Professional Documents
Culture Documents
6. The filtering effect of the x-ray tube’s glass envelope and its oil coolant are referred to collectively as
(A) inherent filtration
(B) added filtration
(C) compensating filtration
(D) port filtration
7. Accurate operation of the AEC device depends on
1. the thickness and density of the object
2. positioning of the object with respect to the photocell
3. beam restriction
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
8. The image intensifier’s input phosphor generally is composed of
(A) cesium iodide
(B) zinc cadmium sulfide
(C) gadolinium oxysulfide
(D) calcium tungstate
9. A photostimulable phosphor plate is used with
(A) CR
(B) radiographic intensifying screens
(C) fluoroscopic intensifying screens
(D) image-intensified fluoroscopy
10. X-ray tubes used in CT imaging systems must be capable of
1. high short-exposure rating
2. tolerating millions of heat units
3. high-speed anode rotation
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
11. The device used to test the accuracy of the x-ray timer is the
(A) densitometer
(B) sensitometer
(C) penetrometer
(D) spinning top
12. All the following are associated with the anode except
(A) the line-focus principle
(B) the heel effect
(C) the focal track
(D) thermionic emission
13. The type of x-ray tube designed to turn on and off rapidly, providing multiple short, precise
exposures, is
(A) high speed
(B) grid-controlled
(C) diode
(D) electrode
14. Typical examples of digital imaging include
1. MRI
2. CT
3. CR
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
15. Component parts of a CT gantry include
1. high-voltage generator
2. multidetector array
3. x-ray tube
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
16. Which of the following circuit devices operate(s) on the principle of self- induction?
1. Autotransformer
2. Choke coil
3. High-voltage transformer
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
17. If exposure factors of 85 kV, 400 mA, and 12 ms yield an output exposure of 150 mR, what is the
milliroentgens per milliampere-seconds (mR/mAs)?
(A) 0.32
(B) 3.1
(C) 17.6
(D) 31
18. The electron cloud within the x-ray tube is the product of a process called
(A) electrolysis
(B) thermionic emission
(C) rectification
(D) induction
19. Which of the following causes pitting, or many small surface melts, of the anode’s focal track?
(A) Vaporized tungsten on the glass envelope
(B) Loss of anode rotation
(C) A large amount of heat to a cold anode
(D) Repeated, frequent overloading
20. Which of the following is (are) characteristics of the x-ray tube?
1. The target material should have a high atomic number and a high melting point.
2. The useful beam emerges from the port window.
3. The cathode assembly receives both low and high voltages.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
21. What is the relationship between kV and HVL?
(A) As kV increases, the HVLincreases.
(B) As kV decreases, the HVLdecreases.
(C) If the kV is doubled, the HVL doubles.
(D) If the kV is doubled, the HVL is squared.
22. As window level increases
(A) contrast scale increases
(B) contrast scale decreases
(C) brightness increases
(D) brightness decreases
23. The essential function of a phototimer is to
(A) provide a brighter fluoroscopic image
(B) automatically restrict the field size
(C) terminate the x-ray exposure once the IR is correctly exposed
(D) automatically increase or decrease incoming line voltages
24. A slit camera is used to measure
1. focal-spot size
2. spatial resolution
3. intensifying-screen resolution
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
25. In which of the following examinations would an IP front with very low absorption properties be
especially important?
(A) Abdominal radiography
(B) Extremity radiography
(C) Angiography
(D) Mammography
26. The voltage ripple associated with a three-phase, six-pulse rectified generator is about
(A) 100%
(B) 32%
(C) 13%
(D) 3%
27. The device that receives the remnant beam, converts it into light, and then increases the brightness
of that light is the
(A) charge-coupled device (CCD)
(B) spot-film camera
(C) image intensifier
(D) television monitor
28. A high-speed electron entering the tungsten target is attracted to the positive nucleus of a tungsten
atom and, in the process, is decelerated. This results in
(A) characteristic radiation
(B) Bremsstrahlung radiation
(C) Compton scatter
(D) a photoelectric effect
29. All the following are components of the image intensifier except
(A) the photocathode
(B) the focusing lenses
(C) the TV monitor
(D) the accelerating anode
30. The procedure whose basic operation involves reciprocal motion of the x-ray tube and film is
(A) cinefluorography
(B) spot filming
(C) tomography
(D) image intensification
31. In fluoroscopy, the automatic brightness control is used to adjust the
(A) kilovoltage (kV) and milliamperage (mA)
(B) backup timer
(C) milliamperage (mA) and time
(D) kilovoltage (kV) and time
32. When the radiographer selects kilovoltage on the control panel, which device is adjusted?
(A) Step-up transformer
(B) Autotransformer
(C) Filament circuit
(D) Rectifier circuit
33. Star and wye configurations are related to
(A) autotransformers
(B) three-phase transformers
(C) rectification systems
(D) AECs
34. How many half-value layers will it take to reduce an x-ray beam whose intensity is 78 R/min to an
intensity of less than 10 R/min?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 8
35. The kV settings on radiographic equipment must be tested annually and must be accurate to within
(A) +/–2 kV
(B) +/–4 kV
(C) +/–6 kV
(D) +/–8 kV
43. If 92 kV and 15 mAs were used for a particular abdominal exposure with single-phase equipment,
what milliampere-seconds value would be required to produce a similar radiograph with three-phase,
12-pulse equipment?
(A) 36
(B) 24
(C) 10
(D) 7.5
44. Fractional-focus tubes, with a 0.3-mm focal spot or smaller, have special application in
(A) magnification radiography
(B) fluoroscopy
(C) tomography
(D) image intensification
45. Which of the following statements regarding dual x-ray absorptiometry is (are) true?
1. It is a low-dose procedure.
2. Two x-ray photon energies are used.
3. Photon attenuation by bone is calculated.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
46. Advantages of digital radiography (computed radiography) include all of the following, except the
ability to:
(A) compensate for exposure factors
(B) make changes in contrast characteristics
(C) improve geometric detail
(D) store images in binary form
47. A three-phase timer can be tested for accuracy using a synchronous spinning top. The resulting
image looks like a:
(A) series of dots or dashes, each representative of a radiation pulse
(B) solid arc, the angle (in degrees) representative of the exposure time
(C) series of gray tones, from white to black
(D) multitude of small mesh-like squares of uniform sharpness
48. In the production of Bremsstrahlung radiation, the incident electron:
(A) ejects an inner shell tungsten electron
(B) ejects an outer shell tungsten electron
(C) is deflflected with resulting energy loss
(D) is deflflected with resulting energy increase
49. Which of the following will occur as a result of decreasing the anode target angle?
1. anode heel effect will be less pronounced
2. effective focal spot size will decrease
3. greater photon intensity toward the cathode side of the x-ray tube
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
50. Which of the following image matrix sizes will result in the best resolution?
(A) 128 × 128
(B) 512 × 512
(C) 1089 × 1089
(D) 2048 × 2048
51. The device used to ensure reproducible images, regardless of tissue density variations, is the:
(A) phototimer
(B) penetrometer
(C) grid
(D) rare earth screen
52. Changes in window width in digital imaging result in changes in:
(A) contrast
(B) density
(C) resolution
(D) distortion
53. If the primary coil of the high-voltage transformer is supplied by 220 V and has 150 turns, and the
secondary coil has 75,000 turns; what is the voltage induced in the secondary coil?
(A) 75 kV
(B) 110 kV
(C) 75 V
(D) 110 V
54. Which of the following circuit devices operate(s) on the principle of self-induction?
1. autotransformer
2. choke coil
3. high-voltage transformer
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
55. Which of the following statement(s) regarding transformer laws is (are) correct?
1. the voltage and current values are increased with a step-up transformer
2. the voltage is directly related to the number of turns in the two coils
3. the product of voltage and current in the two circuits must be equal
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
56. Radiographs from a particular three-phase, full-wave rectifified x-ray unit were underexposed, using
known correct exposures. A synchronous spinning-top test was performed using 100 mA, 1/20 second,
and 70 kV, and a 12-degree arc is observed on the test fifilm.
Which of the following is most likely the problem?
(A) the 1/20-second time station is inaccurate
(B) the 100 mA station is inaccurate
(C) a rectififier is not functioning
(D) the processor needs servicing
57. Which of the following refers to a regular program of evaluation that ensures proper functioning of
x-ray equipment, thereby protecting both patients and radiation workers?
(A) sensitometry
(B) densitometry
(C) quality assurance
(D) modulation transfer function
58. Which of the following is used to evaluate focal spot size?
(A) spinning top
(B) wire-mesh
(C) slit camera
(D) penetrometer
59. Which of the following is usually recommended for cleaning PSPs?
(A) denatured alcohol
(B) anhydrous ethanol
(C) soap and water
(D) intensifying screen cleaner
68. What is the device that is used to absorb scattered radiation produced in the patient before
itreaches the image receptor?
(A) Photomultiplier
(B) Beam restrictor
(C) Ionization chamber
(D) Grid
72. Exposures less than the minimum response time of an AEC may be required when
1. using high mA.
2. using fast film / screen combinations.
3. examining large patients or body parts.
(B) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(B) NOTA
(B) AOTA
73. The function of a plumbicon and vidicon is to convert:
(A) x-ray photon energy to visible light energy
(B) light energy to x-ray photon energy
(C) light to an electrical signal that is sent to the TV monitor
(D) an electrical signal to a light signal that is sent to the TV monitor
74. Tungsten alloy is the usual choice for the anode target material of radiographic equipment becauseit
1. has a high atomic number.
2. has a high melting point.
3. can readily dissipate heat.
(D) 1 only
(D) 1 and 2
(D) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
75. If an AP hip technique required 92 kVp with single-phase x-ray equipment, what kVp would produce
a comparable image with three-phase equipment?
(A) 69
(B) 75
(C) 81
(D) 103
76. Electrical devices that allow current to flow in only one direction are called
(A) resistors.
(B) rheostats.
(C) rectifiers.
(D) transformers.
77. How is the thickness of the tomographic section related to the tomographic angle?
(A) The greater the tomographic angle, the thicker the section.
(B) The greater the tomographic angle, the thinner the section.
(C) The less the tomographic angle, the thinner the section.
(D) The tomographic angle is unrelated to section thickness.
78. Which of the following will serve to increase the effective energy of the x-ray beam?
1. Increase in added filtration
2. Increase in kilovoltage
3. Increase in milliamperage
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) NOTA
(D) AOTA
79. The technique that is used to improve diagnostic quality by removing superimposed anatomic details
from an x-ray image is called
(A) xeroradiography.
(B) subtraction.
(C) CT.
(D) MRI.
80. All of the following are associated with the anode except
(A) the line focus principle.
(B) the heel effect.
(C) the focal track.
(D) thermionic emission.
81. Delivery of large exposures to a cold anode or the use of exposures exceeding tube limitation can
result in
1. increased tube output.
2. cracking of the anode.
3. rotor bearing damage
(A) 1 and 2only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) NOTA
(D) AOTA
82. Features of x-ray tube targets that function to determine heat capacity include the
1. rotation of the anode.
2. diameter of the anode.
3. size of the focal spot.
(A) 1 and 2only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) NOTA
(D) AOTA
83. The transition of orbital electrons from outer to inner shells gives rise to
(A) Compton scatter.
(B) pair production.
(C) bremsstrahlung radiation.
(D) characteristic radiation.
84. A high-speed electron entering the tungsten target is attracted to the positive nucleus of a tungsten
atom and, in the process, is decelerated. This results in
(A) characteristic radiation.
(B) Bremsstrahlung radiation.
(C) Compton scatter.
(D) photoelectric effect.
85. Components of digital imaging include
1. computer manipulation of the image.
2. formation of an electronic image on the radiation detector.
3. formation of an x-ray image directly on the image receptor.
(A) 1 and 2only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) NOTA
(D) AOTA
86. How is the thickness of the tomographic section related to the tomographic angle?
(A) The greater the tomographic angle, the thicker the section.
(B) The greater the tomographic angle, the thinner the section.
(C) The less the tomographic angle, the thinner the section.
(D) The tomographic angle is unrelated to section thickness.
87. Which of the following will serve to increase the effective energy of the x-ray beam?
1. Increase in added filtration
2. Increase in kilovoltage
3. Increase in milliamperage
(A) 1 and 2only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) NOTA
(D) AOTA
88. The technique that is used to improve diagnostic quality by removing superimposed anatomic details
from an x-ray image is called
(A) xeroradiography.
(B) subtraction.
(C) CT.
(D) MRI.
89. Double-focus x-ray tubes have two
(A) port windows.
(B) anodes.
(C) filaments.
(D) rectifiers.
90. Which of the following modes of a trifield image intensifier will result in the highest patient dose?
(A) Its 25-in mode.
(B) Its 17-in mode.
(C) Its 12-in mode.
(D) Diameter does not affect patient dose.
91. A light-absorbing dye is frequently incorporated during the manufacture of screens to
(A) reduce the diffusion of fluorescent light.
(B) decrease film contrast.
(C) increase screen speed.
(D) increase the useful life of thescreen.
92. If exposure factors of 85 kVp, 400 mA, and 0.12 s yield an output exposure of 150 mR, what is the
mR/mAs?
(A) 0.32
(B) 3.1
(C) 17.6
(D) 31
(B) 3.1
93. Radiographs from a particular three-phase, full-wave-rectified x-ray unit, made using known correct
exposures, were underexposed. A synchronous spinning top test was performed using 200 mA, 1/12 s,
and 70 kVp, and a 20º arc is observed on the test film. Which of the following is most likely the problem?
(A) The 1/12-s time station is inaccurate.
(B) The 200-mA station is inaccurate.
(C) A rectifier is not functioning.
(D) The processor needs servicing.
94. During cinefluorography, the camera shutter is open
(A) between frames.
(B) when the film moves.
(C) during exposures.
(D) all the time.
95. To determine how quickly an x-ray tube will disperse its accumulated heat, the radiographer uses
a(n)
(A) technique chart.
(B) radiographic rating chart.
(C) anode cooling curve.
(D) spinning top test.
96. A parallel-plate ionization chamber receives a particular charge as x-ray photons travel through it.
This is the operating principle of which of the following devices?
(A) Automatic exposure control
(B) Image intensifier
(C) Cine film camera
(D) Spot film camera
97. Which of the following circuit devices operate(s) on the principleof self-induction?
1. Autotransformer
2. Choke coil
3. High-voltage transformer
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) NOTA
(D) AOTA