climatic condition is characterized by certainty of
weather changes where cyclonic storms and fronts are very common?
A. tropical region C. polar region
B. low-latitude region D. mid-latitude region
17. Which of the following agricultural practice in Ethiopia introduced recently & the main
source of foreign exchange?
A. coffee product B. oil seeds C. hides & skin D. floriculture
18. Which of the following rock is formed where lime stone is changed in to metamorphic
rock?
A. quartozite B. geniss C. slate D. marble
19. In which of the following atmospheric layer that most meteorites burn and
disintegrate?
A. troposphere B. mesosphere C. stratosphere D. thermosphere
20. As one moves north and south from the equator in the tropics
A. Rain fall increases C. rainfall decrease & become seasonal
B. vegetation change in to dense forest D. temperature increase
21. Suppose a locality in Ethiopia experience a daily maximum temperature of 30 0c. What
would be the equivalent of this in degree Fahrenheit?
A. 1020F B. 590F C.770F D. 960F
22. Which of the following statement is correctly describes about polar ice cups?
A. It is the coldest place in the earth surface
B. There is no permanent settlement in the region
C. It is permanently covered with ice and snow
D. All of the above
23. During the renaissance and the age of discovery (between 17 th and 19th c) geography
became more important than ever. The reason was:
A. the spread of European power
B. the discovery of advanced mapping tools
C. the development of transportation system
D. the discovery of various resource
24. To which of the following field of study does geomorphology is strongly related to as a
branch of geography?
A. physical geography C. soil geography
B. geology D. anthropology
25. Among the following food crops grown in Ethiopia. Which one adapts the warm
weather condition?
A. wheat B. millete C. teff D. barely
26. Which of the following term is clearly defines that a river which flows regularly
throughout the year?
A. intermittent B. catchment C. perennial D. discharge
27. If you were an expert in resource management, what would you suggest for Ethiopia?
A. Abandoning resources C. sustainable uses of resource
B. A busing resources D. Abusing resource
28. Which of the following characteristics of soil that explains abut the moisture holding
capacity of the soil?
A. color B. acidity C. texture D. alkality
29. Which of the following age group of the population is extremely affected by
HIV/AIDS?
A. the older population C. the younger population
B. the infants D. the child age group
30. In most developing world, which sector employ’s the majority of the labour force?
A. mining B. manufacturing C. tourism D. farming
31. Which of the following economic system is practiced in most advanced countries of
the world?
A. mixed economy C. subsistence economy
B. command economy D. market economy
32. Which of the following temperature zone is relatively similar to “Dega”?
A. tropical B. sub-tropical C. alpine D. temperate
33. The most oldest geological era of the earth is:
A. Mesozoic B. Cenozoic C. Paleozoic D. pre-Cambrian
34. All but one of the following is not an example of extrusive igneous rock.
A. basalt B. pumice C. obsidian D. granite
35. Which of the following is the major factor affecting population distribution in Ethiopia?
A. accessibility of transportation C. relief and climate
B. government policy D. diversity of ethic groups
36. An activity jointly practiced crop production and animal rearing collectively known as:
A. arable farming C. mixed farming
B. ranching D. pastoral farming
37. Generally speaking, Ethiopia rainfall increases from:
A. south east to south west C. north east to south west
B. south east to north east D. south west to south east
38. Which of the following agricultural activity is commonly practiced in drier part of the
world?
A. agro-pastoralism C. horticulture
B. ceral-cultivation D. flora culture
39. Which of the following is the most intensively growing crop in densely populated
regions of the country?
A. enset B. cereals C. pulses D. coffee
40. Developing countries in general and Ethiopia in particular, characterized by one of the
following socio-economic & demographic parameters?
A. high literacy rate C. low life expectancy
B. wide family planning service D. low urbanization
41. Which of the following resource can not replace or regenerate again but it can be re-used
again?
A. fossil fuel C. metallic minerals such as iron
B. animal D. atmospheric gasses
42. Which of the following methods of climatic classification mainly latitudinal?
A. thorn wait’s classification C. Ancient Greek classification
B. Koppen’s classification D. Miller’s classification
43. Which of the following statement is wrongly describes about the coniferous forest
vegetation?
A. It is composed of limited specious
B. It is soft wood
C. It is dense growth of tall, brad leaved and ever green trees
D. It is tall, straight, compact and conical in shape
44. Lumbering is more developed in coniferous forest region, this is due to all except?
A. access to market C. jungle environment
B. the availability of single specious D. modernization of lumbering
45. All but one of the following is not the favourable conditions for high concentration of fish
in high latitudes of northern hemisphere.
A. moderate or high population C. warm climate
B. indented and relief coastline D. the availability of plankton
46. Which of the following metallic minerals grouped in “Ferro-alloys” group?
A. aluminum B. gold C. manganese D. tin
47. Which of the following country is the leading producers of gold?
A. USA B. Russian fed. C. R.S. Africa D. Canada
48. Which of the following manufacturing regions of the world produces the bulk of the
world’s heavy industry and accounts about 90% of the world’s total energy consumption?
A. the tropical belt C. the power belts
B. east and south cost Asia D. Brazil, Mexico and western USA
49. In order to improve the scale of international trade in the Ethiopia economy. All but one of
the following is not included in trade policy?
A. diversification of exportable items
B. free trading system
C. increasing importable goods than exportable
D. selection of imported good
50. Currently, Ethiopian government designed agricultural led. Industrialization strategy.
This policy designed take in to account
A. industrialization could be attained only after agriculture fully developed
B. agriculture is could be easily developed
C. agriculture is the occupation of the majority of the population
D. industrial development would hamper development in agriculture
51. Which of the following statements correctly describes about the benefits of
globalization?
A. poor countries benefits more from globalization
B. it benefits all countries on equal basis
C. richer countries benefit more from globalization
D. it’s benefits do not depend on whether one is poor or rich
52. All but one of the following area is not frequently affected by the earthquakes?
A. a belt across southern Europe
B. the west coast of northern America, central & south America
C. the east cost areas of northern America
D. a belt in pacific ocean
53. Which of the following is characterize a land locked country?
A. can experience marine type of climate
B. lacks direct access to the sea
C. can promote port development activities
D. is suitable to attack from the sea
54. As Yigachette, Wellega, & Keffa are more related to coffee production and Aris-Bale
are known for cereal crop production. This idea goes more to which branches of
geography?
A. political geography C. social geography
B. economic geography D. urban geography
55. is the process by which gas is changes in to liquid?
A. sublimation C. evaporation
B. condensation D. transpiration
56. Industrialization in Ethiopia is at a low level of development. This is due to all except?
A. lack of industrial raw materials and fuel resources
B. lack of area (land) to build manufacturing industries
C. lack of capital
D. lack of infrastructure
57. One of the advantages of volcano is providing energy. In which part of Ethiopia does
this energy found?
A. along Ethio-sudanese border C. along the south east lowland
B. rift valley D. northern highlands
58. Which type of sedimentary rock is formed as a result of solution and precipitate?
A. deterital sedimentary rock C. chemical sedimentary
B. clastic sedentary rock D. organically formed rock
59. Which of the following planate in the solar system is the nearest to the sun?
A. Venus C. Mercury
B. Pluto D. Jupiter
60. The south western highlands of Ethiopia includes all except:
A. Keffa C. Illubabor
B. Gamo Gofa D. Jemjem Platau
61. Which of the following demographic indicators does not reflect the population of
developed countries?
A. economic growth exceeds population growth C. high rate of urbanization
B. low dependency ratio D. high literacy rate
62. In population geography “Population Nodes” refers to:
A. unevenly populated area C. sparsely populated area
B. densely populated area D. dispersed populated area
63. The population density of an area to be sparce or dense depends on:
A. the rate of population growth
B. the size of population and the size of the territory
C. the rate of urbanization
D. the fertility and mortality rate
64. Which one of the following is the works of exogenetic force?
A. warping the earth crust C. cracking & breading
B. wearing away surface materials D. folding or bending
65. Two places located at the same latitude may have different temperature. This
happened due to the variation of:
A. distance from the sea C. the angle of the sun
B. longitude D. altitude
66. Mountain Nyala and Walia Ibex are found respectively in:
A. Arsi and Bale mountain C. Semen and Gambella
B. Semen and Bale mountain D. Bale and Semen mountain
67. All but one of the following statement is wrongly describes about nitosols.
A. It cracks during dry season & stike together in rainy season
B. It is reddish brown in color
C. It is best soil for coffee, enset and cereal production
D. It is found densely populated areas of Ethiopia
68. The first trends of globalization is:
A. the emergence of instant global communication C. growth of global capital market
B. wave of deregulation D. removing government rules
69. A kind of poverty which is characterized by a condition of having fewer resources
than other within in a society is called .
A. relative poverty C. absolute poverty
B. intermediate poverty D. destitution
70. Which one of the following is not characterizes agriculture of Ethiopia?
A. modern & mechanized agriculture is carried on the country.
B. it is at subsistence level & lacks market orientation.
C. it supports about 85% of the population.
D. crop production is below the food requirements of the population.
For question 71 - 75 refer to the climate table given below.
Month J F M A M J J A S O N D
Temp(c0) 17 18 18 18 18.5 18.5 17 16.5 17.5 18 19 20
R.F(mm) 19 37 84 73 111 161 254 261 151 45 11 10
71. The wettest and driest month respectively is:

A. December & January C. November & August
B. August & December D. December & August
72. How much is the annual range of temperature of the area?
A. 18.50c B. 30c C. 170c D. 17.50c
73. The total rainfall the region received is:
A. 101.4mm C. 1220mm
Total population . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 120 million
B. 1217mm D. none
Crude birth rate . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 38/1000
74. Monthly total rainfall amounts starts decreasing continuously starting from the month
Crude death rate . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 12/1000
of:
Women in age 15 – 49 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 40 million
A. June B. September C. July D. August
Net migration rate . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3/1000
75. Which month appears to bet he warmest?
Rural population . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 80% of the total
A. March B. December C. November D. June
Female population . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 51% of the total
For questions 76 - 80 refer to the information given below.
Total area of the country . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1.6 million sq.
76. The population growth of the country is:
A. 2.9% B. 29% C. 0.29% D. 2.6%
77. The general fertility of the country is:
A. 114/1000 B. 109/1000 C. 120/1000 D. none
78. The sex-ratio of the country is:
A. 96.1 B. 92.3 C. 104.1 D. none
79. The arithmetic density of the country is:
A. 75 person/km2 C. 60 person/km2
B. 82.5 person/km2 D. none
80. The country may represent the socio-economic & demographic conditions of one of
the following continents. Which one?
A. Oceania B. Africa C. North America D. Europe
For question 81- 85 refer the map attached at the end of the question paper.
81. The R.F scale of the map is:

A. 1:400,000 B. 1:200,000 C. 1:800,000 D. 1:100,000
82. Approximately, the total area of triangular piece of land on the map is:
A. 7.5km2 B. 30km2 C. 30cm2 D. none
83. The distance between point B & C is?
A. 48km B. 24km C. 24cm D. none
84. The average gradient of the slope along point R & S is:
A. 1:28.6 B. 1:16.7 C. 1:20 D. none
85. The slope along point R & S is .
A. even slope C. concave slope
B. convex slope D. escarpment
Set by Ambachew T.
D

BNB Hs. 2002 E.C 2nd Sem. (II) Model Exam

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BNB LEARNING CENTRE PERPARATORY SCHOOL

2002 E.C 2nd SEMESTER MATHEMATICS MODELEXAM III FOR GRADE 12

1. Which of the following is not a rational function?

B. 4(x + 3)2 – 9(y – 1)2 = 36 D.

13. Suppose f(x) = X2 – 4 if x < 3 Then which of the following is false?

A. 0 and 3 are critical numbers C. the relative maximum value is 5

A. IR\{-1, 0, 1} C. (-  , -1) U (1, )

A. 3 (cos 105 0  i sin 105 0 ) C. 3 (cos 180 0  i sin 180 0 )

23. Let F ( x)   cos t dt then F (x )  ?

g(x) = f ( x) f (2)  2, f ( 2)  4 then what is the value of G(1) ?

following is true about these sequence?

D. none of the above

[cos(200 0 )  i (sin(200 0 )].2[cos(165 0 )  i (sin(165 0 )

44.   k  3  4   is equal to:

A. -1 and 2 B. -2 and 1 C. -4 and 3 D. -1 and 1

63. Which of the following is the image of hyperbola equation (y – 2) 2 – (x + 1)2 = -4

BNB Mathematics Final Model Exam BNB Set by

BNB LEARNING CENTRE PERPARATORY SCHOOL

GINBOT 2002/MAY 2010

TIME ALLOWED 3 Hours

 THIS BOOKLET CONTAINS SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE EXAMINATION

GINBOT 2002/MAY Time Allowed 1:45

SECTION ONE: Verbal Reasoning

Logical and Analytical Reasoning

DIRECTION: Each question or group of questions is based on a passage or set of

Refer to the following conditions below to answer questions 34 – 36.

i. Either A is last and E is first or A is first and E is last.

TIME ALLOWED 2 HOURS

THIS BOOKLET CONTAINS ENGLISH EXAMINATION. IN THIS EXANIMATION,

ANY FORM OF CHEATING OR AN ATTEMPT TO CHEAT IN THE EXAMINATION

1. was the spot down at the criminal gunned right.

6. a. The shape each depends on its size, speed and purpose.

SECTION THREE: Comprehension (11 - 15)

SECTION FIVE: Vocabulary

B. Substitution (43 - 53)

SECTION SIX: Grammar (54 - 93)

1. የቃል ክፍልን በተመለከተ ልዩ የሆነው የቱ ነው

33. ሆድን በጐመን ቢደልሉት

10-19 20-29 30-39 40-49 above 50

27. If 68.5  8.2764 , then 6850 is equal to:

33. What is the solution set of |2x + 3| = 4?

39. If f(x) = x2 – 1, then what is the value of f(x – 1) + f( x + 1)?

48. What is the median of this population?

A. 2(x + y) B. 2x + y C. x + 2y D. 2xy E. none

58. Which of the following is NOT a prime number?

2nd Semester CIVICS III model examination for grade 12

 This booklet contains civic model examination III.

“It is unfulfilled dreams that keep you alive”

Do not turn this page until you are to do to do so

2nd Semester History II model examination for grade 10

 This booklet contains history examination.

“It is unfulfilled dreams that keep you olive”

Do not turn this page until you are to do to do so

1. Which of the following is TRUE about the book called “Mein-Kampf”?

“Bad Workers Blames the Tools”

C. C6H12O6 pyruvate + CO2

For question 71 - 75 refer to the climate table given below.

71. The wettest and driest month respectively is:

81. The R.F scale of the map is:

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