BNB 2006 E.C 1st Sem. Final & 1st Model Exam

BNB LEARNING CENTRE ELEMENTARY SCHOOL
2006 E.C 1st SEMESTER CHEMISTRY FINAL EXAM FOR GRADE 7
Name Sec. Roll No. Score

Part I: True or false (5 pus.) Time allowed
1. Balancing chemical equation does not involve the application of the law of
conservation of mass
2. Total mass of reactant is equal to total mass of product. This means that matter can
be created or destroyed.
3. The coefficients of symbols or formulas indicate the number of moles.
4. One mole of any substance contains one dozen of objects.
5. Valencies are balanced with in the composition.
6. Cations are to the lose of electrons as anions are to gain of electron (s).
7. The expression Al+++ indicates that aluminum has gained 3 electrons.
8. Solubility directly depends on the temperature.
9. The valency of hydrogen in A l+3 is 3.
10. No country of the world uses today neither the symbols of Alchemists nor Dalton’s
Part II: Matching type (5 pts)

Column A Column B
1. Separation of solute mixtures A. Decantation
from the same solution by cooling process
2. Fractions of crude oil are separated by B. 12 pieces
boiling point difference
3. Sodium chloride is produced from sea C. Filtration
or lake water by
4. Local alcohol (katikala) is made by D. 1 dozen
5. The Ethiopian coins are example of E. Homogeneous mixture
6. The liquid portion left in the process of F. Dimple distillation
fractional crystallization
7. Blood and milk are examples of G. separator funnel
8. Separation of sand from water H. 6.02 x 10 23
9. Residue + Filtrate I. Evaporation
10. Avogadro’s Number J. Crystallization
K. Mother liquor
L. Heterogeneous mixture
M. Immiscible
N. Fractional distillation
Part III: Choose the correct answer.
11. Agent of a chemical reaction that speed up or retard the chemical reaction
A. electricity C. dissolving in water
B. heat energy D. catalyst E. all of the above
12. Which of the following is true about compounds?
A. Heat energy is either involved in or evolved out
B. The components have different proportions
C. The components are separated by physical means
D. No new substance is formed E. all of the above
13. A mixture of salt, sand and alcohol can be sequentially separated as follow:-
A. Evaporation – Dissolution – Decantation – Distillation
B. Dissolution - Decantation – Evaporation – Dissolution
C. Dissolution – Decantation – Distillation – Evaporation
D. Decantation – Evaporation – Dissolution – Distillation
E. Distillation – Decantation – Dissolution - Evaporation
14. The expression N204 is correctly read as
A. dinitrogentetra oxide
B. tetra oxygen dinitrogen
D. nitrogen oxide E. four oxygen two nitrogen
15. The valency of calcium in ‘’CaO’’ is
A. 1 B. 2 C. O D. 4 E. not known
14 4
16. In the expression 3 7 N 2 we can say that:
A. There are 3 moles of nitrogen molecule.
B. The valence of nitrogen is four
C. The atomic number of nitrogen is seven
D. The atomic mass of nitrogen is fourteen. E. all of the above
17. Which of the following process does not use heat energy?
A. distillation C. evaporation
B. crystallization D. flectional distillation E. Non of the above
18. Saturated solution is said to be :-
A. more solute can be dissolved by that anuat of temperature
B. No more solute can be dissolved at the given temperature
C. More solvent can be observed than the amount 8 solute.
D. All of the above E. none of the above
19. Which of the following properties does not coincide with metals?
A. iusterousity C. brittle and insulator
B. malleability D. High melting and boiling paint
E. ductile and conductors
20. If a solution is sour, release H+ ion in water solution, and turn blue
litmus to red then it is
A. an acid B. a base C. a salt D. a gas E. a bile
21. All of the following compounds have the same property except:-
A. ZnO B. AI2O3 C. Fe2O3 D. PbO E. A and D
22. Which of the following natural sciences have a close relation?
A. chemistry and physics C. biology and physics
B. chemistry and biology D. physics and Mathematic E. all of the above
23. The only liquid non – metallic element is
A. mercury C. bromine
B. water D. B and C E. oil
44. Ag stands for the element silver. The symbol is derived from:-
A. latin name C. Greek name
B. English name D. Arab name E. Amharic name
25. When the expression P + O2 ---- P2O5 is correctly balanced, then the coefficient of
phosphorus, oxygen and phosphorus pent oxide respectively will be:-
A. 2,4,5, B. 4,5,2, C. 5,2,4, D. 2,5,4 E. 1,2,3
26. Chemical changes are very important because they help us to:-
A. produce new substances with new properties
B. produce new form of energy
C. make size and shape of substances as we need
D. A and B E. none
27. Which of the following is not chemical formula
A. 2H2 B. O2 C. O2- D. 2H E. C and D
28. One of the following is different from the others. Identify.
A. H2 B. N2 C. CO2 D. Br2 E. CI2
29. The valiancy of carbon in CO2 is:-
A. 4 B. 1 C. 2 D. O E. can not be determined
30. Short hand expression of chemical reaction using symbols and formula is called:-
A. chemical symbol C. chemical reaction
B. chemical formula D. abbreviation E. all of the above
Part IV: Work out 10 pts
1. Write the correct symbols for the following
A. gold
B. mercury
C. silver
2. Name the following symbols and formulas.
A. P =
B. Cu =
K=
3. Write a chemical formula with respect to the given valences in parenthesis
A. calcium (2) hydroxide (1)
B. Iron (3) oxygen (2)
4. Balance the following chemical reactions using LCM method. Show all the necessary steps.
A. AI+O2 AI2O3
Step 1
Step 2
Step 3
Step 4
B.P+O2 P2O3
Step 1
Step 2
Step 3
Step 4
Set by Afework Abera

2006 E.C 1st SEMESTER MUSIC FINAL EXAM FOR GRADE 3
Part I: Choose the best answer Time allowed 40’
1. is a system moral principle that govern a person’s behavior.

A. unity B. Ethics C. song D. none
2. Ethiopia has languages.
A. over 80 B. under 80 C. 50 D. 56
3. Is the organization of musical time.
A. Duration B. pitch C. Rhythm D. none
4. Music notes started being century.
A. 12 B. 13 C. 14 D. 15
5. The traditional song tells conditions of the society.
A. past B. present C. future target D. all
Part II: Match the following B – A

A B
1. A. Eighth note
2. B. whole note
3. C. Half note
4. D. Whole rest
5. E. half rest
6. F. quarter rest
7. G. eighth rest
8. H. quarter note
9. Note I. Musical sound
20. Rest J. Musical silence
Set by Wondimu Beyene

1. is the organization of musical time.
A. Melody B. rhythm C. pitch D. none
2. The music notes came from the sings celled
A. Neumes B. notes C. rhythm D. all
3. Musical sound or tones as represented in written music are called
A. Rests B. Notes C. beat D. rhythm
4. is the musical key that appears at the beginning of every staff.
A. staff B. clef C. bar D. none
5. clef starts from the second line and also called treble clef.
A. F – Clef B. staff C. G – clef D. none
Part II: Say true or false.
6. Beat or pulse can be compared with the heart beat & pulse rate.
7. The staff is composed of seven lines & six spaces.
8. The correspondence rest for half note is whole rest.
9. Rests are characters used to indicate sound.
10. The beat will be speed up or slow down.
11. The traditional songs such as, Hoyahoye, Asinabe, Abebeayehush are
holidays song.
12. Ethics is the state of being united or an agreement to live in the same place.
13. While people sing a work song, they do not think about the work’s
heaviness.
14. By looking the dance style, we can identify the nation.
15. Intensity is the value of notes and rests.
Part III: Match the following B –A

A B
1. G – clef A.
2. F – clef B
3. Staff C. composed of five lines

4. Whole rest D. Bass clef
5. Halfrest E. treble clef
2006 E.C 1st SEMESTER CIVIC & ETHICAL EDUCATION FINAL EXAM
FOR GRADE 6

1. All of the following are concepts of democratic system except,

A. Rights & responsibilities are inseparable
B. People are treated unfairly
C. Majority votes are promoted
D. citizens are administered by law
2. Which one of the following is not manifestation of equality?
A. promoting self – governance of people. C. Respecting ones & others culture.
B. Developing free thinking & discussion. D. Discriminatory activities & works.
3. All of the following are beneficiaries from transparency & accountability except
A. corrupted officials C. Civil servants
B. Citizens of a country D. government agencies
4. Both men & women should get equal status & opportunity in their life. This refers to
equality.
A. religious B. gender C. political D. language
5. Which one of the following negatively affects rightful judgment?
A. Examining evidences C. Decision based on laws
B. Following regulations D. using biased witness
6. Which one is the advantage of knowing true history & culture of a country?
A. promote conflict C. Avoid mutual trust
B. Help to create bias D. Developing patriotic sentiments
7. If every one fulfills his / her responsibility;
A. promises can be kept
B. continuation of a peaceful
C. It does not create problems for one’s social life D. all of the above
8. Keeping historical heritage is the responsibility of
A. all citizens C. public officials
B. History researchers D. Government offices
9. If discrimination is avoided & all citizens get equal access;
A. It is possible to maintain sustainable development
B. Score high achievement in education
C. Increase patriotic sentiments D. all
10. are laws of the regions that govern self administration.
A. Federal constitution C. constitution
B. Regional constitution D. A & B
Part II: Matching

A B
1. Culture A. membership of a country
2. Natural resource B. transmittable disease
3. Citizenship C. not being lair
4. AIDS D. not done by human knowledge
5. Loyalty E. the identity of people
6. Giving fair advantage for relatives F. tolerance
7. leads to peace, love and mutual G. nepotism
understanding
8. Patriotism H. treating differently
9. Discrimination I. democratic sense
10. Manifestation of equality J. equality of culture
Part III: True or false
1. Every one has a duty of conserving the heritages of his / her country as if it were
his/her own property.
2. Good behavior is the spice of a good personality.
3. The family is the basis for the creation of responsible citizens.
4. Women can work, create & lead just as a man can do.
5. There are ethical standard expected from students at school level but not at country
level.
6. The main function of legislative body is interpreting laws.
7. Building democratic systems refers to creating & developing democratic citizens &
culture.
8. The prevalence injustice in a country or society leads to diminishing the sense of
patriotism.
9. It a child is born from one Kenyan father or mother he/she has the right of
citizen ship. This way of attaining citizen ship is known as citizen ship by
naturalization.
10. The importance of keeping & conserving the natural & historical heritage is to
create a conducive & suitable environment.
Set by Freweini H
FOR GRADE 5
Part I: True or false Time allowed 45’
1. It is correct to use unequal acts some times.

2. A democratic system is a system by which people are governed by elected officials.
3. Democratic rights are rights given for individuals & peoples who are citizens of a
given democratic system.
4. In order to live a peaceful & ensure a mutual co – existence, law is necessary.
5. The culture of any nationality should be respected by other peoples of nationality.
6. There is no limit of power for school directors.
7. The main role of modern judicial institutions is to keep justice.
8. One of the reasons for the violation of justice is lack of respect to the rule of law.
9. A law at any place has to be respected by its citizens.
10. A patriotic person has to show his/her own patriotic feeling in practice.
Part II: Matching

A B
1. Justice A. kebele social courts
2. Understanding the issue properly B. citizen ship
3. Modern judicial bodies C. Way of living
4. Respected people D. giving proper decision
5. Legal member ship of a country E. The procedure of justice giving
6. Culture F. Traditional judicial bodies.
7. Equal opportunity of rights & advantages G. Equality
8. Rule of law H. difference in sex, age & colour
9. Diversity I. Regions, 5
10. Somale regional state J. No one is above the law
K. Region, 4
Part III: Fill the correct answer on the space provided.
1. is attempt based on self – initiation to help others.

2. are solution giving bodies for disputes & disagreements in the
community.
3. makes human way of life easy.
4. is about loving one’s own country.
5. persons need support from government, society & humanitarian
organizations
Part IV: Choose the best answer
1. is giving judgment based on non discriminatory & impartial

decision or witness.
A. Equality B. Justice C. Democracy D. none
2. means making advantage to same body or to one self on the
expenses of others.
A. Favoritism C. Impartial
B. Partiality D. A & B E. A & C
3. is when people are not getting basic needs suchas clothes, food
& shelter.
A. poverty ` C. Discrimination
B. Equality D. Backwardness
4. People of our country should get equal form their countries resource.
A. judgment B. Benefit C. Tax D. all
5. In which of the areas is judicial process is important?
A. At school C. At family
B. At kebele D. At country E. all of the above
Set by Freweini – Hailu

2006 E.C 1st SEMESTER SOCIAL STUDIES FINAL EXAM FOR GRADE 6
Part I: Write true if the statement is correct and write false if the statement
is incorrect. (1 point each)
Time allowed 50’
1. River Nile is a longest river of our world.
2. Rapid population growth can create shortage of food supply.
3. Kenya is the first most populous country of Eastern Africa.
4. Ocean is the largest body of salt water.
5. Blue colour represents vegetation on map.
6. Rift valley was formed before 1000 years.
7. Mesosphere is the lower portion of the atmosphere.
8. Lake Langano is the largest lake in Eastern Africa.
9. Generating hydroelectric power is one of economic uses of water.
10. The Konso people are known for their terracing technique.
Part II: Choose the correct answer. (1 pts each)

11. One of the following continent is the smallest continent in respect to its size.
A. Asia B. Australia C. Africa D. Europe
12. Most of Eastern African Rivers are not navigable because of:
A. deltaic mouths B. seasonal flow fluctuation C. deep gorges D. all
13. One of the following is true about uses of colours on map.
A. Map colours are always consistent on a single map
B. Green colour is used to represent water body.
C. Colours used on maps have no any relationship to the object on the ground.
D. B and C
14. A type of soil, which is deposited by a river is known as
A. alluvial soil B. loes soil C. sand soil D. none
15. The second layer of the atmosphere is
A. troposphere B. mesosphere c. stratosphere D. thermosphere
16. The biggest Island country of eastern Africa is
A. Morities B. Madagascar C. Seychelles D. Reunion
17. Which of the following mountain located close to Kilimanjaro in Tanzania?
A. Mt. Meru B. Mt. Margherita C. Mt. Kenaya D. Mt. Elgon
18. A low lying land feature in Eastern Africa is found in
A. Uganda B. Cameron C. Ethiopia D. Kenya
19. One of the following physical feature formed by the sinking of land between two roughly
parallel fault.
A. Mountain B. Rift valley C. River valley D. B and C
20. All are the rift valley lake of Eastern Africa. Except:
A. Lake Tanganyika B. Lake Malawi C. Lake Tana D. Lake Kiyu
21. Lake Victoria is divided among three countries of Eastern Africa namely
A. Somalia, Kenya and Tanzania C. Ethiopia, Kenya, Eritrea
B. Kenya, Burundi, Ruanda D. Uganda, Tanzania
22. In which lake of Ethiopia relatively boat transport is developed.
A. Lake Chamo B. Lake Hawassa C. Lake Tana D. Lake Shalla
23. Which dam of Ethiopia used for enhancing irrigation activities?
A. Koka dam B. Gibe dam C. Tekeze dam D. none
24. Which layer of the atmosphere consists of gases, much water vapour and clouds?
A. Troposphere B. stratosphere C. mesosphere D. all
25. Each symbol of a map is explained by using
A. Key B. Lagend C. A and B D. all
Part III: Match words /phrases under column ‘A’ with their appropriate under
column ‘B’1 pt each)
A B
26. Tropopause A. navigable river
27. Eastern branch rift valley B. bisect Kenya in to north and south
28. River Baro C. Zone marking the end of troposphere
29. Signs and symbols D. the air surrounds the earth
30. Kobar sink E. the lowest area of eastern Africa
31. Atmosphere F. map language
Part IV: Fill in the blank spaces with suitable words or phrases.
1. is a valley formed as a result of sinking of land between two

parallel cracks. (1 point)
2. Atmosphere mainly consists the mixture of , and
gases in very much varied proportion. (1.5 point)
Colour Represented feature
a Green
b Water bodies
3. (2.5 points)
c Brown
d Lower plateau
e Highest peaks
4. Write down at least three dams used for generating HEP. In our country.
Bonus
Write the atmospheric layers.
Set by Tewodros and Nasir

is incorrect
Time allowed
1. Hemisphere is half of a sphere (the earth).
2. Kafitcho people are the speakers of Omotic family.
3. Apparent movement of the earth is the real movement.
4. In context of Ethiopia kiremt is the dry and sunny season.
5. The first military training school of Ethiopia was established at Holeta
6. Pastoralism is an economy based on only farming.
7. Enset is one of the most important crops of Walayita.
8. The pole to pole diameter is longer than equatorial diameter.
9. Zigba is one of Highland tree.
10. Revolution of the earth is the complete movement of the earth within 24 hours.
11. Forests are the community of plant.
12. Danakil Depression is classified under Desert area.
Part II: Choose the correct answer and write your Answer on the space
provided by using only pen and capital letter.
13. One of the following is found in 3000m altitude and above.
A. lowland forest C. Desert
B. High mountain vegetation D. semi desert
14. One of the following is the first step to draw sketch map.
A. measuring the Base (on ground ) C. Determining the size of paper
B. Drawing D. all
15. Indentify the odd one:
A. Ras Dejen B. Chilalo C. Danakil Depression D. Guna
16. One of the following experiences heavier rain than other seasons:
A. Bega B. Meher C. Tsedey D. Kiremt
17. The culture of the highlanders and lowlanders are the same.
A. true B. false
18. Which one of the following is true about urban settlement?
A. schools and shops are observed well.
B. there are informal job opportunities.
C. in urban areas there are big buildings.
D. all.
19. Which one of the following is lowland tree?
A. Tid B. Kosso C. Weira D. Girar
20. One of the following is wrong about orbit:
A. It is not perfect circle C. It’s shape is not elliptical
B. It is perfect circle D. all of the above
21. What is the reason for the variation of length of day and night?
A. incoming and outgoing seasons C. Agriculture
B. Apparent movement of the sung D. none
22. is the complete movement of the earth on its axis round the sun.
A. Rotation B. Revolution C. Orbit D. Axis
23. The equatorial diameter is about kilometer
A. 12,700km B. 2312km C. 12, 660 km D. 365km
Part III: Match the Item under B with its appropriate item under A
A B
24. Seasonal migration of pastoralists A. vegetation
25. A place where heritages are found B. currency
26. Money used as a medium of exchange C. Desert
27. Point towards things (person) faces D. Bega
28. Hot and dry season E. Location
29. The people who involved in both F. Kiremt
farming and postoralism
30. Region with no forest G. Archeological site
31. Plant community H. Trans humance
I. semi – pastoralists
J. Direction
Part IV: Fill in the blank spaces with appropriate words phrases
32. The portion of the earth where temperature is high is known as
33. is four divisions of the year.
34. A natural region where grass grows largely is known as
Part V: Give short answer

35. Write the name of two types of forests in Ethiopia
a) b)
Bonus
36. Write the name of months that are found in Meher Season (in Northern hemisphere)
Set by Tewodros H
Part I: If the statement is true write "A" the statement is false write "B"
Time allowed
1. The organized colony of human being together with their residence is known as
settlement.
2. Ethiopia has not much benefited from its fish resources.
3. Western Africa is the world’s largest producer of palm oil.
4. Ethiopia ranks frist in Africa and tenth in the world in its cattle population.
5. Cattle are very important in the sife of people in the savannah land of Africa.
6. In shifting cultivation using ploughs is impossible.
7. The concentration of people in an area is associated only with climatic factor.
8. Scale decides the amount of detail which can be shown on amap.
9. Date of publication on amap is used to identify the purpose of the map.
10. The crust of the earth is made up of only by surface cover of alluvial soil.
Part II: Matching

A B
1. Molten rock A. population denisity
2. Modern agriculture B. Lake Chamo, Abaya & Ziway
3. The regional setting C. peasant cultivation
4. Oceanic crust D. cartographer
5. Map makers E. sima
6. Volcanic rock F. Extrusive Rock
7. Made up of minerals H. situation
8. The number of people living in a given area I. Magma
9. Settled agriculture J. Rocks
10. Rift Valley Lake of Ethiopia K. Sial
L. Granite
M. Large scale farming
Part III: Choose the best answer from the given alternative.
1. A type of map that shows both the natural and human made object on the surface
of the earth is
A. physical map C. topographic map
B. political map D. Topical map
2. The marginal in formation used to identify the purpose of map is.
A. scale B. date C. title D. Distance
3. Which of the following scale of a map can be expressed in the form of fraction or
ratio?
A. linear scale C. Representative fraction
B. Graphic scale D. scale statement
4. A type of agriculture practiced both crop production and lives tock is - - - -
A. shifting agriculture C. peasant cultivation
B. sedentary agriculture D. livestock farming
5. What measure is necessary to benefit our country from the fish resources?
A. using improved tools C. changing the food habit of the people
B. conserving the fish resources D. all the above
6. Which of the following is an area of high population concentration?
A. the Kalahari C. the coastal plain of horn of Africa
B. the Nile delta D. the sahara desert
7. All are true about the formation of Igneous Rock. Except
A. it is drived rock from Molten material
B. Formed from by the cooling of magma
C. Made from by the agent of erosion and deposition
D. formed by the result of volcanism
8. Among the following process, which one is the main factor for the formation of
different type of igneous rock.
A. Weathering process C. Melting of rock
B. fast and slow cooling condition of lava D. Lava over flow on the surface
9. When limestone changed into metamorphic rock it is called.
A. slate B. Graphite C. Marble D. Granite
10. The location of urban settlement depends up on
A. Air route C. old regional center
B. market center D. all of the above
11. All are affects population distribution. Except.
A. stage of economic development C. The language variation
B. level of technological development D. socio – political organization
12. One of the following rock formed with is the interior of the earth.
A. plutonic igneous rock C. intrusive igneous rock
B. Granite D. all of the above
13. Which country of Africa is well known by its palm oil production?
A. Algeria B. Nigeria C. Argentina D. Ethiopia
14. When lava over flow on the surface it gets cool and become hard. This is because
of
A. the high temperature of the surface
B. The combination of minerals with in a magma
C. The cool Temperature of the surface
D. The high gravity of the surface
15. One of the following is the major factors for the low development of road and rail
way transport in Africa.
A. Civil unrest C. disturbance
B. war D. A & B E. all
16. One of the following is not the characteristics of commercial grain farming.
A. More mechanized and fertilized
B. Mainly mono culture
C. developed by European colonizers
D. Mostly found in the low population area E. all of the above
17. The inner core of the earth is
A. Solid B. liquid C. Molten D. gas
18. What is very important in the life of people in the savannah land of Africa?
A. cattle Ranching C. pastoral farming
B. Rearing of animals D. all of the above
19. Which statement can describe Metamorphic rocks?
A. they are formed through the processes of deposition
B. they are changed rocks underground by high temperature and pressure.
C. they are made up of cooled magma
D. they are composed of organic remnants
20. Which one is different from the ather?
A. Granit B. Basalt C. obsidian D. volcanic rock
Part V: Short answer
1. The length between two point A and B is 8cm and the distance on the ground is 1600km.
A. Find scale of the map.
B. Express the scale of the map iin three way of scale. A
8cm
1600km
2. Write the appropriate answer in blank space 5 point.
Orininal rock Mathamorphic rock

A (S.R) Slate
B Granite (I.R)
C (S.R) Marble
D Sand stone (S.R)
E Coal (S.R)
3. Write the main rock and the process in blank space.

C
3
F
4 B
G
D
H 2
5
A
E 1
1. A.
2. B.
3. C.
4. D.
5. E.
F.
G.
H. Set by Nasr
Nuri
FOR GRADE 7
is incorrect
Time allowed 50’
1. Eradicating communal problem is only the responsibility of government.
2. Both accuser and accused person have the right to appeal.
3. The absence of Ethics in a given society encourages working hard.
4. Regional state council is the highest political organ in the region.
5. Cases of rape should kept as family secret by family member.
6. Not buying untaxed commodities is the responsibility of tax payer.
7. Modern patriotism focuses only on loving the topography of the country.
8. In FDRE there is no division of power between federal and regional government.
9. The Federal constitution unlimits the government power.
10. The colours of Ethiopian National flag is not the same throughout the history.
11. Voluntary service is an activity that one does willingly, without payment.
12. The Distribution of social Institutions in a country should be fair.
13. FDRE constitution is the document in which the equality of all Ethiopians is recognized.
Part II: Choose the correct Answer and write your Answer on the space
provided by using only pen and capital letter.
14. Identify the wrong statement about the FDRE constitution.

A. It includes both human right and Democratic right.
B. It ensures the equality of women with men.
C. It is written by interest of a single nationality.
D. In the constitution political, social and economic objectives are stated
15. One of the following is not the Impact of discriminatory procedure:
A. Instability B. war C. Development D. carelessness
16.Idenfity the name of the person who said the following saying “Ask what you
have done for your country not what your country has done for you”
A. Nelson Mandela C. John F. Kennedy
B. George W. Bush D. Abraham Linkon
17. Impartial judgment is:
A. passing unjust decision C. treating people unequally
B. expanding crime D. passing fair decision
18. All are the responsibility of tax payers except:
A. paying tax willingly C. selling untaxed commodities
B. providing information for tax collector D. none
19. Which one of the following is true about Derg Regime?
A. Democracy was highly manifested C. social Institutions were fairly distributed
B. Red terror was expanded D. there was absence of confict
20. is a means of expressing dissatisfaction about a decision.
A. Appeal B. Accuse C. patriotism D. Equality
21. When the religious right of citizens respected:
A. citizens become real patriot C. civil war will highly expand
B. fast growth will be discouraged D. all of the above
22. Modern judicial Institutions are:
A. Established by local elders C. It has no any contribution for peace
B. Established by government D. There is no such institution in Ethiopia
23. One of the following is manifestation of equality of nation, nationality and people
A. unfair justice
B. Gender equality
C. representation of people in house of peoples Representative D. all
24. Which one of the following is the responsibility of the citizen?
A. paying tax C. working hard toward the development of the country
B. opposing illegal act D. all of the above E. none
25. One of the following is the measure to be taken when the human right is violated.
A. Accusing C. keeping silent
B. killing the person D. fighting
26. Just procedures prevail when:
A. public officials fulfill their responsibility C. when there is lawlessness
B. when there is unequal treatment D. when there is selfishness
Part III: Match words or phrases under column A with correct items of
column B.
A B
27. Giving job for unfit relatives A. common responsibility of
government and people
28. Traditional judicial institution B. Legal or court decision
29. A Manifestation of modern patriotism C. local Elder groups
30. Destructive practice D. Nepotism
31. Eradication gender stereotype E. Being a good model for the society
32. Judgment F. stealing water pipe
33. Bribe G. Money that is given to
official to get unfair benefit
34. Accusation H. misusing public property
I. Bringing injustice action before court.
Part IV: Fill the correct answer in the space provided
35. Strong feelings of love, respect and duty towards one’s own country is called
36. is the condition of protecting and ensuring the life, liberty

and property of citizens.
37. A type of patriotism that is highly connected to the love of topography of the country,
rivers, etc is known as
38. Article of FDRE constitution states that every person can
follow a religion of her/ his choice.
39. Write at least four rights of tax players.

A. C.
B. D.
True/false Choose Matching
1. 8. 14. 21. 27.

2. 9. 15. 22. 28.
3. 10. 16. 23. 29.
4. 11. 17. 24. 30.
5. 12. 18. 25. 31.
6. 13. 19. 26. 32.
7. 20. 33.
34.
Bonus
1. Write the colour of current Ethiopian National Flag correctly (Following its order from top to
bottom; including the meaning of the colours and its emblem).
Good Luck!
Set by Tewodros H
2006 E.C 1st SEMESTER ENGLISH FINAL EXAM FOR GRADE 6
Part I: Reading passage Time allowed 40’
Read the following passage and answer questions that follow.
1. Rivers are very important. They provide us water for drinking. They are important for
transporting and producing electricity. Most rivers flow into the sea or ocean. The
appearance of the river changes as it flows along.
2. A river’s course has three main parts. They are upper, middle and lower. The upper stage
is usually V- shaped with step sides which are formed by fast flowing water. The slope on
gradient of the river – bed is very deep. In this part wider falls are common which are used
for electricity, In the middle stage the speed of the river decreases and becomes wider. In
the lower stage the amount of water increases but the speed is decreased. It flows in large
U-shaped curves called “ meanders “ Large amount of soil, which is carried by rivers, is
called “ sediments “ More sediment is deposited on the river - bed. This gradually builds up
to form flat is lands at the mouth of the river which are known as delta. The soil of the delta
is usually fertile.
(Adapted from Teaching’s Book)
1. In which stage of the river most fertile soil is found?

A. middle B. upper C. Not known D. lower
2. According to the passage, what is the name of the flat area at the mouth of the
river?
A. curve B. course C. delta D. Estuary
3. The fast flowing water at the upper stage is more useful for giving us than
any other uses.
A. food B. transport C. electricity D. water
4. What do you think about the size of V _ shaped in the upper stage, comparing to
the others? It is stage
A. the narrowest C. wider than the lower
B. as wide as the lower D. wider than the middle
Find the meanings of the underlined words as they are used in the passage.
5. They provide us water (line 1) means

A. produce B. give C. borrow D. take
6. “Gradient” of river - bed (line 6) means
A. curve B. meander C. slope D. sediment
7. A river’s course has three main parts (line 4) means:

A. top B. bottom C. mouth D. way
Reference question
8. they (line 4) refers to

A. is lands B. river beds C. rivers D. parts of the river
9. It (line 8) refers to
A. soil B. delta C. appearance D. river
10. Which (line 9) refers to
A. changes B. stages C. steep sides D. waterfalls
Part II: Choose the best answer from the given alternatives.
1. Ahmed: Did Demeke visit you?

Samson: Yes,
A. he visited me yesterday C. he doesn’t visit me yesterday
B. he didn’t visit me yesterday D. he visits me.
2. Asrat: Camel is a beautiful animal. What do you think?
Sisay: , tiger is more beautiful.
A. What B. I agree C. I think D. You are right
3. Solomon: Where is your home? Is it guided near?
Deneke: No, let’s get a taxi. It’s a long way to walk.
A. quite B. rather C. going to D. quite well
4. When we were in a war place, we drink polluted water.
A. will B. used to C. also D. are going to
5. When I a baby, I used to crawl.
A. am B. have C. want to be D. was
6. Feven: Where did you see our dog?
Sinoz: I saw it when it jumped the fence.
A. into B. dong C. under D. over
7. The story that I am reading is than the previous one.
A. Interesting C. the most interesting
B. more interesting D. more interest
8. I saw them the road.
A. among B. along C. against D. over
9. Alehegn: did Zemedkun say?
Selam: He said there was an exam.
A. What B. When C. Why D. Where
10. Hailu: Is there sugar for the tea?
Aklilu: yes, there is sugar.
A. Some/ any C. some/ some
B. any / some D. any/ any
11. There so many students in the school compound on Monday.
A. are B. is C. was D. were
12. Deneke: Do you know which is. the smallest planet is in our system?
Jebo: Pluto, isn’t it? I know it’s the away from the sun.
A. more for C. furthest
B. further than D. most furthest
13. English test was than that of Amharic.
A. more difficult C. the most difficult
B. difficult D. easy
14. A: What did you do with the money?
B:
A. Because I want to buy chocolate. C. when I went home, I saw chocolate.
B. I want to buy chocolate D. I bought chocolate.
15. My younger sister born ten years ago.
A. is B. were C. are D. was
Part III: Complete the following sentences with the appropriate form of the
adjective given in bracket.
1. My studying room is than my younger brother’s (narrow).
2. The farms used to be large, they are now (large)
3. She is the girl in our class. (beautiful)
4. The man is than my father. (tall)
5. The book I read yesterday was interesting, but this one is
(interesting)
6. The boy I saw yesterday was (polite) than this lady.
Set by: Asmamaw and Selamu

2006 E.C 1st SEMESTER ENGLISH FINAL EXAM FOR GRADE7
Time allowed 40’
Part I: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow
1. As the train pulled in to the railway station, a young man slept out of the train on the open area
of the entrance to the train. An engine cleaner, who had been there earlier in the day, had
dropped some oil on the entrance by mistake and now the man walked straight into it. He lost
his balance and fell to the ground, but quickly stood up and walked along the entrance, not
noticing that he had dropped his ticket when he fell.
2. An old man, who had lost his wallet, which he used for holding his money and his watch, went
to report the theft to the guard after the train had stopped. The guard kept the old man waiting
for a couple of minutes while he collected a parcel, some lamps and his flag, but then he
listened to the story as they walked. The old man said that he felt sure the wallet had been
stolen and he thought he knew who had taken it, as he had it at the last stop and only one
person had an opportunity to take it since there.
3. Meanwhile the ticket collector had refused to allow the man through the barrier, where people
are controlled not to move from one place to another be cause he had no ticket, and so the
young man stated to argue with him. Very annoyed at the delay, especially as it was nearly
lunchtime and they began to complain and shout.
4. At this point the old man and the guard grimed, and the old man whispered to the guard: That
is the man, the one with oil all over his trousers. At this time the guard ran off and comeback.
A minute later closely followed by a large policeman who was breathing heavily. The
policeman quickly interrupted the young man in his argument want the ticket collector and
arrested him much to the delight of the crowd. He was found to be in possession of both the
stolen things, which were returned to their owner, and then he was taken to the police station.
(Adapted from: Stories for Reading Comprehension By: L.A. Hill)
1. The young man
A. was very seriously hurt C. was not hurt at all when
B. did not fall at all D. fell and quickly stood up
2. The thief had stolen
A. a flag, a parcel and some lamps C. a wallet and a watch
B. the young man D. a wallet and a ticket
3. Who was arrested?
A. the ticket collector C. the old man
B. the young man D. the engine cleaner
4. For how long was the guard waiting for the old man while he collected his parcel,
some lamps and his flags?
A. More than two hours C. A couple of minutes
B. Only an hour D. A couple of hours
5. Why was the crowd happy?
A. Because the stain would not delay anymore
B. Because the thief was taken to prison
C. Because the stolen things were found.
D. Because the policeman interrupted the young man.
6. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. an old man B. guard C. ticket collector D. the guard
7. After the train had stopped, to whom the old man reported about the driver
A. the driver C. the ticket collector
B. the policeman D. the guard
8.” ……the open area of the entrance to the train” (Para 1 line 2 means:
A. chair B. room C. gate D. house
9. Meanwhile the ticket collector had refused to allow the man through the barrier
(Para.3 Line 13) means
A. give B. permit C. deny D. take
10. Very soon the rest of the crowd waiting at the barrier became very annoyed at the
delay. (Para 3 line 15) means
A. angry B. hungry C. relaxed D. happy
11. At this time the guard ran off and came back a minute later closely followed by a
large policeman (Para. 4line18) means
A. moved B. returned C. stayed D. went
Part II: Reference questions: Choose the word or phrase that refers to each
one of the following words taken from the reading passage
12. “Which “(Para. 2, line 7) refers to

A. watches B. the train C. wallet D. money
13. “He “(Para 3, line 7) refers to
A. the man B. the crowd C. the people D. the ticket collector
14. “They “(Para.2) refers to
A. the young man C. the old man and the guard
B. the crowd D. the ticket collector
15. “Who “(Para. 2, line 27) refers to
A. the guard B. the old man C. the young man D. policemen
Part II: Among the given alternatives below (A, B, C, D) choose the one that best
completes each question.
16. Men smoke in England and so women

A. is B. does C. has D. do
17. Sofanit: Who is leading the club, Meklit?
Meklit: The club led by me.
A. was B. was being C. were D. is being
18. While he his meal, his friend came in
A. had B. has C. is having D. was having
19. Kalkidan enjoys reading and
A. her sister is C. so does her sister
B. neither is her sister D. her sister is either
20. You can take the sweater the shirt; not both.
A. neither …. nor C. either …or
B. to … or D. not only … but also
21. I have my friend since I was ten years old.
A. knowing B. know C. knew D. known
22. Biruk: have you been here?
Dagim: Eight years.
A. How far C. How long
B. How much time D. How much years
23. Hanan enjoys during the month of Ramadan.
A. swim B. swam C. swimming D. swims
24. My aunt a beautiful basket last Saturday.
A. makes B. is making C. made D. make
25. Sofia usually to the football field.
A. hurries B. hurrys C. hurry D. is hurrying
Part III: Complete the sentences below by adding the correct word from the list
given.
carefully well fluently
loudly silently slowly hurriedly
26. You will not arrive in time if you walk

27. You need to learn a language before you speak it
28. Unless you speak people may not hear what you say.
29. If you behave , your parents will be proud of you.
30. Before you can answer the comprehension questions, you need to read the passage
. By Selamu T
B LEARNING CENTRE ELEMENTARY SCHOOL

Time allowed 40’
Read the following short passage and answer the questions that follow.
Ethiopian television (ETV) is an Ethiopian government owned television channel. It is the

only one in Ethiopia due to the government ban of private media. Its programming includes news,
sport, music and other entertainments. It airs in Amharic, Oromo, Somali, Tigrigna, Afar, French,
Arabic, Russian, Serbian as well as English.
ETV has entertainment programs like ‘Ethiopian idol’ which feature similar content to that
of American idol in addition to dancing competitions. In recent years ETV has transmitted a few
matches per week from some European foot ball leagues (2007 Spanish la liga ) 2008 English
premier league, plus some international matches. ETV transmits its programmes on 4 satellite
stations.
Ethiopian television was established in 1964 with assistance from the British firm,
Thomson. It was created to highlight the organization of African unity (OAU) meeting that took
place in Addis Ababa that same year. Color television broadcast began in 1982 in
commemoration of the founding of workers’ party of Ethiopia (WPE). The current structure and
goals of ETV were established in 1987 with proclamation 114/87. ETV has two regular channels
broadcasting to Ethiopia. ETV 1 the main channel with 24 hours coverage, with content on
culture, politics, documentaries, economy and movies. ETV 2 a channel mostly for Addis Ababa
TV, service, (the capital TV station) plus English, French, Serbian, Russian and Arabic language
programming.
Part I: Choose the correct answer.

1. Which one is a programming that ETV broadcasts?
A. sport B. news C. music D. all
2. Which statement is not true about ETV, according to the passage?
A. ETV airs only in three main languages.
B. IT was established in 1964.
C. ETV has two channels.
D. ETV transmits some international matches
3. One of the entertainment programmers that ETV transmits is
A. NEWS B. Ethiopian idol C. documentaries D. politics
4. Among the European football leagues, the Spanish foot ball league is also called:
A. Spanish la language C. Ethio league
B. Spanish premier league D. English premier league
5. How long does the main ETV channel transmit its programmes per day?
A. twelve hours B. twenty hours C. twenty four hours D. none
6. What happened to the ETV broadcast in 1982?
A. color TV broadcast began C. ETV was established
B. the proclamation was formed D. WPE was commemorated.
7. Which one is true about ETV. according to the passage?
A. ETV transmits its programs on four satellites.
B. ETV 2 channel is mostly for Addis Ababa TV service
C. British contributed to the establishment of ETV
D. All are true statements
8. Does ETV transmit in Arabic and Russian languages?
A. No, it doesn’t C. yes, it is
B. Yes, it does D. No, it is not
9. ETV is the only one in Ethiopia due to the government ban of private media, ban means
A. not allowed B. permitted C. Allowed D. none
Part II: Choose the best answer from the given alternatives.
10. A: does the train usually leave?

B: At 8:00 every morning
A. who B. what C. when D. where
11. Sable: Do you want to come over for dinner tonight?
Almaz: Oh, I’ m sorry, I can’t. I to a movie tonight with some friends.
A. go B. goes C. going D. gone
12. Last night I to Japan and visited Tokyo city
A. traveled B. travel C. travels D. travelling
13. Did you a musical instrument when you were a kid?
A. played B. play C. plays D. playing
14. A: what were you doing when you broke your finger?
B: I playing volleyball.
A. Is B. am C. was D. were
15. A: How long did you wait for them?
B: We for an hour.
A. wait B. waited C. waits D. waiting
16. The students are books in the library now.
A. read B. reads C. reading D. are read.
17. He threw the rubbish the pit.
A. in to B. to C. by D. through
18. A: does Abebe keep his money?
B: He keeps his money in the bank.
A. why B. when C. where D. How
19. She celebrated her birthday January 10th 2006.
A. in B. on C. at D. to
20. Seble completed her secondary education three years .
A. before B. passed C. after D. ago
21 A: Did you watch the foot ball match?
B: .It was very interesting
A. Yes, I did C. Yes, I do
B. No, I did not D. Yes, I was
22. Semera is one of the towns in Ethiopia.
A. hotter B. hottest C. hot D. hotness
23. The vulture grabbed a mole and flew away. Grabbed means:
A. came back C. took away
B. ran away D. near towards.
24. Kifle is a grownup person to elect and to be elected. Grown up means:
A. old B. very young C. easy D. strong
25. Ato kassa was the head of an organization. Head means:
A. pointer B. leader C. cleaner D. boundary
26. The school chose this site to build additional classrooms. Site means:
A. hole B. land C. place D. boundary
27. Scientists conducted research on some problems. Research means:
A. finding C. increase the number
B. make a study D. add quality
Part III: Choose the correctly rearranged sentences
28. A. He told a story his grandmother

B. He told his grand mother a story.
C. He his grand mother a story told.
29. A. Where the tourists do come from?
B. from where the tourists come?
C. Where do the tourists come from?
30. A. Do lions eat meat?
B. lions do meat eats?
C. Do eat meat lions?
BY Selemu & Shimelis
Abel and Alem on their farm Time allowed 40
Abel and Alem are friends. They live on a farm. Alem is quite
short. She is 12 years old. She has long hair and wears a blue T- shirt
she likes mathematics at school and she is a fast runner. Alem works
hard taking care of her goats, Abel is quite tall he is also 12 years old.
He has short hair and wears shorts, He play foot ball at school and read
books. He works hard taking care of his donkey.
Part I: According to the passage say ‘True’ or ‘False’.
1. Able works hard taking care of his cow.
2. Able and Alem are friends.
3. Alem is quite tall but Abel is quite short .
4. Alem likes mathematics at school.
5. Both of them are 12 years old.
Part II: Match the following words correctly.

“A” “B”
6. A loaf of A. books
7. A pile of B. sugar
8. A lump of C. bread
9. A herd of D. fire wood
10. A bundle of E. cattle

Part III: Choose the best answer
11. My father is as busy as a .

A. bee B. cat C. elephant
12. The opposites of give is .
A. take B. greet C. seat
13. The rich people must help the .
A. needy B. poor C. both
14. is your name?
A. when B. what C. who
15. Genet is tall, Senait is short.
A. but B. or C. and
16. Derartu Abebe are students.
A. or B. and C. but
17. A: is your home from the school?
B: Two kilometers
A. How far B. How often C. when
Part IV: Choose the one similar in meaning to the given word.
18. Injure
A. beat B. kick C. hurt
19. Old
A. ancient B. new C. young
20. Act
A. do B. still C. move
21. Bright
A. clears B. dull C. clean
22. Big
A. huge B. fat C. small
Set by Mulu and Tamirat

Part I: Read the passage below and answer the questions based on it
Lions Time allowed
The lion is a large mammal of the cat family some large males weigh
over 250 kg. It is the second largest living cat after the tiger. Lions are of then
called the “king of the beasts.” They are used as symbols representing
courage. Lions live for 10 to 14 years when they are in the wild. When they are
captured, they can live longer than 20 years. A group of lions is called a pride.
Lions hunt many animals, for example, antelopes. The lioness is ready to have
young when she is 2-3 years old. Baby lions are called cubs. Cubs are born
after 31/2 months.
Write say True of false
1. A group of lions is called a pride.

2. Lions are also called “king of the beasts!”
3. Lions live 40 to 60 years when they are in the wild
4. Baby lions are called cubs
5. Lions are used as symbols representing laziness.
Part II: Choose the correct answer
6. My is two years old.

A. son B. sun C. father
7. Abel and I grade three students.
A. is B. are C. am
8. Food with too much salt is food.
A. sweet B. salts C. salty
9. I always assist my mother in the kitchen. The word assist in this
sentence means
A. help B. easy C. hate
10. Abel was sick he didn’t go to school.
A. and B. but C. so
11. A: would you like some bread?
B: No, I don’t like food.
A. any B. much C. little
12. The comparative form of noisy is:
A. noisiest B. noisier C. noisyer
13. A: were you born?
B. I was B. when C. how
14. You drink me when you are thirsty who am I?
A. food B. water C. air
15. Bark is to dog as roar is to
A. hyena B. fox C. lion
Part III: Match words that can form compound words.

“A” “B”
16. Foot A. bow

17. Tooth B. path
18. Arm C. box
19. Match D. chair
20. Rain E. brush
Part IV: Fill in the blanks.
21. A girl who has luck is a girl.
22. A day with strong wind is a day.
23. A field with full of sand is a field.
24. A child with full of greed is a child.
25. A man with wealth is a man.
Set G.A
Part I: Match these words Time allowed 40

Name doing words
1. A driver A. bites
2. A teacher B. farms
3. A lion C. teaches
4. A farmer D. roars
5. A mosquito E. drives
Part II: put ‘a’ or ‘an’ before these words.
6. Egg
7. Bag
8. Ant
9. School
10. Elephant
Part III: Add ‘S’ or ‘es’ to make many.
11. Class
12. Book
13. Fox
14. Cup
15. Potato
Part IV: Add “ing”
16. Cry
17. Eat
18. Look
19. Play
20. Read
Set by Mulu G
Name Sec. Roll No. Scor
Part I: Read the passage and answer the questions given below it
Time allowed 40’
Abel
Abel is a grade two student He is eight years old. He is learning in BNB

School. He has two brothers and three sisters. Abel’s father is a teacher.
His mother is a nurse.
Fill in the blanks
1. Abel is a grade student.
2. He is learning in school.
3. Abel’s father is a
4. His mother is a
5. Abel is years old.
6. is the first day of the week.

A. Monday B. Sunday C. Saturday
7. I have two
A. book B. pen C. bags
8. is the last month of the year.
A. January B. December C. September
9. A: is the book?
B. It is on the table.
A. where B. when C. why
10. How books are there on the table?
A. much B. many C. one
11. Who sells meat?
A. teacher B. doctor C. butcher
12. The plural form of puppy is
A. puppies B. puppys C. puppyes
13. Which is different from the others?
A. Sunday B. Monday C. June
14. A: How old are you?
B:
A. My name is Hana.
B. I am eight years old.
C. I learn in BNB School.
15. A: did you eat your lunch.
B: I ate my lunch at 12: 00 o’clock yesterday?
A. when B. where C. why
Part III: Match the words that have the same sound
« A» « B»
16. hour A. it
17. know B. our
18. eight C. son
19. eat D. now
20. sun E. ate
Set by G. A.
2006 E.C 1st SEMESTER COMPUTER FINAL EXAM FOR GRADE 5
Part I: Answer if the statement is true or false if the statement is false

Time allowed 35’
1. Main frame computers are more power ful than min computers.
2. We can not classify the computer on the bas is of size.
3. Mini computer can not be called mid – range servers.
4. The computers of all the five generations have different properties.
5. Laptops are small sized machines that have the same power of desk top
Part II: Choose the best answer
1. Computer can be classified on the basis of the following.

A. size C. performance
B. cost D. all
2. is the large back ground area of the windows screen.
A. Icon C. Folder
B. Desk top D. all
3. Identify the smallest size micro computer in use these days.
A. super computer C. mini computer
B. palmtop computer D. desk top computer
E. all
4. Which one of the following is characteristics of computer?
A. versatility C. valuum tube
B. Transistor D. all
5. Which one of the following is an out put device?
A. LCD projector C. printer
B. Monitor D. all
6. is a small graphic and image display on the screen.
A. Desk top C. Folder
B. Icon D. all
7. Which one of the following is an In put device?
A. key board C. scanner
B. Mouse D. all
Part III: Matching column A with column B
A B
1. Characteristics of computer A. versatility
2. Main frame computer B. high processing speeds and can store
large amount of data
3. Mini computer C. large in size and they have small to
medium storage capacity
4. Micro computer D. small in size is also they do not have large
storage capacities
5. Super computer E. the largest and fastest computer
F. computers work at an amazing speed.
Part IV: Give short answer
1. Write the basic characteristics of computers.
1.
2.
3.
4.
2. List Major hard ware components of a computer system.
1.
2.
3.
4.
Bonus
1. ICT stands for

Part I: Say true or false Time allowed 35
1. System unit contains the mother board power supply and Hard disk.
2. Second generation computers use volume tube circuit.
3. The computers of all the five generations have different properties.
4. The computers that used transistors were called the first generation computers.
5. The third generation computers. Used to integrated circuit.
6. Super computer is fastest and most power ful computers.
1. Which one of the following is not the basic step in data processing cycle?
A. processing C. out put
B. In put D. collecting
2. Which one of the following is data or information entered in to computer?
A. out put C. in put
B. data D. processing E. all
3. Which one of the following monitor
A. LCD B. RAM C. CPU D. all
4. The internal part of a computer system is
A. soft ware C. key board
B. hard ware D. all
5. is a physical part of a computer system.
A. soft ware C. in put devices
B. hard ware D. all
Part III: Matching column A with column B

A B
1. First generation A. volatile
2. Third generation B. Transistor
3. Random access memory C. Integrated circuit
4. Second generation D. very large scale Integration
5. Fourth generation E. vacuum Tube
F. versatility
Part IN: Give short answer
1. List the generation of computers
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
2. Write at least three in put device and explain their function.
1.
2.
3.
Bonus
3. ICT stands for

Part I: Say true or false Time allowed 40’
1. The central processing unit contains the processing unit and memory.
2. You can read and write to a computer Rom.
3. CD – Rom often are used for multimedia material that combines text, graphics,
animation, and sound.
4. Buses transfers data or power between computer components inside computer.
5. Binary number system has only two digits.
1. Which one of the following is mother board components?

A. heat sink B. south bridge C. expansion slots D. all
2. Which one of the following is central process unit?
A. the brain of computer C. the large circuit board
B. the storage unit D. all
3. Which one of the following compact disk?
A. circuit board C. compact disk recordable
B. storage unit D. all
4. An operating system is considered part of .
A. word processing software C. data base soft ware
B. system software D. spread sheet software
5. is recorded once and read many times.
A. CD – R B. D – Rw C. CD – Rom D. all
6. The type of application soft ware most commonly used to creat and print
documents is.
A. word processing C. electronic spread sheet
B. data base D. browser
7. What is another name for computers main memory
A. RVM B. RAM C. FLUSh D. all
8. System board is
A. data and instruction C. random access memory
B. information D. The large circuit boarding computer
9. Which one of the following can read and write to many times.
A. CD – Rom B. CD – R C. CD – RW D. DVD ROM
10. Which one of the following is data.
A. It needs processing C. indirectly useful form
B. the collection of final results D. all
Part III: Match column A with column B

A B
1. Data bus A. Word
2. System soft ware B. transfer data CPU to other components
3. Control bus C. Low Level Language
4. Application software D. CD – RW
5. Compact Disk Recordable E. DVD – RW
6. Digital versatile Disk Rewritable G. Sends the control over each executable
code and data
G. CD – R
H. CD – ROM
1. List the main compact disk.
1. 2. 3.
2. List the main types of bus.
1. 2. 3.
Part V: Work out (show your steps)

1. Convert Binary to Decimal (101011)2
2. Convert octal to decimal (1505)8
3. Convert decimal to Binary (23)
Set by Megbar
Part I: Write true if the statement is correct and false if the statement is
incorrect.
Time allowed 50’
1. We can classify soft ware as Application and control unit.
2. Key board, mouse, scanner and desk top are in put devices.
3. Secondary storage units are also known as main memory.
4. The physical material that actually holds data is called storage medium.
5. ROM contains a large numbers of cells in which the data and instructions stored.
Part II: Choose the correct answer among the given alternatives
6. The size of the registers are also called

A. Bus size C. bit size
B. word size D. all
7. Which one of the following is not a storage medium.
A. Hard disk C. flash disk
B. Floppy disk D. none
8. it is large circuit board that hold expansion slot.
A. adapter card C. mother hoard
B. expansion card D. CU (control Unit)
9. Which one of the following is not a component of mother board.
A. connectors C. capacitor
B. Heat sink D. all
10. It is the brain of the computer.
A. CPU C. capacitor
B. mother board D. port
11. is a circuit board that enhances connection of a peripherals.
A. Adapter card C. cable
B. port D. DVD
12. is a transport medium of a computer.
A. Bus system C. Control unit
B. System unit D. All
Part II: Match the following
A B
1. CD – Rom A. It control or connect disk drive
2. CD – R B. It connects pc and tv
3. DVD – RW C. It connects computer and other peripherals
4. DVD – Rom D. Connect other computer through telephone wires
5. Disk controller E. a kind of DVD. The user cannot add an information
6. Modum F. a kind of CD – used to rewrite an information
7. Network G. the user can’t erase or add an information and it
is a kind of CD
8. Pc to TV H. Rewritable CD
I. Rewritable DVD
Part III: Give short answer
1. What is storage unit?
2. What is CPU?
Set by Sitota K.
2006 E.C 1st SEMESTER CHEMISTRY FINAL EXAM FOR GRADE 7
Part I: Say “true” or “false” for the following statement.

Time allowed
1. The iron obtained directly from the blast furnace is called cast iron.
2006 E.C 1st SEMESTER ENGLISH 1st MODEL FOR GRADE 8
Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that
follow.
Time allowed
Larks and owls in the working population
Are you a lark or an owl? Do you like getting up in the early morning and going to bed
early (lark)? Or do you prefer to work late and get up late (an owl)? About 20% of the human
population are though to be lark, 20% owls and the remaining 60% mid-range.
A lark, or morning type person is someone who likes to get up about two hours (or
more) earlier than most people. Larks like to get up at between 4:00 a.m. and 6:00 a.m and
are ready for sleep by 8:00 p.m – 10:00 a.m. To a lark midnight is thought of as the middle of
the night. In contrast, an evening type person is someone who likes to get up two hours (or
more) later than the most people and do not fell sleepy until midnight -2:00 a.m of course
owls are much happier working on night shift and larks are happiest when they can start and
finish work early.
Studies comparing larks and owls have shown that they have different physical
characteristics, for example, they have different body temperature. However, a lot more
research needs to be done to find out whether this is an entirely physical rather than
psychological issue.
From WWW.Round thech
1. One of the following is true about a lark.

A. gets up late C. works late
B. goes to bed late D. gets up in the early morning
2. About 60% of the human population are
A. lark C. mid-range
B. owls D. more sleepy
3. An evening type person is someone who
A. doesn’t like to get up two hours later than the most people
B. fell sleepy until midnight-2:00 a.m
C. does not fell sleepy until midnight -2:00 a.m
D. likes to get up two hours earlier than the most people
4. The percentage of the human population to be lark is 20% while of them are
to be owls.
A. 60% B. 30% C. 20% D. 40%
5. What have studies shown about larks and owls?
A. Larks and owls have the same physical characteristics.
B. They have different body temperature.
C. They have similar body temperature.
D. Larks and owls have similar physical characteristics.
6. When did larks like to wake up?
A. between 4:00 a.m and 6:00 a.m C. between 4:00 a.m and 8:00 p.m
B. between 8:00 p.m and 10:00 a.m D. between 4:00 a.m and 10:00 a.m
7. Which type of person is happier in working on night shift?
A. Larks B. Owls C. Mid-range D. No one
8. What does the word “prefer” (par. 1 line 2) refer to?
A. order B. offer C. refer D. choose
9. In the sentence, “Incontrast, an evening type person is someone who likes to get up two
hours (or more) later than the most people …,” what does in contrast mean?
A. against lark C. in the same way that lark does
B. similarly D. to agree with
10. The pronoun ‘they’ (par. 3, line 1) is used to refer:
A. larks and owls C. owls
B. larks D. physical characteristics
Direction II: For questions 11 – 25, select the one that best completes each
question.
11. Addis Ababa is a city many industries are found.
A. which C. what
B. where D. whom
12. Bicycle is motor bike because it provides health benefits.
A. good C. the best of
B. more better than D. better than
13. A: I’m not feeling good. I didn’t sleep well last night.
B: You take rest now.
A. should have C. could have
B. should to D. should
14. A: I didn’t sleep last night, but I didn’t do anything.
B:
A. Could have slept C. can’t sleep
B. can sleep D. couldn’t have slept
15. A: Did Semere accomplish his duty?
B: Yes,
A. he accomplishes in ten minutes. C. he is going to accomplish tomorrow.
B. he accomplished his duty two hours ago. D. he will accomplish next time.
16. This is the story I ever heard.
A. most interesting C. interesting
B. more interesting D. good
17. A:
B: I met him yesterday.
A. When would you like to meet Alex? C. When do you want to meet Alex?
B. When are you going to meet Alex? D. When did you meet Alex?
18. A: What would you do if you went to northern part of Ethiopia?
B:
A. I will visit Lalibella. C. I would visit Lalibella
B. I would have visited Lalibella D. I could have visited Lalibella
19. Wherever you , there is no money without work.
A. went C. would go
B. had gone D. go
20. A: Breakfast is the most important meal of the day.
B: . If you have break fast; you can have energy
to work for long hours.
A. I disagree with you C. I agree with you
B. I’m against your idea D. I don’t think so
21. This is nice shirt that everybody buys it.
A. such a B. so C. so that D. as
22. This spiritual song good.
A. looks B. tastes C. sounds D. looks like
23. I use a computer. I type more than twenty words per minute.
A. am B. will C. am able to D. am referred to
24. My friend invited me to his birthday. His birthday is tomorrow. I him a
present this afternoon.
A. bought B. am going to buy C. didn’t buy D. went to buy
25. Abraham played tennis while Yesuf class.
A. attend B. was attending C. has D. is attending
Direction III: For questions 26-30, read the following case and select the correct
conditional sentence that can be formed from it.
“Ruth was a student in Hawassa primary school. She was a grade six student. Her father and
mother were working in an office. Because of corruption they made, they were sentenced to a
prison. Ruth was forced to stop her education, because no one could help her. She is staying
home now. She is not happy, because she can’t pay for her education. She is unable to go to
school with friends too.”
26. A. If Ruth’s father and mother aren’t corrupted, they will be sentenced to a prison.
B. If Ruth’s parents hadn’t been corrupted, they could have sent her to school.
C. If Ruth’s father and mother are corrupted, they will not be in prison.
D. If Ruth’s father and mother don’t make corrupt, they will not be in prison.
27. A. If someone helps Ruth, she will continue her education.
B. If Ruth stays home, she will be happy.
C. If her parents hadn’t made corruption, Ruth wouldn’t have gone to school.
D. If her parents had said ‘no’ for corruption, they would have been sentenced to a prison.
28. A. If Ruth’s parents work well in their office, they will be in a prison.
B. They could have lived a better life if Ruth’s parents had made corruption
C. If her parents hadn’t committed a crime, Ruth wouldn’t have been forced to stop her
education.
D. If her parents hadn’t committed a crime, Ruth would have been forced to stop education.
29. A. If someone helped Ruth, she wouldn’t be forced to stop her education.
B. If someone helped Ruth, she would be forced to stop her education.
C. If someone helps Ruth, she will stop her education.
D. If Ruth had money to pay for her education, she couldn’t be happy.
30. A. Ruth wouldn’t be happy if she were able to go to school with friends.
B. Ruth would be happy if she were unable to go to school with friends.
C. Ruth would have been happy if her parents couldn’t have sent her to school.
D. If Ruth is able to go to school with friends, she will be happy.
Direction IV: Question 31-35 are about reported speech. Read the direct speech
carefully and select that is correctly reported later.
31. “I want to watch a movie,” he said.
A. He said that he wants to watch a movie.
B. He said that he wanted to watch a movie.
C. He said that he had wanted to watch a movie
D. He said that I want to watch a movie.
32. The director said, “I made a speech for my audience.”
A. The director said that I made a speech for my audience.
B. The director said that he made a speech for his audience.
C. The director said he had made a speech for his audience.
D. The director said he made a speech for my audience.
33. Serawit said to Merkeb, “Don’t follow these instructions.”
A. Serawit told Merkeb not to follow these instructions.
B. Serawit told Merkeb not to follow those instructions.
C. Serawit told Mezgeb to follow those instructions.
D. Serawit said to Mezgeb don’t follow those instructions.
34. Zewdu said to Semere, “Did you see your friend’s mistakes?”
A. Zewdu asked Semere if he had seen his friend’s mistakes.
B. Zewdu asked Semere if he saw his friend’s mistakes.
C. Zewdu asked Semere did you see your friend’s mistakes.
D. Zewdu asked Semere if he see his friend’s mistakes.
35. Zemzem asked, “What are you doing, Musa?”
A. Zemzem asked Musa what are you doing.
B. Zemzem asked Musa what he is doing.
C. Zemzem asked Musa what is Musa doing.
D. Zemzem asked Musa what he was doing.
Direction V: For questions 36 – 40, choose the alternative that is best

punctuated.
36. A. I am sleeping in my Home. C. rediet will help you.

B. I will come in june. D. Do you go to school library?
37. A. “Almaz is my friend”, said Kalid. C. Kalid said “Almaz is my friend.”
B. “almaz is my friend,” said Kalid. D. Kalid said, “Almaz is my friend.”
38. A. my mother And father went for a walk.
B. Do you Really like to go for a walk?
C. Do you want to have a meal with me?
D. you are Looking for a luck.
39. A. Meseret said, “did you have your breakfast?”
B. Meseret said “Did you have your breakfast?”
C. Meseret said “Did you have your breakfast”?
D. Meseret asked, “Did you have your breakfast?”
40. A. When she reached, everybody was clapping.
B. Everybody was clapping, when she reached.
C. When she reached everybody, was clapping.
D. When she reached Everybody was clapping.
Direction VI: Questions 41 – 50 are about tenses. Choose the best answer from
the given alternatives.
41. When it rained, they tea.

A. are drinking B. drink C. want to drink D. were drinking
42. If they her, she wouldn’t have died.
A. helped B. could help C. had helped D. are helping
43. A: What did Newton say?
B:
A. Newton said that the earth pulls everything towards itself.
B. Newton said that the earth pulled everything towards itself.
C. Newton said that the earth had pulled everything towards itself.
D. Newton said that the earth could pull everything towards itself.
44. Look …! He fast.
A. drove B. is driving C. drives D. has driven
45. The thief any foot prints.
A. didn’t leave B. left C. leaves D. had left
46. Almaz: What did you do while Dusman was studying?
Tatek:
A. I washed my clothes. C. I am sleeping.
B. I was playing in the field. D. I have lots of work to do.
47. you see those animals? They have beautiful spots.
A. Did B. Does C. Have D. Do
48. Abdul: ?
Bilen: We shall go to Lake Hawassa.
A. Where shall we go for a walk C. Were are we go for a walk
B. Will we go for a walk D. Where did we go for a walk
49. Samuel and Bekalu a movie tomorrow.
A. watched B. had watched C. are going to D. were watching
50. When she was running, she her toe.
A. was hurting B. is hurting C. had hurt D. hurt
Direction VII: The words in the following questions are jumbled. Select the
alternative that is re-arranged correctly. (questions 51 – 55)
51. Kicked /the ball /the man

A. The ball kicked the man. C. Kicked the ball the man.
B. The man kicked the ball. D. The man the ball kicked.
52. Pretty /how /is /she
A. How she pretty is! C. She is how pretty!
B. How she is pretty! D. How pretty she is!
53. Please /pass /the book /me /you /would?
A. Please pass me the book you would?
B. Would you pass me the book, please?
C. Would you pass the book me please?
D. Would you please me pass the book?
54. Phone /mobile /ringing /is /my
A. My mobile phone is ringing. C. Phone is my ringing mobile.
B. Mobile phone is my ringing. D. My phone is mobile ringing.
55. Watching /we /TV /are
A. TV are watching we. C. We watching are TV.
B. Are TV we watching. D. We are watching TV.
Direction VIII: For questions 56 – 60, select the appropriate connective or resut
clause that best completes each sentence.
56. A number of car accidents have occurred. the hospital is more crowded.
A. However B. As a result C. Although D. Though
57. my friend earns little money from shining shoes, he has to keep working.
A. Therefore C. As a result
B. However D. Although
58. We paid them 3,000 birr. , they became very happy.
A. Because B. But C. Although D. Therefore
59. I worked all the day. , I was paid a little.
A. However B. Therefore C. As a result D. So
60. My friends were travelling well, they got a terrible accident.
A. but B. because C. and D. As a result
Set by Asmamaw Gezahegn

2006 E.C 1st SEMESTER MATHEMATICS 1st MODEL FOR GRADE 8
Part I: Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives.
Time allowed 1 hr
1. Which one of the following number is a perfect cube?
A. 1331 B. 25 C. 16 D. B and C
2. Which one is a false Mathematical statement?
3
 3 27
3   
A. √ 64=4 B.  4  16 C. (-0. 2) = -8 x 10-3 D.
√3 = 3
3 3√3
x x2 y2
3. If y
=−2
, then the value of √ 1
+
y2 x2 is equal:
17
A. 4 B.
(174 ) 2
C. 1 D. none
2 2
4. The square root of 25x + 16y + 40xy is:
A. (5x + 4y)2 B. √ 5x+4 y C. 5x + 4y D. 5x – 4y

a
a+
b
a
a−
5. If a = 4 and b = 7 then the value of b is equal to:
4 8
A. 8 B. 1 C. 3 D. 3
6. A triangle with sides 3, 4 and 5 has the same perimeter as a square with sides of length
A. 6 B. 4 C. 8 D. 12
3 3
7. If x + y = 10 and x – y = 6 then what is the value of x + y ?
A. 604 B. 504 C. 520 D. -520
8. What is the solution set of the inequality 20(4x – 6) < 80 in the set of positive integers?
{1, 2, 3, 4} B. {1, 2} C.  D. {0. 1, 2, 3, 4}
9. Which of the following statement is true?
36 1 1 1
A. −√ 121=−11 B. √ =
324 3 C. √ 4
=±
2
D. √−625=25
3
√ 32
3
10. √−4 is equal to:
A. 2 B. -2 C. 4 D. -4
2
11. The simplified form of ( 10 √7 ) is:
A. 700 B. 70 C. 107 D. 17
12. Which one of the following pairs of terms are like term?
3
A. 4 and  B. 2x2 and x C. 3y2 and 3x2 D. none
13. Among the following expressions one is Binomial?
2
x yz
A. 3x2 + y2 + 4z B. 4 C. 4x2 + 4y2 D. ax2byz
14. The HCF for 9a2b – 18a5b + 27a6 is:
A. 9a2b B. 9ab C. 9a2 D. 9n2b5
4
15. If x = 6 and y = 2 then what is the value of 3x2 - 4
( 2 y−
12)+8
is:
304 −304 −348
A. 3 B. 3 C. 3 D.
108
3
16. In the figure below CD⊥ AB with AB = 24cm and if the vertex C is moved to E by 6cm then,
C
what is the area of the shaded region?
A. 18cm
B. 36cm
E
C. 72cm
A B
D. 12cm D
17. If the perimeter of isosceles triangle ABC is 14cm and its base side is 6cm. What is the length of
its equal sides?
A. 4 B. 6 C. 8 D. 12
18. If the radius of a quarter circle is 14cm then its perimeter and area respecting is equal to:
A. 28cm and 196cm2 C. 7cm and 49cm2
B. 7cm and 196cm2 D. 14cm and 98cm2
19. In the figure below the two lines ℓ 1 and ℓ 2 are parallel where t1 and t2 are transversal lines.
What is the measure of the angle marked z?
A. 720
740
ℓ
B. 290
290 1
C. 1030 ℓ
z
2
D. 1060
20. The sum of the measure of the interior angle of a polygon is 9000. How many sides does the
polygon have?
A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8
21. Which of the following plane figures have always a perpendicular diagonal?
A. Rectangle B. Trapezium C. Rhombus D. Parallelogram
22. Which expression describes the area of the shaded region?
A. (R + r) (R – r)
r
B. R2 - r2 R
C. (R2 – r2)
D. all
23. What is the total surface area of a right triangle prism whose altitude is 15cm long and whose
base is a right angled triangular with length of sides 6cm, 8cm and 10cm?
A. 360cm2 B. 408cm2 C. 420cm2 D. 440cm2
24. One includes all the rest
A. parallelogram B. Rectangle C. Rhombus D. square
3
25. If the volume of a circular cylinder is 48cm , then the height of this cyclinder is equal 12cm.
What is its base radius?
A. 4cm B. 2cm C. 8cm D. 6cm
a c
+ =1
26. If a, b, c and d are rational numbers such that b d , then which of the following is true?
A. a + c = bd B. a + c = b + d C. ad + bc = 1 D. ad + bc = bd
2−x 2+ x
x− +
27. 2 2 is equal to:
x
A. x B. 3x C. 2x D. 2
28. The solution set of the equation 4(x – 5) = 3(3 – 2x) is:
A. 9 B. -9 C. -11 D. 11
29. What is the slope of the line whose equation is 4x – 2y = 5?
1 −3
A. 2 B. 2 C. 2 D. -2
30. √ 166. 41 is found between the whole numbers.
A. 11 and 12 B. 14 and 15 C. 13 and 14 D. 12 and 13
5
31. The ratio of the perimeter of two similar triangle is 6 , what is the ratio of their areas?
5 6 25
A. 6 B. 5 C. 36 D.
36
25
32. What is the length of the side of a square whose diagonal is 12cm long?
A. 6cm B. 6 √2 cm C. 12 √2 cm D. 24cm
33. If ABC  DEF then which one is not true about ABC and DEF?
AB A−C
=K =K ^ D^
A. EF B. DF C. A≡ D. m(<B) –
m(<E)
34. In the figure below ABC  XYC. If XC = 12cm, YC = 10cm, AX = 6cm and AB = 16cm, then
XY is equal to:
A
3
6
A. 32 x
16
46 12
B. 9
32 B C
y 10
C. 3
16
D. 3
35. Which one of the following plane figures are not necessarily similar each other?
A. Two equilateral triangles C. Two isosceles-triangles
B. Two circles D. Two squares
36. Which one of the following is not true about scale factors?
A. If K > 1 the object is greater than the image
B. If K = 1 the image is congruent to the object
C. If 0 < K < 1 the image is smaller than the object
D. none
37. If the graph of the function y = mx passes through the first and the third quadrants, then which of
the following is true about the slope of the line?
A. m > 0 B. m < 0 C. m = 0 D. m is not found
1 −1
kx
38. If the ordered pair (-1, 2) satisfies the linear equation y = 3 3 , then the value of k is equal to:
A. 7 B. 1 C. -1 D. -7
39. One of the following linear equation does not pass through the origin?
3x
y=
A. y = 3x + 4 B. 4 C. y – 6x = 0 D. A & C
1
≤
40. If x is a natural number. Then what is the solution set of the inequality 0.2x - 5 0.x?
A.  B. {1, 2} C. {0, 1, 2} D. none
41. The value of y if y = x3 – 6 and x = 5
A. 29 B. 124 C. 131 D. 119
42. If A = {} then which of the following statement is not true?
A.   A B. A =  C.   A D.   A
43. Which one of the following statement is not true?
A. N  W B. N  W C. Q+  N D. Z+  Q+
44. In the figure below ABC is inscribed in a circle 0. If PQ is tangent to the circle at point A and
x = 60 then z is equal to:
C
A. 30
P
B x0 z
B. 60
O
C. 90 A
D. 120 Q
45. Which of the following triple of numbers can be the length of a right angled triangle?
A. 3cm, 3c, 3 √2 cm C. 3cm, 3cm, 18cm
B. 3cm, 3cm 18cm D. 2cm, 4cm, 4 √2 cm
Set by Temesgen M.
BNB LEARNING CENTRE ELEMENTARY
2006 E.C 1st SEMESTER BIOLOGY 1st MODEL EXAM FOR GRADE 8
Time allowed 1
Part I: Choose the best answer from the given alternatives.
1. Which of the following organ is sensitive to sound?
A. Nose B. Tongue C. Eye D. Ear
2. The opening in the eye through which light enters is
A. Iris B. Pupil C. lens D. cornea
3. A tear is a salty solution that contains an enzyme called.
A. rennin B. pepsin C. lysozyme D. ptyalin
4. If your eye is linked to a camera, the part at the eye that corresponds to the film is:
A. iris B. lens C. choroids D. retina
5. Biology has direct relevance in our daily life in terms of.
A. choosing the food to eat C. protecting the natural environment
B. avoiding health problem D. all
6. Which one of the following is not bacterial disease?
A. common cold B. syphilis C. pneumonia D. Gonorrhea
7. One of the following is not eukaryotic organism.
A. plant B. fungi C. protozoa D. Bacteria
8. Fungus cell wall is made up of
A. nitrogen B. protein C. chitin D. cellulose
9. The only unicellular fungus is
A. mould B. mushroom C. yeast D. puffball
10. Which one is made up of algae and fungus?
A. lichen B. Gymnosperms C. mosses and liver worts D. Ferns
11. The male gamet producing organ in lichen is called
A. archegonium B. antheridium C. sperm cell D. egg cell
12. The study of internal structure of the body is called
A. Anatomy B. Morphology C. Taxonomy D. zoology
13. A person who studies about plant is called
A. zoologist B. Botanist C. Taxonomist D. Anatomist
14. All are vascular plants except
A. gymnosperms B. junipers C. ferns D. lichen
15. Which one of the following is not produced by gymnosperms?
A. seed B. stem C. leaf D. fruit
16. The locomotory structure of amoeba is called
A. pseudopodia B. flagella C. cilia D. none
17. Which one of the following is not organ of plant?

A. leaf B. nucleus C. stem D. root
18. The first microscope was discovered by
A. Anton Van Leewen hook C. Robert Hook
B. Theodor Schewan D. none
19. Which one of the following is true about palisade cell in plant leaf?
A. rectangular in shape C. help for photosynthesis
B. contain chlorophyll D. all
20. Carry impulse of taste to brain
A. optic nerve C. Gestation nerve
B. olfactory nerve D. auditory nerve
21. Auditory nerve helps human to
A. see B. hear C. smell D. taste
22. Which of the is differ from the other?
A. penis B. uterus C. vagina D. ovary
23. One of the following is not branch of biology
A. entomology B. physiology C. botany D. none
24. Both plant and animal cells are similar in having
A. cytoplasm B. cell wall C. chloroplast D. none
25. The type of image formed on the retina at the human eye is
A. real and erect C. real and inverted
B. virtual and erect D. virtual and inverted
26. One of the following is not useful aspects of biology.
A. Biology helps us to understand ourselves
B. Biology helps us to improve fertility of farm land
C. Biology helps us to fight against disease
D. Biology helps us in rocket manufacturing
27. Which one of the following shows the inter relatedness of biology and chemistry?
A. Biology B. statics C. Electronics D. Biochemistry
28. Which one of the following organisms cause most of the diseases in plants?
A. algae B. mosses C. fungi D. ferns
29. Which of the following organism transmit malaria?
A. mouse B. snail C. pig D. Anopheles mosquito
30. Which of the following deficiency disease and their causes are correctly paired?
A. kwashiorkor- lack of iron C. Goiter – lack of protein
B. Marasmus – lack of iodine D. pellagra – lack of nicotine acid
31. Which of the following is true about gymnosperms?

A. they produce naked seeds C. they have fruits
B. they have flower D. all
32. One of the following is true about vaccines?
A. they are antiseptics C. they give us passive immunity
B. they give us active immunity D. they have toxins to kill germs
33. A disease that can be prevented by killing snail is
A. hook worm B. bilharzias is C. pneumonia D. diphtheria
34. Which of the following disease and their cause are correctly paired?
A. cholera – virus C. typhoid – bacteria
B. leprosy – hereditary D. Ringworm – round worm
35. A viral disease that can be transmitted by the bite of animals
A. Rabies B. measles C. polio D. AIDS
36. A child who gets enough sunlight would not develop rickets. This is because of sunlight is
used in the synthesis of:
A. vitamin D B. vitamin E C. vitamin A D. vitamin B
37. Non – flowering plant with vascular tissue include
A. fern and mosses C. gymnosperm and fern
B. algae and fungi D. gymnosperm and angiosperm
38. Hyphae is the general feature of
A. algae B. fungi C. mosses D. ferns
39. The leaf of fern is called
A. frond B. prothallus C. sporangium D. antheridia
40. Which of the following is a fungus?
A. spirogyra B. yeast C. Volvox D. chlorella
41. If a person is injected with tetanus antitoxin taken from the blood of a horse immunity
develops. This kind of immunity is called immunity.
A. passive B. active C. natural D. acquired active
42. Wearing shoes can help to prevent
A. tape worm B. ascaris C. hook worm D. diphtheria
43. Which of the following is a protozoan disease?
A. Blood fluke C. typhoid fever
B. sleeping sickness D. measles
44. A symbiotic association between algae and fungi is called
A. liver worts B. lichen C. mosses D. measles
45. Which of the following organism contain chlorophyll?
A. Volvox B. mushroom C. yeast D. mildew
46. The tissue that transport manufactured food from the leaves to the other parts of the plant is.
A. phloem B. xylem C. palisade cell D. spongy cell
47. The male hormone which is responsible for secondary sexual characteristics is?
A. oestrogen B. testosterone C. adrenaline D. progesterone
48. The human female sex cells are produced in the
A. vagina B. oviduct C. ovaries D. womb
49. Which of the following are harmful female traditional practices?
A. FGM C. Rubbing the abdomen of pregnant
B. Early marriage D. all
50. Increased conversion of glycogen in to glucose is due to the hormone.

A. Insulin B. FSH C. Adrenaline D. glucagon
51. Which of the following produce more hormone?
A. pancreas B. pituitary C. thyroid D. all
52. Fertilization normally occur in the
A. vagina B. cervix C. oviduct D. uterus
53. Which of the following carries sperms to the urethra?
A. Vas eference C. somniferous tubules
B. Epididymis D. Vas deference
54. The largest part of our brain is occupied by the
A. cerebrum B. cerebellum C. hypothalamus D. medulla
55. Which of the following types of drugs speed up the activity of nervous system?
A. Depressant B. stimulant C. Hallucinogen D. alcohol
56. The smallest unit of nervous system is called
A. reflex arc B. dendrite C. neuron D. axon
57. Which of the following systems are responsible for controlling and coordination of the body
activities?
A. Nervous and muscular system C. Nervous and Endocrine system
B. Endocrine and Respiratory system D. Respiratory and circulatory system
58. The central Nervous system is made up of
A. sensory and motor neuron C. brain and spinal nerve
B. Brain and spinal cord D. brain and cranial nerve
59. Which of the following includes all the rest?
A. cell body B. dendrite C. axon D. neuron
60. Flowing plants are known as
A. angiosperms C. fruit bearing plants
B. anthophyta D. all
Set by M.E
2006 E.C 1st SEMESTER CHEMISTRY 1st MODEL FOR GRADE 8
Choose the best answer from the given alternatives. Time allowed
1. The formula for iron pyrite is:

A. FeCO3 B. Fe2O3 C. FeS2 D. Fe3O4
2. The compound of sodium which is used as a baking powder is:
A. NaCl B. NaHCO3 C. Na2CO3 D. Na2O2
3. Brass is an alloy of:
A. Copper and Zinc C. Zinc and Tin
B. Copper and Tin D. Aluminum and Magnesium
4. Which of the following is not characteristic of metals?
A. Malleability C. Ductility
B. Ability to gain electron D. Good conductivity of heat and electricity
5. Which of the following metals is the best conductor of electricity?
A. Aluminum C. Copper
B. Iron D. Silver
6. Aluminum is used for the construction of airplanes because of its:
A. resistance to many minerals C. malleability and ductility
B. great heat conductivity D. lightness and high tensile strength
7. What is the most abundant metal in the earth’s crust?
A. Silicon B. oxygen C. Iron D. Aluminum
8. Copper is extracted mainly from the mineral ore known as:
A. siderite C. magnetite
B. hematite D. chalcopyrite
9. Which alkali metal could form a peroxide in excess oxygen?
A. K B. Na C. Rb D. Li
10. Which of the following group of metals are found in free state in nature?
A. Na, Au, Ag C. Fe, Ag, Au
B. Cu, Ag, Au D. Cu, Ca, Ag
11. The substance used to remove the impurities from pig iron to make steel is:
A. carbondioxide B. sand C. coke D. oxygen
12. Impure copper is purified by:
A. open-hearth process C. smelting
B. Bessemer process D. electrolysis
13. Which process produces best quality steel?
A. Bessemer process C. Thomas convertor process
B. Electric arc process D. open hearth process
14. Methyl orange indicator in basic solution shows a color.
A. green C. yellow
B. red D. blue
15. Which branch of natural science is mainly concerned with the structure of proteins?
A. Physics C. Biochemistry
B. Biology D. Inorganic chemistry
16. An amphoteric oxide among the following is:
A. K2O B. ZnO C. CuO D. CaO
17. Soda ash factory in Ethiopia is located in:
A. Hawassa C. Zeway
B. Addis Ababa D. Awash Melkassa
18. Change of state from gas directly to solid is known as:
A. condensation C. deposition
B. evaporation D. sublimation
19. The degree of roughness or smoothness, coarseness or fineness of a substance is:
A. taste C. texture
B. harness D. density
20. Physical state of a substance with definite volume but not definite shape is:
A. gas C. solid
B. plasma D. liquid
21. Which of the following action is a chemical change?
A. dissolution of sodium chloride in water C. burning of carbon
B. boiling of water D. mixing of sugar with wheat
22. The maximum number of electron in the outermost shell of an atom is:
A. 18 B. 32 C. 8 D. 2
23. Which fundamental subatomic particle takes part in chemical reaction?
A. electron C. proton
B. neutron D. photon
24. Atoms of the same element that have the same number of proton but different number
of neutron are known as
A. catalyst C. isobars
B. isotopes D. isomers
25. When do we say an atom is electrically neutral?
A. When number of electron and proton are equal
B. When number of electron and neutron are equal
C. When number of proton and neutron are equal
D. When mass number is equal with number of electron
26. The chemical symbol for an element antimony is:
A. At B. W C. Sb D. Am
27. The correct chemical formula for aluminum nitride is:
A. Al2N B. AlN3 C. Aln D. AlN
12 8
28. The chemical formula of a compound made from 24 x and 16 y is:
A. xy B. x2y C. xy2 D. x2y3
29. Which of the following element-symbol combination is correct?
A. carbon-Ca C. Magnesium –Ma
B. Sodium –Sd D. Iron-Fe
30. Which pair of the substances represent molecules of compound?
A. H2O and NH3 C. H2 and H2O
B. H2 and O2 D. He and Ne
31. The correct formula for iron(III) oxide is:
A. Fe3O2 C. Fe2O
B. FeO3 D. Fe2O3
32. Which of the following can be changed until the chemical equation is balanced?
A. Symbols C. Subscripts
B. Valencies D. Coefficients
33. What type of oxide is formed when sulfur is burned:
A. neutral B. basic C. acidic D. amphoteric
34. Which gas is given off when carbonates are treated with dilute acids?
A. CO2 B. CO C. H2 D. N2
35. From the following metals which one cannot displace hydrogen from dilute acids?
A. K B. Na C. Ba D. Cu
36. Which of the following periodic trends increases down a group in the periodic table?
A. Electronegativity C. Ionization energy
B. Metallic character D. Electron affinity
37. A minimum amount of energy required to remove an electron from an atom is:
A. electron affinity C. ionization energy
B. electronegativity D. activation
38. Which gas is used by plants during photosynthesis?
A. H2 B. CO2 C. O2 D. CO
39. Which one of the following is a pure substance?
A. Salt solution B. Milk C. Water D. Air
40. Which of the following physical property has constant value?
A. Solubility C. Hardness
B. Odour D. Taste
41. The maximum number of electron 4th the shell is:
A. 8 B. 12 C. 50 D. 32
42. Which of the following statements best describes the main concern of chemistry?
A. it deals with improving the quality of life
B. it deals with the most economic way of utilizing natural resources
C. it deals with the production of new materials of desirable properties
D. all of the above
43. The number of elements in the 4th period of the periodic table is:
A. 2 B. 18 C. 32 D. 8
44. What is the group and period of an element with atomic 20 respectively?
A. Period 4 and group IIA C. Group IIA and period 4
B. Group IVA and period 4 D. Period 2 and group IVA
45. The valency of certain element W is 4. What is the formula of its oxide?
A. W4O C. WO4
B. W2O D. WO2
46. The chemical symbol Hg represents:
A. mercury C. antimony
B. hydrogen D. helium
47. Low electronegativity is the characteristics of:
A. metals C. metalloids
B. non-metals D. A and B
48. Which of the following substances is used during extraction of gold and silver?
A. NaHCO3 B. NaOH C. NaCN D. NNH2
49. The compound of sodium which is used in fire extinguisher is:
A. NaHCO3 C. NaCN
B. NaOH D. NaNH2
50. Which of the following is least metallic?
A. Si B. S C. S D. Cl
51. Which of the following sets of atomic numbers represents elements in the same groups?
A. 11, 14, 15 C. 4, 12, 20
B. 1, 2, 10 D. 11, 19, 20
52. Alkali metal ‘M’ reacts with halogen ‘x’ to form halide with the formula:
A. Mx B. Mx3 C. M3x D. Mx2
53. According to Mendeleev the properties of elements are periodic function of:
A. atomic number C. number of proton
B. atomics size D. atomic mass
17
54. An element 35 Cl is likely to have similar properties to an element with atomic number:
A. 10 B. 15 C. 18 D. 9
55. The first scientist who arranged elements in a table depending on increasing order of
atomic number is:
A. Henry Mosely C. Lothar Meyer
B. Dmitri Mendeleev D. John Newland
56. Which of the following represents the electron configuration of the elements in the same
period of the periodic table?
A. 2, 1 2, 8, 1 2, 8, 8, 1 C. 2, 8 2, 8, 1 2, 8, 2
B. 2, 7 2, 8 2, 8, 1 D. 2, 8, 2 2, 8, 3 2, 8, 4
57. Suppose you have given a mixture of salt and sand, which one is the correct procedure
to identify them?
A. Dissolving  evaporation  filtering C. Dissolving  filtering  evaporation
B. Evaporation  filtration  dissolution D. Evaporation  dissolution  filtration
58. Which of the following substances make a homogenous mixture with water?
A. Oil C. Sulfur
B. Sodium chloride D. Aluminum foil
59. Which of the following process is physical change?
A. souring of milk C. Decaying of food
B. Magnetization iron D. Fermentation of sugar
60. Which of the following is a property of matter in the solid state?
A. the particles are independent of each other
B. the particles are highly compressible
C. the particles are regularly arranged
D. the particles take the shape of he container
Set by Mesele
T.
January 2014
2006 E.C 1 SEMESTER CIVICS & ETHICAL EDUCATION 1st MODEL EXAM
st
FOR GRADE 8
Time allowed 1
Part I: Choose the best answer.
1. Which one of the following is true about electoral process in Ethiopia?

A. Any Ethiopian has the right to elect without considering their age.
B. Any Ethiopian has the right to be elected when they an age of 18.
C. voting is carried out by asecret ballot
D. all
2. The basic principles of democracy are exercise when
A. human rights are violated C. unfair election is conducted
B. citizens are governed by rule D. minority rules the majority
3. Which one is arranged in the correct chronological order
A. Peace dev’t democracy equality Prosperity
B. Equality democracy peace dve’t prosperity
C. Dev’t equality peace democracy prosperity
D. Democracy equality peace dev’t prosperity
4. Which one of the following is the supreme legislative power in the federal government?
A. council of judges C. council of minister
B. council of people’s representatives D. council of House federation
5. Constitutions is
A. the law which govern the country C. it is base for other laws
B. all laws are driven from the constitution D. all
6. The FDRE government is following economic.
A. Mixed economy C. Free market economy
B. command D. liberal economy
7. The type of justice concerned with the fair distribution of social services
A. corrective justice C. Affirmative action
B. distributive justice D. procedural justice
8. The imbalance b/n citizens benefits & burdens results in
A. fairness B. equality C. inequality D. justice
9. The legal institution assigned for giving judgment is
A. court C. police station
B. prison D. HR commission
10. Which article in the FDRE constitution states about independence of judges?
A. Article 76 C. Article 70
B. Article 79 D. Article 20
11. Article of the FDRE constitution states about concurrent taxation of the
federal & regional government
A. 96 B. 97 C. 98 D. 95
12. Article of the FDRE constitution states about the members of the house
of the federation.
A. 60 B. 67 C. 61 D. 70
13. The relationship between a country & other nations is governed by principles known as.
A. foreign relation C. foreign affairs
B. foreign policy D. foreign matters
14. exists at federal gov’t of Ethiopia but not at regional government.
A. legislative body C. judicial organ
B. House of federation D. law enforcing body
15. The 1987 constitution was
A. state separated from church C. allowed one party rule
B. ended transfer power by blood D. none
16. All of the following are traditional constitution except
A. Kibre negest B. Fetha neges C. ser’ ate mengist D. none
17. Which one of the following is not source of Rule of law?
A. constitution C. International law
B. domestic law D. foreign law
18. There are expenses for items & services that you need rather than want.
A. fixed B. flexible C. family budget D. all
19. Which one is not true about tax collectors? They should
A. be accountable to the ethical code of conduct
B. respect & be honest for all tax payers
C. avoid taking & asking bribes
D. be based on partisanship in their work.
20. In the FDRE constitution Article 11 stated that:
A. state and religion are separated
B. There shall be no state religion
C. The state shall interfere in religious matters
D. A & B
21. Idleness finally leads to the following results except
A. proper healthy condition C. exposure to drugs
B. shortage of income D. hindrance from progress
22. Which of the following is the best source of information for study?
A. TV B. Library C. Radio D. Newspaper
23. Professionals who play important role in the court system are:
A. prosecutors B. HR commission C. priests D. physicians
24. Haile Sillassie’s par liament was
A. real representative of the people C. elected by the people
B. the advisor of the king D. all
25. Corruption is different from other crimes. Because
A. It is the highest crime
B. It is complex & is carried out by higher gov’tal officials
C. It is not allowed in our country D. all
26. Human rights cab be respected
A. By the preparation of constitution C. By division of power
B. By the presence of the rule of law D. By the formation of a unitary state
27. ‹‹Unity is power ›› & ‹‹diversity is beauty›› this statement resfers
A. Unity is strength & having different kinds of nation is proud
B. To unite is good but different peoples have different colours.
C. Living together gives weakness & having different nations left in their colour
D. Unity brings dev’t but having different nations impossible to live together.
28. Which one of the following is the importance of limiting power of government officials? It
allows the:
A. prevalence of the rule of law C. existence of undemocratic system
B. violation of human rights D. exercise of discriminatory practices
29. Peoples with dependency feeling are
A. Burdens of a country C. Comfortless peoples
B. Burdens of a family D. all
30. Contraband is
A. not illegal trade C. A factor for expansion of corruption
B. Distorts social & economic life D. B & C are answers
31. Among the social problems of our country that have to be avoided
A. Dependency & considering begging as source of income
B. Appreciating others & readiness to learn from others
C. commitment D. all
32. The basis of economic objective is
A. To ensure people benefit equally from a country’s resources
B. Promoting the participation of women inequality with men in all economic and social
issues.
C. Improving the living condition of Ethiopians
D. To promote equitable distribution of wealth among Ethiopians
E. All are answers
33. In order to ensure country’s development in practice
A. Realizing the disgustingness of dependency
B. All should get equal opportunity of work
C. Changing economic objectives in to practice
D. all can be answers
34. To expand tourism industry
A. selling heritages
B. Destroying forests to pave roads
C. knowing natural resources & historical Heritage
D. protecting natural & historical heritages
35. Self – discipline means
A. respecting the law C. To insult people
B. To go against the law D. not to accept people’s equality
36. In Representative (In – direct democracy)
A. People do not elect their leaders
B. people elect their leaders
C. people can not directly participate in political activities D. B & C
37. Civics studies
A. the well – being of all creatures C. the right & duties of citizens
B. The origin of man D. the obligation of citizens
E. the purpose of a government
38. Ethics studies
A. good behaviors only C. good & bad; right & wrong behaviors
B. bad behaviors only D. all types of good behaviors in isolation
39. Popular participation
A. develops the exercise of democracy
B. results in dictatorial leaders
C. protects the rights & privileges of people
D. A & C
40. Written constitution
A. is well organized in its form C. is the common type of constitution
B. is put in a single document or file D. all
41. Ethiopia’s first constitution was ratified on
A. July 16,1931 C. September 16,1987
B. July 16,1955 D. June, 16,1931
42. King Haile sillassie was forced to ratify the constitution. The reason was?
A. He was exposed to European practice
B. To win international image about his country
C. To build up his own reputation
D. to reunify the country/Ethiopia
E. all
43. Ethiopia has federal states
A. ten B. twelve C. six D. nine
44. Constitutionalism means:
A. adding new provisions
B. studying the constitution
C. to see the extent of application of the written constitution D. none
45. One of the following is not a moral act
A. respecting people C. not to steal
B. not to lie D. to abuse power for ones interest
46. Which one of the following is not source of responsibility
A. promise C. assignment
B. appointment C. occupation E. none
47. One of the following is not the effect of absence of justice
A. stability B. civil war C. famine D. poverty
48. Human beings can worship what they like this refers to equality
A. political B. language C. religious D. national
49. The fundamental development strategy of FDRE government mainly focuses on
A. urban B. rural C. tourism D. Industry
50. Which one of the following is not the expected ethical conduct from students?
A. punctuality B. partiality C. loyalty D. productivity
51. Modern patriotism explained by
A. promoting superiority feeling C. Hiking people power illegally
B. struggling for democracy D. developing in ferocity complex
52. Which one helps to write the history of N,N & peoples with out distortion?
A. lack of source C. partiality of rules
B. Neutrality of writers D. lack of information
53. The dependency of children below the age of 18 years on the resource and jedgement
of their parents is:
A. illegitimate dependency C. unwanted depency
B. legitimate dependency D. all of the above
54. Effective work Expressed
A. By using time properly C. By being hard worker
B. By accomplishing before the expected time D, all
55. Individuals who cause damaged to carelessness are
A. fast individuals C. Illiterate ones
B. those unabe to discharge responsibilities D. can not be models
56. HIV/AIDS highly expands in sub – Saharan countries due to
A. law – understanding of the disease & absence of cares
B. Desertification
C. The climate condition suitable for the virus
D. Absence of balanced diet
57. National flag is the
A. Symbol of independence C. symbol of unity
B. symbol of sovereignty state D. all
58. Which one is more expected to follow – up partisan/unjust practices?
A. Government C. Religious institutions
B. civic organization D. organizations
59. Which one of the following does not show advantage of limited power?
A. To ensure the rule of law C. To enhance lawlessness
B. To promote accountability & transparency D. all
60. All of the following are examples of government institutions except
A. Ombuds person C. International civic organization
B. HR commission D. courts
Good Luck!
Set by Freweini
2006 E.C 1 SEMESTER SOCIAL STUDIES 1st MODEL EXAM FOR GRADE 8
st
No. of Items 60
Time allowed 1
Choose the best answer from the given alternatives.
1. A type of map that shows, the distribution of both natural and human made object is
known as:
A. political map C. general reference map
B. topical map D. thematic map
2. The marginal information used o identify the purpose of map is:
A. direction B. scale C. title D. data
3. Is an angular distance measured North and South of the equator is
degree.
A. Parallel B. Longitude C. Latitude D. Equator
4. Which one refers to the exact location of a place can be identified on globe or map
using astronomical grid reference?
A. Relative location C. Absolute location
B. Angular D. All of the above
5. Which continent of the world is crossed by both tropic of center and Capricorn?
A. North America B. Asia C. Africa D. South America
6. Which of the following factor encourages high population concentration?
A. Mild temperature C. High and reliable rainfall
B. Adequate water supply D. all of the above
7. is a kind of trade which is done with in a boundary of a given country.
A. International trade C. Long distance trade
B. Foreign trade D. Domestic trade
8. The world highest point /elevation/ is land in:
A. Africa B. Asia C. N. America D. Australia
9. is a narrow strip of land that connect two large and masses.
A. Peninsula B. Gulf C. Isthmus D. Island
10. One of the following is the oldest living religion in Japan.
A. Hinduism B. Shintoism C. Judaism D. Islam
11. Which of the following force is responsible in changing the outer face of the earth?
A. Erosion B. Faulting C. Volcanism D. Earth quake
12. All are sparsely populated region of the world. Except:
A. the Nile valley C. Hot and dry land
B. Tundra region D. high mountain pick
13. A type of agriculture concerned with production of food items for home consumption is:
A. subsistence farming C. commercial grain farming
B. daily farming D. livestock farming
14. Which one of the following is not the impact of industrialization on human life?
A. Increase in the rate of production
B. Change in the mode of human life
C. Reduce agricultural productivity
D. Develop transportation and communication system
15. One of the following ancient state included part of the present day of Iran and Afghanistan.
A. The Inca B. The Persia C. The Romance D. None
16. Which area of the world practiced intensive rice cultivation?
A. The dray and hot land C. The river basins of monsoon Asia
B. The tundra region D. all of the above
17. All of the following reasons for the emergence of trade except:
A. to satisfy the material needs
B. having different goods for exchange
C. absence of countries which are not self sufficient in all sort of researches
D. having the same good in all countries of the world
18. Which one gives door to door services?
A. Air transport C. Road transport
B. Rail transport D. all of the above
19. Which continent is located to the east of Europe, West of Pacific Ocean and North of Indian
Ocean?
A. Africa B. Asia C. North America D. Australia
20. All can be causes for the destruction of natural vegetation except:
A. overgrazing C. rapid population growth
B. man caused fire D. afforestation
21. Which super-language family has the largest number of speakers in Africa?
A. Afro-Asiatic B. Niger-Congo C. Bantu D. Semetic
22. A type of agriculture which involves both crop production and livestock or rearing of animals.
A. Peasant cultivation C. Shifting cultivation
B. Subsistence farming D. Sedentary agriculture
23. The Islamic calendar count system starts from:
A. Date of the prophet Mohammed started teaching
B. Time of the hejira took place
C. Time of the spread of Islam throughout Arabs
D. Coming to power of the first caliph
24. Which one is a river deposit of fertilize soil?
A. Loess soil B. Laterite soil C. Alluvial soil D. Sand soil
25. The processing of raw material and the assembling of the components of more complex
product is known as:
A. Enterprising B. Agriculture C. Transporting D. Manufacturing
26. All of the effect of industrial revolution. Except:
A. goods were produced in greater amount
B. the invention of different machine
C. democratic thinking emerged
D. human labour replaced by machine
27. Which one is the most ancient form of livelihood of human kind?
A. Manufacturing B. Agriculture C. Industry D. Assembling
28. Which of the following language is used as an international language in science and
technology?
A. Bantu B. Spanish C. English D. Amharic
29. All are correct about the protection of heritage and heritage site, except:
A. keeping heritage and heritage sties intact
B. throwing or putting any littles in basket
C. allowing bringing chemical products to heritages sites
D. avoiding bringing things that easily catch fire
30. Which region of Africa has the most developed and highest density of road in Africa?
A. Ethiopia B. Eastern Africa C. Western Africa D. RSA
31. The Northern Extreme point of Africa is known as:
A. Ras been Sakka C. Cape Agulhas
B. Cape Vert D. Ras Kaffuun
32. Which one is the only branch of Afro-Asiatic family of language that was spoken out side of
Africa?
A. Kordofanian language C. Bantu family
B. The Omotic language D. Semetic family
33. Which one is not true about the shape and size of Africa?
A. It has regular coast line
B. It has almost a balance position around equator
C. Has a compact shape
D. has large number of harbours
34. Which latitudinal region receives vertical sun ray?
A. The law latitude C. 23½0N and S
B. Tropics D. all of the above
35. Which of the following statement best describes the socio-economic conditions of
developing countries?
A. Stable population growth C. Adequate health Service
B. High economic growth D. High number of Adult illiterates
36. Which of the following is part of an internal forces that changes the land farms?
A. Deposition B. Faulting C. Denudation D. Weathering
37. In your map shading of a given area of low lands are represented by colour.
A. green B. brown C. yellow D. white
Question 38-41 are based on the diagrams below.
38. Point Z is located at

A. 300N latitude and 450E longitude C. 300S latitude and 150E longitude
B. 450N latitude and 150E longitude D. 150N latitude and 150W longitude
39. The latitudinal and longitudinal location of Hawassa is:
A. 300N and 450S latitude and 300W and 450E longitude
B. 450N and 300S latitude and 450E and 300W longitude
C. 300N and S latitude and 450E and W longitude
D. 150E and W latitude and 300N and 450S longitude
40. Point “B” is located at
A. 450N latitude and 300E longitude C. 450S latitude and 300W longitude
B. 300S latitude and 450W longitude D. 300N latitude and 450W longitude
41. The latitudinal difference between point A and B is:
A. 600 B. 750 C. 800 D. 900
42. Which of the following scale of a map can be expressed in the farm of fraction or ratio?
A. Representative C. Graphic scale
B. Scale statement D. Linear scale
43. Which one of the following is an example of intrusive igneous rock?
A. Granite B. Gneiss C. Basalt D. Marble
44. Which statement can describe metamorphic rocks?
A. They are formed through the process of deposition.
B. They are changed rocks underground by high temperature and pressure.
C. They are made up of coaled magma
D. They are composed of organic remnants
45. Among the following ancient state of Eastern Africa. Which one is the earliest?
A. Kush state C. Aksumite state
B. Meroetic state D. Zagwe state
46. A system of writing which developed by ancient Egyptian is known as:
A. Logography B. Hieroglyphic C. Cuneiform D. Pictography
47. One of the following ancient civilization located on the coast of North Africa.
A. Persian civilization C. Roman civilization
B. Cartagean civilization D. Greek civilization
48. In which of the following African country that the first political party was formed?
A. In South Africa B. In Tunisian C. In Ethiopia D. In Egypt
49. Who was the leader of Wadf party in Egypt?
A. Harry Tuku C. Habib Baurgiba
B. Gamal Abdil Nassir D. Zaglul Pasha
50. The Maji-Maji Rebellions were broken out in which colonial country of Germany.
A. Tanganyika B. Central Africa C. Mali D. Guinea
51. Identify the wrong combination of political parties and leaders.
A. Young Kikuyu Association /Harry Tuku
B. The Neo-Dustur party /Habib Baurgiba
C. Wadf party /Gamal Abdil Nassir
D. The ANC
52. The Mali Empire achieved the highest stage of political power and cultural development
during the reign of:
A. Mans Musa C. Amara Dunka
B. Sundiata Keita D. Karangas
53. One refers to patriotic feeling, love and loyalty for one’s own country.
A. Nationalism B. Democracy C. Liberalism D. Pluralism
54. All are the basic causes for the out break of the First World War. except:
A. rivalry among imperialist power C. the Italians invasion of Ethiopia
B. military alliance D. nationalism
55. The assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand in 1914 took place at:
A. Vienna B. France C. Belgrade D. Sarajevo
56. Of all the early anti-colonial expansion of Africa. Which one was successful?
A. The resistance of emperor Menelik against Italy.
B. The resistance of Samori Toure against the French
C. The Ashenafi against the Britain
D. The resistance of Urabi Pasha against the British
57. Which event changed the military balance in the course of the First World War?
A. The involvement of USA into the war
B. The failure of the German war plane
C. The withdrawal of Soviet Russia from the war
D. The division of the German force into East and West
58. The two states that emerged as a super power out of the Second World War?
A. China and USA C. Britain and France
B. USA and USSR D. Britain and USA
59. What was the major source of power during the second stage of industrial revolution?
A. Steam power B. Coal C. Steam engine D. Petroleum
60. The Second World War fought between:
A. The triple entente & triple alliance C. the central power & the allied power
B. the allied power & the axis power D. the US force & the naval base
61. Who is Nelson Mandela?
A. A prominent figure known for his anti-apartheid struggle.
B. A prominent activist who struggled for the equality of women.
C. A prominent activist who struggle for the foundation of AU.
D. A prominent activist who struggled to stop civil war in South Africa.
Set by Nasir Nuri

Set by Physics Department
BNB የትምህርት ማዕከል
2006 ዓ.ም የ 1 ኛ መንፈቀ ዓመት አጠቃላይ የአማርኛ ፈተና ለሰባተኛ ክፍል
ስም ክፍል ተ.ቁ. ውጤት

መመሪያ አንድ፡- የሚከተለውን ምንባብ በፅሞና ካነበባችሁ በኃላ ከምንባቡ ለወጡ ጥያቄዎች
ትክክለኛውን መልስ የያዘውን ፊደል ምረጡላቸው፡፡ የተፈቀደው ሰዓት 40’
ውሻ የሰው ልጅ ታማኝ ጓደኛ ነው፡፡ በሚያብድበት ጊዜ ግን ለማንም አደገኛ ይሆናል፡፡ ለዕብድ ውሻ ተነክሰን
በፍጥንት ተገቢውን ሕክምና ካለገኘን ልንሞት እንችላለን፡፡
ውሻ የሚያብደው ‹‹ራቢስ›› በተባለ በሽታ ሲጠቃ ነው፡፡ የዚህ በሽታ መንስኤ ቫይረስ ሲሆን፣ ከአየር ላይ ወይም
ከሌላ እንስሳ፣ በውሻው ቆዳ ላይ በሚነገኘው ቁስለት ውስጥ ዘልቆ ይገባል፡፡ በዕብድ ውሻ በምንነከስበት ወቅት ይኸው
ቫይረስ ከውሻው ምራቅ ውስጥ በመውጣት ወደ ተነከስንበት ቆዳ ውስጥ ይሰርጋል፡፡ ወዲያውም ወደ ሴንሰሪ ነርቮቻችን
ስርዓት ውስጥ ገብቶ በመራባት አንጎላችንን ሴሎች ማውደም ይጀምራል፡፡
ያበደ ውሻ የማከተሉት ምልክቶች ይታይበታል፡፡ በቅድሚያ በትኩሳት ይጠቃና የምግብ ፍላጐቱ ይከስማል፡፡
ቫይረሱ ወደ ውሻው ውስጥ በዘለቀ ከ 4 – 6 ሳምንት ውስጥ የውሻው አንጎል መጠቃት ይጀምራል፡፡ በዚህም ውሻው
መቅበጥበጥ ይጀምራል፣ ያላዝናል፣ ያለበቂ ምክንያት ይጮሃል፡፡ ከፈፉ ውስጥ ለሃጭ ይዝረበረባል፡፡ ከዚህ በኃላ ውሻው
ጌታውን ጭምር ለመናከስ ይከጅላል፡፡ በዚህ ደረጃ ውሻው በዕብደት እንደተለከፈ መገመት ይቻላል፡፡ የተጠቀሱት
ምልክቶች ከታዩ በኃላ ከ 3 – 5 ቀናት ውስጥ ውሻው ሊሞት ይችላል፡፡
1. የፅሁፍ ርዕስ ምን መሆን አለበት?

ሀ. እብድ ውሻ ለ. ሰውና ውሻ ሐ. ውሻና አመሉ መ. ሁሉም
2. የሁለተኛው አንቀፅ ኃይለ ቃል ከሚገኝበት ቦታ አንፃር የአንቀፁ ቅርፅ የትኛው ነው፡፡
ሀ. ለ. ሐ. መ.
3. ውሻ የሚያብደው በተባለ በሽታ ሲጠቃ ነው፡፡

ሀ. ቫይረስ ለ. ራቢስ ሐ. ነርቭ መ. መልስ የለም
4. ከሚከተሉት ዐ.ነገሮች በምንባቡ መሰረት ትክክለኛው የቱ ነው
ሀ. በእብድ ዉሻ የተነከሰ ሰው ከ 3 – 5 ቀናት ውስጥ ሊሞት ይችላል፡፡
ለ. ያበደ ውሻ ጌታውንም ጭምር ሊነክስ ይችላል፡፡
ሐ. ውሻ የሰው ልጅ ታማኝ ጓደኛ ነው ፡፡ መ. ከ ‹‹ሀ›› በቀር ሁሉም መልስ ነው
5. ከሚከተሉት ውስጥ አንዱ በዕብድ ውሻ ላይ የሚታይ ምልክት አይደለም
ሀ. ውሻው መቅበጥበጥ ይጃምራል፡፡ ሐ. ያለበቂ ምክንያት ይጮኻል
ለ. ለሀጩን ያዘረከርካል መ. ከባለቤቱ ውጪ ሌላ ሰው ይነክሳል፡፡
6. ቫይረሱ ወደ ውሻ ውስጥ በዘለቀ ሣምንት ውስጥ የውሻው አንጎል

መጠቃት ይጀምራል፡፡
ሀ. 4 - 6 ለ. 3 - 5 ሐ. 3 - 4 መ. 4 - 5
7. ያበደ ውሻ የምግብ ፍላጐቱ ይከስማል፡፡ የተሰመረበት ቃል ፍቺ፡-
ሀ. ይደርቃል ለ. ይጠፋል ሐ. ይከታል መ. ይቀጭጫል
8. ‹‹ያዝረበረባል›› ሲል፡-
ሀ. ይዝረከረካል ሐ. ይደርቃል
ለ. ይንጠባጠባል መ. ሀእና ለ መልስ ናቸው
9. ‹‹ይሰርጋል›› ሲል ማለቱ ነው፡፡
ሀ. ይገባል ለ. ይሰምጣል ሐ. ይዘልቃል መ. ሁሉም
10. ይከጅላል ሲል፡-
ሀ. ይመኛል ለ. ያምረዋል ሐ. ይፈልጋል መ. ሁሉም
መመሪያ ሁለት፡- እውነት ወይም ሀሰት በማለት መልሱ፡፡
11. በአማርኛ በቃል ውስጥ የድምፅ መጥበቅና መላለት የፍቺ ልዩነት ያመጣል፡፡
12. ሐረግ ባለቤትና ግስ አሟልቶ የያዘና ሙሉ መልዕክት የማይሰጥ የቃላት ስብስብ ነው፡፡
13. ዐ.ነገሮች በሰዋሰዋዊ ቅርፃቸው በሁለት ይከፈላሉ፡፡
14. ሁለት ነባር ቃላት ተቀናጅተው የሚመሰረተው አዲስ ቃል ቅፅል ይባላል፡፡
15. የስም ገላጭ ከስም ቀድሞ በመግባት ጊዜን፣ ቦታን፣ አኳኋን የሚገልፁ ናቸው፡፡
መመሪያ ሦስት፡- በ"ሀ" ረድፍ ለተዘረዘሩት ቃላት በ"ለ" ረድፍ ከተዘረዘሩት ቃላት
ተቃራኒያቸውን ስጥ፡፡
ሀ ለ
16. ብርቅየ ሀ. ትክክለኛ ስጦታ
17. ጉቦ ለ. ርካሽ
18. ሙስና ሐ. መድፈር
19. ምልጃ መ. ስልጣን በአግባቡ መጠቀም
20. መርበትበት ሠ. ማጣላት
ረ. ማስታረቅ
መመሪያ አራት፡- በሀ ረድፍ ያሉትን ቃላት በለ ረድፍ ካሉት ተሳሳያቸው ጋር አዛምዱ

ሀ ለ
21. እክል ሀ. ጎበዘ /ጠነከረ/
22. ዘረፋ ለ. ነጭ ልብስ
23. ተጋ ሐ. ንጥቂያ
24. ማቅ መ. ችግር
25. ቃና ሠ. ጣዕም
ረ. ቁጥር ልብሶ
መመሪያ አምስት፡- የሚከተሉትን ጥያቄዎች እንደየ አጠያየቃቸው ትክክለኛውን መልስ
የያዘውን ፊደል በመምረጥ መልሱ፡፡
26. ከሚከተሉት ጥያቄዎች (ጥገኛ ምዕላዶች) ውስጥ ወገንን አመልካች የሆነው የቱ ነው፡፡
ሀ. አዋ ለ. ኣን ሐ. ው መ. ሁሉም
27. ከሚከተሉት ሀረጐች መካካል ቅፅላዊ ሀረግ የሆነው የቱ ነው፡፡
ሀ. እንደ እህቱ በጣም ቀይ ሐ. በመኪና
ለ. አባቴ የገዛልኝ ደብተር መ. መልስ የለም
28. ስለአንቀፅ ትክክል የሆነው ዐ.ነገር ከሚከተሉት ውስጥ የቱ ነው፡፡
ሀ. የተደጋጋፊ ዐ.ነገሮ ስብስብ ነው
ለ. መንደርደርያ ዐ.ነገርን የሚያብራራ አነስተኛ የፅሁፍ አካል ነው፡፡
ሐ. የተለየ ሀሳብ የያዘ ዐ. ነገር አይቀላቀልበትም መ. ሁሉም
29. ከሚከተሉት ውስጥ ቀደም ሲል የቀረበውን ሃሳብ በማዛመድ ከቀጣዩ ጋር የሚያያዝ
አያያዥ ቃል የቱ ነው
ሀ. ወይም ለ. ስለሆነም ሐ. ዳሩ ግን መ. ደግሞ
30. ከሚከተሉት ውስጥ በትክክለኛው ስርዓት ነጥብ የተፃፈው ዐ.ነገር የቱ ነው፡፡
ሀ. አስተናጋ ÍE ቀርባ፣ ‹‹ምን ልታዘዝ›› አለቻቸው፡፡
ለ. አስተናጋ ÍE ቀርባ ፣ ‹‹ምን ልታዘዝ›› አለቻቸው፣፡፡
ሐ. አስተናጋ ÍE ቀርባ፣ ‹‹ምን ልተዘዝ፣›› አለቻቸው፡፡
መ. አስተናጋ ÍE ተርባ ‹‹ምን ልታዘዝ፣›› አለቻቸው፡፡
31. ትክክተለኛውን የአፃፃፍ ስርዓት የጠቀውን ምረጡ፡፡
ሀ. ሌባው ስለተያዘ እጅ ከፍንጅ እስር ቤት ገባ፡፡
ሌ ሌባው እጅ ከፍንጅ ስለተያዘ እስር ቤት ገባ፡፡
ሐ ሌባው እስር ቤት ስተያዘ እጅ ከፍንጅ ገባ፡፡
መ. ሌባው እጅ ስለተያዘ እስር ቤት ከፍንጅ ገባ፡፡
32. ከሚከተሉት ውስጥ ትክክል የሆነው አፃፃፍ የቱ ነው፡፡
ሀ. ጉዳዩ ፈር የያዘ ቀስ በቀስ ሄደ፡፡ ሐ. ፈር እየያዘ ቀስ በቀስ ጉዳዩ ሄደ፡፡
ለ. ጉዳዩ ቀስ በቀስ ፈር እየያዘ ሄደ፡፡ መ. ቀስ በቀስ እየያዘ ጉዳዩ ፈር እየያዘ ሄደ፡፡
33. የከበደ መምጣት አስገረመኝ፡፡ የተሰመረበት ቃል የቃል ክፍሉ
ሀ. ስም ለ. ግስ ሐ. ቅፅል መ. ተ . ግስ
34. ሃይሉ እደ ወንድሙ ክፉኛ ታመመ በሚለው ዓ.ነገር ተወሳከ ግሱ ነው፡፡
ሀ. እንደ ለ. ክፉኛ ሐ. ታመመ መ. ሃይሉ
35. ‹‹ ገረፈው›› በሚለው ቃል ውስጥ ባለቤት አመልካች ቅጥያው
ሀ. ፈው ለ. - ው ሐ. - ኧ መ. -ው
አዘጋጅ ኤልሳቤጥ
2006 ዓ.ም የ 1 ኛ መንፈቀ ዓመት አጠቃላይ የአማርኛ ፈተና ለስድስተኛ ክፍል

መመሪያ አንድ፡- ቀጥሎ የቀረበውን ምንባብ መሠረት በማድረግ ከሥሩ ለቀረቡት ጥያቄዎች
ትክክለኛውን መልስ መረጡ፡፡ የተፈቀደው ሰዓት 40’
ዝርው ማለት ሰድ ማለት ነው፡፡ ዝርው /ስድ/ ጽሑፍ ወይም ድርሰት ማለት ደግሞ እንደ ግጥም የምጣኔ
ገደብ ሳይጣልባቸው የተዋቀሩ ዓ.ነገሮች ህብረት /ስብስብ/ በወረቀት መስፈር ማለት ነው፡፡ ዓ.ነገር ደግሞ ቢያንስ
ቢያንስ ሁለት የዓ.ነገር ምሰሶ የሆኑ መዋቅሮችን ማለትም የዓ.ነገር ባለቤትንና ግሥን መያዝ አለበት፡፡ ከዚህ ባለፈ ግን
እንደ ሀሳብ ገለጩ ስሜት፣ ችሎታና ምርጫ ዐ.ነገር ሊያጥር ወይም ሊረዝም ይችላል፡፡ የዓ.ነገር ባለቤትንና ግሥን
/ማሠሪያ አንቀጽን/ የበለጠ ግልጽና ጠቃሚ ለማድረግ ልዩ ልዩ ሙያ ያላቸው ቃላትን እንዳስፈላጊነቱ መገልገል
የሀሳብ ገለጩ ምርጫ ነው፡፡ የሰዎች ምርጫ ደግሞ የተለያየ ነው፡፡ አንዳንድ ሰዎች ሀሳበቸውን በአጫጭር ዓ.ነገር
መግለጽ ይመርጣሉ፡፡ የተወሰኑት ደግሞ ረጃጅም ዐ.ነገሮች ካልመሠረቱ ሀሳባቸውን የገለፁ አይመስላቸውም፣
አብዛኛዎቹ ደግሞ መካከለኛ የሆኑ /አጭርም ሆነ ረጅም የማይባሉ ዓ.ነገሮች ይጠቀማሉ፡፡ እያቀላቀሉ ሀሳብን
መግለጽም የተለመደ ነገር ነው፡፡
ሰዎች ከላይ በተዘረዘሩት የሀሳብ መግለጫ ስልቶች ዓ.ነገሮችን አዋቅርው ወረቀትና ብዕርን አራክበው
በጽሑፍ በሚያሰፍሩበት ወቅት ስድ ጽሑፍ ወይም ዝርው ድርሰት ፃፍ ማለት እንችላለን፡፡ በምጣኔ መስፈርትም
ተመልክተን ከግጥም የተለየ ድርሰት መሆኑን መናገር የምንችልበት እውቀት አለን፡፡
ምንጭ አዲሱ የአማርኛ መመሪያ ከሀብታሙ ደመቀ
1. እንደ ግጥም የምጣኔ ገደብ ሳይጣልባቸው የተዋቀሩ አ/ነገሮች ስብስብ በወረቀት መስፈር
ማለት ነው፡፡
ሀ. ዝርው ለ. ስድ ጽሑፍ ሐ. ግጥም መ. ሀ ና ለ
2. በምንባቡ ውስጥ "የአ/ነገር ምሰሶ የሆኑ መዋቅሮች" የተባሉት ምንድናቸው?
ሀ. ባለቤትና ቅጽል ሐ. ባለቤትና ግሥ
ለ. ባለቤትና የግሥ ገላጭ መ. ሁሉም
3. ከሚከተሉት አማራጮች መካከል ግስን ሊወክል የሚችለው የቱ ነው?
ሀ. የግሥ ገላጭ ሐ. የማሰሪያ አንቀጽ ገላጭ
ለ. ማሰሪያ አንቀጽ መ. ሁሉም
4. መካከለኛ የሆኑ ማለትም አጭርም ሆነ ረጅም የማይባሉ አ/ነገሮች በመጠቀም ሀሳባቸውን
የሚገልጹ የትኞቹ ናቸው?
ሀ. አብዛኛዎቹ ሰዎች ሐ. ጥቂት ሰዎች
ለ. አንዳንድ ሰዎች መ. ሁሉም የህብረተሰብ ክፍሎች
5. ለምንባብ ርዕስ ሊሆን የሚችለው የቱ ነው?
ሀ. ዝርው ለ. ልቦለድ ሐ. ግጥም መ. መልስ የለም
መመሪያ ሁለት፡- የሚከተሉትን ጥያቄዎች እውነት ወይም ሀሰት በማለት በክፍት ቦታዎች
ላይ ሙሉ፡፡
1. አንድ ሰው የእጅ ሙያ ችሎታውን ለማዳበር ደጋግሞ መለማመድ እንደሚኖርበት ሁሉ
ንባብም ይህን ባህሪ ይጋራል፡፡
2. መፃህፍት በቤተ መጻህፍት ውስጥ በደራሲው ስም፣ በአርእስትና በይዘት ተለይተው
በዝርዝር ካርዶች ላይ በፊደል ወይም በመለያ ቁጥር በተራ ይቀመጣል፡፡
3. የሚነበቡ ቃላትን በአእምሮ መጥራት ለፍጥነት አጋዥ ነው፡፡
4. ‹‹እቴነሽና አበጀ ፍቅራቸው አልቆ ሆድና ጀርባ ሆነዋል›› ሲል ተጣልተዋል እንደማለት
ነው፡፡
5. ‹‹ከሽፍቶቹ አንዱ እጁን ሰጠ›› ሲል ተማረከ ማለት ነው፡፡
6. በአንድ ነጠላ ቃል መግለፅ የማይቻልን ሀሳብ በድርብ ቃል መግለፅ ያስችለናል፡፡
7. / -ች/ እንሰት ፆታን ለይቶ ለማመልከት የገባ መድረሻ ቅጥያ ነው፡፡
8. ንባብን ለሌሎች ለማሰማት ሲፈለግ ከንፈርን በማንቀሳቀስ ጽምፅ በመፍጠር ጮክ ብሎ
ማንበብ ያሻል፡፡
መመሪያ ሦስት፡- በ"ሀ" ሥር የተዘረዘሩት ቃላት በ"ለ" ሥር ከተዘረዘሩት ጋር ፍቻቸውን
አዛምዱ፡፡
ሀ ለ
9. እድሜ ጠገብ ሀ. እሳቤ
10. ሥመ - ጥር ለ. መደብ
11. ፅንሰ - ሀሳብ ሐ. መመዘኛ
12. ፈረጅ መ. ዝነኛ /ታዋቂ
13. ደብዛዛ ሠ. ፈዛዛ
14. መሥፈርት ረ. ሽማግሌ
መመሪያ አራት፡- ቀጥሎ የተለያዩ ጥያቄዎች ቀርበዋል፡፡ ለእየንዳንዱ ጥያቄ ከተሰጡት አማራጮች
ትክክለኛውን መልስ ምረጡ፡፡
1. የአንድን ርዕስ ጉዳይ የተለያዩ ገፅታዎች የሚመለከት፣ አላማ ያለውና በእቅድ

የተዘጋጀው ነው፡፡
ሀ. ንግግር ለ. ክርክር ሐ. ቋንቋ መ. ውይይት
2. ከለመንቲና የሻሻመኔ ልጅ ናት፡፡ የተሰመረበት ቃል የቱ ነው?
ሀ. የስም ገላጭ ለ. ቅጽል ሐ. የግ ገላጭ መ. ሀ ና ለ መልስ ናቸው
3. ከሚከተሉት ውስጥ ዳኞች የሚያስፈልጉት የቱ ነው?
ሀ. ውይይት ለ. ክርክር ሐ. ጭውውት መ. ሁሉም ልክ
4. ልደት ለሰው የምታዝን ሩህሩህ ልጅ ናት፡፡ የተሰመረበት ቃል ተቃራኒ ትርጉም የቱ
ነው?
ሀ. ጨካኝ ለ. ክፉ ሐ. ጠንካራ መ. ብርቱ
5. በሁለትና ከዚያም በላይ በሆኑ ሰዎች መካከል የሚደረግ ለስሜት የሚቀርብናሥርአት
ያለው የሀሳብ ልውውጥ ይባላል፡፡
ሀ. ጭውውት ለ. ውይይት ሐ. ክርክር መ. ንግግር
6. የተለየዩ መጻሐፍት የሚገኙበትና የሚነበቡበት ቦታ ነው፡፡
ሀ. ትምህርት ቤት ለ. ቤተመጻሐፍት ሐ. የጥናት ክፍል መ. ሁሉም
መመሪያ አምስት፡- ከጥያቄ 15 እስከ 20 ለቀረቡት ጥያቄዎች እንደ አጠያየቃቸው ለባዶ

ቦታዎቹ ተስማሚ የሚሆነውን መልስ በመጻፍ መልሱ፡፡
ሀ. በክፍት ቦታዎቹ ላይ ተጨማሪ የሚሆን ቃል በመጻፍ አሟሉ፡፡
15. መዘክር
16. ወራሽ
ለ ቀጥሎ ለቀረቡት ዐ.ነገሮች ባለቤትና ማሰሪያ አንቀፅ አውጡ
17. ዐ. ነገር ባለቤት ማሰሪያ አንቀፅ
ያነበብኩትን ታሪክ ለጓደኛዬ ነገርኩት
18. የት/ ቤቱ ተማሪዎች ጥሩ ውጤት አመጡ
ሐ. የሚከተሉትን ቃላት ወደ ሀረግና ዐ.ነገር አሳድጓቸው፡፡
19. ቃል - ታዋቂ
ሐረግ
ዐ.ነገር
20. ቃል - ጎበዝ
ሐረግ
ዐ.ነገር
አዘጋጅ ታዴዎስና ታምራት
ጥር 2006
2006 ዓ.ም የ 1 ኛ መንፈቀ ዓመት አጠቃላይ የአማርኛ ፈተና ለአምስተኛ ክፍል
መመሪያ አንድ፡-ቀጥሎ የተፃፈውን ምንባብ በጥሞና ከአነበባችሁ በኃላ ከስሩ የቀረቡትን

ጥያቄዎች መልሱ፡፡
የተፈቀደው ሰዓት 40 ደቂቃ
ምንባብ
አንድ ህዋስ እንስሳ ወይም ኘሮቶዙዋ የሚባሉት አንድ ህዋስ ያላቸው ከአካል /ዘረ አካል/ ናቸው፡፡ እነዚህ አንድ
ህዋስ እንስሳት ረቂቅ ከመሆናቸው የተነሳ በአይን አይታዩም፡፡ ሊታዩ የሚችሉት አጉልቶ በሚያሳይ መሣሪያ
/ማይክሮስኮኘ/ በመጠቀም ነው፡፡ በሽታን የሚያመጡ የኘሮቶዞዋ እንስሳት ብዙና የተለያዩ ናቸው፡፡ አሜባ፣ ጃርዲያ፣ ወባ
እና ወዘተ ምሳሌዎች ናቸው፡፡
ከአሜባ ዝርያዎች ኢንታሜባ ሂስቶሊቲካ የሚባለው በሰው አንጀት ውስጥ የሚኖር ጥገኛ እንስሳ ነው፡፡ ወደ
ሰውነታችን የሚገባው በተበከለ ውሃና ምግብ አማካኝነት ነው፡፡ አሜባ የአንጀት ግድግዳን በመጉዳት ለህመም ይዳርጋል፡፡
አሜባ ሲይዘን ደም የተቀላቀለበት የተቅማጥ በሽታ ይይዘናል፡፡ መከላከል የሚቻለው የሚበሉና የሚጠጡ ነገሮችን
በንጽሕና በመያዝና በመታከም ነው፡፡
ጃርዲያ እንደ አሜባ ያለ ማይክሮስኮኘ እርዳታ ሊታይ የማይችል ረቂቅ አንድ ህዋስ እንስሳ ነው፡፡ ጃርዲያ
በአንጀት ውስጥ የሚኖርና የሰውን ምግብና ቫይታሚኖች በመሻማት በሰው ላይ ጉዳት የሚያመጣ ነው፡፡ የመተላፊያ
መንገዱ እና መከላከያው አሜባ ላይ እንደተጠቀሰው ነው፡፡
የወባ በሽታ የሚመጣው ኘላስሞዲያም በሚባሉ አንድ ህዋሴዎች ነው፡፡ እነዚህ ኘላስሞዲየም የሚባሉት ህዋሳት
ከበሽተኛ ሰው ወደጤነኛ ሰው የሚያስተላልፉት የወባ ትንኞች ናቸው፡፡ የወባ በሽታ ሲይዘን ከፍተኛ ትኩሳትና የራስ
ምታት ይኖራል፡፡ አንዳንድ ጊዜ በወረርሽኝ መልክ በመከሰት የብዙ ሰዎች ሕይወትን ይቀጥፋል፡፡ የወባ በሽታን
ለመቆጣጠር በሽታውን የምታስተላልፈውን ሴቷን ትንኝ ማጥፋት ያስፈልጋል፡፡
በምንባቡ መሠረት እውነት ወይም ሀሰት በማለት መልሱ፡፡
1. ጃአርዲያ ወደ ሰውነታችን የሚገባው በተበከለ ውሃና ምግብ አማካኝነት ነው፡፡

2. የምንባቡ ርዕስ አንድ ህዋስ /ኘሮቶዞዋ/ ቢባል ትክክል ነው፡፡
3. አንድ ህዋስ እንስሳ የሚባሉትን አሜባ፣ ጃርዲያና ወባ ብቻ ናቸው፡፡
4. ኘላስሞዲየም የሚባሉት አንድ ህዋሴዎች የአሜባ በሽታ ያመጣሉ
5. አሜባ ደም የተቀላቀለ የተቅማጥ በሽታ ነው፡፡
መመሪያ ሁለት፡- በምንባቡ መሠረት በ"ሀ" ረድፍ ያሉትን በ "ለ" ረድፍ ካሉት ጋር
አዛምዱ፡፡
ሀ ለ
6. የብዙ ሰው ህይወት ይቀጥፋል ሀ. ትኩሳትና የራስ ምታት
7. የወባ በሽታን ለመከላከል ለ. ኘላስሞዲያም
8. በሰው አንጀት ውስጥ የሚኖር ጥገኛ እንስሳ ሐ. ሴቷን ትንኝ ማጥፋት
9. የወባ በሽታን የሚያመጣ አንደ ህዋስ እንስሳ መ. ብዙ ሰው ይገላል
10. የሰውን ምግብና ቫይታሚኖች የሚሻማ ሠ. ኢንታሜባሂስቶሊቲካ
ረ. ማይክሮስኮኘ
ሰ. ጂአርዲያ
መመሪያ ሦስት፡- ለሚከተሉት ጥያቄዎች ከተሰጡት አራት አማራጮች ይበልጥ የሚቀርበውን መልስ
የያዘውን ፊደል ምረጡ፡፡
11. ምግብ በልቼ ካልጠጣሁ የጠገብኩ አይመስለኝም፡፡

ሀ. ቁርጥ ስጋ ለ. አልኮል ሐ. ውሀ መ. ሁሉም
12. ሕፃኑ ሲያለቅስ አንጀቴን በላኝ፡፡ ሲል ምን ማለቱ ነው
ሀ. አፉ አደረገኝ ሐ. አሳዘነኝ
ለ. ተመገበ መ. ቁርጠት ያዘኝ
13. ልብሱን ይዘህ ና! ዐ/ነገር ነው፡፡
ሀ. ሐተታዊ ሐ. ትዕዛዛዊ
ለ. ጥያቄያዊ መ. አጋናኝ
14. አረፍተ ነገሮች ከሚያስተላልፉት መልዕክት አኳያ በ ይከፈላል፡፡
ሀ. በአራት ለ. በሁለት ሐ. በአምስት መ. አይትወቅም
15. ከትምህርት ቤታችን ደንብና መመሪያ የሚመደበው
ሀ. የትምህርት ቤቱን ንብረት በጥንቃቄ መያዝ
ለ. የለ በቂ ምክንያት ከትምህርት ገበታ አለመቅረት
ሐ. ወደ ት/ቤት ሲመጡ የደንብ ልብስ /ዩኒፎርም/ መልበስ መ. ሁሉም
16. ጐራ ለይተው አንዱ ሌላውን ለማሳመን ወይ ለመርታታ የሚደረግ የሀሳብ ፍጭት ነው፡፡
ሀ. ጭውውት ለ. ውይይት ሐ. ክርክር መ. ሁሉም
17. በአካባቢያችን በተደጋጋሚ የሚፈጠርን ችግር ለመፍታት የመፍቴ ሀሳብ የሚቀርብበት
ነው፡፡
ሀ. ክርክር ለ. ውይይት ሐ. ጭውውት መ. ሀ እና ለ
18. የአንድ ነገርን ለመሥራት ወይም ለመከላከል የሚረዱ በቅደም ተከተል
የሚቀመጥበት ነው፡፡
ሀ. መመሪያ ለ. ቅጣት ሐ. ጭውውት መ. መልሱ የለም
19. ህይወት ያላቸው የሚናገሩና የሚያናግሩ ህያዋን ሥራዎች ናቸው

ሀ. መፅሐፍት ለ. ለፅሔቶች ሐ. ጋዜጦች መ. ሁሉም
20. ከሚከተሉት የውይይት አቀራረብ መመሪያ ያልሆነው የቱ ነው?
ሀ. ንፁህ ያልሆነ ልብስ አለመልበስ ሐ. አለባበስን ማሰመር
ለ. አለባበስን ማስተካከል መ. መልሱ የለም
21. ትውልድ ባለበት መረገጡ አይቀሬ ነው የሚለው አባባልን የሚያመለክተው፡-
ሀ. ሁል ጊዜ አዳዲስ ነገሮችን ለማወቅ ጥረት መደረግ እንዳለበት ለማመልከት ነው
ለ. በምናውቀው ዕውቀት ላይ መጨመር ለማሳየት ነው
ሐ. የዕውቀት አድማስን በንባብ ካላጎለበተ መበሰበሱን በማሳየት ነው
መ. ሁሉም መልስ ነው
22. በየቀኑ ሳታቋርጥ ለማንበብ ሞክር ሲል
ሀ. ትኩረትህን ንባብ ላይ አድርግ
ለ. የማንበብ ልምድን አዳብር
ሐ. በኘሮግራም ተጠቅመህ የተለያዩ መፅሐፎችን ለማንበብ ጥረት አድርግ
መ. ሁሉም መልስ ናቸው
23. አነጋገሯ ልቤን መታው የተሠመረበት ቃል
ሀ. ልቤን ወጋችው ለ. አሳዘነችኝ ሐ. ደበደበችኝ መ. የለም
24. በነገር ልቤን ፋቀው ሲል ማለቱ ነው?
ሀ. አቆሰለው ለ. በከንቱ አደከመኝ ሐ. አስለቸኝ መ. ለ ና ሐ
25. ጠረገ ብሎ መጥረጊያ ካለ ገደለ ብሎ
ሀ. ግድያ ለ. መግደያ ሐ. ገዳይ መ. አገዳደል
መመሪያ አራት፡- ባዶ ቦታውን በተገቢው ቃላት ሙሉ፡፡
26. በሁለት ሰዎች ወይም ቡድኖች መካከል ዳኞች ተሰይመው አቋማቸውን

የማሣመን ብቃታቸውን የሚያሳይበት ነው
27. በተወሰነ ጥያቄ ወይም ችግር ዙሪያ በማመለከታቻው ሰዎች መካከል
የሚካሄድ የሀሳብ ልውውጥ ነው፡፡
28. አረፍተ ነገሮች ከሚያስተላልፉ መልዕክት አኳያ በአራት ይከፈላሉ፡፡
እነርሱም 1.
2.
3.
4.
29. ሰውዬው ከጠዋት አንስቶ በመጠጣቱ ውሀ ወሰደው ሲል ማለቱ ነው፡፡
አዘጋጅ በመ/ር ግርማ እና ታምራት

2006 ዓ.ም የ 1 ኛ መንፈቀ ዓመት አጠቃላይ የአማርኛ ፈተና ለአምስተኛ ክፍል
መመሪያ አንድ፡- አረፍተ ነገሩን የሚያሟላ ቃል ከሳጥን ውስጥ እየመረጥክ ሙላ፡፡
አነበበ ሌባ ጫማ አጠበች እርሻ
1. እስቅኤል መጽሐፍ
2. ሜሮን አዲስ ተገዛላት፡፡
3. ገበሬው አረሰ
4. አበበች ልብስ
5. ፖሊስ ሌባ
መመሪያ ሁለት፡ ተስማሚውን ቃል እየመረጥክ አረፍተ ነገር ስራ፡፡
6. ዝናብ ሀ. ነዳ
7. ደውል ለ. ተደወለ
8. ችግኝ ሐ. ጠጣ
9. መኪና መ. አነበበ
10. እንጨት ሠ. ለበሰ
11. አልጋ ላይ ረ. በላ
12. ዳቦ ሰ. ተከለ
13. ውሃ ሸ. ፈለጠ
14. መጽሐፍ ቀ. ተኛ
15. ልብስ በ. ዘነበ

2006 ዓ.ም የ 1 ኛ መንፈቀ ዓመት አጠቃላይ የአማርኛ ፈተና ለአራተኛ ክፍል

መመሪያ አንድ፡- ቀጥሎ የተፃፈውን ምንባብ በጥሞና ከአነበባችሁ በኃላ ከስሩ የቀረቡትን
ጥያቄዎች መልሱ፡፡
ጉንፋን የተፈቀደው ሰዓት 50’
ቫይረስ በተባሉ የጉንፋን ጀርሞች ቀጥታ የሚመጣ በአክታና በትንፋሽ የሚተላለፍና የሚያስል በሽታ ጉንፋን
ይባላል፡፡ ለዚህም በሽታ መነሻ ዋና ምክንያት የንጽሕና ጉድለት ነው፡፡
አንድ ሰው ጐንፋን እንደያዘው ለማወቅ የሚረዱ ምክንያቶች አሉ ይኸውም ሰውዬው ያስነጥሳል ንፍጥ
ይበዛበታል፣ የምግብ ፍላጐቱ ይቀንሳል በተጨማሪም ትኩሳት ይሰማዋል ጉሮሮው ይቆስላል መላ ሰውነቱ ይታወካል
ድምፁ ይለወጣል አንዳንዴም አፉ ይሸታል፡፡
በሽተኞው በሚስልበትና በሚያነጥስበት ወቅት በሽታው ከሕመምተኛው ወደ ጤናኛው ሰው በቀላሉ
ይተላለፋል ይህ በሽታ በተለይ ሕፃናትን ያጠቃል፡፡ ስለዚህ ሰውነትንና አካባቢን በንጽህና በመጠበቅ የጐንፋንን በሽታ
ከመከላከል ከሚረዱ ዘዴዎች አንዱ ነው፡፡ በተጨማሪም ምግብን በንፅህና ማዘጋጃት በሽተኛው እንዳይበርደው
የብርድ ልብስ ማልበስ እረፍት እንዲያገኝ ማስተኛት ሳል የሚከላከል መድኃኒት መስጠት ይገባል፡፡ ሰውነቱን ካተኮሰው
ጥሩ ምግብ በመጠኑ እየተመገበ ፈሳሽ ነገር እንደ ሻይ ቡና የፍራፍሬ ጭማቂ የመሳሰሉትን በብዛት መስጠት
በሽታውን ለመከላከል ይጠቅማል፡፡
ከዚህ በተረፈ ጉንፋን የያዘው ሰው ሲስል፣ ሲያስነጥስ ሲተነፍስ አፉንና አፍጫውን በመሀረብ መሸፈን
ይገባዋል፡፡
መመሪያ ሁለት፡- የሚከተሉትን አ/ነገሮች በምንባቡ መሠረት እውነት ወይም ሐሰት

በሉ፡፡
1. ጉንፋን ተላላፊ በሽታ ነው፡፡
2. የንፅህና ጉድለት የጉንፋን በሽታ ያመጣል፡፡
3. ጉንፋን የሚያጠቃው በተለይ ሽማግሌዎችን ነው፡፡
4. ድምፁ ወፈር ያለ ሰው ሁሉ ጉንፋን የየዘው ነው፡፡
5. ከምንወደው ሰው ይልቅ የምንጠላው ሰው ቢስልብን ጉንፋን ይይዘናል፡፡
መመሪያ ሁለት፡- የሚከተሉትን ባዶ ሥፍራዎች በምንባቡ መሠረት ከተሠጡት ቃላት ወይም ሐረጐች
እየመረጣችሁ ሙሉ፡፡
ቡና ጉንፋን ሲስል የምግብ ፍላጐት

ስያነጥስ በሽታውን ንፍጥ ይበዛበታል
6. ጉንፋን የያዘው ሰው ወይም አፉንና አፍንጫውን በመሃረብ

መሸፈን ይገባል፡፡
7. ጉንፋን የያዘው ሰው ሰውነቱን ካተኮሰው መልካም ምግብ በመጠኑ እየተመገበ ፈሳሽ ነገር እንደ
ሻይ የፍራፍሬ ጭማቂ በበዛት መጠጣት ለመከላከል ይጠቅማል፡፡
8. የያዘው ሰው ያነጥሳል ፣ ይቀንሳል
መመሪያ ሦስት፡- ቀጥሎ ለቀረቡት ጥያቄዎች ከተሰጡት አራት አማራጮች ይበልጥ የሚቀርበውን
መልስ የያዘውን ፊደል ምረጡ፡፡
9. ከሰጡት አማራጮች ሐታታዊ አ/ነገር የያዘው የቱ ነው፡፡
ሀ. ምሳን በአሰአቱ መብላት ተገቢ ነው፡፡ ሐ. ምሳሽን ብይ
ለ. ምሳሽን በላሽ መ. መልሱ የለም
10. ከአንድ ቃል ከፍ ያለ የተወሰነ ሀሳብ የሚገልፅና በጅምር የቀረ ሐሳብ ነው፡፡
ሀ. አረፍተ ነገር ለ. ድርብ ቃል ሐ. ሐረግ መ. ቃል
11. 245 በአማርኛ ቁጥር ሲፃፍ
ሀ. 245 ለ. 2)$5 ሐ. 2)$5 መ. 2$5
12. ቃላትን አሳጥሮ ለመፃፍ የመንጠቀምበት የስርአተ ነጥብ አይነት
ሀ. ንዑስ ጭረት ሐ. ይዘት
ለ. ትምዕርተ ጥቅስ መ. ሁለት ነጥብ
13. አመለኛው በቅሎ ባለቤቱን ያስቸግራል፡፡ /የስም ገላጩ ቃል የቱ ነው፡፡
ሀ. በቅሎ ለ. አመለኛው ሐ. ያስቸግራል መ. ባለቤቱን
14. በራሱ ትርጉም ያለው የተወሰነ ጽንሰ ሀሳብን የሚገልፅ በሥርአት
የተደረደሩ ሆሄያት ስብስብ ነው፡፡
ሀ. ሐረግ ለ. ቃል ሐ. አ/ነገር መ. አንቀጽ
15. በየነች የቤት ሥራዋን ሠራች በሚለው ዐ/ነገር ባለቤት ነው፡፡
ሀ. የቤት ሥራዋን ለ. ሠራች ሐ. በየነች መ. ሀ እና ለ
16. ምሳዋን በላች፡፡ የሚለውን ወደ ትዕዛዛዊ አ/ነገር ሲለወጥ
ሀ. ምሳሽን በላሽ ሐ. ምሳሽን ብይ
ለ. አቤት እንዴት ሆዳም ናት
17. የተለያዩ አይነት መጽሐፍቶች ሐይማኖትን ፖለቲካን ሣይንስንና ወዘተ
የሚገልፁ በስርአት ተደርድረው የሚገኙበት ነው፡፡
ሀ. ቤተ መጽሐፍት ለ. ቤ ክርስቲያን ሐ. ቤተ መንግሥት
18. ንባባ ረዘም ባለ ጊዜ ውስጥ ያንድን ጽሑፍ ፍሬ ሀሳብ ለመረዳት
የሚከናወን የንባብ ዓይነት ነው፡፡
ሀ. የዝግታ ለ. የፍጥነት ሐ. የአሰሳ መ. ሁሉም
20. የተለያዩ መጽሀፍትን ከማንበብ ብዙ እወቀት ማግኘት ይቻላል፡፡ ሲል የአ ነገር አይነት
ሀ. ጥያቄያዊ ለ. ሐተታዊ ሐ. ትዕዛዛዊ
21. በአንተ እንዲደረግ የማትፈልገውን ነገር በሌሎች አታደርግ፡፡ የዚህ አ.ነገር አይነት
ሀ. ትዕዛዛዊ ለ. ጥያቄያዊ ሐ. ሐተታዊ
22. ስለ አንድ ሀሳብ ብቻ የሚያብራራ ከልዩ ልዩ አ/ነገሮች የሚገነባ
ሀ. ድርሰት ለ. አ.ነገር ሐ. አንቀጽ
23. የጽሁፍ ፍሬ ሀሣብ ለመረዳት፣ ለግንዛቤ፣ ለማስተዋል የሚደረግ የንባብ አይነት
ሀ. የፍጥነት ንባብ ለ. የዝግታ ንባብ ሐ. የአሰሳ ንባብ
24. አንድን ጽሁፍ በአጭር ጊዜ አንብቦ ፍሬ ሀሣቡን ለመረዳት የሚያገለግል የንባብ አይነት
ሀ. የዝግታ ንባብ ለ. የፍጥንት ንባብ ሐ. የአሰሳ ንባብ
25. ከጽሁፍ ውስጥ ተፈላጊ ነጥቦችን ለማግኘት የሚደረግ የንባብ ስልት ነው፡፡
ሀ. የአሰሳ ንባብ ለ. የዝግታ ንባብ ሐ. የፍጥነት ንባብ
26. ጎበዝ ተማሪ ሁል ጊዜ ያጠናል፡፡ በዚህ አ.ነገር ውስጥ የስም ገለጩ ነው፡፡
ሀ. ጎበዝ ለ. ተማሪ ሐ. ሁል ጊዜ
27. ክሚከተሉት አንዱ የተማላ ሀሣብ ያስተላልፋል፡፡
ሀ. ቃል ለ. አረፍተ ነገር ሐ. ሀረግ
28. ከሀተታዊ አ/ነገር መጨረሻ የሚገባው ሥርዓተ ነጥብ
ሀ. ? ለ. ፣ ሐ. ፡፡ መ. ፡
መመሪያ አራት፡- ቀጥሎ የቀረቡትን ቃላት ከተመሣሣያቸው ጋር አዛምዱ፡፡

1. ጉድፍ ሀ. ብልጥ
2. ብልህ ለ. ቆሻሻ
3. ንፉግ ሐ. ጠንካራ
4. ብርቱ መ. ጓጓ /ፈለገ/
5. ተመኘ ሠ. ስስታም
6. ገላ ረ. ሰውነት
መመሪያ አምስት፡- ለሚከተሉት ቃላት ተቃራኒያቸውን ፃፉ፡፡
7. ፈዛዛ
8. ጨካኝ
9. ረገመ
10 ታማኝ
11. ናቂ
12. በተነ አዘጋጆች መ/ር ግርማ እና አያል
2006 ዓ.ም የ 1 ኛ መንፈቀ ዓመት አጠቃላይ የአማርኛ ፈተና ለሦስተኛ ክፍል

አዞ የተፈቀደው ሰዓት 40’
አዞ ግዙፍና ረጅም አካል፣ አጫጭር እግሮች፣ መጋዝ ጥርቦችና ሰፊ አፍ እንዲሁም
ጠንካራና ተጋራፊ ጅራት ያለው እንስሳ ነው፡፡ አዞዎች ሞቃታማ እና እረግረጋማ አካባቢ እንዲሁም
በዝግታ የሚፈሱ ወንዞችን ለመኖር ይመርጣሉ፡፡ አዞዎች ስጋ በል ናቸው፡፡ አዞዎች አብዛኛውን ጊዜ
የሚመገቡት አሳ፣ ወፍና ትናንሽ ጡት አጥቢ እንስሳት ናቸው፡፡ የአዞ እድሜ ከ 100 አመት
ይበልጣል፡፡ አንዳንዶቹ አዞዎች እስከ 6.5 ሜትር የሚደርስ እርዝማኔና 1.5 ቶን የሚደርስ ክብደት
አላቸው፡፡ አዞ ክብደቱ ብቻ ሳይሆን ቆርፋዳ ቆዳውም አስፈሪ ፍጥረት ያደርገዋል፡፡ አዞዎች በእጅጉ
ቁጡና ተንኳሽ የሚሆኑት እንስሳት ወደ እንቁላሎቻቸው እና ወደ ግልገሎቻቸው ሲጠጉ ነው፡፡
ከአዞ ቆዳ ቦርሳ፣ ጃኬት፣ ጫማ፣ ቀበቶ ወ.ዘ.ተ ስለሚሰራ ስዎች አዞዎችን ለውድ ቆዳቸው ሲሉ
ያድኗቸዋል፡፡
መመሪያ አንድ፡- በምንባቡ መሠረት ‹‹እውነት›› ወይም ‹‹ሐሰት›› በማለት መልሱ፡፡
1. አዞ ስጋ እና እፅዋቶችን ይመገባል፡፡
2. የአዞ እድሜ ከ 100 አመት ይበልጣል፡፡
3. የአዞዎች ምግብ አሳ፣ ወፍ እና ትናንሽ አጥቢ እንስሳቶች ናቸው፡፡
4. አዞዎች 1.5 ቶን የሚመዝን ክብደት አላቸው፡፡
5. አዞ በፍጥነት የሚፈስ ወንዝና ሞቃታማ አካባቢን ለመኖሪያነት ይመርጣል፡፡
መመሪያ ሁለት በ"ሀ"ስር ለቀረቡት ቃላት ከ"ለ"ስር ተቃራኒያቸውን በመፈለግ አዛምዱ፡፡

ሀ ለ
6. ደገኛ ሀ. ነቀለ
7. ተከለ ለ. እርግማን
8. ህፃን ሐ. ቆለኛ
9. ምርቃት መ. መሞት
10. መኖር ሠ. አዋቂ
መመሪያ ሦስት፡- ለሚከተሉት ጥያቄዎች ትክክለኛውን መልስ ምረጡ፡፡

11. ከሚከተሉት ውስጥ አንዱ ከማዳመጥ እንቅፋቶች ውስጥ ይምደባል፡፡
ሀ. መረበሽ
ለ. በፀጥታ ማዳመጥ ሐ. በትኩረት ማዳመጥና መመለስ
12. የተፃፈን መረጃ አንብበን የምናውቅበት ዘዴ ነው፡፡
ሀ. ፅሁፍ ለ. ንባብ ሐ. ማዳመጥ
13. ሁለት ቃላት አንድ ላይ ተያይዘው የሚፈጥሩት አዲስ ቃል ይባላል፡፡
ሀ. ምህፃረ - ቃል ለ. ድርብ ቃል ሐ. ነጠላ ቃል
14. ከስም በፊት እየገቡ የስሙን አይነት፣ ባህሪ፣ መጠን ወ.ዘ.ተ የሚገልፁ
ይባላሉ፡፡
ሀ. ገላጭ ቃል ለ. ማሰሪያ አንቀፅ ሐ. አንቀፅ
15. የጅብ ከርቀት ይሰማል፡፡
ሀ. እንቅልፍ ለ. ጩኧት ሐ. አበላል
16. መሬት ላይ ብላ ተቀመጠች
ሀ. ቁጢጥ ለ. ቆማ ሐ. ሹልክ
17. ከማሳው ተያይዘው ወጡ፡፡ በሚለው አ/ነገር ውስጥ የተሰመረበት ቃል ተመሳሳዩ
ነው፡፡
ሀ. ከአዝመራው ለ. ከሜዳው ሐ. ከጓሮ
መመሪያ አራት፡- ተዘበራርቀው የተቀመጡ ቃላትን በማስተካከል ትክክለኛ አ/ነገር

መስርቱ፡፡
18. ትታለባለች፣ ወተት፣ላሟ
19. ስራ፣ የቤት፣ ሰርተሻል?
20. ነች፣ ተማሪ፣ ልጅቷ፣ ጐበዝ
21. ይመጣል፣ ወይም፣ ነገ፣ ዛሬ
22. ስታነብ፣ አትቆጥርም፣ ፊደል፣ ልጅቷ
አዘጋጅ ሙሉ ጌ
2006 ዓ.ም የ 1 ኛ መንፈቀ ዓመት አጠቃላይ የአማርኛ ፈተና ለሁለተኛ ክፍል

መመሪያ አንድ፡ ቀጥሎ የቀረበውን ምንባብ አንብባችሁ ከሥሩ የቀረቡትን ጥያቄዎች
መልሱ፡፡
የተፈቀደው ሰዓት 40’
ምንባብ
በላይና በለጠ በአንድ ገበሬ ማህበር የሚኖሩ አርሶ አደሮች ናቸው፡፡ ብዙ የሚመሳሰሉባቸውና
የሚቃረኑባቸው ነገሮች ቢኖሩም በጣም የሚዋደዱና ለአካባቢያቸው እድገት የሚያስቡ ናቸው፡፡
ሁለቱም የተወለዱት በአንድ መንደር፣ በአንድ ቀን ነው፡፡ አሁን የሀምሳ አመት አዛውንት
ናቸው፡፡ ሰፋፊ የእርሻ ቦታ አለቸው፡፡ ብዙ በሬዎችና ላሞችን ያረባሉ፡፡ ደግና ለተቸገረ የሚረዱ ሰዎች
በመሆናቸው ያመሳስላቸዋል፡፡
በላይና በለጠ የሚያመሳስሏቸው ብዙ ነገሮች እንዳሉ ሁሉ በአንዳድ ነገሮች ተቃራኒዎችም
ናቸው፡፡ በላይ በጣም ወፍራምና ረጅም ሰው ሲሆን በለጠ ደግሞ አጭርና ቀጭን ነው፡፡ የበለጠ ፀጉር
ሉጫና ሙሉ ሲሆን የበላይ ገባ ያለና ከርዳዳ ነው፡፡ በላይ ከዘራ የሚይዝ ሲሆን በለጠ ደግሞ ለዝናብና
ለፀሀይ የሚሆን ዣንጥላ ይይዛል፡፡ የምግብና የመጠጥ ምርጫቸውም ይቃረናል፡፡ እነዚህ ጓደኛሞች
ብዙ የሚቃረኑባቸው ነገሮች ቢኖራችውም በጣም ይዋደዳሉ፡፡
በምንባቡ መሠረት የሚከተሉትን ጥያቄዎች እውነት ወይም ሐሰት በማለት መልሱ፡፡
1. በላይና በለጠ በአንድ ከተማ የሚኖሩ ነጋዴዎች ናቸው፡፡

2. ሁለቱ ሰዎች ከአርባ አመት በላይ ሆናቸዋል፡፡
3. በላይና በለጠ ብዙ በሬዎችና ከብቶች አሏቸው፡፡
4. ብዙ የሚያመሳስሏቸው ነገሮች ቢኖሩም አይዋደዱም፡፡
5. በላይና በለጠ በቁመትም ሆነ በሰውነት ክብደት ተሳሳይ ናቸው፡፡
መመሪያ ሁለት፡- በ"ሀ"ስር የሚገኙትን የአረብኛ ቁጥሮች በ"ለ" ስር ከሚገኙት የአማርኛ

ቁጥሮች ጋር አዛምዱ፡፡
ሀ ለ
1. 8 ሀ. 5
2. 7 ለ. 2
3. 6 ሐ. 7
4. 5 መ. 6
5. 2 ሠ. 8
መመሪያ ሦስት፡ ለቀረቡት ጥያቄዎች ሠንጠረዥ ውስጥ ካሉት መሙያ ቃላት በመምረጥ አሟሉ፡፡
እረኛ ርዕሰ መምህር ሸማኔ አጎት አያት አናፂ

1. ነጠላ ጋቢ እና የሀበሻ ቀሚስ የሚሰራ ሰው ይባላል፡፡
2. ከብቶች የሚጠብቅ ልጅ ይባላል፡፡
3. የትምህርት ቤት ሀላፊ የሆነሰው ይባላል፡፡
4. የአባት ወንድም ይባላል፡፡
5. የእናት እናት ይባላል፡፡
6. አጥርና ቤት የሚሰራ ሰው ይባለል
መመሪያ አራት፡- ለሚከተሉት ቃላት ተቃራኒ ቃላትን ፃፉ፡፡
1. ሉጫ
2. ወፍራም
3. ተመሳሳይ
4. ከፍተኛ
5. ጎበዝ
መመሪያ አምሥት፡- የሚከተሉትን ቃላት ጠብቀው ሲነበቡ ከሚኖራቸው ትርጉም ጋር

አዛምዱ፡፡
ሀ ለ
1. ለጋ ሀ. ተመለከተ
2. በሽታ ለ. ወፈረ
3. አያት ሐ. መታ
4. ሰባ መ. ህመም
5. ሰፋ ሠ. ጠገነ
አዘጋጅ መ/ት አያል
2006 ዓ.ም የ 1 ኛ መንፈቀ ዓመት አጠቃላይ የአማርኛ ፈተና ለአንደኛ ክፍል
መመሪያ አንድ፡ በሳጥን ውስጥ ከተሰጡት ቃላት እየመረጣችሁ ክፍት ቦታዎቹን አሟሉ፡፡
እርሳስ እርሻ አጠበች ሌባ አነበበ ጫማ
1. ቀለሟ ልብሷን ፡፡ የተፈቀደው ሰዓት 40’
2. ገበሬው አረሰ፡፡
3. ፖሊሱ ያዘ
4. ተማሪው መጽሀፍ ፡፡
5. ዳግም ከሱቅ ገዛ፡፡
6. ሜሮን አዲስ ተገዛላት፡፡
መመሪያ ሁለት፡- የሚከተሉት ቃላት ጠብቀው ሲነበቡ ከሚኖራቸው ትርጉም ጋር አዛምዱ፡፡

1. አለ ሀ. ሄዱ
2. ገና ለ. ጠለቀ
3. ወጡ ሐ. የመጀመሪያ
4. ዋና መ. ይገኛል
5. ሰባ ሠ. በአል
5. ገባ ረ. ወፈረ
መመሪያ ሦስት፡- ተስማሚውን ቃል እያጣመራችሁ አረፍተ ነገር ስሩ፡፡

1. ዝናብ ሀ. ነዳ
2. ክብ ለ. ፈለጠ
3. ደውል ሐ. አከበበ
4. ችግኝ መ. ገመጠ
5. ጋሪ ሠ. ተከለ
6. እንጨት ረ. ደወለ
7. ዳቦ ሰ. ዘነበ
8. እንቅልፍ ሸ. እንቀላፋ
አዘጋጅ መ/ት አያል
የ 2006 ዓ.ም የ 1 ኛ መንፈቅ ዓመት 1 ኛ ሞዴል የአማርኛ ፈተና ለስምንተኛ ክፍል
የተፈቀደው ጊዜ 1 ሰዓት
አጠቃላይ መመሪያ፡-በዚህ ፈተና የተለያዩ መመሪያዎች ቀርበዋል፡፡ እያንዳንዱን መመሪያ በጥንቃቄ

በማስተዋል በየመመሪያዎቹ ሥር ለቀረቡት ጥያቄዎች ከተሰጡት አማራጮች
ትክክለኛ የሆነውን መልስ በመምረጥ በመልስ መስጫው መረቀት ላይ በማጥቆር
መልሱ፡፡
መመሪያ፡- ከጥያቄ 1 እስከ 20 የተለያዩ ጥያቄዎች ቀርበዋል፡፡ ለእያንዳንዱ ጥያቄ ከቀረቡትአማራጮች

ትክክል የሆነውን መልስ ምረጡ፡፡
1. "ሰራ" የሚለው ቃል ከሚከተሉት የቱን ያመለክታል፡፡

ሀ. 3 ኛ መደብ ለ. ነጠላ ቁጥር ሐ. ተባእት ፆታ መ. ሁሉም
2. ከሚከተሉት አንዱ ተፈጥሮአዊ ፆታ ነው፡፡
ሀ. ድንጉላ ለ. ባዝራ ሐ. ጊደር መ. ሁሉም
3. ከሚከተሉት አንዱ ባለንብረትነትን ይገልጻል፡፡
ሀ. ደብተር ለ. ደብተሮች ሐ. ደብተርህ መ. ሁሉም
4. ታታሪ ተማሪ በመምህሩ ዘወትር ይደነቃል፡፡ በዚህ አረፍተ ነገር የስም ገላጩ የትኛው ነው?
ሀ. ዘወትር ለ. ተማሪ ሐ. ታታሪ መ. በመምህሩ
5. በጥያቄ ቁጥር "4" በቀረበው አ/ነገር የግሥ ገላጩ የትኛው ነው?
ሀ. ተማሪ ለ. ዘወትር ሐ. በመምህሩ መ. ታታሪ
6. ቃላት ከመደበኛ ትርጉም ይልቅ በተለወጠ ፍቺያቸው የሚታዩበት የቃላት አፈታት ይባላል፡፡
ሀ. እማሬያዊ ፍቺ ለ. ፍካሬያዊ ፍቺ ሐ. ቀጥታ ፍቺ መ. ተወራራሽ ፍቺ
7. "አሰረ" ከሚለው ቃል ‹‹ማሰር›› የሚለው ቃል ቢመሠረት ‹‹ፈታ›› ከሚለው ቃል ይመሰረታል፡፡
ሀ. መፍታት ለ. ማፋታት ሐ. ማፍታታት መ. መፍቻ
8. ቡናውን ለመልቀም ሄዱ፡፡ የዚህ አ/ነገር ባለቤት ነው፡፡
ሀ. እነሱ ለ. እኛ ሐ. እሱ መ. አንተ
9. ከሚከተሉት አ/ነገሮች መካከል ተሳቢ የሌለው የቱ ነው?
ሀ. በጉን ትናንትና ሸጡት፡፡ ሐ. በጉን ያለፈቃድ ሸጡት
ለ. በጉ ትናንት ተሸጠ፡፡ መ. በጉን አርደው በሉት፡፡
10. ከሚከተሉት ቃላት መካከል በድምፅ መጥበቅና መላላት የትርጉም ለውጥ ሊያመጣ የሚችለው የቱ ነው?
ሀ. ድሰት ለ. እንሥራ ሐ. ጀበና መ. ልብስ
11. ከሚከተሉት ተነባቢ ድምፆች አንዱ አይጠብቅም፡፡

ሀ. መ ለ. አ ሐ. ሀ መ. ለ እና ሐ
12. ከሚከተሉት ቃላት አንዱ ነፃ ምዕላድ አይደለም፡፡
ሀ. መጣ ለ. ቤት ሐ. ሰሩ መ. ስፖርት
13. "የቀለበው በሬ ታረደ፡፡" በዚህ አ/ነገር ውስጥ "ታረደ" የሚለው የቃል ክፍል ምንድነው?
ሀ. ቅፅል ለ. ስም ሐ. መስተዋድድ መ. ግሥ
14. "ከህክምናና ከመምህርነት ሙያ የቱ ይሻላል?" በሚል ርዕስ ድርሰት ቢጻፍ የድርሰት አይነቱ የቱ ነው?
ሀ. ገላጭ ለ. ተራኪ ሐ. ሥዕላዊ መ. አመዛዛኝ
15. "ፈተናው በጣም ቀላል ነው፡፡" ይህ አ/ነገር ከየትኛው የአ/ነገር አይነት ይመደባል፡፡
ሀ. ጥያቄያዊ ለ. ሀተታዊ ሐ. ተራ መ. ለ እና ሐ
16. "ያልታጠበ ልብስ ሰውን ያስቀይማል" በዚህ አ/ነገር የስም ገላጩ፡-
ሀ. ያልታጠበ ለ. ልብስ ሐ. ሰውን መ. ያስቀይማል
17. በልቦለድ ውስጥ በምክንያትና በውጤት የተሳሰረ የድርጊቶች ቅደም ተከተል ምን ይባላል?
ሀ. ትልም ለ. መቼት ሐ. ጭብጥ መ. ታሪክ
18. ልቦለድ ከቅርፅና ከአቀራረብ አኳያ ምንና ምን ተብሎ ይከፈላል?
ሀ. አጭርና ረጅም ልቦለድ ሐ. ስነ ቃልና ግጥማዊ ልቦለድ
ለ. ግጥምና ተውኔት መ. ሀተታዊና ታሪካዊ ድርሰት
19. በውይይት ዝግጅት ወቅት ልናተኩርበት የማይገባን ነጥብ የቱ ነው?
ሀ. የመወያያ ርዕሱን በሚገባ ማወቅ
ለ. በውይይቱ ወቅት የተነሱ ጭብጦችን አጠቃሎ መቅረብ
ሐ. ዋና ዋና ፍሬ ሀሳቦችን ማጤን
መ. አስፈላጊ የሆኑ የመወያያ ነጥቦችን በቅደም ተከተል ማሰቀመጥ
20. የአንድን መጽሐፍ ፀሐፊ ብቻ የምናውቅ ከሆነ መጽሐፉን በቤተ መጻሕፍት ውስጥ ለማግኘት የሚጠቅመን የካርድ
ካታሎግ ምን ይባላል?
ሀ. የዴዊ ዴሲማል ካርድ ሐ. የአር እሰት ካርድ
ለ. የደራሲ ካርድ መ. የትምህርት አይነት ካርድ
መመሪያ፡- ከጥያቄ 21 እስከ 30 የቀረቡት ጥያቄዎች ቀጥሎ ከቀረበው ምንባብ የወጡ ናቸው፡፡ ከተሰጡት
አማራጮች መካካል ተስማሚ የሚሆነውን በመምረጥ መልሱ፡፡
ዘይቤ ለአገላለጽ ትኩስነትና ጥንካሬ ለመስጠት ሲባል ከመደበኛው የቃል ፍቺ ወይም የቃላት አደራደር ስርአት
ይሆነኝ ብሎ ማፈንገጥ ነው፡፡ ዘይቤ አንድን ሁኔታ የሚገልፀው የቃላትንና የሀረጋትን ትርጉምና አገባብ ከተለመደውና
በውል ከታወቀው ወጣ ወይም ለየት በማድረግ ለሀሳብ ላቅ ያለ ደረጃ ወይም ከፍታ በመሰጠት ነው፡፡ ዘይቤ የሚፈጠረውም
አንድን ባህሪ፣ ስሜት፣ ድርጊት፣ሁኔታ፣ ሰው ወይም እንስሳ ከሌላ ነገር ጋር በማወዳደር፣ በማመሳሰል፣ የአንዱን ባህሪ ለሌላ
በመስጠት ወይም በመለወጥ የአንድን ባህሪ በመቅዳትና አንድን ነገር በሌላ በመወከል ነው፡፡
ዘይቤ አንድን ሀሳብ፣ ድርጊት ወይም ሁነት፣ የአንድን ነገር ቅርጽ ወይም ሁኔታ እንዲሁም የሰውን ባህሪ፣ ስሜትና
መልክ አጉልቶና አድምቆ ለተመልካቹም ሆነ ለሰሚው ምናባዊ ፍሰሀ በመሰጠት የሚያቀርብ የአነጋገር ስልት መሆኑን ብዙ
አዋቂዎች ይናገራሉ፡፡ ይህ የአነጋገር ስልት ግኡዙ ነፍስ እንዲዘራ፣ ደብዛዛው ብሩህ እንዲሆን፣ ረቂቁ እንዲገዝፍ፣
ከመርዳቱም በላይ ተገላጩ የስሜት ሕዋሳትን ነክቶ ብሩህ ምሥል በመፍጠር በአይነህሊና እንዲታይ፣ በእዝነህሊና
እንዲሰማ ወይም በእጅ እንዲዳሰስ፣ ጣእምና ለዛው እንዲታወቅ የማድረግ ሀይል አለው፡፡ ይህ ሀይሉ የሚለካው ደግሞ
ተገላጩ ነገር በሰሚው ወይም በአንባቢው አእምሮ ተቀርጾ እንዲቀርና አይረሴ እንዲሆን ለማድረግ ባለው አቅም ነው፡፡
ምንጭ፡ ዘሪሁን አስፋው (ሰ.መ)
21. በአንቀጽ አንድ መሠረት ዘይቤ ለአገላለጽ ትኩስነትና ጥንካሬ ሲባል
ሀ. ከመደበኛው የቃላት ፍቺ መሰማማት ነው፡፡
ለ. አገባባዊ ፍቺ መሰጠት ነው፡፡
ሐ. ከመደበኛው የቃላት ፍቺ ማፈንገጥ ነው፡፡
መ. ሁሉም መልስ ይሆናል፡፡
22. ዘይቤ አንድን ሁኔታ የሚገልፀው እንዴት ነው?
ሀ. ለቃላት ትርጉም ጥንቃቄ በማድረግ
ለ. ለቃላት ቀጥታ ፍቺ በመሰጠት
ሐ. የቃላትንና የሀገጋትን ትርጉም ከተለመደው ለየት በማድረግ
መ. መልሱ አልተሰጠም
23. ዘይቤ የሚፈጠረው እንዴት ነው?
ሀ. አንድን ባህሪ፣ድርጊት፣ ወዘተ ከሌላ ጋር በማወዳደር ሐ. አንድን ነገር በሌላ በመወከል
ለ. የአንዱን ባህሪ ለሌላ በመሰጠት መ. ሁሉም መልስ ይሆናል
24. " - - - ይህ የአነጋገር ስልት ግኡዙ ነፍስ እንዲዘራ፣ - - -"ለተሰመረበት ቃል ተቃራኒ ትርጉም ሊሆን የሚችለው የቱ
ነው?
ሀ. ተንቀሰቃሹ ለ. ሕይወት የሌለው ሐ. የሞተው መ. ሕያው የሆነው
25. ደብዛዛ ብሎ ብሩህ ካለ ረቂቅ ብሎ ይላል፡፡
ሀ. ግዙፍ ለ. ግኡዝ ሐ. ትንሽ (ጥቂት) መ. በአይን የማይታይ
26. በአይነህሊና እንዲታይ ከተባለ በእዝነህሊና ይባላል፡፡
ሀ. እንዲሰማ ለ. እንዲዳሰስ ሐ. እንዲታወቅ መ. እንዲጣፍጥ
27. "- - - ለተመልካቹም ሆነ ለሰሚው ምናባዊ ፍሰሀ - - -" የተሰመረበት ሀረግ ከሚከተሉት የቱን ይተካል፡፡
ሀ. እውናዊ አረፍት ሐ. ተጨባጭ ሀሳብ
ለ. አይነ ህሊናዊ ደስታ መ. ያልተረጋገጠ እርካታ
28. ከሚከተሉት አንዱ የዘይቤን ባህሪ አይወክልም፡-
ሀ. ደብዛዛውን ብሩህ ማድረግ ሐ. ረቂቁን ማግዘፍ
ለ. የወደቀውን ማንሳት መ. ሁሉም መልስ
29. የአንቀጽ ሁለት ዋና ሀሳብ ሊሆን የሚችለው የቱ ነው?

ሀ. የዘይቤ መልእክት ሰጪነት ኃይል ሐ. ሀ እና ለ መልስ ናቸው
ለ. የዘይቤ ሰሜት ሕዋሳትን ማነቃቃት አቅም መ. መልሱ አልተሰጠም
30. ለምንባቡ ርዕስ ሊሆን የሚችለው የቱ ነው?
ሀ. የዘይቤ አይነቶች ሐ. የዘይቤ ምንነት
ለ. የፈጠራ ድርሰት መ. ዘይቤና ደራሲው
መመሪያ፡- ከጥያቄ 31 እስከ 37 ለቀረቡት ፈሊጣዊ አነጋገሮች ከተሰጡት አማራጮች ትክክለኛውን

ትርጉም በመምረጥ መልሱ፡፡
31. ጓደኛዋን ከማመኗ የተነሳ ሆዷን ሰጠች በዚህ አ/ነገር ወስጥ ለተሰመረበት ሀረግ ትክክለኛ ፍቺ የቱ ነው፡፡
ሀ. አንጀቷን ገለጠች ሐ. ምስጢርን ደበቀች
ለ. ብሶቷን ተናገረች መ. ምስጢሯን ገልጣ ተናገረች
32. ልጁ ለአይን ሞላ ሲል፡-
ሀ. አደገ ለ. ትልቅ ሆነ ሐ. ማረከ መ. ሀና ለ ልክ
33. ሰውየው ሆዳም ነው፡፡ የተሰመረበት ቃል ፍቺ
ሀ. ሁዱ ትልቅ ለ. ሆዱ ሰፋ ያለ ሐ. ሀ ና ለ ልክ መ. ቢበላ የማይጠግብ
34. መሬት ቁና ሆነች ሲል፡-
ሀ. ጭንቅ ሆነ ለ. ልኳ ታወቀ ሐ. መንገዱ ቶሎ ተቋረጠ መ. ሁሉም መልስ
35. ቤታችን ሰርግና ምላሽ ሆኗል፡፡ የተሰመረበት ሀረግ ትርጉም

ሀ. ታላቅ ደስታ ሐ. መልስ ጠርተናል
ለ. ሰርግና መልስ አንድ ላይ ሆኗል መ. ሁሉም ልክ
36. "ሰኔ እና ሰኞ ሆኗል"ሲል ምን ማለት ነው?
ሀ. ሰኔ ወር ዕለተ ሰኞ ገብቷል ሐ. ተሳክቷል
ለ. ድንገተኛ አጋጣሚ መ. አልሳካ ብሏል
37. ያሰበው እንዳይሟላ እጅ አጠረው፡፡ የተሰመረበት ቃል ፍቺ የቱ ነው?
ሀ. እጁን አመመው ለ. ገንዘብ አለቀበት ሐ. ልብስ አነሰበት መ. ድህነት አጠቃው
መመሪያ፡- ከጥያቄ 38 እስከ 43 የስርአተ ነጥብ ጥያቄዎች ቀርበዋል፡፡ ከተሰጡት አማራጮች

ትክክለኛውን በመምረጥ መልሱ፡፡
38. ከሚከተሉት ውስጥ ትክክለኛው የሥርአተ ነጥብ አጠቃቀም የቱ ነው?

ሀ. "እንኳን ደህና መጣችሁ በማለት በትህትና ተቀበላቸው፡፡"
ለ. እንኳን!" ዳህና መጣችሁ በማለት በትህትና ተቀበላቸው
ሐ. "እንኳን ደህና መጣችሁ" በማለት በትህትና ተቀበላቸው፡፡
መ. " እንኳን ደህና መጣችሁ! በማለት በትህትና ተቀበላቸው፡፡"
39. የትእምርተ ሰላቅ (i) አገልግሎት የቱ ነው?

ሀ. ምሬትን ማመልከት ሐ. ማሾፍን ማመልከት
ለ. ጩኧትን ማመልከት መ. መገረምን ማመልከት
40. "የኢትዮጲያ ዜና አገልግሎት" የሚለውን ሀረግ በትክክል የሚወክለው ምህፃረ ቃል የቱ ነው?
ሀ. የኢ. ዜ.አ ለ. ኢዜ.አ ሐ. የ.ኢ.ዜ.አ መ. ኢ.ዜ.አ
41. ትክክለኛው የሰርአተ ነጥብ ምልክት የቱ ነው?
ሀ. በሩን ዝጋ፡፡ ለ. በሩን ዝጋ፤ ሐ. በሩን ዝጋ i መ. በሩን ዝጋ!
42. ሀ. ዘወትር ማንበበ እወዳለሁ፡፡ ወንድሜ ግን ጫዋታ ያስደስተዋል፡፡
ለ. ዘወትር ማንበብ እወዳለሁ፤ ወንድሜ ግን ጫዋታ ያስደስተዋል፤
ሐ. ዘወትር ማንበብ እወዳለሁ? ወንድሜ ግን ጫዋታ ያስደስተዋል፡፡
መ. ዘወትር ማንበብ እወዳለሁ፤ ወንድሜ ግን ጫዋታ ያስደስተዋል፡፡
43. ሀ. ለአባቴ "ጫማ" ለእናቴ "ቀሚስ" ለእህቴ "ሹራብ" ገዝቼ መጣለሁ፡፡
ለ. ለአባቴ ጫማ ለእናቴ ቀሚስ ለእህቴ ሹራብ ገዝቼ መጣሁ፡፡
ሐ. ለአባቴ ጫማ፤ ለእናቴ ቀሚስ፤ ለእህቴ ሹራብ፤ ገዝቼ መጣሁ፡፡
መ. ለአባቴ ጫማ፣ በእናቴ ቀሚስ፣ ለእህቴ ሹራብ ገዝቼ መጣሁ፡፡
መመሪያ፡- ከጥያቄ 44 እስከ 50 የቀረቡት ጥያቄዎች በሚከተለው ግጥም ላይ የተመሰረቱ ናቸው፡፡
ከተሰጡት አማራጮች ይበልጥ ተስማሚ የሆነውን በመምረጥ መልሱ፡፡
ልቤ ተሸበረ፣ ከሩቁ ስትጠሪ ሰማሁሽ ሀገሬ፣
ስንቱን ብሶት ላውራሽ እናቴ ዘርዝሬ፡፡
የረኞቹ ዜማ የገበሬው "ሆ በል"
ከሜዳው ከዱሩ  ከጉድባው ካፋፉ  መጣ እያስተጋባ 
ባህር የብሱን አልፎ ከስሜቴ ገባ፡፡
ተናወጠ አሳቤ  ተሸበረ ልቤ ሰማሁኝ ስትጠራ
ያቺው እምዬ እንጂ እናት ሀገር ከዚያ ቁማ ከተራራ፡፡
ሀገሬ ድምጽሽን ቀርቤ እንዳልሰማ
አላጥፍ አልጠቀልል መሬት አይደል ሸማ፡፡
ክል እያለ መጥቶ የዝማሬሽ ቃና
ያማልለኝ ገባ  ያዘነጋኝ ገባ ከሩቁ ሆነና፡፡
(ምንጭ፡- የስነ ጽሑፍ መሰረታውያን)
44. ግጥሙ ስንት ስንኞች አሉት?
ሀ. 11 ለ. 12 ሐ. 12 መ. 10
45. በግጥሙ ውስጥ በስንኞች መጨረሻ ላይ ስንት ራብዕ ሆሄያት አሉ?
ሀ. 8 ለ. 10 ሐ. 2 መ. ምንም
46. "የረኞቹ ዜማ" በተሰመረበት ቃል የተዋጠው ድምፅ የቱ ነው?

ሀ. እ ለ. ኧ ሐ. ኢ መ. ኣ
47. በጥያቄ "46" ላይ የተዋጠው ድምፅ፡-
ሀ. ግዕዝ አናባቢ ለ. ሳድስ አናባቢ ሐ. ሳሊስ አናባቢ መ. ራብዕ አናባቢ
48. በግጥሙ የመጀመሪያ ቤት መድፊያ ቃል ነው፡፡
ሀ. ሀገሬ ለ. ዘርዝሬ ሐ. ገባ መ. ከተራራ
49. በግጥሙ ስንት ቤት መድፊያ ቃላት አሉ?
ሀ. አራት ለ. አምስት ሐ. ስድስት መ. አይታወቅም
50. ግጥሙ የተገጠመው ለማን ይሆን?
ሀ. ለወገን ለ. ለሀገር ሐ. ለእናት መ. ለገበሬ
መመሪያ፡- ከጥያቄ 51 እስከ 55 የተለያዩ ቃላት ቀርበዋል፡፡ ለእያንዳንዱ ቃል ተቃራኒ

ትርጉም ሊሆን የሚችለውን በመምረጥ መልሱ፡፡
51. ቆጣቢ፡- ሀ. ቸር ለ. ዝርክርክ ሐ. አባካኝ መ. ንፉግ

52. ባእድ፡- ሀ. ጠላት ለ. ወዳጅ ሐ. ዘመድ መ. ጓደኛ
53. ህልም፡- ሀ. ቅዠት ለ. ትንግርት ሐ. እውን መ. ሕይወት
54. አዋኪ፡- ሀ. አሸባሪ ለ. ወላዋይ ሐ. ፀጥተኛ መ. ትሁት
55. ጉብል፡- ሀ. ወጣት ለ. አዛውንት ሐ. ኮረዳ መ. አሮጊት
መመሪያ፡- ከጥያቄ 56 እስከ 60 የተለያዩ የትምህርት ይዘቶችን የያዙ ጥያቄዎች ርበዋል፡፡
ከተሰጡት አማራጮች ትክክለኛውን መልስ መረጡ፡፡
56. የበሬ ማደሪያ በረት ከተባለ የበግ ማደሪያ ይባላል፡፡

ሀ. ጋጥ ለ. ቆጥ ሐ. ቤት መ. ጉረኖ
57. ከሚከተሉት አረፍተነገሮች ውስጥ ተገቢውን ቅደም ተከተል የያዘው የቱ ነው?
ሀ. ወጣት፣ ህፃን፣ ጐልማሳ፣ አዛውንት ሐ. ህፃን፣ ወጣት፣ አዛውንት፣ ጐልማሳ
ለ. ህፃን፣ ጐልማሳ፣ ወጣት፣ አዛውንት መ. ህፃን፣ ወጣት፣ ጐልማሳ፣ አዛውንት
58. ከሚከተሉት ውስጥ ዳኛ የሚያስፈልገው የትኛው ነው?
ሀ. ውይይት ለ. ጭውውት ሐ. ድራማ መ. ክርክር
59. ከሚከተሉት ቃላት ውስጥ የመነሻና የመድረሻ ቅጥያ ያለው የቱ ነው?
ሀ. በላተኛ ለ. ክልላዊ ሐ. መድኃኒት መ. መቀርቀሪያ
60. ጊደር ብሎ ወይፍን ካለ ባዝራ ብሎ ምን ይላል፡፡
ሀ. ደቦል ለ. ኮርማ ሐ. ወደል መ. ድንጉላ
መልካም ውጤት በሥራ

አዘጋጅ ታዴዎስ ታምሩ
ጥር 2006
2006 E.C 1st SEMESTER BIOLOGY FINAL EXAM FOR GRADE 7
Part I: Say True or False

Time allowed
1. Chlorella and spirogyra have only true leaves.
2.The number of producers are found in the first trophic level of food chain.
3.marine water has less amount of dissolved salts.
4.Fungi are the main examples of producers.
5.The oral groove is the mouth like structure of paramecium.
Part II: Math the following questions in “A” with answer in “B”
A B
1.Tullgren funnel A.used to collect grasshoppers
2. Pond net B. used to catch flying insects
3. Sweep net C.used to collect fishes
4. Butterfly net D.used to collect soil organisms
5. Terrarium E.used to keep small land plants
Part III: Choose the best answer.
1. Select one that is not paramecium structure:

A. Cilia B. Oral groove C. Gullet D. Pseudopodia
2. Bacteria are protected during unfavorable conditions by:
A.Cell membrane B. Flagella C.Capsule D.Cell wall
3. Which one is true?
A.Herbivores are plant eaters
B.Carnivores are both plant and animal eaters
C.Omnivores are meat eaters
D.Herbivores are only meat eaters
4. Which one is not a terrestrial habitat?
A.desert B.pond C.grassland D.forest
5. An apparatus used to collect aquatic organisms is:
A.sweep net B. Tullgren funnel C.Pond net D.All
6. Which one is a marine habitat?
A.Lake B.Pond C.Sea D.River
7. One is plants adaptation in desert habitat. Which one?
A.having larger leaves C. having many stomata
B. having smaller leaves D.having many leaves
8. Which one is the source of energy for green plants?
A. food B.sunlight C. fire D.electricity
9. One is considered as a primary consumer in a community?
A.carnivores B.Herbivores C. producers D. omnivores
10. Structure used to digest food both in amoeba and paramecium is:
A. food vacuole B.cell-wall C.nucleus D. gullet
11. Euglena:
A. have chlorophyll like plant C. have capsule
B.have cell wall D. have two nuclei
12. Select a false statement:
A.chlorella have a cup shaped chloroplast
B.spirogyra have spiral shaped chloroplast
C. Euglena have chlorophyll like plants
D. paramecium have rod shaped chloroplast
13. Which habitat has high amount of rainfall:
A.Desert B.Grassland C.All terrestrials D.Forest
14. Phytoplanktons are:
A. smaller plants in sea C. smaller plants in forest
B. smaller animals in sea D.smaller animals in desert
15.”Grass → grasshoppers → frogs → snakes” is the food-chain, snakes are:
A. in 4thtrophic level C. in 3rdtrophic level
B.tertiary consumers D. all except C
Part V: Write two examples of organisms for each of the following.
1. HERBIVORES: and
2. DECOMPOSERS: and
3. OMNIVORES: and
4. CARNIVORES and
Bonus
Q111. What will happen in the community or in the environment if the decomposers are
removed from earth surface?(3 mark)
Set by Fitsum F.
2006 E.C 1st SEMESTER HEALTH AND PHYSICAL EDUCATION EXAM
FOR GRADE 3
Part I: Choose the correct answer Time allowed 20’
1. Which one of the following exercise is used to develop our cardio respiratory
endurance?
A. skipping rope B. push up C. sit up D. all
2. Side stretch is exercise for
A. speed B. flexibility C. strength D. all
3. is having or developing physical components.
A. physical fitness B. physical education D. all
4. is competitive and organized from of play
A. sport B. sport C. Game D. none
5. A stay of completely physically, mentally. Socialy well being with out merrly
diseases.
A. Health B. physical education C. physical fitness D. all
6. Middle distance running include
A. 800m B. 1500 m C. 5000 m D. A and b
7. Which part of our body is developed by regular push up?
A. upper part C. Abdominal part
B. lower part D. cardio respiratory
8. Jogging is exercise for
A. strength B. speed C. cardio respiratory D. all
9. Which part of our body is developed knee
A. upper body C. Abdominal part
B. lower body D. cardio respiration
10. Upper body part includes:-
A. arms B. chest C. shoulder D. all
Part II: Give short answer.
11. Write two use of physical education.
1. 2.
12. List three stretching Exercises.
1.
2.
3.
2006 E.C 1st SEMESTER HEALTH AND PHYSICAL EDUCATION EXAM FOR
GRADE 4

Part I: Say true or false
Time allowed 25’
1. Rope jumping is important for speed and strength.
2. Physical exercise is important for body strength.
3. Helping our parents after study develops out physical fitness.
4. Physical development improves our body parts.
6. Head stretch is
A. lower body part stretch C. upper body stretch
B. rope jump D. all
7. Which one is important for cardio respiratory exercise?
A. waving B. jogging C. rope D. all
8. Leg stretch is
A. upper body stretch B. lower body stretch C. both
9. Which one is neck stretch exercise?
A. head front stretch B. head back stretch C. both
10. Swimming is important to relax our body.
A. true B. false
11. Which one is useful for our body health?
A. jumping B. game play C. both
12. Sport is good for good ethics
A. true B. false
13. Physical education is important for and our body
A. health B. strength C. both
14. Objectives of physical Education is
A. mental development B. social development C. both
15. Skipping rope exercises are the most useful for the beginners for good
physical preparation
A. true B. false
Part III: Write at least five activities that can be performed without
equipments
A. C. E.
B. D.
Set by Misrach H.
2006 E.C 1st SEMESTER HEALTH AND PHYSICAL EDUCATION FINAL EXAM
FOR GRADE 5
Part I: If the statement is correct write true if the statement is incorrect write
false. Time allowed 25’
1. Any people who speak a certain language have their own cultural dances.
2. Physical activities are movements that involve our body parts
3. Knee bent is an exercise for developing upper body part.
4. Upper body part includes only arms.
5. Participating in sport during extra time will increase our physical fitness.
Part II: Matching

A B
6. Toe touch A. upper body exercises
7. Squat thrust B. lower body exercises
8. Curl up / sit up C. Abdominal exercises
9. Skipping rope D. cardio vascular endurance exercises
10. Push up E. stretching exercises
Part III: Choose the correct answer
11. Jogging is exercise for

A. strength C. speed
B. endurance D. all
12. is a type of running in which you run slightly faster than walking.
A. skipping rope C. Running
B. Jogging D. none
13. Which one of the following is not exercise for abdominal and back muscle?
A. lift up from the floor C. sit up
B. leg lift from the floor D. kneeling
14. refers to the range of motion at a joint.
A. Flexibility C. Speed
B. Endurance D. Strength
15. is a sudden accident that happens at the time of doing physical exercise
A. First aid C. Over training
B. Sport injuries D. none
16. Which one of the following is not the main cause of sport injuries?
A. over training C. poor warming up
B. Inadequate equipment D. Good training
Part IV: Short answer.
17. Define cultural dance?
18. List four stretching exercises
1. 3.
2. 4.
19. Why first aid is given?
20. is a part of Gymnastic that can be excited with out apparatus
21. Write the objectives of physical education

2006 E.C 1st SEMESTER HEALTH AND PHYSICAL EDUCATION FINAL EXAM
FOR GRADE 6
Part I: If the statement is correct write true if the statement is incorrect

write false.
Time allowed 20’
1. Free gymnastics are activities that can be practiced in all ages.
2. After worming up stretching exercise is very important.
3. When we performing forward roll our head should touch the mat.
4. People who speaks a certain language have their own cultural dances.
5. Every physical activity can be required as physical exercise.
Part II: Matching

A B
6. Skipping rope A. lower body exercise
7. curl up B. upper body exercise
8. pull up C. Abdominal and back muscle exercise
9. Kneeling D. cardiovascular endurance exercise
10. Knee bent E. stretching exercises
11. Which one of the following exercise is used to develop our lower body part?
A. sit up C. partner shoulder push
B. lift up from the floor D. none
12. Which one of the following is incorrect technique of forward roll?
A. Be in squat position C. place the chin near the chest
B. legs are open shoulder wide D. none
13. A temporary and immediate care given for an injury or sudden illness.
A. sport injuries C. sprain
B. first aid D. none
14. is an act acquired experience and performed regularly.
A. Habit C. physical activity
B. physical fitness D. none
15. is apart of gymnastic that can perform with out apparatus.
A. free gymnastic C. physical fitness
B. Apparatus gymnastic D. all
16. List five flexibility or stretching exercises (2 point)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
17. Write the procedures or steps of backward roll (2 pts )
18. Define cultural Dances? (2 point )

FOR GRADE 7
Time allowed 40’

Part I: Write true or false.
1. Physical fitness is a level of health and the total sum of fitness.

2. Both apparatus involves the same performance techniques.
3. Muscular endurance enable you to perform repeated movements.
4. For ward momentum is created by run, spring from the ball of it must be deliberate
calculated with regard to direction and force.
5. Flexibility enables you to move your joints and muscle with out being stiff.
6. Muscular strength helps prevent from easily fatigue.
7. Gymnastic is harmonious system of selected exercise.
9. Swimming promotes cardiovascular endurance without risk of joint injuries.
10. Cardiovascular endurance you can enjoy in activity that require oxygen over an
extended time period.
1. Which one of the following is the type of exercise to develop lower body muscle?
A. squint jump C. Bench stepping
B. two legs jump D. all E. A & C
2. During a sit – up exercise which part of your body muscle is contracted.
A. upper body muscle C. lower body muscle
B. Abdominal muscle D. all E. B & C
3. Which one of the following is the value of tumbling exercise
A. coordination and timing C. strength
B. agility and flexibility D. all E. A & C
4. Which one of the following exercise helps to improve flexibility
A. Toe touch seated C. toe – touch
B. side stretch D. all E. A & B
5. Which one of the following is true about sportive gymnastic
A. Rhythmical C. forward and back word rolling
B. Acrobatic D. all E. none
Part III: Matching
A B
1. calves A. flutter kick
2. Thigh B. the middle front part of the body
3. Abdomen C. the muscle of the legs
4. Pull – up exercise D. the muscle above the knee and below the hip joint
E. for upper body muscle
Part IV: Short answer
1. is the ratio of fat tissue to compare with to lean body tissue
2. Write at list three importance of gymnastics
3. Explain at list three basic points for the successful forward rolling
4. is basic motor skill which cover extensively the mechanics of
rolling turning spring and twisting
5. Write at list two types of tumbling exercise
6. Write the types of exercise that can help to develop cardiovascular.
7. What do you gain from a repetitive physical exercise?
Set by Miheretu
FOR GRADE 8
Part I: If the statement is correct write rue If the statement is incorrect write
false.
Time allowed 25’
1. Gymnastic exercises improve our physical fitness.
2. Every physical activity can be required as physical exercises.
3. When a person lifting heavy weight incorrectly the sprain will happen.
4. Jumping on the spot is exercise for lower body part.
5. To make a body fitter, you must over load it or make it work harder than usual.
6. If you have too much fat or too little, you are unfit.
7. Calve is the part of human leg between the knee and hip.
8. Exercise for muscular strength and muscular endurance are the same.
Part II: Matching

A B
9. Squat thrust A. exercises for upper body part

10. Lift up from the floor B. exercise for lower body part
11. Pull up C. abdominal and back muscle exercise
12. Jogging on the spot D. cardio vascular endurance exercises
13. Toe touch F. stretching exercise
14. Apart of gymnastic that can perform without equipment.

A. Apparatus gymnastic C. physical fitness
B. free gymnastic D. none
15. Which one of the following is is correct techniques of forward roll?
A. Be in squat position C. place the chin near the chest
B. legs are open shoulder wide D. Head should touch the mat
16. Which one of the following is incorrect technique of sit up?
A. lie on your back with your legs bent at knee
B. face down, arms to the side
C. hands on the ears
D. Hands across the chest
17. The importance of zigizag running to develop
A. flexibility B. agility C. strength D. Balance
18. is measured just to the side of the wind pipe.
A. Radial pulse C. Resting heart rate
B. carotid pulse D. none
19. For the athlete of 30 years old with resting heart rate 70 calculate the exercise heart rate?
20. Explain about principle of over load.
Set by Wondwosen T.
2006 E.C 1st SEMESTER MATHEMATICS FINAL EXAM FOR GRADE 7
Part I: Write True If the state mint is correct or false If the statement is incorrect.
Time allowed 1 hr
1. / - 2 . 9 / > 2 . 6.
1 1 1 1 1 1
÷ ÷ ÷ ÷
2. 2 2 2 2 2 = 2
3. (56 8)  2 = 56 (82)
4. For any number x “ ten more than a number means x+10.”
x
5. For any number Y” the ratio of a number to 8 means 8
6. 25 : 20 = 4 x : 8, it x = 2
x 3 6 y+5 x
7. If y = 5 , then the value of tae expression 3 y−2x is 5.
8. The ratio of 5 days to 1000 hrs is 3:25.
9. The truth set of 2x -1 < x -3, x z is { }.
10. 5x + 13 = 2 is equivalent to 10 x + 13 = 4
Part II: Choose the correct answer from the given four alternatives.
11. In a school 42 % of the total numbers of students are girls. If the number of boys
is 696. how many students are there in the class?
A. 504 B. 1200 C. 192 D. 58
12. Which of the following statements is true?
A. 2(2x4) = (2x3) x (2x4) C. (x+2) x ( 2 + 3), xQ+
B. 4 – (4 +4) = (4 – 4 ) +4 D. x+(4 + 7 ) = (x+ y )+7, x, y Q+
−4
13. The solution set of the inequality 3 < x < 3, where x z is
A. {-3,-2,-1, 0, 1, 2} C. {-1,0,1,2}
B. {-4, -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3} D. {0, 1, 2, 3}
a c
14. For any two rational numbers b and d which of the following numbers
true
a c a+c a c a+c
+ =
A. b + d = bd C. b d b+d
a c ad+ bc a c ac
+ = + =
B. d d bd D. b d db
5 5
15. What is the value of Y, if Y  7 = 7
25 49
A. 1 B. 49 C. 25 D. 0
16. The solution set of the equation 4 (6 –x) + 2 = 3x+5 is
A. 14 B. 7 C. 28 D. 3
17. The solution set of the inequality 5 x - y < 5 + 2 x is
1 1
A. {x: x > 3 } B. {x: x<3} C. {x: x > 3} D. {x: x< 3 }
18. What is 20% of 80?
A. 20 B. 4 C. 16 D. 64
19. What percent of 1 hour is 45 minutes?
A. 75% B. 45% C. 15% D. 25%
1 6
+5=
20. Solving the rational equation 5+ x 5+x gives
A. { 4 } B. { 6 } C. { - 6 } D. { -4 }
21. If the sum of three consecutive integers is 5 more than the first, then the value of
the first integer is
A. 4 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3
22. (x+4), (x+12), (x-1) and (x+5) are in proportion find the value of x
A. 15 B. 12 C. 16 D. 20
4 d −m
23. Three Members d, m, n are in the ration 3:6:4 find the value of m+2 n
7 3 2
A. 3 B. 7 C. 3 D.
4
3
24. If A:B = 7:8 and B:C = 12 : 7 find A:C in its simplest form
A. 2:3 B. 3:2 C. 19 : 6 D. 4 : 5
25. If a, b and C are numbers such that a : b : c = 2:3:5 and b = 30 then, find the sum
a + b +c
A. 50 B. 60 C. 90 D. 100
26. If (2x+3y)  (x+5Y) or x  y, then which of the following is true?

x 5 k−3 5 k−3
A. y
=(2−k ) C. x = y
( 2−k )
B. x : y = (5x-3) : 2 – k D. all are connect
1
27. Y is inversely proportional to cube root of x when x = 8 , y = 2 fund the constant
of
proportionality
1 1
A. 4 B. 2 C. 1 D. 4
28. If 95% of a equal to b, then which of the following is true?
A. 95 a = b B. a < b C. a = b D. a > b
29. Which one of the following is not equal to the rest?
3
A. 2% of 150 B. 4 % 400 C. 5% of 60 D. 6% 500
Part III: Work out show your steps cleanly
1
30. A trader bought a TV set for birr 2000 and sold it at loss of 5 2 % what was the sealing
price?
Prepared by Mathematics Department
Part I: Say true or false. Time allowed
1. A set with two elements can have four subsets.

2. If two sets have identical elements, then they are equal sets.
3. Equivalent sets are always equal sets.
4. All whole numbers can be divisible by 2.
5. If two numbers relatively prime, then theire G.C .D is 1.
6. On the number line, the distance from 0 to 1 is greater than the distance
from 0 to -2.
7. Positive integers are less than negative integers.
8. -20 + 20 = -40.
9. 0 > -6.
10. The greater the integer, the larger its opposite.
1. The predecessor of -155 is :-

A. -154 B. -153 C. -156 D. none
2. The successor of -400 is:-
A. -399 B. -401 C. -402 D. none
1
3. If x = 4 , then 4x+4 is :-
A. 8 B. 4 C. 1 D. 5
4. Which number is the smallest?
5 5
A. 0.7 B. 8 C. 0.65 D. 7
1
5. Which of the following fraction is equal to 25 ?
A. 0.05 B. 0.04 C. 0.4 D. 0.004
1 1
÷
6. 50 50 is equal to :-
1
A. 50 B. 50 C. 1 D. none
7. 2.3854x103 is equal to:-
A. 2385.4 B. 23854 C. 238.54 D. none
8. The place value of 7 in the number 4518.457 is:-
A. Tens C. thousandths
B. hundredths D. tenths
9. The value of -1+ [ (−6 ) −(−7 ) ] is equal to:-

A. -1 B. -2 C. -3 D. 0
10. When we evaluate x + y if x = -50 and y = -65 is :-
A. -15 B. -105 C. 115 D. -115
Part III: Give short answer
1. Order the integers from least to greatest
A – 200, -198, -174, -250, -300
, , , ,
2. Draw the following integer on the number line

A, -2, -3, -5, 4 and 0.
3. Compare the integers by using > , < or =
A, -3 3 B. 0 -1 C. 2 -4
Set by Assefa Balla

Part I: Write true for true statement and false for false statement.
1. The algebraic expression 4x + 54, has two terms. Time allowed
2. X2 and 6x are like terms.

3. In d + 5 = 9, if d = 5, then d + 5 is a false statement.
n
4. n = n, if n = o
5
5. 100 = 50%
Part II: Match column "B" with Column "A"

A B
6. The sum of two numbers is 6 A. proper fraction
7. The prod duct of two number B. Improper fraction
decreased by 1 is 9
8. Five – fourth of a number is greater than 10, C. x + y = 6
25
9. 4 is a fraction D. Mixed fraction
1
10. 9 5 is fraction E. x y -1 = 9
n 5
11. o , for any number is F. 4 x > 10
n
12. 1 for any number is G. undefined (unknown)
H. n
Part III: Choose the best answer and writ the letter
13. One of the following is an algebraic expression

x
A. 2 – x B. 5x C. 6 D. all
14. In the expression abcd, the operation is
A. addition B. subtraction C. Multiplication D. division
15. Which one of the following expression is monomial term?
A. x y B. x + y C. x+y+2 D. none of the above
16. In the expression 3x+4y, the coefficient of x is
A. 4 B. 1 C. 3 D. 7
2
5x
2
,
17. When we evaluate the expression y for x = 2 & y = 2 is
A. 10 B. 5 C. 15 D. 20
18. The algebraic expression for twice a number and increased by 3 is
A. 2x+3 B. 3x+2 C. 3x+3 D. 5x+3
19. Simply 3x+2y+6x+4y+z
A. 9x+6y+z B. 6x+9y+z C. 9x+6y+z D. 15xyz
20. An inequality for "there are no more than 40 students in grade "5 is
A. x > 40 B. x < 40 C. x > 40 D. x < 40
21. Which one of the following is true?
5 6 3 4 10 11 5 4
= ⊆
A. 4 < 4 B. 4 > 4 C. 9 10 D. 9 9
23. A boy plays games for 3 hours. What fraction of one day is that?
3 3 3
A. 12 B. 24 C. 60 D.
24
3
24. Which one of the following is a proper fraction?
4 3 5
A. 3 B. 4 C. 4 D. 10
3
4
25. If 2x+4 = 10, hen x =
26. 4 (10 -2) + 6 (3) =
3
=
27. 4 %
28. The fractional form of 40% is
29. The decimal form of 60% is
30. Find the sum of 6x, 3x and 2x
Bonus
1. If a = 2, =3 and c = 4, then a2+abc =

2. If a book costs b Birr and a pen costs c Birr, then how much will 10 books and 20 pens
cost?
Prepared by Mathematics

Part I: Choose the correct answer Time allowed 60’
1. 801 + 108 =
A. 900 B. 909
2. 627 – 317 =
A. 310 B. 300
3. 2 x 8 =
A. 18 B. 16
4. 15 5 =
A. 3 B. 5
5. Which is the last month of the year?
A. February B. December
1
6. 2 of 2 =
A. 1 B. 2
7. One quarter of 36 Mangoes =
A. 4 B. 9
8. How many hands do 8 boys have?
A. 18 B. 16
9. 100 birr = 10 birr’s
A. 20 B. 10
10. 2 Weeks = days
A. 14 B. 7
Part II: Fill in the blank space
1. 44 + = 87
2. 436
+ 214
3. 104 = hundreds tens ones
4. Which is smaller?
1 1
4 or 2 =
5. Write in short form
200 + 0 + 7 =
Part III: Match the following
1
1. A. 2
1
2. B. 8
1
3. C. 4
Part IV: Work out

3 1 7 3
−
1. 4 + 4 = 2. 8 8 =
3. Arrange in order from the smallest to the greatest
250, 46, 9, 79, 207
, , , ,
Assefa Balla

Part I: Match the measurements in the box with the following
Time allowed
1. Length
2. Volume
3. Mass
4. 5 glasses fill 1 kittle. Then 10 glasses fill kittles.

A. 3 B. 2
5. 1 Jug holds 5 cups. Then 2 jugs hold cups.
A. 5 B. 10
6. 8metre + 7 metre is
A. 15m B. 18 metre
7. There are 10 bananas and 2 boys.
Each boy will get bananas.
A. 2 B. 5
8. 4 groups of 2 is
A. 6 B. 8
9. Which plane figure is similar to the shape of a door?
A. triangle B. rectangle
10. Square is
A. Four sided figure B. three sided figure
Part III: Add
11. 229 12. 235

+ 562 + 46
13. 720 14. 556

+ 118 + 556
Part IV: Subtract
15 545 16. 639 17. 271

- 302 - 120 - 31
Part VI: Multiply
18. 9x3 = 19. 7x4 = 20. 8x6 =
Part V: Divide
21. Share 25 sweets among 5 chidren. Each child get sweets.

22. Share 15 books among 3 students. Each student get books.
Part VI: Write the names of these plane figures.
Square, Triangle
Set by kefele L
Part I: Write true or false

Time allowed 1:20’
1
1. We call 2 = half.
1 1 1 1
, , ,
2. 2 4 5 7 these fractions are unit fractions.
a
3. In the fraction b = a = denominator b = numerator.
4. The quarter of 16 is 8.
5. 572 – 72 = 500, 572 is mainud
Part II: Choose the correct answer from the given for alternatives
6. What will be the result if you subtract 217 from 462

A. 445 B. 454 C. 544 D. 679
7. If 527 – 463 = 64 there fore 527 greater than 463 by
A. 63 B. 64 C. 27 D. all
8. A farmer took 7000 birr and went to a market. He bought fertilizer for birr
3249. how many birr is left?
A. 3751 B. 6751 C. 6750 D. 4249
9. A sugar factory produced 4500 quintals and 3900 quintals on two days. From this
product the factory sold 6300 quintals. How many quintals of sugar left?
A. 8400 B. 2100 C. 14700 D. none
10. The half of 36 is
A. 9 B. 18 C. 12 D. 4
1 1 1 1
, ,
11. From 5 2 7 and 3 which one is the largest
1 1 1
A. 2 B. 3 C. 5 D.
1
7
1
12. 10 is called
A. one – tenth B. one over ten C. A and B D. half
13. 435 x 100 =
A. 43500 B. 0 C. 435100 D. 43600
14. Nine hundred ninety eight in figure
A. 90098 B. 9098 C. 998 D. 989
15. 990  9 =
A. 11 B. 100 C. 110 D. 10
Part III: Work out
Add Subtract
16. 6347 17. 3751 18. 7600 19. 76867

5132 9379 - 4987 - 45607
+ 2220 + 1573
Multiply Divide
20. 132 22. 315
X5 x4
23. 990  9 24. 86  2
Part IV: Give the name of these fractions

Fraction Name
1
25. 2
3
26. 4
1
27. 4
Find the quarters of the following numbers
28. 16 = 29. 36 =
Find the halves of the following numbers
30. 24 = 31. 48 =
32. Number of regions

Number of shaded regions
Shaded regions in fraction
Set by Girma M
Part I: Say true or false. Time allowed 1:20’
1. Equivalent tractions have equal values.

a
2. In the fraction b , a is denominator and b is numerator.
3. Like fractions have the same denominator.
4. Any fraction with numerator 1 is called unit fraction.
3 4 5 6 8
, , , ,
5. Fractions 9 9 9 9 9 are in descending order.
6. Any whole number multiplied by 1 is equal the number itself
7. Remainder is always greater than the divisor.
a
8. the fraction b is read as ‘a over b’.
Part II: Match the following

A B
9. Unit fractions A. (a x b) x c = a x (6 x c)
10. Like fractions B. a x b = b x c
11. Unlike fractions C. ( a + b ) +c = a + ( b + c )
1 1 1 1 1
, , , ,
12. Commutative property of addition D. 2 6 8 9 10
1 9 6 8
, , ,
13. Associative property of multiplication E. 10 10 10 10
5 6 4 2 3
, , , ,
14. Commutative property of multiplication F. 12 15 5 3 7
15. Associative property of addition G. a + b = b + a

16. In ab = c, b  0, a is called
A. dividend B. divisor C. quotient D. remainder
17. What is the quotient when 3450 is divided by 5?
A. 960 B. 609 C. 690 D. 906
18. 250 x 100 =
A. 125,000 B. 250,000 C. 12,500 D. 25,000
19. 876,480 – 78,592 =
A. 89,7,88 B. 679888 C. 797,888 D. A and C
20. A merchant sells 2500kg coffee daily. How many kilograms of coffee does
the merchant sell with in 40 days
A. 50,000 B. 50,000 C. 100,000 D. 1,000,000
21. In a certain school there are 450 students. If each student plant 15 trees,
how many trees are planted?
A. 6750 B. 6705 C. 6570 D. 5750
22. If 225 birr is divided equally for 5 children, how much birr each student
receive?
A. 450 B. 45 C. 54 D. 540
23. Which pairs of fractions are equivalent fractions?
1 1 2 6 3 2
A. 2 and 3 B. 3 and 9 C. 4 and 3 D.
1 2
4 And 6
Part IV: Fill in the blank spaces
24. Compare the following fractions by using >,< or = signs

2 5 28 28 85
A. 6 6 B. 35 35 C. 150
48
150
25. Add or subtract the following fractions.
85 89 47
¿¿ +
A. 120 B. 170 170
26. Find at least 3 equivalent fractions by multiplication

3 5
A. 4 B. 6
Set by Mesele T.

2006 E.C 1st SEMESTER ENV.SCIENCE FINAL EXAM FOR GRADE 1
Time allowed 40’

Part I: Say true of false
1. Children should help their parents by doing simple Job.
2. All flowers have bad smell.
3. Smelling all flowers are not good habit.
4. Touching too hot or too cold things causes serious pain
5. Toilets will have a bad odour it they are not kept clean.
Part II: Choose the correct answer.
6. Which one has a bad odour?
A. Perfume B. dead animals
7. Which sense organ is used to receive a telephone message?
A. Ear B. Nose.
8. Which one is a source of light?
A. Stone B. Candle.
9. Who are the administrators of a family?
A. father and mother B. children
10. Parents, sisters and brothers are the of a family

A. Administrator B. Member’s
11. Is leading the family in a good way
A. good governance B. disagreement
12. What do we call our mother’s and fathers brothers?
A. Uncle B. Aunt.
Part IV: Fill in the blank spares from the words in the box
Ear eye tongue sister brother
1. is a girl who has the same parents as you
2. Used to identify the taste of salt
3. is a boy who has the same parents as you
4. is used to watch T.V.
5. Used to listen music.
Part V: Match the following items

“A” “B”
1. Malaria A. transmitted by anopheles mosquito
2. Common cold B. caused by eating spoiled food
3. Ascaris C. It is a parasitic worm
4. AIDS D. has no medicine

5. Diarrhea E. It can be transmitted by breathing.
Set by Sitota K
2006 E.C 1st SEMESTER ENV. SCIENCE FINAL EXAM FOR GRADE 2
Part I: Say True or False Time allowed 40’
1. Butterflies belong to birds group

2. Birth, growth and death are part of natural phenomena
3. Insects and human beings have similar life cycle.
4. Earthquake is a natural phenomenon that happens suddenly.
5. Summer is to” kirempt” as winter is to “Beggar “
Part II: Match the following choices

Column “A” Column “B”
1. The twelve hour time A. season
2. The division of time in a year B. rain bow
3. A natural phenomena caused C. day and night
by shortage or absence of rain fall for
a long time
4. Band of different colors appearing in the sky D. drought
5. The stage of life from birth to death E. life cycle
Part III: Multiple choices
1. Which of the following natural phenomena happens suddenly?

A. Earthquake C. storm
B. flooding D. all
2. Natural phenomena that do not occur repeatedly are
A. winter and summer C. drought and flooding
B. day and night
3. One of the following is not the characteristic of flooding
A. volume of river water increases C. shortage of water
B. water covering farmland
4. Drought is characterized by
A. death to plants C. shortage of water
B. death to animal’s D. all of the a bore
5. High temperature and a absence of mud is characterized by
A. winter B. beggar C. “A” and “B” D. summer
Part IV: Work out
1. Fill in the blank space by terms given in the word bank.
Larva Pupa Egg Adult
2. Draw a rainbow and colour with appropriate colours
Set by Afewrk Abera

2006 E.C 1st SEMESTER INT.SEIENCE FINAL EXAM FOR GRADE 6
Part I: Say true or false Time allowed 50’

1. All fungi are important.
2. Spirogyra is multi – cellular green algae.
3. Mosses and ferns are plants which have no root, stems and leaves.
4. Fungi are organisms which do not have chlorophyll.
5. Plants with out flower are called flowering plants.
Part II: Choose the correct answer among the given alternatives.
6. Which one of the following is not fungus?

A. yeast C. Mush room
B. Bread mould D. volvox
7. Where do green algae live?
A. lakes C. seas
B. oceans D. none
8. Which one of the following is not algae?
A. volvox C. puff ball
B. spirogyra D. chlorella
9. The root of mosses are called
A. Rizome B. xyleom C. Hyphae D. Rhizoids
10. Which one of the following has no true roots, stem and leaves.
A. ferns C. Trees
B. mosses D. none
11. Which one of the following have vascular conductive tissues.
A. ferns C. mouse
B. algae D. fungi
12. Substances that can not conduct current are called
A. conductors B. Insulators C. silver D. A & B
13. Irrigation Mechanism is helpful, because
A. It rich to all plants C. there is no wasting of water
B. Requires minimum time D. all
14. Which of the following is a water born disease?
A. malaria C. HIV/AIDS
B. influenza D. Bilharzias
15. Which one of the following is ground water?
A. sea water C. well water
B. oceans D. lake
Part III: Match Column a with column B

A B
16. Shigellosis A. It change direction of current
17. Cholera B. The electric current that flows from a battry
18. Ascariasis C. round worm
19. Bilharziasis D. Vibrocholera
20. Direct current E. Several varieties of sheglla
F. Caused by fresh water snail
Part IV: Sort answer for the following question
24. Write down examples of
A. Unicellular algae
B. Multi cellular algae
25. Fungi that spoil food are
26. Write down the differences and similarities of mosses and ferns.
Differences Similarities
1. 1.
2. 2.
3. 3.
Set by Sitota & Fitsum

2006 E.C 1st SEMESTER INT. SCIENCE FINAL EXAM FOR GRADE 5
Part I: Write true for correct statement and false for in correct statement
Time allowed 40’
1. Continuous planting of the same crop on the same farm and results soil
depletion.
2. Smoking cigarette increases the risk of lung cancer.
3. Inhaled air contains more oxygen than exhaled air.
4. Crop rotation is the best solution to avoid soil depletion.
5. Chat is the most widely cultivated drug plant in Ethiopia.
6. Sandy soil is the best soil for the growth of plants.
7. All plant parts are useful except stem.
8. Deforestation means planting trees.
9. Terracing and mulching are causes of soil erosion.
10. The process by which green plants make their food is known as stomata.
[
Part II: Choose the best answer for the following questions.
11. Planting different crops year to year in a field is

A. crop rotation B. mulching C. soil erosion D. none
12. Which one of the following is true about topsoil?
A. It holds humus C. roots of most plants are found in this layer
B. It is upper layer of soil D. all
13. The best soil for the growth of plant is
A. sandy soil B. loam soil C. clay soil D. none
14. Which one of the following includes all the others?
A. Hashish B. tobacco C. drug D. chat
15. Hashish is a drug which is extracted from a plant known as
A. Tobacco B. Inset C. chat D. cannabis
16. Teenagers may tend to use drugs by one of the following reasons
A. peer group influence C. for sake of fun
B. to avoid tension D. all
17. Which one of the following is not cause of soil erosion?
A. Deforestation C. over grazing
B. cover vegetation D. none
18. The part of plant where most of food making process takes place is
A. root B. stem C. leaf D. none
19. Fruits are developed from flower part called
A. ovule B. ovary C. stamen D. none
20. Elongated fine thread like structure in plant is
A. seed B. Ovary C. fiber D. none
21. The most abundant element in the air by volume is
A. Nitrogen C. carbondioxide
B. oxygen D. none
Part III: Match the following questions.

“A” “B”
22. Soil with out or little amount of mineral A. Drug addiction

nutrients
23. Drugs that can change the behavior B. medicine drug
of the user
24. The repeated use of a drug, C. mood altering drug
which the user find difficult to stop
25. Drugs that used to treat sick D. depleted soil
people and cure them
26. Cutting trees from the forests E. Global warming
27. Increasing the temperature (carbon dioxide) F. deforestation
of the atmosphere
Part IV: Give short answer for the following questions.
28. Mention at least two examples of causes of soil erosion

a. b.
[
29. List down two methods of soil conservation

a. b.
[[
30. Write at least two advantage of chat

a. b.
Bonus
1. Covering the soil with mineral such as leaves and gasses is known as
Set by Tamene Heramo
Part I: Write true for correct statement and false for in correct statement
Time allowed 40’
1. Renewable resources can not be replaced by nature.
2. Weather is the average of all climatic conditions of an area over along period
of time.
3. Solids have definite shape and definite volume.
4. When water freezes below 00c it is changes in to ice.
5. Burning of wood is an example of physical change.
6. Physical changes can form new materials.
7. Summer is main rain fall season in Ethiopia.
8. Low lands in Ethiopia experience low amount of rain fall.
9. HIV/AIDS can be trans mitted by eating together.
10. Widening of hips is an indication of adolescence in males.
11. Water is non-renewable natural resource.
Part II: Choose the best answer for the following questions
12. Which one of the following is physical change?

A. boiling of water C. tearing of paper
B. melting of ice D. all
13. The condition of atmosphere observed for a short period of time is
A. Climate B. weather C. wind D. none
14. An instrument used to measure rain falls called
A. thermometer C. temperature
B. rainguage D. all
15. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
A. Alpline __ wurch C. tropical __ kolla
B. temperate __ dega D. all
16. Among the following seasons (regions) one, is not rain season.
A. summer B. winter C. Autumn D. spring
17. When the temperature is greater than 25 0c the temperature zone is
A. Desert B. tropical C. temperate D. none
18. Which one of the following is not non – renewable resource?
A. Gold B. copper C. animals D. petroleum
19. The process of changing liquid in to solid is
A. Evaporation B. freezing C. condensation D. all
20. Which one of the following is colourful matter?
A. Gold B. silver C. Iodine D. all
21. One of the following is states of matter
A. solid B. liquid C. gas D. all
22. The periodical discharge of blood from the female reproductive organ is
known as
A. menstruation C. abduction
B. unwanted pregnancy D. rape
23. An instrument used to measure temperature is
A. Rainguage B. spring C. thermometer D. none
Part III: Match the following

“A” “B”
24. Burning of candle A. Physical change
25. Boiling water B. chemical change
26. Rusting of iron
27. Tearing of paper
Part IV: Give short answer for the following questions
28. Write at least two examples of renewable natural resources

a.
b.
29. Write the three states of matter
a.
b. c.
30. Mention the rain fall regions (seasons) in Ethiopia
a.
b. c.
Bonus
1. Any thing that is found in our environment is called

Set by Tamene Heramo
Part I: Say “True” if the statement is correct and “false” if it is incorrect.
1. Food is important thing for people to live and grow. Time allowed 40’
2. Eating balanced diet does not help to prevent from diseases.
3. Members of family mart keep their personal hygiene.
4. People must perform their day to day activities with out rest
5. Soil conservation is only the duty of farmers.
Part: II Matching
“A” “B”
6. Used to produce hydro electric energy A. wild animals
7. Keeps the soil from erosion B. clay soil
8. Formed from stone under long period of time C. water
9. Lion, leopard, elephant and hyena D. forest
10. Has small particles E. soil
11. Has larger particles F. sandy soil
12. Has mixed particles G. oil seed
13. Sunflower, olive, sesame and linseed H. loam soil
14. Maize, barley, wheat and tiff I. cereal crops
15. Banana, mango, papaya, orange and lemon J. fruits
Part III: Choose the best answer from the given alternatives.
1. Which of the following soil has ability to retain water?

A. clay soil B. sandy soil C. loam soil D. all
2. The need far enough enclosure living places is for
A. wild animals B. forest and air C. soil D. none
3. Why air- born disease is easily transmitted?
A. The disease has no medicine C. air can not carry germs
B. air is in every place and it moves fast. D. none
4. Which one does not pollute water?
A. people B. flood C. animals D. none
5. Which one is the product of clay soil?
A. pot B. coffee pot C. barrel D. a and b
6. is the part of a body that hear sound
A. eye B. nose C. ear D. all
7. What is the cause of sound?
A. movement B. change of position C. vibrating part D. none
8. Which one is percussion musical instrument?
A. Gitar B. kebero C. violin D. kirar
9. Which of the following do not transmit sound?
A. solid B. liquid C. air D. none
10. Which one is air stream musical instrument?
A. flute B. masinko C. kirar D. Gitar
Part IV: Fill the blank space from the given words in the table.
Vegetables, farming, fertile soil, sound, pulley, rest, AIDS
1. is agricultural activity in which cereal crops, vegetables, fruits and

oil seeds are produced.
2. Contains humus and remains of dead body.
3. Cabbage, onion, tomato, radish, beet root are called
4. A simple machine which consists of a wheel and rope is
5. Some thing heard by car is known as
6. We must take in the middle of work to avoid stress.
7. is the disease that weakens the body’s ability to protect disease
1. What is energy?
2. Write the 3 types of soil?
B.
C.
3. List the 3 types of simple machines
A.
B.
C.
St by M.E
2006 E.C 1st SEMESTER ART FINAL EXAM FOR GRADE 3
Part I: Say true of false Time allowed
1. There are several ways of painting.
2. Blue and yellow are tertiary colors.
3. Art is a powerful language.
4. Red plus blue give us orange color.
5. Drawing is a basic skill in art work.
6. Color and shape are visual elements of art.
7. Black and white are neutral colors.
8. Brushes can have different sizes.
9. is the same design repeated many times.
A. shape B. pattern C. line
10. Which lines are used for pattern making?
A. wavy lines B. circular lines C. both
11. Lines which run parallel to the ground are called
A. horizontal B. vertical C. zigzag
12. Which one is art material?
A. brushes B. colors C. both
13. Which one is an element of art?
A. line B. shape C. both
14. The distance between two things is called
A. line B. space C. texture

Part III: Answer the following questions.
15. Write at least three elements of art
A.
B.
C.
16. What are the materials used for painting?
A.
B.
17. Write at least two types of lines
A.
18. Write at least three types of colors.
A.
B.
C.
19. A person who draws art is called
Set by Misrach H.M

1. The several styles in the rock painting most by found in

A. Benshangul C. Afar
B. Hararghe D. Somalia
2. The stelae of Axum height is meter.
A. 21 meters C. 90 meter
B. 70 meters D. 20 meter
3. The greatest rock churches of Tigre, mostly built between &
century.
A. 13th & 15th C. 15th & 17th
B. 11th & 13th D. 9th & 13th
4. Artist Afework Tekle exhibited locally
A. Asmara C. Harar
B. Addis Abeba D. Gondar E. all
5. One of the commonest forms of art in Egypt were
A. Statues to Immortalize the dead C. sculpture
B. Painting D. None
Part II: Say true or false
6. Artist Afework Tekle was born in shoa administrative region in 1932.

7. Some of Artist Afework Tekle’s works are struggle of African people; disunity
to unity.
8. Egypt was the cradle of human civilization.
9. The great monastery of Debre Damo has founded in Axumite time.
10. Color is one of the art elements.
11. The art element exit in combination to one another.
12. Line can be used to show value, movement, texture & other art elements.
13. Shape refers to lightness or darkness of a color.
14. The area on a flat surface one description of space.
15. Space is as other art element, multifaceted
Colour the following pictures using different colours.

Part I: Say true or false
Time allowed 30’
1. Marching song is one of the folk song.
2. The contribution of music in all society is the same.
3. The continuity that links the present with the past is one of the factors that shape the tradition.
4. In a certain preliterate society, folk songs are used for Majic effect.
5. Zenebe Bekele classified the Ethiopian song in to five categories.
6. Songs of ministerial is one of the Ashenafi Kebede’s category.
7. Lekso is sung individually for tragedy events.
8. Zefen includes all songs reflecting every aspect of the daily likes of the people in
Zenene Bekele’s category.
9. Through folk music the group expresses common emotions.
10. Folk music is a product of musical traditions.
Part II: Match the following B –A

A B
1. Shilela C. Songs connected with fishing, wood cutting etc
2. Lekso B. Denotes school songs
3. Ingurguro I. National anthem, military songs, etc
4. Political category M. Songs related to bragging and boasting
5. The economic category S. personalized lament
A. Refers to religious songs
U. Songs related to funeral laments
1. Which of the following song refers to warrior songs characterized by proud boast?
A. Lekso B. Fukera C. Musko D. Ingurguro
2. One of the following song consist of the wailed and the mourner in the form of choir?
A. Shilela B. Musho C. Fukera D. A & C
3. Which one of the Zenebe Bekele’s catery refers to songs related to birth, wedding
and death?
A. the social category C. Religious category
B. the political category D. The economic category
4. Which one of the following song is included in folk song?
A. love song B. patriotic song C. Narrative song D. all of the above
5. People sing a work song to
A. Ease the feeling of exhuation C. A & B are the correct answer
B. To end the given duty before expected time D. all of the above
Part I: Choose the best answer from the given alternatives

Time allowed 30’
1. Referring to the high or low quality of musical sound.
A. Intensity C. Duration
B. pitch D. Timber
2. You must develop patience and great effort in
A. Relaxation C. coordination
B. patience D. all
3. The emotional benefit of music is
A. Aesthetic appreciation C. self confidence
B. Emotional expression D. all
4. Is dynamic marks in words or sings to indicate the degree or changes of loudness
A. pitch C. Intensity
B. Duration D. Timber
5. The social benefit of music is
A. encourage creativity C. shared actively & communication
B. spiritual expression D. none
Part II: Say true or false
6. Researchers accept that relaxation lowers blood pressure and heart rates.
7. One common definition of music is to label it as organized sound.
8. Through music people communicate meanings
9. Ethiopia is a country of rich tradition, norms, religions and beliefs.
10. Their dance style could serve as the unique characteristics for their identification.
11. People sing a work song to ease the feeling of exhaustion.
12. The song of farmers and shepherds are different.
13. Victory song is sung at a time of Hunting.
14. Traditional song tells us the present conditions only of the society.
15. We distinguish the musical sound by using the rhythm only.
Part III: Match the following B – A
A B
1. Victory song A. sung at a time of war
2. Duration B. includes value of note & rest
3. Lullaby song C. soft gentle song
4. Shepherds song D. sung at a time of keeping cattle
5. Pitch E. high or low quality of musical sound
6. Hunters song F. peculiar quality of tone
7. Concentration G. Dynamic marks
8. Farmers song H. song at a time of ploughing
9. Intensity I . Focus
10. Timber tone color J. sung at a time of hunting
K. coordination

Part I: Say True or False Time allowed 40’
1. Beautiful monuments were built in Gondar and this shows that Gondar was
famous for ancient art particularly in architecture.
2. Red and green are examples of complementary colours.
3. Value is an art element that means darkness or lightness of a surface.
4. colours obtained by mixing primary colours and secondary colours are
intermediate colours
5. Rough is an example of texture.
6. Shape refers to a three dimensional area.
7. Red, yellow and green are the only hues that can’t by created by mixing any other
colours.
Part II: Choose the best answer and write the letter of your option on the
space provided on the left.
8. The art element that refers to the sense of touch is

A. value B. pattern C. texture D. shape
9. A continuous mark made by a pen, paint brush or other media is
A. space B. form C. shape D. line
10. Lines, colours, or shapes repeated over and over in a planned way is
A. texture B. motif C. pattern D. value
11. may be geometric or organic and has two dimensions.
A. form B. shape C. texture D. Intensity
12. The circular chart used to remember colour relation ships is a
A. colour scheme B. colour wheel C. colour circle
13. Secondary colours are obtained by mixing two colours.
A. neutral B. completment C.primary D.tertiary
14. Cool colours are
A. orange, green and purple C. yellow, blue and red
B. blue, green and violet D. white, black and brown
15. Warm colours are
A. yellow, red and orange C. yellow, green and blue
B. yellow, red and blue D. orange, purple and green
16. Yellow- orange, red – orange and yellow – green are examples of
A. tertiary colours C. neutral colours
B. secondary colours D. primary colours
17. Which of the following describes space?
A. the area on a flat surface C. the area which shows depth
B. the area between forms D. all of the above
18. Which of the following is a technique used in two dimensional works to create
the illusion of depth?
A. texture B. perspective C. value D. space
19. Which of the following is not true about art elements?
A. Organic shapes have irregular edges
B. Shapes have two dimensional areas
C. Elements of art are the basic parts needed to create works of art.
D. Texture can be used to show both form and shape
20. Which one of the following is an element of art?
A. form B. line C. shape D. all.
Part III: Matching part

“A” “B”
21. The combination of motifs A. ball, box etc
22. Geometric shapes B. bones, logs, rock etc
23. Organic shapes C. pattern
24. Geometric form D. circle, triangle, rectangle etc
25. Organic form E. leaf, blob, etc
Part IV: Using the art elements, make drawings and show the value, form and
shape in the following two boxes.
Set by Shimelis G.
Part I: (Say True or False)

Time allowed 40’
1. Large views are difficult to compose.
2. Drawing out of doors has some practical difficulties.
3. Two point perspective and one point perspective have equal vanishing point and
horizon.
4. Bird perspective and frog perspectives show different view of a thing at different
position.
5. Windy day and rainy day do not cause a problem for an out dour assist.
6. Different shades of grad can be made by adding different amount of complementary
colours.
7. In art works the art elements exist in combination of one another.
8. Form can be described as three dimensional art works.
9. Shape refers to lightness or darkness of black of a colour in art work.
10. The sum of 7 ½ heads fulfills one complete picture of the man.
Part II: Matching

Column “A” Column “B”
1. Red + Blue A. complementing colours

2. Blue + Yellow B. orange
3. Yellow + Red C. Intermediate
4. Make good can trust and can be seen at distance D. violet
5. Primary colours + secondary colours E. Green
Part III: Multiple choices
1. Is a continuous mark made by pen drawing materials and a variety of material

A. Value B. line C. form D. colour
2. One of the following is not art element
A. Texture B. value C. shape D. space
3. is a technique used in two dimensional art work.
A. colour B. line C. shape D. space
4. is a technique used in two dimensional to create the illusion of depth .
A. perspective B. form C. value D. all
5. One of the following is a neutral colous
A. Black B. white C. gray D. ‘A’ and ‘B’
6. All the colours mixed together will give
A. grey B. white C. grey – brown D. black
7. Colours which are good for posters and signs are called
A. inter mediate colours C. complementary colours
B. primary colours D. secondary colours
8. The addition of white colour to any colour will make it
A. Brighter B. darker C. dull D. none
9. Which of the following pair of colours are called neutrals?
A. Green and yellow C. orange and red
B. red and blue D. black and white
10. One of the following is called an intermediate colour
A. Blue – violet B. green C. yellow D. blue
Part IV: Work Out
1. Write the seven art elements.
2. Draw your suitable picture by using art elements.
3. Draw a BIRD PERSPECTIVE view and label the vanishing point and the horizon.
4. Draw a FROG PERSPECTIVE and lable the vanishing point and the horizon.
5. Draw a two point perspective and lable the vanishing point and the horizon of this paper.
Set by Afework Abera and Wondimu bege

BNB 2006 E.C 1st Sem. Final &amp; 1st Model Exam

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BNB LEARNING CENTRE ELEMENTARY SCHOOL

2006 E.C 1st SEMESTER CHEMISTRY FINAL EXAM FOR GRADE 7

Name Sec. Roll No. Score

Part II: Matching type (5 pts)

1. Write the correct symbols for the following

2. Name the following symbols and formulas.

3. Write a chemical formula with respect to the given valences in parenthesis

A. calcium (2) hydroxide (1)

B. Iron (3) oxygen (2)

Set by Afework Abera

Name Sec. Roll No. Score

Part I: Choose the best answer Time allowed 40’

1. is a system moral principle that govern a person’s behavior.

Part II: Match the following B – A

9. Note I. Musical sound

20. Rest J. Musical silence

Set by Wondimu Beyene

Part III: Match the following B –A

3. Staff C. composed of five lines

Name Sec. Roll No. Score

1. All of the following are concepts of democratic system except,

Part II: Matching

Part III: True or false

Name Sec. Roll No. Score

Part I: True or false Time allowed 45’

1. It is correct to use unequal acts some times.

Part II: Matching

1. is attempt based on self – initiation to help others.

Part IV: Choose the best answer

1. is giving judgment based on non discriminatory & impartial

Set by Freweini – Hailu

Part II: Choose the correct answer. (1 pts each)

1. is a valley formed as a result of sinking of land between two

Name Sec. Roll No. Score

Part V: Give short answer

Name Sec. Roll No. Score

Part II: Matching

2. Write the appropriate answer in blank space 5 point.

Orininal rock Mathamorphic rock

3. Write the main rock and the process in blank space.

14. Identify the wrong statement about the FDRE constitution.

36. is the condition of protecting and ensuring the life, liberty

Part V: Give short answer

39. Write at least four rights of tax players.

Name Sec. Roll No. Score

True/false Choose Matching

1. 8. 14. 21. 27.

1. In which stage of the river most fertile soil is found?

5. They provide us water (line 1) means

7. A river’s course has three main parts (line 4) means:

8. they (line 4) refers to

1. Ahmed: Did Demeke visit you?

1. My studying room is than my younger brother’s (narrow).

2. The farms used to be large, they are now (large)

3. She is the girl in our class. (beautiful)

4. The man is than my father. (tall)

5. The book I read yesterday was interesting, but this one is

6. The boy I saw yesterday was (polite) than this lady.

Set by: Asmamaw and Selamu

12. “Which “(Para. 2, line 7) refers to

16. Men smoke in England and so women

26. You will not arrive in time if you walk

Name Sec. Roll No. Score

Ethiopian television (ETV) is an Ethiopian government owned television channel. It is the

BNB 2006 E.C 1st Sem. Final & 1st Model Exam

BNB 2006 E.C 1st Sem. Final & 1st Model Exam