1.

The type of dose–response curve used to predict stochastic effects is the:

(A) nonlinear nonthreshold

(B) nonlinear threshold

(C) linear nonthreshold

(D) linear threshold

2. A dose of 0.25 Gy or 25 rad to the fetus during the 3rd or 4th week of pregnancy is more

likely to cause which of the following:

(A) spontaneous abortion

(B) skeletal anomalies

(C) neurologic anomalies

(D) organogenesis

3. Linear energy transfer (LET) is:

1. a method of expressing radiation quality

2. a measure of the rate at which radiation energy is transferred to soft tissue

3. absorption of polyenergetic radiation

(A) 1 only

(B) 1 and 2 only

(C) 1 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2, and 3

4. What is the effect on relative biologic effectiveness (RBE) as linear energy transfer (LET)

decreases?

(A) as LET decreases, RBE increases

(B) as LET decreases, RBE decreases

(C) as LET decreases, RBE stabilizes

(D) LET has no effect on RBE

5. The effects of radiation to biologic material are dependent on several factors. If a quantity

of radiation is delivered to a body over a long period of time, the effect:

(A) will be greater than if it were delivered all at one time

(B) will be less than if it were delivered all at one time

(C) has no relation to how it is delivered in time

(D) is solely dependent on the radiation quality

6. Which of the following account(s) for x-ray beam heterogeneity?

1. incident electrons interacting with several layers of tungsten target atoms

2. electrons moving to fill different shell vacancies

3. its nuclear origin

(A) 1 only

(B) 1 and 2 only

(C) 1 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2, and 3

7. What is used to account for the relative radiosensitivity of various tissues and organs:

1. tissue weighting factors (W t)

2. radiation weighting factors (W r)

3. absorbed dose

(A) 1 only

(B) 1 and 2 only

(C) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2, and 3

8. How are wavelength and energy related?

(A) directly

(B) inversely

(C) chemically

(D) empirically

9. The beam of x-ray photons leaving the x-ray tube focus can be described as having what

sort of nature?

(A) homogeneous

(B) heterogeneous

(C) homologous

(D) focused

10. Long-term effects of radiation exposure include:

1. formation of cataracts

2. cancer

3. genetic effects
(A) 1 only

(B) 1 and 2 only

(C) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2, and 3

11. Which of the following is (are) a feature(s) of x-ray equipment, designed especially to

eliminate unnecessary radiation to the patient?

1. filtration

2. minimum SSD of 12 inches

3. collimator accuracy

(A) 1 only

(B) 1 and 2 only

(C) 1 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2, and 3

12. The quality assurance term used to describe consistency in output intensity from one exposure
to the next is:

(A) automatic exposure control

(B) positive beam limitation

(C) linearity

(D) reproducibility

13. How does filtration affect the primary beam?

(A) filtration increases the average energy of the primary beam

(B) filtration decreases the average energy of the primary beam

(C) filtration results in an increased patient dose

(D) filtration increases the intensity of the primary beam

14. All of the following affect patient dose, except:

(A) inherent filtration

(B) added filtration

(C) focal spot size

(D) source–image distance

15. Which of the following groups of exposure factors will deliver the greatest amount of

exposure to the patient?

(A) 50 mAs, 100 kV

(B) 100 mAs, 90 kV

(C) 200 mAs, 80 kV

(D) 400 mAs, 70 kV

16. The principal function of x-ray beam filtration is to:

(A) reduce operator dose

(B) reduce patient skin dose

(C) reduce image noise

(D) reduce scattered radiation

17. Patient dose can be decreased by using:

1. high speed film and screen combination

2. high ratio grids

3. air-gap technique

(A) 1 only

(B) 1 and 2 only

(C) 1 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2, and 3

18. Which of the following are included in the types of gonadal shielding?

1. flat contact

2. shaped (contour) contact

3. shadow

(A) 1 only

(B) 1 and 2 only

(C) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2, and 3

19. The advantages of beam restriction include:

1. production of less scattered radiation

2. irradiation of less biologic material

3. less total filtration is required

(A) 1 only

(B) 1 and 2 only

(C) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2, and 3

20. A backup timer for the automatic exposure control serves to:

1. protect the patient from overexposure

2. protect the x-ray tube from excessive heat

3. eventually increase inherent filtration

(A) 1 only

(B) 1 and 2 only

(C) 1 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2, and 3

21. Each time an x-ray photon scatters, its intensity at 1 meter from the scattering object is

what fraction of its original intensity?

(A) 1/10

(B) 1/100

(C) 1/500

(D) 1/1000

22. If an individual received 45 mR while standing at 4 feet from a source of radiation for

2 minutes, which of the options listed below will most effectively reduce his or her

radiation exposure?

(A) standing 6 feet from the source for 2 minutes

(B) standing 5 feet from the source for 1 minute

(C) standing 4 feet from the source for 3 minutes

(D) standing 3 feet from the source for 2 minutes

23. How much protection is provided from a 100 kV x-ray beam when using a 0.50-mm lead

equivalent apron?

(A) 65%

(B) 75%
(C) 88%

(D) 99%

24. Radiation dose to personnel is reduced by the following exposure cord guidelines:

1. exposure cords on mobile equipment must allow the operator to be at least 6 feet

from the x-ray tube

2. exposure cords on fixed equipment must allow the operator to be at least 6 feet

from the x-ray tube

3. exposure cords on fixed and mobile equipment should be the coiled expandable

type

(A) 1 only

(B) 1 and 2 only

(C) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2, and 3

25. Which of the following groups of exposure factors will deliver the least exposure to the

patient?

(A) 10 mAs, 100 kV

(B) 20 mAs, 90 kV

(C) 40 mAs, 80 kV

(D) 80 mAs, 70 kV

26. Some patients, such as infants and children, are unable to stay in the necessary radiographic
position and require assistance. If mechanical restraining devices cannot be used,

who of the following is BEST suited to hold these patients?

(A) floor nurse

(B) transporter

(C) friend or relative

(D) student radiographer

27. Which of the following is (are) a guideline(s) used to reduce personnel and/or patient dose

in fluoroscopy?

1. maximum tabletop intensity of 10 R/min

2. maximum SSD of 12 inches

3. minimum filtration of 2.5 mm Al equivalent

(A) 1 only

(B) 1 and 2 only

(C) 1 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2, and 3

28. Which of the following is (are) a feature(s) of fluoroscopy equipment, designed especially

to eliminate unnecessary radiation to patient and personnel?

1. protective curtain

2. filtration

3. collimation

(A) 1 only

(B) 1 and 2 only

(C) 1 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2, and 3

29. How high primary radiation barriers must at least be?

(A) 5 feet

(B) 6 feet

(C) 7 feet

(D) 8 feet

30. The protective control booth from which the radiographer makes the x-ray exposure

is a:

(A) primary barrier

(B) secondary barrier

(C) useful beam barrier

(D) remnant radiation barrier

31. Which of the following is a measure of dose to biologic tissue?

(A) roentgen (C/kg)

(B) rad (Gy)

(C) rem (Sv)

(D) RBE
32. If a student radiographer who is younger than 18 years begins clinical assignments, what

is his or her annual dose limit?

(A) 0.1 rem (1 mSv)

(B) 0.5 rem (5 mSv)

(C) 5 rem (50 mSv)

(D) 10 rem (100 mSv)

33. The purpose of filters in a film badge is:

(A) to eliminate harmful rays

(B) to measure radiation quality

(C) to prevent exposure from alpha particles

(D) to support the film contained within

34. The dose limits established for the OSL, TLD, filmbadge and pocket dosimeter are valid for:

(A) alpha, beta, and x radiations

(B) x and gamma radiations only

(C) beta, x , and gamma radiations

(D) all ionizing radiations

35. On which of the following the operation of personal radiation monitoring devices depends?

1. ionization

2. thermoluminescence

3. resonance

(A) 1 only

(B) 1 and 2 only

(C) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2, and 3

36. What is the established fetal dose-limit guideline for pregnant radiographers during the

entire gestation period?

(A) 0.1 rem (1 mSv)

(B) 0.5 rem (5 mSv)

(C) 5.0 rem (50 mSv)

(D) 10.0 rem (100 mSv)

37. Which of the following crystals are used in an optically luminescent dosimetry system?
(A) silver bromide

(B) aluminum oxide

(C) lithium fluoride

(D) ferrous sulfate

38. In which period of development is the fetus most radiosensitive?

(A) first trimester

(B) second trimester

(C) third trimester

(D) fourth trimester

39. The unit of measurement used to express occupational exposure is the:

(A) roentgen (C/kg)

(B) rad (Gray)

(C) rem (Sievert)

(D) RBE

40. The NCRP recommends an annual effective occupational dose equivalent limit of:

(A) 25 mSv (2.5 rem)

(B) 50 mSv (5 rem)

(C) 100 mSv (10 rem)

(D) 200 mSv (20 rem)

41. Which of the following types of radiation is (are) considered electromagnetic?

1. X-ray

2. Gamma

3. Beta

(A) 1 only

(B) 1 and 2 only

(C) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2, and 3

42. Which of the following features of fluoroscopic equipment is (are) designed

especially to eliminate unnecessary radiation exposure to the patient and/or

personnel?
1. Bucky slot cover

2. Exposure switch/foot pedal

3. Cumulative exposure timer

(A) 1 only

(B) 1 and 2 only

(C) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2, and 3

43. Radiation output from a diagnostic x-ray tube is measured in which of the

following units of measurement?

(A) Rad

(B) Rem

(C) Roentgen

(D) Becqueral

44. Which of the following is (are) considered especially radiosensitive tissues?

1. Bone marrow

2. Intestinal crypt cells

3. Erythroblasts

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1 and 3 only

(C) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2, and 3

45. Which of the following safeguards is (are) taken to prevent inadvertent

irradiation in early pregnancy?

1. Patient postings

2. Patient questionnaire

3. Elective booking

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1 and 3 only

(C) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2, and 3

46. The interaction between x-ray photons and tissue that is responsible for
radiographic contrast but that also contributes significantly to patient dose is

(A) the photoelectric effect

(B) Compton scatter

(C) coherent scatter

(D) pair production

47. Which of the following is (are) acceptable way(s) to monitor the radiationexposure of those who
are occupationally employed?

1. TLD

2. OSLdosimeter

3. Quarterly blood cell count

(A) 1 only

(B) 1 and 2 only

(C) 1 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2, and 3

48. The genetic dose of radiation borne by each member of the reproductive

population is called the

(A) genetically related dose

(B) genetically significant dose

(C) somatic related dose

(D) somatic significant dose

49. According to the NCRP, the pregnant radiographer’s gestational doseequivalent limit for a 1-
month period is

(A) 1 mSv

(B) 5 mSv

(C) 0.1 mSv

(D) 0.5 mSv

50. Which of the following projections is most likely to deliver the largest dose to the ovaries?

(A) AP lumbar spine, 7 × 17 in. cassette, 80 kVp

(B) AP lumbar spine, 14 × 17 in. cassette, 80 kVp

(C) AP abdomen, 80 kVp

(D) AP abdomen, 70 kVp

51. The correct way(s) to check for cracks in lead aprons is (are)
1. to fluoroscope them once a year

2. to radiograph them at low kilovoltage twice a year

3. by visual inspection

(A) 1 only

(B) 1 and 2 only

(C) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2, and 3

52. The target theory applies to

(A) spermatagonia

(B) oocytes

(C) lymphocytes

(D) DNA molecules

53. Which of the following is (are) features of fluoroscopic equipment designed especially to
eliminate unnecessary radiation to patient and personnel?

1. Protective curtain

2. Filtration

3. Collimation

(A) 1 only

(B) 1 and 2 only

(C) 1 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2, and 3

54. Which of the following has(have) been identified as source(s) of radon

exposure?

1. Indoors, in houses

2. Smoking cigarettes

3. Radiology departments

(A) 1 only

(B) 1 and 2 only

(C) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2, and 3

55. What is the relationship between LET and RBE?

(A) As LET increases, RBE increases.

(B) As LET increases, RBE decreases.

(C) As LET decreases, RBE increases.

(D) There is no direct relationship between LET and RBE.

56. The biologic effect on an individual depends on which of the following?

1. Type of tissue interaction(s)

2. Amount of interactions

3. Biologic differences

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1 and 3 only

(C) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2, and 3

57. Which of the following is used to survey an area for radiation detection and measurement?

a. TLD

b. Film badge

c. Handheld ionization chamber

d. Geiger-Mueller detector

58. Which of the following is accurate as low as 100 μGya?

a. TLD

b. Film badge

c. OSL

d. Handheld ionization chamber

59. Which of the following includes filters for measurement of radiation energy?

a. TLD

b. Film badge

c. OSL

d. Handheld ionization chamber

60. Which of the following may be used to measure in-air

exposures in a fluoroscopic room?

a. TLD
b. Film badge

c. Handheld ionization chamber

d. Geiger-Mueller detector

61. What detection device sounds an alarm to indicate the presence of radioactivity?

a. TLD

b. Film badge

c. Pocket ionization chamber

d. Geiger-Mueller detector

62. Which of the following is accurate as low as 50 μGya?

a. TLD

b. Film badge

c. Pocket ionization chamber

d. Handheld ionization chamber

63. Which of the following is a digital monitor that may be used to measure dose in an area?

a. TLD

b. Film badge

c. Pocket ionization chamber

d. Handheld ionization chamber

64. Which of the following may be used for 3 months at a time?

a. TLD

b. Film badge

c. Pocket ionization chamber

d. Geiger-Mueller detector

65. Which of the following is sensitive to extremes in environment?

a. TLD

b. Film badge

c. Pocket ionization chamber

d. Handheld ionization chamber

66. Which of the following is used to represent the mean marrow dose?

a. GSD

b. ALARA
c. MMD

d. DMM

67. The radiation dose that would cause the same genetic injury to the population as the sum of
doses received by individuals actually being exposed is called:

a. GSD

b. ALARA

c. MMD

d. MPD

68. The timer used in fluoroscopy:

a. Must be 3 minutes

b. Should always be reset before the alarm sounds so that it does not annoy the radiologist

c. Sounds an alarm after 3 minutes

d. Is used to alert the fluoroscopist after 5 minutes of

fluoroscopy scanning have elapsed

69. The most effective protection against radiation exposure for the radiographer is:

a. Lead apron

b. Lead gloves

c. Lead glasses

d. Distance

70. If the dose of scatter radiation in fluoroscopy to the radiographer is 10 mGya at a distance of 2
feet from the table, where should the radiographer stand to reduce the dose to 2.5 mGya?

a. 8 feet from the table

b. 4 feet from the table

c. At the foot of the table

d. Directly behind the fluoroscopist

71. Lead aprons used in fluoroscopy must be at least:

a. 0.5-mm lead

b. 0.25-mm lead

c. 0.1-mm lead

d. 0.25-mm lead equivalent

72. Which of the following is true concerning holding of patients for radiographic exams?

a. May be performed routinely to obtain a diagnostic exam

b. Should be done only when absolutely necessary, and then the holding should be done by a
competent radiographer so that a repeat will not be needed

c. Should be done only when absolutely necessary, and then the holding should be done by a
nonpregnant member of the patient’s family

d. May be performed using a student radiographer to

hold because students are not exposed as often as

staff radiographers

73. The factors that must be considered in the design of structural shielding for a radiology room or
department include:

a. Use, occupancy, workload

b. Time, distance, shielding

c. Occupational and nonoccupational exposure

d. Number of employees and number of students

74. The lowest intensity of scatter radiation from the patient is located:

a. At the head of the table

b. At a 90-degree angle from the patient

c. At a 180-degree angle from the patient

d. At the foot of the table

75. Minimal (M) readings on dosimeter reports mean:

a. A dose below the sensitivity of the dosimeter has been received

b. A maximum dose has been received

c. A mean (average) dose has been received

d. Much radiation has been received

76. A readout on the fluoroscopic monitor that indicates air kerma striking the surface of the patient
is:

a. mA meter

b. DAP meter

c. ESD meter

d. kVp meter

77. Which of the following is the most sensitive personnel monitoring device?

a. TLD

b. Film badge
c. OSL dosimeter

d. Geiger-Mueller detector

78. Minimum source-to-skin distance for mobile radiography must be:

a. 15 inches

b. 12 inches

c. 36 inches

d. 55 inches

79. Positive beam limitation is also known as:

a. Use of collimators

b. Beam limitation used for all exams

c. Use of beam restrictors

d. Automatic collimation

80. Added tube filtration should be adjusted by the radiographer:

a. To “harden” the x-ray beam

b. To remove the soft rays from the x-ray beam

c. To exercise radiation protection

d. Never

81. ALARA is an acronym for:

a. As long as reasonably achievable
b. As little as reasonably achievable
c. As long as radiologist allows
d. A radiation protection concept that encourages radiation users to keep the dose to the patient
as low as reasonably achievable
82. What are graphs called that show the relationship between dose of radiation received and
incidence of effects?
a. Nonlinear-nonthreshold effect
b. Linear-nonthreshold effect
c. Radiation-effect curves
d. Dose-response curves
83. Which of the following is the basis for all radiation protection standards?
a. Nonlinear-nonthreshold effect
b. Linear-nonthreshold effect
c. Linear-threshold effect
d. Nonlinear-threshold effect
84. Which of the following means there is no safe level of radiation and the response to the radiation
is not directly proportional to the dose received?
a. Nonlinear-nonthreshold effect
b. Linear-nonthreshold effect
c. Linear-threshold effect
d. Nonlinear-threshold effect
85. Which of the following means there is no safe level of radiation and the response to the radiation
is directly proportional to the dose received?
a. Nonlinear-nonthreshold effect
b. Linear-nonthreshold effect
c. Linear-threshold effect
d. Nonlinear-threshold effect
86. Which of the following means there is a safe level
of radiation for certain effects and those effects are directly proportional to the dose received when
the safe level is exceeded?
a. Nonlinear-nonthreshold effect
b. Linear-nonthreshold effect
c. Linear-threshold effect
d. Nonlinear-threshold effect
87. Which of the following means there is a safe level of radiation for certain effects and those
effects are not directly proportional to the dose received when the safe level is exceeded?
a. Nonlinear-nonthreshold effect
b. Linear-nonthreshold effect
c. Linear-threshold effect
d. Nonlinear-threshold effect
88. Effects of radiation where the probability of occurrence, not severity of occurrence, is
proportional to the dose are called:
a. Stochastic effects
b. Deterministic effects
c. Genetic effects
d. Somatic effects
89. Effects of radiation that become more severe as dose increases are called:
a. Dose-response curves
b. Deterministic effects
c. Genetic effects
d. Somatic effects

90. Most of the damage to a cell occurs as a result of:

a. Direct effect
b. Mutations
c. Law of Bergonié and Tribondeau
d. Indirect effect
91. Cell radiosensitivity is described by the:
a. Inverse square law
b. Law of Bergonié and Tribondeau
c. Reciprocity law
d. Ohm’s law
92. The law that states that cells are most sensitive to radiation when they are nonspecialized and
rapidly dividing is the:
a. Inverse square law
b. Law of Bergonié and Tribondeau
c. Reciprocity law
d. Ohm’s law
93. Cells are more radiosensitive when:
a. Fully oxygenated
b. Deoxygenated
c. Slowly dividing
d. Near the skin

94. Which of the following is used to limit the area of the patient being irradiated?
a. Grid
b. Lead mask
c. Collimator
d. Compensating filter
95. Gonadal shields may reduce exposure to female gonads by up to:
a. 50%
b. 95%
c. 10%
d. 75%
96. Which of the following sets of exposure factors would result in the lowest dose to the patient?
a. High mAs, low kVp
b. Low mAs, high kVp
c. Low mAs, high kVp, small focal spot
d. Low mAs, high kVp, large focal spot
97. Which of the following is used as part of an effort to practice the ALARA concept?
a. Grids
b. Increased mAs
c. Collimation
d. Thinner filtration
98. The cardinal rules of radiation protection include:
a. Collimation, gonadal shielding, no repeats
b. Collimation, short exposure time, no repeats
c. Shielding, distance, time
d. Time, distance, collimation

99. The most effective protection against radiation exposure for the radiographer is:
a. Lead apron
b. Lead gloves
c. Lead glasses
d. Distance
100. If the dose of scatter radiation in fluoroscopy to the radiographer is 10 mGya at a distance of 2
feet from the table, where should the radiographer stand to reduce the dose to 2.5 mGya?
a. 8 feet from the table
b. 4 feet from the table
c. At the foot of the table
d. Directly behind the fluoroscopist