th

PRACTICE TEST PART 1-A; 5 edition-A

1. Which of the following describes correct centering for the lateral position of a barium-filled
stomach?

(A) Midway between the vertebrae and the left lateral margin of the abdomen
(B) Midway between the midcoronal plane and the anterior surface of the abdomen
(C) Midway between the midsagittal plane and the right lateral margin of the abdomen
(D) Midway between the midcoronal plane and the posterior surface of the abdomen

2. An MRI procedure is contraindicated for a patient having

(A) herniated disc.

(B) aneurysm clips.
(C) dental fillings.
(D) subdural bleeding.

3. When examining a patient whose elbow is in partial flexion, how should the AP projection be
obtained?
1. With humerus parallel to film, central ray perpendicular
2. With forearm parallel to film, central ray perpendicular
3. Through the partially flexed elbow, resting on the olecranon process, central ray
perpendicular

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

4. If the distance from the focal spot to the center of the collimator's mirror is 6 in, what distance
should the illuminator's light bulb be from the center of the mirror?

(A) 3 in
(B) 6 in
(C) 9 in
(D) 12 in

5. The presence of ionizing radiation may be detected in which of the following ways?
1. Ionizing effect on air
2. Photographic effect on film emulsion
3. Fluorescent effect on certain crystals

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

6. When caring for a patient with an IV, the radiographer should keep the medication

(A) 18 to 20 in above the level of the vein.

(B) 18 to 20 in below the level of the vein.
(C) 28 to 30 in above the level of the vein.
(D) 28 to 30 in below the level of the vein.
7. Peripheral lymphatic vessels are located using

(A) ethiodized oil.

(B) blue dye.
(C) a tiny scalpel.
(D) water-soluble iodinated media.

8. The AP axial projection, or "frog leg" position, of the femoral neck places the patient in a supine
position with the affected thigh

(A) adducted 25º from the horizontal.

(B) abducted 25º from the vertical.
(C) adducted 40º from the horizontal.
(D) abducted 40º from the vertical.

9. The technique that is used to improve diagnostic quality by removing superimposed anatomic
details from an x-ray image is called

(A) xeroradiography.
(B) subtraction.
(C) CT.
(D) MRI.

10. Types of gonadal shielding include which of the following?

1. Flat contact
2. Shaped contact (contour)
3. Shadow

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

11. "Flattening" of the hemidiaphragms is characteristic of which of the following conditions?

(A) Pneumothorax
(B) Emphysema
(C) Pleural effusion
(D) Pneumonia

12. Which of the following can be used to determine the sensitivity of a particular film emulsion?

(A) Sensitometric curve

(B) Dose-response curve
(C) Reciprocity law
(D) Inverse square law

13. During intravenous (IV) urography, the prone position is generally recommended to
demonstrate
1. filling of obstructed ureters.
2. the renal pelvis.
3. the superior calyces.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

14. Anaphylaxis is the term used to describe

(A) an inflammatory reaction.

(B) bronchial asthma.
(C) acute chest pain.
(D) allergic shock.

15. The manubrial notch is at approximately the same level as the

(A) fifth thoracic vertebra.

(B) T2-3 interspace.
(C) T4-5 interspace.
(D) costal margin.

16. When a radiographer is obtaining a patient history, both subjective and objective data should
be obtained. An example of subjective data is

(A) The patient appears to have a productive cough.

(B) The patient has a blood pressure of 130/95.
(C) The patient states that he experiences extreme pain in the upright position.
(D) The patient has a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant of the left breast.

17. Shape distortion is influenced by the relationship between the

1. x-ray tube and the part to be imaged.
2. part to be imaged and the image recorder.
3. image recorder and the x-ray tube.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

18. According to the CDC (Centers for Disease Control and Prevention), all of the following
precaution guidelines are true, except

(A) Airborne precautions require that the patient wear a mask.

(B) Masks are indicated when caring for patients on MRSA precautions.
(C) Patients under MRSA precautions require a negative-pressure room.
(D) Gloves are indicated when caring for a patient on droplet precautions.

19. Which of the following is (are) accurate criticism(s) of the open-mouth projection of C1-2 seen
in Figure 2-22?
1. The MSP is not centered and perpendicular to the midline of the table.
2. The neck should be flexed more.
3. The neck should be extended more.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1 and 3 only
20. Ingestion of barium sulfate is contraindicated in which of the following situations?
1. Suspected perforation of a hollow viscus
2. Suspected large-bowel obstruction
3. Presurgical patients

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

21. When reviewing patient blood chemistry levels, what is considered the normal creatinine
range?

(A) 0.6 to 1.5 mg/100 mL

(B) 4.5 to 6 mg/100 mL
(C) 8 to 25 mg/100 mL
(D) Up to 50 mg/100 mL

22. Radiographs from a particular single-phase, full-wave-rectified x-ray unit were overexposed,
using known correct exposures. A spinning top test was performed at 200 mA, 0.05 s, and 70
kVp, and eight dots (dashes) were visualized on the finished film. Which of the following is
indicated?

(A) The 0.05-s time station is inaccurate.

(B) The 200-mA station is inaccurate.
(C) A rectifier is not functioning.
(D) The processor needs servicing.

23. Which of the following articulations may be described as diarthrotic?

1. Knee
2. Intervertebral joints
3. Temporomandibular joint (TMJ)

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

24. Diseases whose mode of transmission is through the air include

1. tuberculosis.
2. mumps.
3. rubella.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
25. Figure 2-5 illustrates which of the following positions?

(A) AP
(B) Medial oblique
(C) Lateral oblique
(D) Partial flexion

26. When the patient is recumbent and the central ray is directed horizontally, the patient is said
to be in the

(A) Trendelenburg position.

(B) Fowler's position.
(C) decubitus position.
(D) Sims position.

27. Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the PA axial projection of the
paranasal sinuses?
1. The central ray is directed caudally to the OML.
2. The petrous pyramids are projected into the lower third of the orbits.
3. The frontal sinuses are visualized.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

28. Which of the following occurs during bremsstrahlung radiation production?

(A) An electron makes a transition from an outer to an inner electron shell.

(B) An electron approaching a positive nuclear charge changes direction and loses energy.
(C) A high-energy photon ejects an outer-shell electron.
(D) A low-energy photon ejects an inner-shell electron.

29. A patient whose systolic blood pressure is less than 90 mmHg is usually considered

(A) hypertensive.
(B) hypotensive.
(C) average / normal.
(D) baseline.
30. The position shown in Figure 2-15 is known as:

(A) ventral decubitus.

(B) dorsal decubitus.
(C) left lateral decubitus.
(D) right lateral decubitus.

31. Which projection of the foot will best demonstrate the longitudinal arch?

(A) Mediolateral
(B) Lateromedial
(C) Lateral weight-bearing
(D) 30º medial oblique

32. During atrial systole, blood flows into the right ventricle by way of what valve?

(A) Pulmonary semilunar

(B) Aortic
(C) Mitral
(D) Tricuspid

33. The structure(s) best demonstrated on an AP axial projection of the skull with the central ray
directed 40 to 60º caudally is (are) the

(A) entire foramen magnum and the jugular foramina.

(B) petrous pyramids.
(C) occipital bone.
(D) rotundum foramina.

34. Which of the following illustrates the inverse square law?

1. Distance is a most effective protection from radiation.
2. Distance is a rather ineffective protection from radiation.
3. As distance from the radiation source decreases, radiation decreases.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
35. The position illustrated in the radiograph in Figure 2-26 may be obtained with the patient:

1. supine and the central ray angled 30º caudad.

2. supine and the central ray angled 30º cephalad.
3. prone and the central ray angled 30º cephalad.

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only

36. In order to produce a just perceptible increase in radiographic density, the radiographer must
increase the:

(A) mAs by 30 percent.

(B) mAs by 15 percent.
(C) kVp by 15 percent.
(D) kVp by 30 percent.

37. That portion of a long bone where cartilage has been replaced by bone is known as the:

(A) diaphysis.
(B) epiphysis.
(C) metaphysis.
(D) apophysis.

38. All of the following statements regarding handwashing and skin care are correct except :

(A) Hands should be washed after each patient examination.

(B) Faucets should be opened and closed with paper towels.
(C) Hands should be smooth and free from chapping.
(D) Any cracks or abrasions should be left uncovered to facilitate healing.

39. When a pair of intensifying screens are mounted inside a cassette, a thicker screen may be
mounted:

(A) inside the front of the cassette.

(B) inside the lid (rear) of the cassette.
(C) with a water-soluble paste.
(D) using a more pliable adhesive.
40. A focal spot size of 0.3 mm or smaller is essential for:

(A) small-bone radiography.

(B) magnification radiography.
(C) tomography.
(D) fluoroscopy.

41. A student radiographer who is under 18 years of age must not receive an annual occupational
dose greater than:

(A) 0.1 rem (1 mSv).

(B) 0.5 rem (5 mSv).
(C) 5 rem (50 mSv).
(D) 10 rem (100 mSv).

42. Which of the following patient rights is violated by discussing privileged patient information
with an individual who is not involved with the patient's care?
1. The right to considerate and respectful care
2. The right to privacy
3. The right to continuity of care

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only

43. The uppermost portion of the iliac crest is at approximately the same level as the:

(A) costal margin.

(B) umbilicus.
(C) xiphoid tip.
(D) fourth lumbar vertebra.

44. When green-sensitive rare earth screens are properly matched with the correct film, what type
of safelight should be used in the darkroom?

(A) Wratten 6B
(B) GBX or GS1
(C) Amber
(D) None

45. If an AP hip technique required 92 kVp with single-phase x-ray equipment, what kVp would
produce a comparable image with three-phase equipment?

(A) 69
(B) 75
(C) 81
(D) 103

46. Which of the following statements regarding myelography is (are) correct?

1. Spinal puncture may be performed in the prone or flexed lateral position.

2. Contrast medium distribution is regulated through x-ray tube angulation.
3. The patient's neck must be in extension during Trendelenburg positions.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

47. With which of the following is zonography associated?

1. Thick tomographic cuts
2. Long exposure amplitude
3. Less blurring than with pluridirectional tomography because a narrow exposure angle
is used

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only

48. The steeper the straight-line portion of a characteristic curve for a particular film, the
1. slower the film speed.
2. higher the film contrast.
3. greater the exposure latitude.

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

49. The radiograph seen in Figure 2-20 was made in what position?

(A) PA
(B) RAO
(C) LPO
(D) Right lateral

50. Which statement(s) would be true regarding tracheostomy patients?

1. Tracheostomy patients have difficulty speaking.

2. A routine chest x-ray requires the tracheostomy tubing to be rotated out of view.
3. Audible rattling sounds indicate a need for suction.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

51. Which of the following would be obtained with the position illustrated in Figure 2-17?

1. Splenic flexure and descending colon

2. Hepatic flexure and ascending colon
3. Hepatic flexure and descending colon

(A) 1 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1 and 3 only

52. Which of the following chemicals is used in the production of radiographic film emulsion?

(A) Sodium sulfite

(B) Potassium bromide
(C) Silver halide
(D) Chrome alum

53. The cause of films coming from the automatic processor still damp can be:

(A) air velocity too high.

(B) unbalanced processing temperatures.
(C) insufficient hardening action.
(D) underreplenishment.

54. Which of the following examinations require(s) ureteral catheterization?

1. Retrograde pyelogram
2. Cystourethrogram
3. Cystoscopy

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
55. In order to demonstrate the pulmonary apices with the patient in the AP position, the:

(A) central ray is directed 15 to 20º cephalad.

(B) central ray is directed 15 to 20º caudad.
(C) exposure is made on full exhalation.
(D) patient's shoulders are rolled forward.

56. The medical term for congenital clubfoot is:

(A) coxa plana.

(B) osteochondritis.
(C) talipes.
(D) muscular dystrophy.

57. The continued emission of light by a phosphor after the activating source has ceased is
termed:

(A) fluorescence.
(B) phosphorescence.
(C) image intensification.
(D) quantum mottle.

58. Which of the following must be included in the patient's medical record or chart?
1. Diagnostic and therapeutic orders
2. Medical history
3. Informed consent

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

59. Which of the following conditions would require an increase in exposure factors?
1. Congestive heart failure
2. Pleural effusion
3. Emphysema

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

60. Foreshortening can be caused by

(A) the radiographic object being placed at an angle to the film.

(B) excessive distance between the object and the film.
(C) insufficient distance between the focus and the film.
(D) excessive distance between the focus and the film.

61. Which of the following contribute to the radiographic contrast present on the finished
radiograph?

1. Atomic number of tissues radiographed

2. Any pathologic processes
3. Degree of muscle development
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

62. Which of the following causes pitting, or many small surface melts, of the anode's focal track?

(A) Vaporized tungsten on the glass envelope

(B) Loss of anode rotation
(C) A large amount of heat to a cold anode
(D) Repeated, frequent overloading

63. Which of the following women is likely to have the most homogeneous, glandular breast
tissue?

(A) A postpubertal adolescent

(B) A 20 year old with one previous pregnancy
(C) A menopausal woman
(D) A postmenopausal 65 year old

64. Which of the following drugs is considered a bronchodilator?

(A) Epinephrine
(B) Lidocaine
(C) Nitroglycerin
(D) Verapamil

65. Which of the following pathologic conditions would require an increase in exposure factors?

(A) Pneumoperitoneum
(B) Obstructed bowel
(C) Renal colic
(D) Ascites

66. During a fluoroscopic examination, the milliamperage is:

(A) less than 5

(B) 10 to 20
(C) 50 to 75
(D) 100 to 500

67. What determines the quantity of fluorescent light emitted from a fluorescent screen?
1. Thickness of the phosphor layer
2. Type of phosphor used
3. kV range used for exposure

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
68. When a slow screen / film system is used with a fast screen / film automatic exposure control
system, the resulting images:

(A) are too light.

(B) are too dark.
(C) have improved detail.
(D) have poor detail.

69. The focal spot-to-table distance, in mobile fluoroscopy, must be:

(A) a minimum of 15 in.

(B) a maximum of 15 in.
(C) a minimum of 12 in.
(D) a maximum of 12 in.

70. n the posterior oblique position of the cervical spine, the central ray should be directed:

(A) parallel to C4.

(B) perpendicular to C4.
(C) 15º cephalad to C4.
(D) 15º caudad to C4.

71. When an automatic processor is started up at the beginning of the day, or restarted after an
extended standby period, the technologist should process an:

(A) unexposed, undeveloped 14 × 17-in film.

(B) exposed and developed 14 × 17-in film.
(C) unexposed and developed 14 × 17-in film.
(D) unexposed or unexposed and developed 14 × 17-in film.

72. You have encountered a person who is apparently unconscious. Although you open his
airway, there is no rise and fall of the chest, and you can hear no breath sounds. You should:

(A) begin mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing, giving two full breaths.

(B) proceed with the Heimlich maneuver.
(C) begin external chest compressions at a rate of 80 to 100 per minute.
(D) begin external chest compressions at a rate of at least 100 per minute.

73. The Heimlich maneuver is used if a patient is:

(A) in cardiac arrest.

(B) choking.
(C) having a seizure.
(D) suffering from hiccups.

74. The three radiographs illustrated in Figure 4-2 were made with identical exposures, but one
was developed at 90ºF, one at the usual 95ºF, and one at 100ºF. Which is the radiograph made
at 100ºF?
(A) Film A
(B) Film B
(C) Film C
(D) none of these

75. Which of the following errors is illustrated in Figure 4-11?

(A) Patient not centered to film

(B) X-ray tube not centered to grid
(C) Inaccurate collimation
(D) Unilateral grid cutoff

76. Which of the following most effectively minimizes radiation exposure to the patient?

(A) Small focal spot

(B) Low-ratio grids
(C) Long source-image distance
(D) High-speed intensifying screens

77. The automatic exposure device that is located immediately under the x-ray table is the:

(A) ionization chamber.

(B) scintillation camera.
(C) photomultiplier.
(D) photocathode
78. The term that refers to parts closer to the source or beginning is:

(A) cephalad.
(B) caudad.
(C) proximal.
(D) medial.

79. Which of the following are components of a trimalleolar fracture?

1. Fractured lateral malleolus
2. Fractured medial malleolus
3. Fractured posterior tibia

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

80. Primary radiation barriers must be at least how high?

(A) 5 ft
(B) 6 ft
(C) 7 ft
(D) 8 ft

81. In reviewing a patient's blood chemistry, which of the following blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
ranges is considered normal?

(A) 0.6 to 1.5 mg/100 mL

(B) 4.5 to 6 mg/100 mL
(C) 8 to 25 mg/100 mL
(D) Up to 50 mg/100 mL

82. The chemical agent alcohol can be used effectively as a(n)

(A) antiseptic.
(B) germicide.
(C) disinfectant.
(D) antibiotic.

83. In which type of fracture are the splintered ends of bone forced through the skin?
(A) Closed
(B) Compound
(C) Compression
(D) DepressedAnswers and Explanations

84. Which of the following is (are) composed of nondividing, differentiated cells?

1. Neurons and neuroglia
2. Epithelial tissue
3. Lymphocytes

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
85. Which of the radiographs in Figure 4-4 most likely required a greater exposure?

(A) Film A
(B) Film B
(C) No difference in exposure was required
(D) Cannot be determined

86. Which of the following projections is most likely to demonstrate the carpal pisiform free of
superimposition?

(A) Radial flexion

(B) Ulnar flexion
(C) AP oblique
(D) AP 6.

87. In which of the following conditions is a double-contrast barium enema (BE) essential for
demonstration of the condition?
1. Polyps
2. Colitis
3. Diverticulosis

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

88. Patients are instructed to remove all jewelry, hair clips, metal prostheses, coins, and credit
cards before entering the room for an examination in:

(A) sonography.
(B) computed axial tomography (CAT).
(C) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
(D) nuclear medicine.

89. Radiographs from a particular three-phase, full-wave-rectified x-ray unit, made using known
correct exposures, were underexposed. A synchronous spinning top test was performed using
200 mA, 1/12 s, and 70 kVp, and a 20º arc is observed on the test film. Which of the following is
most likely the problem?
(A) The 1/12-s time station is inaccurate.
(B) The 200-mA station is inaccurate.
(C) A rectifier is not functioning.
(D) The processor needs servicing.

90. The pedicle is represented by what part of the "scotty dog" seen in a correctly positioned
oblique lumbar spine?

(A) Eye
(B) Front foot
(C) Body
(D) Neck

91. In Figure 2-25, which of the following is represented by the number 1?

(A) Pedicle
(B) Lamina
(C) Spinous process
(D) Superior articular process

92. All of the following are associated with the anode except :

(A) the line focus principle.

(B) the heel effect.
(C) the focal track.
(D) thermionic emission.

93. Hypochlorite bleach (Clorox) and Lysol are examples of:

(A) antiseptics.
(B) bacteriostatics.
(C) antifungal agents.
(D) disinfectants.

94. Guidelines for the use of protective shielding state that gonadal shielding should be used:
1. if the patient has reasonable reproductive potential.
2. when the gonads are within 5 cm of the collimated field.
3. when tight collimation is not possible.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only

95. Using a 48-in SID, how much object-image distance (OID) must be introduced to magnify an
object two times?

(A) 8 in OID
(B) 12 in OID
(C) 16 in OID
(D) 24 in OID

96. Which of the following statements regarding the radiograph in Figure 2-3 is (are) true?

1. The tibial eminences are well visualized.

2. The intercondyloid fossa is demonstrated between the femoral condyles.
3. The femorotibial articulation is well demonstrated.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
97. The four major arteries supplying the brain include the
1. brachiocephalic artery.
2. common carotid arteries.
3. vertebral arteries.

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

98. Which of the following is performed to check the correctness of the developing parameters?

(A) Densitometry
(B) A thorough cleaning of rollers
(C) A warm-up procedure
(D) Sensitometry

99. Which of the following interventional procedures can be used to increase the diameter of a
stenosed vessel?
1. percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA)
2. stent placement
3. peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC line)

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

100. A "controlled area" is defined as one

1. that is occupied by people trained in radiation safety.
2. that is occupied by people who wear radiation monitors.
3. whose occupancy factor is 1.

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3