TISON-BIOLOGY-2-BIOLOGY-1-CONTENT-REVIEW (1)

1
Subject: General Biology 2 (Biology 104)

Instructor: Plaridel D. Tison, Jr.
BIOLOGY 1 CONTENT REVIEW
Name of Student: _______________________ Class/Yr.Section: _____________

Contact No.: ___________________________ Date of Submission: ___________
I. INVITATION TO BIOLOGY 5. Which of the following organization levels is the

Write in your answer sheet the letter (in uppercase) of least inclusive?
the most appropriate option to complete or answer A. population D. atom
the question for each item. B. community E. molecule
C. cell
1. What name is given to the scientific study of life?
A. geography D. geology 6. An ecosystem is made up of ____.
B. statistics E. biology A. only plants, animals and fungi
C. ecology B. organisms and nonliving things
C. only rocks and minerals
2. The current rate of extinctions is about ____ times D. only plants, protozoa, and fungi
faster than normal. E. the biosphere of the region
A. 10 D. 100,000
B. 100 E. 1,000,000 7. Lipids, proteins, DNA, RNA, and complex
C. 1000 carbohydrates are all ____.
A. minerals D. molecules
3. The species extinctions taking place today are being B. atoms E. elements
caused by ____ activities. C. cells
A. human D. extraterrestrial
B. volcanic E. geothermal 8. The emergent property of “life” appears at the level
C. plate tectonic of the ____, when many molecules become
organized.
4. Which of the following represents the most correct A. population
order of the organization of life from the smallest unit B. atom
to the largest? C. organism
A. atoms  molecules  cells  organisms D. cell
 populations  communities  ecosystems E. community
 biosphere
B. atoms  molecules  cells  organisms  9. A population is composed of individuals of ____.
communities  populations  ecosystems  A. the same species
biosphere B. interacting species of different kinds
C. atoms  molecules  cells  organisms  C. interacting species and nonliving things
populations  ecosystems  communities  D. a single species interacting with nonliving
biosphere things
D. communities  biosphere  organisms  E. all species found in a given area
ecosystems  populations  cells  molecules
 atoms
E. biosphere  organisms  communities 
ecosystems  populations  molecules  cells
 atoms
2
10. Living organisms are members of all of the levels 16. All organisms fit into one of the two following
listed below. However, soil is a component of ___. categories. What two categories are these?
A. the community A. consumers and decomposers
B. the population B. producers and decomposers
C. the ecosystem C. producers and consumers
D. both the population and ecosystem D. scavengers and detritivores
E. both the community and the biosphere E. consumers and scavengers
11. Which of the following is a basic component of all 17. The dynamics of an ecosystem depends on two
of the others? main processes, which are ____.
A. cells D. organism A. the cycling of energy and the unidirectional
B. organs E. organ systems flow of nutrients
C. tissues B. the unidirectional flow of energy and the
cycling of nutrients
12. Which of the following represents an activity C. the multidirectional flow of both energy and
within a population? nutrients
A. a fox consuming a rabbit D. the unidirectional flow of both energy and
B. the absorption of nitrogen by bacteria and nutrients
converting it to a form useful to plants E. the cycling of both energy and nutrients
C. a peacock spreading and shaking his
feathers to attract a female 18. On a very hot summer day and a few months later
D. moss growing on the north side of a large on a very cold winter day, you go outside and take
pine tree your temperature. Each time your body temperature
E. a virus causing rabies in a dog is 37 degrees Celsius. This example illustrates ____.
A. adaptation D. homeostasis
13. The level of organization that encompasses all B. cellular reproduction E. digestion
regions of Earth’s crust, waters, and atmosphere in C. respiration
which organisms live is known as ____.
A. the biosphere D. a population 19. The DNA molecule is most similar functionally to a
B. a community E. an organism’s habitat ____.
C. an ecosystem A. pair of scissors D. ballpoint pen
B. flash light battery E. craft kit of ceramic tiles
14. Which of the following characteristics are shared C. cookbook
by all living organisms?
I. hereditary information is passed to offspring 20. The process by which the first cell of a new
II. adaptation to environmental change individual becomes a multicelled adult is called
III. requirement for nutrients ____.
IV. DNA housed in a nucleus A. homeostasis
A. I and II B. inheritance
B. I and III C. reproduction
C. II and III D. growth
D. I, II, and III E. development
E. I, II, III, and IV
15. A substance that an organism needs for growth

and survival but cannot make for itself is referred to as
a(n) ____.
A. chemical D. DNA molecule
B. nutrient E. carbohydrate
C. atom
3
21. Energy flow is one-way because ____. 27. Which organisms are single-celled and lack a
A. all of the energy in an ecosystem stays nucleus?
constant A. bacteria and archaea
B. the amount of energy a producer harvests is B. fungi and bacteria
equal to the amount of energy consumers C. archaea and protists
consume D. fungi and archaea
C. with each energy transfer, some energy E. bacteria and protists
escapes as heat
D. energy cannot be created but it can be 28. All known species belong to one of three domains.
destroyed What are these domains?
E. there is only one form of energy A. Prokarya, Bacteria, and Eukarya
B. Prokarya, Archaea, and Eukarya
22. Homeostasis is ____. C. Plantae, Bacteria, and Animalia
A. the ability to sense and respond to change D. Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya
B. maintaining the external environment to E. Bacteria, Archaea, and Protista
favor survival
C. essential for nonliving things 29. Members of which group(s) can be single-celled
D. unique to consumers producers?
E. unique to producers A. plants
B. protists
23. The transmission of DNA to offspring is referred to C. bacteria
as ____. D. bacteria and protists
A. homeostasis D. reproduction E. bacteria and plants
B. development E. inheritance
C. growth 30. What are the simplest types of eukaryotes?
A. plants
24. What is the process by which a producer uses light B. protists
energy to make sugars from carbon dioxide and C. fungi
water? D. bacteria
A. respiration D. development E. archaea
B. photosynthesis E. reproduction
C. homeostasis 31. Collectively, which group of organisms are the
most diverse representatives of life?
25. The category of organisms that get their energy A. plants and animals
and nutrients by feeding on the tissues, wastes, or B. protists and fungi
remains of other organisms are generally called C. bacteria and archaea
____. D. bacteria and protists
A. producers D. archaea E. archaea and plants
B. prokaryotes E. plants
C. consumers 32. What organism is defined as a multicelled
organism that develops through a series of stages and
26. The scope of variation among living organisms is moves about during part or all of its life?
referred to as ____. A. archaea
A. heritability D. taxonomy B. bacteria
B. the biosphere E. the ecosystem C. fungi
C. biodiversity D. animals
E. plants
4
33. What is a characteristic of eukaryotes? 39. Which of the following is the correct order of
A. All are multicelled organisms taxa from most inclusive to least inclusive?
B. Their cells are typically smaller than bacteria. A. domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order,
C. They are more like bacteria than archaea. family, genus, species
D. Their cells are less complex than bacteria or B. domain, kingdom, phylum, order, class,
archaea. family, genus, species
E. Their DNA is contained in a nucleus. C. domain, kingdom, phylum, family, order,
class, genus, species
34. Which of the following organisms is a multi-celled D. domain, phylum, kingdom, class, order,
producer? family, genus, species
A. an oak tree E. domain, kingdom, order, class, phylum,
B. Candida, a pathogenic fungus family, genus, species
C. E. coli, a common intestinal bacterium
D. a Siberian tiger 40. Taxonomists today tend to group organisms into
E. an archaeon on the seafloor the same category based on similar ____.
A. morphology
35. Which of the following is a characteristic of all B. behavior
fungi? C. geographic distributions
A. They are prokaryotic consumers. D. biochemical traits
B. They break down food externally. E. eating habits
C. They actively move during part of their lives.
D. They make their own food. 41. Ernst Mayr was responsible for ____.
E. They are multicelled. A. discovering new species atop New Guinea’s
Foja Mountains
36. In which of the following groups does seaweed B. standardizing a two-part naming system
belong? C. explaining the theory of natural selection
A. protists D. archaea D. describing the biological species concept
B. plants E. bacteria E. identifying that all organisms contain DNA
C. fungi
42. Which level of taxonomy encompasses all of the
37. In the scientific name, Pan paniscus, Pan others?
represents the name of the ____ while paniscus A. family D. species
represents the name of the ____. B. class E. genus
A. family; species C. order
B. family; genus
C. genus; species 43. Which of the following words describes a tentative
D. species; genus explanation to a given question?
E. genus; family A. law D. fact
B. theory E. principle
38. Who developed the two-part naming system C. hypothesis
scientists use today to classify newly found
organisms? 44. In order to verify a hypothesis, scientists ____.
A. Charles Darwin A. perform experiments and/or make
B. Carolus Linnaeus observations
C. Aristotle B. consider facts
D. Alexander von Humboldt C. establish law
E. Ernst Mayer D. develop theories
E. make predictions
5
45. What is the right sequence of events applied in the C. Peacock butterflies with spots mated more often
scientific method? than those without spots.
A. hypothesis; initial observation; data analysis; test; D. Predatory birds are deterred by the dark color of
conclusion the peacock butterfly.
B. initial observation; data analysis; hypothesis; test; E. Peacock butterflies that made clicking sounds
conclusion attracted more predatory birds.
C. initial observation; hypothesis; data analysis; test;
conclusion 50. The final step in the scientific method for a
D. initial observation; hypothesis; test; data analysis; scientist is ____.
conclusion A. devising an experiment
E. hypothesis; data analysis; initial observation; test; B. collecting data
conclusion C. making observations
D. report his or her results
46. An experimenter wanted to test the effects of E. researching the literature for similar
cigarette smoking on rats. She infused the cages of 50 investigations
rats with cigarette smoke and the cages of another 50
rats with pure, clean air. The rats that received the 51. Scientists perform ____ in order to ____ a given
clean air were the ____. ____.
A. experimental group A. experiments; test; hypothesis
B. control group B. tests; experiment; law
C. model group C. tests; experiment; variable
D. predictive group D. facts; test; variable
E. independent group E. hypotheses; try; experiment
47. In the Olestra experiment conducted by 52. A control group ____.

researchers at the Johns Hopkins University School of A. receives the same treatment as the
Medicine, the people who ate the Olestra potato chips experimental group
were the ____. B. is an untreated group of individuals or
A. experimental group subjects
B. control group C. is sometimes exposed to harsh conditions
C. research group D. is often an unnecessary waste of material
D. hypothetical group E. is not subjected to experimental error
E. independent group
53. The control in an experiment ____.
48. In the Olestra potato chip experiment, the report A. contains excess test subjects in case some
published in the Journal of the American Medical die
Association in January 1998 indicated that ____. B. is an additional replicate for statistical
A. Olestra potato chips cause cramping purposes
B. potato chips without Olestra cause cramping C. reduces the experimental errors
C. there was no evidence that Olestra caused D. minimizes experimental inaccuracy
cramping E. allows for comparisons with the
D. watching movies cause cramping experimental group
E. people should not eat potato chips 54. In the experiment with peacock butterflies the
working hypothesis is that ____.
49. In the 2005 peacock butterfly experiment, what A. mimicry confuses both predator and prey
was the conclusion? B. mimicry protects butterflies from being
A. Predatory birds are not deterred from eating eaten by predatory birds
peacock butterflies with spots. C. birds are capable of learning
B. Predatory birds are deterred by peacock butterfly D. birds are agents of evolution
clicking sounds. E. unpalatable species display distinctive wings
6
55. The variable(s) in the 2005 peacock butterfly 60. A result is statistically significant if ____.
experiment is(are) the ____. A. it is unlikely to have occurred by chance
A. butterfly wings pattern color B. it is likely to have occurred by chance
B. butterfly species C. it is likely to have occurred in 50% of the
C. butterfly wings pattern color and sounds cases
emitted D. it is consistent with predictions
D. rainforest region used E. it is widely accepted
E. percentage of survivors
61. In science, all results ____.
56. How did the experimental group differ from the A. are accepted as fact
control group in the 2005 peacock butterfly B. are only hypotheses
experiment? C. have a probability of being incorrect
A. They were different species. D. must be consistent with previous knowledge
B. Their native habitat of the forest differed. E. are uncritically accepted by other scientists
C. They were spotless and soundless.
D. They tasted worse. 62. Sampling error can be minimized by which one of
E. They preferred different flowers species. the following?
A. using a large sample size
57. A scientific theory ____. B. conducting the experiment or observation
A. is widely accepted and supported by several only once
evidences C. throwing out data that does not fit the
B. is widely accepted but not necessarily conclusion
supported by several evidences D. using a small subset of a larger population
C. is sometimes accepted and supported by E. carefully selecting samples to match the
several evidences prediction
D. is sometimes accepted and not necessarily
supported by several evidences 63. In science, if a result is deemed statistically
E. is always a "truth" significant, that means ____.
A. it is a very important result
58. Evolution has been tested in various ways. Genetic, B. it has a high probability of being incorrect.
fossil, anatomical, physiological and behavioral studies C. it has a low probability of being skewed by
all confirm that evolution is the mechanism of the sampling error
origin of species. Thus, in science evolution is D. there is very little variation in the data
considered a scientific ____. E. there is no doubt of the result being true
A. fact C. law
B. hypothesis D. theory E. guess 64. Error bars on a graph indicate ____.
A. places where the data is likely wrong
59. In science, a theory is defined as ____. B. places where the researcher is unsure of her
A. a speculative guess results
B. a hypothesis C. variation in results that cannot be accounted
C. an explanation that is well documented and for.
consistent with the evidence D. variation in a set of data around the average
D. a description of a phenomenon for which E. poor experimental technique on the part of
there is no explanation the researcher
E. a personal conviction
7
65. What practice helps scientists avoid bias in their 69. Evolution is a central, unifying theme in biology
findings? because ___________.
A. designing experiments that other A. It is not a falsifiable hypothesis
researchers will find difficult to replicate B. Humans have evolved from ancestors we share
B. performing experiments testing all with present-day monkeys
circumstances C. The enormously diverse forms of life on earth
C. reaching conclusions based on personal have all been shaped by it.
conviction D. It has occurred in the past, even though it no
D. avoiding questions that may be at odds with longer operates today.
society’s moral standards
E. publicly publishing their results 70. If a hypothesis stands after years of repeated
testing, is consistent with all data gathered, and helps
66. Why do scientists typically design experiments that make successful predictions about other phenomena,
will yield quantitative results? it is considered to be a ____.
A. Scientists are unable to perform qualitative A. speculative idea D. law of nature
studies. B. proven theory E. scientific theory
B. Quantitative results minimize the potential C. proven hypothesis
for bias.
C. To prevent other scientists from repeating 71. Why are the laws of thermodynamics
their experiments. considered laws of nature and not scientific
D. Scientists cannot always observe all theories?
individuals of a group. A. We do not understand how or why energy
E. Quantitative results increase desirable behaves the way it does.
bias. B. We understand why energy behaves the way it
does, but not exactly how it behaves.
67. The difference between results obtained from a C. We understand how energy behaves, but not
subset and results obtained from the whole is known exactly why it behaves the way it does.
as the ____. D. We cannot be absolutely sure that energy will
A. sampling error D. sample size behave the same under all conditions.
B. probability E. controlled variable E. We have a complete scientific explanation of
C. statistically significant energy behavior.
68. After rigorous statistical analyses have shown a 72. The idea that Earth orbits the sun is referred to as
very low likelihood (usually 5% or less) of a result ____ of the solar system, because of the scientist who
having occurred by chance alone, the result is said to first proposed it.
be ____. A. the Galilean theory D. the Copernican model
A. quantitatively probable B. Newton’s model E. Darwin’s theory
B. probably random C. Einstein’s theory
C. statistically significant
D. due to sampling error 73. In 1610, which scientist was imprisoned for
E. statistically probable publishing evidence that the Earth orbits the sun?
A. Aristotle D. Darwin
B. Copernicus E. Newton
C. Galileo
8
MATCHING G. cell
Based on the Olestra potato chip experiment H. community
conducted by researchers at the Johns Hopkins
University School of Medicine, match the following 83. All populations of all species in a given area
letters to the number with which they best
correspond. 84. Fundamental building block of all matter
A. Observation
B. Hypothesis 85. Smallest unit of life
C. Prediction
D. Experiment 86. All regions of Earth where organisms live
E. Control group
F. Experimental group 87. Two or more atoms bonded together
G. The variable
H. Results 88. A community interacting with its environment
I. Conclusion
89. Individual that consists of one or more cells
74. People who eat potato chips with Olestra will be
more likely to get intestinal cramps than those who 90. Group of interbreeding individuals of the same
eat potato chips made without Olestra. species that live in a given area
75. Olestra. CLASSIFY. Answer the following questions in reference

to life's diversity. Choose only the most correct answer.
76. Percentages are about equal. Therefore, Olestra A. archaea
is not the cause of intestinal cramps observed in some B. bacteria
people who have ingested Olestra-containing food. C. eukarya
D. plantae
77. Olestra causes intestinal cramps. E. fungi
F. animals
78. A set of people got regular potato chips. G. protists
79. 1,100 people between the ages of thirteen and 91. Often found in extreme environments while
thirty-eight were asked to watch a movie and eat having no nucleus, these organisms are closer
potato chips. genetically to eukaryotes.
80. Some people complained of intestinal problems 92. In this eukaryotic group, members range from
after eating chips containing Olestra. single-celled consumers to giant, multi-celled
producers.
81. A subset of people got Olestra-containing chips.
93. Multi-celled consumers that actively move
82. In the control group, 17.6% of people reported about during at least part of their lives.
having cramps later, while in the experimental group,
15.8% of people had cramps later. 94. They have no nucleus and are the most
numerous organisms on Earth.
Match the term with its definition.
A. atom 95. Yeasts belong to this group.
B. organism
C. biosphere 96. Members of this domain have a nucleus and
D. molecule numerous membrane-bound organelles.
E. population
F. ecosystem
9
97. These prokaryotes are able to colonize extreme 6. The atomic number is determined by the number of
environments such as hydrothermal vents on the ____.
seafloor. A. protons
B. neutrons
98. Besides feeding themselves, these multi-celled
organisms, serve as food for most other organisms. C. electrons
D. protons plus neutrons
99. These multi-celled consumers include herbivores E. protons plus electrons
and carnivores.
7. Carbon has an atomic number of 6. Carbon-14 has
100. This single-celled or multicelled eukaryotic _____.
consumer breaks down material outside itself, then
A. 6 neutrons and 6 protons
absorbs nutrients released from the breakdown.
B. 6 neutrons and 8 protons
II. MOLECULES OF LIFE C. 8 neutrons and 6 protons
1. Hydrogenation is a _____. D. 14 neutrons and 6 protons
A. manufacturing process that adds hydrogen E. 14 protons and 6 neutrons
atoms to carbohydrates
B. natural process that that adds hydrogen 8. Tracers are used in what form of medical test?
atoms to carbohydrates A. PET scans D. x-rays
C. manufacturing process that adds hydrogen B. CT scans E. MRI
atoms to oils C. sonograms
D. natural process that removes hydrogen
atoms from fats 9. We can accurately determine the age of a rock or
E. manufacturing process that removes fossil by measuring its ____.
hydrogen atoms from fats A. proton concentration
B. electron concentration
2. The human body requires about ____ of fat each C. neutron concentration
day to stay healthy. D. isotope concentration
A. 1 teaspoon D. 4 tablespoons E. ion concentration
B. 4 teaspoons E. 1 cup
C. 1 tablespoon 10. Helium, neon and argon are _____.
A. extremely stable because they have
3. Fats are major components of the cell’s ____. vacancies in their outer shells
A. membranes D. ribosomes B. extremely stable because they don't have
B. cytoplasm E. DNA any vacancies in their outer shells
C. Proteins C. extremely unstable because they have
4. A typical fat molecule has ____ fatty acid tails. vacancies in their outer shells
A. one B. two C. three D. four E. five D. extremely unstable because they don't have
any vacancies in their outer shells
5. Which invention led to trans fats being marketed E. extremely unstable because they have
as a solid cooking fat? vacancies in their inner shells
A. the electric light D. the microwave oven
B. the telephone E. the refrigerator
C. the automobile
10
11. The nucleus of an atom contains ____. B. nonpolar bond E. ionic bond
A. protons only D. protons and neutrons C. polar bond
B. electrons only E. protons and electrons
C. neutrons only 19. The bond in table salt (NaCl) is ____.
A. polar D. double
12. The negative subatomic particle is the ____. B. ionic E. nonpolar
A. neutron D. quark C. covalent
B. proton E. Higg's boson
C. electron 20. In ____ bonds, atoms share electrons equally.
A. double D. nonpolar covalent
13. The positive subatomic particle is the ____. B. ionic E. hydrogen
A. neutron D. positron C. polar covalent
B. proton E. quark
C. electron 21. Which type of chemical bonds are found within a
water molecule?
14. Oxygen has an atomic number of 8. This means A. hydrogen D. nonpolar covalent
that oxygen has ____. B. ionic E. triple
A. 8 electrons in its outer most shell C. polar covalent
B. 8 neutrons in its nucleus
C. 4 protons and 4 neutrons in its nucleus 22. The positively charged ion, potassium, and the
D. 8 protons in its nucleus negatively charged ion, fluoride, will form what kind of
E. 8 protons and 8 neutrons in its nucleus bond?
A. ionic D. hydrogen
15. The neutral subatomic particle is the ____. B. polar covalent E. isotonic
A. neutron D. quark C. nonpolar covalent
B. proton E. Higg's boson
C. electron 23. What molecule would be considered a covalent
compound?
16. Carbon 14 radioisotopes decay into stable ____. A. oxygen (O2) D. a diamond (C)
A. carbon 13 isotopes B. sodium chloride (NaCl) E. ozone (O3)
B. nitrogen atoms C. water (H2O)
C. carbon atoms
D. nitrogen 15 isotopes 24. The structural formula for molecular oxygen is
E. sodium atoms depicted as O=O. What kind of bond holds molecular
oxygen together?
17. An atom that carries a charge is called a(n) ____. A. ionic D. double covalent
A. ion D. element B. polar covalent E. triple covalent
B. molecule E. microelement C. single covalent
C. compound
25. Which substance is hydrophobic?
18. A(n) ____ is a type of chemical bond in which a A. canola oil D. water
strong mutual attraction forms between ions of B. sodium chloride E. the potassium ion
opposite charge. C. sugar
A. hydrogen bond D. covalent bond
11
26. Fats will dissolve in ethanol. Ethanol is an example 31. Sweating to keep cool in the summer is the result
of a ____. of ____.
A. solute D. salt A. hydrogen bonds breaking to release energy
B. solution E. ion B. hydrogen bonds forming, which requires energy
C. solvent C. evaporation of water giving off energy
D. cohesion of water molecules giving off energy
27. Which bond is weakest? E. cohesion of water molecules requiring energy
A. ionic D. nonpolar covalent
B. double covalent E. hydrogen 32. Hydrogen bonding ____ the movement of
C. polar covalent molecules, therefore, substances that form a lot of
hydrogen bonds, like water, will require ____ energy
28. Water molecules are attracted to one another to increase their temperature by one degree
because the ____. Celsius.
A. slightly positive charge of the hydrogen atom A. decreases; less
from one molecule of water attracts the slightly B. decreases; more
negative charge of the oxygen atom from C. doesn't affect; no additional
another molecule D. increases; less
B. slightly negative charge of the hydrogen atom E. increases; more
from one molecule of water attracts the slightly
negative charge of the oxygen atom from 33. When water molecules form into ice, ____.
another molecule A. the water molecules jiggle more
C. slightly positive charge of the hydrogen atom B. their structure becomes less rigid
attracts the oxygen within the same molecule of C. the water molecules pack less densely
water, which leads to an increase in its polarity D. hydrogen bonds between water molecules
D. water molecules participate in non-polar covalent readily break
bonds, which increase the attraction of the E. evaporation of water molecules happens more
molecules to each other readily
E. water molecules bind to each other through their
mutual attraction to ionic compounds 34. Hydrophobic molecules are ____ water.
A. attracted by D. mixed with
29. A solution is a uniform mixture in which a ____ is B. absorbed by E. polarized by
dissolved completely in a ____. C. repelled by
A. salt; solute D. solvent; salt
B. solute; salt E. solvent; solute 35. ____ is the tendency of water molecules to stay
C. solute; solvent attached to one another.
A. Adhesion D. Interaction
30. Surface tension is an example of ____. B. Cohesion E. Junction
A. hydrophobicity C. Fusion
B. concentration 36. Which property of water molecules is responsible
C. evaporation for movement of water from roots to leaves in a
D. cohesion plant?
E. polarity A. hydrophobicity D. solvent polarity
B. temperature stability E. cohesion
C. fusion
12
37. Glucose dissolves in water because it ____. 45. Which is an organic molecule?
A. ionizes A. carbon dioxide (CO2) D. hydrochloric acid (HCl)
B. is a polysaccharide B. water (H2O) E. oxygen (O2)
C. is a polar and forms many hydrogen bonds C. methane (CH4)
with water molecules
D. has a very reactive primary structure 46. Large polymers are formed from smaller subunits
E. is an isotope by which type of reaction?
A. oxidation D. hydrolysis
38. A solution at a pH of 10 contains how many times B. reduction E. decarboxylation
more hydrogen ions than a solution at a pH of 7? C. condensation
A. 2 B. 3 C. 10 D. 100 E. 1,000
47. The breakdown of large molecules by enzymes
39. A pH value of ____ has the highest concentration and the addition of water is known as a ____
of hydrogen ions. reaction.
A. 1 B. 3 C. 5 D. 7 E. 9 A. oxidation D. hydrolysis
B. reduction E. decarboxylation
40. Nearly all of life’s chemistry occurs near a pH of C. condensation
____.
A. 1 B. 3 C. 5 D. 7 E. 9 48. The chemical reactions that cells use to acquire
and use energy to live, grow and reproduce are called
41. A uniform mixture is called a ____. ____.
A. concentration D. solution A. hydrolysis D. metabolism
B. salt E. solvent B. condensation E. oxidation
C. solute C. phosphorylation
42. What category of compounds helps our body fluids 49. How many carbons are present in this figure?
to stay within a consistent pH range?
A. solvents D. acids
B. buffers E. bases
C. solutes
A. 0 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 E. 7
43. ____ is one of the substances that maintains our

50. Which organic molecule is a carbohydrate
blood pH between 7.35 and 7.45.
monomer?
A. Water D. Hydrogen peroxide
A. triglyceride D. amino acid
B. Carbonic acid E. Sodium hydroxide
B. fatty acids E. monosaccharide
C. Hydrochloric acid
C. nucleotide
44. Which two atoms are found in all organic

51. Glucose monomers linked into a highly branched
compounds?
chain make up ____.
A. carbon and hydrogen
A. glycogen D. starch
B. carbon and oxygen
B. cellulose E. sucrose
C. oxygen and hydrogen
C. fructose
D. carbon and phosphorous
E. oxygen and sulfur
13
52. Sucrose is composed of ____. 59. A triglyceride molecule is made up of ____.

A. two molecules of fructose A. one glycerol and two fatty acids
B. two molecules of glucose B. two fatty acids and two glycerols
C. a molecule of fructose and a molecule of glucose C. one fatty acid and three glycerols
D. a molecule of fructose and a molecule of D. one glycerol and three fatty acids
galactose E. one glycerol and two fatty acids
E. two molecules of galactose
60. In a cell membrane, the phospholipid heads are
53. Plants store their excess carbohydrates in the form ____.
of ____. A. hydrophobic
A. cellulose D. sucrose B. nonpolar
B. starch E. galactose C. dissolved in the cell’s watery interior
C. glycogen D. sandwiched between the phospholipid tails
E. formed by fatty acids
54. Glycogen is a polysaccharide used for energy
storage by ____. 61. Unsaturated fats ____.
A. plants D. bacteria A. are solid at room temperature
B. animals E. archaea B. have at least one double bond in their fatty
C. protists acid tail
C. are saturated with hydrogen atoms
55. Which type of bonding allows the long, straight D. mainly come from animals
chains of cellulose to lock together tightly? E. consist of straight chain fatty acids
A. hydrogen D. nonpolar covalent
B. polar covalent E. metallic 62. All steroids have ____.
C. ionic A. the same number of double bonds
B. double bonds in the same positions
56. Cellulose is ____. C. four carbon rings
A. the most complex of the organic compounds D. the same functional groups
B. a polymer of glucose and fructose E. the same number and positions of double
C. a polymer of glucose and galactose bonds
D. a component of plasma membranes
E. a material found in plant cell walls 63. Which food product would likely contain the
largest amount of unsaturated fat?
57. ____ is a monosaccharide. A. butter D. olives
A. Cellulose D. Starch B. lard E. cheese
B. Fructose E. Sucrose C. salami
C. Glycogen 64. Fats that contain ____ double bonds are liquids at
room temperature, whereas fats that contain ____
58. Humans do not contain the enzymes to break double bonds are solids at room temperature.
down ____. A. trans; cis
A. cellulose D. starch B. cis; trans
B. fructose E. sucrose C. hydrogenated; partially hydrogenated
C. glycogen D. partially hydrogenated; hydrogenated
E. unsaturated; saturated
14
69. Two amino acids are bonded together to form a

dipeptide by which type of reaction?
A. condensation D. decomposition
B. oxidation reduction E. acid-base
C. hydrolysis
70. Protein misfolding causes ____.

A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. schizophrenia
B. arthritis E. tuberculosis
C. immunodepression
71. When a protein denatures, which type of

bonding is affected?
A. covalent D. hydrogen
B. peptide E. metallic
C. ionic
65. In the figure above, which fatty acids are most
likely to be solid at room temperature? 72. A protein that is linked to a carbohydrate is known
A. I D. I and IV as a ____.
B. II, III and IV E. I and V A. glycoprotein D. denatured proteins
C. II, III, IV and V B. lipoprotein E. prions
C. fibrous proteins
66. A(n) ____ is a protein monomer.
A. nucleotide D. amino acid 73. Nucleotides are monomers of ____.
B. monosaccharide E. ribose A. complex lipids D. nucleic acids
C. simple sugar B. proteins E. cellulose
C. polysaccharides
67. Primary protein structure is dependent upon
____. 74. A nucleotide consists of ____.
A. hydrophobic interactions A. a five carbon sugar, a nitrogenous acid, and a
B. hydrogen bonds between two amino acids phosphate group
C. covalent linkages between carbons and nitrogens B. a six carbon sugar, a nitrogenous base, and a
of adjacent amino acids phosphate group
D. covalent linkages between carbons and oxygens C. a five carbon sugar, a nitrogenous base, and a
of adjacent amino acids phosphate group
E. covalent linkages between the polypeptide and D. a six carbon sugar, a nitrogenous acid, and a
sugars or lipids phosphate group
E. a four carbon sugar, a nitrogenous acid, and a
68. Which type of bond exists between two amino phosphate group
acids in a protein?
A. peptide D. amino
B. ionic E. sulfhydryl
C. hydrogen
15
75. In a polymer of nucleotides, how does one Match the following terms to the correct description.
nucleotide attach to another? A. acid
A. The base of one nucleotide is attached to the B. base
base of the next. C. neutral
B. The base of one nucleotide it attached to the D. buffer
sugar of the next. E. pH
C. The sugar of one nucleotide is attached to the
sugar of the next. 82. solution that contains the same concentration
D. The phosphate group of one nucleotide is of H+ ions as OH ions
attached to the base of the next.
E. The phosphate group of one nucleotide is 83. measure of the relative concentration of
attached to the sugar of the next. hydrogen ions in a solution
76. Which type of bonds hold the two chains of DNA 84. substance that releases hydrogen ions in
together in a DNA molecule? solution
A. hydrogen D. ionic
B. polar covalent E. peptide 85. substance that accepts hydrogen ions in solution
C. nonpolar covalent
86. substance that can maintain the pH of a solution
MATCHING at a relatively constant level
Match the following terms to the correct description.
A. mass number The following are types of chemical bonds. Match
B. atomic number these to the correct description.
C. radioisotope A. hydrogen
D. isotopes B. ionic
E. ions C. covalent
77. forms of an element that differ in the number of 87. the bond between the atoms in an NaCl
neutrons their atoms carry molecule
78. number of protons in the atomic nucleus 88. the bond between the hydrogen atoms of
molecular hydrogen
79. isotope with an unstable nucleus
89. the bond that breaks when salts dissolve in
80. total number of protons and neutrons in the water
nucleus of an atom
90. the bond in which electrons are shared
81. atoms with more or less electrons than protons
91. the bond that holds organic molecules together
92. the bond between the two strands of DNA in a

double helix
93. the bond that is easiest to break

16
Match the structures below with the appropriate label

in the figure above.

94. fatty acid
95. phospholipid
96. steroid
97. amino acid
98. cellulose
99. starch
100. nucleotide
17
III. CELL STRUCTURE & FUNCTION 5. Four of the five answers listed below are
organelles in the cytoplasm. Select the exception.
Write in your answer sheet the letter (in uppercase) of A. Nucleolus D. Golgi apparatus
the most appropriate option to complete or answer B. Mitochondrion E. Chloroplast
the question for each item. C. ribosome
1. What happens when a round cell expands in 6. Four of the five organelles listed below are part of
diameter? the endomembrane system. Select the exception.
A. Its surface area and diameter increase with A. smooth ER D. Vesicles
the cube of its diameter. B. peroxisomes E. Mitochondria
B. Its surface area and diameter increase with C. Golgi bodies
the square of its diameter.
C. Its volume increases faster than its surface 7. Four of the five animals listed below can harbor E.
area does. coli 0157:H7 without becoming ill. Select the
D. Its surface area increases faster than its exception.
volume does. A. goats
E. Its volume and surface area expand by the B. cattle
same proportion. C. deer
D. sheep
2. One portion of the cell theory states that ____. E. humans
A. all cells have a nucleus
B. all cells divide by meiosis 8. All cells have _______.
C. all living organisms are made up of one or A. a nucleus, but not necessarily DNA
more cells B. a plasma membrane, but not necessarily DNA
D. cells arise through spontaneous generation C. cytoplasm, but not necessarily a plasma
E. growth is solely the result of cell division membrane
D. cytoplasm and a plasma membrane, but not
3. Four of the five answers listed below are necessarily DNA
generalizations of the cell theory. Select the E. cytoplasm, a plasma membrane, and DNA
exception.
A. Cells are the structural and functional 9. To see objects smaller than those that can be
components of living things. resolved by a light microscope, we usually use
B. Cells arise from preexisting cells. microscopes that employ a beam of ______
C. All organisms are composed of cells. A. Electrons D. neutrons
D. Cells are the basic living unit or organization B. Photons E. X-rays
of living things. C. protons
E. All cells have a nucleus.
10. Which structure is large enough to be seen under
4. Four of the five answers listed below are a light microscope?
characteristics of a plasma membrane. Select the A. small molecule D. chloroplast
exception. B. protein E. complex carbohydrate
A. Phospholipid D. hydrophilic tails C. virus
B. fluid mosaic E. membrane proteins
C. lipid bilayer
18
11. The most detailed image of the surface of a cell 16. Which membrane proteins move specific
would be found on a ____. substances across a membrane, typically by
A. light micrograph from a phase contrast forming a channel?
microscope A. Transport D. adhesion
B. transmission electron micrograph B. Receptor E. enzymes
C. scanning electron micrograph C. Recognition
D. light micrograph from a light microscope
E. transmission electron micrograph 17. Hydrophobic reactions of phospholipids may
produce clusters of their fatty acid tails, which
12. The phospholipid molecules of most membranes form
have a ____. A. a lipid bilayer.
A. hydrophobic head and a hydrophilic tail B. hydrolysis of the fatty acids.
B. hydrophilic head and a hydrophobic tail C. a protein membrane.
C. hydrophobic head and two hydrophobic tails D. a cytoskeleton.
D. hydrophilic head and two hydrophobic tails E. a nonpolar membrane.
E. hydrophilic head and tail
18. Which membrane protein is responsible for
13. If free phospholipids were swirled into water, they binding hormones that can trigger changes in the
would ____. cell’s activity?
A. form pairs A. recognition proteins
B. form spheres with the phosphate-containing B. receptor proteins
heads at the centre C. transport proteins
C. dissolve D. adhesion proteins
D. form a lipid bilayer sheet, with the E. channel proteins
hydrophobic tails in the centre
E. form a lipid bilayer sheet, with the phosphate-
containing heads in the centre
14. Archaea use molecules with reactive side chains in

their plasma membrane, so the tails of archaeal
phospholipids form covalent bonds with one
another. As a result, the plasma membrane is
____.
A. more fluid
B. less rigid
C. less fluid
D. able to contain more membrane proteins Figure 1. Generalized body plan of a prokaryote. For
E. easily disturbed items 19-21, please refer to the figure above.
15. Different cell membranes can have different

functions depending on which ____ are associated
with them.
A. cholesterol molecules D. proteins
B. fatty acid lengths E. phospholipid heads
C. fatty acid saturations
19
19. Which letter identifies this cell’s nucleus? 26. Which structure consists of two lipid bilayers
A. A B. B C. C D. D folded together as a single membrane?
E. There is no nucleus A. cell wall
B. cell membrane
20. Which letter identifies this cell’s flagellum? C. nuclear envelope
A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E D. ribosome
E. Golgi body
21. Which structure helps these cells move across or
cling to surfaces? 27. A dense, irregularly shaped region within the
A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E nucleus in which subunits of ribosomes are
synthesized is called the ______
22. Which structure do prokaryotic cells lack? A. plastid
A. nucleoid regions B. vacuole
B. membrane-bound nuclei C. microvillus
C. cytoplasm D. nucleolus
D. a plasma membrane E. basal body
E. DNA
28. Which structures are the primary cellular sites for
23. Most archaeal cell walls consist of ____; most the production of polypeptide chains?
bacterial cell walls consist of a polymer of A. Golgi bodies
peptides and polysaccharides. B. ribosomes
A. lipids C. mitochondria
B. proteins D. lysosomes
C. phospholipids E. smooth endoplasmic reticula
D. glycoproteins
E. glycolipids 29. Where are lipids that are destined for cell
membranes synthesized?
24. Many species of bacteria live bound together by a A. Golgi bodies
gluelike substance that, among other things, B. ribosomes
makes up the plaque on human teeth. This is an C. mitochondria
example of a ____. D. lysosomes
A. pilus E. smooth endoplasmic reticula
B. mass
C. vesicle 30. What are the primary structures for modifying
D. colony and packaging of cellular secretions for export
E. biofilm from the cell?
A. Golgi bodies D. lysosomes
25. What are organized clusters of membrane B. ribosomes E. chloroplasts
proteins that selectively allow substances to cross C. Mitochondria
into and out of the nucleus? 31. Fluid-filled sacs that may store amino acids, sugars,
A. nuclear pore toxins, and ions in plant cells are called ____.
B. passive transport protein A. plastids
C. receptor B. central vacuoles
D. nuclear envelope C. peroxisomes
E. ribosome D. vesicles
E. Golgi bodies
20
32. Polypeptide chains take on their tertiary structure 38. Nearly all eukaryotic cells have mitochondria, but
and assemble with other polypeptide chains in the number varies by the type of cell and by the
which organelle? organism. In general, cells that have the highest
A. ribosomes demand for energy tend to have _______.
B. rough endoplasmic reticulum A. the least mitochondria
C. smooth endoplasmic reticulum B. the most mitochondria
D. Golgi body C. slow dividing mitochondria
E. vesicles D. larger mitochondria in lower numbers
E. no mitochondria
33. Which organelles are sometimes referred to as
rough or smooth, depending on their appearance 39. What are the primary cellular sites for the
in electron micrographs? production of ATP?
A. Golgi bodies D. Lysosomes A. endoplasmic reticulum
B. Ribosomes E. endoplasmic reticulum B. ribosomes
C. Mitochondria C. mitochondria
D. chloroplasts and mitochondria
34. Which cellular component’s main function is to E. ribosomes and Golgi bodies
make lipids, enzymes, and proteins for secretion
to the external environment? 40. What is the general term for double-membrane
A. nucleus organelles that function in photosynthesis,
B. mitochondria storage, or pigmentation in plant and algal cells?
C. endomembrane system A. chloroplasts
D. cytoskeleton B. chromoplasts
E. cell membrane C. amyloplasts
D. plastids
35. Characteristics of mitochondria include that they E. chlorophylls
____.
A. have two membranes, with the outer 41. Which organelles make and store pigments other
membrane being highly folded than chlorophylls?
B. are least abundant in metabolically active A. plastids
cells B. chloroplasts
C. does not require oxygen for its functioning C. chromoplasts
D. function in photosynthesis D. central vacuoles
E. have their own DNA and ribosomes and divide E. vesicles
independently of the cell
42. Short hairlike structures on the cell surface that
36. Which organelles produce ATP by aerobic stir fluid around stationary cells are called:
respiration? A. cilia
A. Golgi bodies D. lysosomes B. flagella
B. Ribosomes E. endoplasmic reticula C. intermediate filaments
C. mitochondria D. microfilaments
37. Mitochondria convert the energy stored in _____ E. pili
to usable energy for the cell.
A. Water D. ATP
B. organic compounds E. carbon dioxide
C. NAD
21
43. Structural features that contain the protein actin 48. Which type of junctions involves closable channels
and help to strengthen and change the shapes of that connect the cytoplasm of adjoining animal
eukaryotic cells are known as ____. cells?
A. plastids A. gap junctions
B. vacuoles B. plasmodesmata
C. microvilli C. tight junctions
D. nucleoli D. adhering junctions
E. microfilaments E. blocking proteins
44. Before a eukaryotic cell divides, ____ assemble, MATCHING. Match each membrane protein with the
separate the cell’s duplicated DNA molecules, and best description.
then disassemble. A. recognition protein
A. cilia B. active transport protein
B. flagella C. receptor
C. microtubules D. adhesion proteins
D. microfilaments E. enzyme
E. intermediate filaments
49. ______ Initiates change in a cell activity by
45. Microtubules grow from a barrel-shaped organelle responding to an outside signal
called the ____, which remains below the finished
array as a ____. 50. ______ Identifies a cell as belonging to self
A. cilium; motor protein
B. cell cortex; centriole 51. ______ Helps cells stick to one another
C. microfilament; basal body
D. centriole; intermediate filament 52. ______ Speeds up a specific reaction
E. centriole; basal body
53. ______Pumps ions or molecules through
46. Plasmodesmata are ____. membranes
A. used in energy transformations within the cell
B. typical of animal cells more than plant cells
C. arrays of adhesion proteins that join epithelial
cells and collectively prevent fluids from
leaking between them
D. open channels that extend across plant cell
walls to connect the cytoplasm of adjacent
cells
E. complex mixture of extracellular cell
secretions
47. Which type of junctions prevent fluid leakage

between cells?
A. gap junctions
B. plasmodesmata
C. tight junctions
D. adhering junctions
E. blocking proteins
22
The following items are organelles found in animal 64. ______ Any small, membrane enclosed sac
cells. Answer the question(s) with reference to these
organelles. 65. ______ Forms by the fusion of multiple
A. ribosomes vesicles
B. mitochondria
C. lysosomes
D. Golgi bodies
E. endoplasmic reticulum
54. ______ The packaging of secretory proteins

usually occurs in association with this
structure.
55. ______ This organelle is involved in lipid

production and protein transport.
56. ______ DNA synthesis occurs in the nucleus.

Its breakdown can occur in this organelle.
57. ______ These are the structures upon which

proteins are assembled.
58. ______ The cellular digestion and disposal of

biological molecules occurs inside this Figure 2. Typical plant cell components.
organelle. 66. ____ the cell wall.
59. ______ Ribosomes are often found on the 67. ____ a major storage organelle of the cell.
surface of this organelle.
68. ____ the endoplasmic reticulum (ER).
60. ______ Aerobic respiration occurs in this
organelle. 69. ____ the organelle that converts light energy
to ATP energy.
61. ______ Sugar metabolism occurs in
association with this organelle. 70. ____ the mitochondrion.
Match the endomembrane system components with

the best description.
A. vesicles
B. lysosomes
C. peroxisomes
D. vacuoles
62. ______ Take part in intracellular digestion
63. ______ Break down fatty acids, amino acids,

and poisons such as alcohol
23
80. What measures can the average citizen take to

reduce the likelihood of infection with E. coli or other
foodborne organisms?
IV. ENERGY & METABOLISM

Write in your answer sheet the letter (in uppercase) of
the most appropriate option to complete or answer
the question for each item.
1. Essentially, the first law of thermodynamics says

that ________.
A. one form of energy cannot be converted into
another
B. entropy is increasing in the universe
C. energy can be neither created nor destroyed
D. energy cannot be converted into matter or
matter into energy
Figure 3. Typical animal cell components.
E. energy is the capacity to do work
71. ____ organelle that converts food energy to
ATP energy
2. The second law of thermodynamics holds that
__________.
72. ____ organelle on which the ribosomes serve
A. matter can neither be created nor destroyed
as sites for protein (polypeptide) assembly
B. energy can neither be created nor destroyed
C. whenever energy is transformed to another
73. ____ organelle where proteins and lipids are
form, some is dispersed
modified and packaged for export
D. entropy decreases with time
74. ____ area where RNA is synthesized
3. The second law of thermodynamics states that

75. ____ selectively controls the entry and exit of
___________.
materials from the cell
A. energy can be transformed into matter and,
because of this, we can get something for
SHORT ANSWER. Answers must be reflected in your
nothing
answer sheet.
B. energy can only be destroyed during nuclear
77. What are the three cell coverings present in this
reactions, such as those that occur inside the
generalized body plan of a prokaryote? Provide a brief
sun
description of each.
C. if energy is gained by one region of the
75. What limits cell size?
universe, another place in the universe also
76. How do plants form primary cell walls?
must gain energy in order to maintain the
77. What term describes the characteristic of a plasma
balance of nature
membrane that allows only certain materials to cross?
D. energy tends to become increasingly more
78. Explain how the term “fluid mosaic” describes the
disorganized
plasma membrane.
79. Nuclear pores function as gateways for molecules
to enter and exit a nucleus. Protein synthesis offers an
example of why this movement is important. Explain.
24
4. Four of the five answers listed below apply to 10. Endergonic reactions convert molecules with ____
conditions where energy is released. Select the free energy to molecules with ____ free energy,
exception. so they require a net energy input in order to
A. endergonic reaction proceed.
B. respiration A. higher; lower
C. entropy B. lower; higher
D. second law of thermodynamics C. zero; some
E. exergonic reaction D. some; zero
E. chemical bond; no chemical bond
5. Four of the five answers listed below affect the
rate of enzymatic reactions. Select the exception. 11. The products of exergonic pathways are usually:
A. pH A. lower in energy
B. temperature B. higher in energy
C. concentrations C. larger and higher in energy
D. hormones D. smaller and higher in energy
E. buildup of product E. smaller and lower in energy
6. Four of the five statements about enzymes are 12. Which reaction is endergonic?
correct. Select the exception. A. protein synthesis
A. Enzymes control the speed of a reaction. B. digestion
B. Enzymes change shapes to facilitate certain C. fire
reactions. D. respiration
C. Enzymes may place physical stress on the E. movement
bonds of the substrate.
D. Enzymes may require cofactors.
E. Enzymes are not limited by environmental
factors.
7. Four of the five answers listed below are

metabolic processes. Select the exception.
A. protein synthesis D. phosphorylation
B. cell division E. oxidation/reduction
C. digestion
8. Four of the five answers listed below are found in

a common energy-carrying molecule. Select the
exception.
A. Phosphate D. hydrogen
B. Adenine E. ribose
C. deoxyribose
9. Both endergonic and exergonic reactions require

an input of ____ to begin.
A. organic molecules D. water
B. initiation energy E. oxygen
C. activation energy
25
Each enzyme functions best within a characteristic 18. Although it is too simple an explanation, the
range of conditions. For items 13 and 14, please refer concept of a key fitting into a lock is descriptive of
to the figure above. the:
A. inhibition of enzymes by small molecules
13. Refer to the accompanying figure above. Which B. fit of coenzymes to enzymes
statement best describes the functioning of E. coli C. matching of enzyme with substrate
polymerase and T. aquaticus polymerase? D. regeneration of ATP from ADP
A. E. coli polymerase functions at higher E. stepwise cascade of electrons in the
temperatures than T. aquaticus polymerase. oxidation-reduction reactions
B. E. coli polymerase activity is highest at normal
body temperature (37 degrees). 19. What is the process in which an enzyme makes a
C. T. aquaticus polymerase denatures at reaction run much faster than it would on its own?
temperatures above 60 degrees. A. redox reaction
D. T. aquaticus polymerase activity is highest at B. allosteric regulation
lower than normal body temperature (37 C. induced fit
degrees). D. catalysis
E. Both E. coli polymerase is best suited to work E. phosphorylation
in environments such as hot springs (70
degrees). 20. Adding heat boosts free energy. The greater the
free energy of reactants, the closer they are to
14. Refer to the accompanying figure above. In which ____.
condition does trypsin function best? A. feedback inhibition
A. high pH, such as in the intestine B. an endergonic reaction
B. low pH, such as in the intestine C. an induced fit with an enzyme
C. high pH, such as in the stomach D. activation energy
D. low pH, such as in the stomach E. cofactor interaction
E. neutral pH, such as in most interstitial fluid.
21. Activation energy is the energy required to bring
15. Which of these may show enzymatic activity? reactant bonds to:
A. lipids A. an enzyme
B. proteins B. their strongest conformation
C. DNA C. a reducing agent
D. lipids and proteins D. their breaking point
E. proteins and carbohydrates E. a high energy state
16. During enzyme-catalyzed reactions, substrate is a 22. How does a high pH affect an enzyme’s activity?
synonym for: A. It deceases it.
A. end product D. reactant B. It increases it.
B. Byproduct E. cofactor C. It changes the shape of all enzymes.
C. enzyme D. It does not affect the enzyme but it lowers the
availability of substrate.
17. Enzymes increase the rate of a given reaction by E. It varies with different enzymes; some work
lowering what kind of energy? well at a high pH, others do not.
A. combination D. electrical
B. activation E. solar
C. thermal
26
23. In metabolic pathways that are regulated by 28. A(n) _____ is an organized series of reaction steps
feedback inhibition, the _____ inhibits the activity in which membrane-bound arrays of enzymes and
of the _____. other molecules give up and accept electrons in
A. product; first enzyme turn.
B. first enzyme; product A. cyclic metabolic pathway
C. second enzyme; first enzyme B. endergonic reaction
D. last enzyme; first enzyme C. electron transfer chain
E. reactant; product D. concentration gradient
E. passive transport
24. Allosteric inhibition is generally a result of:
A. excess substrates 29. In a cyclic metabolic pathway, the ____.
B. binding regulatory molecules at a site other A. product inhibits the first enzyme
than the active site B. last step regenerates an enzyme for the first
C. a change in the temperature of the system step
D. binding of the regulatory molecule at the C. product inhibits the last enzyme
active site D. last step may regenerate a reactant for the
E. pH inhibition first step
E. regulatory molecules bind to regions other
25. An allosteric enzyme: than the active site
A. has an active site where substrate molecules
bind and another site that binds with 30. A regulatory substance binds an enzyme outside
regulatory molecules of the active site and changes its shape so that it
B. is an important energy-carrying nucleotide enhances the enzyme’s activity. What does this
C. carries out either oxidation reactions or illustrate?
reduction reactions, but not both A. allosteric regulation
D. raises the activation energy of the chemical B. feedback inhibition
reaction it catalyzes C. redox reaction
E. only participates in feedback inhibition D. enhancing activation energy
pathways E. an active site, bound by substrate
26. A molecule that gives up an electron becomes: 31. Which substance would be unlikely to function as
A. ionized only a coenzyme?
B. oxidized only A. a water-soluble vitamin
C. reduced only B. an iron ion
D. both ionized and oxidized C. glucose
E. both ionized and reduced D. NAD+
E. a magnesium ion
27. The removal of electrons from a compound is
known as: 32. When ATP releases its energy, it forms:
A. dehydration A. AMP only
B. oxidation B. ADP only
C. reduction C. Pi only
D. phosphorylation D. both AMP and Pi
E. a nonreversible chemical reaction E. both ADP and Pi
27
33. When NAD+ combines with hydrogen and an 39. Which combination of conditions would increase
electron, the NAD+ becomes: the rate of diffusion through a semipermeable
A. reduced membrane the most?
B. oxidized I. steeper concentration gradients
C. phosphorylated II. higher temperatures
D. denatured III. larger molecules
E. inactivated A. I only
B. II only
34. ATP acts as what type of agent in almost all C. I and II
metabolic pathways? D. II and III
A. transfer E. I, II, and III
B. feedback
C. catalytic 40. Diffusion of nonpolar molecules would not be
D. allosteric affected by:
E. enzymatic A. molecule size
B. steepness of the concentration gradient
35. ATP contains: C. temperature
A. adenine D. charge
B. cytosine E. steepness of the pressure gradient
C. uracil
D. thymine 41. Which statement is true?
E. guanine A. A cell placed in an isotonic solution will swell.
B. A cell placed in a hypotonic solution will swell.
36. The rate of diffusion through a semipermeable C. A cell placed in a hypotonic solution will
membrane will be lowest when ____. shrink.
A. molecules are small D. A cell placed in a hypertonic solution will
B. there is a concentration gradient remain the same size.
C. there is a difference in charge E. A cell placed in a hypertonic solution will swell.
D. there is high pressure
E. temperatures are low 42. Wilting of a plant occurs:
A. if the plant cell walls weaken
37. Pressure that a fluid exerts against a structure B. when osomotic pressure is reached
that contains it is called: C. if there is turgor
A. hypertonic D. when soil water becomes hypotonic
B. pressure gradient E. when soil water becomes hypertonic
C. osmosis
D. turgor
E. Isotonic
38. A single-celled freshwater organism, such as a
protistan, is transferred to salt water. What is
likely to happen?
A. The cell will bursts.
B. Salt will be pumped out of the cell.
C. The cell will shrink.
D. Enzymes will flow out of the cell.
E. Water will move into the cell.
28
47. What prevents a glucose molecule from moving

back through a glucose transporter and leaving
the cell?
A. phosphorylation
B. charge
C. closed transporters
D. gated transporters
E. concentration gradient
Exhibit 1. Pictures red blood cells immersed in fluids of 48. A glucose transporter changes shape when it
different tonicity. Refer to this exhibit to answer the binds to a molecule of glucose. The shape change
following questions (items 43-44). moves glucose down its concentration gradient to
the opposite side of the membrane, where it
43. The red blood cells in micrograph A are immersed detaches from the transport protein. What does
in a(n) _____ solution. this illustrate?
A. hypotonic A. facilitated diffusion
B. isotonic B. passive diffusion
C. hypertonic C. active transport
D. osmotic D. energy fueled pump
E. turgor E. open channel transport
44. The red blood cells in micrograph B are immersed 49. What is occurring when a transport protein uses
in a(n) _____ solution. energy to pump a solute against its gradient
A. Hypotonic D. osmotic across a cell membrane?
B. Isotonic E. turgor A. osmosis
C. Hypertonic B. passive diffusion
C. facilitated diffusion
45. Which movement is a passive process? D. turgor
A. sodium-potassium pump E. active transport
B. endocytosis
C. exocytosis 50. Movement of a molecule against a concentration
D. diffusion gradient occurs in:
E. transport proteins and ATP A. simple diffusion
B. facilitated diffusion
46. Which molecule(s) need a transport protein to C. osmosis
cross the cell membrane? D. active transport
A. water E. passive transport
B. carbon dioxide
C. glucose 51. What is a passive process that requires a protein
D. oxygen for movement of a solute across a membrane?
E. carbon dioxide and water A. active transport
B. endocytosis
C. bulk flow
D. facilitated diffusion
E. osmosis
29
52. White blood cells use ____ to get rid of foreign 55. An alcohol-induced disease characterized by
particles in the blood. inflammation and destruction of liver tissue is
A. simple diffusion called ___________________.
B. bulk flow
C. osmosis 56. Long-term, heavy drinking can lead to
D. phagocytosis ___________________, or scarring of the liver.
E. facilitated diffusion
MATCHING
Choose the one most appropriate answer for each.
A. reactants have greater free energy than products
B. a phosphate group is attached by a high-energy
bond
C. an excess of end-product molecules alters the
shape of the first enzyme in the pathway and
shuts off that metabolic pathway
D. the part of an enzyme that binds to the substrate
E. binding of a regulatory molecule changes the
shape of the enzyme
F. lowers the activation energy of a reaction
G. universal energy currency
H. a permanent loss of protein structure
57. ________ active site

58. ________ allosteric enzyme
59. ________ adenosine triphosphate
60. ________ catalyst
61. ________ denaturation
62. ________ exergonic
63. ________ feedback inhibition
64. ________ phosphorylation
The question(s) ask about membrane permeability.

Answer them in reference to the four processes below:
53. Which processes in the accompanying figure A. simple diffusion
above involve receptor mediated transport? B. facilitated diffusion
A. A only C. osmotic pressure
B. B only D. active transport
C. C only E. turgor
D. A and B F. osmosis
E. B and C
65. Pressure that a fluid exerts against a structure
COMPLETION. Answers must be reflected in the that contains it
answer sheet. 66. Phenomenon that explains the movement of
54. The energy in chemical bonds is a type of any kind of molecule from areas of higher
___________________ energy. concentration to ones of lower concentration
30
67. The process whereby a protein assists in D: What is the input for exergonic reactions?
passive transport
68. The process that explains the movement of
molecules against a concentration gradient E: Provide examples of organic compounds that are
69. The process in which water stops diffusing made by endergonic reactions.
into the cytoplasm of a plant cell when
enough pressure builds up inside it
70. The process that specifically moves water F: Complete the sentence: Cells run exergonic
molecules across a differentially permeable reactions to _____________
membrane
LABELLING/FIGURE ANALYSIS 72.

71.
Figure 5.8 Cells store and retrieve energy in the

chemical bonds of organic molecules. Which letter in the accompanying figure corresponds
to each of the following?
Answer the following question(s) related to the 1. ____ activation energy without enzyme
accompanying figure.
2. ____ activation energy with enzyme
A: What is the input for endergonic reactions?
3. ____ substrate
B: Provide examples of organic compounds that are 4. ____ product

made by endergonic reactions.
C: Complete the sentence: Cells run endergonic

reactions to __________
31
73.
Answer the following question(s) related to the

accompanying figure above.
A. What type of regulatory control is occurring? In the diagram above, side A has a 3 percent sucrose
solution and side B has a 10 percent sucrose solution.
B. Describe how the regulatory control works. The membrane separating the sides is permeable to
water but impermeable to sucrose.
C. Would the metabolic reaction speed up or slow
down if more product was present? 75. Side A is ____ to side B.
A. hypertonic
74. B. hypotonic
C. isotonic
D. either isotonic or hypertonic
E. either isotonic or hypotonic
76. Which statement best describes the movement of

water in this system?
A. Water moves in both directions, but net
movement is from A to B.
B. Water only moves from A to B.
C. Water moves in both directions, but net
movement is from B to A.
D. Water only moves from B to A.
Figure. Metabolic pathways. E. There is no net movement of water.
Answer the following question(s) related to the
accompanying figure. 77. Which statement best describes the movement of
a. Which two types of metabolic pathways are sucrose in this system?
illustrated? A. Sucrose moves in both directions, but net
movement is from A to B.
b. In the metabolic pathway on the right, there B. Sucrose only moves from A to B.
are two possible outcomes, what are they? C. Sucrose moves in both directions, but net
movement is from B to A.
c. What will happen in the metabolic pathway D. Sucrose only moves from B to A.
on the right if a high concentration of E. There is no net movement of sucrose.
products are present? Explain.
32
82. Explain the active transport involved in

sodium-potassium pumps.
83. How does a vesicle form from the cell

membrane?
84. As long as a cell is alive, it replaces patches of

its plasma membrane and add new
membrane proteins. How does this occur?
V. HOW CELLS REPRODUCE
Write in your answer sheet the letter (in uppercase) of

the most appropriate option to complete or answer
the question for each item.
1. The HeLa cell line was isolated from a _____.

A. Chimpanzee
B. Rat
C. Human
D. Guinea pig
E. Dog
2. Immortal cell lineages _____.

78. Label the three vesicle movements in Figure A. are derived from normal body cells
above. B. are unable to grow outside the body
A: __________________________ C. have limited research applications
B: __________________________ D. are derived from cancerous cells
C: __________________________ E. are used in cell replacement therapies
SHORT ANSWER. Answers must be reflected in the 3. HeLa cells were critical in _____.
answer sheet. A. developing the polio vaccine
79. Cells remain organized for long periods of B. developing a cure for malaria
time and new, organized cells form. Why does C. understanding fertilization
this not go against the Second Law of D. developing a cervical cancer vaccine
Thermodynamics? E. understanding cloning
80. How does temperature affect rate of an 4. Which organisms replicate cells by mitosis?
enzymatic reaction? Why are severe fevers A. animals and bacteria
dangerous? B. animals and plants
C. bacteria and plants
81. How does an electron transport chain work in D. archaea and bacteria
cells as a controlled energy release? E. archaea and plants
33
5. Chromosomes are unduplicated during which 10. Meiosis is the basis for _____.
phase of cell cycle? A. cellular division
A. S B. sexual reproduction
B. Prophase C. asexual reproduction
C. G1 D. sexual and asexual reproduction
D. G2 E. distribution of cytoplasm
E. Metaphase
11. Meiosis produces _____.
6. After meiosis, resulting daughter cells will contain A. sperm cells
_____. B. egg cells
A. the same number of chromosomes as the C. body cells
parent cell D. sperm and egg cells
B. half the number of chromosomes than the E. sperm, egg, and body cells
parent cell carries
C. twice the number of chromosomes than the 12. In mitosis, _____.
parent cell carries A. the chromosome number is halved
D. three times the number of chromosomes than B. the chromosome number is doubled
the parent cell carries C. the chromosome number stays the same
E. four times the number of chromosomes than D. the chromosome number may double or be
the parent cell carries halved depending on the species
E. gametes are formed
7. Which list correctly describes the sequence of
events that occurs during cell division, beginning 13. Pairs of duplicated chromosomes produced during
at interphase? S phase are called ______.
A. nuclear division, DNA replication, cytoplasmic A. homologous chromosomes
division B. sister chromosomes
B. DNA replication, cytoplasmic division, nuclear C. sister chromatids
division D. heterologous chromosomes
C. cytoplasmic division, nuclear division, DNA E. homogeneous chromosomes
replication
D. nuclear division, cytoplasmic division, DNA 14. Which event occurs during interphase?
replication A. The cytoplasm divides.
E. DNA replication, nuclear division, cytoplasmic B. The cell doubles its cytoplasmic contents.
division C. The nuclear envelope disassembles.
D. The nucleus divides.
8. _____ is the stage of the cell cycle during which a E. Protein synthesis is halted.
cell is performing its normal metabolic processes.
A. G1 D. Prophase 15. During S phase, _____.
B. S E. Telophase A. chromosomes condense
C. G2 B. the cell produces proteins in preparation for
mitosis
9. When viewing a cell culture under a microscope, C. the cytoplasm begins to divide
most cells would be in which phase of cell cycle? D. DNA is replicated
A. Telophase C. cytokinesis E. sister chromatids separate from each other
B. Interphase D. prophase
C. metaphase F.
34
16. Which phases comprise interphase? 22. Which of the following occurs in prophase?
A. G1 and G2 A. sister chromatids attach
B. S and G2 B. DNA replicates
C. G1 and S C. chromosomes align in the middle of the cell
D. G1, S, and G2 D. the nuclear envelope breaks down
E. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and E. sister chromatids separate
telophase
23. Chromosomes are aligned at the middle of the cell
17. Which cells are least likely to proceed into G1? during _____.
A. most skin cells A. Anaphase
B. most liver cells B. Metaphase
C. most intestinal cells C. Interphase
D. most red blood cells D. Prophase
E. most nerve cells E. Telophase
18. A parent cell with 12 chromosomes will produce 24. In a human cell, there are _____after DNA
daughter cells with _____ chromosomes by replicates during S phase.
mitosis. A. 92 chromosomes and 46 pairs of sister
A. 48 chromatids
B. 24 B. 46 chromosomes and 23 pairs of sister
C. 12 chromatids
D. 6 C. 23 chromosomes and 23 pairs of sister
E. 3 chromatids
D. 92 chromosomes and 23 pairs of sister
19. Cells with two of each kind of chromosome are chromatids
_____. E. 40 chromosomes and 20 pairs of sister
A. aneuploidy chromatids
B. diploid
C. triploid 25. Sister chromatids detach from one another and
D. haploid become visibly separate chromosomes during
E. tetraploid _____.
A. Anaphase D. prophase
20. The spindle apparatus is made of _____. B. Metaphase E. telophase
A. centromeres C. Interphase
B. microfilaments
C. microtubules 26. In which phase of mitosis do chromosomes arrive
D. chromatids at opposite sides of the cell?
E. nucleotides A. Anaphase D. telophase
B. Prophase E. interphase
21. The spindle apparatus appears during _____. C. Metaphase
A. anaphase
B. metaphase 27. Nuclear envelopes reform during _____.
C. interphase A. Prophase D. anaphase
D. prophase B. Telophase E. metaphase
E. telophase C. interphase
35
28. Which of the following is the proper sequence for

mitosis? A. II, I, IV, III
I. metaphase B. I, II, III, IV
II. telophase C. III, I, IV, II
III. prophase D. IV, III, II, I
IV. anaphase E. I, IV, II, III
Examine the micrographs below to answer the following question. (ITEMS 29-32)
29. The cell in micrograph "II" is at which stage of the

cell cycle?
A. Prophase D. anaphase
B. Telophase E. metaphase
C. interphase
30. The cell in micrograph "I" is at which stage of the

cell cycle?
A. prophase
B. telophase
C. interphase
D. anaphase
E. metaphase
31. The cell in micrograph "III" is at which stage of the

cell cycle?
A. Prophase D. anaphase
B. Telophase E. metaphase
C. interphase
32. The cell in micrograph "IV" is at which stage of the

cell cycle?
A. prophase
B. telophase
C. interphase
D. anaphase
E. metaphase
36
33. In what phase of the cell cycle does a typical cell 38. The cells of which individual do not have 23 pairs
spend most of its life? of homologous chromosomes?
A. interphase A. a male
B. prophase B. a female
C. metaphase C. an individual with a recessive disease, such as
D. anaphase hemophilia
E. telophase D. an individual with measles
E. an individual with polio
34. In what phase of the cell cycle does an actively
dividing cell produce the proteins necessary for 39. A chicken has 78 chromosomes. A chicken cell will
mitosis? contain _____ chromosomes at the beginning of
A. G1 prophase and _____ chromosomes after mitotic
B. S division is complete.
C. G2 A. 78; 39
D. Prophase B. 78; 78
E. G1 and G2 C. 39; 78
D. 156; 78
35. The phase of the cell cycle during which E. 78; 156
cytoplasmic division occurs is _____.
A. G1 40. Which energy source fuels cell division in animal
B. S cells?
C. G2 A. GTP
D. Mitosis B. ATP
E. cytokinesis C. kinetic energy of Golgi body movement
D. glycerol
36. The cell plate in dividing plant cells is composed of E. fat deposits
_____.
A. microfilaments 41. Which of the following is/are essential for
B. the cytoplasmic membrane formation of the cleavage furrow during
C. vesicles with wall-building materials cytoplasmic division in animal cells?
D. Golgi bodies A. a contractile ring
E. microtubules B. Golgi body vesicles
C. ATP molecules
37. Division of the cytoplasm in animal cells begins D. a contractile ring and Golgi body vesicles
_____. E. a contractile ring and ATP molecules
A. as microtubules assemble at each pole of the
nucleus 42. Accumulations of cells that divide uncontrollably
B. as Golgi body vesicles are guided by are called ______.
microtubules to the center of the cell A. Oncogenes
C. during S phase B. proto-oncogenes
D. as rigid phospholipid bilayer is synthesized in C. Neoplasms
between the dividing cells D. Checkpoints
E. as a cleavage furrow is created by E. descendant tumors
microfilaments in the cell's midsection
37
43. Abnormal cell division that does not pose a threat 48. Asexual reproduction _____.
to surrounding tissues is termed _____. A. results from fertilization
A. Malignant D. carcinogenic B. produces genetic clones
B. Benign E. repressed C. is more similar to meiosis than mitosis
C. metastatic D. leads to increased genetic variation in
offspring
44. The spread of cancer cells from one site to others E. involves crossing over
in the body is known as _____.
A. Cleavage D. neoplastic movement 49. Sexual reproduction _____.
B. Metastasis E. mutational slippage A. leads to uniform characteristics in a
C. benign transfer population
B. results in new combinations of genetic traits
45. An oncogene is a _____. C. requires less tissue differentiation than
A. normal gene that promotes mitosis asexual reproduction
B. gene that codes for a growth factor that D. produces genetic clones
stimulates cell division E. produces genetic clones and requires less
C. gene that codes for tumor suppressing tissue differentiation than asexual
proteins reproduction
D. mutated gene that results in tumor growth
E. mutated gene that results in cell cycle arrest 50. Alternative or different forms of the same gene
are called _____.
46. Tumor suppressor genes _____. A. homozygous
A. will turn into cancer genes B. chromatids
B. encode proteins that inhibit mitosis C. alleles
C. encode proteins that promote mitosis D. homologous
D. are cancer genes that back mutate into E. karyotypes
normal genes
E. encode proteins that promote DNA 51. A cell cycle checkpoint for S phase would likely
replication inhibit progression through the cell cycle if _____.
A. there are not enough proteins for division to
47. Which is a characteristic of malignant cells? continue
A. abnormal plasma membrane and cytoplasm; B. ATP supply in the cell is low
abnormal cell division C. there is DNA damage
B. normal plasma membrane and cytoplasm; D. the temperature of the cell is too low
abnormal cell division E. surrounding cells are dividing
C. abnormal plasma membrane, normal
cytoplasm; normal cell division 52. A cell cycle checkpoint at which phase would
D. normal plasma membrane, abnormal ensure sufficient nutrients for cell division were
cytoplasm; abnormal cell division available?
E. normal plasma membrane and cytoplasm; A. S D. G1 or G2
normal cell division B. Prophase E. G1 or S
C. Metaphase
38
53. Which is an example of the Red Queen hypothesis? 59. Paired homologous chromosomes are found at
A. As spiders evolve resistance to a viral disease, the center of the cell during _____ of meiosis.
the virus becomes more virulent. A. metaphase I
B. Dogs evolve characteristics that are selected B. telophase I
by humans. C. prophase II
C. Dinosaurs lack the adaptations to survive D. metaphase II
predation of their eggs by small mammals. E. anaphase II
D. Horses evolve from a five toed animal to one
toe. 60. Crossing over is one of the most important events
E. Cats and cows separately, but for similar in meiosis because it _____.
purposes, evolve scratchy tongues. A. produces new combinations of alleles on
chromosomes
54. An important advantage of sexual reproduction is B. causes separation of homologous
related to _____. chromosomes
A. increasing production of offspring C. causes separation of sister chromatids
B. avoiding predators D. results in the production of haploid gametes
C. avoiding harmful mutations E. aligns homologous chromosomes so that they
D. producing offspring identical to the parents can be separated in anaphase II
E. having two sexes
61. At the beginning of prophase I, there are _____
55. Meiosis in a diploid organism typically produces chromosomes in the germ cell that will develop
_____. into a human sperm cell.
A. two diploid cells A. 23
B. four diploid cells B. 92
C. four haploid cells C. 46
D. two haploid cells D. half as many (as compared to somatic cell)
E. one triploid cell E. twice as many (as compared to mature sperm)
56. A chicken somatic cell carries 78 chromosomes. A 62. The fusion of egg and sperm cells results a(n)
chicken sperm cell will contain how many _____.
chromosomes? A. Zygote D. germ cell
A. 19 B. 39 C. 78 D. 156 E. 312 B. Embryo E. sporophyte
C. gamete
57. During which phase of meiosis will the
chromosomes appear as a unit of four chromatids? 63. Sister chromatids separate during _____ of
A. metaphase I D. prophase I mitosis and _____ of meiosis.
B. telophase II E. prophase II A. anaphase; anaphase I
C. anaphase II B. anaphase; anaphase II
C. anaphase II; anaphase II
58. The pairing of chromosomes and crossing over D. metaphase; metaphase I
occur during _____ of meiosis. E. metaphase; metaphase II
A. metaphase I
B. anaphase II
C. prophase I
D. prophase II
E. more than one of these
39
64. Which statement describes the function of 68. Meiosis II is similar to mitosis because _____.
telomeres? A. both result in the production of diploid
A. Telomeres are DNA segments that encode cell daughter cells
cycle checkpoint proteins. B. both result in the production of haploid
B. Telomeres are where DNA polymerase binds daughter cells
to initiate DNA replication. C. DNA replication immediately precedes both
C. Telomeres serve as attachment points where meiosis II and mitosis
microtubules bind to separate chromosomes D. homologous chromosomes are separated in
during anaphase. meiosis II and mitosis
D. Telomeres are added to chromosomes with E. sister chromatids are separated in meiosis II
each round of replication to increase DNA and mitosis
stability.
E. Telomeres protect the coding regions of 69. How do microtubules separate chromosomes
chromosomes because chromosomes are during anaphase?
shortened with each round of replication. A. Microtubules pull chromosomes to opposite
poles of the cell.
65. Mutations in genes that control _____ are likely to B. Microtubules push chromosomes to opposite
cause cancer. poles of the cell.
A. phenotype expression C. Microtubules push and pull chromosomes to
B. metabolism separate poles of the cell.
C. ribosomal proteins D. Microtubules attach to telomeres and pull
D. cell cycle checkpoints chromosomes to opposite poles of the cell.
E. telomere shortening E. Microtubules attach to telomeres and push
chromosomes to opposite poles of the cell.
66. New alleles arise by _____.
A. crossing over 70. Meiosis may pause at which point in the cycle?
B. mutation A. after DNA is replicated in S phase but before
C. independent assortment meiosis I begins
D. sexual reproduction B. after meiosis I is complete
E. asexual reproduction C. after prophase II
D. before telophase II
67. In meiosis, _____ are separated during anaphase I, E. after prophase I
and _____ are separated during anaphase II.
A. heterologous chromosomes; homologous MATCHING
chromosomes Match the cellular process to the correct phase of the
B. homologous chromosomes; homologous eukaryotic cell cycle. Each question has only one BEST
chromosomes answer, but answer choices may be used more than
C. homologous chromosomes; sister chromatids once.
D. sister chromatids; homologous chromosomes A. G2
E. sister chromosomes; homologous B. Mitosis
chromosomes C. S
D. G1
71. ______ when DNA is replicated
72. ______ this is the last stage of interphase

40
73. ______ the beginning of interphase 88. ______ in plants, gametes result from this
process
74. ______ phase during which the cell prepares for
DNA replication Match the correct number of chromosomes to the
stage of mitosis or meiosis for a human cell. Each
75. ______ phase that follows DNA replication answer choice may be used more than once or not at
all.
76. ______ nuclear division A. 23
B. 46
77. ______ phase in which chromatids are not C. 69
connected by centromeres D. 92
E. 108
78. ______ phase that precedes cytoplasmic division 89. ______ G1
79. ______ period in which metaphase occurs 90. ______ Metaphase
80. ______ period prior to mitosis 91. ______ S
Match the following terms to the correct statements. 92. ______ Prophase
A. mitosis
B. meiosis 93. ______ G2
C. both mitosis and meiosis
D. neither mitosis or meiosis 94. ______ after telophase in mitosis is complete
81. ______ results in identical daughter cells Match the correct number of chromosomes to the
stage of mitosis or meiosis for a human cell. Each
82. ______ sister chromatids are separated answer choice may be used more than once or not at
during an anaphase event all.
A. 23
83. ______ RNA polymerase is employed B. 46
C. 69
84. ______ sister chromatids are attached at D. 92
centromeres E. 108
Match the following terms to the correct statements. 95. ______ prophase II
A. mitosis
B. meiosis 96. ______ telophase II
C. both mitosis and meiosis
D. neither mitosis or meiosis 97. ______ anaphase I
85. ______ involves two nuclear divisions 98. ______ metaphase II
86. ______ crossing over occurs 99. ______ after telophase II in meiosis is
complete
87. ______ homologous chromosomes are 100. ______ prophase I
separated during an anaphase event

TISON-BIOLOGY-2-BIOLOGY-1-CONTENT-REVIEW (1)

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

TISON-BIOLOGY-2-BIOLOGY-1-CONTENT-REVIEW (1)

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

1

Subject: General Biology 2 (Biology 104)

Name of Student: _______________________ Class/Yr.Section: _____________

I. INVITATION TO BIOLOGY 5. Which of the following organization levels is the

15. ​ A substance that an organism needs for growth

47. In the Olestra experiment conducted by 52. A control group ____.​

75. ​ Olestra. CLASSIFY. Answer the following questions in reference

43. ____ is one of the substances that maintains our

44. Which two atoms are found in all organic

52. Sucrose is composed of ____.​ 59. A triglyceride molecule is made up of ____.​

69. Two amino acids are bonded together to form a

70. Protein misfolding causes ____.​

71. ​ When a protein denatures, which type of

92. ​ the bond between the two strands of DNA in a

93. ​ the bond that is easiest to break

Match the structures below with the appropriate label

97. ​ amino acid

14. Archaea use molecules with reactive side chains in

15. Different cell membranes can have different

47. Which type of junctions prevent fluid leakage

54. ______ The packaging of secretory proteins

55. ______ This organelle is involved in lipid

56. ______ DNA synthesis occurs in the nucleus.

57. ______ These are the structures upon which

58. ______ The cellular digestion and disposal of

Match the endomembrane system components with

62. ______ Take part in intracellular digestion

63. ______ Break down fatty acids, amino acids,

80. What measures can the average citizen take to

IV. ENERGY & METABOLISM

1. Essentially, the first law of thermodynamics says

3. The second law of thermodynamics states that

7. Four of the five answers listed below are

8. Four of the five answers listed below are found in

9. Both endergonic and exergonic reactions require

47. What prevents a glucose molecule from moving

57. ________ active site

The question(s) ask about membrane permeability.

LABELLING/FIGURE ANALYSIS 72.

Figure 5.8 Cells store and retrieve energy in the

B: Provide examples of organic compounds that are 4. ____ product

C: Complete the sentence: Cells run endergonic

Answer the following question(s) related to the

76. Which statement best describes the movement of

82. Explain the active transport involved in

83. How does a vesicle form from the cell

84. As long as a cell is alive, it replaces patches of

V. HOW CELLS REPRODUCE

Write in your answer sheet the letter (in uppercase) of

1. The HeLa cell line was isolated from a _____.

2. Immortal cell lineages _____.

28. Which of the following is the proper sequence for

29. The cell in micrograph "II" is at which stage of the

30. The cell in micrograph "I" is at which stage of the

31. The cell in micrograph "III" is at which stage of the

32. The cell in micrograph "IV" is at which stage of the

72. ______ this is the last stage of interphase

79. ______ period in which metaphase occurs 90. ______ Metaphase

80. ______ period prior to mitosis 91. ______ S

85. ______ involves two nuclear divisions 98. ______ metaphase II

You might also like

Name of Student: ___________ Class/Yr.Section: _

15. A substance that an organism needs for growth

47. In the Olestra experiment conducted by 52. A control group ____.

75. Olestra. CLASSIFY. Answer the following questions in reference

52. Sucrose is composed of . 59. A triglyceride molecule is made up of .

70. Protein misfolding causes ____.

71. When a protein denatures, which type of

92. the bond between the two strands of DNA in a

93. the bond that is easiest to break

97. amino acid

79. period in which metaphase occurs 90. Metaphase

80. period prior to mitosis 91. S

85. involves two nuclear divisions 98. metaphase II