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Bộ đề chuẩn cấu ĐỀ DỰ ĐOÁN KÌ THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2020


trúc
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
ĐỀ SỐ 2

Họ, tên thí sinh:


Số báo danh:
 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 
Question 1. A. pressure B. future C. enthusiasm D. resume 
Question 2. A. played B. tried C. smiled D. wanted 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from
the other three in each position of primary stress in each of the following questions. 
Question 3. A. critical B. motivate C. horizon D. dominant 
Question 4. A. mistake B. unite C. wonder D. behave 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
CLOSET in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. 
Question 5. The company will only employ competent engineers, so they want to see
evidence of their work as well the references from previous employers. 
A. ambitious B. unqualified C. proficient D. inconvenient 
Question 6. The protesters were angry with the council’s plan to do away with a lovely old
building and put a car park there instead. 
A. destroy B. replace C. remain D. keep 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) that is
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 
Question 7. Unfortunately, the sunny intervals we were promised have been few and far
between. 
A. unusual B. extraordinary C. rare D. frequent 
Question 8. On Saturday wearing uniform is optional, so I often choose T-shirt and shorts. 
A. acceptable B. compulsory C. uncomfortable D. voluntary 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions. 
Question 9. Speech sounds are produced as a continuous sound signal rather than discreet
units. 
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A. Speech B. discreet C. are producted D. signal 


Question 10. His family goes usually to the same place for dinner on Saturday nights. 
A. the same B. goes usually C. for D. on 
Question 11. Having been identified the causes of global warming, scientists have worked
out some solutions to reduce its effects. 
A. worked out B. Having been identified 
C. to reduce D. of 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions. 
Question 12. His clothes are in a mess because he ______ the house all morning. 
A. will be painting B. has been painting C. will have painted D. had been
painting 
Question 13. ______ proficiency in German would be of much help, it is not requirement for
the advertised position. 
A. Despite B. Otherwise C. Regarding D. Although 
Question 14. Although David was ______ after a day’s work in the office, he tried to help
his wife the household chores. 
A. exhaust B. exhaustively C. exhaustion D. exhausted 
Question 15. The old woman still recalls clearly ______ by her teacher when she was late on
her first day at school. 
A. to be criticised B. to have criticised C. being criticised D. criticising 
Question 16. Heavy lifting is ______ action which requires ______ physical strength. 
A. Ø – the B. a – the C. an – Ø D. the – an 
Question 17. If you plant these seeds in May, you ______ a garden full of flowers in
October. 
A. would have B. had C. will have D. were having 
Question 18. Patients at highest ______ of complications can be detected based on artificial
intelligence techniques. 
A. danger B. risk C. chance D. threat 
Question 19. ______ an Oscar last year, she’s now one of the most powerful movie stars in
the film industry. 
A. Having won B. To have won C. The winning of D. Just won 
Question 20. The new management board is often described as the ______ force behind the
company’s rapid expansions. 
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A. driving B. leading C. rising D. heading 


Question 21. My uncle was ______ ill last month; however, fortunately, he is now making a
slow but steady recovery. 
A. fatally B. heavily C. deeply D. seriously 
Question 22. I believe that judges should be independent ______ the government. 
A. to B. of C. with D. on 
Question 23. When ______ to the party, she politely refused. 
A. inviting B. to invite C. to be invited D. invited’
Question 24. Apart from those three very cold weeks in January, it has been a very ______
winner. 
A. plain B. pale C. mild D. calm 
Question 25. The ______ of toothpaste are located in the health and beauty section of the
supermarket. 
A. tubes B. pints C. sticks D. quarts 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closet in
meaning to each of the following questions. 
Question 26. “What have you done to your hair?” she said to her son. 
A. She asked her son what to do to his hair. 
B. She wanted her son to know what he had done to his hair. 
C. She wanted to know what did her son do to his hair. 
D. She asked her son what he had done to his hair. 
Question 27. Children tend to learn English better than adults. 
A. Adults tend to be the best at learning English. 
B. Children do not learn English as well as adults. 
C. Adults tend to learn English worse than children. 
D. Children tend to learn English more than adults. 
Question 28. The Smiths sent their first child to a boarding school, which was not a good
idea. 
A. The Smiths shouldn’t have sent their first child to a boarding school. 
B. The Smiths could have well sent their first child to a boarding school. 
C. The Smiths didn’t need to have sent their first child to a boarding school. 
D. The Smiths can’t have sent their first child to a boarding school. 
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 
Question 29. Marie didn’t turn up at John’s birthday party. I feel so sorry for that. 
A. If only Marie turn up at John’s birthday party. 
B. I wish Marie had turned up at John’s birthday party. 
C. I wished Marie wouldn’t turn up at John’s birthday party. 
D. It’s a shame Marie had turned up at John’s birthday party. 
Question 30. Their team performed excellently at the elimination tournament. They didn’t
win the trophy nevertheless. 
A. Subsequent to their performance at the elimination tournament, they afraid to win
the trophy excellently. 
B. Were it not for their excellent performance at the elimination tournament, they
wouldn’t have won the trophy. 
C. Notwithstanding their excellent performance at the elimination tournament, they
didn’t win the trophy. 
D. Given that they didn’t win the trophy, their performance at the elimination
tournament was however excellent.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following questions. 
Question 31. Sue and Anne are talking about their future plans. 
Sue: “I am not interested in the idea of taking a gap year and going backpacking in Nepal.” 
Anne: “ Well, _____________.” 
A. I am B. help yourself C. neither do I D. that’s life 
Question 32. Laura and Annie are saying goodbye. 
Laura: “Goodbye Annie. See you next week!” 
Annie: “_______!” 
A. So far B. Cheers C. So long D. Don’t worry 
Read the passage and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
blanks from 33 to 37. 
ROSES
According to fossil fuel records, roses are over 35 million years old and they were cultivated
in China about 5,000 years ago. A Chinese emperor in the 6th  century B.C. apparently had
over 600 books on roses in his library, and oil was extracted from those grown in his gardens.
(33) _______, only the highest members of society were allowed to use it. If anyone else was
found with even a small amount, they were (34) ________ to death. Roses were also popular
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with the Romans, who used their petals as medicine, a source of perfume and as confetti at
weddings. 
Cultivated rose were only introduced to Western Europe in the 18th century. Napoleon’s
wife, Josephine, started a botanical garden near Paris, (35) ______ she collected all the
known varieties of rose and encouraged the breeding of new ones. This led to the flowers
becoming increasingly popular, and in Britain at that time roses became so (36) ______ that
they were often used as currency in local markets. 
All roses in Europe used to be pink or white until the first red ones arrived from China 200
years ago. These now (37) _______ love and are the world’s most common cut flower. 
(Source: Face2face- Upper Intermediate – Student’s Book, by Chris Redston & Gillie
Cunningham) 
Question 33. A. Furthermore B. However C. As a result D. Otherwise 
Question 34. A. sentenced B. killed C. let D. made 
Question 35. A. why B. that C. where D. who 
Question 36. A. worthless B. valuable C. prosperous D. priceless 
Question 37. A. symbolise B. symbolically C. symbolic D. symbol 
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 38 to 42. 
For many American university students, the weeklong spring break holiday means an endless
party on a sunny beach in Florida or Mexico. In Panama City Beach, Florida, a city with a
permanent population of around 36,000, more than half a million university students arrive
during the month of March to play and party, making it the number one spring break
destination in the United States. A weeklong drinking binge is not for anyone, however, and a
growing number of American university students have found a way to make spring break
matter. For them, joining or leading a group of volunteers to travel locally or internationally
and work to show problems such as poverty, homelessness, or environmental damage makes
spring break a unique learning experience that university students can feel good about.
Students who participate in alternative spring break projects find them very rewarding. While
most university students have to get their degrees before they can start helping people,
student volunteers are able to help people now. On the other hand, the accommodations are
far from glamorous. Students often sleep on the floor of a school or spend the week camping
in tents. But students only pay around $250 for meals and transportation, which is much less
than some of their peers spend to travel to more traditional spring break hotspots. 
Alternative spring break trips appear to be growing in popularity at universities across the
United States. Students cite a number of reason for participating. Some appreciate the
opportunity to socialize and meet new friends. Others want to exercise their beliefs about
people’s obligation to serve humanity and make the world a better place. Whatever their
reason, these students have discovered something that gives them rich rewards along with a
break from school work. 
Question 38. What is the passage mainly about? 
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A. Students’ travelling preferences B. A traditional approach to spring breaks 


C. American students’ social life D. Students’ alternative spring breaks 
Question 39. How many university students travel to Panama Beach City every March for
spring break? 
A. Around 10,000 B. Around 36,000 C. Around 500,000 D. Around 50,000 
Question 40. The word “cite” in paragraph 2 probably means ________. 
A. listing B. getting C. avoiding D. inventing 
Question 41. The word “them” in paragraph 1 refers to _______. 
A. degrees B. people C. projects D. students 
Question 42. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a problem that alternative spring
break trips try to help solve? 
A. Environment damage B. Homelessness C. Poverty D.
Overpopulation 
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50. 
All over the country young people are entering a world of homelessness and poverty,
according to a recent report by the housing group, Shelter. Nearly 150,000 young people aged
between sixteen and twenty-five will become homeless this year, says Shelter. Some of the
young homeless may sleep out in the open in such places as 'cardboard city' in London, where
people of all ages sleep in the open air in their only homes - cardboard boxes. Others may
find accommodation in shelters run by voluntary organizations or get a place in a hostel,
which gives them board for up to ten weeks.’
But who are these people? Those who are seeking a roof over their heads are mostly not
runaways but “throwaways” - people who have been thrown out of their homes or forced to
leave because of parental divorce, an unsympathetic step-parent or one of many other
reasons. 
Take the case of one sixteen-year-old schoolgirl, Alice. She did not come from a poor home
and had just passed her exams with good results. The Shelter team met her in a hostel where
she was doing her physics homework. It turned out that her parents had thrown her out of her
home for no other reason that she wanted to do Science Advanced Level exams - which her
parents refused her permission to do, saying that sciences were unladylike! 
Shelter says that the Government's laws do nothing to help these youngsters. Rising rents, the
shortage of cheap housing and a cut in benefits for young people under the age of twenty-five
are causing a national problem, according to Shelter. The recent changes in the benefit laws
mean that someone aged between sixteen and twenty-five gets less than older people and they
can only claim state help if they prove that they left home for a good reason. 
Shelter believes that because of the major cuts in benefits to young people, more and more
are being forced to sleep on the streets. Shelter also points out that if you are homeless, you
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can't get a job because employers will not hire someone without a permanent address; and if
you can't get a job, you are homeless because you don't have any money to pay for
accommodation. It's an impossible situation. 
(Source: FCE success workbook) 
Question 43. Why was Alice turned out of her home? 
A. She refused to do her homework in the evening. 
B. She didn’t want to study for her Advanced Level Exams. 
C. She had not obtained desirable marks in her exams. 
D. Her parents didn’t argee with what she wanted to do. 
Question 44. According to Shelter, once young people have been forced onto the streets,
__________. 
A. they will never go back home again 
B. their benefits will be severely cut 
C. they will encourage their friends to do the same 
D. they will find it difficult to find work 
Question 45. The changes in the system of benefits mean that ___________. 
A. young people do not receive as much money as those over twenty-five 
B. anyone under twenty-five and not living at home will receive help with food and
accommodation 
C. the under twenty-fives can claim money only if they have left home 
D. young people cannot claim money unless they are under sixteen or over twenty-
five 
Question 46. The word “benefits” in paragraph 4 are probably _________. 
A. extra wages for part-time workers B. financial support for those in need 
C. a law about distributing money D. gifts of food and clothing 
Question 47. What is the reading passage mainly about?’
A. The problem of unemployed people all over the world 
B. Timely actions from the governement to fight homelessness 
C. The plight of young, homless people 
D. An increasingly popular trend among youngsters 
Question 48. According to the passage, most young people become homeless because
_________. 
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A. circumstances make it possible for them to live at home 


B. they do not want to live with a divorced parent 
C. they have run away from home 
D. they have thrown away any chances of living at home by behaving badly 
Question 49. The word “Others” in paragraph 1 refers to _________. 
A. voluntary organizations B. young people 
C. people of all ages D. the young homeless 
Question 50. The word “permanent” in paragraph 5 is closet meaning to ___________. 
A. flexible B. stable C. simple D. obvious 
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Bộ đề chuẩn cấu ĐỀ DỰ ĐOÁN KÌ THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2020


trúc Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
ĐỀ SỐ 1

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 
Question 1: A. hole B. home C. come D. hold 
Question 2: A. watched B. cleaned C. stopped D. picked 
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. 
Question 3: A. admit B. suggest C. remind D. manage 
Question 4: A. approval B. applicant C. energy D. influence 
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions. 
Question 5: More and more investors are pouring ________ money into food and beverage
start–ups. 
A. the B. a C. an D. Ø 
Question 6: Do you think there _____ less conflict in the world if all people spoke the same
language? 
A. were B. will be C. would be D. are 
Question 7: Linda rarely goes to school by bike, but today she ______ a bike. 
A. rides B. is riding C. is going to ride D. will ride 
Question 8: John has worked very late at night these days, ______ he is physically
exhausted. 
A. yet B. hence C. because D. so 
Question 9: I agree ______ one point with Chris: it will be hard for us to walk 80km. 
A. in B. of C. on D. for 
Question 10: ____________________, the ancient place is still popular with modern
tourists. 
A. Building thousands of years ago B. It was built thousands of years ago 
C. To have built thousands of years ago D. Built thousands of years ago 
Question 11: Once ___________ in the UK, the book will definitely win a number of awards
in regional book fairs. 
A. is published B. having published C. published D. publishing 
Question 12: Your hair needs _______. You’d better have it done tomorrow. 
A. cut B. to cut C. being cut D. cutting 
Question 13: He was pleased that things were going on _______. 
A. satisfied B. satisfactorily C. satisfying D. satisfaction
Question 14: Although our opinions on many things ______, we still maintain a good
relationship with each other. 
A. differ B. receive C. maintain D. separate 
Question 15: Daniel ______ a better understanding of Algebra than we do. 
A. makes B. has C. takes D. gives 
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Question 16: The pointless war between the two countries left thousands of people dead and
seriously _______. 
A. injured B. wounded C. spoilt D. damaged 
Question 17: Eager to be able to discuss my work _____ in French, I hired a tutor to help
polish my language skills. 
A. expressively B. articulately C. ambiguously D. understandably 
Question 18: The sight of his pale face brought ________ to me how ill he really was. 
A. place B. house C. life D. home 
Mark the Letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 
Question 19: In a study, more Asian students than American students hold a belief that a
husband is obliged to tell his wife his whereabouts if he comes home late. 
A. urged B. free C. required D. suggested 
Question 20: Though I persuaded my boss to solve a very serious problem in the new
management system, he just made light of it. 
A. completely ignored B. treated as important C. disagreed with D.
discovered by chance 
Mark the Letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 
Question 21: Students from that university have conducted a survey to find out the most
effective study habit. 
A. organized B. delayed C. encouraged D. proposed 
Question 22: Some operations may have to be halted unless more blood donors come
forward to help. 
A. offer B. claim C. attempt D. refuse 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges. 
Question 23: Bill is talking to his colleague. 
Bill: “_________, Jack?” – Jack: “Fine! I have just got a promotion.” 
A. What happened B. What are you doing C. How are you doing D.
How come 
Question 24: Two students are talking in a new class. 
Student 1: “Excuse me, is anybody sitting here?” – Student 2: “____________”
A. No, thanks. B. Yes, I am so glad. 
C. Sorry, the seat is taken. D. Yes, yes. You can sit here. 
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. 
Amy Tan was born on February 19, 1952 in Oakland, California. Tan grew up in Northern
California, (25) _______ when her father and older brother both died from brain tumors in
1966, she moved with her mother and younger brother to Europe, where she attended high
school in Montreux, Switzerland. She returned to the United States for college. After college,
Tan worked as a language development consultant and as a corporate freelance writer. In
1985, she wrote the story "Rules of the Game" for a writing workshop, which laid the early
(26) _______ for her first novel The Joy Luck Club. Published in 1989, the book explored the
(27) _______ between Chinese women and their Chinese–American daughters, and became
the longest–running New York Times bestseller for that year. The Joy Luck Club received
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numerous awards, including the Los Angeles Times Book Award. It has been translated into
25 languages, including Chinese, and was made into a major motion picture for (28) _______
Tan co–wrote the screenplay. Tan's other works have also been (29) ______ into several
different forms of media. 
Question 25: A. however B. moreover C. so D. but 
Question 26: A. preparation B. base C. source D. foundation 
Question 27: A. relate B. relative C. relationship D. relatively 
Question 28: A. whom B. that C. what D. which 
Question 29: A. adjoined B. adapted C. adjusted D. adopted 
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. 
Newspapers and television news programs always seem to report about the bad things
happening in society. However, there is a place where readers can find some good news. That
place is the website called HappyNews. The man behind HappyNews is Byron Reese. Reese
set up HappyNews because he thought other news sources were giving people an unbalanced
view of the world. Reese said about HappyNews, “The news media gives you a distorted
view of the world by exaggerating bad news, misery, and despair. We’re trying to balance
out the scale.” 
Not everyone agrees with Reese’s view, though. Many people think that news sources
have a responsibility to provide news that is helpful to people. People need to know about
issues or problems in today’s society. Then they are better able to make informed decisions
about things that affect their daily lives. Reese said that HappyNews is not trying to stop
people from learning about issues or problems. HappyNews is just trying to provide a
balanced picture of today’s world. 
By the end of its first month online, HappyNews had more than 70,000 unique readers.
About 60 percent of those readers were women. Something else unique makes HappyNews
different from any of the other news or information websites that are on the Internet. Unlike
many other websites, HappyNews gets fan mail from its readers on a daily basis.
Question 30: Which of the following is the best title for this passage? 
A. “Byron Reese Tells People How to Be Happy” B. “Good News for a Change” 
C. “Newspapers vs. Online News” D. “Why Women Like HappyNews” 
Question 31: How is HappyNews different than other news sources? 
A. All of the stories are written by Reese. B. HappyNews does not exaggerate its
stories. 
C. Its stories are not about bad things. D. The website only has stories about
women. 
Question 32: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to _______. 
A. sources B. problems C. people D. issues 
Question 33: Why might some people NOT like HappyNews? 
A. It doesn’t tell them about important issues or problems. 
B. Reese’s stories are about misery and despair. 
C. Some sources give a balanced view. 
D. The stories are from around the world. 
Question 34: What does “exaggerating” mean in this reading? 
A. improving B. explaining C. editing D. worsening 
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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. 
No sooner had the first intrepid male aviators safely returned to Earth than it seemed
that women, too, had been smitten by an urge to fly. From mere spectators, they became
willing passengers and finally pilots in their own right, plotting their skills and daring line
against the hazards of the air and the skepticism of their male counterparts. In doing so they
enlarged the traditional bounds of a women's world, won for their sex a new sense of
competence and achievement, and contributed handsomely to the progress of aviation. 
But recognition of their abilities did not come easily. "Men do not believe us capable."
The famed aviator Amelia Earhart once remarked to a friend. "Because we are women,
seldom are we trusted to do an efficient job." Indeed old attitudes died hard: when Charles
Lindbergh visited the Soviet Union in 1938 with his wife, Anne–herself a pilot and gifted
proponent of aviation – he was astonished to discover both men and women flying in the
Soviet Air Force. 
Such conventional wisdom made it difficult for women to raise money for the up – to –
date equipment they needed to compete on an equal basis with men. Yet they did compete,
and often they triumphed finally despite the odds. 
Ruth Law, whose 590 – mile flight from Chicago to Hornell, New York, set a new
nonstop distance record in 1916, exemplified the resourcefulness and grit demanded of any
woman who wanted to fly. And when she addressed the Aero Club of America after
completing her historic journey, her plainspoken wordstestified to a universal human
motivation that was unaffected by gender: "My flight was done with no expectation of
reward," she declared, "just purely for the love of accomplishment." 
Question 35: Which of the following is the best title for this passage? 
A. A Long Flight B. Women in Aviation History 
C. Dangers Faced by Pilots D. Women Spectators 
Question 36: According to the passage, women pilots were successful in all of the following
EXCEPT___. 
A. challenging the conventional role of women B. contributing to the science of
aviation 
C. winning universal recognition from men D. building the confidence of women 
Question 37: What can be inferred from the passage about the United States Air Force in
1938? 
A. It had no women pilots. B. It gave pilots handsome salaries. 
C. It had old planes that were in need of repair. D. It could not be trusted to do an
efficient job. 
Question 38: In their efforts to compete with men, early women pilots had difficulty in
______. 
A. addressing clubs B. flying nonstop C. setting records D. raising money 
Question 39: According to the passage, who said that flying was done with no expectation of
reward? 
A. Amelia Earhart B. Charles Lindbergh C. Anne Lindbergh D. Ruth Law 
Question 40: The word ‘skepticism’ is closest in meaning to _______. 
A. hatred B. doubt C. support D. surprise 
Question 41: The word ‘addressed’ can be best replaced by ________. 
A. mailed B. came back to C. spoke to D. consulted 
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Question 42: The word ‘counterparts’ refers to ________. 


A. passengers B. pilots C. skills D. hazards 
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions. 
Question 43: Some people say often that using cars is not so convenient as using
motorbikes. 
A. say often B. using cars C. so D. as using motorbikes
Question 44: They are having their house being painted by a construction company. 
A. having B. their C. being painted D. construction
Question 45: Transgender people are denied the ability to join the armed forces due to
discriminating policies implemented by the government. 
A. Transgender B. are denied C. armed forces D. discriminating
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions. 
Question 46: “I agree that I am narrow–minded,” said the manager.
A. The manager denied being narrow–minded. 
B. The manager admitted being narrow–minded. 
C. The manager refused to be narrow–minded. 
D. The manager promised to be narrow–minded. 
Question 47: A supermarket is more convenient than a shopping centre. 
A. A shopping centre is not as convenient as a supermarket. 
B. A shopping centre is more convenient than a supermarket. 
C. A supermarket is not as convenient as a shopping centre. 
D. A supermarket is as inconvenient as a shopping centre. 
Question 48: It was a mistake for Tony to buy that house. 
A. Tony couldn’t have bought that house. 
B. Tony can’t have bought that house. 
C. Tony needn’t have bought that house. 
D. Tony shouldn’t have bought that house. 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 
Question 49: Julian dropped out of college after his first year. Now he regrets it. 
A. Julian regrets not having dropped out of college after his first year. 
B. Julian wishes he didn’t drop out of college after his first year. 
C. If only Julian hadn’t dropped out of college after his first year. 
D. Only if Julian had dropped out of college after his first year would he not regret it. 
Question 50: Seth informed us of his retirement from the company. He did it when arriving
at the meeting. 
A. Only after his retiring from the company did Seth tell us about his arrival at the
meeting. 
B. Not until Seth said to us that he would leave the company did he turn up at the
meeting. 
C. Hardly had Seth notified us of his retiring from the company when he arrived at
the meeting. 
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D. No sooner had Seth arrived at the meeting than we were told about his leaving the
company.

Bộ đề chuẩn cấu ĐỀ DỰ ĐOÁN KÌ THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2020


trúc Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
ĐỀ SỐ 4

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions 
Câu 1. A. absence B. arrive C. absorb D. apologize 
Câu 2. A. dogged B. crooked C. naked D. backed 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. 
Câu 3. A. approach B. panda C. income D. current 
Câu 4. A. confidence B. celebrate C. effective D. handicapped 
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions. 
Câu 5. All of the plants now raised on farms _______ from plants that ______ wild.
A. had been developed – once were grown B. have been developed- once grew
C. have been developed – have grown D. had been developed – once grew 
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Câu 6. We _______ more time with our children before they left for university. We were too
busy with our jobs to think about that.
A. wish we spent B. were supposed to be spending
C. would like to have spent D. regret that we didn’t spend 
Câu 7. Though she lost her job last month, she still wanted to save_____ so she said that she
had left it willingly.
A. mouth B. face C. reputation D. fame 
Câu 8. The final winner will be the one who breaks through ______ and survives till the last
minutes.
A. obstacles B. difficulty C. hindrance D. impediment 
Câu 9. Your store needs a bold sign that will catch the _____ of anyone walking down the
street. That may help to sell more products.
A. eye B. peek C. flash D. glimpse 
Câu 10. No matter how busy I may be, I shall be there tonight come what_______.
A. mayB. might C. can D. could 
Câu 11. Organizations may qualify for exemption from income tax if they __________
exclusively as charities.
A. operated B. operate C. had operated D. are operated 
Câu 12. I used to be nervous when my father asked me to give him my school _________.
A. diploma B. certificate C. report D. background 
Câu 13. Simon Lake drew the inspiration ____ La submarine of undersea travel and
exploration from Twenty Thousand Leagues Under the Sea.
A. at B. by C. for D. of 
Câu 14. Parents should start teaching them how to manage more complicated duties ____
children graduate from toddlerhood and move toward preschool.
A. yet B. when C. and D. so 
Câu 15. Ecotourism is any type of tourism to relatively _______ natural areas for the
enjoyment of natural, cultural and historical features.
A. disturbed B. disturb C. undisturbed D. disturbance 
Câu 16. Different activities should be carried out to raise _________awareness of our people
about ecotourism.
A. a B. an C. the D. 0 
Câu 17. __________ perform a function that requires water to perform that function, you had
better give that water to the body in advance of the event.
A. Any time you want to B. Unless you want to
C. What you want to D. You want to 
Câu 18. There are other problems of city life which I don't propose to ____ at the moment.
A. go into B. go around C. go for D. go up 
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 
Câu 19. In the 1960s, the World Health Organization (WHO) began a campaign to get rid of
the mosquitoes that transmit the disease malaria.
A. minimize B. develop C. eradicate D. appreciate 
Câu 20. A father will be his child's role model. He will be the example for his child of what
husbands and fathers are like.
A. someone that others admire and follow B. someone that others share interest
with
C. someone that others love and live with D. someone that others are fond of with 
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 
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Câu 21. For many couples, money is the source of arguments, frustration. When it comes to
finances and relationships, sharing the financial burden is important.
A. benefit B. responsibility C. aid D. difficulty 
Câu 22. Aren't you putting the cart before the horse by deciding what to wear for the
wedding before you've even been invited to it?
A. doing things in the wrong order B. do things in the right order
C. knowing the ropes D. upsetting the apple cart 
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. 
Human beings are extremely diverse in very many ways. People differ (23) ____ opinions,
race, nationality, gender, age, sexuality, ethnicity, class, religion, lifestyle and so much more,
yet at the very basic we are all human species. Ideally, all people feel (24) ____ and joy
despite the differences. Today, the changes in time and technology have made is extremely
impossible for any group of people to live without interacting with others outside their group.
Often people of different cultural and geographical (25) ____ meet in international
conferences, education exchange programs, sports, etc.
Sadly, the history of mankind discriminating against each other based on cultural differences
has been with us for ages. So many people have died or have been denied their rights (26)
_________ individual greed. Properties and economies have also been destroyed due to lack
of understanding. Unfortunately, some of these occurrences are visible even today,
perpetuated by people who little understand the importance of the (27)__________of our
diversity.
(Source: https://www.springbreakwatches.com) 
Câu 23. A. from B. by C. in D. with 
Câu 24. A. painB. pained C. painful D. painless 
Câu 25. A. backgrounds B. settings C. identities D. surroundings 
Câu 26. A. because of B. thanks to C. despite D. as a result 
Câu 27. A. specialty B. uniqueness C. identity D. sustainability 
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions. 
Câu 28. The innovators behind objects like the cellphone or the helicopter took inspiration
from work like "Star Trek" and “War of the Worlds”.
A. innovators B. objects like C. or the helicopter D. work 
Câu 29. How many people know that the Brooklyn Bridge, built in 1883, were the world's
first suspension bridge?
A. the Brooklyn Bridge B. built in C. were D. suspension bridge 
Câu 30. It is said that the accident seemed to have destroyed completely his confidence.
A. is said B. the C. seemed to have D. destroyed completely 
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. 
The best explainer videos are realized by great background score. When was the last time you
watched a silent movie? Never? Not for a while? A long while? Even if you remember
watching one, it would still have had a background score, or you’ve accidentally pressed the
mute button!
The importance of background music and sound effects for your explainer video, therefore,
cannot be overstated. You may not need a full blown orchestra or classy jazz tones to create
the mood, but whether going for a subtle effect, a professional demonstration or simply trying
to attract customers, music is a must. Explainer videos have the emotional quotient working
for them and music is just going to add more to make the viewers relate to the pain points you
are highlighting in your video. Imagine if your favorite video game has no background music
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or sound effects to back the amazing graphics? Would you play it with the same feel and
excitement? Nah! Same is the case with your explainer videos. They need to and should have
apt sound effects to make them worth your viewer’s time.
While the focus of explainer videos production is more on passing the desired information
and explaining technical and complex procedures easily, it doesn’t mean you’ll be distracting
your viewers with the background music. The sound effects and music is not going to take
the message away from your explainer, it’s just going to enhance it and turn it more
watchable and share-able. Even if your video doesn’t require a background score, it must
include some sound effects or else it would be not so good an experience for those who
choose to watch it.
(source: https://www.b2w.tv/)
Câu 31. Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. The importance of background music and sound effects.
B. The influence of silence and background music on memory.
C. Inside the booming business of background music. 
D. How to choose the background music for your explainer videos? 
Câu 32. The word “score” in paragraph 1 can be replaced by ______.
A. grove B. mark C. instrument D. music 
Câu 33. According to paragraph 2, what is the main purpose for using background music?
A. Sound helps build and sustain relationships between films and viewers.
B. Background music can control how the audience should react to a scene.
C. Background music can influence both everyone’s mood and choices. 
D. A musical atmosphere can actually motivate people to do risky things. 
Câu 34. The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. score B. video C. sound D. background 
Câu 35. According to paragraph 3, what is the fundamental and typical use of explainer
videos?
A. It is used to distill wide-ranging and complex ideas into a viewer-friendly package.
B. Businesses use them to quickly introduce themselves and their importance.
C. It is designed as a means to stimulate both auditory and visual senses. 
D. It helps the customers with their daily life problems with scientific information. 
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. 
In our connected globalized world, the languages which dominate communications and
business, Mandarin, Hindi, English, Spanish and Russian amongst others, are placing small
languages spoken in remote places under increasing pressure. Fewer and fewer people speak
languages such as Liki, Taushiro and Dumi as their children shift away from the language of
their ancestors towards languages which promise education, success and the chance of a
better life. While to many parents, this may appear a reasonable choice, giving their offspring
the opportunity to achieve the sort of prosperity they see on television, the children
themselves often lose touch with their roots. However, in many places the more reasonable
option of bilingualism, where children learn to speak both a local and a national language, is
being promoted. This gives hope that many endangered languages will survive, allowing
people to combine their links to local tradition with access to wider world culture. 
While individuals are free to choose if they wish to speak a minority language, national
governments should be under no obligation to provide education in an economically
unproductive language, especially in times of budget constraints. It is generally accepted that
national languages unite and help to create wealth while minority regional languages divide.
Furthermore, governments have a duty to ensure that young people can fulfil their full
potential, meaning that state education must provide them with the ability to speak and work
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in their national language and so equip them to participate responsibly in national affairs.
People whose language competence does not extend beyond the use of a regional tongue have
limited prospects. This means that while many people may feel a sentimental attachment to
their local language, their government’s position should be one of benign neglect,
allowing people to speak the language, but not acting to prevent its eventual disappearance.
Many PhD students studying minority languages lack the resources to develop their language
skills, with the result that they have to rely on interpreters and translators to communicate
with speakers of the language they are studying. This has a detrimental effect on the quality
of their research. At the same time, they have to struggle against the frequently expressed
opinion that minority languages serve no useful purpose and should be allowed to die a
natural death. Such a view fails to take into account the fact that a unique body of knowledge
and culture, built up over thousands of years, is contained in a language and that language
extinction and species extinction are different facets of the same process. They are part of an
impending global catastrophe which is beginning to look unavoidable.
(Adapted from Complete Advanced by Guy Brook – Hart and Simon Haines)
Câu 36. Which of the following could best serve as the main topic of the passage?
A. The threat to minority languages in different parts of the world.
B. The domination of business languages all over the world.
C. The shift from regional to national languages in many countries. 
D. The benefits of national languages in modern world. 
Câu 37. According to the first paragraph, why do many parents consider the change towards
national languages a reasonable choice?
A. Because not many people nowadays are familiar with the language of their
ancestors.
B. Because children now can learn to speak both a local and a national language.
C. Because their children may have a chance to achieve education, success and better
living condition. 
D. Because their children may help to combine their links to local tradition with
access to wider world culture. 
Câu 38. What does the word “this” in the first paragraph refer to?
A. the more reasonable option B. the place where children can use bilingualism
C. the opportunity to achieve prosperity D. the promotion of bilingualism 
Câu 39. The word “constraints” in the second language is closest in meaning to
___________.
A. investmentsB. restrictions C. crises D. depressions 
Câu 40. What can be inferred from the sentence “their government’s position should be
one of benign neglect” in paragraph 2?
A. People who are not members of the government will be allowed to speak their
local languages.
B. It’s better to allow these minority languages to die naturally by neglecting them.
C. The government does not appreciate the importance of minority languages. 
D. The local people will be neglected if they use their ancestors’ languages. 
Câu 41. What is the influence of the shortage of minority language resources on many PhD
students mentioned in paragraph 3?
A. These students are unable to persuade people to use the language they are learning.
B. Their qualified research is unlikely to complete.
C. They will have many difficulties in understanding these languages. 
D. They have to become interpreters and translators of these languages themselves. 
Câu 42. The word “facets” in the last paragraph could be best replaced by _____________.
A. aspects B. problems C. procedures D. products 
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Câu 43. Which statement is NOT true according to the passage?


A. Local languages can’t unite and create as much wealth as national languages.
B. State education is obligatory to ensure young people to speak and work in their
regional languages.
C. Lack of language skills causes a negative effect on the quality of PhD students’
research. 
D. Each citizen has their right to decide whether they want to speak a minority
language or not. 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions. 
Câu 44. "Please don't leave until I come back", Sarah said.
A. Sarah suggested not leaving until she comes back.
B. Sarah asked us to leave until she came back.
C. Sarah told us not to leave until she came back. 
D. Sarah offered to leave until she came back. 
Câu 45. The weather has been terrible recently. I am very depressed now.
A. If the weather had not been terrible lately, I wouldn't be so depressed now.
B. If the weather hasn't been terrible recently, I won't be so depressed now.
C. If the weather hadn't been terrible recently, I wouldn't have been so depressed
now. 
D. If the weather had been more terrible recently, I would be depressed now. 
Câu 46. I eat a lot. I cannot keep fit.
A. I eat more and more and become fitter and fitter.
B. The less I eat, the fitter I become.
C. The more I eat, the less fit I become. 
D. I become fit not only because I eat a lot. 
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the option that best completes following
exchanges. 
Câu 47. - “I like to work part-time for a non-profit organization this summer.”
- “_____________________.”
A. Me too. I'm thinking of applying for 'Hope'. B. I do, but I don't have enough
time for studying.
C. That's great. You have been coming of age. D. Is that all? How about using
time wisely? 
Câu 48. - Phúc: “I am offered the job at Vietravel.”
- Thomas: “_______________.”
A. Good Heavens! B. Congratulations!
C. Good luck! D. Never mind, better luck next time! 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions. 
Câu 49. We came in the room. Our boss was sitting in the front desk.
A. We came in the room, our boss was sitting in the front desk.
B. When we came in the room, our boss had been sitting in the front desk.
C. When we came in the room, in the front desk was sitting our boss. 
D. Hardly had we come in the room when our boss sat in the front desk. 
Câu 50. Sara's classmates said that she littered on the school yard. She denied it.
A. Sara denied having littered on the school yard.
B. Sara denied her friends' littering on the school yard.
C. Having littered on the school yard, Sara's classmates denied it. 
D. As Sara denied it, her classmates said that she littered on the school yard. 
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Bộ đề chuẩn cấu ĐỀ DỰ ĐOÁN KÌ THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2020


trúc Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
ĐỀ SỐ 5

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 
Câu 1. A. bachelor B. chapter C. chemistry D. teacher 
Câu 2. A. bushes B. wishes C. researches D. headaches 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. 
Câu 3. A. upset B. preserve C. rhino D. expand 
Câu 4. A. benefit B. pesticide C. cinema D. aquatic 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions. 
Câu 5. Hoang ______ his email four times a week in order not to miss anything important.
A. checks B. will check C. is checking D. check 
Câu 6. We're best friends as we have a ______ interest in music.
A. passion B. passionately C. passionless D. passionate 
Câu 7. However, some scientists argue that the historical evidence shows that over time the
Earth heats ______ and cools ______ naturally.
A. up - away B. away – down C. up - down D. down - up 
Câu 8. Everyone can help the needy by making a/ an ______ to a charity organization.
A. volunteer B. donation C. effort D. fund 
Câu 9. They ______ your money if you haven't kept your receipt.
A. won't refund B. didn’t refund C. no refund D. not refund 
Câu 10. The second-hand car Patrick bought was almost new ______ it was made in the
1995s.
A. or B. because C. although D. however 
Câu 11. People demand higher wages because prices are ______ all the time.
A. rising B. progressing C. growing D. exceeding 
Câu 12. What measures have been ______ to control traffic jam at rush hours?
A. imagined B. taken C. done D. carried 
Câu 13. He left on ______ 10 o'clock train yesterday to see his father who was taken to
______ hospital last week when he broke his right leg.
A. the-the B. the-a C. a-a D. the-0 
Câu 14. Ann was very surprised to find the door unlocked. She remembered ______ it before
leaving.
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A. to lock B. having locked C. to have locked D. she locks 


Câu 15. I had a ______ chat with my manager and gave him an update on the project.
A. brief B. short C. quick D. lull 
Câu 16. It’s normal for small businesses to operate at a ______ for the first couple of years
before they start to break even.
A. loss B. failure C. luck D. loose 
Câu 17. Mary expected ______ to her dreamy university, but she wasn't.
A. to admit B. admitting C. to be admitted D. being admitted 
Câu 18. These thought-provoking poems ______ questions about what it means to love
unconditionally.
A. draw B. raise C. make D. give 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word (5) in each of the following questions. 
Câu 19. Both CARE and Oxfam organizations have programmes to help people in
underdeveloped countries better their lives.
A. make B. risk C. improve D. start 
Câu 20. Some tourist areas have suffered from some environmental damage.
A. covered B. finished C. taken D. undergone 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 
Câu 21. From my point of View, parental divorce can cause lasting negative consequences
for children.
A. beginning of a marriage B. the situation of not marrying
C. single person D. ending of a marriage 
Câu 22. Cutting down on energy use is the best way to help reduce global warming.
A. Shrinking B. Declining C. Decreasing D. Increasing 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Câu 23. - Mai: "How fashionable a pair of trainers you have!”
- Nam: "_________________."
A. Do you want to know where I bought them?
B. Thanks for your compliment.
C. I know it's fashionable. 
D. Yes, of course. 
Câu 24. - A: "What a beautiful wedding dress you are wearing today, Daisy!"
- B: “____________________.”
A. I'm sorry to hear that. B. Thanks, it's nice of you to say so.
C. Don't mention it. D. Thanks for your gift! 
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each the numbered blanks. 
At present, single-parent families ought to be of great focus, be recognized and supported as
they are a growing family form and should not be an afterthought in family, economic and
labor market policies. Single parent families should be (25) _______ considered and
addressed in all family policy discussions and decisions. (26)________, home-care cash
allowances, which are paid to a parent who abstains from employment to take care for her
child at home, can have significant consequences encouraging lower levels of female
employment among single-parent families, (27)________ in turn results in higher childhood
poverty. In this regard, work-life balance policies and workplace practices also need to
(28)________ a single-parent perspective, for example, the impact of non-standard work
hours when childcare is not available.
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The provision of educational and skill-building opportunities and affordable quality day care
become even more urgent in families with single parents. Such families should have a higher
priority and subsidized access to childcare facilities. Governmental agencies should be
established (29)________ child support payment from non-resident parents in case of
conflicts, disagreements or delayed payments, e.g., after a divorce or separation.
(Adapted from http://www.socialtrendsinstitute.org/)
Câu 25. A. implicitly B. clearly C. indirectly D. completely 
Câu 26. A. For instance B. However C. Moreover D. Therefore 
Câu 27. A. whoB. whose C. which D. that 
Câu 28. A. take responsible for B. take in hand
C. take no notice of D. take account of 
Câu 29. A. to facilitate B. facilitating C. facilitated D. facilitate 
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to
each of the question. 
The world’s oldest post office, which has been operating in Sanquhar, Scotland, for more
than 300 years, faces an uncertain future. Current owner and stamp collector, Manzoor Alam,
and his wife, Nazra, have been forced to put the business and its accompanying cottage on
the market due to ill health.
The Alams are “heartbroken” to leave the post office, and are concerned that if a buyer
cannot be found its rich history could be lost. “It was my husband who was always the one
most interested in stamps and the postal service but over the last few years of working here it
has grown on me too,” said Mrs Alam. The couple are the post office’s 16th postmasters, and
if they become the last, the title will fall to a Stockholm branch, which opened in 1720.
Dumfries and Galloway councillor, Andrew Wood, said lots of rural areas were struggling to
keep their post offices open. He said it would be a “sad day” if the business folded. “I was
wondering if the community could arrange a buyout but it shouldn’t come down to that,” he
said. “We’re a wealthy country and should be able to have them in good-sized towns.”
The property is on the market for £275,000, and includes a three-bed cottage with two
bathrooms, a large living room, and garden with outbuildings. Agent Humberstones suggests
the outbuilding could be a holiday let, tea room or postal museum, as Mr Alam had planned.
“My ambition is to promote the rich heritage of the past by establishing a postal museum —
the only one in Scotland — and combining it with a modern business, securing this wonderful
post office for future generations,’” he had said when he took on the business.
(Source: https://www.countrylife.co.uk/) 
Câu 30. Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. The world’s oldest post office facing prospect of closure.
B. The longest-standing post office closed due to weather.
C. The world’s oldest post office re-opening this month. 
D. The longest-standing post office got revamping. 
Câu 31. The word “accompanying” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. attending B. coinciding C. supported D. associated 
Câu 32. According to paragraph 2, what is NOT mentioned about the owners of Sanquhar
post office?
A. They are the 15 successor of the structure.
th

B. They are married as husband and wife.


C. They are the last postmasters of the place. 
D. Mrs Alam slowly displayed her love for the post office. 
Câu 33. The word “them” in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. rural areas B. post offices C. outbuildings D. postmasters 
Câu 34. According to paragraph 4, what is NOT included in the premises?
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A. A yard. B. A museum. C. A common rooms. D. Two washrooms. 


Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to
each of the question. 
Many people see large urban cities as a wonder of human imagination and creativity. They
represent how far the human population has come in terms of community development. Many
positive things come from urbanization, but there are also negatives. This article will discuss
and present data on the implications of urbanization on the physical health of humans living
in these large urban areas.
As it would be expected, developing countries tend to see more negative physical health
effects than modern countries in regard to urbanization. One example of a developing country
experiencing these problems is China. China is a country that in the past 30–40 years went
from being an agrarian based society to a significant industrialized country. This
industrialization has in effect caused the need for more centralized cities, centralized meaning
having lots of jobs and living spaces within a close proximity. This is what is known as
urbanization. In most recent decades, since China’s change to being more of an industrial
based economy, the country has experienced record high numbers of people migrating within
its borders. In effect, the number of cities with over 500,000 people has more than doubled.
These migrations are typically of people from rural areas of China moving to the new urban
areas. Due to this large influx in the urban population, there are many possibilities for health
challenges among these people.
One very common and fairly obvious negative aspect of highly congested urban areas is air
pollution. Air pollution is defined as any harmful substance being suspended in the air. This
could include particulate matter, most commonly attributed to industrial plants and refineries
waste, or chemicals like CO2 or Methane (which are also products of plants and refineries as
well as cars and other modes of transportation). Due to a vast number of people in these
urbanized cities, the air pollution is known to be very extreme. These conditions can lead to
many different health problems such as: Asthma, cardiovascular problems or disease, and
different types of cancer (most commonly lung cancer). When exposed to these conditions for
a prolonged period of time, one can experience even more detrimental health effects like:
the acceleration of aging, loss of lung capacity and health, being more susceptible to
respiratory diseases, and a shortened life span.
Another way that urbanization affects the populations’ health is people’s change in diet. For
instance, urban cities tend to have lots of accessible, quick, and easy to get food. This food is
also more than likely not as high quality as well as contains a large amount of sodium and
sugar. Because this food is so accessible, people tend to eat it more. This increase in
consumption of low quality food can then lead to diabetes, hypertension, heart disease,
obesity, or many other health conditions.
(Adapted from https://medium.com) 
Câu 35. Which of the following could be served as the best title for the passage?
A. Urbanization – Pros and cons
B. Urbanization – How people’s health is impacted?
C. Urban cities – The new opportunity for community development 
D. Developing countries – The fastest urbanization 
Câu 36. What does the phrase “these problems” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. industrialized countries B. lots of jobs and living spaces
C. immigrants D. negative physical health effects 
Câu 37. According to paragraph 2, which of the following is TRUE about China?
A. This is a developed country in the past 30-40 years.
B. The population of cities now more than doubles that in the past.
C. Most of the new urban areas’ populations are the emigrants from remote places.
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  D. Because of urbanization, more immigrants find their ways to this country. 


Câu 38. The word “congested” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. overcrowded B. sparse C. contaminated D. fresh 
Câu 39. The word “detrimental” in paragraph 3 mostly means ___________.
A. beneficial B. positive C. harmful D. dangerous 
Câu 40. The following are the air pollution sources mentioned in paragraph 3, EXCEPT
___________.
A. industrial factories B. refineries waste C. chemicals D. sewage 
Câu 41. Why are urban populations easy to get diseases from food, according to the last
paragraph?
A. Because of the low quality and the high proportion of sodium and sugar in this
food.
B. Because the way people get this food is rather accessible, quick and easy.
C. Because this food is so delicious that people have a tendency to eat more than
normal. 
D. Because of the change in people’s diet. 
Câu 42. What can be inferred from the passage?
A. Living in urban areas for a long time will make the life expectancy of inhabitants
shorten.
B. One of the negative health effects comes from the overpopulation in industrialized
countries.
C. People in developed countries suffer less harmful health effects from urbanization
than those in developing nations. 
D. The bad health effects from urbanization are not greater than the benefits it brings
to people in urban cities. 
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions. 
Câu 43. I wish to publicly record my gratitude to those whose support and assistance were
made this possible.
A. wish B. publicly record C. to those D. were made 
Câu 44. Viet Nam was the first lndochinese country joining ASEAN, and its move helped
end confrontation between the lndochinese party and ASEAN.
A. was B. joining C. confrontation D. its move 
Câu 45. Anyone who gambles on the stock exchange has to be prepared to loose money.
A. Anyone who B. on C. has to be D. to loose money 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions. 
Câu 46. “We saw a strange man in the garden,” they told their son.
A. They told their son that we had seen a strange man in the garden.
B. They told their son that they had seen a strange man in the garden.
C. They told their son that we saw a strange man in the garden. 
D. They told their son that they saw a strange man in the garden. 
Câu 47. Nobody in my class is as outgoing as I am.
A. I am as outgoing as nobody in my class. B. I am the more outgoing than nobody
in my class.
C. I am the most outgoing person in my class. D. I am not as outgoing as people
in my class. 
Câu 48. It is pointless to ask me about it because I know nothing.
A. It's no use asking me about it because I know nothing.
B. It's no use to ask me about it because I know nothing.
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C. It's not use asking me about it because I know nothing. 


D. It's not use to ask me about it because I know nothing. 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions. 
Câu 49. It’s cold outside and my leg hurts. I haven’t been out for weeks.
A. I haven't been out for weeks, which makes the weather cold and my leg bad.
B. The weather is cold and my leg is bad as a result of my stay indoors for weeks.
C. Due to the cold weather and my bad leg, I haven't been out for weeks. 
D. What makes the weather cold and my leg bad is my stay indoors for weeks. 
Câu 50. His Wife phoned him early in the morning. She didn’t want him to forget to bring
along the document.
A. His wife phoned him early in the morning lest he would forget to bring along the
document.
B. His wife phoned him early in the morning so that she wanted him to bring along
the document.
C. His wife phoned him early in the morning when she didn't want him to bring along
the document. 
D. His wife phoned him early in the morning though she didn't want him to forget to
bring along the document. 

Bộ đề chuẩn cấu ĐỀ DỰ ĐOÁN KÌ THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2020


trúc
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
ĐỀ SỐ 6

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose
underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following
questions.
Question 1. A. scholarship B. architect C. cherish D. chorus
Question 2. A. honest B. honor C. vehicle D. height

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from
the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. private B. protect C. reform D. regard
Question 4. A. policeman B. eyewitness C. copyright D. dressmaker
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Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each
of the following questions.
Question 5. Our line of designer clothing is more expensive than____________ of our
competitor.
A. this B. those C. that D. their
Question 6. The boat was sailing north when a terrible storm____________.
A. was breaking B. would break C. had broken D. broke
Question 7. It____________that neither the passengers nor the driver was injured in the
crash
A. was announced B. is announcing C. is announced D. was
announcing
Question 8. After____________goodbye to her friends, she got onto the bus.
A. to be said B. being said C. having said D. said
Question 9. It’s high time we____________these mice.
A. are getting rid of B. are going to get rid of
C. get rid of D. got rid of
Question 10. The lady____________design had been chosen stepped to the platform to
receive
the award.
A. whom B. whose C. that D. which
Question 11. Professor Smith explained the lecture slowly____________.
A. as soon as his students understood it clearly
B. so that his students can understand it clearly
C. unless his students fail to understand it clearly
D. so that his students could understand it clearly
Question 12. Put all the toys away____________someone slips and falls on them.
A. provided that B. unless C. in case D. so long as
Question 13. The interviews with parents showed that the vast majority
were____________of teachers.
A. support B. supportive C. supporter D. supporting
Question 14. Some____________animals become tame if they get used to people.
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A. wild B. domestic C. endangered D. rare


Question 15. She made a big____________about not having a window seat on the plane.
A. fuss B. complaint C. interest D. excitement
Question 16. After the robbery of the bank, the police____________of the robbers and
arrested
the whole band.
A. kept pace B. took notice C. made use D. kept track
Question 17. After a good nights sleep he woke up feeling as fresh as____________and
eager to
start work again.
A. fruitB. a daisy C. a kitten D. a maiden
Question 18. Bill seems unhappy about his job because he doesn’t get____________ his
boss.
A. up to B. on for C. on well with D. in with

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 19. If I wasn’t been wearing the seatbelt, I’d have been seriously injured.
A. wasn’t B. wearing C. I’d D. seriously injured
Question 20. The receptionist said I must fill in that form before I attended the interview.
A. The B. I must C. that form D. attended
Question 21. They had a discussion about training not only the new employees but also
giving them some challenges.
A. about B. training not only C. giving D. some changes

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest
in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 22. Mary exclaimed that the singer’s voice was so sweet.
A. “How sweet is the singer’s voice?” said Mary.
B. “What a sweet voice the singer has” said Mary.
C. “How sweet voice the singer is” said Mary.
D. “What a sweet voice the singer is” said Mary.
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Question 23. Without skillful surgery he would not have survived the operation.
A. But for skillful surgery he would have survived the operation.
B. With skillful surgery he would have survived the operation.
C. Had it not been for skillful surgery he would have survived the operation.
D. He wouldn’t have survived the operation if it hadn’t been for skillful surgery.
Question 24. The situation was so embarrassing that she did not know what to do.
A. It was such an embarrassing situation; however, she did not know what to do.
B. So embarrassing was the situation that she did not know what to do.
C. So embarrassing the situation was that she did not know what to do.
D. She did not know what to do, though it was not an embarrassing situation.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 25. Laura practiced playing the instrument a lot. She could hardly improve
her performance
A. However much Laura practiced playing the instrument, she could hardly perform
any better.
B. As soon as Laura practiced playing the instrument a lot, she could perform much
better 
C . Had Laura practiced playing the instrument a lot, she could have performed much
better.
D. Hardly had Laura practiced playing the instrument a lot when she could improve
her performance.
Question 26. The boy lost several of his fingers because of firecrackers. The doctors are
operating on him.
A. The boy who lost several of his fingers because of firecrackers is being operating
on.
B. The boy whom the doctors are operating on him lost several of his fingers because
of firecrackers.
C. The boy was whom the doctors are operating on him lost several of his fingers
because of firecrackers.
D. The doctors are operating on the boy who lost several of his fingers because of
firecrackers. 
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Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response
to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 27. Bill and Jerry are in a coffee shop.
- Bill: “Can I get you another drink.”
- Jerry: “____________”
A. No, it isn’t B. Not just now C. No, I’ll think it over D. Forget it
Question 28. Mary and her son are in the kitchen.
- Mary: “Watch out or you’ll hurt yourself!”
- Son: “____________”
A. Yes, I won’t do that again B. That’s a good idea
C. Thank you! D. I totally agree with you.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 29. The game of life is a lot like football. You have to tackle your problems, block
your fears, and score your points when you get the opportunity.
A. have B. take C. gainD. fulfill
Question 30. Because of a piece of paper in the soup bowl, the old lady raised a ballyhoo
about it at the restaurant.
A. made a fussB. appeased C. applauded D. complained

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 31. His physical condition was not an impediment to his career as a violinist. He
has won a lot of prizes.
A. advantage B. obstacle C. barrier D. disadvantage
Question 32. She told him she’d spent all her savings but he didn’t bat an eyelid.
A. didn’t tell anything B. showed surprise
C. didn’t care D. refused to listen

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word for each of the blanks from 33 to 37.
Tattooing is an old art. Tattooing is an old art. In ancient Greece, people who had tattoos
were (33) ____________as members of the upper classes. On the other hand, tattooing was
banned in Europe by the early Christians, (34) thought that it was a sinful thing to do. It was
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not (35) ____________ the late 18th century, when Captain Cook saw South Sea
Islander decorating their bodies with tattoos that attitudes began to change. Sailors came back
from these islands with pictures of Christ on their backs and from then on, tattooing gained
(36) ____________popularity. A survey by the French army in 1881 showed that among the
387 men questioned there were 1,333 designs.
Nowadays, not everybody finds tattoos acceptable. Some people thing that getting one is silly
because tattoos are more or less permanent. There is also some (37) ____________about
catching a blood disease from unsterilized needles. Even for those who do want a tattoo, the
process of getting one is not painless, but the final result, in their eyes, is worth the pain.
Question 33. A. supposed B. realised C. heldD. regarded
Question 34. A. whoB. that C. theyD. whose
Question 35. A. by far B. since C. because D. until
Question 36. A. at B. on C. in D. of
Question 37. A. danger B. trouble C. concern D. threat
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 38 to 42.
Jupiter is the largest and most massive planet and is fifth in order of distance from the sun. It
is well placed for observation for several months in every year and on average is the brightest
of the planets apart from Venus, though for relatively brief periods Mars may outshine it.
Jupiter’s less than 10-hour rotation period gives it the shortest day in the solar system in so
far as the principal planets are concerned. There are no true seasons on Jupiter because the
axial inclination to the perpendicular of the orbital plane is only just over 3°-less than that for
any other planet.
The most famous mark on Jupiter is the Great Red spot. It has shown variations in both
intensity and color, and at times it has been invisible, but it always returns after a few years.
At its greatest extent it may be 40,000 kilometers long and 14,000 kilometers wide, so its
surface area is greater than that of Earth. Though the latitude of the Red Spot varies little, it
drifts about in longitude. Over the past century the total longitudinal drift has amounted to
approximately 1200°. The latitude is generally very close to -22°. It was once thought that the
Red Spot might be a solid or semisolid body floating in Jupiter’s outer gas. However, the
Pioneer and Voyager results have refuted that idea and proven the Red Spot to be a
phenomenon of Jovian meteorology. Its longevity may well due to its exceptional size, but
there are signs that it is decreasing in size, and it may not be permanent. Several smaller red
spots have been seen occasionally but have not lasted.
Question 38. According to the passage, which planet typically shines the most brightly?
A. Earth B. Jupiter C. Venus D. Mars
Question 39. The word "it" in paragraph 2 refers to ____________
A. Jupiter B. The Great Red Spot C. intensity D. color
Question 40. The word "exceptional" in paragraph 2 mostly means____________
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A. extreme B. sustainable C. temporary D. infrequent


Question 41. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Jupiter is bigger than all other planet in the solar system
B. A day in Jupiter is nearly 10 hours long
C. The Red Great Spot moves more vertically than horizontally
D. Scientists have proof showing that smaller red spots are increasing their size to
become other Great Red Spots.
Question 42. The passage was probably taken from____________
A. an art journal B. a geology magazine
C. a high school textbook D. an archaeology book

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
Mickey Mantle was one of the greatest baseball players of all time. He played for the New
York Yankees in their years of glory. From the time Mantle began to play professionally in
1951 to his last year in 1968, baseball was the most popular game in the United States. For
many people, Mantle symbolized the hope, prosperity, and confidence of America at that
time.
Mantle was a fast and powerful player, a “switch-hitter” who could bat both right-handed and
left-handed. He won game after game, one World Series championship after another, for his
team. He was a wonderful athlete, but this alone cannot explain Americas fascination with
him. Perhaps it was because he was a handsome, red-haired country boy, the son of a poor
miner from Oklahoma. His career, from the lead mines of the West to the heights of success
and fame, was a fairy-tale version of the American dream. Or perhaps it was because
America always loves a “natural”: a person who wins without seeming to try, whose talent
appears to come from an inner grace. That was Mickey Mantle.
But like many celebrities, Mickey Mantle had a private life that was full of problems. He
played without complaint despite constant pain from injuries. He lived to fulfill his father’s
dreams and drank to forget his father’s early death.
It was a terrible addiction that finally destroyed his body. It gave him cirrhosis of the liver
and accelerated the advance of liver cancer. Even when Mickey Mantle had turned away
from his old life and warned young people not to follow his example, the destructive process
could not be stopped. Despite a liver transplant operation that had all those who loved and
admired him hoping for a recovery, Mickey Mantle died of cancer at the age of 63.
Question 43. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Mickey Mantle’s success and his private life full of problems
B. Mickey Mantle as the greatest baseball player of all time
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C. Mickey Mantle and the history of baseball


D. Mickey Mantle and his career as a baseball player
Question 44. It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that Mantle____________
A. introduced baseball into the US
B. earned a lot of money from baseball
C. had to try hard to be a professional player
D. played for New York Yankees all his life
Question 45. The word “this” in paragraph 2 refers to____________.
A. Mantles being fascinated by many people
B. Mantle’s being a wonderful athlete
C. Mantles being a “switch-hitter”
D. Mantle’s being a fast and powerful player
Question 46. The word “fulfill” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to____________.
A. achieve what is hoped for, wished for, or expected
B. do something in the way that you have been told
C. do what you have promised or agreed to do
D. get closer to something that you are chasing
Question 47. which of the following is mentioned as the main cause of the destruction of
Mantle’s body?
A. His way of life B. His loneliness
C. His own dream D. His liver transplant operation
Question 48. The word “cirrhosis” in paragraph 5 probably means____________
A. a danger B. an operation C. the destruction D. a serious disease
Question 49. All of the following are true about Mantle EXCEPT____________ .
A. He was born into a poor family but later achieved fame and success
B. He was so severely addicted to alcohol that he couldn’t give it up to the last days of
his life 
C. He could hit with the bat on either side of his body
D. His father’s early death exerted a negative influence on him.
Question 50. It can be inferred from the passage that for most Americans____________.
A. success in Mantle’s career was difficult to believe
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B. Mantle had a lot of difficulty achieving fame and success 


C. success in Mantle’s career was unnatural
D. Mantle had to be trained hard to become a good player.

Bộ đề chuẩn cấu ĐỀ DỰ ĐOÁN KÌ THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2020


trúc Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
ĐỀ SỐ 7

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 
Câu 1. A. August B. gerund C. purpose D. suggest 
Câu 2. A. solutions B. hospitals C. families D. projects 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. 
Câu 3. A. patient B. release C. martyr D. hopeless 
Câu 4. A. infectious B. privacy C. principle D. charity 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Câu 5. We take _____ in doing the washing-up, cleaning the floor and watering the flowers.
A. turn B. actions C. measures D. turns 
Câu 6. Acupuncture is part of traditional Chinese medicine and _____ in China for thousands
of years.
A. has been used B. has using C. has used D. has been using 
Câu 7. Most of the students in that special school are making good progress, but Michael is a
_____ case.
A. hopefully B. hopeless C. hopeful D. hopelessly 
Câu 8. In India, in the old days, _____ girl’s family used to give _____ boy's family a gift
like money or jewelry.
A. a-a B. a-the C. the-a D. the-the 
Câu 9. After graduating from university, I want to ______ my father's footsteps.
A. follow in B. succeed in C. go after D. keep up 
Câu 10. I don't know what to say to break the _____ with someone I've just met at the party.
A. air B. ice C. leg D. rule 
Câu 11. The director informed that no candidate ______ all the criteria for the administrative
position.
A. completed B. fulfilled C. achieved D. suited 
Câu 12. After the visit to that special school, we _____ friends with some students with
reading disabilities.
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A. acquainted B. had C. made D. realized 


Câu 13. The archaeological excavation _____ to the discovery of the ancient city lasted
several years.
A. led B. leading C. to lead D. being led 
Câu 14. If Mr. David _____ at the meeting, he would make a speech.
A. were B. had been C. was D. has been 
Câu 15. Australia is the greenest country in the world _____ the people are environmentally
friendly.
A. because B. therefore C. however D. yet 
Câu 16. I wanted to say goodbye to Jerry, but he __________.
A. was already left B. already left
C. had already been leaving D. had already left 
Câu 17. Since moving to another country, some people decide to follow the customs of the
new country, while _____ prefer to keep their own customs.
A. another B. other C. others D. the other 
Câu 18. I have a _____ schedule this semester - classes from Monday to Friday, 7 AM to 7
PM!
A. consuming B. grueling C. ungodly D. tight 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word (3) in each of the following questions. 
Câu 19. Stop the degradation of the planet's natural environment and build a future in which
humans live in harmony with nature.
A. coexist peacefully with B. fall in love with
C. agree with D. cooperate with 
Câu 20. We have achieved considerable results in the economic field, such as high economic
growth, stability and significant poverty alleviation over the past few years.
A. achievement B. development C. prevention D. reduction 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 
Câu 21. Then the strangest thing happens - Will and Marcus strike up an unusual friendship.
A. cover up B. give up C. make up D. remain 
Câu 22. A cost-effective way to fight crime is that instead of making punishments more
severe, the authorities should increase the odds that lawbreakers will be apprehended and
punished quickly.
A. economical B. practical C. profitable D. worthless 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the
following exchanges. 
Câu 23. Hai: “I've seen John at the workshop on communication skills.”
Phong: “__________________.”
A. I see. I'll call him.
B. The workshop was very useful.
C. That can't be John because he's in Paris now. 
D. No, I don't think so. 
Câu 24. John: “Last year, we went to one of those resorts where everything – food and drink
- was free.”
Thomas: “____________________.”
A. Wow! I didn't realize you were such snobs!
B. Really? I prefer to go somewhere a bit quieter.
C. It sounds great. I've never been on an all-inclusive holiday. 
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D. If you want all your meals and drinks included, you can stay on an all-inclusive
basis. 
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. 
Sir Isaac Newton, the English scientist and mathematician, was one of the most important
figures of the 17th century scientific revolution. One of his greatest achievement was the (25)
_____ of the three laws of motion, which are still used today. But he also had a very unusual
personality. Some people would say he was actually insane. 
His father died before he was born, and his mother soon remarried. The young Isaac hated his
stepfather so much that he once (26) ____________ to burn his house down - when his
stepfather and mother were still inside! Fortunately he did not, and he went on to graduate
from Cambridge without being thrown into prison. 
Isaac's first published work was a theory of light and color. When another scientist wrote a
paper criticizing this theory, Isaac flew into an uncontrollable rage. The scientist (27)
_____________ for the criticism was a man called Robert Hooke. He was head of the Royal
Society, and one of the most respected scientists in the country. (28)______________, this
made no difference to Isaac, who refused to speak to him for over a year. 
The simple fact was that Isaac found it impossible to have a calm discussion with anyone. As
soon as someone said something that he disagreed with, he would lose his (29)
____________. For this reason he lived a large part of his life isolated from other scientists. It
is unlikely that many of them complained. 
(Source: https://www.biography.com/scientist/isaac-newton)
Câu 25. A. discovery B. research C. findings D. inventions 
Câu 26. A. shouted B. frightened C. threatened D. warned 
Câu 27. A. responsible B. reasonable C. guilty D. attributable 
Câu 28. A. Although B. However C. Despite D. What is more 
Câu 29. A. anger B. mood C. character D. temper 
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct
answer to each of the question. 
Some doctors think that you should drink a glass of water each morning. You should drink
this water first thing, before doing anything else. The temperature of the water should be
similar to body temperature; neither too hot nor too cold. 
Why should you drink this water? Water helps your body in many ways. It helps clean out
your kidneys. It prepares your stomach for digestion. Water can also help your intestines
work better. After drinking water, the intestines can more easily take out nutrients from our
food. Water also helps us go to the bathroom more easily.
Scientists suggest that people take in 1,600 milliliters of water each day. But don’t drink all
of that water in one sitting. If you do, your kidneys will have to work much harder to
eliminate it. It’s better to drink some in the morning and some in the afternoon. Some people
think it’s better to drink between meals and not during meals. They think water dilutes the
juices produced in our stomachs. This can interfere with normal digestion. 
Are you drinking enough water every day? Check the color of your urine. If it is light yellow,
you are probably drinking enough. If your urine is very dark yellow, you probably need to
drink more water. A little more water each day could make you much healthier.
(Adapted from Reading Challenge 1 by Casey Malarcher and Andrea Janzen)
Câu 30. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. The importance of water B. The advice of the doctors
C. How to drink water correctly? D. The best amount of water to drink 
Câu 31. According to the passage, water is good for the following organs of the body,
EXCEPT ___________.
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A. kidneys B. stomach C. intestines D. livers 


Câu 32. The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ___________.
A. your body B. your kidneyC. water D. your stomach 
Câu 33. The word “eliminate” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______________.
A. preserve B. remove C. absorb D. process 
Câu 34. Which of the following is NOT true?
A. The first thing you should do every morning is to drink water.
B. You shouldn’t drink too much water at the same time.
C. Drinking water while having meals may interfere with normal digestion. 
D. You need to drink more water if your urine is light yellow. 
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct
answer to each of the question. 
Grandparents are becoming the forgotten generation, with youngsters now too busy to listen
to their stories from the olden days.
A study of 1,000 five to 18 year-olds reveals just 21 per cent will visit their older relatives to
hear about how their lives were different in the past; such as where they worked, how it was
living in the war, and how they met the love of their life. More than half of youths have no
idea what job their grandparent did before retirement – admitting they’d never thought to ask.
Sadly, one in 10 admitted they are simply not interested in their grandmother’s or grandad’s
previous job or talents and interests, and a quarter only turn up to see them for pocket money.
But 23 per cent claim the reason they don’t know anything about their older relatives is
because they don’t really get the chance to talk properly.
Geoff Bates, spokesman for McCarthy & Stone’s Inspirational Generation campaign, said:
“We know this generation have lived full lives with heroic tales to tell and so much to offer,
but how many of us have actually thought to ask these questions of our older family
members? We want to shout about the amazing feats retirees have achieved in their lifetime
and put the spotlight on the wonderfully colorful lives of today’s older people. We are calling
on parents and children to talk to their grandparents, to find out what they have done in their
lives – and continue to do, and tell us all about it so we can give them the credit they
deserve.”
Researchers found that although 65 per cent of youngsters do see their grandparents every
single week, 37 per cent claim this is only because their parents want them to. And while 39
per cent talk to their grandparents on the phone, Facebook or Skype at least once a week – 16
per cent once a day – conversation is rarely focused on what they are doing or have done in
the past. Four in 10 kids have no idea what their grandparents proudest achievements are,
while 30 per cent don’t know if they have any special skills or talents. And 42 per cent don’t
spend any time talking about their grandparent’s history – and are therefore clueless about
what their grandmother or grandad was like when they were younger. Perhaps due to this lack
of communication and respect, just six per cent of children say they look up to their
grandparents as a role model and inspiration. However, grandchildren are agreed their
grandparents are both loving and friendly, while 43 per cent think they’re funny – with 23 per
cent admitting they often have more fun with their elderly relatives than their parents.
(Source: https://www.independent.co.uk)
Câu 35. Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?
A. Grandparents are outdated people in their families.
B. Young people now do not concern much about their grandparents.
C. Grandparents are not interested in telling stories about their life in the past any
more. 
D. Young people are too busy to take care of their grandparents. 
Câu 36. According to the study in paragraph 2, which information is NOT true?
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A. Merely over one fifth of people in the survey keep asking about the bygone time of
their grandparents.
B. Over 50% of the young don’t know about their older relatives’ professions before
superannuation.
C. Most of youths visit their grandparents to ask for money. 
D. Nearly a quarter of young people don’t have proper opportunities to converse with
their older relatives. 
Câu 37. The word “feats” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to
_________________.
A. accomplishments B. failures C. difficulties D. differences 
Câu 38. What does the word “they” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. parents B. children C. colorful lives D. grandparents 
Câu 39. It can be inferred from paragraph 3 that McCarthy & Stone’s Inspirational
Generation campaign ____________________.
A. encourages people to ask more questions about their grandparents’ jobs.
B. would like to honour the retirees with their remarkable achievements and
experienced life.
C. hopes to give recognition to the older family members. 
D. intends to retell the heroic tails of the older generation and find out what they have
done in the past. 
Câu 40. According to the last paragraph, the proportion of the young voluntarily visiting their
older family members every week is ___________________.
A. 37% B. 65% C. 28% D. 39% 
Câu 41. The author implied in the last paragraph that ____________.
A. youngsters nowadays are too indifferent with their grandparents’ lives in the
former times.
B. more youths use modern technology to keep in touch with their older generation.
C. grandchildren do not have much time to care for their elderly relatives’ special
skills and talents.
  D. lack of communication and respect is the main reason why youngsters are not
interested in what their grandparents have done in the past. 
Câu 42. The word “inspiration” in the last paragraph mostly means ________.
A. disincentive B. encumbrance C. stimulation D. hindrance 
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions. 
Câu 43. It is essential that cancer is diagnosed and treated as early as possible in order to
assure a successful cure.
A. that B. is C. treated D. to assure 
Câu 44. Having deciding on the topic of the presentation, he started finding relevant
information for it.
A. Having deciding B. presentation C. finding D. for 
Câu 45. The new trade agreement should felicitate more rapid economic growth.
A. The B. should felicitate C. more D. economic growth 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions. 
Câu 46. Tet holiday is the most interesting Vietnamese traditional festival that he's ever
attended.
A. Tet holiday is more interesting than the Vietnamese traditional festival that he’s
ever attended.
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B. He has never attended a more interesting Vietnamese traditional festival than Tet
holiday.
C. He has attended many interesting Vietnamese traditional festival including Tet
holiday. 
D. Tet holiday is one of the most interesting Vietnamese traditional festival he's ever
attended. 
Câu 47. “You didn’t lock the door this morning as I found the keys on the table when I got
home!” the woman told her son.
A. The woman scolded her son with unlocking the door that morning as she found the
key on the table.
B. The woman criticized her son for not locking the door that morning, adding that
she saw the keys on the table.
C. The Woman blamed her son for not unlocking the door that morning as she found
the key on the table. 
D. The woman reproached her son of not locking the door that morning, emphasizing
that she saw the keys on the table. 
Câu 48. Soil erosion is a result of forests being cut down carelessly.
A. That forests are being cut down carelessly results from soil erosion
B. Soil erosion contributes to forests being cut down carelessly.
C. Soil erosion results in forests being cut down carelessly. 
D. That forests are being cut down carelessly leads to soil erosion. 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions. 
Câu 49. You can feel more at ease by taking part in group dating. It’s the only way.
A. By taking part in group dating can you only feel more at ease.
B. Only by taking part in group dating can you feel more at ease.
C. The only way you are by taking part in group dating can feel more at ease. 
D. The way you can feel more at ease is taking part in only group dating. 
Câu 50. As long as you stay calm, you have nothing to fear from the talk show.
A. You have remained calm for a long time in spite of your fear of the talk show.
B. Talk shows are only intimidating for people who are not extremely calm.
C. Provided that you do not get nervous, the talk show won't go badly for you. 
D. Even if you are afraid of the talk show, it is important not to express it. 
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Bộ đề chuẩn cấu ĐỀ DỰ ĐOÁN KÌ THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2020


trúc Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
ĐỀ SỐ 8

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. obstacle B. obscure C. obsession D. oblivious
Question 2: A. agreed B. succeeded C. smiled D. loved

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from
the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. future B. involve C. prospect D. guidance
Question 4: A. reduction B. popular C. romantic D. financial

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Question 5: The better the weather is, __________.
A. the most crowded the beaches get B. the most the beaches get crowded
C. the more crowded the beaches get D. the more the beaches get crowded
Question 6: Unemployment is a serious problem in the area; there are__________jobs for
the people there.
A. a little B. a few C. few D. little
Question 7: Doctors advise people who are deficient __________Vitamin c to eat
more fruit and vegetables.
A. in B. of C. from D. for
Question 8: I suggest that the doctor__________up his mind without delay.
A. makes B. make C. made D. is to make
Question 9: Martha Thomas was an American educator who stood for
equal__________rights for women.
A. educated B. educational C. educating D. educationally
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Question 10: Books and magazines__________ around made his room very untidy
A. that lie B. laying C. which lied D. lying
Question 11: The cat was_________to wait for the mouse to come out of its hole.
A. patient enough B. so patient C. enough patient D. too patient
Question 12: _________, he would have learned how to read.
A. If he has been able to go school as a child B. If he could go to school as a child
C. Were he able to go to school as a child D. Had he been able to go to school as a
child
Question 13: He_________a terrible accident while he_________along Ben Luc Bridge.
A. see - am walking B. saw - was walking
C. was seeing - walked D. have seen - were walking
Question 14: The use of vitamin__________and herbs has become increasingly popular
among Americans.
A. components B. materials C. ingredients D. supplements
Question 15: Peter, Harry and Chuck were first, second, and third__________in the school
cross-country race.
A. respectively B. actively C. responsively D. tremendously
Question 16: The government should take__________to reduce the current high
unemployment rate.
A. steps B. measures C. changes D. solutions
Question 17: In a formal interview, it is essential to maintain good eye__________with the
interviewers.
A. link B. connection C. touch D. contact
Question 18: I know you have been working very hard today. Let’s__________and go home.
A. pull my leg B. call it a day C. put your back up D. push your luck

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19: The board of directors rejected the proposed project, explaining that it was too
expensive to be feasible at the present moment.
A. costly B. troublesome C. capable D. practicable
Question 20: A brief outline of the course and bibliography were handed out to the students
at the first meeting.
A. dispensed B. preserved C. distributed D. contributed

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21: The consequences of the typhoon were disastrous due to the lack of
precautionary measures.
A. damaging B. beneficial C. severe D. physical
Question 22: Though I persuaded my boss to solve a very serious problem in the new
management system, he just made light of it.
A. completely ignored B. treated as important
C. disagreed with D. discovered by chance

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best
completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 23: Ella is asking Eric about self-study.
- Ella: “Do you think people with self-education can succeed nowadays?”
- Eric: “__________because they tend to be very independent and self-disciplined.”
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A. I’m not so sure about that B. That’s what I was thinking


C. It’s out of the question D. I don’t think it’s right
Question 24: Stella and her husband are about to go out.
- Stella: “Should we take a taxi or a bus to the mall?”
- Stella’s husband: “__________. It’s impossible to take a taxi during rush hours.”
A. Let’s take a taxi B. Let’s take a bus
C. Good idea D. Yes, we should
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to
29.
Amy Tan was born on February 19, 1952 in Oaldand, California. Tan grew up in
Northern California, (25)__________when her father and older brother both died from brain
tumors in 1966, she moved with her mother and younger brother to Europe, where she
attended high school in Montreux, Switzerland. She returned to the United States for college.
After college, Tan worked as a language development consultant and as a corporate freelance
writer. In 1985, she wrote the “Rules of the Game” for a writing workshop, which laid the
early (26) __________for her first novel The Joy Luck Club. Published in 1989, the book
explored the (27) __________between Chinese women and their Chinese-American
daughters, and became the longest-running New York Times bestseller for that year. The Joy
Luck Club received numerous awards, including the Los Angeles Times Book Award. It has
been translated into 25 languages, including Chinese, and was made into a major motion
picture for (28) __________Tan co-wrote the screenplay. Tan’s other works have also been
(29) __________into several different forms of media.
Question 25: A. however B. moreover C. so D. but
Question 26: A. preparation B. baseC. source D. foundation
Question 27: A. relate B. relative C. relationshipD. relatively
Question 28: A. whom B. that C. what D. which
Question 29: A. adjoined B. adapted C. adjusted D. adopted

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34.
In this era of increased global warming and diminishing fossil fuel supplies, we must
begin to put a greater priority on harnessing alternative energy sources. Fortunately, there
are a number of readily available, renewable resources that are both cost-effective and earth-
friendly. Two such resources are solar power and geothermal power. Solar energy, which
reaches the earth through sunlight, is so abundant that it could meet the needs of worldwide
energy consumption 6,000 times over. And solar energy is easily harnessed through the use
of photovoltaic cells that convert sunlight into electricity. In the US alone, more than 100,000
homes are equipped with solar electric systems in the form of solar panels or solar roof tiles.
And in other parts of the world, including many developing countries, the use of solar system
is growing steadily.
Another alternative energy source, which is abundant in specific geographical areas,
is geothermal power, which creates energy by tapping heat from below the surface of the
earth. Hot water and steam that are trapped in underground pools are pumped to the surface
and used to run a generator, which produces electricity. Geothermal energy is 50,000 times
more abundant than the entire known supply of fossil fuel resources. And as with solar
power, the technology needed to utilize geothermal energy is fairly simple. A prime example
of effective geothermal use is in Iceland, a region of high geothermal activity where over 80
percent of private homes are heated by geothermal power. Solar and geothermal energy are
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just two of promising renewable alternatives to conventional energy sources. The time is long
overdue to invest in the development and use of alternative energy on a global scale.
Question 30: According to the passage, why should we consider using alternative energy
sources?
A. Because fossil fuels are no longer available.
B. Because global warming has increased the amount of sunlight that reaches the
earth.
C. Because they are free and available worldwide.
D. Because conventional energy resources are being depleted, and they cause
environmental damage
Question 31: The word “harnessing” in the first paragraph can best be replaced
by__________?
A. capturing B. harassing C. depleting D. exporting
Question 32: All of the following statements are true about geothermal energy
EXCEPT__________.
A. it is abundant in specific geographical areas
B. it is more abundant than fossil fuel resources
C. it is used without success in Iceland
D. it is a promising renewable alternative
Question 33: The word “which” in paragraph 2 refers to__________.
A. hot water B. steam C. a generator D. the surface
Question 34: What is the main topic of this passage?
A. The benefits of solar and wind power over conventional energy sources.
B. How energy resources are tapped from nature.
C. Two types of alternative energy sources that should be further utilized.
D. Examples of the use of energy sources worldwide.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
When a popular book gets made into a movie, there will always be a debate about
whether the novel or film is better. The filmmakers always have to consider certain things: do
they want to follow the book closely to please dedicated readers, or do they want to change
parts of the book if they don’t translate well on-screen? No matter what they do, there will
always be people who feel the movie will never be as good as the book, people who will love
the movie without ever reading the book, and people who enjoy both.
The vampire series Twilight, by Stephenie Meyer, became so popular that movie
companies wanted to produce it for the big screen. Most Twilight fans were excited about
seeing characters such as Edward and Bella “come to life,” but there were other fans who did
not trust the movie script. They assumed the scriptwriters would change parts of the story to
make it seem more interesting as a movie.
By the time the first Twilight movie was released, millions of people had read the
series. Many of these people went on to watch the film, which made $35.7 million just on its
opening day. While many fans and critics liked it and said the movie more or less followed
the book’s storyline, some fans were not impressed. One change that angered them was that
certain sound effects were added to the movie, such as a “whooshing” sound when the
vampires jumped. This was not mentioned in the book, and many fans felt that it was too
distracting.
Those who liked the movie said they enjoyed the light mood and excitement. This
was very different from the book. The writing in Twilight is dark and gloomy, like many
vampire novels. The movie, however, added more energy to the story and more personality to
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the characters. For example, many characters in the book are portrayed as being quiet, and
they spend most of their time at school. But in the movie, the characters are cooler and
funnier, one scene even shows them going surfing together. The director of the first movie,
Catherine Hardwicke, thought it was important for the characters to be believable. She
wanted them to have a wide variety of emotions, since the series is for, and about, teenagers.
In the end, the films were considered a success, even if there were both happy and
unhappy fans. It’s a great accomplishment to make films that are watched by millions of
people, and you can’t expect to be able to please everyone all the time.
Question 35: What best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Twilight: a Successful Novel B. Twilight: the Film and the Novel
C. Famous Books Made into Movies D. A Comparison of Movies and Books
Question 36: Which of the following is NOT considered by film-makers who make movies
out of books?
A. whether they adhere to the book closely
B. how they would change parts of the book
C. how to satisfy avid readers of the book
D. how many characters will appear in the movie
Question 37: According to the passage, what is the reason Twilight fans were excited to see
the movie?
A. to see which actors would play their favourite characters
B. to see how the story would change
C. to see how characters would be in real life
D. to see if the movie would be better than the book
Question 38: Why is vampires jumping mentioned in the passage?
A. It’s an example of a change that displeased fans.
B. It was a special effect and not real.
C. It showed that the movie was scary.
D. It’s an example of a sound effect.
Question 39: The word “translate” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to__________.
A. understand B. express in a different language
C. change into a different form D. appear
Question 40: The word “angered” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to__________.
A. affected B. made angry C. attracted D. pleased
Question 41: According to the passage, what was hardly changed in the movie compared to
the book?
A. storyline B. mood
C. personalities of characters D. sound effects
Question 42: The word “them” in paragraph 4 refers to__________.
A. directors B. actors C. characters D. fans

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: It was disappointing that almost of the guests left the wedding too early.
A                        B                         C                     D
Question 44: As seeing from the mountain top, the area looks like a picturesque harbour
town.
                               A         B               C                                D
Question 45: John announced that he could not longer tolerate the conditions of the contract
under which he was working.         A                         B                     C              

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46: “Believe me. It’s no use reading that book,” Janet told her boyfriend.
A. Janet suggested to her boyfriend that reading the book was useful.
B. Janet managed to persuade her boyfriend that reading the book was
worthwhile.
C. Janet tried to convince her boyfriend that the book was not worth reading
D. Janet opposed her boyfriend’s idea that reading the book was not useful.
Question 47: I am sure he did not know that his brother graduated with flying colors.
A. That his brother graduated with flying colors must have been appreciated by
him.
B. He cannot have known that his brother graduated with very high marks.
C. He should not have been envious of his brother’s achievement.
D. He may not know that his brother is flying gradually up in a colorful balloon.
Question 48: The teacher had only just come in the room when the fire alarm rang.
A. While the teacher was coming in the room, she heard the fire alarm ring.
B. As soon as the fire alarm had rung, the teacher came in the room.
C. Before the teacher came in the room, the fire alarm rang.
D. Hardly had the teacher come in the room when the fire alarm rang.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: He cannot lend me the book now. He has not finished reading it yet.
A. Having finished reading the book, he cannot lend it to me.
B. He cannot lend me the book until he has finished reading it.
C. As long as he cannot finish reading the book, he will lend it to me.
D. Not having finished reading the book, he will lend it to me.
Question 50: Most scientists know him well. However, very few ordinary people have heard
of him.
A. Not only scientists but also the general public know him as a big name.
B. Although he is well known to scientists, he is little known to the general
public.
C. Many ordinary people know him better than most scientists do.
D. He is the only scientist that is not known to the general public.

Bộ đề chuẩn cấu ĐỀ DỰ ĐOÁN KÌ THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2020


trúc Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
ĐỀ SỐ 9

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on you answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. whispered B. wandered C. sympathized D. sentenced
Question 2. A. compile B. facile C. facsimile D. textile
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs
from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following
questions.
Question 3. A. carpet B. country C. idea D. volume
Question 4. A. familiar B. uncertainty C. impatient D. arrogantly

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the following questions.
Question 5. I demand to know how this vase_____________, and no one is leaving till I find
out.
A. got broken B. was breaking C. has broken D. is broke
Question 6. The more you practice speaking in public, _____________.
A. the more you become confident B. the more you become confidently
C. the greater confidence you become D. the more confident you become
Question 7. It is said the Robinhood robbed_____________rich and gave the money to
poor.
A. a/ a B. a/ the C. the/ the D. the/ a
Question 8. Not only_____________among the largest animals that ever lived, but they are
also among the most intelligent.
A. some whales B. they are whales C. whales D. are whales
Question 9. _____________, he couldn’t finish that test in 60 minutes.
A. Intelligent as was the boy B. As intelligent the boy was
C. As the boy was intelligent D. Intelligent as the boy was
Question 10. There is no excuse for your late submission! You_____________the report by
last Monday.
A. should have finished B. mightn’t have finished
C. needn’t have finished D. must have finished
Question 11. My parents lent me the money. _____________, I couldn’t have afforded the
trip.
A. Therefore B. Otherwise C. Only if D. However
Question 12. The biologists have found more than one thousand types of butterflies in the
forest, _____________its special characteristics.
A. each one has B. which has C. each having D. having
Question 13. John is feeling_____________because he hasn’t had enough sleep recently.
A. irritate B. irritation C. irritably D. irritable
Question 14. Jenny has an_____________command of Japanese cuisine.
A. intensive B. utter C. impressive D. extreme
Question 15. why are you always so jealous_____________other people?
A. in B. of C. below D. on
Question 16. The head teacher has asked me to take the new boy under
my_____________and look
after him.
A. sleeves B. arm C. wing D. cloak
Question 17. The online game “Dumb ways to die” quickly_____________with young
people after
being released in 2013.
A. took on B. caught up C. caught on D. took up
Question 18. Just think! Next month you’ll be_____________and it seems like only
yesterday you
were a baby.
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A. in your teens B. in your teenage C. teenager D. at your teens

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 19. The children are extremely excited about the visit to the town where their
grandparents were born in.
A. about B. were C. where D. the town
Question 20. Chandler was shocked when his entire class seemed to come down with the
same imaginative disease.
A. was shocked B. entire class C. come down with D. imaginative disease 
Question 21. Transgender people are denied the ability to join the armed forces due to
discriminating policies implemented by the government.
A. Transgender B. are denied C. armed forces D. discriminating

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest
in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 22. “Please, let my child go!” she begged the kidnapper.
A. She begged the kidnapper to let her child to go.
B. She pleaded with the kidnapper to release her child.
C. She solemnly ordered the kidnapper to set her child free.
D. She pleaded the kidnapper to let her child go.
Question 23. Sometimes having professional assistance with your CV can increase your
chance of finding a job.
A. Having your CV professionally prepared determines whether you'll get the job or
not.
B. The prospects for finding employment can possibly be enhanced by a
professionally produced CV.
C. Having a professional help you with your CV is a sure way to find a job.
D. Without a professional CV, it is impossible to find a job
Question 24. It seems to me that we’ve taken the wrong train.
A. The trained turned out to be not the one we were supposed to have taken.
B. There is no chance that we’ll catch the train that we’re supposed to.
C. I have a feeling that this train is not the one we should be on.
D. I wish we had been more careful and taken the right train from the station.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 25. She was the first woman in the Philippines. She was elected as the
president of the country.
A. She was the first woman who is elected as the president of the Philippines.
B. She was the first woman elected as the president of the Philippines.
C. She was the first woman being elected as the president of the Philippines.
D. She was the first woman to be elected as the president of the Philippines.
Question 26. They are my two sisters. They aren’t teachers like me.
A. Unlike me, neither of my two sisters aren’t teachers.
B. They are my two sisters, both of those are teachers like me.
C. They are my two sisters, neither of whom is teacher like me.
D. They are my two sisters who neither are teachers like me.
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Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response
to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 27. Tony and Bob are talking in their classroom.
Tony: “We are buying Lily a graduation present.” - Bob: “_____________”
A. She’s out of my league. B. Can you all be more down-to-earth?
C. I’m raking in money now. D. Could I chip in?
Question 28. Mai and Joey are talking about their favorite pastimes.
Joey: “What sort of things do you like doing in your free time?” - Mai: “_____________”
A. I love checking out the shops for new clothes.
B. None. Been starved since 9 yesterday.
C. I hate shopping.
D. Nothing special. Just some photos I took on the trip to Nepal.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 29. Some operations may have to be halted unless more blood donors come
forward to help.
A. offer B. claim C. attempt D. refuse
Question 30. The natives were angry when foreigners came to their country and took over
their land.
A. migrants B. tourists C. members D. locals

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 31. Later a wine reception will be followed by a concert before guests tuck into a
banquet.
A. a formal party B. a formal conference
C. an informal party D. an enormous breakfast
Question 32. The nominating committee always meet behind closed doors, lest its
deliberations become known prematurely.
A. dangerously B. safely C. privately D. publicly

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word for each of the blanks from 33 to 37.
Left-handers are the odd ones out. Sure, lefties (33) _____________up about 10 percent of
the population - but, frankly, it seems like society has forgotten about them. Just consider all
of the right-handed gadgets, awkwardly designed desks, and cooking tools that fit
comfortably only in your right hand, what (34) _____________someone to become a
lefthand? Scientists aren’t exactly sure, but research points to a complex (35)
_____________between genes and environment.
While no exact set of “leftie genes” have been discovered, people who dominantly use their
left hands do have more left-handed family members. And researchers have found different
brain wirings in righties vs. lefties. But no matter (36) _____________it is that drives
someone to use their antipodal paw, science has also uncovered a particular set of personality
traits that lefthanded people tend to have. So for all of you lefties, leftie-loving righties, and
ambidextrous folks out there - it’s time to brush up on your left-handed knowledge and help
(37) _____________an end to leftie discrimination once and for all.
Question 33. A. consist B. account C. hold D. make
Question 34. A. causes B. makes C. gets D. does
Question 35. A. collaborate B. collaboration C. collaborating D. collaborated
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Question 36. A. which B. who C. what D. that


Question 37. A. put B. bring C. make D. take

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Trees are useful to man in three very important ways: they provide him with wood and other
products, they give him shade, and they help to prevent drought and floods.
Unfortunately, in many parts of the world man has not realized that the third of these services
is the most important. In his eagerness to draw quick profit from the trees, he has cut them
down in large numbers, only to find that without them he has lost the best friends he had.
Two thousand years ago a rich and powerful country cut down its trees to build warships,
with which to gain itself an empire. It gained the empire but, without its trees, its soil became
hard and poor. When the empire fell to pieces, the country found itself faced by floods and
starvation.
Even though a government realizes the importance of a plentiful supply of trees, it is difficult
for it to persuade the villager to see this. The villager wants wood to cook his food
with, and he can earn money by making charcoal or selling wood to the townsman. He is
usually too lazy or too careless to plant and look after trees. So unless the government has a
good system of control, or can educate the people, the forests will slowly disappear.
This does not only mean that there will be fewer trees. The results are even more serious. For
where there are trees their roots break the soil up, allowing the rain to sink in and also bind
the soil, thus preventing it being washed away easily, but where there are no trees, the soil
becomes hard and poor. The rain falls on hard ground and flows away on the surface, causing
floods and carrying away with it the rich topsoil, in which crops grow so well, when all the
topsoil is gone, nothing remains but a worthless desert.
Question 38. In the writer's opinion, _____________, or the forests slowly disappear.
A. people shouldn't draw benefit from the tree
B. measures must be taken
C. government must realize the serious results
D. unless trees never be cut down
Question 39. The word “bind ” in the passage probably means___________
A. to make wet B. to wash away C. to make stay together D. to
improve
Question 40. In the last two paragraphs the writer wanted to make it clear
that____________
A. where there are no trees, the soil becomes hard and poor
B.  where there are no trees, the land might become desert slowly
C. where there are many trees, there are fewer floods
D. floods will make the land become desert
Question 41. It’s a great pity that in many places____________
A. man is not eager to make profits from trees
B. man hasn’t found out that he has lost all trees
C. man hasn’t realised the importance of trees to him
D. man is only interested in building empire
Question 42. Trees are useful to man mainly in three ways, the most important of which
is that they can ____________
A. keep him from the hot sunshine B. make him draw quick profit from them
C. enable him to build warships D. protecthim from drought and floods
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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
PERCEPTIONS OF ANIMALS ACROSS CULTURES
When living and working in another country, there are numerous things to consider apart
from the more obvious ones of climate, language, religion, currency, etc. Some important
considerations are less obvious. For example, do you have a pet or do you enjoy a hobby such
as horse riding? Your animal or hobby may be perceived in a completely different light in
another culture so it’s important to consider the significance given to specific animals in
different parts of the world and general perceptions towards them.
One example which is often mentioned in popular press is the case of dogs. In some cultures,
like the US or UK, dogs are loved and considered a great pet to have at home and with the
family. In other cultures, such as those where Islam is the majority religion, dogs may be
perceived as dirty or dangerous. Muslims treatment of dogs is still a matter of debate amongst
Islamic scholars, while these animals are widely considered by many Western cultures to be
“mans best friend”, the Koran describes them as “unhygienic”. Muslims will therefore avoid
touching a dog unless he can wash his hands immediately afterwards, and they will almost
never keep a dog in their home.
In Iran, for instance, a cleric once denounced “the moral depravity” of dog owners and even
demanded their arrest. If you are an international assignee living and working in Saudi Arabia
or another Arabic country, you should remember this when inviting Arab counterparts to
your house in case you have a dog as a pet. This is just one example of how Islam and other
cultural beliefs can impact on aspects of everyday life that someone else may not even
question. A Middle Eastern man might be very surprised when going to Japan, for instance,
and seeing dogs being dressed and pampered like humans and carried around in baby prams!
Dogs are not the only animals which are perceived quite differently from one culture to
another. In India, for example, cows are sacred and are treated with the utmost respect.
Conversely in Argentina, beef is a symbol of national pride because of its tradition and the
high quality of its cuts. An Indian working in Argentina who has not done his research or
participated in a cross cultural training programme such as Doing Business in Argentina may
be surprised at his first welcome dinner with his Argentinean counterparts where a main dish
of beef would be served.
It is therefore crucial to be aware of the specific values assigned to objects or animals in
different cultures to avoid faux-pas or cultural misunderstandings, particularly when living
and working in another culture. Learning how people value animals and other symbols
around the world is one of the numerous cultural examples discussed in Communicaid’s
intercultural training courses. Understanding how your international colleagues may perceive
certain animals can help you ensure you aren’t insensitive and it may even provide you with a
good topic for conversation.
(Source: https. //www.communicaid.com)
Question 43. What does the author suggest in the last paragraph?
A. Talking about different perceptions with others will help you overcome
insensitivity.
B. To avoid cultural shocks, people should not live or work in another culture.
C. It’s important to value the objects or animals in different countries before going
there.
D. Understanding different perceptions of animals will help you avoid faux-pas in
another nation.
Question 44. According to paragraph 2, which sentence is INCORRECT?
A. The dog is a typical example of different views in the world about animals.
B. Dogs are well-treated and loved in the US and UK.
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C. Muslims are those considering dogs as their best pets at home.


D. People whose religion is Islam don’t like having dogs in their home.
Question 45. The word “unhygienic” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning
to____________
A. unhealthy B. undependable C. unreliable D. unacceptable
Question 46. What does the word “this” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. you are an international assignee
B. you are having a dog as pet
C. a cleric once denounced the moral depravity of dog owners and even demanded
their arrest
D. you are living and working in Saudi Arabia or another Arabic country
Question 47. The author mentioned cows in paragraph 4 as an example
of______________
A. the animals that are differently perceived in numerous cultures
B. sacred animals in Argentina
C. a symbol of a nation for its high quality of nutrients
D. which may cause surprise for Argentinian people at dinner
Question 48. which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?
A. Perceptions of animals across cultures
B. What should be learnt before going to another country
C. Dogs and different beliefs in the world
D. Muslims and their opinions about animals
Question 49. The word “pampered” in the third paragraph could be best replaced
by____________
A. indulged B. taken care of C. made up D. respected
Question 50. It can be inferred from the passage that______________ 
A. people will change their perceptions of animals when living in another culture
B. you should not be surprised if other counterparts consider your sacred animals as
food 
C. there are many things to research before going to live and work in another country
D. respecting other cultures is a good way to have a successful life abroad

Bộ đề chuẩn cấu ĐỀ DỰ ĐOÁN KÌ THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2020


trúc Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
ĐỀ SỐ 10

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 
Question 1. Jenifer missed her chance to be promoted. What a shame! 
A. Jenifer regretted having wasted her chance to be promoted. 
B. Despite feeling ashamed, Jenifer lost her chance of promotion. 
C. If only Jenifer has seized her chance of promotion. 
D. That Jenifer missed her chance to be promoted is shameful. 
Question 2. They left the concert hall. The fire alarm went off right afterwards. 
A. They left the concert hall just as the fire alarm went off. 
B. The fire alarm had gone off before they left the concert hall. 
C. They were leaving the concert hall when the fire alarm went off. 
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D. No sooner had they left the concert hall than the fire alarm went off. 
  Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from
the other three in the position of primary stress in each the following questions. 
Question 3. A. success B. balance C. problem D. culture 
Question 4. A. commercial B. decisive C. powerful D. electric 
  Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each the following questions. 
Question 5. Many consumers are prejudiced against commercial goods made in that
country. They reject them without even before trying first. 
A. fair B. biased C. unreasonable D. distinguishable 
Question 6. I’ll spend the weekends hitting the books as I have final exams next week. 
A. reviewing the books B. studying in a relaxing way 
C. damaging the books D. studying in a serious way 
  Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions 7–11. 
A Working Vacation
Have you ever wondered what it would be like to get your dream job? It can take years to get
the education and develop the skills you need for the perfect job. However, there is a way to
experience your dream job without having to get the required training or degree. Since 2004,
Brian Kurth’s company, Vocation Vacations, has been connecting people with mentors who
have the jobs of their dreams. 
Kurth had been working for a phone company before starting his own company. He didn’t
like his job, and he had a long time to think about it on his drive to and from work. He also
thought about his dream job while driving. He was interested in becoming a dog trainer, but
he didn’t want to take any chances and switch to a field he didn’t have experience in. He
really wanted to know what the job was like and if it was realistic for him to work towards
his goal. So, he found a mentor – a dog trainer that could tell him about the job and
everything it involved. After that, he helped his friends find mentors to explore jobs they
were interested in. They thought it was helpful to talk to people who had their dream jobs
before spending lots of time and money getting the training they needed for those jobs. 
Kurth saw how much this helped his friends, so he decided to turn it into his business. He
started Vocation Vacations in 2004, and by 2005, the company was offering experience with
over 200 dream jobs. Today, about 300 mentors work with the company to share their
knowledge about their jobs. Customers pay to experience the job of their dreams and work
with these mentors to see what a job is really like. A “job vacation” costs between $350 and
$3,000 and can be for one to three days. Many people use Vocation Vacations to see if their
dream job is a career path they want to continue. Others do it just to experience the job of
their dreams one time. 
Vocation Vacations jobs are in the fields of fashion, food, entertainment, sports and animals.
Many people want to try glamorous jobs. For example, they want to try working as actors,
music producers, photographers and fashion designers. According to Kurth, some other
popular dream jobs are working as bakers, hotel managers and wedding planners. 
Source: Summit 2 by Pearson Education, 2017 
Question 7. What is the passage mainly about? 
A. A company where people can experience their dream jobs 
B. A company where people get the training for their dream jobs 
C. Brian Kurth’s dream job as a dog trainer 
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D. Brian Kurth’s company as a dream job provider 


Question 8. The word their in paragraph 3 refers to _______. 
A. jobs B. mentors C. customers D. experiences 
Question 9. What do mentors at Vocation Vacations do? 
A. explore jobs that people are interested in B. train people for their dream jobs 
B. give people advice on how to choose a job D. show people what their jobs
are like 
Question 10. The word glamorous in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______. 
A. uncommon B. attractive C. unskilled D. ordinary 
Question 11. All of the following are true about Vocation Vacations EXCEPT ______.
A. it belongs to Brian Kurth B. the company was started in 2004 
C. the company hires about 300 mentors D. it provides jobs in many different
fields 
  Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions 12–19. 
Scientists have identified two ways in which species disappear. The first is through ordinary
or “background” extinctions, where species that fail to adapt are slowly replaced by more
adaptable life forms. The second is when large numbers of species go to the wall in relatively
short periods of biological time. There have been five such extinctions, each provoked by
cataclysmic evolutionary events caused by some geological eruption, climate shift, or space
junk slamming into the Earth. Scientists now believe that another mass extinction of species
is currently under way – and this time human fingerprints are on the trigger. 
How are we are doing it? Simply by demanding more and more space for ourselves. In our
assault on the ecosystems around us we have used a number of tools, from spear and gun to
bulldozer and chainsaw. Certain especially rich ecosystems have proved the most vulnerable.
In Hawaii more than half of the native birds are now gone – some 50 species. Such carnage
has taken place all across the island communities of the Pacific and Indian oceans. While
many species were hunted to extinction, others simply succumbed to the „introduced
predators’ that humans brought with them: the cat, the dog, the pig, and the rat. 
Today the tempo of extinction is picking up speed. Hunting is no longer the major culprit,
although rare birds and animals continue to be butchered for their skin, feathers, tusks, and
internal organs, or taken as savage pets. Today the main threat comes from the destruction of
the habitat of wild plants, animals, and insects need to survive. The draining and damming of
wetland and river courses threatens the aquatic food chain and our own seafood industry.
Overfishing and the destruction of fragile coral reefs destroy ocean biodiversity.
Deforestation is taking a staggering toll, particularly in the tropics where the most global
biodiversity is at risk. The shinking rainforest cover of the Congo and Amazon river basins
and such place as Borneo and Madagascar have a wealth of species per hectare existing
nowhere else. As those precious hectares are drowned or turned into arid pasture and
cropland, such species disappear forever. 
Source: Final Countdown Practice Tests by D.F Piniaris, Heinle Cengage Learning, 2010 
Question 12. What does the passage mainly discuss? 
A. Human activity and its impact on a mass extinction of species 
B. The two ways in which species disappear 
C. The tempo of extinction of species today 
D. Deforestation as a major cause of mass extinctions of species 
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Question 13. The word assault in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______. 


A. development B. attack C. effort D. influence 
Question 14. All of the following are mentioned as a form of habitat destruction EXCEPT
________. 
A. destroying coral reefs B. cutting down forests 
C. damming wetlands and rivers D. hunting rare birds and animals
Question 15. What was the main threat to biodiversity in Hawaii and other islands in the
Pacific and Indian oceans until recently? 
A. tools used by human beings B. human assault on ecosystems 
C. vulnerable rich ecosystems D. hunters and introduced predators 
Question 16. The word them in paragraph 2 refers to _______. 
A. species B. oceans C. predators D. humans 
Question 17. Which is no longer considered a major cause of the mass extinction under way
currently? 
A. the building of dams across rivers B. the destruction of habitats of species 
C. the shrinking of rainforests in the tropics D. the killing of animals for their body
parts 
Question 18. The word butchered in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _____. 
A. raised B. traded C. cooked D. killed 
Question 19. It can be inferred from the passage that _______. 
A. the current mass extinction is different from the other five in that it is caused by
humans 
B. hunting is the major contributing factor that speeds up the extinction of species 
C. habitat destruction makes a minor contribution to the current mass extinction of
species 
D. it’s impossible for scientists to identify the causes of mass extinctions of species 
  Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest
in meaning to each of the following questions 
Question 20. During rush hours, travelling by car is slower than travelling by motorbike. 
A. During rush hours, travelling by car is faster than travelling by motorbike. 
B. During rush hours, travelling by motorbike is faster than travelling by car. 
C. During rush hours, travelling by car is as slow as travelling by motorbike. 
D. During rush hours, travelling by motorbike is slower than travelling by car. 
Question 21. “What did you do last night?” the policeman asked the woman. 
A. The policeman asked the woman what did she do the night before. 
B. The policeman asked the woman what she had done the night before. 
C. The policeman asked the woman what had she done the night before. 
D. The policeman asked the woman what she did the night before. 
Question 22. Harry sat there waiting for Lucy, which was not necessary. 
A. Harry might not have sat there waiting for Lucy. 
B. Harry needn’t have sat there waiting for Lucy. 
C. Harry couldn’t have sat there waiting for Lucy. 
D. Harry may not have sat there waiting for Lucy. 
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  Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions 
Question 23. Just as the performance ended, all the concertgoers raised to their feet and
applauded. 
A. Just as B. ended C. raised D. their feet
Question 24. Bowling, one of the most popular indoor sports, are popular all over the United
States and in other countries.
A. of the B. indoor C. are D. other
Question 25. A large number of entries has updated in the latest edition of the encyclopedia
recently. 
A. large B. has updatedC. of D. recently
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions. 
Question 26. John is feeling ______ because he hasn’t had enough sleep recently. 
A. irritate B. irritation C. irritably D. irritable 
Question 27. I would never forget ________ to be the judge in such a well–known
competition. 
A. being invited B. having invited C. to have invited D. to be invited 
Question 28. Once ______ as the World Natural Heritage by UNESCO, Phong Nha – Ke
Bang National Park attracts a great number of visitors worldwide. 
A. having recognized B. recognized C. recognizing D. is recognized 
Question 29. ______ his physical disability, he managed to finish the course with good
results. 
A. Although B. Since C. Because of D. Despite 
Question 30. Sue would suffer obesity if she couldn’t control her ________ overeating. 
A. compulsive B. disastrous C. exhaustive D. unbearable 
Question 31. Both husband and wife should be responsible ________ doing the household
chores. 
A. with B. to C. for D. of 
Question 32. It’s considered _______ to interrupt others while they are talking. 
A. arrogant B. impolite C. helpful D. distrustful 
Question 33. It’s me who is at ________, so I’ll pay for the damage. 
A. guilt B. responsibility C. error D. fault 
Question 34. During our holiday, we were so lucky to stay in a room with a good ______ of
the sea. 
A. view B. look C. sight D. vision 
Question 35. _______, the film is still attractive to many people, young and old. 
A. Producing many years ago B. Having produced many years ago 
C. Although produced many years ago D. It produced many years ago 
Question 36. If the weather is fine this weekend, we _______ to see our grandparents. 
A. were going B. will go C. would do D. went 
Question 37. My brother has been playing ______ piano since he was a small child. 
A. the B. a C. no article D. an 
Question 38. Sue and Mira are talking about the use of mobile phone in class. 
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– Sue: “Students should not be allowed to use mobile phone in class.” 


– Mira: “________. This will distract them from studying.”
A. Not really B. No way! It’s useful 
C. I’m of the opposite opinion D. I quite agree 
Question 39. The children ________ happily in the park when their parents asked them to go
home. 
A. played B. had played C. were playing D. would play 
Question 40. Tony’s parents check his Facebook account every day, he hates being under
________ all the time. 
A. scrutiny B. attack C. pressure D. control 
Question 41. Luke is offering help to Mary. 
– Luke: “Shall I help you with your suitcase?” 
– Mary: “Yes, _________.” 
A. not a chance B. well done 
C. I don’t need you D. that’s very kind of you 
  Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each the following questions. 
Question 42. Mike pretended to be sick, but I saw through his deception at once. 
A. was used to B. got angry with C. got bored with D. was aware of 
Question 43. Some newspapers are often guilty of distorting the truth just to impress readers
with sensational news stories. 
A. gathering personal information B. making changes to facts 
C. providing reliable data D. examining factual data 
  Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks 44–48. 
It is true that keeping fit will benefit a person’s health in many ways. It has become clear in
recent years, that a large number of people are doing less and less exercise and this is now
causing many serious illnesses, putting a strain on doctors and hospitals. However, some
experts believe that too much exercise can do just as much (44)________. 
Although it is true that moderate exercise such as walking can be very beneficial to a person’s
health, it is not the only one factor (45)_______ keeps us healthy. Diet is also extremely
important and I would argue that it is probably even more important than exercise, although
the ideal is for both of these factors to work together. It seems to me that many people are
unwilling to put in the effort required to become fitter. 
(46)_______, too much exercise can also cause problems. So people are urged to take
moderate exercise and eat moderately healthily rather than embarking on extreme diets and
training. In too many instances, ultra–fit people have had heart attacks or dropped down
dead. 
In all, governments need to find ways of (47)________ people to take responsibility for their
own health. People need to realize that eating healthy food does not have to cost a
(48)________, nor is it difficult to prepare healthy meals themselves. People need to be better
educated about their health.\
Question 44. A. ruin B. destruction C. damage D. hurt 
Question 45. A. who B. when C. which D. what 
Question 46. A. For example B. However C. Therefore D. In fact 
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Question 47. A. motivating B. motivational C. motivate D. motivation 


Question 48. A. benefit B. wealth C. treasure D. fortune 
  Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each the following questions. 
Question 49. A. looked B. laughed C. stepped D. moved 
Question 50. A. feature B. measure C. feather D. pleasure

Bộ đề chuẩn cấu ĐỀ DỰ ĐOÁN KÌ THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2020


trúc Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
ĐỀ SỐ 13

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 
Câu 1. A. final B. revival C. reliable D. liberty 
Câu 2. A. booths B. months C. mouths D. paths 
 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. 
Câu 3. A. rechargeable B. continuous C. appreciate D. academic 
Câu 4. A. thesis B. vitalC. tension D. champagne 
 
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions. 
Câu 5. The late 1800s and early 1900s _______ excitement over a wide array of inventions
and developments.
A. brought B. have brought C. had brought D. would bring 
Câu 6. ________ the Australian gold mining company ________ more care with the storage
of cyanide, the catastrophe could have been prevented.
A. Has – takenB. Had – taken C. Would – take D. Should – take 
Câu 7. Tourism is changing rapidly as nature, heritage, and recreational destinations become
more important, and as conventional tourism is forced to _______ tougher environmental
requirements.
A. meet B. impose C. lay D. set 
Câu 8. Gender _______ is not only a fundamental human right, but a necessary foundation
for a peaceful, prosperous and sustainable world.
A. equity B. unity C. equality D. identity 
Câu 9. When children have strong, positive relationship with their parents, they are _______
to succeed in school.
A. most likely B. more likely C. the likelier D. the more likely 
Câu 10. Students can only use technological devices to complete their work _______
investment on notebooks and books.
A. rather than B. instead of C. but for D. in case 
Câu 11. The advantages of the new method really ________ the disadvantages.
A. outperform B. outdo C. outweigh D. outgrow 
Câu 12. Jimmy always takes the ________ by the horns at every chance in order to become a
famous pop star, which is why he is so successful now.
A. bull B. horse C. cow D. buffalo 
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Câu 13. A smart city is an urban area that uses different types of electronic data collection
sensors to supply information which _______ assets and resources efficiently.
A. used to manage B. is used to managing C. is used to manage D. is using
to manage 
Câu 14. It is the classical Athenians who can probably lay claim _______ the invention of
commercial advertising as we know it today.
A. to B. for C. of D. with 
Câu 15. The storm did a lot of _________ to our village. All the crops were drastically
destroyed and many houses were washed away.
A. injury B. hardship C. harm D. damage 
Câu 16. My aunt gave me a _________ bag on my 24th birthday.
A. expensive small brown Channel leather B. small brown expensive leather
Channel
C. expensive small brown leather Channel D. small expensive brown leather
Channel 
Câu 17. Cultural diversity expands choices, nurtures _______ variety of skills, human values
and worldviews and provides wisdom from the past to inform the future.
A. a B. an C. the D. no article 
Câu 18. Our bodies are supported by the skeletal system, which consists of 206 bones
______ tendons, ligaments and cartilage.
A. that connect to B. that are connected by
C. which connects to D. which is connected by 
 
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 
Câu 19. A lot of adults pay lip service to the idea that it is important to listen to teenagers'
ideas, but they tend to listen and then forget.
A. empty promise B. solemn promise C. broken promise D. early promise 
Câu 20. Students will find all academic assignments via the class blog their teachers create to
post assignments.
A. by means of B. in terms of C. by the way D. in search of 
 
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 
Câu 21. The manager needs an assistant that he can count on to take care of problems in his
absence.
A. discredit B. disrespect C. dislike D. distrust 
Câu 22. If it had not been for the couch's decision to strike while the iron is hot, the team
would not have won the game so easily.
A. take advantage of an opportunity B. miss the boat
C. face the music D. put others first 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. 
Amparo Lasén, the Spanish sociologist who conducted the study found that Londoners use
their cell phones the least in public. If they are with others, they prefer to let calls be
answered by voice mail (a recorded message) and then they check for messages later. If the
English do answer a call on the street, they seem to dislike talking with others around. They
tend to move away from a crowded sidewalk and seek out a place (23) ________ they cannot
be heard, such as the far side of a subway entrance or even the edge of a street. They seem to
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feel that the danger of the traffic is (24) ___________ to the risk of having their conversation
be overheard. This has led to a behavior that Laser has called "clustering." At a busy time of
day on the streets of London, you may find small crowds of cell phone users grouped
together, each one talking into a cell phone. Even when it is raining—as it is often in London
—people still prefer not to hold their conversations where others could hear. They talk (25)
_____________ their umbrellas or in a doorway. 
In Paris, however, there are stricter rules about how and when to use cell phones. It is not
considered polite to use a phone in a restaurant, (26) ______________, though it might be
acceptable in the more informal setting of a café. One special custom that has developed in
cafés seems unique to Paris. Young women often place their cell phones on the table beside
them to signal that they are expecting someone. When the friend arrives, the phone is (27)
_____________. In fact, the French are generally very disapproving of phone use in public
and are quick to express that disapproval, even to strangers.
(Adapted from “Advanced Reading Power” by Beatrice S. Mikulecky and Linda Jeffries)
Câu 23. A. which B. when C. where D. what 
Câu 24. A. preferable B. prefer C. preference D. preferential 
Câu 25. A. on B. under C. in D. after 
Câu 26. A. for examples B. moreover C. nevertheless D. for instance 
Câu 27. A. put away B. put back C. put down D. put aside 
 
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions. 
Câu 28. The reasons why lack of water causes the body to become stressed and diseased, as
well as very simple methods to ensure your own vibrant health, are all explained in details.
A. reasons why B. to become stressed C. simple methods D. in details 
Câu 29. Volunteer work, understood in its traditional meaning, as unpaid activity oriented to
help others and to improve society, have existed throughout the history of humanity.
A. its B. unpaid activity C. to improve D. have existed 
Câu 30. Vinton G. Cerf founded the InterNetworking Group in 1972 and this has been since
recognized as the birth-year of the Internet.
A. founded B. has been since C. recognized as D. birth-year 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. 
No matter how much you’ve trained, performance anxiety before or during a competition
may occur, hindering the results of your match. 
While you can tell yourself to stay calm prior to a competition, managing performance
anxiety may not be as simple as. Research has shown that strategies such as meditation and
guided imagery are great places to start; both require your brain to rehearse what you will do
during your competition. Your imagination holds much more power than you may expect,
helping you focus on how to beat your opponent, instead of other factors that contribute to
your anxiety. Adequate preparation also plays a large role.
To master the mental game, it takes time. Starting one month before your competition,
consider sitting in solitude in a comfortable position for 15 minutes each day. Focus first on
breathing in and out deeply. Then, begin to imagine competition situations and visualize
yourself in a fight with your competitor. Be mindful of your anxiety and return your focus to
breathing if you feel yourself tense up. Sometimes, you may find yourself thinking self-
deprecating or negative thoughts, at which point you should consciously replace any negative
self-talk with positive self-talk. During these visualizations, also be sure to think about your
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posture and form and create cues — mental and verbal — that will help you review and
correct your technique.
Pre-competition jitters are completely normal and it’s important to acknowledge that.
Accepting that this excitement and/or nervousness is normal will help your body also
understand that what you are experiencing is not fear, but perhaps part of your adrenaline
response to competition. With more experience, mindful visualization and mental/physical
preparation can help you manage and overcome performance anxiety. 
(source: https://blog.perfectmind.com/)
Câu 31. Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Overcoming performance anxiety before a competition.
B. Songs Olympians Listen to Before Competition.
C. How to pray before, during, and after competition. 
D. Anxiety before a competition can lead to insomnia. 
Câu 32. The word “hindering” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. frustrating B. crippling C. arresting D. hampering 
Câu 33. According to paragraph 2, what is NOT mentioned as a contributing factor for
victory?
A. Imagination B. Preparation C. Anxiety D. Anxiety management 
Câu 34. According to paragraph 3, what step is NOT included in the mindful visualization
technique?
A. Maintain a daily habit of 15-minute sitting alone for a month before the contest
day.
B. Visualize interconnected dots in your minds while reciting the secret mantra.
C. Simulate several possible interactions between yourself and opponents. 
D. Steer clear of pessimistic thoughts and substitutes them with optimistic ones. 
Câu 35. The word “that” in paragraph 4 refers to _______.
A. The fact that your fear for competition is a kind of inexplicable phobia.
B. The fact that feeling anxious before a competition is nothing unusual.
C. The fact that hardly anyone will understand your aversion to contest. 
D. The fact that introspection is not an effective pre-test calming practice. 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. 
Coral reefs are some of the most diverse ecosystems in the world, housing tens of thousands
of marine species. With their hardened surfaces, corals are sometimes mistaken as being
rocks. And, because they are attached, “taking root” to the seafloor, they are often mistaken
for plants. However, unlike rocks, corals are alive. And unlike plants, corals do not make
their own food. Corals are in fact animals. Appearing as solitary forms in the fossil record
more than 400 million years ago, corals are extremely ancient animals that evolved into
modern reef-building forms over the last 25 million years.
Coral reefs are the largest structures on earth of biological origin. Coral reefs are unique and
complex systems. Rivaling old growth forests in longevity of their ecological communities,
well-developed reefs reflect thousands of years of history.
Corals are ancient animals related to jellyfish and anemones. The branch or mound that we
often call “a coral” is actually made up of thousands of tiny animals called polyps. A coral
polyp is an invertebrate that can be no bigger than a pinhead to up to 30 centimeters (1 foot)
in diameter. The polyps extend their tentacles at night to sting and ingest tiny organisms
called plankton and other small creatures. Each polyp has a saclike body and a mouth that is
encircled by stinging tentacles. The polyp uses calcium carbonate (limestone) from seawater
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to build a hard, cup-shaped skeleton. This skeleton protects the soft, delicate body of the
polyp.
Reefs only occur in shallow areas that are reachable by sunlight because of the relationship
between coral and algae. Various types of microscopic algae, known as Symbiodinium, live
inside of the coral, providing them with food and helping them to grow faster.
There are over 2,500 kinds (species) of corals. About 1,000 are the hard corals that build
coral reefs. Other corals are soft corals. Soft corals have skeletons that are flexible and can
bend with the water. The three main types of coral reefs are fringing reefs, barrier reefs, and
coral atolls. The most common type of reef is the fringing reef. This type of reef grows
seaward directly from the shore. They form borders along the shoreline and surrounding
islands. When a fringing reef continues to grow upward from a volcanic island that has sunk
entirely below sea level, an atoll is formed. Atolls are usually circular or oval in shape, with
an open lagoon in the center. Any reef that is called a barrier reef gets its name because its
presence protects the shallow waters along the shore from the open sea. That protection
promotes the survival of many types of sea plant and animal life.
(Adapted from http://justfunfacts.com)
Câu 36. Which of the following could best reflect the main purpose of the author in the
passage?
A. To prove that coral reefs are animals.
B. To provide the facts about coral reefs.
C. To explain that coral reefs are the most diverse ecosystems in the ocean. 
D. To distinguish coral reefs with other animals. 
Câu 37. The word “solitary” in the first paragraph could be best replaced by ____________.
A. single B. private C. general D. typical 
Câu 38. The word “rivaling” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _____________.
A. differing from B. comparing with C. relating to D. changing from 
Câu 39. According to the passage, the following are true about coral reefs, EXCEPT
____________.
A. Coral reefs are mistaken for rocks and plants because of their hardened surface and
“roots”.
B. Polyps are the composition of corals.
C. The skeleton of a polyp is created from calcium carbonate in seawater. 
D. Corals absorb food in the sunlight using their tentacles. 
Câu 40. With the help of myriad species of tiny algae, reefs _____________.
A. are likely to develop more rapidly. B. can protect the soft and delicate body
of the polyp.
C. are able to find food inside their polyps. D. find it easier to bend with the water. 
Câu 41. What does the word “they” in the last paragraph refer to?
A. coral atolls B. barrier reefs C. fringing reefs D. the shores 
Câu 42. As mentioned in the last paragraph, why a reef is called a barrier reef?
A. As it keeps developing from a volcanic island that has sunk entirely below sea
level.
B. Because its skeleton is flexible enough to defend many marine organisms.
C. Since it saves the low waters along the coastline from the open sea. 
D. Because it is one kind of 1,000 hard corals that protect the shoreline. 
Câu 43. It can be inferred from the passage that coral reefs ______________.
A. evolved from a kind of plant on the Earth.
B. are the biggest structures that have ever lived on the Earth.
C. are the origin of many marine plants and animals. 
D. appeared on the Earth hundreds of million years ago. 
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions. 
Câu 44. It is against the school rules to cheat in the test.
A. You don't have to cheat in the test. B. You must cheat in the test.
C. You must not cheat in the test. D. You have to cheat in the test. 
Câu 45. "You should open up and tell our teacher about your situation", said Maria to Victor.
A. Maria advised Victor to open up and tell their teacher about his situation.
B. Maria forbid Victor to open up and tell their teacher about his situation.
C. Maria forced Victor to open up and tell their teacher about his situation. 
D. Maria allowed Victor to open up and tell their teacher about his situation. 
Câu 46. The professor is a more efficient financial adviser than the expert.
A. The professor gives advice on finance less efficiently than the expert.
B. The expert is a less efficient financial adviser than the professor.
C. The professor gives advice on finance not as efficiently as the expert. 
D. The expert gives financial advice more efficiently than the professor. 
 
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the option that best completes following
exchanges. 
Câu 47. - "Do you get along well with your brothers?" – “______________”
A. He's not living with us, he's living in the town.
B. We have never got into fight but sometimes in quarrel.
C. He likes swimming, and I like reading when free. 
D. Mom and Dad always help us with our school work. 
Câu 48. - A: "Doctor, can you give me some suggestions on how to stay healthy?"
- B: “___________________.”
A. Well, first of all, you need to make sure that you eat the right foods.
B. It is very confusing to know what to eat.
C. As long as you don't overdo it, a glass of wine a day should be OK. 
D. If you smoke, you need to stop. 
 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions. 
Câu 49. His parents don't like some of his friends. His friends wear too flashy clothes.
A. His parents don't like some of his friends despite their too flashy clothes.
B. His parents don't like some of his friends because of their too flashy clothes.
C. His parents don't like some of his friends but for their flashy clothes. 
D. His parents don't like some of his friends without their too flashy clothes. 
Câu 50. Inventors' and engineers' initial ideas rarely solve a problem. Instead, they try
different ideas, learn from mistakes, and try again.
A. Instead of trying to solve a problem, inventors' and engineers' initial ideas are to try
different ideas, learn from mistakes, and try again.
B. Rarely do inventors' and engineers' initial ideas solve a problem rather than try
different ideas, learn from mistakes, and try again.
C. Because inventors' and engineers' initial Ideas rarely solve a problem, they try
different ideas, learn from mistakes, and try again. 
D. Even though inventors' and engineers' initial ideas rarely solve a problem, they try
different ideas, learn from mistakes, and try again. 

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