SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO HÀ NỘI ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA năm 2017.

TRƯỜNG THPT HÀ ĐÔNG Môn: Tiếng Anh. Bài số 1

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. reflect B. purchase C. contain D. suggest
Question 2. A. notify B. alternate C. stabilize D. entitle

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. laughed B. stopped C. produced D. believed
Question 4. A. works B. eyes C. needs D. learns

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 5. I want to do my own decisions independently.
A B C D
Question 6. To repay you for your kind, I will become a wise and independent woman.
A B C D
Question 7. Everything was just as he had left himself.
A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 8. You should not feel ……..to tell your spouse where you have been and who you have met.
A. compulsory B. threatened C. obliged D. forced
Question 9. He told me to hold ………………………. a minute while he fetched his jacket.
A. on B. in C. up D. down
Question 10. Drivers are advised to check road conditions with Highway Agency before setting
……………. on journeys.
A. in B. off C. forth D. up
Question 11. The weather here is so beautiful that it is very difficult to stay………………………….. .
A. home B. wherever C. inside D. hot
Question 12. Hours of stress, …………………nights and the worry alone couldn’t be good for
anyone.
A. sleepless B. oversleep C. sleepy D. unsleepy
Question 13. Louis………………………..a second clear foul and was sent off.
A. did B. made C. hit D. committed
Question 14. When we came to their house they………………… chess.
A. were playing B. are playing C. played D. have been playing
Question 15. Paul and his girlfriend always kiss and make………… after their arguments.
A. up B. off C. with D. out
Question 16. ………………… he had turned the corner, he began to run.
A. Scarcely B. Hardly C. Once D. Just
Question 17. Marie Curie was the first and only woman …………………………. two Nobel Prizes.

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 A. who win B. that wins C. to have won D. to be won
Question 18. No sooner……………………… the house than the phone started to ring.
A. had my mother entered B. my mother had entered
C. entered my mother D. had entered my mother
Question 19. This time next year they won’t be at work; they………………..the peaceful atmosphere
of the countryside.
A. will have enjoyed B. will be enjoying C. will enjoy D. enjoying

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 20. Lora: Your new blouse looks gorgeous, Helen!
Helen: ------------.
A. Thanks, I bought it at Macy’s. B. It’s up to you.
C. I’d rather not. D. you can say that again.
Question 21. David:” I’m taking my end-of-term examination tomorrow.”
Vic:”……………………………. “
A. Good luck B. Good day C. Good time D. Good chance

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. Humans can use language deceptively by telling lies, or half-truths.
A. in an honest way B. in a dishonest way
C. for a serious purpose D. at the wrong time
Question 23. The funny story told by the man amused all the children.
A. pleased B. entertained C. saddened D. frightened

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) or phrase CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) or phrase in each of the following questions.
Question 24. Many new graduates take a part-time job and barely make ends meet every month.
A. become a professional B. balance study and work
C. put aside extra money D. earn enough to live
Question 25. Tony was so absorbed in his assignment that he forgot all about his dinner in the oven.
A. busy B. interested C. obliged D. distracted

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to the original sentence in each of the following questions.
Question 26. “Can you open the door for me, Tom?” Ann asked.
A. Ann asked to open the door for her, Tom.
B. Ann asked Tom to open the door for her.
C. Ann asked Tom open the door for her.
D. Ann asked Tom to open the door for me.
Question 27. What Rachael does in her free time doesn’t concern me.
A. What Rachael does in her free time is none of my business.
B. What Rachael does in her free time is not my concern.
C. What Rachael does in her free time is not concerned by me.

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 D. I don’t know what Rachael does in her free time.
Question 28. We couldn’t have managed without my father’s money.
A. Hadn’t it been for my father’s money, we couldn’t have managed.
B. We could have managed with my father’s money.
C. If we could managed, my father’s money would be there.
D. If we couldn’t have managed, we would have had my father’s money.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29. No member in the team came to his birthday party. But Julia did come.
A. Julia was the only member in the team to come to his birthday party.
B. Not only did Julia come to his birthday party but also other members did.
C. Julia was one of the members who came to his birthday party.
D. Every member in the team came to his birthday party.
Question 30. The human brain is ten times the size of a baboon’s. It weighs about 1400 grams.
A. The size of human brain is ten times that of baboon’s which is about 1400 grams weigh.
B. The human brain which weighs about 1400grams is ten times the size of a baboon’s.
C. The size of a baboon’s brain is 1400 grams, ten times that of the human one.
D. The weight of a baboon’s brain is 1400 grams, ten –fold than that of the human one.
.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
Nowadays people are increasingly aware that wildlife all over the world is in danger. Many species
of animals are threatened, and can easily (31) -------extinct if we do not make an effort to protect them.
There are many reasons for this. In some cases, animals are hunted for their fur or for other (32) --------
parts of their bodies. Some birds such as parrots are caught alive and sold as pets. For many animals
and birds, the problem is that their habitat – the place (33) ----------they live – is disappearing. More
land is used for farms, houses or industry, and there are fewer open (34) ---------than there once were.
Farmers use powerful chemicals to help them to grow better crops, but these chemicals pollute the
environment and harm wildlife. The most successful animals on earth – human beings – will soon be
the only ones that (35) --------- unless we can solve this problem.

Question 31. A. come B. make C. become D. take

Question 32. A. rich B. poor C. valuable D. valueless
Question 33. A. what B. where C. there D. which
Question 34. A. countries B. spaces C. rooms D. yards
Question 35. A. leave B. appear C. survive D. miss

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Solar energy, which reaches the earth through sunlight, is so abundant that it could meet the needs
of worldwide energy consumption 6,000 times over. And solar energy is easily harnessed through the
use of photovoltaic cells that convert sunlight to electricity. In the US alone, more than 100,000 homes
are equipped with solar electric systems in the form of solar panels or solar roof, tiles. And in other
parts of the world, including many developing countries, the use of solar system is growing steadily.

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 Another alternative energy source, which is abundant in specific geographical areas, is geothermal
power, which creates energy by tapping heat from below the surface of the earth. Hot water and steam
that are trapped in underground pools are pumped to the surface and used to run a generator, which
produces electricity. Geothermal energy is 50,000 times more abundant than the entire known supply
of fossil fuel resources and as with solar power, the technology needed to utilize geothermal energy is
fairly simple. A prime example of effective geothermal use in Iceland, a region of high geothermal
activity where there are over 80 percent of private homes, are heated by geothermal power.
Solar and geothermal energy are just two of promising renewable alternatives to conventional
energy sources. Climate change, population growth, and fossil fuel depletion mean that these
renewables will play a bigger role in the future than they do today. The time is long overdue to invest
in the development and use of alternative energy on global scale.

Question 36. What is the main topic of the passage?

A. The benefits of solar and wind power over conventional energy sources.
B. Two types of alternative energy sources that should be further utilized.
C. How energy resources are tapped from nature"
D. Examples of the rise of energy, sources worldwide.
Question 37. According to the passage, why should we consider using alternative energy sources?
A. Because fossil fuels are no longer available.
B. Because global warming has increased the amount of sunlight that reaches the earth.
C. Because they are free and available worldwide.
D. Because conventional energy resources are being depleted, and they cause environmental
damage.
Question 38. The word “harnessed” in the first paragraph could be best replaced by
A. captured B. harassed C. depleted D. exported
Question 39. According to the passage, what can be inferred about solar roof tiles?
A. They are being used in many undeveloped countries.
B. They can convert geothermal energy to electricity.
C. They are more expensive than solar panels.
D. They contain photovoltaic cells.
Question 40. According to the passage, which of the following is true about solar power?
A. There is very little of it available in Iceland.
B. It is being used in 100,000 private homes worldwide.
C. It is 6,000 times more powerful than energy from fossil fuels.
D. There is enough of it to far exceed the energy needs of the world.
Question 41. What does the author imply about alternative energy sources?
A. Many different types of alternative energy sources exist'.
B. Most alternative energy sources ate too impractical for private use.
C. Alternative energy is too expensive for developing countries to produce.
D. Solar and geothermal energy are the effective forms of alternative power"
Question 42. What best describes the author's purpose in writing the passage?
A. To warn people about the hazards of fossil fuel use.
B. To convince people of the benefits of developing alternative energy sources.
C. To describe the advantages and disadvantages of alternative energy use.
D. To outline the problems and solutions connected with global warming.

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
Language has enabled our species to formulate ideas and exchange information. One characteristic
of language is that it is ever-evolving, changing to meet the needs of the people speaking it. Countries
tend to adopt a national that makes it easy for their inhabitants to communicate with one another as
well as with outside entities. While this encourages the spread of certain language, it can also lead to
death of others. Consider the spread of Latin in ancient world as it pertains to English usage today.
Latin was the language spoken in the Roman Empire, which included the Mediterranean and parts
of Europe. Latin became so widespread that the languages of many modern European countries are
based on the Latin language. However, despite its contribution to modern language, Latin in itself is no
longer spoken as a primary language. The eventual demise of Latin occurred because, as it spread out
over hundreds of years, it took on different dialects and pronunciations based on the different regions
in which it was used. Rather than adopting Latin as a language foreign people took the roots of Latin
words and adapted them into their own languages. Hence, Latin’s popularity is one of the reasons why
it ultimately fell out of use. As Latin did centuries ago, English is swiftly becoming the world’s most
widely used language, spoken by people on the majority of the seven continents and declared the
national language in at least thirty-four countries. As with Latin, the accent and tone may differ from
country to country, but the basics of the vernacular have their foundation in Standard English.
Linguistics predict that, like Latin, English will experience an immense spread and then subsequent
break-up as the languages that got their start in English change into languages unique unto them. They
feel that this can already be seen in areas such as the islands of Caribbean. While English is recognized
as the national language of these countries, it has quite a different sound than English spoken
everywhere else in the world. In other countries, English words have taken on completely different
meanings from what they were originally. In the African country of Uganda, for example, natives use
the word “extend” to mean “move over” or “get out of the way” rather than the more universally
understood meaning of “lengthen” or “stretch”. People in the South American country of Guyana refer
to “operation” when speaking of having an upset stomach or diarrhea. We can clearly see that English,
like Latin, is being adapted to create other words or to take on new meanings.
(Source: Mastering skills for TOEFL. IBT by Moraig Macgillivray and Patrick Yancey

Question 43. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. How Latin became a dead language.
B. The similarities and differences between Latin and English.
C. The Latinization of English
D. The future of English
Question 44. The word “pertains “in line 7 is closet in meaning to …………………..
A. compares B. connects C. reflects D. relates
Question 45. It can be inferred from the first paragraph that …………………….
A. Nations are more likely to choose a national language that is easy to their people to use
B. national languages are chosen by people who wish to communicate with neighbouring
countries.
C. A country’s inhabitants will speak whichever language is chosen by its leaders
D. Outside individuals are likely to choose a language similar to that of their neighbours.

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Question 46. According to the passage, which of the following is true of the popularity of Latin
language?
A. It leads to the death of other contemporary languages
B. It contributes to the formation and development of current dialects
C. It gives birth to all of the Western languages
D. It actually results in the disappearance of the language.
Question 47. The word “they” in the last paragraph refers to ………………….
A. English words B. local words C. different meanings D. other countries
Question 48. The word “this “in the first paragraph refers to …………………..
A. one characteristic B. language
C. adopting a national language D. communicating with each other
Question 49. The example “People in the South American country of Guyana “ refers to “ operation”
when speaking of having an upset stomach or diarrhea” is used to …………………….
A. show the linguistic ignorance of people in Guyana
B. stress the transformation in meaning of English words spoken in some areas
C. point out the importance of understanding the pragmatic meaning of an English word
D. emphasize the necessity of learning English for someone who wants to live in Guyana
Question 50. The author implies that linguistics make a prediction about the future of English that……
A. it will become a death language like Latin
B. it continues spreading all over the world
C. it will be no longer the national language in some countries
D. it contributes to build up a new language.

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