BNB 2004 E.C 1st Sem. Model & Final Exam

BNB LEARNING CENTRE ELEMENTARY
2004 E.C 1st SEMESTER CIVICS FINAL EXAM FOR GRADE 6
Name Section Roll. No Score

Part I: Choose the correct answer
1. What system is established through the interests of the people?

A. Anarchy C. Democracy
B. Chaos D. All of the above
2. Which one is true about democracy?
A. The people have the right to kill anyone
B. It hinder full exercise of rights
C. The people elect those who govern them
D. A & C are answers.
3. Why the propose of democracy become crucial
A. B/C ithelps to ensure & respect the right for equality
B. It enables different nations nationalities and peoples to tolerate their differences
C. A & B are answers
D. The answer is not given
4. What are the existed difference between human and democratic rights?
A. Human rights are rights that originate from the very nature of humanity
B. Democratic rights are rights in which all men and women are entitled be cause of
the membership of the state
C. The right to live & worship is human right
D. All of the above E. none
5. Which is odd among the given neighbor countries of Ethiopia?
A. Kenya C. Eritrea
B. Djibouti D. Equatorial guinea
6. Which one of the following is true about constitution?
A. It is a document which is given to the winners in a game
B. It is a document which Consists theories about how to cook enjera
C. It is a document that consists of the political economic & social objectives of
anation
7. The current FDRE constitution comprises
A. 51.chapters & 106 articles C. 11 Chapters & 106 articles
B. 51 Chapters & 119 articles D. 11 Chapters & 119 articles
8. Why the regional constitution is needed in Ethiopian context?
A. It assures the nations, nationalities & people power and authority
B. It facilitates conditions for self administration
C. It assures gender, language and cultural equality
D. All of the above
Part II: Say true or false
1. If the law of a given country is violated it is impossible to learn in a proper way.

2. The main concern of ethics is to make a person the owner of good ethical values.
3. Limit of power is the authority given by the law in order to do certain work
4. One of accepted ethics from students is protecting classroom & school property
from damage
5. Telling the secrets to a third party enhance a peaceful correlation b/n the teller and
the secret owner.
6. Equality refers to how nations, nationalities, peoples and citizens equally benefit
within their country free from any partiality & discrimination.
7. If there is lack of peace and security there will be the presence of ample production
and development.
8. Females are not inferior to their male counterparts in relation to their administrative
power, mental capacity, creativity a well as leadership.
Part III: Matching

A B
1. Conflict & war A. salaries or wages
2. Unfair B. The fee that is paid to the government
3. Patriotism C. an unnecessary harmful act
4. Tax D. kenenisa Bekele
5. Nels on Mandela E. Belay Zeleke
6. Social institution F. Obeying the rule of law
7. Major areas of tax collection G. Loving ones own country
8. Conditions that strengthen patriotism H. Keble
9. The early patriot I. man made occurrence which lead
to disability
10. The current patriot J. The founder of ANC
Part IV: Jot down what you feel

1.Define the word
A. Democracy
B. Constitution
C. Equality
D. Justice
E. Patriotism
2. Write down at least 3 student responsibilities in the school compound
A.
B.
C.
3. I said you are a patriot! What are your contributions that makes you apatriot?
Good effort!!
Set by Masresha
S.
2004 E.C 1st SEMESTER BIOLOGY FINAL EXAM FOR GRADE 7

Time allowed
Part I: Say true or false
45’
1. Microscope was invented after a discovery of a cell.
2. Nucleus in a plant cell that undergoes food making by photosynthesis.
3. Bacteria live everywhere.
4. Both spirogyra and chlorella are green algae.
5. Coccus is spherical or globular shaped bacteria.
6. If organisms are found equally all over quadrate it is called even distribution.
7. In a food chain producer occupy the first trophic level.
8. Pyramid numbers shows the number of individual organisms at different tropic level.
9. Consumers are food producers.
10. Having small leaves is an adaptation of desert plant.
Part II: Match the following items from column ‘B’ to ‘A’
A B
11. Preservative chemical A. green plants
12. A group of population in a given area B. quadrate
13. A sample of ground organism in habitat C. community
14. Primary producer D. formalin
15. Flesh eaters’ E. carnivores
16. Bacterial diseases F. syphilis
17. Different organs performing a particular function G. system
18. Give support, shape and protection to the plant cell H. cell wall
19. The study of plants I. Botany
20. The study of classification of organisms J. taxonomy
K. common cold
L. Herbivores
Part III: Choose the best answer from the given alternatives.
21. The driest and hottest of all habitat is known as
A. forest B. grass land C. upper layer D. desert
22. One is not branch of biology.
A. botany B. morphology C. physiology D. none
23. All are living things except
A. bacteria B. Fungi C. paramecium D. none
24. The smallest basic structural and functional unit of life is known as
A. organelle B. nucleus C. DNA D. cell
25. One of the following is not eukaryotic organism.
A. plant B. fungi C. protozoa D. bacteria
26. Both plant cells and animal cells are similar in having.
A. cytoplasm B. cell wall C. chloroplast D. A and B
27. Which one of the following is true about palisade cell in plant leaf?
A. rectangular in shape C. help for photosynthesis
B. contain chlorophyll D. all
28. A place where living thing found is
A. community B. quadrate C. terrarium D. habitat
29. Which one is not terrestrial habitat?
A. desert B. forest C. grass land D. pond
30. Which one is marine habitat?
A. lake B. river C. pond D. sea
Part IV: Give short answer.
1. List at least five branches of biology. (2.5 pts).

a. c.
b. d. e.
2. Define the following terms. (3 pts)
a. Population
b. community
c. habitat
3. Write difference between marine and fresh water. (2 pts)
4. Write how plants adapt desert habitat. (2.5 pts)
Bonus
1. Define sampling.
2. Give at least two examples of desert animals.
Set by Mamiru E.
2004 E.C 1st SEMESTER CIVIC & ETHICAL EDUDCATION FINAL EXAM
FOR GRADE 5

1. Tolive peace fully people should solve their differences through

A. Respection C. selfishness
B. Discussion DA&B E. All
2. Could students with different religions be friends?
A. true B. false C. A&B
3. All are examples of human rights Except
A. the right to elect and to be elected C. the right to security
B. the right to life D. none
4. When people elect their leaders by their own interest and will to organize
government such an election is called
A. Democracy C. the right to self governance
B. Democratic election D. A&B
5. If there is no law
A. The strong will attack the weak C. student can not learn peacefully
B. people treat equally D. A&C
6. Confidentiality can be categorized as:
A. private B. family C. friends D. All
7. All are the rights of All N.N & peoples of Ethiopia Except
A. the right to self – administration
B. the right to equality & practice of language
C. the right to violate the right of others
D. A&B
8. Gender equality means
A. the superiority of men over females
B. the superiority of females over men
C. Equality of men & females in every area of work
D. Females & males students have equal right in the schools
E. C&D
9. All are Examples of harmful traditional practices except
A. Genital mutilation C. Hospitality
B. Early marriage D. Extravagancy
10. is a basic document which states a country s economic. Political &
social principles
A. Ethics B. constitution C. justice D. All
Part II: Fill in the blank space
1. is about evaluating right & wrong behavior

2. is ethically acceptable & a measurement of loyalty
3. Means holding others property or money for personal gain.
4. Refers to equal opportunity of rights & advantages of
individuals or groups of the same status.
5. is about working with out partiality
Part III: Matching

A B
1. levying tax A. Secret
2. Justice B. Equal share of benefits
3. Equality C. Females are equal to men
4. Gender equality D. self initiatives
5. Patriotism E. Deciding the amount of money
6. Good child F. Safe guarding the common good
7. Voluntarism G. She / he never comes late
8. Citizenship H. Fairness
9. Confidentiality I. By birth
10. Destruct patriotism J. Committing bribery
Part IV: True or false
1. Equality means absolute similarity.

2. Social services are the rights & responsibility of citizens.
3. Voluntarism is among the duties expected from good citizen.
4. Rule of law serves societies with discriminatory.
5. Every students has to carry out their responsibilities properly.
Set by Freweini
Good Luck!!
2004 E.C 1st SEMESTER CIVIC & ETHICAL EDUDCATION FINAL EXAM
FOR GRADE 7
Part I: Choose the best answer
1. Which one of the following shows the necessity of the constitution?

A. It enables citizens to enjoy or practice their rights
B. It enables citizens to fulfill responsibilities
C. It enables gov’t to discharge its duties D. All
2. Which one of the following is a democratic right?
A. The right not to be forced to work unless by court order
B. The right to elect & to be elected
C. The right to use one’s own language
D. the right to protection against bodily harm
3. What is the collective name of all actions that citizens are required to fulfill?
A. Rights B. punishments C. Duties D. Gifts
4. Citizens’ patriotism would be less if
A. They could work & live in peace C. they live ashamed their identify
B. they get proper justice D. their H &DR are respected
5. Which of the following is a cause for corruption?
A. presence of unqualified official’s C. presence of too selfish people
B. in efficiency D. All
6. Corruption is different from other crimes because
A. It is the highest crime
B. It is complex and is carried out by higher governmental officials
C. It is not allowed in our county D. All
7. The formation of regional states in federal states is
A. Uniform
B. Based on Settlement of nations and nationalities
C. Using geographical proximity D. B & C.
8. means very different peoples having different languages and cultures
or others but they live together in given country
A. tolerance B. Diversity C. state D. Mutual respect
9. Means holding others property or money for personal plan.
A. Constitution B. Corruption C. Confidentiality D. A&C
10. The state in Ethiopian is organized in to two levels known as
A. Federal and woreda C. Federal and regional
B. Regional and international D. Keble and Regional

11. Which democratic values states that every citizen is responsible to his /her action
A. Transparency B. showing concern C. Honesty D. Accountability
12. Living below the expected standards of life indicates
A. poverty B. Wealth C. development D. security
13. The fundamental development strategy of FDRE government mainly focuses on
development
A. Urban B. rural C. tourism D. industrial
14. The sum total of rights and responsibilities that an individual has due to his /her
belongingness to a certain country is:
A. Citizen B. Naturalization C. citizen ship D. Good governance
15. Human beings can worship what they like. This refers to equality
A. Political B. Religious C. National D. Language
Part II: Matching

A B
1. Give judgment A. Rule of law
2. Article 39 B. Equality
3. Administration C. the right of N, N & Peoples of Ethiopian
4. Base for unity D. governing body of an area
5. Article 38 E. Courts
6. Poverty F. political Equality
7. Democratic Value G. Corruption
H. Respect pf law
Part III: True or false

1. Conflicts can managed and resolved through dialogue and discussion
2. People can influence the government to check and revise its decisions
3. Corruption is defined as proper use of power
4. Confidentiality does mean uiolating the rule of transparency
5. There is state religion in Ethiopian
Part IV: Fill in the blank pace

1. are sets of values and basic polices that governments should
follow to administer the people
2. is characterized by the existence of two levels of government
3. is a power combined with the right to use that power on behalf
of the state. Set by
Freweini
2004 E.C 1st SEMESTER ART FINAL EXAM FOR GRADE 5

Time allowed
Part I: Choose the best answer.
1. Which one of the following is the main importance of line?

A. To show value C. To show texture
B. To show shape D. all
2. is a process of a playing pigments.
A. Drawing C. Printing
B. Painting D. Sculpture
3. refers to three dimensional shape.
A. Texture B. Shape C. Form D. Space
4. is a principle of art concerned with the relationship of one
part to another.
A. Unity B. rhythm C. Proportion D. Balance
5. line is an egg like shape.
A. Circle B. Curve C. Oval D. Diagonal
6. is a continuous mark, a group of points join together and to form.
A. sculpture C. principle of art
B. line D. all
7. indicates a feeling of completeness.
A. Unity C. Variety
B. Rhythm D. Movement
8. is a guide line to govern artists.
A. Kinds of art C. Drawing
B. Art element D. Principle of art
9. The idea, beliefs, and living customs of a people is called
A. hierographics C. Graphic
B. culture D. caliographics
10. A method of beautiful hand writing is called
A. landscape C. caliographics
B. portrait D. salon
Part II: Matching
A B
1. Informal balance A. making a picture of natural scenery
2. Texture B. two dimensional area
3. Shape C. Symmetrical shape
4. Formal balance D. roughness and smoothness of a material
5. Landscape E. a symmetrical shape
F. radial balance
Part III: True or false.
1. Black and white colours are example of primary colours.

2. Works of art is a parts of culture.
3. Tiya grave stone is found in Gedio zone.
4. Colour wheel is a tools for organizing colours.
5. Balance refers to a principle of art to guide a viewers eye.
Bonus
Write two examples of historical heritages found in Ethiopia?
1.
2.
Set by Jone
2004 E.C 1st SEMESTER ART FINAL EXAM FOR GRADE 6

Time allowed
Part I: Choose the best answer.
1. Which one of the following is the main importance of painting?

A. to decorate a picture
B. to induce the real image of a picture
C. to show the colour of a material
D. all
2. The language of art is called
A. graphics C. art element
B. art principle D. none
3. Which one of the following is a principle of art?
A. variety C. emphasis
B. Harmony D. all
4. type of printing technique is the simplest and eldest.
A. Stencil printing C. Potato printing
B. Intaglio printing D. Relief printing
5. is a solvent substance in oil point.
A. Water C. Binder
B. Turpentine D. none
Part II: Write True or false.
1. Form refers to three dimensional shape.

2. Another name of formal balance is symmetrical balance.
3. Solvent is a material used for thin a point.
4. Texture refers to the roughness and smoothness of a material.
5. Shape refers to two dimensional area.
Part III: Matching.
A B
1. Unity A. a principle of art to guide viewer’s eye
2. Line B. to indicate a feeling of completeness
3. Variety C. a powerful language
4. Colour D. the relationship of one part to another
5. Graphic art E. a group of points join together to form
6. Proportion F. refers to combining one or more element
7. Movement G. drawing
8. Balance H. the art of making print
9. Kinds of art I. a particular hue that seen when light is
reflected an object
10. Art J. concerned with arranging elements
Bonus
What is art element?
Set by Jone
2004 E.C 1st SEMESTER ENV.SCIENCE FINAL EXAM FOR GRADE 3
1. All living things can move from one place to the other.
2. Animals do not make food.
3. All animals eat the same kind of food.
4. Cow, goat and sheep do not have upper front teeth
5. The fastest animal on land is the cheetah.
6. Vulture eats the flesh of dead animals.
7. It is good using sharp thirds to clean our ear.
8. A group of organs work together to form a system.
9. The heart, blood and blood vessels make up the circulatory system. (bonus)
Part II: Choose the correct answer
10. Which part of the plant absorbs water and mineral from the soil?
A. Root B. steam C. leaf
11. Plants reproduce by
A. laying egg B. leaf C. flower
12. Which of he following animals eat meat only
A. cat C. lion
B. dog D. sheep
13. Which of the following is hunting birds
A. falcon C. eagle
B. penguin D. All
14. Which of the following is food sucking animal
A. mosquito C. humming bird
B. butter fly D. All
15. Which of the following is perching birds
A. crow C. duck
B. sparrow D. A and B
16. Which sense organ help us to smell?
A. eye B. nose C. ear
17. Which sense organ hap us to taste?
A. ear B. eye C. tongue
18. Which sense organs help us to hear?
A. ear B. eye C. toupee
19. Which sense organs help us to see?
A. ear B. eye C. nose D. Ear
20. Which of the following organs are excretory organ?
A. Skin C. lung
B. kidney D. All
21. Nose windpipe and lung make up system
A. Respiratory system C. digestive
B. circulatory system D. Re productive
22. Month, stomach small intestine and large intestine make up
system
A. Reproductive C. excretory
B. Breathing D. Digestive
23. The fine hair in the nose blocks the dust particles contained in the air
A. true B. false
Part III: Matching

A B.
24. Climbing bird’s A. ostrich, penguin, kiwi
25. Preying bird B. crane, flamingo
26. Scratching bird C. duck
27. Swimming bird D. hen
28. Wadding bird E. Eagle falcon owl
29. Flight less birds F. parrots wood pecker
Set by Getahun U.

Time allowed 40’
Part I: say true or false
1. The digestive system is made ap of nose, windpipe and lungs.

2. Digestion of food starts in the mouth.
3. The process of digestion is completed in small intestine.
4. All blood tussles vessels carries pure blood.
5. Inhaled are contains more oxygen than exhaled air.
6. Wastes produced in the body are given out through the anus, kidney, skin and
nose
7. A food which contain all nutrients is called balanced diet
8. All microbes are harmful
9. Filtered water is very pure for drinking
10. Covering and refrigerating is not good to prevent food
contamination
11. Which of the following make up the circulatory system?

A. Nose, trachea, Lund
B. mouth, food pipe, stomach intestines
C. heart blood and blood vessels
D. kidney, ureter, bladder and urethra
12. Which of the following is true about arteries?
A. arteries carry blood from heart to other body
B. except pulmonary artery, all arteries carries pure blood
C. Arteries are thicker than vein
D. All are true about arteries
13. Which blood vessel carries blood to heart?
A. Artery B. vein C. aorta D. none
14. The wind pipe is also known as
A. trachea C. infesting
B. food pipe D. urethra
15. The exchange of gas takes place in
A. heart B. blood C. lung D. nose
16. Which of the following is different from the other?
A. heart C. blood vessel
B. blood D. stomach
17. Which of the following food is rich in protein?
A. egg B. milk C. chicken D. All
18. Cooking food in steam is called
A. steaming C. frying
B. boiling D. baking
19. Which of the following disease caused by bacteria
A. polio C. Tuberculosis
B. HIV ADIS D. Amoebic dysentery
20. Preservation of food can be done by
A. canning B. salting C. freezing D. All
21. Which of the following is sourer of water?
A. lake B. rain C. ocean D. All
22. Water can be purified by:
A. Decantation C. boiling
B. filtration D. All
23. A disease that transmitted through contaminated water is called
A. water born disease C. food born disease
B. sexual transmitted D. none
Part III: Matching

A B
24. Protein A. gives energy
25. Carbohydrate B. gives too much energy than
carbohydrates
26. fat and oil C. help us to grow
27. vitamin” A” D. for good vision (to see)
28. Drying E. causes HIV/AIDS
29. Protozoa F. cause amoebic dysentery
30. Virus G. preserves food
Set by Getahun U.

Part I: say true or false
1. Wind has definite direction.

2. A gentle wind blow causes a storm.
3. Birds have feeler.
4. Wind makes sailing boats move.
5. Wind has no speed.
6. Clean air keeps us healthy.
1. Dust carries in the air.

A. water vapor B. smoke C. germs
2. Insects have legs.
A six B. two C. there
3. Which one is a flightless bird?
A. Eagle B. Kiwi C. Falcon
4. Which one is a plant eating animal?
A. Snake B. Crocodile C. Zebra
5. Which wild animal lives under trees?
A. Elephant B. Loin C. Fox
6. Which one is a small wild animal?
A. Rhino ceros B. zebra C. porcupine
7. Which one is a domestic animal?
A. Zebra B. cat C. lion
8. Which one is vegetable?
A. cabbage B. wheat C. Apple
9. Very small plants are known as
A. shrubs B. trees C. herbs
10. Which one makes the air pure?
A. wild animal’s B. plants C. Domestic animals
Part II: Matching

A B
1. Elephant giraffe and zebra A. Feed on flesh of dead animals
2. Lion tiger and leopard B. feed on plants
3. Fox hyena and leopard C. feed on both plants and animals
4. Rat, bear and cat D. feed on the flesh of other animals
Part IV: Fills the blanks from the words in the box below
- Force - windmill - sparrow

- Parrot - Very fast - Fresh
1. Is used to pump water.
2. On a windy day wind blows
3. Wind has
4. We must breathe clean cir
5. Is a small bird.
6. Is a very small bird.
Set by Aschalew Adane

Part I: Say true or false. Time allowed
1. Big plants are called trees.

2. Banyan tree has branches.
3. Birds are also animals.
4. Lemon plant has no torns.
5. Roots, stem, leaves, flowers, and fruits are different parts of a plant.
Part II: Matching

A B
1. Dogs are kept in A. shed
2. Cereals B. orange
3. Fruit C. kannel
4. Horses are kept in D. stable
5. Cows are kept in E. wheat
Part III: Choose the correct answer.
1. Which plant gives us fruits?

A. Palm B. Grapes C. Rice
2. Which plant gives us cereals?
A. Wheat B. Orange C. Lily
3. Which plant give us vegetables?
A. Peach B. Lotus C. Tomato
4. Which animal has four legs?
A. Hen B. Ant C. Ox
5. Which animal live in or near water?
A. Camel B. Crocodile C. Elephant
6. Which animal live an burrow?
A. Rabbit B. Dog C. Bee
7. Which animal eat insect?
A. Donkey B. Frog C. Goat
8. Which animal live in a home made by man?
A. Tiger B. Lion C. Cow
9. Which animal live on a tree?
A. Donkey B. Sparrow C. Ox
10. Which animal live on a den?
A. Lion B. Frog C. Parrot
Part IV: Choose the right word from the box and fill in the blanks.
Trees Bear Hen Giraffe Clambers
1. need support not climb up.
2. are big plants.
3. animal eat grains.
4. animal has spot colour.
5. animal eat both plant and flesh.

2004 E.C 1st SEMESTER INT.SCIENCE FINAL EXAM FOR GRADE 5
Part I: True or false question. Time allowed
1. The inspired air and expired air are carried on at the same time.
2. Smoking cigarettes bring social disturbance.
3. Compounds are formed by chemical combination of elements.
4. Chemicals are substances that take part in a chemical reaction.
5. Non-metals have low melting point and boiling point.
6. Mercury is the only liquid non-metal.
7. Water is non-renewable natural resource.
8. During photosynthesis water reacts with carbon dioxide in the absence of sunlight.
9. all plant parts are useful except root.
10. Soil is a store house of nutrients for plants.
Part II: Match the following items from column B to B.

A B
11. Nicotine A. cutting trees
12. Hashish B. Sisals
13. Fiber C. cannabis
14. Deforestation D. Tobacco
15. Reforestation E. Planting trees
16. Loss of water from the nature F. water erosion
17. Prevent the food from going the wrong way G. Epiglottis
18. Homogenous mixture H. Sodium chloride solution
19. Metallic element I. copper
20. Exchange of water between air and the sky J. water cycle
Part III: Choose the best answer from the given alternatives.
21. The gas produced when the food taken in to our body cell burned in oxygen is ___
A. nitrogen B. hydrogen C. carbon-dioxide D. all
22. Which of the following is the use of water?
A. agriculture B. industries C. hydro electric power D. all
23. The most widely cultivated plant in Ethiopia is
A. tobacco B. cannabis C. chat D. teff
24. Manure is
A. an artificial fertilizer C. contain only cow dung
B. natural fertilizer D. none
25. Which of the following is method of soil conservation?
A. good crop management C. crop rotation
B. contour ploughing D. all
26. Which one of the following is particle of soil?
A. sand B. clay C. slit D. all
27. Which type of soil is suitable for agriculture?
A. sand soil B. clay soil C. sand and clay D. loam soil
28. A depleted soil is a soil with out or with a little mineral.
A. True B. False C. A and B D. A is correct
29. Which of the following is a compound?
A. silicon B. copper C. soil D. sucrose
30. Water can be separated from salt by
A. filtering B. magnet C. condensation D. evaporation
1. Write the three properties of air.

A.
B.
C.
2. Define fertilizer
3. Give examples of metalloids.

A. B. C.
4. Write the two types of mixture.
A. B.
Bonus
1. What is substance?
2. What is matter?
Set by Mamiru E
2004 E.C 1st SEMESTER INT.SCIENCE FINAL EXAM FOR GRADE 6
Name SectionRoll. No Score

Time allowed
Part I: Say ‘Right’ if the statement is correct or ‘wrong if45’
the statement is is
incorrect. Then write your answer on the space provided. (1 pt each).
1. Acids change blue litmus paper to red.

2. Air is a compound of different gases.
3. Planting industries in towns is the one way to prevent air pollution.
4. The boiling point of water at sea level is 100 0c.
5. Water expands as its temperature increases from 0 0c- 40c.
6. Mycellium is the entire mass of hyphae.
7. Mosses have true root.
8. Reproduction on plants like onion is asexual.
Part II: Choose the correct answer from the four alternatives under each
question. Then write only the letter holds the answer on the space
provided in front of each question.
1. Which one of the following is rich in vitamins?

A. Maize B. Lettuce C. Potato D. Teff
2. Seeds of crops being scattered during
A. early harvesting C. late harvesting
B. on time harvesting D. none
3. Which one protects parts of a flower at the bud stage?
A. Petal B. Sepal C. Receptacle D. stamen
4. Which one is not fungi?
A. Yeast B. Bread mold C. Mushrooms D. Volvax
5. Which is not water born disease?
A. Tuberculosis B. Malaria C. Amoeba D. Giardia
6. Which one is chemical property of water?
A. Densty B. Colour C. Taste D. Naturality
7. Which gas is produced from incomplete combustion of organic substance?
A. Carbon dioxide C. Carbon monoxide
B. Nitrogen oxide D. sulpheric oxide
8. A salt used to make our food tasty is known as
A. magnesium sulpahate C. potassium chloride
B. sodium chloride D. iron(II) sulphate
9. Which one is a true statement?
A. Acetic acid is found in bitting insects
B. Bases release hydrogen ions in water solution
C. Oil is a powerful solvent
D. Adding acid to water is the right way of dilution
10. The female gamete of a flower becomes matured in
A. stigma B. ovary C. style D. all
Part III: Match the effects of diseases in column ‘A’ with types of diseases
in column ‘B’. Then write only the ltter holds the answer on the
space provided. Under column A. (2 pts)
A B
1. Causes a serious and often fetal disease A. ascaris
2. Causes intestinal disorder leading to pain, B. tuberculosis
abdominal discomfort, diarrhea etc
3. Attacks the lungs and other respiratory organs C. Giardia
4. Causes abdominal pain, vomiting and headache D. Amoeba
Part IV: Complete the following incomplete satenatnces with appropriate

words. (1 pt each)
1. The development of a seed in to seedling in optimal condition is known as
2. Early and late harvesting of crops will affect the

and of products (yeald).
3. The cottony mass of fungi that covers the surface of injera is called
Bonus: Give short answer.
1. Write the main difference between vegetative and sexually reproducing plants.
Good Luck!!
Set by Aschalew Adane
2004 E.C 1st SEMESTER MUSIC FINAL EXAM FOR GRADE 5

Time allowed 40’
Part I: Say true or false.
1. The section between two bar lines is called a measure.

2. The name of the first space in G-clef is “G”.
3. Bar line is symbolized by two vertical lines.
4. Whole note and whole rests are equal time value.
5. Rests are characters used in music to indicate silence
6. Work song helps to speed up the given duty or work to end before the expected
time.
7. Musical sound or tones as represented in written music are called rests.
8. The staff is composed of five lines and five spaces.
Part II: Choose the correct answer.
9. The name of the fourth line in G-Clef is

A. “B” B. “F” C. “E” D. “D”
10. used to notate high pitches on a staff.
A. Treble clef C. bass clef
B. F-Clef D. B and C
11. The sound is held for 4(four) complete beat.
A. half note C. whole note
B. quarter note D. half rest
12. used to notate law pitches on a staff.
A. Bass clef C. F-Clef
B. Treble clef D. A and C
13. The F-Clef starts from the line of the staff.
A. 3rd B. 4th C. 2nd D. All
14. is a musical key that appears at the beginning of every staff.
A. Clef B. Rest C. Staff D. Note
15. The G-Clef starts from the line of the staff.
A. 2nd B. 4th C. 5th D. 6th
Part III: Matching
A B
16. Five horizontal and parallel lines A. Bar line
17. Two numbers at the beginning of a staff B. Clef
18. Vertical line that placed on the staff C. Staff
19. A gap between two bar line D. Time signature
20. A symbol at the being of the staff E. Bar/measure
showing the pitch of notes
21. Write another name of treble-clef
22. Write another name of bass clef
23. What are the four Ethiopian prominent scales /kignits/?
a) c)
b) d)
24. Show the sign of bass clef on the staff.
25. Show the sign of treble clef-on the staff
Set by Aminu
2004 E.C 1st SEMESTER MUSIC FINAL EXAM FOR GRADE 6

Time allowed 40’
Part I: Say true or false.
1. Ledger lines are additional lines above or below the staff.

2. Each musical notes have different time values.
3. Middle “C” appears on the first ledger line below the staff in the bass clef.
4. We can’t express ideas and feelings through music.
5. G-Clef is found on the fourth line of the staff.
6. Notes are written either on the lines or in the space of the staff.
7. The pitch of musical sound is indicated by the letter of the alphabet.
8. Quarter note with a dot holds beat.

A. two beat C. three beat
B. one and half beat D. four beat
9. A curved line connecting two notes with the same pitch is
A. tone B. rest C. tie D. all
10. is a note increases its values by half of its value.
A. Note B. Dote C. Time D. All
11. is used to denote a musical sound, through tone.
A. G-clef B. F-clef C. Note D. Rest
12. One of the following is used to connect flaged Notes.
A. Bar line B. Dourble bar line C. Tie D. Beams
13. Whole note with a dot contains complete beat.
A. five B. four C. seven D. six
14. Which one of the following is not Ethiopian musical scale?
A. Ambasel B. Tizita C. Bati D. None
15. The table –clef is joined with the bass-clef to form
A. grand staff B. great staff C. piano staff D. all
16. songs sung by Azmari and Lalibeloch.
A. Yebealat zefenoch C. political song
B. School song D. none
Part III: Matching
A B
17. Praise songs that usually have A. Yebealat zefenoch
religious content
18. It denotes school songs B. Lekso
19. Holiday songs C. Misgana
20. Songs related to federal laments D. Mezemur
E. Shilela
Part IV: Fill in the blank space.
1. How may beats are there in each of the following.
A. =
B. =
C. =
D. =
E. =
Bonus (3 pts)
Construct E major scale (Tizita)
Construct D major scale (Ambasel)
Construct C major scale (Anchihoye)
Set by Aminu
2004 E.C 1st SEMESTER HEALTH & PHYSICAL EDUCTION FINAL
EXAM FOR GRADE 8
1. For all sprint running events, it is advisable to use crouch start technique.
2. High jump and long jumps are the same phases of body physical activities.
3. The first women athlete in our country was Derartu Tulu who won a gold medal
in 10,000 meter.
4. Good hurdling depends on the ability to start fast and to generate the sprinting
speed.
5. Hurdle physical activity is jump but not run.
6. Which one of the following is the most difficult athletics event which needs care
and repeated practice?
A. discuss B. Javelin C. Hurdle D. none
7. Which one of the following is very essential and the first phase to throw discus
effectively?
A. glide B. basic stance C. grip D. swinging
8. Which one of the following physical activity is important for body strength and
abdominal and back muscle?
A. crule-up B. Crub lift C. Sit-up D. none
9. Head spring gymnastic exercise is performed from
A. side of the head C. top of the head
B. positional of the leg D. all
10. Which one of the following is the correct product of shot put physical activity?
A. Bend slightly from the waist forward the non throwing arm facing the
direction of throwing
B. Hold the shot with finger
C. Move for a shot put and place it under the chin-close to the neck
D. none of the above
Part III: Write the following question.
1. List shot put throwing techniques set by step stem. (2 pts).
 
2. List down discus throwing techniques step by stem. (2 pts)
 
3. During high jump physical activity, the approach should be taken
maters and to (degree). (2 pts)
4. Greek athletes participated in four events list all four of them.
a)
b)
c)
d)
5. When and where did Ethiopia participate in the Olympic Games for the first time?
Bonus
What was the name of the city where Abebe Bikila won his 2 nd gold medal? (1 pt)
Set by Alemayehu H
2004 E.C 1st SEMESTER CHEMISTRY FINAL EXAM FOR GRADE 7
Part I: True or false question. (5 pts) Time allowed 90’ Total points
30%
1. A chemical change is the chemical property of the substances involved.
2. One mole of any substance contains the same number of particles.
3. Heat is either involved in or evolved out during a chemical reaction.
4. A catalyst either speed up or retard a chemical reaction.
5. A compound has a formula just as an element has a symbol.
6. Valencies are balanced with in the composition.
7. Empirical is a whole multiple of a molecular formula.
8. During a chemical reaction matter can be created or destroyed.
9. The air holes should be opened before lighting the Bunsen burner.
10. Filtration is a process of separating soluble solid particles from a liquid solution.
Part II: Matching type questions. (5 pts)

Column A Column B
11. The solid part left on the filter paper A. pistle and mortar
12. Used as grinding soft solid particles in laboratory B. wire gauge
13. Used as cooling apparatus during distillation C. condenser
14. Used as distribution of flame during heating D. valency
15. An apparatus for separating two immiscible liquids E. separatory funnel
16. Total mass of reactants equals to total F. chemical equation
mass of products
17. The combining power of an element G. conservation of matter or mass
18. The Avogadro’s Number H. Bunsen Burner
19. A short way of describing a chemical reaction I. 6.02 x 1023
using symbols and formulas
20. Convenient source of heat in laboratories J. residue
Part III: Multiple choice questions. (10 pts)

21. One of the natural sciences that deals with the production of new substances is
A. biology B. physics C. chemistry D. all of the above
22. Chemistry helps us to understand:
A. what materials are made of
B. how and why substances behave as they do
C. how to make new materials which will be useful to us
D. all of the above
23. Which of the following factories are not located in Hawassa?
A. flour and ceramics C. pulp and paper
B. beverage and soft drink D. textile and soap E. all of the above
24. Which of the following substance is identified by its odour characteristics?
A. coffee B. mango C. pineapple D. banana E. all
25. Which of the following is not a pure substance?
A. water B. salt C. iron D. air
26. Two or more substances are put together chemically to produce.
A. an element B. a compound C. a mixture E. all of the above
27. Which of the following naturally occurring acids are wrongly matched?
A. Tartaric acid – grape fruits C. Lactic acid – milk
B. Citric acid – lemon and orange D. Sulfuric acid – gastric juice
E. Vinegar - ethanoic acid
28. The Ethiopian 50 cents coin is an example of:
A. a homogeneous mixture C. solid – solid solution
B. an alloy D. all of the above
29. Oil and water mixture is separated by a technique of:
A. decantation B. evaporation C. filtration D. distillation
30. Al + O2 Al2O3. If the equation is balanced what will be the coefficient of aluminum
oxygen and aluminum oxide respectively?
A. 4, 3 and 2 B. 2, 3 and 4 C. 3, 4 and 2 D. 1, 2 and 3 E. none
31. An example of agent that bring about a chemical reaction is:
A. dissolving in water B. light C. heat D. electricity E. light
32. Given the masses of Fe = 56 gram, O = 16 gram, sulfer 32g, find the molecular mass of 2
moles of iron(III) fulfate 2Fe2(SO4)3.
A. 800g B. 512g C. 384g D. 572g E. all
33. Suppose you are given a mixture of saw-dust, iron fillings, sand and salt. Which of the
following sequence of separating method help you best?
A. floatation – evaporation – decantation – magneting
B. magneting – floatation – decantation – evaporation
C. evaporation – decantation – magneting – floatation
D. decantation – magneting – floatation – decantation
34. The empirical formula of dinitrogen tetra oxide (N2O4) is:
A. N2O2 B. NO C. NO2 D. N2O
35. Magnesium oxide is the product of the reaction between oxygen and magnesium. What
are the reactants?
A. Magnesium and oxygen C. Magnesium and magnesium oxide
B. Magnesium oxide and oxygen D. none of the above
  
36. Given the valencies of sulphate SO42 and ammonium NH 41 , the correct way of 
writing
the compound is:
A. SO4 2 NH 41 B. NH4(SO4)2 C. (NH4)2SO4 D. SO4(NH4)2
Use the following diagram to answer questions 37 – 40.
37. The gas is cooled and changed to liquid in

A. I B. II C. III D. IV E. V
38. Boiling point of the mixture is checked by
A. I B. II C. III D. IV E. V
39. This method is very useful to separate out:
A. chalk and water solution C. alcohol and water solution
B. oil and water solution D. salt and water solution E. iron and water
40. This diagram best explains process.
A. evaporation B. distillation C. decantation D. filtration
Part IV: Work out (10 pts): Give short answer.

41. The symbol for potassium is
42. Accelerates or retard a chemical reaction
43. The number of grams of a solute that can be dissolved by 100 grams of solvent at the given
temperature in the presence of excess solute
44. The two specific condition for the physical properties of substances are and
45. Compounds that are mostly formed by the reaction of non-metal oxide with water __________
46. Blood and milk are example of mixture.
47. Balance the following reaction P + O2 P2P3
48. Find the valencies of
A. nitrogen in N2O4
B. sulfer in SO3 Set by Afework
Abera
2004 E.C 1st SEMESTER MATHEMATICS FINAL EXAM FOR GRADE 1
Part I: Choose the best answer. Time allowed
1. How many legs do 2 dogs have?

A. 4 B. 8
2. 3 x 4 = ?
A. 8 B. 12
3. What number come after? 101, ?
A. 102 B. 100
4. How many hearts altogether?
A. 3 B. 9
5. What number is missing? 8 + = 13
A. 4 B. 5
6. 20 + 14 = ?
A. 34 B. 6
7. What number come before? , 99
A. 98 B. 100
8. Amina had 9 breads Biruk tooks 5. How many were left?
A. 4 B. 5
9. What number is missing? 25 – = 15
A. 40 B. 10
Part II: Match the following shapes with their name.

A B
1. A. Oval
2. B. Square
3. C. Cirlce
4. D. Rectangle
5. E. Triangle
Part III: Work out.
1. Write the missing numbers.
a) 100, 200 , _____, ______
b) 3, 6, 9, ______, _______
2. Add
a) 245
+ 317
3. Subtract
a) 928
- 304
4. Multiply
a) 4 x 4 =
Bonus
a) 4x6=
Set by Hayatu A
1. Which day is the first day of the week?

A. Sunday B. Saturday C. Monday
2. Abebe had 8 bannas. He ate 2. How many were left?
A. 6 B. 5 C. 7
3. 24 3 =
A. 27 B. 8 C. 12
4. Which of the following shape is a square?
A. B. C.
5. What number is missing? 6,000, 5990, 5980, 5960.
A. 7000 B. 5950 C. 5970
6. 4 x 7 = ?
A. 28 B. 21 C. 20
7. six thousand three hundred twenty eight = in number?
A. 6028 B. 6328 C. 6308
8. 284 + 315 = ?
A. 599 B. 31 . 589
9. There are 15 bannas. 3 children share equal. How many bannas
does each child get?
A. 3 B. 5 C. 4
10. 694 – 593 = ?
A. 1287 B. 107 C. 101
Part II: Match the following number words with number symbols.
A B
1. One hundred A. 1,000
2. Two thousand nine hundred B. 2900
3. One thousand C. 100
4. Five hundred seventy three D. 389
Part III: Work out
1. Add
532
241
+ 103
2. Subtract
674
- 323
3. Multiply
3x 9 =
4. Divide
a) 32  8 =
b) 12 3 =
Bonus
1. Writ the number

a) Eight thousand four hundred and twenty five =
Set by Hayatu A.

Time allowed
Part I: True or false. (5 pts)
1. The result of addition is called difference.

2. Multiplication is continuous addition.
3. Division is continuous subtraction.
4. Monday comes before Sunday.
5. February is the first month of the year.
Part II: Matching. (5 pts)

A B
1. Division A. sum
2. Multiplication B. quarter
3. Addition C. difference
4. Subtraction D. quotient
5. One fourth E. product
Part III: Multiple choice. (15 pts)
1. The number 1235 has digital.

A. four B. three C. two D. one
2. In the number 4678 the place value of 6 is:
A. ones B. tens C. hundreds D. thousands
3. Six thousand and seven hundred is written in symbol as:
A. 60007000 B. 7006000 C. 60700 D. 6700
4. The expanded form of 5932 is
A. 5000 + 900 + 30 + 2 C. 5 + 9 + 3 + 2
B. 500 + 9000 + 3 + 20 D. 20 + 30 900 + 5000
5. The shaded part of this figure is:
1 1 2 3
A. B. C. D.
3 4 3 4
6. 506
+ 326
A. 8212 B. 856 C. 832 D. 180
7. 402
- 16
A. 683 B. 836 C. 386 D. 368
8. 10
x 9
A. 19 B. 90 C. 109 D. 900
?
9. 5 35
A. 7 B. 3 C. 5 D. 1
10. Bereket drinks 10 bottles of milk in one week. How many bottles of
milk does he drink in 4 weeks?
A. 14 B. 104 C. 40 D. 400
11. There are 930 birds on a large tree. If 230 birds fly away, how may are
left?
A. 930 B. 700 C. 230 D. 1160
12. 50 oranges were shared equally among 10 children. How many oranges
did each child get?
A. 40 B. 60 C. 5 D. 500
13. What fraction of this figure is shaded?
4 1
A. C.
4 4
3 1
B. D.
4 3
14. 0 5 15 25 in this pattern of numbers the
missing ones are and respectively.

A. 0 and 5 B. 5 and 15 C. 10 and 20 D. 5 and 10
15. 29, 461 can be expanded as:
A. 20,000 + 9000 + 400 + 60 + 1 C. 200 + 9000 + 40 + 6 + 10
B. 2000 + 9000 + 40 + 60 + 1 D. 29 + 461
Part IV: Work out (5 pts)
1. Add the following
a) 820 b) 1234 c) 457

+ 97 + 9876 + 900
2. Subtract
a) 900 b) 800
- 10 - 63
3. Multiply
a) 9 b) 16 c) 35
x 5 x 2 x 3
4. Divide
a) 48  4 = b) 75  3 =
Prepared by Girma & Afework


Part I: Write true or false. Time allowed
1. The number we divide is called quotient.

2. When 969  8, the remainder is 9.
3. Remainder is always less than divisor.
4. 14, 28, 42, 56, . . . are multiples of 13.
5. The numbers 12, 24, 36, 48, 60 form a pattern.
6. In 724 + 876 = 1600, the numbers 724 and 876 are called addends.
7. In 12 x 12 = 144, then the number 144 is called sum.
8. The place value of 7 in 10.273 is hundreds.
Part II: Match column ‘B’ with column ‘A’.

A B
17
9. Fifty seven hundredths A.
10
7
10. One hundredths B.
10
18
11. Fifteen hundredths C.
100
8
12. Seven tenths D.
10
15
13. Eighteen hundredths E.
100
57
F.
100
1
G.
100
14. By what number is 1, 3, 9, 27 multiplied to obtain the pattern?

A. 4 B. 3 C. 5 D. 2
15. In the pattern 49, 42, 35, 28, 21, what are the next two terms in the pattern?
A. 21 and 14 B. 14 and 6 C. 14 and 7 D. 7 and 0
16. What number is added to make the pattern 0, 6, 12, 18, 24?
A. 7 B. 5 C. 8 D. 6
17. One box contains 18 pencils. How many pencils are there in 25 boxes?
A. 450 B. 500 C. 43 D. 430
18. What is the remainder when the number 419 divided by 16?
A. 5 B. 0 C. 3 D. 4
19. What is the product of 43 and 20?
A. 680 B. 760 C. 806 D. 860
20. Grade 4 students have 7 exercise books each. How many exercise books
are there altogether if the students are 105?
A. 17 B. 71 C. 735 D. 537
21. 8 x = 40, what is the value of ?
A. 4 B. 5 C. 6 D. 32
22. A teacher earns birr 2975 per month. If he spends birr 1898 on basic needs,
how much money does he save?
A. 1077 B. 1177 C. 1707 D. 1770
23. Three old men are 87, 74 and 69 years old respectively. What is their
combined age?
A. 130 B. 230 C. 203 D. 320
24. A church raised birr 7, 620. It spent birr 7255 on clothes and food for the old
and the needy. How much money is not spent?
A. 653 B. 563 C. 365 D. 356
25. What is the sum of 6379 and 15, 870?
A. 22, 294 B. 22, 249 C. 22, 924 D. A and B
Part IV: Work out the following.
26. Find the missing numbers.

6 7 8 9 21 22 23 24
13 17 45
a) b)
88
27. 1, 2, 4, 8, 16 form a pattern.

a. By what number is each term multiplied to obtain the next term?
b. What are the next three terms?

28. Divide the following.
A. 987  47 B. 868 29
Set by Mesele T.

Part I: Write true or false. Time allowed 1
hr
7
1. is not a proper fraction.
9
1
2. has no predecessor and successor.
4
3. In 4 + 9 = 13, 4 and 9 are called addends.
4. Subtraction is the inverse operation of division.
5. x = 5, is the solution of 6 x = 30.
Part II: Match column ‘A’ with column ‘B’

A B
6. 2, 000,000 A. Two thousand five hundred
7. 6, 472 B. Twenty five thousand nine hundred seventy
8. 25, 970 C. Two million
9. 24,000,000 D. Fourteen million
10. 2,500 E. Six thousand four hundred seventy two
11. One of the following is true?

A. 12 + 2 < 15 C. (4 x 5) 2 + 1 < 10
B. 3 x (15 – 5) < 20 D. 2 x 4 2 > 5
12. One of the following inequalities has no solution in the set of whole numbers?
A. x +4>5 B. x - 9 < 17 C. 2 x + 1 > 6 D. x -9<9
13. One of the following is distributive property of multiplication over addition.
A. 49 + 50 = 50 + 49 C. 49 x (50 + 16) = (49 x 50) + (49 + 16)
B. 49 + (50 + 16) = (49 + 50) + 16 D. none
14. is a fraction whose denominator is greater the numerator.
A. Proper fraction C. A mixed number
B. Improper fraction D. A whole number
15. How many parts of the following figure is unshaded?

5 3 8 1
A. B. C. D.
8 8 8 2
16. One of the following is wrong?
A. 0.9 + 2.7 = 3.6 C. 27.9 – 0.27 = 18.26
B. 2.5 x 3 = 7.5 D. 9.7 – 0.9 = 8.8
36
17. Which of the following is equivalent fraction with ?
12
1 3 6
A. B. C. 2 D.
2 7 2
18. Which pair of equations have the same solution?
A. 2 x = 12 and 4 x = 24 C. 2 x = 12 and 4 x = 12
B. 2 x = 12 and 2 x = 24 D. 2 x = 12 and 6 x = 12
2
19. One of the following is equal to 3 ?
7
12 7 23
A. B. 23 C. D.
7 23 7
20. One of the following is two decimal place.
A. 24.215 B. 2.426 C. 24.73 D. 24.2
21. Which one of the following is written in an increasing order?
A. 0.9, 0.3, 0.15, 0.13 C. 0.13, 0.3, 0.15, 0.9
B. 0.13, 0.15, 0.3, 0.9 D. 0.13, 0.9, 0.15, 0.3
22. The approximate value of 0.91 is:
A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3
23. 7.2  2 =
A. 14.4 B. 36 C. 2.6 D. 3.6
5 7
24. Which one is between and ?
9 9
10 6 8 9
A. B. C. D.
9 9 9 7
25. Complete the table.
a b a xb
0.3 2.2
0.12 0.6
0.5 2
0.90
26. Divide
a) 0.16  2 =
b) 2.4  8 =
Set by Temesgen T. & Afework A.

Time allowed 1
Part I: Write true or false. hr
1. 0 is an element of positive rational number.
2. 7 is a factor of 49.
3. 111 is a prime number.
4. 31 and 37 are composite numbers between 30 and 40.
5. 9865 is divisible by 5.
1. The LCM of 2, 3 and 4 is

A. 12 B. 15 C. 24 D. 8
2. If the greatest common factor of two or more numbers is one, then the numbers are
said to be
A. prime numbers B. composite numbers C. relatively prime D. all
3. One of the following is not a statement.
A. plants are living things C. x + 7 = y
B. 2 + 5 = 10 D. 2 is a factor of 20
4. Which one is true about 2?
A. It is prime number C. It is a factor of 1000
B. It is an even number D. all
5. The GCD of 12 and 15 is:
A. 5 B. 3 C. 10 D. 1
6. Which of the following number is divisible by 6?
A. 528 B. 328 C. 25012 D. 3232
114
7. The lowest term of the fraction is:
54
11 19 57 11
A. B. C. D.
9 9 14 2
1
8. The decimal form of the fraction is
4
A. 0.20 B. 0.25 C. 2.5 D. 0.75
9. One of the following is true statement.
7 19 12 4 17 1 2
A.  B.  C.  4.5 D. 
3 7 15 5 2 3 9
10. The successor of 1001 is:
A. 1000 B. 1010 C. 1002 D. 1200
11. Which one is written in ascending order?
1 1 1 1
A. , , , C. 0.2, 0.5, 1.2, 1.23
3 4 10 15
12 10 7 2
B. , , , D. 0.25, 4.3, 1.5, 1.5
3 3 3 3
3 1
12. The sum of  in lowest term is:
4 5
19 3 2 4
A. B. C. D.
20 20 9 9
4
13. What is the value of x in 1 + x = ?
3
3 1 1 7
A. B. C. D.
4 3 4 3
3 5
14.  is equal to:
2 6
2 3 1 1
A. B. C. D.
3 5 6 2
17
15. When we change in to mixed number is:
3
2 1 2
A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D.
5 4 3
1
1
16
16. One of the following is proper fraction.
17 3 100
A. B. 7 C. D.
12 3 320
17. One-fifth of 20 is:
A. 4 B. 2 C. ¼ D. 5
9 12
18.  is equal to:
2 5
1 7 15 108
A. B. C. D.
2 6 8 10
19. Which of the following is terminating decimal?
A. 0.7373 . . . . B. 2.32156 C. 0.99 . . . D. 2.111 . . .
6 3
20. The product of and
9 10
1 1 18 5
A. B. C. D.
5 3 9 7
Part III: Work out (show the steps clearly)
1 4
1. Find the sum of   0.75
2 3
7
2. The reciprocal of is
2
5 2
3. Find the quotient of 
11 4
4. Divide 14.1  0.3
5. Find the volume of box, whose length, width and height is 3m, 4m, 5m respectively.
Set by Bizuhan

Time allowed 1½
Part I: hrs if the statement is
Write true if the statement is correct and write false
incorrect.
1. If two numbers are relatively prime then both of the numbers are prime.
2. -1 is the identity element in the addition of natural number.
3. If x and y are natural number then x y always a natural number.
4. The set of integers is the subset of rational number.
4 5
5. and are equivalent rational numbers.
5 4
6. Subtraction of rational number is a commutative operation.
7. Every rational number has a multiplicative invers.
8. In the expression 4 x 3, the numberical coefficient is 3.
9. 2 x y2 and 2 x 2y are like terms.
10. 3 x + 4 is a term.
Part II: Choose the correct answer for the given alternatives.
1. Which one of the following algebric expression represent obinomial?

A. x 2 B. 3 x y C. 4 D. 5 x - 3y E. none
2. The simplest form of 7 x - 3 x - 2 x is
A. 2 x B. 12 x C. 4 x D. 8 x E. none
3. Which of the following pair of terms are like terms?
A. 3 x 2y and 3y2 x C. 2a2 x and 2a2 x 2
B. 2 x y and 4 x y D. 3 x 2 and 3 x E.
none
4. A set that is either true or false is called
A. statement C. open sentence
B. proposition D. A & B E. none
1 1 2
5. The solution set for x  is
5 3 15
1 
A. {3} B. {-3} C. {12} D.   E. none
4
6. If a number is increases by 7, twice of the sum is 34, then what is the number?
A. 10 B. 25 C. 5 D. 15 E. none
7. If A: B = 4: 7 and B: C = 49: 24 then A: C equal to
A. 1: 2 B. 7: 4 C. 4: 24 D. 7: 6 E. none
8. If 1: 3 = 4: x, what is the value of x ?
4 1
A. 15 B. C. D. 12 E. 9
3 3
9. If x is a rational number then what is the solution set of 2 x - 3 < 7.
A. {0, 1, 2, 3, 4} C. {0, -1, -2, -3, -4}
B. { x  Q |x < 2} D. { } E. none
10. The student teacher ratio in school is 19: 1. What percentage of them are
teachers?
A. 1% B. 108% C. 25% D. 19% E. none
11. Which one of the following is inversely proportional?
A. The number of people doing work and time taken to finish it.
B. The number of kills of sugar and its price
C. The age and weight of a child
D. all E. none
12. The following table shows the cost of x - tens.
Number of per ( x ) 3 4 10 20 30
Price in birr ( x ) 4.50 6.00 4.5 9 13.50
Which of the following is not true?

A. y is directly proportional to x C. x is inversely proportional to
x
B. The constant of proportionality is 1.50 D. y = 1.50 x E. none
13. Which of the following is not equal with the rest?
A. 2% of 150 C. 12% of 25
15
B. 5% of 80 D. 80% E. none
4
14. Kebede bought a beg of ballons, 16 were green and the rest were red. If 40% of
the ballons were red, how many were green?
A. 34 B. 36 C. 24 D. 14 E. none
15. Ato Abebe barrow birr 2400 for 3 years 6% interest per annum? What is the
interest he should pay?
A. 72 B. 0.72 C. 720 D. 216 E. none
Part III: Work out
1. Bekele’s salary was raised from 1450 to 2520 find the percent of increase.
2. Find
A. 35% of 99 C. 0.35% of 6.5
B. 20% of 48
3. The total population of a certain town was 9200 and the total increase in one year was
520. Find the increase percent.
Set by Temesgen M.
2004 E.C 1st SEMESTER COMPUTER FINAL EXAM FOR GRADE 5
Part I: True or false question. Time allowed

30’
1. Digital computer is a mechanical device.
2. Computer 15 speed is determined by CPU.
3. CPU is the input device of computer hardware.
4. Input device in computer enter data.
5. Scanner is output device.
Part II: Match column ‘A’ with column ‘B’.

A B
1. Word processor software A. RAM
2. Operating system software B. Flash disk
3. Secondary memory (storage) device C. Hardware
4. Primary memory of computer D. System software
5. The set of electronic instructions E. Application software
6. The physical part of computer F. Software
G. Monitor
H. Keyboard
Part III: Choose the best answer.
1. The back ground area of the screen where all the windows pile up is called
A. menu C. desktop
B. my computer D. my document
2. Which one of the following is an input device of computer that used to enter sound
data?
A. keyboard C. speaker
B. microphone D. a & b
3. Which one of the following is a tool that most programs provide?
A. Title bar C. Menu bar
B. Tool bar D. All
4. Which one is the correct order to open or start Microsoft word 2003 in
computer?
A. Start  highlight all programs  Microsoft word 2003  Microsoft office
B. Microsoft office  Microsoft word 2003  highlight all programs  start
C. Start  highlight programs  Microsoft office  Microsoft word 2003
D. Highlight all programs  start  Microsoft office  Microsoft word 2003
5. A special window in which you enter information that an application needs to
continue processing a command is
A. dialogue box C. menu
B. short cut D. folder
6. Processing the left mouse button twice in rapid succession is known as .
A. dragging C. right click
B. left click D. double click
Part IV: Give short answer(s).
1. What is MSDOS? Write its complete name?
2. Windows XP, windows sarver, Unix and Linux are good examples for
3. The collection of information in format designed for computer use is called
Good Luck!
Prepared by Asfaw
Y.
Part I: Write true or false question. Time allowed
1. The computer’s processor or the CPU has chipsets.

2. The brain of computer (CPU) has three parts.
3. The mouse device is used to produce the result.
4. The power supply unit is part of software.
5. Menu is a list of commands or options.
6. The largest key on the keyboard is the space bar.
Part II: Match column ‘A’ with column ‘B’

A B
1. MS DOS A. icons
2. Micro computer B. folder
3. Graphic images or symbols on the desk top C. insert, delete
4. The insertion point for texts D. lap top
5. An area for storing files E. Operating system
6. Typing mode keys F. application, software keys
G. cursor
H. Escape arrow
I. mainframe
Part III: Choose the best answer(s).
1. Which one is system software?

A. graphics C. programming language software
B. spreadsheet software D. word processor software
2. To press and release once a button on the mouse is
A. cursor C. scrolling
B. dragging D. clicking
3. The set of instructions that guide the hard ware what to do, when to do and how to
do is known as
A. processor C. out put device
B. input device D. none of the above
4. In the term MS-DOS, the letter “D” stands for
A. drive C. disk
B. driver D. digital E. device
5. All of the following are operating system softwares except:
A. mavis speed tutorials C. Linux
B. windows XP D. Unix
6. Which one is the correct order to open or start paint program?
A. start  choose programs  paint  accessories
B. start  paint  choose programs  accessories
C. start  choose programs  accessories  paint
D. paint  accessories  choose programs  start
Part IV: Give short answer(s)
1. What is the difference between hardware and software? Write at least one difference?
2. What are the two types of software?
a. & b.
3. What is keyboard? Write at least one function of the keyboard.
Good Luck!
Prepared by Asfaw
Y.
1. Abacus was the first electric calculator.

2. Computer is an intelligent machine like humans.
3. Computer is applied in graphics.
4. Computational speed is advantage of computer over humans.
5. The collection of information in a format designed for computer use is file.
6. The translation of characters into bits is known as decoding.
Part II: Match column ‘A’ with column ‘B’.

A B
1. Micro computer A. space bar
2. Navigation keys B. spreadsheet
3. The largest key on the keyboard C. operating system
4. The most common and dominant system software D. abacus
5. Application software E. desktop
6. The first mechanical calculator F. arrow keys
G. super computer
H. delete, escape
I. ENIAC
Part III: Choose the best answer.
1. When you start the computer, the first step is:

A. connecting all the parts properly C. pressing on the monitor power button
B. pressing in the system unit power button D. A and B
2. The hexa decimal equivalent of 423 is
A. (1B7)16 B. (423)16 C. (1107)16 D. (1A7)16
3. Which of the following operating system is the oldest?
A. Windows XP B. MS-DOS C. Windows vista D. Windows 7
4. A set of commands or options is called
A. menu B. dialogue box C. icon D. windows
5. Which one of the following mouse skills is used to move a folder from one location to
another on the desktop?
A. Double click B. Dragging C. Clicking D. Right click
6. In the term MS-DOS, the letter “D” stands for .
A. driver B. disk C. drive D. decimal
7. The three bit equivalent of 5 in base 2(b = 2) is
A. 100 B. 001 C. 110 D. 101
8. The behavior of computers where they automate data/information error-free is called ____
A. high speed B. reliability C. storage D. versatility
9. All softwares cannot work without software.
A. spreadsheet B. database C. operating system D. a and C
10. To delete unwanted text in side your document:
A. select the document, right click on button of mouse and select delete
B. highlight the text, then click delete key on the keyboard
C. position or locate the cursor ahead of the text, then press back space key
D. all
11. The micro processor chipset is protected from burning and cooled by its enclosure
known as
A. heat sink B. box C. radiator D. system unit
1. Determine the seven bit equivalent of 52 in base 2(b= 2).
2. Write the full names for:

a) CD – ROM:
b) DVD:
c) MS-DOS:
3. Show your steps clearly. Convert
a) 1853 to hexa decimal? C. 0.44 to quinary, base five (b = 5)?
b) (101.21)3 to decimal?
Good Luck!
Prepared by Asfaw
Y.
1. An operating system is part of application software.

2. The computer starts working with the help of operating system software.
3. Delete and escape keys are modifiers.
4. A special memory known as cache is located between the CPU and the RAM.
5. Switching off the computer is called booting.
Part II: Matching column ‘A’ with column ‘B’.

A B
1. ASCII representation of number 15 with 8 bits A. (20B)16
2. EBCPIC representation of number 14 with 7 bits B. windows XP
3. The hexa decimal equivalent of 523 C. power supply unit
4. Printer out put D. 0001110
5. Used for inputting pictures and videos E. 00001111
6. Distributes voltage to each component F. 0011110
G. 00111100
H. hard copy
I. (20A)16
J. digital camera
K. microphone
L. soft copy
Part III: Choose the one that best suits the questions below.
1. All of the following are features of 1st generation computers except:
A. used punched cards C. mouse was invented
B. used vacuum tubes D. less speed
2. An area for storing files is known as
A. dialogue box B. window C. folder D. menu
3. Of the following, which component’s failure stops the computer from its booting?
A. hard disk (HDD) failure C. A and B
B. CPU failure D. Law speed E. all
4. Which computer program menu or path displays the hierarchical structure of files
folders and drives on your computer?
A. accessories B. windows explorer C. desktop D. control panel
5. One of the following is in correct which one?
A. you can create folders within folders C. local disk is the name of a folder
B. my document is an example for folder
D. to restart your computer, click start  turn off  restart
6. The soft ware that resolves our daily problems of information shortage in the form
of hard copy and soft copy is known as
A. system software C. programming language software
B. application software D. operating system software
7. The monitor type found in BNB computer laboratory is
A. cathode ray monitor C. LCD monitor
B. CRT monitor D. A & B
8. The conversion of (3E7B)16 into decimal provides
A. 125595 B. 126594 C. 126595 D. none
9. The seven bit equivalent of 73 in base 2(b =2) is
A. 1001000 B. 0101001 C. -1001001 D. 1101001
10. A special software that inter converts the high level language into the low level
language and vice versa is known as
A. compiler B. assembler C. linker D. none
1. What is the switching device in second generation of computers?
2. Write at least two features of computer?
a)
b)
3. Write down at least one advantage of communication network?
4. Snow your steps clearly. Convert

a) (101.21)3 to binary to (0 = 2)? B) (0.29)10 to quinary (b=5)?
Good Luck!
Prepared by Asfaw
Y.
2004 E.C 1st SEMESTER SOCIAL STUDIES FINAL EXAM FOR GRADE 5
1. One is true about wild animals.

A. They are broadly divided in to three C. They live only in the jungle
B. They have economic value D. all except c E. none
2. Lakes are created due to
A. volcanism C. faulting
B. earth quiacke D. A & C E. all
3. The original home land of Bantu was
A. Nigeria B. Cameroon C. Niger D. A & B E. A & C
4. One is conservation method of soil.
A. Reforestation B. Aforestation C. Terracing D. All E. None
5. Which administrative unit has a large number of people?
A. Zone B. Region C. Family D. Kebele
6. One is different from the other.
A. Alligator B. Monkey C. Ape D. Baboon
7. The most prominent tree in the high savanna is:
A. Baobab C. Cactus
B. Acacia D. A & B E. All
9. One among the following is non-African language family.
A. Malagasy B. Caucasians C. Khoi-San D. all
10. Kunama, Surma, Berta and Anuak, all these languages are found under
language family.
A. Khoi-San B. Nilo-Saharan C. Afro-Asiatic D. Niger
Part II: Say true or false.
1. Animals that live in the water are known as aquatic animals.

2. Lakes and swamps are serves as habit at for wild animals.
3. Both weather and climate affect our day to day activities.
4. Cactus is a typical tree in Mediterranean region.
5. Map and Globe can show the movement of the earth.
6. The capital city is the seat of the government.
7. The Okavango Swamp is found in Mali.
8. Limpopo and Wabeshebelle rivers are found under the Atlantic Ocean drainage
system.
Part III: Matching.

A B
1. Temperature and rainfall A. found in Gahana
2. Distance from the sea B. elements of weather and climate
3. Conservation method of wild animals C. Organizing national park
4. Volta river basin D. climatic controls
5. Timbuktu swamps E. found in Mali
6. The formation of soil F. pedogenesis
7. Ancestors G. basic unit of people
8. Family H. persons in a family who lived a long
time ago.
1. is standing still water that surrounded by land.

2. The climatic region that is located at the center of the continent is known as
3. Write at least 2 solutions to avoid drought.
A. B.
4. Explain one among the following.
A. Graph
B. Natural vegetation
C. Wild animal
Bonus
1. Orange river is found in

Set by Melaku Yonas

[

1. Plants are useful for animals but not vice versa.
2. Natural vegetation include plant types grown by nature and man.
3. Climate has great influence on the distribution of plants.
4. Weather is the daily condition of the atmosphere.
5. Migration affects the size of world population.
6. When the death rate decreases, span of life also decreases.
7. Cactus is drought resistant plant.
8. Meteorology is concerned with weather whereas climatology studies the climate.
Part II: Choose the best answer.

1. Animals that live on the tree are known as
A. arboreal animals B. aquatic animals C. wild animals D. omnivores animals
2. Which of the following is the use of map and globe?
A. To show direction B. To know distance C. To know area D. all
3. One is different from the other.
A. monkey B. alligator C. python D. crocodile
4. Which of the following is wrong about oceans?
A. They contain a variety of animals
B. They comprise about 97% of the total volume of water
C. They serve as source of food D. All E. none
5. As one travels north and south wards from the equator.
A. Temperature increases C. Rainfall decreases
B. Temperature decreases D. All except A E. none
6. One of the following is the smallest of all oceans.
A. Pacific B. Arctic C. Indian D. Atlantic
7. One among the following is component of soil.
A. Inorganic matter C. Water E. All
B. Organic matter D. Air F. none
0 0
8. The type of vegetation that is located between 30 -40 N and S is known as
A. Savanna grassland B. Mediterranean C. Equatorial rainforest D. Tundra
9. Before the birth of Christ the world population was estimated:
A. 5 million B. 10 million C. 5 billion D. 15 million
10. is determinant factor for population growth.
A. Fertility B. Mortality C. Migration D. All E. None
11. One is factor for the spatial distribution of world population.
A. Climate B. Technology C. Economic factor D. all E. none
12. Identify the wrong combination.
A. Earth quake – Richter scale C. Air pressure – Barometer
B. Rainfall – Rainguage D. All E. none
13. is handy human being.
A. Homo erectus B. Homo sapiens C. Homo Habilis D. none
14. Red Sea is located between.
A. Asia and Africa C. Europe and Africa
B. Asia and Europe D. Africa and South America
15. Wind can be treated as both element and control of climate.
A. True B. False
Part III: Matching

A B
1. Fertility A. movement of people from country to country
2. Evolution B. it is hot all over the year
3. Migration C. actual reproductive performance
4. Mortality D. the coldest part of the world
5. Polar climatic region E. gradual change
6. Tropical climatic region F. the occurrence of death

1. Compare and contrast creationist view and scientific theory.
2. List down at least 3 uses of natural vegetation.

A. B. C.
3. Explain one among the following.
A. Cosmology
B. Universe
C. Population growth
Bonus
1. As grade 6 students what expected from you to eliminate climatic change.
Set by Melaku Yonas
1. If you ordered to draw the path of BNB school compound, you have to draw the
people whose left overs on the path.
2. The purpose of the map during the early times and the present time is a absolutely
resemble.
3. The characteristics of scale statement is universal whereas RF is specific.
4. The earth is formed about 4.5 million years ago from rings of hot gases thrown
out from the sun.
5. Man affects the atmosphere through afforestation process negatively.
6. The ozone gas located in the second part of the atmosphere called stratosphere.
7. The place which is found below the sea level referred as highland.
8. The early ancestors of man kind is relatively similar with the modern man in
physical appearance including cognitive process.
9. Chemical weathering is most active in limestone areas.
10. The oromiffa, Sidamic and Gedeo languages are categorized under the semetic
language family.
Part II: Choose the best answer.
1. It is a Cushitic language. However the peoples have lived in the region of the
semetic speakers. Which is?
A. Kambata B. Agaw C. Gamo D. Bume
2. Which of the following state first existed in Ethiopia?
A. Punt B. Aksum C. Zagwe D. none
3. Why did the ancient man worship the jaint natural phenomenon?
A. God had lived on those features
B. Due to fear of circumstances that happened beyond their knowledge
C. A and B D. all
4. Why does lucy attracted international attention?
A. she is the oldest C. A and B
B. She is the most complete hominid skeleton D. All of the above
5. The modern human is physically different from other animals because
A. he has larger brains C. he has larger teeth
B. he has larger jaws D. he can use his hands for walking
6. Point out the odd one among the given important archaeological sites.
A. Bodo B. Kibish C. Dire Dawa D. Addis Ababa
7. When did the Ethiopians started domestication of plant and animals?
A. About 10,000 years C. Around 4000 – 6000 years
B. About 1 million D. Around 100,000 years
Part III: Matching

A B
1. The language which is extinct A. at 702 AD
2. The first plant which domesticated in Ethiopia B. 4th century AD
3. Existed at about 5th century BC C. Gafat
4. The golden age of Aksum D. b/n 3rd & 7thc AD
5. A country which had close diplomatic E. Teff
relations with Aksum
6. The major port of Aksum on the Red sea coast F. Maize
7. The society of Aksum G. Damat
8. The period which Christianity introduced H. A result of commercial
contact with Arab worlds
9. The port of Adulis destroyed I. Merchant, slave etc
10. The introduction of Islam J. Adulis
K. Greek
L. USA
Part IV: Write down what you write.

1. Write short essay about the formation of atmosphere.
2. What are the internal and external causes which facilitated the decline of Aksumite
civilization?
A. Internal
B. External .0
Good effort!!!
Set by Masresha Sisay
BNB የትምህርት ማዕከል
2004 ዓ.ም የ 1 ኛ መንፈቅ ማጠቃለያ የአማርኛ አማርኛ ፈተና ለስድስተኛ ክፍል
ስም ክፍል ተ.ቁ. ውጤት

ምንባብ
አንድ ፈሪ ወታደር ትልቅ ጦርነት ሆኖ ሣለ አብረውት የተሠለፉት ባልንጀሮቹ ደረታቸውን በጥይት እየተነደሉ፣ አንዱ
በአንዱ ላይ እየተደራረቡ ሲወድቁና ሲሞቱ አየና ሆዱ ተሸበረበት፣ ጉልበቱ ቄጠማ ሆነበት፡፡ በዚየ ስፍራ ከሬሣ በቀር የሚያቀ
ው ሰው አልነበረም፡፡ ጦርነቱ ግን ይልቁንም እሱ ባለበት በኩል እያደር በጣም እየተፋፋመና እየተጋጋለ መጣ፡፡ በዚህ ጊዜ ሌላም
ነገር የሚያድነኝ የለ ከዚህ በቀር አለና ከሬሣዎቹ መካከል ፈነቃቅሎ ገብቶ አንዱን እሬሣ በላዩ ጭኖ ትንፋሹን አጥፍቶ ተኛ፡፡
የወዲያኛውም ጦር እየገፋ፣ እያሸነፈ እሱ ከተሸሸገበት ቦታ በደረሰ ጊዜ የፈረስ ኮቴ አሁን ካሁን ያደባየኛል እያለ በመ
ፍራት እግሩን በጣም ለመሸሸግ እጥፍ ሲያደርግ አንድ ፈረሰኛ አየውና፣ ከፈረሱ ላይ እንደሆነ የዚህን ሳይቆስል የሞተ ሰው እግ
ር በቀጭን ጦሩ ጠቆም ጠቆም እያደረገ ‹‹ይሄስ የሞተም አይመስል›› አለ፡፡ በዚህ ጊዜ ያ በውሸት የሞተ ቡከን ወታደርም ‹‹አይ
አይ … ›› እያለና እግሩን እያፈራገጠ ‹‹እባክህን ተወኝ ሞቻለሁ›› ብሎ አፉን በጁ ተመተመ፡፡
ክፍል አንድ፡ አዛምድ-አንድ

በምድብ ‹‹ሀ›› ስር ለሚገኙት ከምንባቡ የወጡ ቃላት ከ‹‹ለ›› ስር ተመሣሣያቸውን በ
መፈለግ አዛምዱ፡፡
ሀ ለ
1. እየተፋፋመ ሀ. እየተመቱ
2. መመከት ለ. እየተሟሟቀ
3. ቡከን መ. ፊሪ
4. ተመተመ ሠ. መከላከል
5 እየተነደሉ ረ. ማየት
ሰ. መታ መታ አደረገ
ክፍል ሁለት፡ ከተራ ቁጥር 1 እስከ 5 ያሉት ጥያቄዎች በምንባቡ መሠረት ትክክለኛውን መለስ በመ
ምረጥ መልሱ፡፡
1. ‹‹ከዚህም ሌላ የሚያድነኝ የለም…›› ያለው ምንድ ነው

ሀ. በሬሣዎች መሀል መሸሸጉን መ. መማረኩን
ለ. ጠንክሮ መዋጋቱን ሠ. እራሱን ማጥፋቱን
2. ጉልበቱ ቄጠማ ሆነበት ሲል ምን ማለት ነው
ሀ. ለመለመበት ለ. ተብረከረከበት መ. እረጠበበት ሠ. አማረበት
3. ወታደሩ ምን አይነት ወታደር ነው

ሀ. ጓደኞቹን ትቶ መሄድ ያልፈለገ መ. ፈሪ
ለ. ደፋር ሠ. ተዋጊ
4. የምንባቡ ርዕስ ሊሆን የሚችለው የትኛው ነው
ሀ. ሩህሩህ ወታደር መ. ፈሪው ወታደር
ለ. ውሸታሙ ወታደር ሠ. ደፋሩ ወታደር
5. ወታደሩ ‹‹አይ እባክህ ተወኝ ሞቻለሁ›› ብሎ ያለው ለምንድ ነው
ሀ. ተስፋ ቢስ ስለሆነ
ለ. በጥይት ተመትቶ ቆስሎ ስለነበረ
መ. ሣይሞት ምቻለሁ ብሎ ሕይወቱን ማትረፍ ስለፈለገ
ሠ. መልሱ አልተሰጠም
ክፍል ሦስት፡ የሚከተሉትን ጥያቄዎች ‹‹እውነት›› ወይም ‹‹ሀሰት›› በማለት መልሱ፡፡
1. ሥርአተ ነጥቦችን መጠቀም ጽሑፍን በቀላሉ ለመረዳት ያግዘናል፡፡

2. ምህፃረ ቃላት ከአንድ ቃል በላይ ሊመሠረት ይችላሉ፡፡
3. የመበሳጨትን ስሜት የሚያመለክተን ትዕምርተ ስላቅ ነው፡፡
4. የስም ገላጮች ግስን ቀድመው ይገባሉ፡፡
5. ቃላት ላልተውና ጠብቀው ሲነበቡ የተለያየ ትርጉም ይሰጣሉ፡፡
6. ቅጥያዎች በቃል ላይ ካልተጨወሩ በስተቀር በራሳቸው ትርጉም የላቸውም፡፡
7. ድርብ ቃላት በአንድ ቃል መግለጽ የማይቻልን ሀሳብ ለመግለጽ ይረዱናል፡፡
8. ቀደም ሲል የምናውቀውን ነገር ለማስረጃነት ስንፈልግ የምናነበው በገረፍታ ንባብ ነው፡፡
ክፍል አራት፡ ቀጥሎ ለቀረቡት ለተለያዩ ጥያቄዎች ከተሰጡት አማራጮች ትክክለኛውን መልስ የያዘ
ውን ፊደል ብቻ ምረጡ፡፡
1. ‹‹ማልደው›› ለሚለው ቃል ተመሳሳይ ፍቺው፡-

ሀ. አምሽተው መ. በጥዋት
ለ. አርፍደው ሠ. ሁሉም
2. አዲስ አበባ የኢትዮጵያ መዲና መሆኗ ይታወቃል፡፡ የተሰመረበት ቃል ትርጉም፡
ሀ. ቆንጆ ከተማ መ. ውብ ከተማ
ለ. ያደገች ከተማ ሠ. ዋና ከተማ
3. ሕይወት ቁርሷን ስላልበላች ሞረሞራት፡፡

ሀ. አስጠላት ለ. ራባት መ. አመማት ሠ. አስፈለጋት
4. ነጩ ፈረስ ሞቷል፡፡ የተሠመረበት ቃል፡
ሀ. የአንቀጽ ገላጭ ለ. የስም ገላጭ መ. ስም ሠ. ግሥ
5. አባይ ለሙን አፈራችንን ለግብፅ ይሰጥ ነበር፡፡ የተሠመረበት ቃል በአረፍተ ነገሩ አገባብ
መሠረት
ሀ. ጠብቆ ይጠራል መ. ጠብቆም ላልቶም ይጠራል
ለ. ላልቶ ይጠራል ሠ. ሁሉም
6. ‹‹ከሠራች›› በሚለው ቃል ውስጥ እንሰት ፆታን ለይቶ ለማመልከት የገባ ቅጥያ የቱ ነው
ሀ. ከ- ለ . -ች መ. ከ- እና -ች ሠ. ሠራች
7. ‹‹ቀዳ›› ብሎ ‹‹አቀዳድ›› ቢል ‹‹ወጋ›› ብሎ ይላል፡፡
ሀ. አወጋግ ለ. መውጋት መ. አወጋ ሠ. ወጊ
8. ከሚከተሉት አንዱ የተወያዮች የሥራ ድርሻ አይደለም፡፡
ሀ. ተወያዮች ውይይታቸውን እንዲያቀርቡ መጋበዝ፡፡
ለ. የውይይቱን አላማ ማስተዋወቅ፡፡
መ. በተቃራኒ ቡድን ለሚነሡ ጥያቄዎች መልስ መስጠት፡፡
ሠ. የውይይቱን ጭብጥ ለተደራሲያኑ በቅደም ተከተል ማቅረብ፡፡
ክፍል ሦስት፡ በባዶ ቦታዎቹ ትክክለኛውን መልስ ጻፉ፡፡
1. ሁለት ሰዎች ወይም ሁለት ቡድኖች ሊቀመንበር ዳኞች በመሰየም የሚያደርጉት ሥርአታዊ ሙግት
ነው፡፡
2. ፈተናዎችን ለመፈተን ስንዘጋጅ የምንጠቀምበት የንባብ አይነት ይባላል፡፡
3. ዓላማ ያለው በእቅድ የተዘጋጀና የአንድን ርዕሰ ጉዳይ የተለያዩ ገጽታዎች የሚመለከት
ይባላል፡፡
4. በአንድ አረፍተ ነገር ውስጥ የተገለጸው ድርጊት መቼ የት እንዴት ወዘተ. መፈጸሙን ለመግለጽ የሚገቡ ቃላት ወይም
ሀረጐች ይባላል፡፡
ተጨማሪ ጥያቄ
ሀና ሁል ጊዜ ፊት ለፊት ትቀመጣለች፡፡ የተሠመረበት ቃል ነው፡፡
አዘጋጅ፡ ቆንጅትና ታዴዎስ

BNB የትምህርት ማዕከል
2004 ዓ.ም የ 1 ኛ መንፈቅ ማጠቃለያ የአማርኛ አማርኛ ፈተና ለሰባተኛ ክፍል
ስም ክፍል ተ.ቁ. ውጤት

ነበረ ተበዳይ
‹‹ካፍ እስከገደፉ-አባይ ቢሞላ
የማሳዬን ንቃት-ጥማቱን መች ከላ
አባይ ቢሞላ-አባይ ቢሞላ
ፀንቶ በመሐላ-ተግቶ በኩብለላ
ያጠጣል ተሻግሮ-ያበላል ለሌላ፡፡
ጢም ቢል አፉ፣ ጢሙ-አባይ ቢሞላ
ለፈርኦን ውላጅ-ለግብጾቹ ተድላ…፡፡
እያልኩ የወረፍኩት-የተሳለቅሁበት
የኔን ብርታት ማነስ-የኔን ዳተኝነት
የኛን የአመራር ሳንካ-የፖሊሲ ጉድለት
የስትራቴጂውን-ራዕይ ግብ-አልባነት
የመሩኝን ጌቶች-ስንፍናና ፍርሃት
በነዚያ ዘመናት-በሱ ያላከክንበት..
ለካስ…. ይኼ አባይ
ነበረ ተበዳይ፡፡
ለሰው ሲል ተወቃሽ
ለሰው ሲል ተከሳሽ፡፡ …
ምንጭ፡ ማህደረ ደቡብ ቅጽ 1 ቁጥር 17
ክፍል 1፡ ከላይ የቀረበውን ምንባብ መሠረት በማድረግ ቀጥሎ ለቀረቡት ጥያቄዎች ከተሰጡት አማራጮች ትክክለኛ
ውን መልስ ብቻ ምረጡ፡፡(6 ነጥብ)
1. ‹‹ፀንቶ በመሐላ-ተግቶ በኩብለላ›› ሲል ምን ማለቱ ነው

ሀ. ለአገር ጥቅም መጽናቱን ሐ. ለሀገር መታገሉን
ለ. ቃልኪዳን መግባቱን መ. ለሀገር አለመጥቀሙን
2. ከሚከተሉት አንዱ ‹‹ፈርኦንን›› ያመላክታል፡፡
ሀ. ግብፅ ለ. ሱዳን ሐ. ኢትዮጵያ መ. ጐጃም
3. ‹‹የኔ ብርታት ማነስ›› የሚለው ሀረግ የሚያመለክተው፡
ሀ. ገጣሚውን ሐ. አንድን ግለሰብ
ለ. አንባቢውን መ. አገራችንን
4. ‹‹ጢም ቢል አፉ›› ሲል፡
ሀ. መሙላቱን ያመለክታል ሐ. መኮብለሉን ያመለክታል
ለ. መጉደሉን ያመለክታል መ. መፍሰሱን ያመለክታል
5. …የኔን ዳተኝነት›› የተሰመረበት ቃል ተመሳሳይ ፍቺ፡-
ሀ. ቸልተኛ መሆን ለ. ትጉህ መሆን ሐ. ታታሪ መሆን መ. መልስ የለም
6. ‹‹የኛን የአመራር ሳንካ -የፖሊሲ ጉድለት›› የተሰመረበት ቃል ፍቺ፡
ሀ. ማሰናከያ ለ. ሰንካላ ነገር ሐ. እንቅፋት መ. ሁሉም
ክፍል 3፡ ቀጥሎ የቀረቡት ሀሳቦች ትክክል ከሆኑ እውነት ስህተት ከሆኑ ሀሰት በማለት በተዘጋጁት ባዶ ቦታዎ
ች ላይ ጻፉ፡፡ (10 ነጥብ)
1. ቋንቋ የግለሰቦችን ባህል መለየት ያስችላል፡፡

2. የሀረግ መሠረቱ ቃላት ናቸው፡፡
3. ምህፃረ ቃላትን የአንድን ቃል የመጀመሪያና የመጨረሻ ሆሄያት በመውሰድ ማሳጠር
ይቻላል፡፡
4. በቃል ውስጥ የድምፅ መጥበቅና መላላት የፍቺ ልዩነት ሊያስከትል አይችልም፡፡
5. በስማዊ ሀረግ ውስጥ የሀረጉ መሪ ግሥ ነው፡፡
6. ድርብ ሠረዝ አጫጭር ሀሳቦችን በቅደም ተከተል ለመደርደር ያገለግላል፡፡
7. ከክርክር አቀራረብ መመሪያዎች አንዱ መከራከሪያ ነጥቦችን በቅደም ተከተል አደራጅቶ
መያዝ ነው፡፡
8. በውይይት ዝግጅት ወቅት ሀሳባችንን በቅደም ተከተል ማቅረብ አለብን፡፡
9. ጭውውት ትረካ በድርጊት የሚገለጽበት መንገድ ነው፡፡
10. የምናነበውን ጽሑፍ ለአይናችን በሚያመች ሁኔታ መያዝ በማንኛውም የንባብ አይነት
ወቅት የሚያገለግለን መመሪያ ነው፡፡
ክፍል 3፡ የሚከተሉትን በትክክል አዛምዱ፡፡(6 ነጥብ)

ሀ ለ
1. ቅጽል ሀ. ጥገኛ ምዕላድ
2. ድርጊት ገላጭ ለ. ትዕምርተ ትርጉም
3. መጠሪያ የሆነ ቃል ሐ. አቆልቋይ
4. ተውሰከ ግሥ መ. የስም ገላጭ
5. ቅጥያ ሠ. ግሥ
6. ቅንፍ ረ. ነፃ ምዕላድ
ሰ. ስም
ሸ. የማሠሪያ አንቀጽ ገላጭ
ክፍል 4፡ ቀጥሎ ለቀረቡት የተየዩ ጥያቄዎች ከተሰጡት አማራጮች ትክክለኛውን መልስ የያዘውን ፊደል ብ
ቻ ምረጡ፡፡ (5 ነጥብ)
1. ከአንድ ቃል በፊትና በኋላ በመግባት ጥምረቱን የሚያስማሙ ቅጥያዎችን የያዘ ቅንጅት

የቱ ነው
ሀ. ስማዊ ሀረግ ሐ. ቅጽላዊ ሀረግ
ለ. ግሳዊ ሀረግ መ. መስተዋድዳዊ ሀረግ
2. ነሳ ሲል ተመሳሳይ ፍቺው
ሀ. አቆመ ለ. ነቀሰ ሐ. ከለከለ መ. በለጠ
3. ዮሐንስ ለእናቱ በኩር ልጅ ነው፡፡ የተሰመረበት ቃል ተቃራኒ
ሀ. የመጀመሪያ ለ. የመጨረሻ ሐ. አስቸጋሪ መ. የመሀል
4. ወደዝቅተኛ የቋንቋ ቅንጣት ሊሸራረፍ የማይችለው የቱ ነው
ሀ. ነፃ ምዕላድ ለ. ጥገኛ ምዕላድ ሐ. ቃል መ. ሀረግ
5. ስሙ የወከለው ነገር ማን እንደሆነ የሚጠቁመው
ሀ. አገናዛቢ አፀፋ አመልካች ቅጥያ ሐ. ባለቤት አመልካች ቅጥያ
ለ. መደብ አመልካች ቅጥያ መ. ብዛተ አመልካች ቅጥያ
ክፍል 5፡ በባዶ ቦታዎቹ ትክክለኛውን መልስ ጻፉ፡፡ (4 ነጥብ)
1. በአረፍተ ነገር ውስጥ የሚገኙ መደበኛ ክፍሎች ናቸው፡፡
2. በስም ወይም ስምን መስለው በሚገቡ ቃላት ላይ እየተጫነ ገብቶ በአ/ነገር ውስጥ የንግግርን ዝምድና የሚያሳይ
ቃል ይባላል፡፡
3. ግስን ለመግለጽ የሚገባ ቃል ወይም ሀረግ ይባላል፡፡
4. ነጠላን ወደ ብዙ ለመለወጥ የሚያገለግል ቅጥያ ነው፡፡
ተጨማሪ ጥያቄ
ድርብርብ አረፍተ ነገር ማለት ምን ማለት ነው በትክክል ካብራራችሁ በኋላ ምሳሌ ስጡ፡፡
አዘጋጅ ታዴዎስ
ጥር 2004 ዓ.ም
2004 E.C 1 SEMESTER MATHEMATICS 1st MODEL EXAM FOR GRADE 8
st
Part I: Choose the correct answer. Time allowed 2

hrs
1. Which of the following is not true?

A. Empty set is a subs-set of any set C. Every set is a proper sub-set of itself
B. Every set is a sub-set of itself D. Empty set is a finite set
2. One of the following is not true about set A = {}.
A.   A B.   A C.   A D. none
3. For any rational numbers, a, b and c, one of the following is not true.
A. a + (b – c) = a + b – c C. a – (b – c ) = a – b + c
B. a – (b + c) = a – b – c D. a + (b + c) = a + b – c
3  2x
4. The zero of the function f ( x )  is
3
4 3 2
A. B. C. D. ¼
5 2 5
5. If A ={a,{0, a}}, then which of the following is true?
A. {0, a}  A C. {0, a}  A
B. {0, a}  A D. 0  A
2 5 7
6.    0 is equal to:
x 3x 4
4 2 5 1
A. B. C. D.
21 7 9 2
x x4
7. The solutions set of the equation 2 is
2 6
A. 2 B. 20 C. 8 D. 4
8. Abebe bought 50 eggs and he found that 10 of them were spoiled. What percent of the
eggs were unspoiled?
A. 40% B. 80% C. 60% D. 25%
9. What is the slope of the line whose equation is 6x – 3y = 9?
A. -3 B. 2 C. 4 D. -1
10. One of the following relation is not a function.
A. R = {(1,3), (2, 3), (4, 3), (3,3) C. R = {(x, y): y = 2 x + 1}
B. R = {( x , y): y is the father of x } D. R = {(1, 2), (4, 2), (3, 2), (4, 3)}
11. What is the equation of the line shown in the graph below?
A. y = x - 2
B. y = x + 2 2
C. y = - x + 2 2
D. y = - x - 2
12. The zero of the function and slope is -3 and 5 respectively then, what is the equation of
the line?
A. y = 5 x + 15 B. y = 5 x - 3 C. y = -3 x + 5 D. y = 5 x
+5
13. A number is divided in the ratio 3:5, if the first part is 120, then what is the other number?
A. 200 B. 320 C. 520 D. 300
14. What is the circumference of the circle whose diameter is 8cm?
A. 16cm B. 18cm2 C. 8cm D. 64cm
15. In which quadrant the point ( x , y) satisfy the condition x < 0 and y > 0?
A. first B. second C. third D. fourth
1 1 
16. The solution set of the equation x  6  2 x  4  is
2 4 
A. IR B. x = -2 C. { } D. x = 2
17. What is the range of y = | x |?
A. IR B. { x : x > 0} C. {y: y > 0} D. {y: y > 0}
18. What is the surface area of a sphere whose radius is 3cm?
A. 36cm2 B. 48cm2 C. 9cm2 D. 12cm2
19. Which one is not true about cubic prism?
A. The lateral edge and base edge of the prism is equal.
B. The altitude and height of the prism is equal.
C. The volume of the prism is equal to 3 times its length.
D. All faces of the prism is equal.
20. The prime factorization of 1000 is:
A. 32 x 35 B. 25 x 53 C. 23 x 53 D. 8 x 53
6 2 1 4
21. Which of the following number is equal to        ?
5 3 2 3
82 47 41 20
A. B. C. D.
15 60 30 17
22. One of the following is a binomial expression.
A. 2a + b2 B. a2 + ab – b2 C. x 2y D. 3a
23. Which of the following ordered pairs is not belongs to the relation R = { x , y): y - 2 x = 4}?
A. (-3, -2) B. (1, 1) C. (4, 12) D. (0, 4)
24. Which of the following inequality describes the shaded part of the graph given below?
A. 2y + 3 < x
3
B. 2 x – y < –3
-3
C. y > x – 3
D. y < x + 3
25. What is domain of the graph given below?
A. { x : x > -2}
B. { x : x < 2}
-2
C. { x : x < – 2}
D. The set of real number}
26. The volume of a right circular cone whose altitude is 5cm and base radius is 3cm is
equal to:
A. 45cm3 B. 5cm3 C. 15cm3 D. 9cm3
27. From 1600 students of a school 960 are girls and the rest are boys, what percent of the
students are boys?
A. 60% B. 40% C. 75% D. 25%
28. Which one is not true statement?
A. Diagonal of a rectangle is equal
B. Diagonal a rhombus are perpendicular to each other
C. A parallelogram is a square
D. Diagonal of a square is perpendicular bisector of each other
29. If the sum of the interior angle of the polygon is 720 0, then what is the polygon?
A. Pentagon B. quadrilateral C. hexagon D. heptagon
30. A polygon – with all interior angles and all sides are congruent, then it is:
A. equilateral polygon C. regular polygon
B. equiangular polygon D. none of the above
31. The largest chord of the circle is:
A. radius B. circumference C. diameter D. diagonal
32. One of the following statements is incorrect.
A. Angles subtended by the same arc are congruent.
B. Inscribed angles subtended by semicircles are right angle.
C. Inscribed angles of a circle is half if the measure of the arc subtending it.
D. Any triangle can’t be inscribed in the circle.
33. Which one is true about cyclic quadrilaterals?
A. They are inscribed in the circle
B. Pairs of the opposite angles are supplementary
C. The sum of their all interior angles are 360 0.
D. all
34. If the sum of degree measure of two angles is 180 0, then the angles are:
A. complementary angles C. adjacent angles
B. supplementary angles D. vertically opposite angles
35. Which of the following statement is true?
A. A line can intersect a circle at two point is tangent.
B. A line that intersect a circle at one point is secant.
C. Radius of a circle can be a chord of the circle.
D. Any diameter of a circle is a chord of a circle.
36. The sum of all interior angles of octagon is:
A. 4200 B. 10800 C. 9000 D. 7200
37. In the figure below, the central angle AOB is a right angle, then which one is not true?
A. m(<ACB) = 900 A
B. m(<ADB) = 450 C
O
C. m(ADB) = 2700 B
D
D. m(ACB) = 900
38. The vertex angle of an isosceles triangle is 80 0. then, what is the measure of the other
two angles of a triangle?
A. 700 and 300 C. 400 and 600
B. 500 and 500 D. 900 and 100
39. In the figure below, what is the value of x ?
A. 500
B. 300 x + 100
C. 200 2x 3x -100
D. 450
40. The square root of 361 is:
A. 36 C. 200
B. 19 D. 16
Set by Bizuhan T.
2004 E.C 1st SEMESTER CHEMISTRY 1st MODEL EXAM FOR GRADE 8
Time allowed 1
hr
Part I: Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives.
1. Which of the following takes place when a candle is burning?

A. Physical change C. Both physical and chemical changes
B. Chemical change D. Difficult to identify
2. Which of the following is a metalloid?
A. Germanium C. aluminum
B. Carbon D. copper
3. The correct name for the compound AlN is:
A. aluminum nitrate C. aluminum nitrogen
B. aluminum nitride D. aluminum nitrite
4. Which of the following contains the least amount of hydroxide ions?
A. Ba(OH)2 B. KOH C. NaOH D. NH4OH
5. A reddish brown substance known as rust formed on the surface of iron when it reacts
with moist air is chemically
A. Fe2O3 . 3H2O B. Fe3O4 C. FeS D. FeCO3
6. Which one of the following chemical reactions occurs in the blast furnace during the
production of iron?
A. 2Fe2(CO3)3 + 3H2O 2Fe2O3.3H2O + 6CO2
B. 3Fe + 2O2 Fe3O4
C. Fe2O3 + 2Al Al2O3 + 2Fe
D. F2O3 + CO Fe + CO2
7. Which of the following is extracted by roasting its ore?
A. Sodium B. Gold C. Silver D. Copper
8. The following are the most important ores of iron except
A. limestone C. siderite
B. iron pyrite D. magnetic
9. Which of the following metals is never found uncombined in nature?
A. platinum B. calcium C. gold D. silver
10. Which of the following is false about an element with atomic number 16?
A. It is found in group VIA C. it is metallic element
B. It has valence electron of 6 D. It is non-metallic element
11. The necessary conditions for an iron to form rust is
A. air and grease C. oxygen and oil
B. air and water D. oil and water
12. One among the following is the substance that extinguishes fire in soda-acid fire
extinguisher.
A. CO2 B. Na2SO4 C. NaHCO3 D. H2SO4
13. The mineral ore of iron among the following is
A. hematite B. dolomite C. bauxite D. argentite
14. Given the elements: 3Li, 5B, 4c and 8O, which element has the highest ionization energy?
A. 3Li B. 5B C. 6C D. 8O
15. One among the following sulfates is given as a tablet for patients who suffer from
anemia.
A. ZnSO4 B. FeSO4 C. Na2SO4 D. (NH4)2SO4
16. The number of elements in the third period of the periodic table is
A. 8 B. 2 C. 18 D. 32
17. The valency of carbon in CO2 is
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
18. Which of the following oxides produces base when mixed with water?
A. CrO3 B. N2O5 C. CaO D. P2O5
19. Which one of the following is the correct chemical formula of a compound formed from
two hypothetical elements “A” (bivalent) and “B” (tetravalent)?
A. AB2 B. A2B C. A4B D. AB
20. Which one of the following is correct about gases? Gases
A. have definite volume C. expand when cooling
B. are difficult to push into a smaller space D. spread out to fill a room
21. Which one of the following is a heterogeneous mixture?
A. Milk B. Air C. Solution D. Alloy
22. Which property of substance is a perceptible quality that can be recognized by one of
our sense organs?
A. Solubility B. Density C. Freezing point D. Hardness
23. A process is endothermic if it
A. occurs spontaneously
B. is accompanied by a release of heat energy
C. proceeds by absorption of heat energy
D. is accompanied by a decrease in the volume of substances
24. A chemical formula gives us correct information about all of the following except:
A. the number of atoms making up the formula
B. the types of isotopes making up the formula
C. the masses of the elements making up the formula
D. the types of elements making up the formula
25. What would be the sum of the coefficients of all the reactants and products when the
following chemical equation is correctly balanced?
Fe + O2 Fe2O3
A. 6 B. 5 C. 2 D. 7
26. Which one of the following is the correct balanced chemical equation for the word
equation given below?
Magnesium + hydrogen chloride magnesium chloride + hydrogen
A. Mg + 2HCl MgCl2 + H2 C. Mg + HCl 2MgCl2 + H
B. 2Mg + HCl 2MgCl2 + 2H D. 2Mg + HCl MgCl2 + H2
27. What is an acid anhydride? It is
A. an acid that releases H+ ion in water C. an oxide that contains water of hydrogenation
B. an oxide that neutralizes acids D. an oxide that forms an acid
28. Which of the following salts exhibits acidic property?
A. NH4Cl B. CaHPO4 C. Zn(OH)Cl D. CaCO3
29. Which gas supports burning?
A. CO2 B. CO C. O2 D. N2
30. One of the following postulates is not valid in the modern atomic theory? Which one is it?
A. atoms unite in definite ratios to form compounds
B. atoms of the same element are exactly alike in their mass
C. atoms are the building blocks of matter
D. atoms of different elements are different in properties
79
31. The number of neutrons in one atom of 35 Br is
A. 114 B. 35 C. 44 D. 99
32. Which one of the following represents an atom only?
A. Br B. Ar C. O2 D. P4
33. Mendeleev based the arrangement of the elements in his periodic table on
A. the atomic masses of the elements
B. the number of protons present in the atoms of the elements
C. the size of the atoms of the elements
D. the atomic number of the elements
34. When descending down a group of the periodic table
A. atomic radii decreases
B. the valence electrons of the elements increases
C. metallic character of the elements increases
D. ionization energies of the elements increases
35. Elements at the top right hand side of the periodic table are generally characterized by
A. lesser chemical reactivity C. higher metallic properties
B. bigger atomic size D. higher electron affinities
36. An alloy of copper and tin is called
A. brass B. bronze C. duralumin D. solder
37. Which of the following is used to manufacture photographic film?
A. Mg B. Al C. Ag D. Au
38. During production of silver which one is used as reducing agent to recover the metal?
A. NaCN B. CO C. Zn D. Ag2S
39. Covering iron or steel with other metals that resist corrosion is
A. galvanization B. tin plating C. electroplating D. painting
40. Which of the following processes produce the best quality steel?
A. The electric are process C. The Bessemer process
B. The open health process D. none of the above
41. What is the maximum number of electrons in 5th shell?
A. 50 B. 32 C. 8 D. 18
42. The only metallic liquid element is
A. Br B. Hg C. Ca D. Ar
43. Which one of the following metals is an alkaline earth metal?
A. tin B. sodium C. calcium D. potassium
44. All of the following metals can displace hydrogen from dilute acids except:
A. Ca B. Cu C. Na D. Zn
45. Which one of the following minerals is not correctly paired with its chemical formula?
A. Magnetite – Fe3O4 C. Epsomite – Fe2CO3
B. Pyrite – FeS2 D. Hematite – Fe2O3
46. Which element is not a constituent of stainless steel?
A. Tin B. Carbon C. Chromium D. Nickel
47. In the modern method of gold production the concentrated ore is treated with a solution
of NaCN and the process is called
A. floatation B. reduction C. cyanidation D. roasting
48. Which chemical industry is not located in Hawassa?
A. Ceramic products industry C. Sulfuric acid factory
B. Soap factory D. Textile industry
49. A mixture of cement, sand stones and water is called
A. concrete B. motor C. aluminum silicate D. cement
50. What is the acid anhydride for H2SO3?
A. CO2 B. SO3 C. SO2 D. N2O3
51. The 3rd most abundant element in the earth’s crust is
A. oxygen B. iron C. silicon D. aluminium
52. A compound of sodium what is used during production of gold and silver is
A. NaNH2 B. NaCl C. NaCN D. Na2CO3
53. An acid which dissociates completely or nearly completely in water is said to be
A. weak acid B. strong acid C. concentrated acid D. dilute acid
54. Which of the following is weak base?
A. NaOH B. KOH C. Na4OH D. Ba(OH)2
55. What are the kinds of atoms present in Al 2(SO4)3?
A. Aluminum, sulfur and oxygen C. Sulfur, hydrogen, aluminum
B. Argon, sulfur and oxygen D. Phosphorus, aluminum and oxygen
56. What is the chemical symbol for antimony?
A. At B. W C. Sb D. Am
57. Isotopes are atoms of the same element which differ in their
A. atomic numbers C. number of electrons
B. number of protons D. mass number
58. To which group and period of the periodic table does an element with atomic number 32
belong?
A. Group IIIA and period 4 C. Group IVA and period 4
B. Group IIA and period 2 D. Group IIB and period 2
59. Elements in the same group of the periodic table have the same
A. atomic number C. valence electrons
B. nuclear charge D. number of shells
60. The earliest of attempt to classify elements was that of
A. Meyer’s classification C. Newlands law of Octates
B. Mendeleev’s classification D. Dobreiner’s trids
Set by Mesele T.
Set by Hassen Jarso
2004 E.C 1 SEMESTER SOCIAL STUDIES 1st MODEL EXAM FOR GRADE 8
st
No of items 60 Time
Part I: Choose the correct answer fromallowed 60’ alternatives.
the given
1. Which one is false about scale?

A. It is a marginal information C. It helps to measure the speed of wind
B. RF is universal D. All of the above
2. A type of marginal information used to know the purpose of the map is
A. key B. date C. title D. scale
3. The type of wind which blows on the top of the mountain during the day time is known as
A. planetary B. anabatic C. katabatic D. none of the above
4. What protect human beings from great heat of the sun and great cold during the day and
the night respectively?
A. The ocean B. The earth C. The atmosphere D. The stars
5. Which language family has the largest number of speakers in Ethiopia?
A. Cushitic B. Nilotic C. Omotic D. Semetic
6. Just before their 16th century exploration the homeland of the oromos had been
A. the Ethiopia – Solami boarder C. the highlands of Arsi
B. present day Somalia D. mada walabu area
7. What were the main economic activity of the Aksumite kingdom?
A. Mining of precious metals C. Hunting and gathering
B. Production of handicrafts D. Trade and agriculture
8. The Islamic calendar counts time starting from the
A. date the prophet Mohammed started teaching
B. time the Hegira took place
C. time of the spread of Islam throughout Arabia
D. coming to power of the first caliph
9. Which European country was the first to trade in Africa Slaves?
A. Great Britain B. Germany C. France D. Portugal
10. Among the following human activities, which one is the earliest and contributed much to
the study of geography?
A. Exploration B. War C. Trade D. Industrial revolution
11. Which of the following geographic phenomenon causes “spit”?
A. Sea waves C. Winds
B. Underground water D. Glaciers
12. Which of the following statement is true about latitudes and longitudes?
A. Accra and London are the only towns crossed by the equator
B. Any place along the equator has a zero degree latitude
C. All latitudes are not parallel while all longitudes are parallel
D. Longitude and latitude do not cross each other at the equator
13. The period known as the Zememe Mesafint in Ethiopia was characterized by:
A. provision of justice for the poor C. centralized state structure
B. constant war and famine D. existence of strong autocratic king
14. Which part of the earth is hottest?
A. Mesosphere C. the hydrosphere
B. The atmosphere D. the lithosphere
15. It is believed that human civilization started mainly in the river valleys. This is because
A. soils of river valleys are less fertile
B. water from rivers is hardly used for drinking
C. soils along rivers are very fertile
D. river valleys are less inhabitable by humans
16. Which of the following type of transport system is preferable to transport crude oil from the
port of Jeddah (in Saudi Arabia) to Djibouti?
A. water transport B. Road transport C. Railway D. Air transport
17. Which do we say that the atmosphere of the earth is different from that of other planets?
This is because of the fact that
A. The earth’s atmosphere is inactive to reduce the solar energy from the sun
B. The earth’s atmosphere is less denser than the atmosphere of other planets
C. Earth’s atmosphere is hotter than other planets
D. The lower part of the atmosphere of the earth is favorable for life
18. What is clearly known about the ancient kingdom of punt? That is
A. was the first state of Eritrea
B. was the earliest state in the horn of Africa
C. used to have trade relations with China
D. was the first Muslim state in the horn of Africa
19. Aksum was unable to continue its international trade as a result of
A. Muslim Arab control of the Red Sea D. the rise of the power of Egypt in the region
B. the rebellion of the Beja people C. constant attack by the Zagwe dynasty
20. The Portuguese first came to Ethiopia to fight against the forces of
A. Amde Tsion C. Gragn Ahmed
B. Gelawdiwos D. Lebne Dengel
21. The sultanate of Shewa was established by the:
A. Makhzumite dynasty C. Omayyad dynasty
B. Wallasma dynasty D. Malla dynasty
22. The spread of Islam in North Africa brought with it the spread in that region of the
A. trade in slaves C. Arabic language
B. domestication of plants and animals D. art of writing known as Cuneiform
23. Africans sold as slaves in the trans-Atlantic slave trade were mainly used to work in the
A. newly emerging industries of Europe
B. house of the rich peoples of America
C. tobacco and cotton plantations off America
D. Sea ports of America and Europe as porters
24. Why did the ancient Chinese build the Great Wall of China?
A. To make it one of the seven wonders of the world
B. To stop people form coming in to the empire
C. To protect the empire from attack by foreign invaders
D. As a border between the regions of the empire
25. Which European country returned an obelisk that it had taken from Aksum very recently?
A. Britain B. France C. Germany D. Italy
26. Which one of the following is correct about the characteristics of the Ethiopian population?
A. Family planning coverage in Ethiopia is low
B. Ethiopia has the lowest number of children per-woman
C. Health service coverage is high in the country
D. Ethiopia leads African countries by its population number
27. Which of the land form formation has opposite nature with Gulf?
A. Bay B. Island C. Peninsula D. Lake
28. Which one is false about the very nature of cultural heritages?
A. They are possessed by every group of people in the world
B. They are primary source of history
C. One can be either superior or inferior to the other
D. They can not be replaced if they are once destroyed
29. Where is located the ozone gas?
A. Troposphere C. Mesosphere
B. Stratosphere D. Thermosphere
30. At the battle of Shimbira Kure, the forces of Ahmed Gragn defeated the force of:
A. Emperor Libne Dengel C. Emperor Gelawdiwos
B. Emperor Susnyos D. Emperor Fasilladas
31. The original scale of a map is 1cm to 0.4km and the required enlargement in scale is 4
times. What will be the scale of the newly enlarged map?
A. 1cm to 0.1km C. 4cm to 16km
B. 1cm to 0.16km D. 1cm to 16km
32. The scale of a given map is 1:12, 000. The distance between two cities on this map is
43cm. What will be the ground distance between the cities?
A. About 5km C. About 3 km
B. Less than 4km D. More than 6km
33. A 4cm x 4cm area of an agricultural field is drawn on a map whose scale is 1:313, 000.
Which one of the following correctly indicates the real area of this field on the ground?
A. 150km2 B. 156.75km2 C. 176.5km2 D. 165.75km2
34. There is an irregular area of a farmland which is the scale of 1:200,000 and the square of
full of twelve, six of half and sixteen of one-fourth. What will be the actual area of the given
farm land?
A. 69km2 B. 76km2 C. 54km2 D. 119km2
35. There is an irregular area of an Island which is the scale of 1:500,000 and the square listed
on the map is 20 of full squares, twelve of half and 25 of one-fifth squares. What will be the
actual area of an Island?
A. 625km2 B. 775km2 C. 941.2km2 D. 225km2
36. Which of the following could be a good example of a feature formed at the lower valley of a
river?
A. The Abay Gorge C. The Panama Canal
B. The Chad Basin D. The Niger Delta
37. In which of the following rocks is chemical and physical weathering most active
respectively?
A. Granite and limestone C. Limestone and marble
B. Quartzite and marble D. Limestone and granite
38. Which of the following forest areas consists of various species of plants?
A. Tropical grasslands C. Hot desert forests
B. Temperate grasslands D. Tropical rainforests
39. With regard to air pollution, which one of the following barely causes in-door air pollution?
A. Using charcoal for cooking C. Cigarette smoking
B. Using electrical stove for cook food D. Using wood for cooking
40. Which of the following climate area receives the heaviest rainfall?
A. The steppe B. The equatorial C. The monsoon D. The temperate
41. Which type of rock is mostly used for road construction?
A. Basalt B. Granite C. Marble D. Limestone
42. What is the effect of Global warming?
A. causes high cloud formation which inturn decreases the amount of temperature
B. results in the formation of landslide and earthquake around the world
C. is responsible for the formation of Iceberg and thus, lowers the level of seas
D. causes the melting of ice and thus increases the level of seas
43. Why is that the tundra region atreeless region? It is because
A. the temperature of the region is very high so that no plant life exists in the area
B. the sub-soil of the region is permanently frozen so that no deep rooted plants exist in
the region
C. the regions’ forest coverage is devastated by human action
D. of high rainfall that causes removal of the top soil that, plants are unable to grow in the
area
44. All of are can not be causes for drought occurrences, except one
A. great density of trees C. large scale plantation agriculture
B. shortage of rainfall due to climate change D. primitive agriculture
45. Which of the following is the most among the given folding compression?
A. Simple folds C. Over folds
B. Over thrust folds D. Asymmetrical folds
46. Point out the odd one among the various economic advantages of rocks.
A. It helps the man to kill an animals C. For bridge construction
B. for construction of houses D. Raw materials in manufacturing industries
47. The Ethiopia underground water volume estimated
A. 55 billion m3 C. 120 billion m3
B. 11 trillion m3 D. 550 billion m3
48. Peoples of the world haven’t used the ocean water for the purpose of house hold
consumption. Because
A. God hasn’t allowed us to drink it
B. it is difficult to get water from the ocean
C. the high salt content which is present with in it
D. all of the above
49. Which one is odd about ocean?
A. The ocean floor (bed) is smooth C. Contain valuable sources of food
B. It modify the temperature of coastal areas D. Used as the source of energy
50. Which is different among the given marginal seas?
A. Coral sea C. Baltic sea
B. Gulf of St. Lawrence D. Mediterranean sea
Replace the letters by its appropriate word
Fig profile of an ocean floor
51. “A” represent

A. continental slope B. Abyssal plain C. continental shelf D. continental rise
52. “B” represent
A. continental rise B. continental slope C. continental break D. Abyssal plain
53. “C” represent
A. continental shelf B. continental break C. continental slope D. continental rise
54. “D” represent
A. continental shelf B. continental break C. continental rise D. Abyssal plain
55. “E” represent
A. continental shelf B. continental break C. Abyssal plain D. continental slope
56. What is the deepest points of Atlantic ocean?
A. Java trench, 7,125m C. Mariana trench, 11,033m
B. Porto Rich trench, 8, 648m D. Oasis trench, 4,444m
57. What are the responsible causes of ocean current?
A. Wind C. Difference in water temperature
B. The earth rotation D. all of the above
58. Point out the wrong combination of ocean current.
A. Kuro siwo – warm C. Benguela – cold
B. Falk land – cold D. Labrador – warm
59. The natural vegetation cover of an area varies from place to place because of
A. rainfall B. relief land form C. temperature D. all
60. Which is the even relation among the given middle latitude grassland?
A. Praire – Eurasia C. Praire – Australia
B. Steppe – Australia D. Veld – South Africa
Good Luck!!
Set by Masresha
Sisay
2004 E.C 1 SEMESTER CIVIC & ETHICAL EDUCATION 1st MODEL EXAM
st
FOR GRADE 8
Part I: Choose the best answer. Time allowed 1
hr
1. Civic education started in
A. Egypt C. Abyssinia
B. United States of America D. Greece E. all
2. During the Derg regime, Ethiopia’s leading philosophy was
A. the establishment of communist society C. to establish democratic rights
B. the creation of responsible citizens D. to fight poverty and illiteracy
3. Ethics studies
A. good behaviors only C. good and bad; right and wrong behaviors
B. bad behaviors only D. all
4. Citizens have the right to know decisions made by the government assembly and how these
are implemented. This means:
A. multi party system C. separation of power
B. transparency and accountability D. all
5. All are the characteristics of democratic government, except:
A. It respects democratic election
B. It follow the separation of power
C. it enhance the culture of participation of its citizens
D. it promote disputes
6. When workers are ethical in their profession, it creates
A. mental dissatisfaction C. trust worthiness
B. link with corruption D. problems in relation to others
7. Suppose that there are 70 students in a class and all participate in the election of their
representatives. Therefore, they already practiced democracy.
A. indirect B. direct C. both direct and indirect D. pure
8. Which one of the following is expected from self reliant person?
A. Always looking the support of others
B. developing personal vision and program
C. upbringing children by making them dependent
D. Blaming others for the failure of oneself
9. The improper usage of time, poor performance in education and work leads to:
A. national development C. national poverty
B. strong diplomatic power D. economic progress
10. Which one of the following is not true about saving?
A. It is a means to avoid dependency C. It can be saved in traditional institutions
B. It helps to create self confidence in work D. It has personal significance but not national
11. Which one is not true about direct democracy? It
A. involves all citizens in decision making
B. can be applied in small and manageable groups
C. allow participation through representative
D. is an easy way to reach to common consensus
12. All are true about the FDRE constitution except
A. authorizes foreign affairs to regional government
B. ratified by representatives of nation, nationalities and peoples
C. is the supreme and fundamental law of a country
D. defines the power of federal regional government
13. A body of action or conduct lay down by the government to resolve disagreements is
A. social norm B. religion C. political opinion D. law of country

14. Which one does not belong to equality?
A. Privileging some groups over others C. participating in democratic election
B. respecting all language and cultures D. fair access to national resources
15. Human beings can worship what they like. This refers to equality.
A. political B. religious C. national D. language
16. All are true about justice except; it’s
A. a prerequisite to fulfill the right of citizens
B. a base for prevalence of peace and stability
C. an indicator of shouldering burdens with out benefits
D. a crucial factor for sustainable development
17. Which one is not true about importance of fair distribution of resources? It
A. allows balanced economic and political advancement
B. facilitates people right to equal benefits and responsibilities
C. encourages strong ties and interdependence among people
D. enhances conflicts among societies of different groups
18. is a wealth that is on going and can not be regained if it once passed.
A. Land B. Mineral C. Time D. Money
19. Which group can not play significant role in solving problems by sharing their experience and
abilities?
A. teachers B. family members C. mentally ill persons D. elders council
20. All are the advantages of reading except:
A. helps to acquire new findings C. widens ones mental horizon
B. enhance the superiority feeling over others D. develop ones ability to comprehend
21. The foundation of a democratic system will be stronger in all are observed except
A. decisions on the basis of discussion C. aggressive characteristics over others
B. participation in election process D. involving in development activities
22. Which one is not true about social life? It is
A. based on mutual respect C. targeted for common benefits
B. allows interdependence and cooperation D. work for individual interest than group
23. The term saving refers to:
A. using money for daily needs C. living simple life without plan
B. always expecting help from others D. proper accumulation of money for future
24. In representative democracy
A. people do not elect their leaders
B. people elect their leaders
C. people can not directly participate in political activities D. b and C
25. In representative democracy, the elected members are responsible to
A. pass political decisions on behalf of the people
B. formulate laws
C. promote and safe guard the interest of the people they represent D. all
26. In representative democracy, the PM and president are elected by
A. the people directly C. united nations general assembly
B. the representatives of the people D. African union
27. Popular participation
A. develops the exercise of democracy C. protects the rights and privileges of people
B. results in dictatorial leaders D. A and C
28. Eritrea was federated with Ethiopia in
A. 1950 B. 1952 C. 1962 D. 1949
29. The current constitution has chapters and articles.
A. ten chapters and 106 articles C. six chapters and 85 articles
B. eleven chapters and 106 articles D. five chapters and 106 articles
30. The purpose of constitution is to
A. define the kind of state to be established
B. show the functions of the different state organs
C. describe the type of social-economic system
D. define the principle of national defence E. all
31. Ethiopia’s first constitution was ratified on
A. July 16, 1931 B. May 16, 1955 C. June 16, 1931 D. September 16, 1987
32. King Haile Sillassie was forced to ratify the constitution. The reason was:
A. he was exposed to European practice C. to build up his reputation
B. to win international image D. to reunify the country E. all
33. Before 1931, Ethiopia,

A. had no written constitution C. used ‘Fetha Negest’ as a constitution
B. had written constitution D. A and C
34. One of the following is not a responsibility.
A. Paying taxes C. not stealing some one’s property
B. Obeying laws and regulations D. not respecting people
35. Open-mindedness means
A. not to say anything against someone’s ideas
B. not to believe in equality
C. to consider others views and ideas D. all
36. One of the following is not the objective of collecting taxes.
A. for salaries of employees C. to by the necessary office furniture
B. to develop infrastructure D. for authorities to buy houses and beautiful cars
37. The sources for the rule of law are
A. constitution B. domestic laws C. international laws D. all
38. Which of the following is a cause for corruption?
A. presence of unqualified officials C. inefficiency
B. presence of too selfish people D. all
39. Which one of the following is an example of civic participation?
A. attending public meetings C. taking part in peaceful demonstrations
B. discussing issues with government officials D. all
40. In Ethiopia, the right to vote was ratified in
A. 1963 B. 1955 C. 1978 D. 1987
41. Which one of the following is not true about HIV/AIDS? It
A. threats all human beings C. affects mainly elder people in a country
B. has many social economic risks D. is aggravated by poverty
42. What does it mean to respect other’s ideas?
A. to accept others ideas C. to avoid differences of ideas
B. to forget one’s own ideas D. to respect the speaker
43. Which one of the following is the result of planned life?
A. living beyond one’s capacity C. Being competent and efficient in life
B. Depending on others for basic needs D. Blaming others for one’s own mistakes
44. All of the following are the major principles of domestic system except:
A. political power through competitive election C. majority rule minority right
B. popular sovereignty of the people D. absolute power of individual
45. Which one of the following is a result of discriminatory procedures?
A. motivating in work C. disagreement and uprising
B. securing peace and stability D. taking care for others
46. Completing assignment tasks by the given deadline related with saving in
A. cash B. kind C. time D. energy
47. Individual and collective responsibilities includes all except
A. defending one’s country C. protecting public resources
B. retarding dev’t D. preventing crimes
48. The right to elect and to be elected is stated in the FDRE constitution of article
A. 38 B. 41 C. 40 D. 37
49. Which one of the following is not harmful practice in a society?
A. supporting disabled individual C. female genital mutilation
B. early marriage D. bribery
50. Promoting democracy can be achieved in the following ways except:
A. cooperation and hard work C. establishing good governance
B. active community participation D. giving priority to personal advantages
51. is a positive discrimination that seek to help formerly disadvantage groups to
catch up with others society.
A. Justice B. Affirmative action C. equality of women D. fairness
52. Paying tax is
A. burden B. duties C. right D. all
53. refers to that worker is unable to come to work to health related reasons or
beyond the employees control.
A. Voluntary absenteeism C. lack of punctuality
B. Involuntary absenteeism D. B and C
54. It is one of from economically models that government monopolized the ownership of property.
A. capitalism B. planned economy C. free market economy D. none
55. There are expenses for items and services that your want rather than need.
A. fixed B. flexible C. A and B D. none
56. refers to readiest to consider the ideas of others.
A. Civility B. Open-mindedness C. polite D. all
57. Knowing who and what you knowing how to act is
A. self –esteem B. self-concept C. self-awareness D. B and C
58. Citizens of Ethiopia have the right to speak by their languages as it is stated in the article
A. 37 B. 25 C. 27 D. 35
59. A table of the expenditure and income for a family refers
A. family planning B. budget C. family budget D. B and C
60. Which one of the following is correct matched in the government body system?
A. legislative is interpret law C. executive is formulating law
B. Judiciary is making law D. executive is enforcing law
Set by Frewoin
Good Luck!

BNB 2004 E.C 1st Sem. Model &amp; Final Exam

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BNB 2004 E.C 1st Sem. Model &amp; Final Exam

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BNB LEARNING CENTRE ELEMENTARY

2004 E.C 1st SEMESTER CIVICS FINAL EXAM FOR GRADE 6

Name Section Roll. No Score

1. What system is established through the interests of the people?

Part II: Say true or false

1. If the law of a given country is violated it is impossible to learn in a proper way.

Part III: Matching

Part IV: Jot down what you feel

2. Write down at least 3 student responsibilities in the school compound

Name Section Roll. No Score

Part IV: Give short answer.

1. List at least five branches of biology. (2.5 pts).

3. Write difference between marine and fresh water. (2 pts)

4. Write how plants adapt desert habitat. (2.5 pts)

2. Give at least two examples of desert animals.

Name Section Roll. No Score

1. Tolive peace fully people should solve their differences through

Part II: Fill in the blank space

1. is about evaluating right & wrong behavior

Part III: Matching

Part IV: True or false

1. Equality means absolute similarity.

Name Section Roll. No Score

Part I: Choose the best answer

1. Which one of the following shows the necessity of the constitution?

B. Regional and international D. Keble and Regional

Part II: Matching

Part III: True or false

Part IV: Fill in the blank pace

Name Section Roll. No Score

1. Which one of the following is the main importance of line?

Part III: True or false.

1. Black and white colours are example of primary colours.

Write two examples of historical heritages found in Ethiopia?

Name Section Roll. No Score

1. Which one of the following is the main importance of painting?

Part II: Write True or false.

1. Form refers to three dimensional shape.

What is art element?

Name Section Roll. No Score

Part I: Say true or false

Part II: Choose the correct answer

Part III: Matching

Name Section Roll. No Score

1. The digestive system is made ap of nose, windpipe and lungs.

Part II: Choose the correct answer

11. Which of the following make up the circulatory system?

Part III: Matching

Name Section Roll. No Score

1. Wind has definite direction.

Part II: Choose the correct answer

1. Dust carries in the air.

Part II: Matching

- Force - windmill - sparrow

1. Is used to pump water.

2. On a windy day wind blows

4. We must breathe clean cir

6. Is a very small bird.

Set by Aschalew Adane

Name Section Roll. No Score

Part I: Say true or false. Time allowed

1. Big plants are called trees.

Part II: Matching

Part III: Choose the correct answer.

BNB 2004 E.C 1st Sem. Model & Final Exam

BNB 2004 E.C 1st Sem. Model & Final Exam

a) 100, 200 , _, __