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Appleton Practice Test Part 1-C; 5 edition – Question

1. Dedicated radiographic units are available for

1. chest radiography.
2. head radiography.
3. mammography.

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

2. How does the use of rare earth intensifying screens contribute to lowering the patient dose?
1. It permits the use of lower mAs.
2. It permits the use of lower kVp.
3. It eliminates the need for patient shielding.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only

3. In which of the following positions / projections will the talocalcaneal joint be visualized?

(A) Dorsoplantar projection of the foot

(B) Plantodorsal projection of the os calcis
(C) Medial oblique position of the foot
(D) Lateral foot

4. The speed of an intensifying screen is influenced by which of the following factors?

1. Phosphor-layer thickness
2. Antihalation backing
3. Phosphor type used

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

5. An unexposed and processed film will have a density of about

(A) zero.
(B) 0.1.
(C) 1.0.
(D) 2.5.
6. Which of the following examinations require(s) ureteral catheterization?
1. Retrograde pyelogram
2. Cystourethrogram
3. Cystoscopy

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

7. Which of the following articulations may be described as diarthrotic?

1. Knee
2. Intervertebral joints
3. Temporomandibular joint (TMJ)

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

8. When a patient with an arm injury needs help in undressing, the radiographer should

(A) remove clothing from the injured arm first.

(B) remove clothing from the uninjured arm first.
(C) always remove clothing from the left arm first.
(D) always cut clothing away from the injured extremity.

9. Which of the following radiation-induced conditions is most likely to have the longest latent
period?

(A) Leukemia
(B) Temporary sterility
(C) Erythema
(D) Acute radiation lethality

10. The structure(s) best demonstrated on an AP axial projection of the skull with the central ray
directed 40 to 60º caudally is (are) the:

(A) entire foramen magnum and the jugular foramina.

(B) petrous pyramids.
(C) occipital bone.
(D) rotundum foramina.

11. The radiograph in Figure 4-18 exhibits an artifact caused by

(A) an inverted focused grid.
(B) poor screen / film contact.
(C) a foreign body in the image receptor.
(D) static electricity.

12. The advantage(s) of collimators over aperture diaphragms and flare cones include(s)
1. the variety of field sizes available.
2. more efficient beam restriction.
3. better cleanup of scattered radiation.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only

13. If one rectifier were malfunctioning, the resulting mAs would be

(A) one-fourth that expected.

(B) one-half that expected.
(C) twice that expected.
(D) four times that expected.

14. Which of the following radiologic examinations can demonstrate ureteral reflux?

(A) Intravenous urogram

(B) Retrograde pyelogram
(C) Voiding cystourethrogram
(D) Nephrotomogram

15. Radiation dose to personnel is reduced by which of the following exposure control cord
guidelines?

1. Exposure cords on fixed equipment must be very short.

2. Exposure cords on mobile equipment should be fairly long.
3. Exposure cords on fixed and mobile equipment should be of the coiled expandable
type.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

16. AP stress studies of the ankle may be performed:

1. to demonstrate fractures of the distal tibia and fibula.
2. following inversion or eversion injuries.
3. to demonstrate a ligament tear.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

17. Patient exposure can be minimized by using which of the following?

1. Accurate positioning
2. High-kV, low-mAs factors
3. Rare earth screens
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

18. Which of the following may be used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint?
1. Scapular Y projection
2. Inferosuperior axial
3. Transthoracic lateral

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

19. In classifying intravenous contrast agents, the total number of dissolved particles in solution
per kilogram of water defines

(A) osmolality.
(B) toxicity.
(C) viscosity.
(D) miscibility.

20. Which of the following statements are true regarding Figure 2-28?

1. The radiograph was made in the RAO position.

2. The central ray should enter more inferiorly.
3. The sternum should be projected onto the right side of the thorax.

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
21. Chemical substances that are used to kill pathogenic bacteria are called
1. antiseptics.
2. germicides.
3. disinfectants.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

22. Methods that help reduce the production of scattered radiation include using
1. compression.
2. beam restriction.
3. a grid.

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

23. What should the patient be instructed to remove prior to x-ray examination of the chest?
1. Dentures
2. Earrings
3. Necklaces

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

24. A light-absorbing dye is frequently incorporated during the manufacture of screens to:

(A) reduce the diffusion of fluorescent light.

(B) decrease film contrast.
(C) increase screen speed.
(D) increase the useful life of the screen.

25. If a radiograph exhibits insufficient density, this might be attributed to

1. inadequate kVp.
2. inadequate SID.
3. grid cutoff.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

26. The relationship between the height of a grid's lead strips and the distance between them is
referred to as grid:

(A) ratio.
(B) radius.
(C) frequency.
(D) focusing distance.
27. A diabetic patient who is prepared for a fasting radiographic exam is susceptible to a
hypoglycemic reaction. This is characterized by
1. shaking and nervousness.
2. cold, clammy skin.
3. cyanosis

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

28. The coronoid process should be visualized in profile in which of the following positions?

(A) Scapular Y
(B) AP scapula
(C) Medial oblique elbow
(D) Lateral oblique elbow

29. Following a barium enema (BE) examination, the patient should be given which of the
following instructions?
1. Increase fluid and fiber intake for several days.
2. Changes in stool color will occur until all barium has been evacuated.
3. Contact a physician if no bowel movement occurs in 24 h

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

30. The medical term for nosebleed is:

(A) vertigo.
(B) epistaxis.
(C) urticaria.
(D) aura.

31. The term latitude describes

1. an emulsion's ability to record a range of densities.
2. the degree of error tolerated with given exposure factors.
3. the conversion efficiency of a given intensifying screen.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

32. Radiographs are the property of the:

(A) radiologist.
(B) patient.
(C) health-care institution.
(D) referring physician.
33. Which of the following is recommended to demonstrate small amounts of air within the
peritoneal cavity?

(A) Lateral decubitus, affected side up

(B) Lateral decubitus, affected side down
(C) AP Trendelenburg
(D) AP supine

34. Which of the following positions is essential in radiography of the paranasal sinuses?

(A) Erect
(B) Recumbent
(C) Oblique
(D) Trendelenburg

35. Which of the positions illustrated in Figure 2-1 should be used to demonstrate the cervical
apophyseal articulations?

1. A
2. B
3. C

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only

36. In order to be used more efficiently by the x-ray tube, alternating current is changed to
unidirectional current by the:

(A) filament transformer.

(B) autotransformer.
(C) high-voltage transformer.
(D) rectifiers.

37. To obtain an AP projection of the right ilium, the patient's:

(A) left side is elevated 40º.

(B) right side is elevated 40º.
(C) left side is elevated 15º.
(D) right side is elevated 15º.
38. Which of the following bony landmarks is in the same transverse plane as the symphysis
pubis?

(A) Ischial tuberosity

(B) Most prominent part of the greater trochanter
(C) Anterior superior iliac spine
(D) Anterior inferior iliac spine

39. Each time an x-ray beam scatters, its intensity at 1 m from the scattering object is what
fraction of its original intensity?

(A) 1/10
(B) 1/100
(C) 1/500
(D) 1/1000

40. How does filtration affect the primary beam?

(A) It increases the average energy of the primary beam.

(B) It decreases the average energy of the primary beam.
(C) It makes the primary beam more penetrating.
(D) It increases the intensity of the primary beam.

41. Which of the following can be an effective means of reducing radiation exposure?
1. Barriers
2. Distance
3. Time

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

42. Excessive anode heating can cause vaporized tungsten to be deposited on the port window.
This can result in:
1. decreased tube output.
2. tube failure.
3. electrical sparking.

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

43. In fluoroscopy, the automatic brightness control adjusts the:

(A) kVp and mA.

(B) backup timer.
(C) mA and time.
(D) kVp and time.

44. Examples of nasogastric tubes include

1. Swan-Ganz.
2. Salem-sump.
3. Levin.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

45. The use of all of the following will function to reduce patient dose except :

(A) collimation.
(B) high-kVp, low-mAs factors.
(C) a grid.
(D) fast intensifying screens.

46. For which of the following conditions is operative cholangiography a useful tool?
1. Biliary tract calculi
2. Patency of the biliary ducts
3. Function of the sphincter of Oddi

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

47. Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the images seen in Figure 2-31?

1. Image A is positioned in internal rotation.

2. Image B is positioned in internal rotation.
3. The greater tubercle is better demonstrated in image A.

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
48. Skin discoloration due to cyanosis may be observed in the
1. gums.
2. nailbeds.
3. thorax.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

49. Which of the following vertebral groups form(s) lordotic curve(s)?

1. Cervical
2. Thoracic
3. Lumbar

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1 and 3 only

50. In order to better demonstrate the mandibular rami in the PA position, the:

(A) skull is obliqued toward the affected side.

(B) skull is obliqued away from the affected side.
(C) central ray is angled cephalad.
(D) central ray is angled caudad.

51. Which of the following drugs is considered a bronchodilator?

(A) Epinephrine
(B) Lidocaine
(C) Nitroglycerin
(D) Verapamil

52. For which of the following examinations can the anode heel effect be an important
consideration?
1. Lateral thoracic spine
2. AP femur
3. RAO sternum

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

53. Which of the following are considered especially radiosensitive tissues?

1. Blood-forming organs
2. Reproductive organs
3. Lymphocytes

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

54. The brightness level of the fluoroscopic image can vary with
1. milliamperage.
2. kilovoltage.
3. patient thickness.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

55. Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the tarsal navicular free of
superimposition?

(A) AP oblique, medial rotation

(B) AP oblique, lateral rotation
(C) Mediolateral
(D) Lateral weight-bearing

56. Which of the following is (are) associated with subject contrast?

1. Patient thickness
2. Tissue density
3. Kilovoltage

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

57. Prior to the start of an IV urogram, which of the following procedures should be carried out?
1. Have patient empty the bladder.
2. Review the patient's allergy history.
3. Check the patient's creatinine level.

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

58. Isotopes are atoms that have the same:

(A) mass number but a different atomic number.

(B) atomic number but a different mass number.
(C) atomic number but a different neutron number.
(D) atomic number and mass number.

59. With the patient positioned as illustrated in Figure 2-18, which of the following structures is
best demonstrated?
(A) Patella
(B) Patellofemoral articulation
(C) Intercondyloid fossa
(D) Tibial tuberosity

60. The most commonly used types of automatic exposure control devices are the

1. ion chamber.
2. photomultiplier tube.
3. cathode ray tube.

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

61. Which of the following are methods used for silver reclamation?
1. Photoelectric method
2. Metallic replacement method
3. Electrolytic method

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

62. According to National Council on Radiation Protection and Measurements (NCRP)

regulations, leakage radiation from the x-ray tube must not exceed:

(A) 10 mR/h.
(B) 100 mR/h.
(C) 10 mR/min
(D) 100 mR/min

63. A patient in a recumbent position with the head lower than the feet is said to be in which of
the following positions?

(A) Trendelenburg
(B) Fowler's
(C) Sims
(D) Stenver's
64. For the AP projection of the scapula, the
1. patient's arm is abducted at right angles to the body.
2. patient's elbow is flexed with the hand supinated.
3. exposure is made during quiet breathing.

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
130 138
65. The symbols 56Ba and 56Ba are examples of which of the following?

(A) Isotopes
(B) Isobars
(C) Isotones
(D) Isomers

66. Which of the following will occur as a result of a decrease in the anode target angle?
1. Less pronounced anode heel effect
2. Decreased effective focal spot size
3. Greater photon intensity toward the cathode side of the x-ray tube

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

67. The squeegee assembly in an automatic processor

1. functions to remove excess solution from films.
2. is located near the crossover rollers.
3. helps establish the film's rate of travel.

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

68. The advantage(s) of high-kilovoltage chest radiography is (are) that

1. exposure latitude is increased.
2. it produces long-scale contrast.
3. it reduces patient dose.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

69. Which of the following statements is (are) correct with respect to evaluation criteria for a PA
projection of the chest for lungs?
1. The sternoclavicular joints should be symmetrical.
2. The sternum is seen lateral without rotation.
3. Ten anterior ribs are demonstrated above the diaphragm.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

70. When a radiographer is obtaining a patient history, both subjective and objective data should
be obtained. An example of subjective data is:

(A) The patient appears to have a productive cough.

(B) The patient has a blood pressure of 130/95.
(C) The patient states that he experiences extreme pain in the upright position.
(D) The patient has a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant of the left breast.

71. Types of moving grid mechanisms include

1. oscillating.
2. reciprocating.
3. synchronous.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only

72. Which of the following body fluids is (are) potential carrier(s) of HIV?
1. Semen
2. Vaginal secretions
3. Blood

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

73. Several types of exposure timers may be found on x-ray equipment. Which of the following
types of timers functions to accurately duplicate radiographic densities?

(A) Synchronous
(B) Impulse
(C) Electronic
(D) Phototimer

74. The left and right oblique cervical spine radiographs seen in Figure 4-3 were performed using
automatic exposure control (AEC) during a particular examination. Which of the following is most
likely to account for the difference in radiographic density between the images?
(A) Focused grid placed upside down
(B) Incorrect photocell selected
(C) Incorrect positioning of the part being imaged
(D) Patient motion during exposure

75. The effect described as differential absorption is

1. responsible for radiographic contrast.
2. a result of attenuating characteristics of tissue.
3. minimized by the use of high kVp.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

76. If 300 mA has been selected for a particular exposure, what exposure time would be required
to produce 60 mAs?

(A) 1/60 s
(B) 1/30 s
(C) 1/10 s
(D) 1/5 s

77. Which of the following is performed to check the correctness of the developing parameters?

(A) Densitometry
(B) A thorough cleaning of rollers
(C) A warm-up procedure
(D) Sensitometry

78. Radiographers use monitoring devices to record their monthly exposure to radiation. The
types of devices suited for this purpose include the
1. pocket dosimeter.
2. thermoluminescent dosimeter (TLD).
3. optically stimulated luminescence dosimeter (OSL).

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

79. Blowout fractures of the orbit are best demonstrated using the:

(A) lateral projection of the facial bones.

(B) parietoacanthial projection (Waters' method).
(C) posteroanterior projection with a 15º caudal angle.
(D) Sweet's localization method.

80. In what position was the radiograph in Figure 2-30 made?

(A) Flexion
(B) Extension
(C) Left bending
(D) Right bending

81. All of the following are palpable bony landmarks used in radiography of the pelvis except the:

(A) femoral neck.

(B) pubic symphysis.
(C) greater trochanter.
(D) iliac crest.

82. Which of the following conditions would require an increase in exposure factors?
1. Congestive heart failure
2. Pleural effusion
3. Emphysema

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

83. In the production of characteristic radiation at the tungsten target, the incident electron:

(A) ejects an inner-shell tungsten electron.

(B) ejects an outer-shell tungsten electron.
(C) is deflected, with resulting energy loss.
(D) is deflected, with resulting energy increase.

84. With which of the following does the trapezium articulate?

(A) Fifth metacarpal

(B) First metacarpal
(C) Distal radius
(D) Distal ulna

85. The reduction in x-ray photon intensity as the photon passes through material is termed:

(A) absorption.
(B) scattering.
(C) attenuation.
(D) divergence.

86. Which of the following technical changes would best serve to remedy the effect of widely
different tissue densities?

(A) Use of high-speed screens

(B) Use of a high-ratio grid
(C) High-kVp exposure factors
(D) High-mAs exposure factors

87. Which of the following have an effect on recorded detail?

1. Focal spot size
2. Type of rectification
3. SID
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

88. It is necessary to question a female patient of childbearing age regarding the

1. date of her last menstrual period.
2. possibility of her being pregnant.
3. number of children she presently has.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only

89. Referring to the anode cooling chart in Figure 5-7, if the anode is saturated with 300,000 heat
units (HU), how long will the anode need to cool before another 160,000 heat units can be safely
applied?

(A) 3 min
(B) 4 min
(C) 5 min
(D) 7 min

90. Components of digital imaging include

1. computer manipulation of the image.
2. formation of an electronic image on the radiation detector.
3. formation of an x-ray image directly on the image receptor.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
91. AP erect left and right bending films of the thoracic and lumbar vertebrae, to include 1 in of
the iliac crest, are performed to demonstrate:

(A) spondylolisthesis.
(B) subluxation.
(C) scoliosis.
(D) arthritis.

92. A patient whose systolic blood pressure is less than 90 mmHg is usually considered:

(A) hypertensive.
(B) hypotensive.
(C) average / normal.
(D) baseline.

93. Which of the following statements is/are true with respect to radiation safety in fluoroscopy?
1. tabletop radiation intensity must not exceed 2.1 R/min/mA
2. tabletop radiation intensity must not exceed 10 R/min
3. in high level fluoroscopy, tabletop intensity up to 20 R/min is permitted

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

94. Which of the following is recommended in order to better demonstrate the tarso-metatarsal
joints in the dorsoplantar projection of the foot?

(A) Invert the foot

(B) Evert the foot
(C) Angle the central ray 10º posteriorly
(D) Angle the central ray 10º anteriorly

95. What are the positions most commonly employed for a radiographic examination of the
sternum?
1. Lateral
2. RAO
3. LAO

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

96. Abnormal accumulation of air in pulmonary tissues, resulting in overdistention of the alveolar
spaces, is:

(A) emphysema.
(B) empyema.
(C) pneumothorax.
(D) pneumoconiosis.
97. A radiograph made using 300 mA, 0.1 s, and 75 kVp exhibits motion unsharpness, but
otherwise satisfactory technical quality. The radiograph will be repeated using a shorter exposure
time. Using 86 kV and 500 mA, what should be the new exposure time?

(A) 0.12 s
(B) 0.06 s
(C) 0.03 s
(D) 0.01 s

98. All of the following statements regarding pediatric positioning are true, except :

(A) For radiography of the kidneys, the central ray should be directed midway between the
diaphragm and the symphysis pubis.
(B) If a pediatric patient is in respiratory distress, a chest radiograph should be obtained in the
AP projection rather than the standard PA projection.
(C) Chest radiography on a neonate should be performed in the supine position.
(D) Radiography of pediatric patients with a myelomeningocele defect should be performed in
the supine position.

99. X-ray film is packaged in a foil bag to protect it from:

(A) excessive heat.

(B) excessive humidity.
(C) radiation fog.
(D) dust.

100. The annual dose limit for occupationally exposed individuals is valid for
(A) alpha, beta, and x-radiations.
(B) x- and gamma radiations only.
(C) beta, x-, and gamma radiations.
(D) all ionizing radiations.