ĐỀ SỐ 2

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. structured B. embroidered C. preserved D.embarrassed
Question 2: A. put B. bulb C. slum D. hunt
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. unique B. attire C. custom D. pursue
Question 4: A. designer B.ancestor C. proposal D. tradition
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5:______ the wind, the heavier the rain.
A. The stronger B. stronger C. The strongest D. strongest
Question 6:He bought a ________ house near the city center.
A. big pink beautiful B. beautiful big pink C. pink big beautiful D. beautiful pink big
Question 7:She didn’t study modern European history at college, ______?
A. isn’t she B. was she C. doesn’t she D. did she
Question 8:I almost missed my flight ______ there was a long queue in the duty-free shop.
A. in spite of B. before C. thanks to D. because
Question 9:________ the homework, she ate a sandwich.
A. Having done B.Did C.To do D. Being done
Question 10:Her ______ isn’t good with her father, but she’s very close to her mother.
A. relate B. relationship C. relative D. relatively
Question 11: All the houses in the area ______ immediately.
A. have to rebuild B. have to be rebuilt C. had to rebuild D. has to be rebuilt
Question 12:The actor was happy with a part in a movie ______.
A. even though the part was small B. because the part has been small
C. when the part will be small D. after the part had been small
Question 13:The fire doesn’t seem to be ______ much heat.
A. giving up B. giving off C. taking up D. taking off
Question 14:He seemed very young, but he was ______ reality older than all of us.
A. by B. with C. in D. at
Question 15:When you buy a new ______, you usually get software included at no extra cost.
A. insurance B.cigarette C. computer D. medicine
Question 16:Mr. Trung has met many foreigners since he ______ here last summer.
A. moves B. will move C. was moving D.moved
Question 17:Hotel bookings are at a pace to ______ a new record this year.
A. set B. earn C. send D. owe
Question 18:Politicians promise the ______ before an election, but things are different afterwards.
A. sea B. earth C. hill D. moon
Question 19:Our neighbours are very inconsiderate - they’re always playing loud ______ late at night.
A. toy B. tennis C. virus D. music
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the un -
derlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20:An additional grant has enabled the team to push forward with research plans.
A. global B. extra C. typical D. serious
Question 21:None of Arrino’s vague references or allusions had prepared me for what she was saying.
A. hints B. illusions C. proposal D. suggestion
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22:Healthcare in the capital compares poorly with that in the rest of the country.
A. terribly B. swiftly C. suddenly D.acceptably
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Question 23:It has been raining cats and dogs since yesterday.
A. constantly B. continuously C. lightly D. heavily
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 24:Linda is talking to David about friends in the class.
Linda: “Do you think Anna is the best student in our class?” - David: “__________”
A. Do you think so? B. Yes, I don’t think so.
C. You can’t say so. D. You can say that again.
Question 25:Laura is asking Tom for his idea about a vacation at the beach.
Laura: “Do you think a vacation at the beach will do me good?” - Tom: “__________”
A. Sure. Have a good time there. B. Yes, I think.
C. Could you buy me something? D. Yes, it does.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
The Isthmus of Suez, the sole land bridge between the continents of Africa and Asia, is of relatively
recent geologic origin. Both continents once (26) ________ a single large continental mass, but during the
Paleogene and Neogene periods (about 66 to 2.6 million years ago) the great fault structures of the Red Sea
and Gulf of Aqaba developed, with the opening and subsequent drowning of the Red Sea trough as far as the
Gulf of Suez and the Gulf of Aqaba. In the succeeding Quaternary Period (about the past 2.6 million years),
there was considerable oscillation of sea (27) ________, leading finally to the emergence of a low-lying
isthmus (28) ________ broadened northward to a low-lying open coastal plain. There the Nile delta once
extended farther east—as a result of periods of abundant rainfall coincident with the Pleistocene Epoch
(2,588,000 to 11,700 years ago)—and two river arms, (29) ________ distributaries, formerly crossed the
northern isthmus, one branch reaching the Mediterranean Sea at the narrowest point of the isthmus and the
(30) ________ entering the sea some 14.5 km (9 miles) east of present Port Said.

Question 26: A. made B. solved C.occurred D. formed

Question 27: A. level B. basket C. basement D. amount
Question 28: A. when B. what C. that D. who
Question 29: A. or B. so C. since D. but
Question 30: A. many B. other C. every D. another

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
There are generally considered to be eight subspecies of tiger (Pantheratigris), three of which are now
extinct. The remaining subspecies include the Bengal, Indo-Chinese, South China, Amur, and Sumatran
tigers. Pressures from illegal killing, a shrinking food supply, and habitat loss led to the extinction of the Bali,
Javan, and Caspian subspecies, and continue to threaten the survival of the remaining subspecies.
Tigers live in a variety of habitats from the temperate forests of the Russian Far East, to the mangrove
swamps of the Sunderbans of Bangladesh and western India, to the tropical forests, grasslands, and marshes
of India and Indonesia. Historically, they were also found near the Caspian Sea in Turkey and Iran, and on the
islands of Bali and Java in Indonesia.
By some estimates, a century ago 50,000 to 80,000 tigers roamed India alone. Today, the tiger is
classified as Endangered in the Red List of Threatened Species published by the International Union for
Conservation of Nature (IUCN) and it is estimated that there are only 3,500 tigers remaining in the wild
worldwide.
Until it was banned, trophy hunting and a market for tiger rugs and coats threatened the tiger’s survival.
Today, habitat destruction, human population growth, and a demand for tiger parts threaten the tiger’s
survival. In some cultures, tiger parts are thought to cure diseases such as rheumatism, convulsions, typhoid
fever, and dysentery. Tiger bone used in these traditional medicines sells for as much as $75 to $115 per
pound. In the Russian Far East, logging threatens the Amur tiger’s already shrinking habitat. Poaching has
also increased since the international borders between Russia and its neighbours opened.
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Question 31: What could be the best title for the passage?
A. Tigers under Threat B. The Number of Subspecies of Tiger
C. Tigers Living in India D. Market for Tiger Rugs and Coats
Question 32: The word “which” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. subspecies B. tiger C. Bengal D. pressure
Question 33: According to paragraph 4, before hunting was banned, the tiger’s survival was threatened
because of ________.
A. the low temperate in forests B. the demand for tiger rugs and coats
C. human population growth D. the long Russian international borders
Question 34: The word “traditional” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. potential B. practical C. conventional D. financial
Question 35: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as a factor causing the
extinction of the Bali, Javan, and Caspian subspecies?
A. Illegal killing B. Shrinking food supply
C. Habitat loss D. Mangrove swamps
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
The largest bear in the world and the Arctic’s top predator, polar bears are a powerful symbol of the
strength and endurance of the Arctic. The polar bear’s Latin name, Ursusmaritimus, means "sea bear." It’s an
apt name for this majestic species, which spends much of its life in, around, or on the ocean–predominantly
on the sea ice. In the United States, Alaska is home to two polar bear subpopulations.
Considered talented swimmers, polar bears can sustain a pace of six miles per hour by paddling with
their front paws and holding their hind legs flat like a rudder. They have a thick layer of body fat and a water-
repellent coat that insulates them from the cold air and water.
Polar bears spend over 50% of their time hunting for food. A polar bear might catch only one or two out
of 10 seals it hunts, depending on the time of year and other variables. Their diet mainly consists of ringed
and bearded seals because they need large amounts of fat to survive.
Polar bears rely heavily on sea ice for traveling, hunting, resting, mating and, in some areas, maternal
dens. But because of ongoing and potential loss of their sea ice habitat resulting from climate change–the
primary threat to polar bears Arctic-wide–polar bears were listed as a threatened species in the US under the
Endangered Species Act in May 2008. As their sea ice habitat recedes earlier in the spring and forms later in
the fall, polar bears are increasingly spending longer periods on land, where they are often attracted to areas
where humans live.
The survival and the protection of the polar bear habitat are urgent issues for WWF. In October 2019,
the International Union for the Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Polar Bear Specialist Group released a new
assessment of polar bear populations showing that the number of polar bear subpopulations experience recent
declines has increased to four, with eight populations still being data-deficient. The good news is that five
populations are stable while two have been experiencing an upward trend.
Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A.Facts about Polar Bears B. The Polar Bear’s Latin Name
C. One or Two out of 10 Seals Polar Bears Hunt D. Urgent Issues for WWF
Question 37: In paragraph 1, the polar bear’s Latin name means “sea bears” because ______.
A. it spends much of its life on the sea ice B. it’s the largest bear in the world
C. it’s the most powerful animal of the Arctic D. it can be found on Alaska sea only
Question 38: The word "pace" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. mood B. debt C. mode D. speed
Question 39: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. Polar bears’thick layer of body fat prevents them from being cold.
B.Polar bears need large amounts of fat to survive.
C. Polar bears’ sea ice habitat recedes earlier in the fall.
D. It’s urgent for WWF to protect polar bear habitat.
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Question 40: The word “they” in paragraph 4 refers to ______.
A.periods B. polar bears C. areas D. humans
Question 41: The word “declines” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. database B. conclusion C. reductions D. judgement
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 5?
A. IUCN’s assessment is important to maintain polar bear populations.
B. WWF survives thanks to the protection of polar bears.
C. No polar bear subpopulation experiences decline.
D. The number of polar bears of some subpopulations has increased.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 43:My mother couldn’t bare waste - she always made us eat everything on our plates.
A. couldn’t bare B. always C. eat everything D. our plates
Question 44:I don’t go to work tomorrow, so I was staying up late tonight.
A. work B. so C. was staying D. tonight
Question 45: Since their establishment two years ago, the advice centre has seen over 500 people a week.
A. their B. ago C. over D. week
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 46:Perhaps she will not come to see me this evening.
A. She must come to see me this evening.
B. She may not come to see me this evening.
C. She have to come to see me this evening.
D. She should come to see me this evening.
Question 47:I last ate this kind of food five years ago.
A. I ate this kind of food for five years.
B. I didn’t eat this kind of food five years ago.
C. I have eaten this kind of food for five years.
D. I haven’t eaten this kind of food for five years.
Question 48:“Leave my house now or I’ll call the police!” shouted the lady at the man.
A. The lady threatened to call the police if the man didn’t leave her house.
B. The lady promised to call the police if the man didn’t leave her house.
C. The lady agreed to call the police if the man didn’t leave her house.
D. The lady deny calling the police if the man didn’t leave her house.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49:His mother has gone to London. He really needs her advice now.
A. If only his mother had been at home and could have given him some advice.
B. He wishes his mother at home and could give him some advice.
C. As long as his mother is at home, she can give him some advice.
D. If his mother is at home, she can give him some advice now.
Question 50: My relationship with my father is important. It has shaped my attitude towards men.
A. But for the important relationship with my father, it would have shaped my attitude towards men.
B. Only if my relationship with my father were important would it shape my attitude towards men.
C. So important is my relationship with my father that it has shaped my attitude towards men.
D. Not until my relationship with my father had shaped my attitude towards men was it important.