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GENERAL SCIENCE MAJORSHIP

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
1. The test questionnaire contains 200 test questions. Examinees shall manage to use three (3) hours.
2. Read INSTRUCTIONS printed on your answer sheet.
3. Shade only one (1) box for each question on your answer sheets. Two or more boxes shaded will invalidate your answer.
4. AVOID ERASURES.
5. WARNING: This material is protected by Copyright Laws. Unauthorized used shall be prosecuted in the full extent of
the Philippine Laws. For exclusive use of CBRC reviewees only.

1. The statement, “The worm is 2 centimeters long.” is a/an

A. observation B. inference C. theory D. hypothesis

2. The organelle that breaks down lipids, carbohydrates, proteins into simpler form to be used by the cell is
A. vacuole B. lysosome C. ribosome D. filament

3. By what process does a severely cut portion of a starfish grow into a full starfish?
A. Binary fission B. Budding C. Fragmentation D. Regeneration

4. How can we differentiate arthropods from annelids?

A. An arthropods have segmented body, annelids have non-segmented body
B. Arthropods have wings, annelids have legs
C. Arthropods have exoskeleton, annelids have endoskeleton
D. Arthropods have jointed legs, annelids have none

5. What type of tropism is shown in the situation where the plant’s roots which grew towards the surface of the ground?
A. Positive Phototropism C. Positive Geotropism
B. Negative Phototropism D. Negative Geotropism

6. When the gene pair is heterozygous, only one is physically expressed and the other one is hidden, which law is explained?
A. Law of Incomplete Dominance C. Law of Independent Assortment
B. Law of Dominance D. Law of Segregation

7. Which is considered as the master gland due to its influence on the activities of all other glands?
A. Thyroid B. Parathyroid C. Pituitary D. Adrenal

8. Which of the following is not a type of cell?

A. bacteria B. amoeba C. virus D. sperm

9. True of Trisomy 21:

A. An abnormality of chromosomes inheritance in which there are 3 copies of chromosomes 21
B. Also known as Turner’s syndrome
C. Presents with superior mental intelligence, tall stature and protruding
D. Results when an individual is missing 3 chromosomes

10. Which of the following protists causes Malaria?

A. Amoeba B. Euglena C. Plasmodium D. Paramecium

11. The deepest layer of the epidermis which consists of cuboidal or columnar cells plays a big role for mitotic division every 19days is
the:
A. stratum spinosum
B. stratum granulosum
C. stratum corneum
D. stratum basale

12. Mitochondria is the site of cellular respiration. Which of the following is the final end
product of the process?
A. Carbon dioxide B. Oxygen C. NADH D. ATP

13. Where would the vesicles from endoplasmic reticulum proceed containing the polypeptide for further modification?
A. nucleus B. golgi complex C. plasma membrane D. mitochondria

14. Which of the following plant cell functions as a food storage?

A. collenchyma B. parenchyma C. sclerenchyma D. guard cell

15. Which of the following groups of organisms is a very good source of antibiotics?
A. Penicillium notatum
B. Aspergillus niger
C. Rhizopus stolonifera
D. None of the above

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16. All monocots possess the following characteristics except:
A. scattered arrangement of vascular bundles
B. parallel veins
C. fibrous root system
D. floral parts in multiples of 4 or 5

17. The bacteria plays important roles in nature as __________________.

A. Gera catalysts
B. Biological enhancers
C. Chemical recyclers
D. Organic additive

18. Of the following, identify the main solvent and protoplasm of the human cells that are nutrients needed by the human body
for survival?
A. Oil B. Minerals C. Fats D. Water

19. What causes camote leaves sold in markets to wilt?

A. Decreased turgor pressure
B. Increased turgor pressure
C. Increased diffusion pressure
D. Decreased air pressure

20. What is the product of biotechnology that has existed even before the industrial age?
A. Chemical pesticide
B. Vitamin C
C. Synthetic Medicine
D. Leavened bread

21. Identify which of the following is NOT true about tapeworm:

A. They are animals
B. They are saprozoic
C. They have special saprotropic
D. They are autorophic

22. Amoeba proteus is a very common amoeba that you use in the laboratory for experiments. What do they use for locomotion?
A. flagella B. cilia C. pseudopodia D. feet

23. What type of reproduction is involved when an egg developed into a new organism without being fertilized by a sperm?
A. budding B. binary fission C. parthenogenesis D. fragmentation

24.A fruit is a ________________.

A. ripened ovary B. ripened ovule C. ripened bud D. ripened stigma

25. Which of the following is not true of fungi?

A. some are pathogenic
B some are photosynthetic
C. some are edible
D. form symbiotic relationship with algae

26. What organs is controlled by the autonomic nervous system?

A. skeletal B. muscle C. heart D. both A and C

27. Which of the following refers to the ability of organisms to keep its internal environment stable even whenexternal conditions change
dramatically?
A. irritability B. evolution C. adaptation D. homeostasis

28. How will you classify photosynthesis microorganisms under the two kingdom scheme of biological classification?
A. Under Kingdom Protista C. Under Kingdom Animalia
B. Under Kingdom Monera D. Under Kingdom Plantae

29. These are three fundamental parts shared by all cells, but this is NOT one of them:
A. Organelles B. Nucleus C. Cell membrane D. Cytoplasm

30. What is the control center of the cell?

A. Nucleus B. Nucleolus C. Chromosome D. Chromatin

31. Plants wilt when the rate of ____________.

A. Water absorption is faster than transpiration
B. Transpiration is faster than water absorption
C. Photosynthesis is faster than transpiration
D. Weight loss after several weeks

31. What will you do if you were asked to apply the most basic process in the Science of Taxonomy?
A. Map down organisms C. Understand organisms
B. Differentiate organisms D. Identify organisms

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32. Gibberellins cause growth by stimulating ___________.
A. Cell division B. Dormancy C. Cell growth D. Germination

33. Identify which of the following is mismatched:

A. Endocytosis – phagocytosis and pinocytosis
B. Passive transport – diffusion and osmosis
C. Anabolism – cellular respiration
D. Catabolism – digestion of food

33. A series of membrane-bound channels free of ribosomes is called ____________.

A. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum C. Mitochondrion
B. Plastid D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum

34. Who first used the word “genetic”?

A. Imre Festetics B. Hugo Vries C. Gregor Mendel D. Charles Darwin

35. What kind of organism is the schistoma which causes schistosomiasis, a tropical disease traced to contaminated water?
A. Virus B. Flatworm C. Fungus D. ProtIst

36. At which organelle are proteins manufactured?

A. Nucleus B. Mitochondrion C. Ribosome D. Vacuole

37. The largest organ inside the human body is the _____________.
A. Brain B. Heart C. Liver D. Lungs

38. Which genetic term pertains to the physical appearance of an individual?

A. Genotype B. Phenotype C. Haplotype D. Clone

39. In applying crop technology, which of the following will you NOT use since these are not genetically modified organism?
A. Delayed ripening tomato
B. Cross-bred hybrid plants
C. A-enhanced golden rice
D. Drought resistant Bt. Corn

40. These are the characteristics you can find to show that the bacteria are the earliest life forms in primitive earth, but NOT to include_.
A. They are only organisms made of prokaryotic cells
B. They do not have a nuclear membrane
C. They produce sexually with parent producing two identical daughter cells
D. They have a single circular DNA

41. When the temperature of the body is greater than the surroundings, how does the body maintain homeostasis?
A. By conduction
B. By manual exercise
C. By perspiration
D. By radiation

42. Which refers to the sum total of all chemical reactions that take place in the cells of an organism?
A. Anabolism
B. Catabolism
C. Metabolism
D. Homeostasis

43. What specialized field in biology enables us to understand how blood flows through the blood?
a. Cytology B. Histology C. Morphology D. Physiology

44. The mitochondria are cellular structures involved primarily in ______.

A. Cell Division
B. Storage of fats
C. Enzyme production
D. Cellular respiration

45. Which of the following environmental conditions would likely increase the rate of photosynthesis?
A. Increase in O2 in the atmosphere
b. Increase in O2 concentration
C. Increase in CO2 concentration
D. Increase in nitrogen concentration

46. Which refers to the group cells found in the interior of the leaf, containing 30 to 40 chloroplasts?
a. Epidermis b. Grana c. Mesophyll d. Stroma

47. Who is the father of genetics?

a. Charles Darwin
b. Zobell
c. Gregor Mendel
d. Alexander Graham Bell

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48. Carolus Linneaus is to ______________________ :: Aristotle is to Classical Taxonomy.
a. Modern Psychology
b. Systematics
c. Modern Taxonomy
d. Modern Phylogeny

49. Which of the following mechanisms require energy to transport molecules into the cell?
a. Diffusion b. Facilitated diffusion c. Osmosis d. Active Transport

50. Cells in plant roots absorb nutrients from the soil through ________.
a. Active transport
b. facilitated diffusion
c. Passive Transport
d. Osmosis

51. Which of the following serves as template for the assembly of amino acids during protein synthesis?
a. DNA
B. mRNA
c. rRNA
D. tRNA

52. Which is at the top of the hierarchy of biological taxonomy?

a. Family b. Domain c. Kingdom d. Genus

53. Stomach, skin, and liver are examples of :

a. Cells b. Organs c. Organ System d. Tissues

54. Which are the fingerlike projections that line the small intestine making absorption more efficient?
a. Chyme b. Colon c. Peristalsis d. Villi

55. Which layer of the epidermis is found on palms of our hands and soles of our feet?
a. Stratum basale
b. Stratum corneum
c. Stratum corneum
d. Stratum lucidum

56. What are the tiny sacs within the lungs that allow oxygen and carbon dioxide to move between the lungs and blood streams?
a. Alveoli b. Bronchioles c. Larynx d. Pharynx

57. Which pair of body systems works most closely together?

a. Skeletal and Digestive
b. Circulatory and Muscular
c. Integumentary and Nervous
d. Respiratory and Endocrine

58. Which of the following pairs of organisms is MOST related?

a. Bacteria and cyanobacteria because both belong to kingdom monera
b. Man and chimpanzee because both belong to class mammalia
c. Earthworm and leech because both belong to phylum annelid
d. Dogs and cats because both belong to order carnivora

59. Which of the choices is a dicot?

a. Sugarcane
b. grass
c. coconut
d. mango

60. Which of the choices is a monocot?

a. Guava
b. banana
c. star apple
d. gumamela

61. Ichthyology : fishes ; Ornithology :______

a. insects
b. birds
c. algae
d. fungi

62. Brian planted a seed upside down such that the root end is facing up while the shoot end is facing down, but after germination, the
root grows downward and the shoot grows upward. Which of the following is described above?
a. Thigmotropism
b. geotropism
c. phototropism
d. both b & c

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63. If you are given a plant which is a product of a genetic experiment , which of the following you are most likely accurate of
describing?
a. It’s genotype
b. it’s phenotype
c. it’s recessive genes
d. It’s dominant genes

64. Xylem : water ; _________ : food

a. fibers
b. phloem
c. stem tissue
d. intercalary meristem

65. The following are functions of plant’s roots except

a. Absorbing water and minerals
b. Providing stable foundation for growth
c. Breaking down food into nutrients
d. anchoring the plant in the soil

66. A plant placed in an airtight glass container and watered without allowing air into and out of the container will eventually die
because of the lack of
a.Oxygen
b. water
c. light
d. carbon dioxide

67. Plants take in carbon dioxide and release oxygen during photosynthesis. This indicates that the plants
a. Affect the balance of gases in the atmosphere
b. Take oxygen from the air the same as in the animals
c. Compete with animals in the supply of oxygen in the atmosphere
d. Rely on the sun as their source of energy

68. What is a cell?

a. A living organism that is neither a plant or an animal
b. The smallest unit of living and nonliving matter
c. The smallest part of an organism that can carry out life functions
d. A living unit that always specializes in a particular function of an organism

69. Mosquitoes belong to the family?

A. DIPTERIA
B. HEXAPODA
C. PHYLUM ANTHROPODA
D. CULICIDAE

70. What is a modified form of asexual reproduction seen among bees in which unfertilized eggs may develop into a complete
individual?
a. Hermaphroditism
b. Parthenogenesis
c. Budding
d. Regeneration

71. How will you describe the structure of bacteria?

A. Multicellular
B. Thread like
C. Spherical like
D. Single celled

72. Which invention improved the treatment of diseases, while preventing epidemics
A. Stethoscope
B. Sanitary System
C. Hospital
D. Vaccination

73. Double fertilization is a unique feature of flowering plants. In this process, one sperm unites with the egg to yield a zygote. The
second sperm unites with the polar nuclei to initiate the formation of the
a.Megagametophyte
b. Endodermis
c. endosperm
d. Epicotyl

74. The process of ________ helps to ensure that a scientist’s research is original, significant, logical, and thorough.
a. publication
b. public speaking
c. peer review
d. the scientific method

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75. A person notices that her houseplants that are regularly exposed to music seem to grow more quickly than those in rooms with no
music. As a result, she determines that plants grow better when exposed to music. This example most closely resembles which type of
reasoning?
a. inductive reasoning
b. deductive reasoning
c. neither, because no hypothesis was made
d. both inductive and deductive reasoning

76. DNA replication involves unwinding two strands of parent DNA, copying each strand to synthesize complementary strands, and
releasing the parent and daughter DNA. Which of the following accurately describes this process?
a. This is an anabolic process
b. This is a catabolic process
c. This is both anabolic and catabolic
d. This is a metabolic process but is neither anabolic nor catabolic

77. If black and white true-breeding mice are mated and the result is all gray offspring, what inheritance pattern
would this be indicative of?
a. dominance
b. codominance
c. multiple alleles
d. incomplete dominance

78. In agriculture, polyploid crops (like coffee, strawberries, or bananas) tend to produce ________.
a. more uniformity
b. more variety
c. larger yields
d. smaller yields

79. This is the measure of how often a disease genotype correlates to the disease genotype.
a. Genotype
b. Phenotype
c. Penetrance
d. Genetic disorder

80. This involves altering of genes inside our body’s cells in an effort to treat or stop disease.
a. Gene Therapy
b. Gene recombination
c. Gene flow
d. Genetic Drift

81. Thomson was convinced that he had discovered a subatomic particle, the electron, from the evidence that
A. the charge-to-mass ratio was the same for all materials.
B. cathode rays could move through a vacuum.
C. electrons were attracted toward a negatively charged plate.
D. the charge was always 1.60 × 10-19 coulomb.

82. According to Rutherford’s calculations, the volume of an atom is mostly,

a. positive charged particles.
b. negative charged particles.
c. neutrally charged particles.
d. empty space .

83. Atomic weight is

A. determined by weighing individual atoms.
B. an average weight of the isotopes of an element.
C. the number of protons and neutrons in a nucleus.
D. a weighted average of the masses of isotopes of an element based on abundance.

84. The element chlorine, with atomic number 17, belongs to which group?
A. Alkali metals
B. Lanthanides
C. Halogens
D. Noble gases

85. Two different isotopes of the same element have

A. the same number of protons, neutrons, and electrons.
B. the same number of protons and neutrons but different numbers of electrons.
C. the same number of protons and electrons but different numbers of neutrons.
D. the same number of neutrons and electrons but different numbers of protons.

86. An atom has 6 protons, 6 electrons, and 6 neutrons, so the isotope symbol is
18
A. 12 Mg
12
B. 12 Mg
12
C. 6 C
18
D. 6 C

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87. Which of the following is not true of a compound? It is
A. a pure substance.
B. composed of combinations of atoms.
C. held together by chemical bonds.
D. a substance that cannot be broken down into simpler units

88. Atoms that achieve an octet by sharing electrons form

A. covalent bonds.
B. ionic bonds.
C. metallic bonds.
D. hydrogen bonds.

89. The correct name for the compound CS2 is

A. dicarbon disulfide.
B. carbon disulfite.
C. carbon disulfide.
D. monocarbon trisulfide.

90. Which of the following is not an example of a chemical reaction?

A. Blending of a vanilla milkshake
B. Growing tomatoes
C. Burning logs in the fireplace
D. Digesting your dinner

91. An organic compound is a compound that

a. contains carbon and was formed by a living organism.
b. is a natural compound
c. contains carbon, whether it was formed by a living thing or not.
d. was formed by a plant

92. There are millions of organic compounds but only thousands of inorganic compounds because

a. organic compounds were formed by living things.

b. there is more carbon on Earth’s surface than any other element.
c. atoms of elements other than carbon never combine with themselves.
d. carbon atoms can combine with up to four other atoms, including other carbon atoms.

93. A hydroxyl, -OH, functional group is found in

a. Ketone
b. Alkanes
c. Aldehydes
d. Alcohols

94. A hydrocarbon with a carbon-to-carbon triple bond is an

a. Alkane
b. Alkene
c. Alkyne
d. Alkaline

95. You know for sure that the compound named octane has
a. more than 8 isomers.
b. 8 carbon atoms in each molecule.
c. only single bonds.
d. All of the above are correct.

96. Hydrocarbons with double bonds are the

a. Alkanes
b. Alkenes
c. Alkynes
d. Alkines

97. Petroleum is believed to have formed mostly from the anaerobic decomposition of buried
a. dinosaurs.
b. fish.
c. pine trees.
d. plankton and algae

98. Chemical reactions usually take place on an organic compound at the site of a
a. double bond.
b. lone pair of electrons.
c. functional group.
d. Any of the above is correct.

99. The oxidation of ethanol, C2H5OH, produces

a. acetone.
b. formaldehyde.

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c. acetic acid.
d. formic acid.
100. The process where large hydrocarbons are converted into smaller ones is called
a. snapping.
b. cracking
c. distillation
d. fractionation.

101. A protein is a polymer formed from the linking of many

a. glucose units.
b. DNA molecules.
c. amino acid molecules.
d. monosaccharides

102. Which of the following is not converted to blood sugar by the human body?
a. Lactose
b. Dextrose
c. Cellulose
d. None of the above is correct.

103. Fats from animals and oils from plants have the general structure of a /an
a. aldehyde.
b. ester.
c. amine.
d. ketone.

104. Chargaff’s rule states that DNA has:

a. The same numbers of purines as pyrimidines
b. The number of purines is twice the number of pyrimidines
c. The same number of A as T
d. The same number of G as C

105. Identify the appropriate nitrogenous bases found in DNA and RNA, respectively.
a. DNA: adenine, thymine, cytosine, guanine; RNA: adenine, thymine, cytosine, guanine.
b. DNA: adenine, uracil, cytosine, guanine; RNA: adenine, uracil, cytosine, guanine.
c. DNA: adenine, uracil, cytosine, guanine; RNA: adenine, thymine, cytosine, guanine.
d. DNA: adenine, thymine, cytosine, guanine; RNA: adenine, uracil, cytosine, guanine.

106. Sugars, starches, and cellulose belong to which class of organic compounds?
a. Proteins
b. Fatty acids
c. Carbohydrates
d. Enzymes

107. Which of the following codons are a start codon and a stop codon, respectively?
a. AUG; UGA
b. AGU; UAA
c. AGU, UGA
d. AUG, UAA

108. The breakdown of lipids involves the breaking of a bond using water. This is a process called _________
a. Hydration
b. Dehydration
c. Hydrophobia
d. Hydrolysis

109. Which of the following bonds are not involved in tertiary structure?
a. peptide bonds
b. ionic bonds
c. hydrophobic interactions
d. hydrogen bonds

110. What does the lytic and lysogenic cycles of viruses have in common?
a. The host cell dies
b. The virus dies
c. The virus inserts its genetic information into the host cell
d. Copies of the virus are immediately released from the host

111. Which is the science that deals with the things like motion, energy, and force?
a. Biology
b. Physics
c. Chemistry
d. Astronomy

112. Which of the following types of physics provides modification and instability of concept in classical physics?
a. Formal Physics
b. Modern Physics

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c. Momentum
d. Analytical Physics

113. Who is the father of Thermodynamics?

a. Aristotle
b. Galileo
c. Newton
d. Carnot

114. Which of the following tells us that energy cannot be created nor destroyed, but it can be transferred from one location to another
and converted to and from other forms of energy?
a. 1st Law of Thermodynamics
b. 2nd Law of Thermodynamics
c. 3rd Law of Thermodynamics
d. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics

115. Having thermodynamics in mind, what do you call the finite quantity of matter or prescribed region of space?
a. System
b. Boundary
c. Heat
d. Surroundings

116. What kind of system is present in thermodynamic if there’s no mass permitted to cross the boundary, heat and can enter or leave
the system but not the mass?
a. Open System
b. Closed System
c. Mixed System
d. Thermodynamics

117. Which of the following applies the 1st Law of Thermodynamics?

a. Calculator
b. Heat engine
c. ball
d. Temperature

118. Which of the following is the energy transferred to or from an object through the application of force along a displacement?
a. Energy
b. Power
c. Work
d. Thermodynamics

119. Vhal put on his bag-pack of weight 120 N. He then starts running on a level ground for 100 meters before started to climb up a
ladder up a height of 100 meters. How much work was done?
a. 1200 J
b. 1500 J
c. 1400 J
d. 1700 J

120. Vhal carries a box with a weight of 800 N. However, he can’t be able to step his feet due to the weight of the box. Going to his
destination, he needs to cover a distance of 50 meters. What is the work done?
a. 14 J
b. 16 J
c. 18 J
d. No work

121. Energy due to motion is _______________ energy.

a. Potential
b. Energy
c. Kinetic
d. Friction

122. The faster an object moves, the _______________ kinetic energy it has.
a. Potential
b. Energy
c. Kinetic
d. Friction

123. Can energy be created?

a. Yes. We can create energy.
b. No.
c. Maybe
d. Perhaps

124. Maria has fever. She made use of thermometer to check her temperature. Her body temperature is 40 degrees Celsius. What is
temperature in Kelvin?
a. 300 K
b. 313 K

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c. 343 K
d. 273.5 K

125. How much energy is needed to heat up 1kg of water by 15 degrees Celsius?
a. 63kJ
b. 61 kJ
c. 59 kJ
d. 53 kJ

126. Many forms of energy in use today can be traced back to ______.
a. The Sun
b. Coal
c. Fossil fuel
d. Petroleum

127. Any form of energy can be converted to another, but energy used on Earth usually ends up in what form?
a. electrical
b. mechanical
c. nuclear
d. radiant

128. Radiant energy can be converted to electrical energy using ______.

a. light bulbs
b. engines
c. solar cells
d. electricity

129. Heat is the _______________.

a. total internal energy of an object
b. average kinetic energy of molecules
c. measure of potential energy of molecules
d. same thing as a very high temperature

130. An electric rice cooker operates at 240 V and uses a current of 8 amperes. What is the resistance of the rice cooker?
a. 20 Ohms
b. 30 Ohms
c. 40 Ohms
d. 5o Ohms

131. Which of the following happens the heat from the Sun transfers to the Earth through mostly empty space which requires the
movement of material from one place to another, or the collision of molecules within a material?
a. Radiation
b. Conduction
c. Convection
d. Competition

132. It is a subject that includes the properties of magnets, the effect of the magnetic force on moving charges and currents, and the
creation of magnetic fields by current.
a. Magnet
b. Electromagnetism
c. Magnetism
d. Magnetic field

133. Why does blue t-shirt appear blue?

a. Blue is absorbed by the t-shirt
b. Blue is emitted by the t-shirt
c. Blue is reflected by the t-shirt
d. Blue is reflected by the t-shirt

134. Under which type of light do we easily get sunburned?

a. Infrared
b. Microwave light
c. Ultraviolet
d. Visible light

135. What phenomenon is a result of the bending of light particles that causes haloes, and sundogs, and mirage?
a. Refraction
B. Reflection
c. Interference
d. Dispersion

136. What kind of mirror is also known as converging mirror?

a. Concave
b. Convex
c. Rear mirror
d. Side mirror

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137. Who was the scientist who formulated the theory of relativity?
a. Aristotle
b. Newton
c. Leibniz
D. Albert Einstein

138. Which among the following resolves the conflict between Newtonian mechanics and Maxwell’s electromagnetic theory?
a. Theory of General Relativity
b. Theory of Special Relativity
c. Law of Universal Gravitation
d. Law of Conservation of Energy

139. What theory deals with the inertial frame of reference?

a. Theory of General Relativity
b. Theory of Special Relativity
c. Electromagnetic Theory
d. None of the above

140. What is the value and symbol of the speed of light?

a. 3.0 x 10 ^ 8 m/s^2 : c
b. 3.0 x 10 ^ 8 m/s :v
c. 3.0 x 10 ^ 8 m/s^2 : v
d. 3.0 x 10 ^ 8 m/s :c

141. Our Sun is _________________.

a. one of several stars in the solar system.
b. the brightest star in the night sky.
c. an average star, considering mass and age.
d. a protostar.

142. Approximately how old is the universe?

a. 5 billion years
b. 10 billion years
c. 14 billion years
d. 25 billion years

143. What type of planets are Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars?
a. Early planets
b. Terrestrial planets
c. Small planets
d. Hot planets

144. The most widely accepted theory on the origin of the solar system is
a. Big Bang.
b. conservation of matter.
c. protoplanet nebular.
d. collision of planets

145. Heat and pressure change rocks into

a. igneous rocks
b. sedimentary rocks
c. metamorphic rocks
d. clastic rocks

146. The relationship between rocks that are continually changing over long periods of time is called
a. geology
b. mineralogy
c. rock cycle
d. weathering

147. The science that studies the atmosphere and weather phenomena is
a. astronomy
b. astrology.
c. meteorology
d. space science.

148. What condition means a balance between the number of water molecules moving to and from the liquid state?
a. Evaporation
b. Condensation
c. Saturation
d. None of the above is correct.

149. Which of the following gases cycle into and out of the atmosphere?
a. Nitrogen
b. Carbon dioxide
c. Oxygen
d. All of the above are correct

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150. What factor in a tropical rainforest would an understory trees and shrubs be not deprived with which is one of the most important
needs for the plants to survive?
A. soil
B. light
C. water
D. salt

151. The animals that is required to eat only meat are called:
A. Ordinate carnivore
B. Selective carnivore
C. Facultative carnivore
D. Obligate carnivore

152. Which of the following would have the least amount of energy received based on its trophic position?
A. Eagle
B. Louse
C. Rice
D. Snail

153. The relationship that exists between insects and flowering plants is called ______________.
A. parasitism
B. predation
C. mutualism
D. commensalism

154. Sharp and tearing teeth are likely to be found in a/an:

A. autotroph
B. producer
C. consumer
D. decomposer

155. An owl and a hawk both eat mice. Which of the following ecological relationships below is illustrated?
A. competition
B. commensalism
C. mutualism
D. predation

156. What is the function of the light-dependent reaction in Photosynthesis?

A. to convert carbon dioxide to carbohydrates
B. to obtain carbon dioxide
C. to regenerate RuBP
D. to convert light energy into usable form of chemical energy

157. This term is used to describe an organism, which depends its subsistence on others.
a. Medium
b. Host
c. Parasite
d. Commensal

158. How many percent of energy within a trophic level is transferred to the next higher trophic level?
a. 0.10
b. 1.0
c. 10
d. 100

159. At what trophic level are autotroph found?

a. level 1
b. level 2
c. level 3
d. level 4

160. The network of food chains within an ecosystem is called?

a. Food connection
b. Food chain
c. Food web
d. Biomass

161. Why is science valued?

a. Because science has helped in improving living conditions
b. Because science has helped in satisfying many basic human needs
c. Because science has caused detrimental effects to the environment
d. Both A and B

162. The physical sciences include physics (the study of physical things), chemistry (the study of matter), and astronomy (the science
of celestial objects). What facet of science is illustrated here?
a. Science as a set of skills

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b. Science as a broad body of knowledge
c. Science as a global human endeavor
d. Science as a social activity

163. The six basic scientific process skills are observation, communication, classification, measurement, inference, and prediction.
What scientific facet is shown here?
a. Science as a set of skills
b. Science as a broad body of knowledge
c. Science as a global human endeavor
d. Science as a social activity

164. It is concerned about teaching, learning, and understanding science.

a. Science process skills
b. Science teacher
c. Science workshop
d. Science education

165. it is a series of processes for validating and expanding scientific knowledge.

a. Scientific literacy
b. Scientific method
c. Scientific name
d. Scientific jargon

166. It refers to addressing our own needs without jeopardizing future generations’ potential to do the same. We need not only natural
but also social economic resources.
a. Sustainability
b. Scientific literacy
c. Science education
d. Development goals

167. The United Nations’ Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) are made to serve as a shared blueprint for peace and prosperity for
people and the planet now and into the future. What facet of science is illustrated here?
a. Science as a set of skills
b. Science as a broad body of knowledge
c. Science as a global human endeavor
d. Science as a social activity

168. Though mainly an activity aimed to preserve ecological balance and conservation, recycling can create jobs and reduce solid
waste collection, transportation, and disposal costs. Monetary profit can also be made from selling recyclable materials. What facet of
science is illustrated here?
a. Science as a set of skills
b. Science as a broad body of knowledge
c. Science as a global human endeavor
d. Science as a social activity

169. What are the characteristics of students who are proficient in science?
a. Students know, use, and interpret scientific explanations
b. Students generate and evaluate scientific evidence and explanations
c. Students understand the nature and development of scientific knowledge
d. All of the above.

170. The following are examples of basic science process skills EXCEPT:
a. Accuracy
b. Observation
c. Communication
d. Prediction

171. All of the following statements are TRUE except:

a. The teaching of science appreciates the benefits and limitations of science and its applications
b. The teaching of science develops inquiring minds and curiosity about the world
c. The teaching of science obscures the understanding of the international nature of science
d. None of the above.

172. This strategy aims to expose students to a broad range of concepts/topics and disciplines until they master them by studying them
repeatedly but with varying degrees of difficulty.
a. Teaching outside specialization
b. Spiral progression
c. Learning loss
d. Educational disruption

173. When experimenting with the growth of a plant, a scientist uses three of the same type of plants, two different fertilizers, equal
light, and equal water. What type of variable is the water?
a. Dependent
b. Independent
c. Control
d. Interdependent

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174. In an experiment to determine what type of acid is the MOST corrosive (destructive), which of these would NEED to be a
controlled variable?
a. The acids used
b. The material the acid is poured on
c. The size of the hole created by the acid
d. None of the above

175. Students were involved in an experiment to investigate whether playing music while they took a test affected their scores. What
would their test scores be?
a. Independent variable
b. Dependent variable
c. Controlled variable
d. Hypothesis

176. If you were running an experiment to determine the temperature at which beans sprout the fastest, what would be the independent
variable?
a. The number of beans you plant
b. The height of the sprouts you grow
c. The amount of water you give the beans
d. The temperature at which each bean is kept

177. What is the correct order of the steps in the scientific method?
a. Ask a question, analyze results, make a hypothesis, test the hypothesis, draw conclusions, communicate results.
b. Ask a question, make a hypothesis, test hypothesis, draw conclusions, analyze results, communicate results.
c. Make a hypothesis, test the hypothesis, analyze the results, ask a question, draw conclusions, communicate results.
d. Ask questions, make a hypothesis, test the hypothesis, analyze results, draw conclusions, communicate results.

178. What skills is a scientist using when she listens to the sounds that grasshoppers makes?
a. Drawing conclusions
b. Making a hypothesis
c. Interpreting data
d. Making observations

179. Which of the following is NOT a rule when writing a hypothesis?

a. It is an if/then statement.
b. It is testable.
c. It should restate the question.
d. It is a prediction.

180. An experiment that tests only one factor at a time by using a comparison of a control group and an experimental group is?
a. A dependent variable
b. An independent variable
c. A theory
d. A controlled experiment

181. In science, an educated guess is called a/an

a. Observation
b. Question
c. Hypothesis
d. Conclusion

182. What type of graph shows the change in one value over time?
a. Line Graph
b. Pie Graph
c. Histogram
d. Pictogram

183. Supposed you are going to present the percentages of the varying biodiversity on Earth. What type of graph would be appropriate
to use?
a. Line Graph
b. Pie Graph
c. Histogram
d. Pictogram

184. What measure of central tendency is shown in a box plot?

a. Mean
b. Median
c. Mode
d. None of the above

185. In a graph, the ___-axis is the horizontal axis of the coordinate plane that refers to the ______ variable of an experiment.
a. X-axis; Independent
b. X-axis; Dependent
c. Y-axis; Independent
d. Y-axis; Dependent

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186. Which is true about reading in content areas, like science?
a. It is not important to be able to read well in science class.
b. If students struggle in reading, they may not be able to learn in content areas.
c. Students can make sense of topics on their own in science even if they struggle with reading
d. Reading strategies don’t work in content area classes.

187. Which of the following is an example of best practices in teaching science?

a. Using an empirical approach.
b. Regularly employ active learning strategies.
c. Employ inquiry labs.
d. All of the above

188. Reasons female students may shy away from STEM and STEAM programs include:
I. Peer Pressure
II. Lack of female role models
III. Worries about workplace inequality

a. I and II
b. II and III
c. I and III
d. I, II, and III

189. Which of the following is NOT a use of technology in science?

a. Microscopes
b. Analyzing data on a computer
c. Data logging
d. Writing equations to represent what affects a quantity.

190. Which of the following is NOT an example of a use of mathematics in science?

a. Calculating statistical significance
b. Figuring out averages for your trials
c. Determining the algebraic relationship between two variables
d. Looking at the costs of your experiment in terms of lab materials

191. Which is an example of differentiated instruction?

a. Modifying homework
b. Having students work in a group.
c. Adding time to a test
d. All of these answers

192. What three areas should teachers keep in mind when differentiating?
a. Product, process, and procedures
b. Content, product, and procedures
c. Content, process, and product
d. Product, procedures, and context

193. Teaching ______ allows even younger students to ask questions, investigate them, and make observations to draw conclusions
a. Communication skills
b. Collaboration and determination
c. Literacy skills
d. Critical thinking and problem solving

194. Why should educators teach science skills to younger students?

a. It is required by law and local government units.
b. Our society needs more scientists, starting them early may encourage them to choose a career in science.
c. It can help them form a foundation of knowledge that’s useful in higher classes.
d. Younger students should NOT be taught science concepts, as that is advanced teaching they are not ready for.

195. What are some basic concepts teachers can introduce to younger children to help them in science?
a. Waves, atoms, magnetism
b. Names of shapes, names of fluids, names of construction materials (scissors, tape, etc.)
c. Krebs cycle, electricity, quantum mechanics
d. Molecular structures, atoms, theory of relativity

196. If you are planning on teaching your young students about the scientific method, which of the following strategies are most
developmentally appropriate?
a. Have students list each step of the scientific method
b. Have students talk with a partner about each step of the scientific method
c. Have students repeat the steps in the scientific method with each experiment
d. Have students read about what the scientific method is

197. All of the following are principles of developmentally appropriate practices, EXCEPT:
a. Children are actively engaged in learning in many ways
b. Early experiences affect learning and development
c. Practice and some challenge promote learning and development
d. State standards ensure students learn necessary content

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198. How would you BEST describe developmentally appropriate practices?
a. Approaches educators take to create meaningful, authentic assessments.
b. Approaches educators take to create meaningful, grade-level experiences that promote learning
c. Approaches students take to perform well on assessments
d. Approaches students take to learn grade-level content.

199. Which of the following is a characteristic of a mean?

a. The sum of deviations from the mean is zero
b. It minimises the sum of squared deviations
c. It is affected by extreme scores
d. All of the above

200. Lizzy had test scores of: 72, 94, 108, 60. What is the RANGE of her test scores?
a. 12
b. 72
c. 48
d. 98

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