Professional Documents
Culture Documents
GENITOURINARY SYSTEM
K Problem
- Bilateral inflammation of the glomeruli that usually follows after a
streptococcal infection of the respiratory tract roles often after a skin
infection such as impetigo.
Manifestation
- Azotemia, Fatigue
- Oliguria, Edema
Causes
- Untreated pharyngitis
- Trapped antigen-antibody complexes in the glomerular capillary membranes
inducing inflammatory damage and impending glomerular function
Test Results
- Blood test shows elevated serum creatinine levels.
- 24-hour urine sample shows low creatinine clearance and impaired
E glomerular filtration.
- Urinalysis typically reveals proteinuria and hematuria. Red blood cells
(RBC’s), white blood cells, and mixed cells casts are common findings in
urinary sediment.
- Kidney-ureter-bladder (KUB) X-rays shows bilateral kidney enlargement
Treatment
- Bed rest
- Diuretics: metolazone (Zaroxolyn), furosemide (Lasix) to reduce extracellular
fluid overload
- Antihypertensive: hydralazine
- Fluid restriction
- High-calorie, low-sodium, low-potassium, low-protein diet
Intervention
- Check vital signs and electrolyte values.
Y
- Monitor intake and output and daily weight. Assess renal function daily
through serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels and urine
creatinine clearance.
- Watch for signs of acute renal failure (oliguria, azotemia, and acidosis).
- Provide good nutrition, use good hygienic technique, and prevent contact
with infected people.
Problem
E -
-
Creatinine clearance estimates the number of functioning nephrons.
Glomerular filtration rate is 2O to 40 ml/minute (renal insufficiency); 10 to
20 ml/minute (renal failure); less than 10 ml/minute (end-stage renal
disease).
Treatment
- Continuous arteriovenous hemofiltration
- Low-protein, increased-carbohydrate, moderate fat, and moderate-calorie diet
with potassium, sodium, and phosphorus intake regulated according to
serum levels
- Peritoneal dialysis or hemodialysis
Problem
K - Enlarge prostate gland just enough to compress the urethra causing urinary
obstruction
Manifestation
Causes
- Aging
E Test Results
urinary stasis.
Treatment
- Forcing fluids
Y Intervention
Force fluids.
REVIEW QUESTIONS
CRITICAL THINKING
1. Explain how does renal failure affects the following:
a. Fluids and electrolyte balance (5 pts)
b. Normal excretion of the urine (5 pts)
2. What is the reason behind the appearance of edema and Azotemia in acute
glomerulonephritis?
BLADDER CANCER
Problem
K
- Cells in the bladder begins to grow abnormally and begins to mutate leading
to a growth that is out control until these abnormal cells form a tumor.
Manifestation
- Frequency of urination
- Painless hematuria
- Urgency of urination
Causes
- Smoking
- Exposure to chemicals
Test Results
Treatment
Intervention
- Force fluids.
BREAST CANCER
Problem
E
Test Results
- Breast self-examination reveals a lump or mass in the breast thickening of
breast tissue.
- Fine-needle aspiration and excisional biopsy provide histologic cells confirm
diagnosis.
- Mammography detects a tumor.
Treatment
- Bone marrow and peripheral stem cell therapy for advanced breast cancer
- Surgery: lumpectomy, skin-sparing mastectomy, partial mastectomy, total
mastectomy
- Chemotherapy: cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan), methotrexate (Folex),
Y
fluorouracil (Adrucil)
- Hormonal therapy: tamoxifen (Nolvadex), toremifene (Fareston),
aminoglutethimide (Cytadren), diethylstilbestrol, megestrol (Megace)
Intervention
- Assess the patient’s feelings about her illness, and determine what she
knows about breast cancer and her expectations.
- Provide routine postoperative care.
- Perform comfort measures.
- Watch for treatment-related complications, such as nausea, vomiting,
anorexia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, GI ulceration, and bleeding.
CERVICAL CANCER
Problem
E
Test Results
- Colposcopy determines the source of the abnormal cells seen on
Papanicolaou test.
Treatment
- Pre-invasive: conization, cryosurgery
- Invasive: radiation therapy (internal, external, or both); radical hysterectomy
Intervention
- Encourage the patient to use relaxation techniques.
- When assisting with a biopsy, drape and prepare the patient as for a routine
Y
pelvic examination. Have a container of formaldehyde ready. Assist the doctor
as needed, and provide support for the patient throughout the procedure.
- If assisting with laser therapy drape and prepare the patient as for a routine
pelvic examination. Assist the doctor as needed and provide support to the
patient.
- Watch for complications related to therapy.
REVIEW QUESTIONS
1. A female who has recurrent urinary tract infection is inquiring about the
prevention of future UTI’s. What information should the nurse include when
teaching the client?
a. Avoid fluid intake after 6 PM
b. Drink 8-10 glasses of water each day
c. Increased the daily intake of carbonated drinks
d. Clean the perineal area with astringent soap twice a day
2. A client with bladder cancer has a prescription of cholinergic medication. The
nurse is aware that this type of medication is prescribe to prevent:
a. Kidney stones
b. Flaccid bladder
c. Spastic bladder
d. Urinary tract infection
3. Which of the following signs and symptoms is not related to cervical cancer?
a. Abnormal bleeding
b. Less frequent urination
c. Painful urination
d. Unusual consistency and color of vaginal discharge
4. A male client is being assessed for cancer of the urinary bladder. Of the
following signs and symptoms, the one significant of cancer of the urinary
tract is:
a. Dysuria
b. Retention
c. Hesitancy
d. Hematuria
5. Which of the following assessment is not a common findings in a female
client suspected of breast cancer?
a. Palpation of lump at the upper outer quadrant of the breast
b. Dimpled skin of breast
c. Symmetry of the breast
d. Nipple discharge and retraction
6. A female client with breast cancer will have to undergo radical mastectomy.
The knows that this procedure involves:
a. Removal of lump and surrounding breast tissue
b. Removal of breast only
c. Removal breast muscle layer down to the chest wall and axillary lymph
nodes
CHLAMYDIA
Problem
- Sexually transmitted disease cause by chlamydia trachomatis commonly
E -
Causes
Urinary frequency
- Chlamydia trachomatis
Test Results
- Antigen detection methods, including enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
and direct fluorescent antibody test, are the diagnostic tests of choice for
identifying chlamydial infection, although tissue cell cultures are more
sensitive and specific.
-
Treatment
- Antibiotics: doxycycline (Vibramycin), azithromycin (Zithromax)
Y
SPICING UP ON KEY CONCEPT
165
CHRONIC GLOMERULONEPHRITIS
Problem
Causes
- Acute and chronic kidney disease
- Chronic UTI
- CHF and Pulmonary edema
Test results
E
- Kidney biopsy identifies the underlying disease and provides data needed to
guide therapy.
- Blood studies reveal rising BUN and serum creatinine levels which indicate
advanced renal insufficiency
- Urinalysis reveals proteinuria, hematuria, cylindruria, and RBC casts.
Treatments
- Dialysis
- Kidney transplant
Intervention
Y
166
Problem
K
- Progressive, irreversible destruction of the kidneys leading to loss of renal
function.
Manifestation
- Azotemia
- Decreased urine output
- Heart failure
- Lethargy
- Pruritus
- Weight gain
Causes
- Diabetes mellitus
- Hypertension
- Nephrotoxins
- Recurrent UTI
Test results
Treatment
- Limited fluids
- Low-protein, low-sodium, low-potassium, low-phosphorus; high-calorie, and
high-carbohydrate diet
- Peritoneal dialysis and hemodialysis
- Antacids: aluminum hydroxide gel (AlternaGEL)
- Antiemetic: prochlorperazine (Compazine)
- Calcium supplement calcium carbonate (Os-Cal)
Y
167
REVIEW QUESTIONS
1. The nurse is caring for the client diagnosed with chronic kidney disease
(CKD) who is experiencing metabolic acidosis. Which statement best
describes the scientific rationale for metabolic acidosis in this client?
a. There is an increased excretion of phosphates and organic acids, which
leads to an increase in arterial blood ph
b. A shortened life span of red blood cells because of damage secondary to
dialysis treatments in turn leads to metabolic acidosis.
c. The kidney cannot excrete increased levels of acid because they cannot
excrete ammonia or cannot reabsorb sodium bicarbonate.
d. An increase in nausea and vomiting causes a loss of hydrochloric acid
and the respiratory system cannot compensate adequately.
2. The nurse in the dialysis center is initiating the morning dialysis run. Which
client should the nurse assess first?
a. The client who has hemoglobin of 9.8 g/dL and hematocrit of 30%.
b. The client who does not have a palpable thrill or auscultated bruit.
c. The client who is complaining of being exhausted and is sleeping.
d. The client who did not take antihypertensive medication this morning.
3. The male client diagnosed with CKD has received the initial dose of
erythropoietin, a biologic response modifier, 1 week ago. Which complaint by
the client indicates the need to notify the health-care provider?
a. The client complains of flu-like symptoms.
b. The client complains of being tired all the time.
c. The client reports an elevation in his blood pressure.
d. The client reports discomfort in his legs and back.
4. The nurse is developing a nursing care plan for the client diagnosed with
CKD. Which nursing problem is priority for the client?
a. Low self-esteem.
b. 2. Knowledge deficit.
c. 3. Activity intolerance.
d. 4. Excess fluid volume.
CRITICAL THINGKING
1. Discuss the difference between acute renal failure and chronic renal failure
including its management. (10 pts)
CYSTITIS
Problem
E
- Urine culture and sensitivity positively identifies organisms
- (Esherichia coli, Proteus vulgaris, and Streptocossus faecalis).
Treatment
- Diet increased intake of fluids and vitamin C
Intervention
- Assess renal status.
- Force fluids (cranberry or orange juice) to 3 qt (3 L)/day.
- Instruct the patient to decrease his intake of carbonated beverages and to
avoid coffee, tea, and alcohol.
Y
SPICING UP ON KEY CONCEPT
170
GONORRHEA
Problem
K - Infection of the GUT especially the urethra and the cervix, and occasionally
the rectum, pharynx and the eyes
Manifestation
- Dysuria (painful urination)
- Purulent urethral or cervical discharge
- Itching, burning, and pain
Causes
- Exposure to Neisseria via blood and body fluid or through sexual contact
Test Results
- A culture from the site of infection (urethra, cervix, rectum, or pharynx),
grown on a Thayer-Martin or Transgrow medium, usually establishes the
Treatment
- Antibiotics: ceftriaxone (Rocephin), doxycycline (Vibramycin), erythromycin
(E-mycin)
- Prophylactic antibiotics: 1% silver nitrate or erythromycin (EryPed) eye drops
to prevent infection in neonates
Intervention
- Before treatment, establish whether the patient has any drug sensitivities,
and watch closely for adverse effects during therapy.
- Practice standard precautions.
- Routinely instill two drops of 1% silver nitrate or erythromycin in the eyes of
Y all neonates immediately after birth. Check neonate of infected mothers for
signs of infection. Take specimens for culture from the infant’s eyes, pharynx,
and rectum.
HERPES SIMPLEX
Problem
K
- Recurrent viral infection cause by
Herpes Virus type 1: transmitted by oral and respiratory infection affecting
skin and mucus membrane
Herpes virus type 2: primarily affects the genital area and is transmitted via
sexual contact
Manifestation
- Blisters, which may form on any part of the mouth ' Dysuria (in genital
herpes)
- Erythema
- Flulike symptoms
- Skin lesions
E
Causes
- Exposure to the virus through sexual contact
- Contact with herpes virus through oral or respiratory infection
Test Results
- Confirmation requires isolation of the virus from local lesions and a histologic
biopsy.
Treatment
- Antiviral agents: idoxuridine (Herplex Liqufilm), trifluridine (Viprotic), and
vidarabine (Vtra-A)
- 5% acyclovir (Zovirax) ointment (possible relief to patients with genital herpes
or to immunosuppressed patients with Herpes-virus hominis skin infections;
NEUROGENIC BLADDER
Problem
Intervention
- Use strict aseptic technique during insertion of an indwelling urinary
catheter (a temporary measure to drain the incontinent patient’s bladder).
Don't interrupt the closed drainage system for any reason.
- Clean the catheter insertion site with soap and water at least twice a day.
- Clamp the tubing, or empty the catheter bag before transferring the patient
Y -
to a wheelchair or stretcher.
Watch for signs of infection (fever, cloudy or foul-smelling urine.
OVARIAN CANCER
Problem
E Test Results
- Abdominal ultrasonography, computed tomography, or X-ray may delineate
tumor size.
Treatment
- Resection of the involved ovary
- Total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy with
tumor resection, and appendectomy
- Antineoplastics: ciplastin (Platinol), paclitaxel (Taxol), topotecan (Hycamtin)
- Analgesics: morphine, fentanyl (Duragesic-25)
Intervention
Y
Before surgery
PROSTATE CANCER
Problem
K - Malignant tumor of the prostate gland that can obstruct urine flow when
advance gradually to the neck of the bladder,
Manifestation
- Decreased size and force of urinary stream
- Difficulty and frequency of urination
- Urine retention
Causes
- No known etiology
Test results
- Carcinoembryonic antigen is elevated.
- Digital rectal examination reveals palpable firm nodule in gland or diffuse
E -
induration in posterior lobe.
Prostatic-specific antigen is increased.
Treatment
- Radiation implant
- Radical prostatectomy (for localized tumors without metastasis) or TURP (to
relieve obstruction in metastatic disease)
- Luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone agonists: goserelin acetate (Zoladex)
and leuprolide acetate (Lupron)
- Estrogen therapy diethylstilbestrol
- Key interventions
Y Intervention
- Assess renal and fluid status.
- Monitor for signs of infection.
- Assess pain and note the effectiveness of analgesia.
- Maintain the patient’s diet.
- Maintain the patency of the urinary catheter and note drainage.
REVIEW QUESTIONS
1. Which data support to the nurse the client’s diagnosis of acute bacterial
prostatitis?
a. Terminal dribbling.
b. Urinary frequency.
c. Stress incontinence.
d. Sudden fever and chills.
2. Which nursing diagnosis is priority for the client who has undergone a
TURP?
a. Potential for sexual dysfunction.
b. Potential for an altered body image.
c. Potential for chronic infection.
d. Potential for hemorrhage.
3. The client who is postoperative TURP asks the nurse, “When will I know if I
will be able to have sex after my TURP?” Which response is most appropriate
by the nurse?
a. “You seem anxious about your surgery.”
b. “Tell me about your fears of impotency.”
c. “Potency can return in six (6) to eight (8) weeks.”
d. “Did you ask your doctor about your concern?”
4. The client asks, “What does an elevated PSA test mean?” On which scientific
rationale should the nurse base the response?
a. An elevated PSA can result from several different causes.
b. An elevated PSA can be only from prostate cancer.
c. An elevated PSA can be diagnostic for testicular cancer.
d. An elevated PSA is the only test used to diagnose BPH.
5. The client with a TURP who has a continuous irrigation catheter complains of
the need to urinate. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
a. Call the surgeon to inform the HCP of the client’s complaint.
b. Administer the client a narcotic medication for pain.
c. Explain to the client this sensation happens frequently.
d. Assess the continuous irrigation catheter for patency.
6. Which modifiable risk factor should the nurse identify for the development of
cancer of the bladder in a client?
a. Previous exposure to chemicals.
b. Pelvic radiation therapy.
c. Cigarette smoking.
d. Parasitic infections of the bladder.
7. The client diagnosed with cancer of the bladder is scheduled to have a
cutaneous urinary diversion procedure. Which preoperative teaching
intervention specific to the procedure should be included?
a. Demonstrate turn, cough, and deep breathing.
b. Explain a bag will drain the urine from now on.
c. Instruct the client on the use of a PCA pump.
d. Take the client to the ICU so the client can become familiar with it.
Treatment
- Diet for calcium stones, acid-ash with limited intake of calcium and milk
products; for oxalate stones, alkaline-ash with limited intake of foods high in
oxalate (cola, tea); for uric acid stones, alkaline-ash with limited intake of
foods high in purine
- Extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy
- Surgery to remove the stone if other measures aren't effective (type of surgery
dependent on location of the stone)
Intervention
Y - Monitor the patient’s urine for evidence of renal calculi. Strain all urine and
save all solid material for analysis.
- Force fluids to 3 qt (3 L)/day
- If surgery was performed, check dressings regularly for bloody drainage and
report excessive amounts of bloody drainage to the doctor, use sterile
technique to change the dressing; maintain nephrostomy tube or indwelling
urinary catheter if indicated; and monitor the incision site for signs of
infection.
SYPHILIS
Problem
K - Chronic STD that begins in the mucus membrane and quickly becomes
systemic spreading to nearby lymph nodes and the blood stream
Manifestation
Primary syphilis
Secondary syphilis
E
- Exposure to spirochete “treponema pallidum” through sexual contact
- Transplacental transmission
Test Results
- Fluorescent treponemal antibody-absorption test identifies antigens of T.
pallidum in tissue, ocular fluid, cerebrospinal tracheobronchial secretions,
and exudates from lesions. This is the most sensitive test available for
detecting syphilis in all stages. Once reactive, it remains so permanently.
- Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) slide test and rapid plasma
reagin test detect nonspecific antibodies. Both tests, if positive, become
reactive within 1 to 2 weeks after the primary lesion appears or 4 to 5 weeks
after the infection begins.
Treatment
- Antibiotic: penicillin G benzathine (Permapen); if allergic to. penicillin,
erythromycin (Erythrocin) or tetracycline (Panmycin)
Y Intervention
- Check for a history of drug sensitivity before administering the first dose of
penicillin.
- Urge the patient to seek VDRL testing after 3,6,12 and 24 months. A patients
treated for latent or late syphilis should receive blood tests at 6-month
intervals for 2 years.
TESTICULAR CANCER
Problem
E
Test Results
- Regular self-examinations and testicular palpation during a routine physical
examination may detect testicular tumors.
Treatment
- Surgery: orchietomy (testicle removal; most surgeons remove the testicle but
not the scrotum to allow for a prosthetic implant)
- High-calorie diet provided in small frequent feedings
- I.V. fluid therapy
- Antineoplastics: bleomycin (Blenoxane), carboplatin (Paraplatin), cisplatin
(Platinol), dectinomycin (Cosmegen), etoposide (VePesid), ifosfamide (Iflex),
plicamycine (Mithracin), vinblastine (Velban)
- Analgesics: morphine, fentanyl (Duragesic-25)
- Antiemetics: thrimethobenzamide (Tigan), metoclopramide (Reglan),
ondansetron (Zofran)
Y Intervention
- Develop a treatment plan that addresses the patient’s psychological and
physical needs.
After orchiectomy
- For the first day after surgery, apply an ice pack to the scrotum and provide
analgesics.
- Check for excessive bleeding, swelling, and signs of infection.
- Give anti-emetics, as needed.
- Encourage small, frequent meals.
- Watch for signs of myelosuppression.
REVIEW QUESTIONS
1. The laboratory data reveal a calcium phosphate renal stone for a client
diagnosed with renal calculi. Which discharge teaching intervention should the
nurse implement?
a. Encourage the client to eat a low-purine diet and limit foods such as organ
meats.
b. Explain the importance of not drinking water two (2) hours before bedtime.
c. Discuss the importance of limiting vitamin D–enriched foods.
d. Prepare the client for extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL).
2. The client diagnosed with renal calculi is admitted to the medical unit. Which
intervention should the nurse implement first?
a. Monitor the client’s urinary output.
b. Assess the client’s pain and rule out complications.
c. Increase the client’s oral fluid intake.
d. Use a safety gait belt when ambulating the client.
3. The client with possible renal calculi is scheduled for a renal ultrasound.
Which intervention should the nurse implement for this procedure?
a. Ask if the client is allergic to shellfish or iodine.
b. Keep the client NPO eight (8) hours prior to the ultrasound.
c. Ensure the client has a signed informed consent form.
d. Explain the test is non-invasive and there is no discomfort.
4. Which clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to assess for the client
diagnosed with a ureteral renal stone?
a. Dull, aching flank pain and microscopic hematuria.
b. Nausea; vomiting; pallor; and cool, clammy skin.
c. Gross hematuria and dull suprapubic pain with voiding.
d. The client will be asymptomatic.
5. Which of the following symptom is consistent of primary syphilis?
a. A painless genital ulcer that appears about 3 weeks after unprotected sex
b. Copper colored macules ton the palms that appear
c. Patchy hair loss in red and broken skin involving the scalp
d. One or more flat wart-like papules
6. A 70 year old male client is diagnosed with secondary syphilis. Which finding
should the nurse expect during assessment?
a. Chronic bone and joint irritation
b. Tender lymphadenopathy
c. Generalized rash on the palms and soles
d. Personality changes and mental confusion
7. Which of the following statement shows the significance elevation in alpha-
fetoprotein level after orchiectomy for testicular cancer?
a. Fertility is maintained
b. The cancer has recurred
c. There is metastatic disease
CRITICAL THINKING