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MOCK TEST 1

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 1. Taking a flight is __________ than travelling by train.
A. most expensive B. more expensive C. as expensive D. the more expensive
Question 2. He intended _________ tertiary education in the UK.
A. to pursue B. pursuing C. to pursuing D. pursue
Question 3. Mathew is busy with two important projects, so he can’t ________ extra work.
A. look out B. switch off C. turn up D. take on
Question 4. She _________ for this multinational since she graduated from college last year.
A. worked B. was working C. had worked D. has been working
Question 5. You’d better not mention a pay rise to Joey; it’s such a sore ______ to him.
A. act B. light C. point D. change
Question 6. My grandfather enjoys playing _______ tennis in the afternoon.
A. an B. Ø (no article) C. the D. a
Question 7. We decided to climb to the top of the mountain to admire the ______ of the sea.
A. beautify B. beautiful C. beauty D. beautifully
Question 8. The sales ______ helped me wrap my purchase and tie it with ribbon.
A. employee B. colleague C. officer D. clerk
Question 9. The museum was crowded with tourists, ________?
A. wasn’t it B. has it C. didn’t it D. isn’t it
Question 10. Mary will wear this dress ________.
A. when the graduation ceremony was held
B. after the graduation ceremony had been held
C. as the graduation ceremony is held
D. once the graduation ceremony was held
Question 11. I feel relaxed and comfortable because my parents never _______ pressure on me.
A. take B. pay C. keep D. put
Question 12. The books ________ from the local library last week should be returned by Friday.
A. borrowed B. were borrowed C. borrowing D. to borrow
Question 13. The students are enthusiastic ________ their first field trip to Ha Long Bay.
A. in B. about C. at D. with
Question 14. That the crew abandoned their efforts to find the missing victims after the earthquake was
a sort of _______ acceptance.
A. retired B. surrendered C. resigned D. vacated
Question 15. Cooking utensils ________ before you cook any dishes.
A. will wash B. have washed C. are washing D. must be washed

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 16. Tony and Phillips are talking about social networking sites.
- Tony: “I believe that there are some dangers of using social networking sites.”
- Phillips: “________. They can expose us to identity theft.”
A. I quite agree B. That’s not true
C. I don’t go along with you D. No, I don’t think so
Question 17. Nam is talking to Lan after the talent contest.
- Nam: “Your performance was amazing!” - Lan: “__________”
A. You’re welcome. B. Never mind.
C. It’s nice of you to say so. D. What a pity!

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 18. A. temple B. household C. account D. farmer
Question 19. A. interview B. recognise C. motivate D. entertain

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 20. A. game B. germ C. ground D. guest
Question 21. A. night B. mile C. life D. ski

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. Although we tried to persuade him to change the marketing strategy, he dug his heels in
and didn’t accept our proposal.
A. refused to change his ideas B. decided to invest more
C. denied what he had done D. was willing to change his mind
Question 23. James wishes he would be more confident when speaking in front of a large group of
people.
A. certain B. relaxed C. nervous D. frightening

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the
underlined bold word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24. It’s such a complex situation that simple actions cannot be effective.
A. typical B. clear C. supportive D. difficult
Question 25. The city council has recently launched a new campaign to cut car emissions.
A. start B. reduce C. follow D. find

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
We tend to associate computer games with young people, and it is true the majority of gamers
are young. (26) _______, a group from Sweden is showing that reaching the age of retirement doesn’t
mean that you stop having fun. With an average age over 60, the Silver Snipers are the oldest team to
take part in professional gaming competition. And don’t be (27) ______ by their elderly. They take their
playing very seriously!
Although they don’t enjoy much success in terms of winning trophies, they get enormous (28)
_______ from taking part. They have a website, and (29) _______ loyal supporters who cheer them on.
They even have a professional coach (30) ______ helps improve their performance. But their main
ambition is to show that gaming is for everyone, old and young!
(Adapted from Formula by Sheila Dignen and Jacky Newbrook)
Question 26. A. Moreover B. Even though C. However D. Hence
Question 27. A. disabled B. discouraged C. disobeyed D. disrupted
Question 28. A. achievement B. realisation C. prosperity D. satisfaction
Question 29. A. every B. a little C. many D. others
Question 30. A. whose B. where C. who D. which

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
The Plastiki looks similar to many other boats in Sydney harbour. It’s eighteen metres long, six
metres wide and it weighs about twelve thousand kilogrammes. It carries a crew of six people and has
an average speed of five knots. However, once you get near to the Plastiki you realise there’s a big
difference. It’s made of twelve thousand five hundred re-used plastic bottles.
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David de Rothschild is an environmentalist who has crossed Antarctica and explored the
Ecuadorian Amazon. One day he was reading some information about all the plastic in the seas and
oceans. He couldn’t believe what he was reading. For example, humans throw away four out of every
five plastic bottles they use, and plastic rubbish causes about eighty per cent of the pollution in the sea.
In addition, scientists think that around one million seabirds die every year from plastic pollution. De
Rothschild decided he wanted to help fight pollution in the sea. To help more people understand the
problem, he started building a boat made of plastic bottles.
As well as building the boat with recycled plastic, it was important for him to make the boat
environmentally friendly and user-friendly. The boat uses renewable energy such as wind power and
solar energy. The crew can make meals with vegetables from the small garden at the back of the boat.
They can take a break from work and get some exercise by using the special exercise bicycle. The
energy from the bike provides power for the boat’s computers. And if anyone needs to take a shower,
the boat’s shower uses saltwater from the sea.
(Adapted from Life by John Hughes, Helen Stephenson and Paul Dummett)
Question 31. Which could be the best title for the passage?
A. An Extraordinary Man B. Life at Sea
C. The Problem of Plastic Bottles D. A Boat with a Difference
Question 32. The word they in paragraph 2 refers to ________.
A. scientists B. humans C. plastic bottles D. seas and oceans
Question 33. According to paragraph 2, De Rothschild was shocked when he ________.
A. travelled between Antarctica and the Ecuadorian Amazon
B. read some information about plastic at seas and oceans
C. participated in an environmental campaign
D. built his first plastic boat
Question 34. The word fight in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. compete B. divide C. compare D. tackle
Question 35. Which of the following is TRUE about the Plastiki, according to the passage?
A. It has a totally different appearance when compared to other boats.
B. It was made of plastic and other materials which are hard to decompose.
C. Daily life activities aren’t interrupted when living on the boat.
D. Clean water exists in abundance on the boat.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
For Sean O’Brien, it was just an ordinary night out with friends. He knew that people sometimes
mocked him for being overweight, and he was usually able to shrug it off. But this time, as well as
laughing at him in person, someone decided to publicly fat-shame him by posting a video of him
dancing online, with a hurtful comment. Sean was completely unaware of it, but the post about him was
shared widely, and it prompted a wave of abuse from immature Internet trolls.
However, as well as the cyberbullies, other people were watching. A group of women in
California, who were campaigning to encourage people to have a positive body image whatever their
size, decided to take action. They put out a message on Twitter, inviting Sean on an all-expenses- paid
trip from London to Los Angeles, to meet and dance with them. When Sean’s friends first told him
about the search for ‘dancing man’, he figured it was a bit of nonsense which would soon blow over,
and decided not to bother doing anything about it.
But the movement got bigger and bigger. Sean rethought his decision, made contact, and the
women - all 1,700 of them - started raising money to throw him an extra-special party in LA. He went
to the party in California. Sean had assumed that just a few people would turn up, but he realised his
mistake as soon as he saw over 1,000 people queuing to get into the nightclub! Sean danced all night
and the story of how he and the women’s group in California took a stance against cyberbullying was
reported around the world. As a result of the event, some of the women set up Dance Free Movement,

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an online forum where anyone who felt they had been bullied or victimised could receive support. The
‘dancing man’ himself has become a fundraiser for several anti-bullying charities.
Sean commented in an interview at the time that he was amazed that something which started
out so badly, had become such a positive movement. He said that he had actually never really thought
about the people who posted the original images, concluding that they must have their own insecurities,
to put the spotlight on someone else so maliciously. Sean certainly had the last laugh. We are often told
that the best idea is not to give bullies any attention, but it may be that the best way to deal with
cyberbullying is to act as these women did and be brave enough to make it clear that we are
uncomfortable with this kind of behaviour, that we disagree with what is being said and that bullying is
completely unacceptable.
(Adapted from High Note by Rachael Roberts and Caroline Krantz)
Question 36. Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. An Inspirational Story of a Disabled Man
B. Negative Impacts of Cyberbullying on Teenagers
C. The Dancing Man Has the Last Laugh
D. Online Bullies Have Been Silenced!
Question 37. The word prompted in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. triggered B. terminated C. compared D. discouraged
Question 38. According to paragraph 1, Sean O’Brien didn’t realise that ________.
A. he was teased by some of his acquaintances for being overweight
B. he was laughed by some Internet users for his awkward behaviour
C. he became a victim of body shaming on the Internet
D. his dance video was leaked by his casual friends
Question 39. The word them in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. Sean’s friends B. women C. expenses D. cyberbullies
Question 40. The phrase blow over in paragraph 2 mostly means _______.
A. become a controversial topic B. incite intense hatred
C. gradually become less strong D. provide genuine pleasure
Question 41. Which of the following is true about Sean O’Brien according to the passage?
A. He wasn’t required to pay any costs to join the dance party in California.
B. He wasn’t taken aback by the number of people joining his dance party.
C. He accepted the offer by a group of women in California without hesitation.
D. He established an online forum for those who got cyberbullied like him.
Question 42. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Most Internet users now enjoy hiding their identities online.
B. Sean wasn’t brave enough to raise his voice against cyberbullies.
C. Sean’s case is rather different from other cases of cyberbullying.
D. It was nothing new for Sean to be ridiculed for his weight.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 43. The reigning champion followed a punishable exercise regime so as to defend his title at
his
A B C D
next tournament.
Question 44. Both Mary and I haven’t attended the senior prom two weeks ago.
A B C D
Question 45. This new technology is becoming very popular because they enable computers to read
A B C
coded messages.
D
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46. This is the first time I’ve been to Australia.
A. I used to visit Australia many years ago. B. I haven’t visited Australia for years.
C. I haven’t visited Australia before. D. I have visited Australia many times.
Question 47. “Why were you absent from class yesterday?” asked the teacher.
A. The teacher asked me why I had been absent from class the day before.
B. The teacher asked me why had I been absent from class the day before.
C. The teacher asked me why was I absent from class the day before.
D. The teacher asked me why I were absent from class the day before.
Question 48. You’re permitted to use calculators in the exam room.
A. You mustn’t use calculators in the exam room.
B. You can use calculators in the exam room.
C. You needn’t use calculators in the exam room.
D. You should use calculators in the exam room.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. The Internet connection wasn’t stable. She couldn’t attend her online class.
A. Unless the Internet connection is stable, she can’t attend her online class.
B. Provided that the Internet connection were stable, she could attend her online class.
C. If only the Internet connection had been stable, she could have attended her online class.
D. If the Internet connection hadn’t been stable, she couldn’t have attended her online class.
Question 50. Her talk on gender equality was very intriguing. Everyone in the conference room listened
attentively to it.
A. However intriguing her talk on gender equality was, everyone in the conference room
listened attentively to it.
B. So fascinating was her talk on gender equality that everyone in the conference room listened
attentively to it.
C. No sooner had everyone in the conference room listened attentively to her talk on gender
equality than it became interesting.
D. Not only was her talk on gender equality gripping but also everyone in the conference room
listened attentively to it.

MOCK TEST 2
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. extensive B. difficult C. portable D. beautiful
Question 2. A. affect B. compare C. cycle D. reject

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. chest B. check C. chef D. cheek
Question 4. A. leaf B. earth C. cream D. deal

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. The recycling campaign, ______ by a group of high school students in the city, has
attracted a lot of attention.
A. initiated B. to be initiated C. initiating D. was initiated
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Question 6. The library was closed, _______?
A. was it B. didn’t it C. isn’t it D. wasn’t it
Question 7. Mary was preparing dishes while her in-laws _______ in the living room.
A. are talking B. were talking C. have talked D. had talked
Question 8. Parents’ high expectations can put _______ pressure on their children who are vulnerable
to depression.
A. unseemly B. unjust C. undue D. untimely
Question 9. The price of petrol is getting _______ expensive.
A. more and more B. more than C. the more than D. the more
Question 10. My father agreed ________ a two-week holiday in Japan.
A. to take B. taking C. take D. to taking
Question 11. Doing regular exercise can help ________ your muscles.
A. strongly B. strength C. strengthen D. strong
Question 12. He was quite surprised _______ the final result.
A. for B. at C. of D. from
Question 13. Simple actions like picking up litter on the street can _____ a difference to the
environment.
A. hold B. make C. keep D. pay
Question 14. They will have dinner __________.
A. when every guest was arriving B. since every guest arrived
C. after every guest had arrived D. as soon as every guest arrives
Question 15. Those plastic bottles __________ instead of being thrown away.
A. are reusing B. have reused C. will reuse D. can be reused
Question 16. When Clara lost her job last year, she plumbed the _______ of despair.
A. weights B. lengths C. depths D. widths
Question 17. There are some ________ agencies in the region where you can seek help to find work.
A. employment B. career C. profession D. occupation
Question 18. Today is ______ best day of her life. It’s her wedding day.
A. a B. the C. an D. Ø (no article)
Question 19. Thanks to our careful preparation, the year-end party ________ very well.
A. took up B. came off C. turned up D. went off

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. If there is no prospect of improvement in the weather, we will have to cancel our camping
trip.
A. difference B. simplicity C. possibility D. contrary
Question 21. David has acquired a good knowledge of French thanks to his hard work.
A. gained B. benefited C. shared D. shaped

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined bold word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. The melody rang a bell, but I couldn’t remember what the name of the song was.
A. produced a big sound B. was decorated with a bell
C. was very familiar D. sounded quite strange
Question 23. It’s now regarded as normal when men stay at home to look after children.
A. acceptable B. unusual C. difficult D. promising

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 24. Tony and Jessica are talking about helping those in need.
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- Tony: “I believe that we benefit a lot from helping disadvantaged people in the community.”
- Jessica: “________. It gives us a strong sense of responsibility.”
A. I couldn’t agree with you more B. No, I don’t think so
C. That’s an absurd idea D. It’s hard to say
Question 25. Ngoc is talking to Mai after class.
- Ngoc: “Thank you for lending me your calculator.” - Mai: “___________”
A. Well done! B. Never mind. C. I’m sorry. D. No worries!

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 26. Henry didn’t attend the graduation ceremony. Now he regrets it.
A. If only Henry hadn’t attended the graduation ceremony, he would regret it.
B. Unless Henry attends the graduation ceremony, he will regret it.
C. Provided that Henry attended the graduation ceremony, he wouldn’t regret it.
D. If Henry had attended the graduation ceremony, he wouldn’t regret it.
Question 27. He will lose his life if he continues driving at such breakneck speed. He isn’t aware of that
much.
A. Little does he realise that he will lose his life if he continues driving at such breakneck speed.
B. Hardly had he driven at such breakneck speed did he realise that he would lose his life.
C. Only after he had driven at such breakneck speed did he realise that he would lose his life.
D. Not only does he drive at such breakneck speed but he also realises that he will lose his life.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 28. “When did you submit your homework?” The teacher asked him.
A. The teacher asked him when did he submit his homework.
B. The teacher asked him when he had submitted his homework.
C. The teacher asked him when he submitted his homework.
D. The teacher asked him when had he submitted his homework.
Question 29. I haven’t visited Hanoi for one month.
A. The last time I visited Hanoi was one month ago.
B. I didn’t visit Hanoi one month ago.
C. I have visited Hanoi for one month.
D. I started to visit Hanoi one month ago.
Question 30. It’s optional for first-year students to attend this workshop.
A. First-year students need to attend this workshop.
B. First-year students must attend this workshop.
C. First-year students don’t have to attend this workshop.
D. First-year students shouldn’t attend this workshop.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 31. Some researchers declare that their experiments only have a negligent effect on animals,
but
A B
animal rights activists do not share their viewpoint.
C D
Question 32. The museum is open to the public, but they are closed on weekends and holidays.
A B C D
Question 33. Many people think that manual workers have been replaced by robots in the future.
A B C D
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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
CYCLING IN LONDON
Up until recently the British were not exactly keen on cycling. In fact, only a quarter of the
twenty million bicycles in the country were thought to be in (34) _______ use. Over the last year,
though, the number of cyclists in urban areas, particularly in London, has grown by 83 per cent. This
has turned the capital into a cleaner, less noisy city compared to (35) _____ others in Europe.
How was this possible? It is all thanks to the National Cycle Network project (36) _____, in the
last few years, has managed to encourage many people to use their bicycles either to travel to work or
for fun. (37) _______, the provision of bicycle parking in the streets, at railway and underground
stations, in schools and in the workplace has contributed significantly to the rise in the number of
cyclists. It is estimated that nearly 75 per cent of the population live within two miles of a route and
more cycling (38) ______ are made than ever before.
(Adapted from FCE Use of English by Virginia Evans)
Question 34. A. proper B. suitable C. normal D. regular
Question 35. A. much B. each C. many D. a little
Question 36. A. what B. when C. which D. who
Question 37. A. Moreover B. However C. Therefore D. Because
Question 38. A. travels B. tours C. journeys D. trips

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Scientists have dreamed for a long time about building a ‘flying train’ which can float through
the air above the tracks. With Maglev technology, their dreams are now a reality. Maglev trains have no
wheels. Instead, powerful magnets lift them into the air and push them forward, at speeds of up to 500
km per hour.
As well as speed, Maglev has a number of advantages over other transport systems. The trains
are quieter and the journey is smoother because they don’t have wheels. They are also greener because
they don’t use fuel and so create less pollution. Right now there is only one high-speed Maglev train
system in the world. It carries passengers from Shanghai city centre to the airport. However, work has
started on a new, longer Maglev track in Japan. Trains will go from Tokyo to Nagoya in 40 minutes.
But don’t expect to ride on it on your next trip to Japan. It won’t open until 2027! Then, in 2045, the
line will extend to Osaka.
There is one major problem with Maglev technology: it is incredibly expensive to build the
tracks. Transport planners predict that the Tokyo to Osaka line will cost 91 billion dollars. The high cost
means that Maglev technology probably won’t replace other forms of transport in the near future.
However, the technology is still in development and somebody might find a cheaper and simpler way to
build the tracks. And then, who knows? In the future, some of us might fly to work by train.
(Adapted from Navigate by Caroline Krantz and Julie Norton)
Question 39. Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?
A. The End of Trains? B. Flying by Train
C. Train System in Shanghai D. The Next Generation of Technology
Question 40. The word powerful in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. heavy B. simple C. standard D. strong
Question 41. According to paragraph 2, Maglev trains ________.
A. don’t do much harm to the environment B. require a special type of fuel
C. travel faster than other vehicles D. don’t make any noise
Question 42. The word they in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. wheels B. transport systems C. Maglev trains D. advantages
Question 43. Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. A high-speed Maglev train system was first developed in Shanghai.
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B. The cost of building Maglev train tracks can be enormous.
C. Maglev train system in Japan will come into operation in 2045.
D. Maglev trains can travel at an incredibly fast speed.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
CCTV cameras were initially developed as a means of security for banks. In Britain they first
appeared in 1953 and by the 1960s, there were already a few cameras in major streets in London.
Today, there are more than four million CCTV cameras across the country. That’s one camera for every
fourteen people. The cameras are there to film dangerous or illegal behaviour. With new software, they
can automatically recognize the faces of known offenders, and a new kind of CCTV in the Netherlands
can detect angry voices and automatically warn the police of trouble. Some CCTV cameras can even
interact with the people they are watching. But these cameras don’t just watch criminals; they watch all
of us, almost all of the time.
The amount of surveillance in towns and cities across Britain is increasing because it is thought
to deter crime. Some goods in shops now have RFID tags (radio frequency identification tags) attached
to them. When you pick up one of these items, the RFID tag sends a radio message to a CCTV camera
and the camera starts filming you. Shops say that this technology helps to catch shoplifters - but only by
treating everybody as a potential criminal.
Cameras and tags are not the only ways of monitoring our actions. Every time you make or
receive a call on your mobile phone, the phone company knows the number of the phone you are calling
and how long the call lasts. It is even possible to work out your exact location. The police often use this
information when they’re investigating serious crimes.
Even when you are at home, you are not necessarily safe from surveillance. High-speed internet
connections have made computers more vulnerable than ever before. When you use your computer to
visit websites, you are probably sending and receiving ‘cookies’ without realizing it. Cookies transfer
information from your computer to the website and, in theory, could record which websites you visit.
Modern technology is making it easier and easier to stay in contact, but it is also making it nearly
impossible for us to hide.
(Adapted from Aim High by Tim Falla and Paul A Davies)
Question 44. Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. The Prevalence of Modern Technology
B. People Get Cross by Being Watched All the Time!
C. In A Bid to Discourage Criminal Offences
D. Somebody Is Watching You
Question 45. The word they in paragraph 1 refers to ________.
A. offenders B. faces C. cameras D. people
Question 46. According to paragraph 1, CCTV cameras are installed in Britain to ________.
A. act as a deterrent against shoplifting
B. record dangerous behaviours and offences
C. make sure that all the streets are clean
D. identify emergencies needing urgent response
Question 47. The word deter in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. boost B. prolong C. serve D. prevent
Question 48. The word monitoring in paragraph 3 can be best replaced by ________.
A. tracking B. identifying C. assessing D. replacing
Question 49. Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. Cameras receive a message from RFID tags when someone holds an item with a tag.
B. Some streets in London were equipped with CCTV cameras by the 1960s.
C. The only place you are safe from surveillance is when you are at home.
D. When you use the Internet, cookies exchange information with websites.
Question 50. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
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A. Phone companies should be accused of intruding on their users’ privacy.
B. Cameras to identify who committed crimes before weren’t developed in the past.
C. People now gradually accept the existence of surveillance cameras in daily life.
D. Technology in the Netherlands is more sophisticated than that in Britain.

MOCK TEST 3
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 1. The music band achieved some _______ of success after releasing the song titled Cupid.
A. method B. procedure C. measure D. action
Question 2. The smaller a room is, _______ I like it.
A. the most B. the more C. more than D. the more than
Question 3. The conference is delayed until next Friday, _______?
A. wasn’t it B. didn’t it C. hasn’t it D. isn’t it
Question 4. I regret ________ you that you haven’t passed the first round.
A. to inform B. inform C. to informing D. informing
Question 5. Tony read the instructions very ________ before starting to assemble the shelf.
A. carefully B. careful C. care D. carelessness
Question 6. She has no _______ of eating out tonight; she prefers to prepare dinner at home.
A. goal B. intention C. wish D. target
Question 7. When it comes to time management, he seems to be out of ______ with the rest of us.
A. song B. necklace C. button D. step
Question 8. To our surprise, Phong was the only student in our class _____ to this prestigious
university.
A. admitting B. was admitted C. to be admitted D. admitted
Question 9. Since my grandfather retired, he __________ badminton with others in our neighbourhood.
A. had played B. played C. was playing D. has played
Question 10. During his career as ______ teacher, Laura has helped many students with disabilities.
A. an B. Ø (no article) C. a D. the
Question 11. Students’ homework ought to _________ on a regular basis.
A. check B. are checked C. being checked D. be checked
Question 12. They will send a letter of confirmation ________.
A. once they receive my money B. as soon as they received my money
C. when they were receiving my money D. after they had received my money
Question 13. When I first started the job, I was responsible _______ distributing pamphlets.
A. in B. on C. for D. at
Question 14. The manager ______ some suggestions about how to cut costs.
A. put B. made C. kept D. passed
Question 15. In the latest meeting, they decided to _______ a new law to control alcohol consumption
among young people.
A. carry out B. put off C. bring in D. cut down

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined bold word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 16. The film explored various aspects of life in a small village, from transport, entertainment
to education.
A. normal B. different C. bright D. similar
Question 17. It is very disappointing that several people tend to turn a deaf ear to acts of child abuse.
A. pay close attention B. ignore completely
C. check their ears carefully D. neglect their ears

10
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 18. The meeting had to be postponed because one of the key speakers felt unwell.
A. healthy B. calm C. pleased D. sick
Question 19. The company decided to lay off more than 50 people in an attempt to save it from going
bankrupt.
A. possibility B. success C. effort D. routine

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 20. A. child B. fill C. milk D. pink
Question 21. A. call B. cage C. couch D. cent

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 22. A. control B. believe C. offer D. report
Question 23. A. unhelpful B. dangerous C. promising D. violent

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 24. We felt a huge sense of relief when she was able to make a complete recovery without
A B C
resource to laser surgery.
D
Question 25. Some people are addicted to coffee despite their harmful effects on health.
A B C D
Question 26. We are asked to give a presentation about the impacts of volunteering on students two
A B C
weeks ago.
D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 27. You are prohibited from taking photographs during the show.
A. You mustn’t take photographs during the show.
B. You mayn’t take photographs during the show.
C. You needn’t take photographs during the show.
D. You shouldn’t take photographs during the show.
Question 28. “Which film did you watch last night?” He asked me.
A. He asked me which film did I watch the night before.
B. He asked me which film had I watched the night before.
C. He asked me which film I had watched the previous night.
D. He asked me which film I watched the previous night.
Question 29. She has participated in this environmental campaign for two months.
A. This is the first time she has participated in an environmental campaign in two months.
B. The last time she participated in this environmental campaign was two months ago.
C. She hasn’t participated in this environmental campaign for two months.
D. She started participating in this environmental campaign two months ago.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.

11
Question 30. Keith informed us of his decision to quit the job. He did that as soon as he arrived at the
office.
A. Only after Keith had informed us of his decision to quit the job did he arrive at the office.
B. Not until Keith had informed us of his decision to quit the job did he arrive at the office.
C. Not only did Keith arrive at the office but he also informed us of his decision to quit the job.
D. Hardly had Keith arrived at the office when he informed us of his decision to quit the job.
Question 31. My printer is out of order. I can’t print this document.
A. Unless my printer is out of order, I can print this document.
B. Provided that my printer were out of order, I could print this document.
C. I wish my printer weren’t out of order so that I could print this document.
D. If my printer hadn’t been out of order, I could have printed the document.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 32. Sam and Tom are talking about books.
- Sam: “I think that books are a great source of entertainment.”
- Tom: “________. We can find a lot of interesting things in a book.”
A. You can say that again B. I don’t quite agree
C. It’s hard to say D. I’m afraid not
Question 33. Trang and Hanh are at the school gate.
- Trang: “Your new hairstyle looks great!” - Hanh: “________. I had it cut yesterday.”
A. You’re welcome B. Don’t mention it
C. I’m so sorry to hear that D. It’s very kind of you to say so

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
Water is one of our most precious resources. Unfortunately, many of us seem to have forgotten
this fact, and as a result the world is facing the danger of running out of fresh water. The problem has
been caused by people’s (34) ______ of our water supply. This not only means that we have polluted
our rivers and seas, but also that we are wasting a great deal of this precious resource. Unfortunately,
the destruction of the rain forests has made this problem worse since much of the rain (35) ______ falls
is lost because it runs off into the sea.
The population of the earth is increasing daily, (36) _______ it is vital that we find a solution to
this problem before it is too late. The first step is to educate people, especially by reminding them of the
value of water. For (37) ______ of us it is available whenever we require it, whether to bathe in or to
drink, so we seldom bother to think about it. People then need to be taught how to reuse or recycle
water. Whatever methods we might decide to use, we must (38) _______ the value of water and do our
best to conserve it.
(Adapted from FCE Use of English by Virginia Evans)
Question 34. A. misconduct B. misuse C. misconception D. misfortune
Question 35. A. that B. where C. what D. who
Question 36. A. but B. though C. or D. so
Question 37. A. most B. others C. much D. a little
Question 38. A. witness B. concentrate C. estimate D. appreciate

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Stephen Hawking is one of the most famous scientists in the world today. He uses mathematics
to study space and the universe. He has written several famous books. He wrote A Brief History of Time
in 1988, and more than 10 million people have bought this book. Other scientists have called Hawking
the greatest scientist in the world.

12
Hawking has faced terrible problems in his life. When he was 21, he got a serious disease called
ALS. It quickly got worse, and soon he couldn’t walk or speak. Now he can move only his left hand.
He uses a wheelchair with a motor to get around. He “talks” by typing words into a computer. The
computer pronounces the words for him.
But for Hawking, his work is more important than his problems. Now he is interested in the
beginning of the universe. He teaches at Cambridge University in England, and he gives lectures at
other universities. He has written many important scientific papers and has won many prizes for his
work. He has appeared in several movies and has been on TV many times. He has traveled in countries
around the world, and he has even traveled in space! In 2007, he went up on a special zero- gravity
plane.
(Adapted from World English by Kristin L. Johannsen)
Question 39. Which can be the best title for the passage?
A. Studying Programmes for Disabled Scientists B. An Unknown Researcher
C. Amazing Achievements of a Scientist D. A Man with a Skillful Hand
Question 40. According to paragraph 1, Stephen Hawking _________.
A. has been interested in space since childhood
B. is the author of some famous books
C. started to write books about the universe in 1988
D. has been recently keen on studying space
Question 41. The word terrible in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. awful B. clear C. typical D. light
Question 42. The word It in paragraph 2 refers to ________.
A. computer B. life C. hand D. ALS
Question 43. Which of the following is NOT true about Hawking according to the passage?
A. He only lectures at Cambridge University in England.
B. He moves around by using a wheelchair with a motor.
C. He cannot express his ideas to others by himself.
D. He travelled on a special zero- gravity plane.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
In some low-lying countries such as Bangladesh, The Philippines or Cambodia, it is not unusual
to have a boat school. In one area of Bangladesh, there are now over 20 such boats, which act as both a
kind of ‘river bus’ and also a place to study. These schools were first set up in 2002 by a successful,
local Bangladeshi architect called Mohammed Rezwan. Every year, between the monsoon season of
June and October, at least one third of Bangladesh is flooded with water. This means that thousands of
children can’t attend school regularly, when they ought to. Statistics have shown that once students’
attendance falls, then many stop completely. Rezwan understood that this mustn’t happen in the first
place.
Rezwan realised that if young people can’t attend school, then the school had better come to
them. In 2002, he encouraged companies to sponsor him and saved up money to set up an organization
to start the boat schools. These are now used by thousands of school children who happily attend school
every month of the year. Each boat is powered by solar panels on the roof. There are lights and a
computer on board, which means that teachers can access the Internet to make lessons more interactive.
Most boats are for 30 children and some of the larger boats even have a school playground on the top
deck. The students only have to walk a short distance from their homes to the river, where the boat
picks them up and then collects the other children, before stopping at their final destination. Then
lessons can start. At the end of the day, the children are returned home on the boat.
The organization which Rezwan set up also provides solar-powered lamps to local families,
where 70% of families have no electricity. Now children and their parents don’t have to stop studying
or working as soon as the sun goes down. For parents, this has meant they can earn more money. It also

13
means that in families where children have to work during the day, they can attend school in the
evening.
The organization has not stopped at schools, however. There are now more than 100 boats with
different purposes: libraries, training centres for adults, clinics and also farming boats, which can keep
animals and grow food. By 2050, nearly one fifth of Bangladesh will be permanently under water
because of climate change. Mr Rezwan knows he should act quickly, to help families and children out
of poverty and to give them the chance of a better life.
(Adapted from Gateway by Annie Cornford and Frances Watkins)
Question 44. Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Floating Homes Lift People out of Poverty
B. Boats Make Life More Sustainable!
C. The Prevalence of Boat Schools in Poor Countries
D. Floating Schools: The Answer to Floods
Question 45. The word unusual in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. common B. strange C. understandable D. actual
Question 46. According to paragraph 1, many students in Bangladesh do not attend schools during the
monsoon season because _______.
A. their parents cannot afford to send them to schools
B. their homeland is largely affected by floods
C. they are forced to stay at home to help their parents
D. they choose to be homeschooled instead
Question 47. The word interactive in paragraph 2 mostly means ______.
A. simple to understand B. involving communication among students
C. easy to catch students’ attention D. having a great influence on students
Question 48. The word they in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. parents B. families C. lamps D. children
Question 49. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Rezwan used his own money to establish school boats for children in Bangladesh.
B. There is a serious lack of modern technology on school boats run by Rezwan.
C. Children’s homes in Bangladesh are inconveniently located for school boats.
D. Night lessons are available for some students who are busy working in daytime.
Question 50. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Boats run by Rezwan have lifted families in Bangladesh out of poverty.
B. There has been a decrease in the intensity of floods in Bangladesh.
C. Daytime activities of many people in Bangladesh were disrupted at sunset.
D. Bangladesh is the first country to promote the idea of school boats.

MOCK TEST 4
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. cast B. cite C. cold D. cup
Question 2. A. bite B. sign C. hide D. fill

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. carry B. admit C. decline D. protect
Question 4. A. courteous B. natural C. effective D. powerful

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. Hana rarely goes to the theatre, ______ ?
14
A. didn’t she B. has she C. doesn’t she D. does she
Question 6. I find that ______ Japanese are very friendly.
A. a B. the C. Ø (no article) D. an
Question 7. Because of working hard, Jimmy finally achieved ______.
A. successful B. success C. succeed D. successfully
Question 8. He has the habit of ______ notes in English lessons.
A. doing B. staying C. holding D. taking
Question 9. Huyen ______ to play the guitar since she was 8.
A. has learnt B. had learnt C. is learning D. was learning
Question 10. During the first 10 minutes of the presentation, her lack of confidence ______ out a mile.
A. lay B. stuck C. kept D. met
Question 11. Do you think that teachers ______ by robots in the future?
A. replace B. were replaced C. have replaced D. will be replaced
Question 12. A member of a political ______ is expected to deliver a speech at the national park this
evening.
A. staff B. crew C. party D. band
Question 13. She expressed her gratitude to everyone ______ behalf of the president.
A. in B. at C. with D. on
Question 14. Laura decided to ______ the job offer as she didn’t want to move to a new city.
A. turn down B. take over C. go after D. make for
Question 15. They will give a performance ______ .
A. when their school organised the prom B. once their school organises the prom
C. before their school organised the prom D. after their school had organised the prom
Question 16. Tony forgot ______ his name on the exam paper.
A. writing B. write C. written D. to write
Question 17. I thought that my favourite volleyball team would make it to the final, and it turned out
that was a(n) ______ guess.
A. influenced B. motivated C. inspired D. aroused
Question 18. Nowadays, the problem of child abuse is getting ______ serious.
A. more than B. more and more C. the more D. the more than
Question 19. The new policy will be helpful for people ______ calls from unverified mobile phone
numbers.
A. received B. to receive C. receive D. receiving

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined bold word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. Jane was the centre of attention when she wore an elegant dress at the party.
A. stylish B. difficult C. unattractive D. tiring
Question 21. The university has just implemented a policy that prohibits smoking on campus.
A. permits B. accepts C. forbids D. refuses

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. A final agreement hasn’t been reached yet because they are at loggerheads over the cost.
A. think in a creative way B. are in disagreement
C. share the viewpoint D. become totally exhausted
Question 23. She has neglected her studies for months, so it’s not surprising that she got bad marks at
the mid-term exam.
A. glanced at B. concentrated on C. searched for D. been inattentive

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
15
Question 24. David and Martin are talking about urbanisation.
- David: “I think urbanisation brings about many advantages to city life.”
- Martin: “ ______ . It can lead to some issues such as pollution or traffic congestion.”
A. That’s for sure B. I go along with you
C. I don’t quite agree D. It’s great to hear that
Question 25. Sam and Linh are at a coffee shop.
- Sam: “Would you like to have some coffee or a glass of lemonade?” - Linh: “ ______ “
A. No, I like both. B. Either is fine. C. Yes, I’d love to. D. You’re welcome.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
STAYING IN TOUCH
People have been recording information in the form of writing since ancient times. Latin, the
language of religion, and French, the language of the rich and powerful, were the (26) ______
languages in the Middle Ages in Europe. Subjects were usually connected to religion, trade and
government, although historians have also come across love letters (27) ______ people wrote to stay in
touch in those times.
After the invention of the printing press in the mid-fifteenth century, books and documents in
people’s native languages became readily available. This, together with improvements in education and
the spread of postal services in the nineteenth century, permitted families and friends to (28) ______
messages to each other by letter. Maintaining contact was much easier than it had ever been. In recent
years, (29) ______ , everything has changed. Mobile phones, emails and text messages are replacing
letters. Why bother writing a letter when you can make small talk on the phone for very little cost? (30)
______ people would agree, however, that there is something very special about receiving a personal,
handwritten letter.
(Adapted from High Note by Rachael Roberts and Caroline Krantz)
Question 26. A. realised B. preferred C. expected D. compared
Question 27. A. what B. whose C. when D. that
Question 28. A. receive B. contribute C. transfer D. convey
Question 29. A. moreover B. because C. though D. in contrast
Question 30. A. Another B. Every C. Few D. Most

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
You know what they say; find a job you love and you will never work a day in your life. So, if you
are thinking about what to do with your life, this may be something to consider. Choosing a career can
be difficult. Especially because there are so many jobs to choose from and many things to think about,
such as qualifications and financial rewards. So how do you pick a career? The only answer seems to be
“choose one that makes you feel that you are getting paid for doing something you truly love”.
Unless you have grown up with a talent or are keen on something that you can make a career out of,
you need to consider certain things about yourself. What suits your personality? We are all different and
just because your best friend wants to be a doctor, this does not mean that you should follow. You need
to make an informed decision. This means thinking carefully about the path you need to follow to get
that job. Are you willing to get the training or education needed? You must also consider why you
really want to do it. If it’s just because it’s well paid, then sometime in the future you are going to feel
‘empty’, even with a healthy bank account.
Nowadays, there are plenty of online career sites, but the main part has to come from you. You
need to be honest and measure your skills and talents realistically. Also, you may need to talk to your
parents who have their own ideas, based on their own experiences, about what you should do. They
have your best interests at heart. They don’t want to see you having financial problems or being
unemployed. But at the end of the day, it is your life. There is no point in being miserable for the next
forty years just to please someone else.
16
(Adapted from Succeed in B1 Preliminary by Andrew Betsis and Lawrence Mamas)
Question 31. Which could be the best title for the passage?
A. Finding a Job Online B. Tips to Have a Well-Paid Job
C. The New Era of Job Finding? D. Choosing a Career
Question 32. According to paragraph 1, what is the advice given for choosing a job?
A. You should choose a job that can be very demanding.
B. It’s a good idea to find a paid job that you really like.
C. It’s advisable to choose a highly-paid job.
D. It’s recommended that you should avoid a boring job.
Question 33. The word informed in paragraph 2 mostly means ______ .
A. unexpected B. quick C. wise D. hard
Question 34. The word They in paragraph 3 refers to ______ .
A. Interests B. Parents C. Ideas D. Experiences
Question 35. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. You have to be responsible for your job choices.
B. A well-paid job may not satisfy you down the road.
C. Honesty is an important trait that ensures you a steady job.
D. You need to find a job that suits your personality.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Think of an endangered species. What comes to mind? The giant panda and the blue whale? And
what do these creatures all have in common? They’re known as ‘charismatic megafauna’, in other
words, large species of animals which appeals to a lot of people. However, less well-known or
‘exciting’ creatures are far more likely to actually become extinct because they don’t get enough
attention from researchers.
The Ugly Animal Preservation Society’s mascot is the blob fish, voted the world’s ugliest animal.
With its tiny eyes, big mouth and slimy pink body it’s far from attractive. This marine creature lives
deep in the ocean, where the pressure is very high. As a result, it has tiny fins and no skeleton, which
keeps it from being crushed by the water pressure. Unfortunately, when fishing boats sweep the ocean
floor, looking for other fish and crustaceans, these fish can get swept into the nets accidentally, which is
causing their numbers to drop.
The California condor is another accidental victim of human activity. These huge birds with bald
heads and big beaks weigh up to fourteen kilos, have a wingspan of up to two metres and can live as
long as sixty years. They play an important role in the ecosystem by feeding on dead animals, thus
preventing the spread of disease. Reintroduced into the wild after becoming extinct, other than in
captivity, they are now under threat once more because of chemical pesticides introduced into the food
chain and lead poisoning from the ammunition used to kill the animals they feed on.
Other creatures become endangered precisely because people find them ugly. Take the aye aye for
example. Found only on the island of Madagascar, the aye aye is the world’s largest nocturnal primate.
During the day they sleep in nests in the trees, coming out to hunt at night. They are solitary creatures,
furry, but strange looking, with big eyes, large ears and long, thin, pointed fingers. The middle finger is
particularly thin and they use it to gently knock on trees. Then they reach into the tree and pull out any
insects that respond to the knocking. Unfortunately, the way they look means that they are traditionally
considered an omen of bad luck. Some people even believe that if they point that thin middle finger at
someone, they will die. As a result, they are often killed, even though, like many endangered species,
they are now protected by law.
(Adapted from High Note by Rachael Roberts and Caroline Krantz)
Question 36. Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Are Endangered Species Getting Enough Attention?
B. They Need Saving Too!
C. ‘Ugly Animals’: Why Do They Become Extinct?
17
D. Conservation Programmes for Unattractive Species
Question 37. The phrase appeals to in paragraph 1 mostly means ______ .
A. requests B. interests C. damages D. replaces
Question 38. According to paragraph 1, what features do the giant panda and the blue whale share?
A. They aren’t being saved from extinction. B. They aren’t popular in the animal world.
C. They don’t get attention from researchers. D. They have attractive appearances.
Question 39. The word they in paragraph 3 refers to ______ .
A. chemical pesticides B. the California condors
C. dead animals D. kilos
Question 40. The word omen in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______ .
A. behaviour B. speed C. origin D. sign
Question 41. Which of the following is true, according to the passage?
A. The life expectancy of the California condor is rather low.
B. The water pressure poses a threat to the survival of the blob fish.
C. The aye aye has the habit of hunting just after the sunrise.
D. The California condor is under threat due to chemical pollution.
Question 42. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The complete disappearance of the California condor can affect the food chain.
B. The number of the aye aye is dropping significantly because of their middle finger.
C. The spread of disease could be encouraged by the extinction of the California condor.
D. The blob fish is vulnerable to humans due to their natural defence mechanism.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. Air pollution became very serious in recent years due to human activity.
A B C D
Question 44. The president did not sound unduly concerned that the new policy would be
A B
disadvantaged to the future development of the company.
C D
Question 45. If the essay were written in a simpler way, they would be rated as good.
A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46. I’m sure that he didn’t commit the crime as he was with me at that time.
A. He can’t have committed the crime as he was with me at that time.
B. He needn’t have committed the crime as he was with me at that time.
C. He should have committed the crime as he was with me at that time.
D. He must have committed the crime as he was with me at that time.
Question 47. “Did you go to the beach yesterday?” asked my friend.
A. My friend asked me if I went to the beach yesterday.
B. My friend asked me if I had gone to the beach the day before.
C. My friend asked me if I have gone to the beach yesterday.
D. My friend asked me if I would go to the beach the previous day.
Question 48. She began to work for this charitable organisation 5 years ago.
A. She hasn’t worked for this charitable organisation for 5 years.
B. She didn’t work for this charitable organisation 5 years ago.
C. She last worked for this charitable organisation 5 years ago.
D. She has worked for this charitable organisation for 5 years.

18
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. They couldn’t afford a meal at a restaurant. They were very poor.
A. If it hadn’t been for their poverty, they could afford a meal at a restaurant.
B. Unless they were very poor, she could afford a meal at a restaurant.
C. But for their poverty, they could have afforded a meal at a restaurant.
D. If they had been poor, they couldn’t have afforded a meal at a restaurant.
Question 50. He will develop serious diseases if he continues living a sedentary lifestyle. He isn’t
aware of that much.
A. No matter how much he is aware of, he will develop serious diseases if he continues living a
sedentary lifestyle.
B. Not until he stopped living a sedentary lifestyle did he understand how he developed serious
diseases.
C. So serious are his diseases that he isn’t aware of the danger of living a sedentary lifestyle.
D. So little does he realise that he will develop serious diseases if he continues living a sedentary
lifestyle.

MOCK TEST 5
Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. chicken B. chemist C. chocolate D. chocolate
Question 2: A. mean B. death C. cheat D. seat

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. career B. doctor C. mango D. trousers
Question 4: A. concentrate B. qualify C. activity D. tourism

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: Heavy rain has already inundated villages, with water levels _____ three metres (10 feet)
in some places.
A. reaching B. to reach C. reached D. which reaching
Question 6: Lunar New Year (Tet) is _______ holiday of the year in Vietnam. This Tet holiday lasted
from January 20-26.
A. the more important B. the most important
C. most important D. more important than
Question 7: Lunar New Year holiday trips inside China surged 74% from last year _______________
Covid-19 travel curbs.
A. before authorities scrapped B. when authorities had scrapped
C. after authorities had scrapped D. by the time authorities scrapped
Question 8: Under California law, defendants convicted of murder with “special circumstances” can be
eligible _____ the death penalty
A. for B. on C. of D. about
Question 9: In the 1660s, the mortality rate for children who died within 14 days of birth was as much
as 30 per cent, _______?
A. did they B. was it C. didn’t they D. wasn’t it
Question 10: Khanh Vy said that learning to be ___ professional MC isn’t easy.
A. Ø (no article) B. an C. the D. a
Question 11: The Vietnamese community in Turkey has ______ a drive to donate commodities and
clothes to support the people of the country to survive the dreadful earthquake calamity.
19
A. conducted B. sponsored C. initiated D. introduced
Question 12: A dense fog has caused nearly 30 flights to and from north-central provinces of Thanh
Hoa and Nghe An to be _______ over the past two days.
A. called off B. fallen off C. taken off D. played off
Question 13: I only want that the snow stops ______ so that the rescue mission can be carried out
smoothly.
A. to fall B. falling C. to falling D. fell
Question 14: The fourth wave of the COVID-19 pandemic, which started in late April, dealt a heavy
_____ to business production and social life.
A. blow B. wind C. rain D. storm
Question 15 : Let’s take our travel chess set in case we ____ bored on the Cat Linh train.
A. get B. are getting C. got D. have got
Question 16: One important difference is that remote schooling ____ a disproportionately negative
effect on high-poverty students in the U.S.
A. had B. brought C. made D. created
Question 17: Tracking and messaging efforts ________ by the widespread disruption of Internet and
phone connectivity in the affected areas.
A. are hampered B. will hamper C. were hampering D. was hampered
Question 18: There are more than 1500 different newspapers which cater for a wide range from
political to ________ views.
A. education B. educational C. educate D. educated
Question 19: In China, birth registration is often required for parents to access benefits such as
maternity _______.
A. enforcement B. guarantee C. insurance D. assurance

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 20: Lan is in a cinema to see “Avatar 2”.
- Waiter: “Would you like to have popcorn?” - Lan: “__________. I am full now.”
A. Yes, I’d love to B. Sure C. No, thanks D. Make it at home
Question 21 : Trang and Linh are talking about technology.
- Trang: “In my opinion, ChatGPT is a breakthrough in the field of artificial intelligence.”
- Linh: “ ___________. People all over the world are interested in it.”
A. I don’t think so B. It’s not true
C. You’re dull D. I couldn’t agree more

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word ( s ) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word ( s ) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: We are excited to announce the collaboration between 911 and young singer Duc Phuc
in “Em dong y”.
A. partnership B. conclusion C. separation D. relationship
Question 23: The British government will have to take the bull by the horns and tackle inflation.
A. do hard things bravely B. having so much thing to worry
C. eager to deal with problems D. ignore difficult problems
Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word in each of the following questions
Question 24: Farmers in the Mekong Delta, central highlands and other southern regions are
destroying their coffee, pepper and rice crops to farm durian instead.
A. nurturing B. harming C. peeling D. harvesting
Question 25: Darkness is as essential to our biological welfare, to our internal clockwork, as light
itself.
A. mandatory B. compulsory C. necessary D. unimportant
20
Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions
Question 26: “Don’t forget to submit your homework by Thursday,” said the teacher to the students.
A. The teacher reminded the students to submit their homework by Thursday.
B. The teacher allowed the students to submit their homework by Thursday.
C. The teacher ordered the students to submit their homework by Thursday.
D. The teacher encouraged the students to submit their homework by Thursday.
Question 27: Jessica began to play the guitar three years ago.
A. Jessica has played the guitar since three years. B. Jessica doesn’t play the guitar right
now.
C. Jessica has played the guitar for three years. D. Jessica stops playing the guitar now.
Question 28: It’s very likely that Unilever will accept his application.
A. Unilever needs accept his application. B. Unilever might accept his application.
C. Unilever should accept his application D. Unilever must accept his application.

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: Quan didn’t turn up at John’s birthday party. I feel so sorry for that.
A. If only Quan turn up at John’s birthday party
B. I wished Quan wouldn’t turn up at John’s birthday party.
C. I wish Quan had turned up at John’s birthday party.
D. It’s a shame Quan had turned up at John’s birthday party.
Question 30: The government does not know what to do with household rubbish in large cities.
A. Little does the government know what to do with household rubbish in large cities.
B. It is unknown what to do with household rubbish in large cities by the government.
C. Rarely the government knows what to do with household rubbish in large cities.
D. Hardly any government knows what to do with household rubbish in large cities.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 31. My brother usually asked me for help when he has difficulty with his homework.
A. asked B. when C. has D. homework
Question 32. Tom’s jokes are inappropriate but we have to put up with it just because he’s the boss.
A. inappropriate B. it C. because D. the
Question 33. He was so exhausted that he felt asleep at his desk
A. so B. exhausted C. felt asleep D. at

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Laser In Modern Medicine
Today, lasers are used for a wide range of purposes, but (34) __________ they have made the
most difference is undoubtedly in the world of medicine. First, doctors can use lasers as cutting tools.
Surgeons prefer lasers to surgical knives for certain operations because laser beams (35) __________
much more precision than a knife blade. Also, with lasers, doctors can work more quickly than with
metal tools, so there is less risk of infection or (36) __________ problems. Poor vision is one of the
most common medical problems in the world, (37) __________ until recently the only way to correct it
was with eyeglasses or contact lenses. Now many vision problems can be corrected permanently with
laser surgery. This has made an enormous difference for people who were (38) __________ blind
without their glasses. After a lifetime of worrying about breaking or losing their glasses or lenses, they
can see normally without them.

21
Question 34: A. which B. where C. when D. whom
Question 35: A. produces B. requests C. offers D. supplies
Question 36: A. others B. the other C. another D. other
Question 37: A. nor B. and C. so D. or
Question 38: A. realistically B. practically C. sensibly D. perfectly

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
We all have a lot of sensitive data stored on our online accounts that we want to keep safe.
However, most of it is protected by passwords that are quite weak. Luckily, it is not difficult to create
stronger passwords if you know what to do.
When it comes to password security, length is extremely important. A password that is at least
12 characters long is recommended, and you should make it even longer if you can. Remember that
each letter, number, or symbol added to a password exponentially increases the number of possible
combinations, which makes your password impossible to crack, even by using strong computers, if it
reaches a certain length.
Another important thing to keep in mind is that a good password needs to be something that’s
really difficult for someone else to guess or crack, so do not choose anything too common like
“password” or “12345”. It is also crucial that you do not use anything personal like a nickname, your
date of birth, or your pet’s name for a password. This is information that’s really easy for a hacker to
find out simply by looking at your social media, finding your online work profile or even just by
listening in on a conversation you’re having with someone else.
Finally, try not to use the same password, even if it’s strong, for every online account. If you are
unlucky and a hacker manages to discover this password, they’ll then be able to login to every account
you use it for, which might include your emails, your social media and your work accounts. If you
cannot remember many different passwords, try using a password manager, which stores all your
passwords safely in one place and only requires you to remember one master password (which should
be strong, of course) to access everything.
(Adapted from cybernews.com)
Question 39: What is the passage mainly about?
A. Things to remember to create strong passwords
B. What hackers often do to crack your passwords
C. Why strong passwords are very important
D. The benefits of using a password manager
Question 40: The word “exponentially” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. powerfully B. significantly C. impressively D. energetically
Question 41: According to paragraph 2, a long password __________.
A. should always have the exact length of 12 characters.
B. can only be cracked when it reaches a specific length.
C. is impossible to crack provided that it is long enough.
D. can be cracked but only if strong computers are used.
Question 42: The word “which” in paragraph 4 refers to ___________.
A. hacker B. reason C. password D. account
Question 43: Which of the following is NOT TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Common passwords like “12345” are weak because they are easy to guess.
B. Hackers can find out information like your nickname or birthday with ease.
C. If you use only one strong password, hackers will always crack it in no time.
D. A password manager allows you to safely store your passwords in one place.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.

22
To some extent we know that the people we work, live or spend time with are not always being
honest with us. They can’t always be having a good day, be excited about your success or be completely
happy for a colleague who’s been promoted instead of them. But what about when deception isn’t just
about mood, but is actually an important part when interacting with other people?
Generally speaking, deception is, understandably, viewed negatively – if someone has to resort
to lying, they’re probably not very good at their job or not a very nice person. In the workplace, deceit
can be toxic in an environment that values trust and teamwork and can damage productivity as a result.
However, deception is absolutely necessary in many cases.
In some professions, people are expected to lie (take private investigators, for example).
Deception can also be strategic in companies, such as when a call centre instructs employees to pretend
that they’re located in a different country due to customer biases. And keep in mind that even police
officers have to make use of deception to arrest criminals in many cases. Additionally, customer service
roles, and especially the kinds of emotional labour frequently carried out by women, also typically call
for workers to conceal their true feelings. Do you really want flight attendants to tell you that you
should be unnerved and should not remain calm when the plane is shaking, or psychiatrists to tell you
that they do not have any sympathy for you at all when listening to your mental problems?
Sometimes, lying is even seen as the more ethical option. A prime example of this is when
doctors lie to their patients about their health conditions, obviously not to raise false hopes but simply to
cheer them up during treatment. A harmless lie can also spare people from unnecessary hurt, and people
who tell it should be praised for their kindness and the good outcome that usually comes from not
making a potentially hurtful comment. The most fundamental thing in pro-social lying, or the kind of
dishonesty intended to help another person, is that it is not about gaining an unfair advantage or
otherwise being self-serving, but about delivering little and harmless lies out of care or compassion.
Therefore, it’s important to ask ourselves when it is and isn’t appropriate to deliver the hard,
honest truth, and when it’s best to step back and offer a more delicate response. More often than not, it’s
about striking a balance between the two.
(Adapted from BBC and Psychology Today)
Question 44: Which best serves as the title for this passage?
A. The Next Time You Lie, Think Carefully
B. Lies: People Tell Them All The Time
C. Professions That Liars Can Excel In
D. When Deception Is Better Than Honesty
Question 45: According to paragraph 1, people around us are not always honest because __________.
A. They really don’t like to be honest all the time.
B. They need to lie so as to get promoted.
C. They hate it when others are successful.
D. They don’t always feel positive about everything.
Question 46: The word “toxic” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. unpleasant B. lethal C. uncaring D. brutal
Question 47: The example about flight attendants and psychiatrists shows that __________.
A. in customer service, deceit is the best option in all cases.
B. only flight attendants and psychiatrists should conceal emotions.
C. women are better at hiding their emotions when working.
D. in some jobs, people sometimes cannot reveal their true feelings.
Question 48: The word “unnerved” in paragraph 3 can be best replaced by ___________.
A. enraged B. concerned C. thrilled D. inspired
Question 49: The word “it” in paragraph 4 refers to ___________.
A. fundamental thing B. pro-social lying
C. unfair advantage D. another person
Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Dishonesty in the workplace should be praised and promoted.
B. A pro-social lie is a lie that is told with good intentions.
23
C. Doctors should always lie to keep their patients happy.
D. Honest people will never become successful in the workplace.

MOCK TEST 6
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. chat B. change C. ache D. cheer
Question 2: A. thin B. climb C. spin D. sing

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. follow B. allow C. enjoy D. destroy
Question 4: A. difference B. achievement C. charity D. benefit

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: He is a good cook, _______ ?
A. does he B. is he C. didn’t he D. isn’t he
Question 6: Music festivals are held all over _______ world.
A. the B. a C. an D. Ø (no article)
Question 7: Reading books lays a _______ foundation for a better tomorrow.
A. strongly B. strengthen C. strength D. strong
Question 8: Exercise is _______ than dieting for losing weight.
A. the most effective B. effective C. most effective D. more effective
Question 9: I wish my flat-mate wouldn’t play the guitar all day and night. It’s driving me up the
______.
A. ceiling B. sky C. wall D. ground
Question 10: I don’t mind _______ a little extra for organic produce because it’s healthier.
A. paying B. to pay C. paid D. pay
Question 11: I lost my _______ on the way home and had to call my doctor to get a new one.
A. medicine B. prescription C. treatment D. therapy
Question 12: David entered the room while they _______ behind his back.
A. talk B. are talking C. were talking D. talked
Question 13: The holiday resort offers all the _______ a young family could want.
A. itineraries B. amenities C. vicinity D. expectancy
Question 14: I had to _______ the job offer because the salary was too low.
A. get down B. get up C. turn down D. turn up
Question 15: I get quite depressed when thinking about the damage we are _______ to the
environment.
A. having B. causing C. taking D. giving
Question 16: People _______ smartphones have access to a wealth of information and entertainment at
their fingertips.
A. owning B. are owned C. are owning D. owned
Question 17: The children will start playing again _______ .
A. by the time they finished their snacks. B. after they finish their snacks.
C. when they finished their snacks. D. as soon as they had finished their snacks.
Question 18: Peter is walking happily hoping that he _______ to the party by his girl friend.
A. invites B. will invite C. was inviting D. will be invited
Question 19: They are tired _______ seeing the same boring movies all the time.
A. of B. in C. about D. on

24
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: At the educational conference, teachers shared best practices and strategies for teaching
effectively.
A. meeting B. absence C. cancellation D. solution
Question 21: The police officers signaled for the traffic to proceed through the intersection.
A. employ B. finish C. begin D. continue

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The crowd began to scatter when they heard the loud explosion.
A. send B. move C. collect D. decrease
Question 23: The party was a barrel of laughs, thanks to all the fun games and activities.
A. pleasurable B. entertaining C. unavoidable D. unenjoyable

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: Susan and Brian are talking on the phone.
- Brian: “Would you like to grab some coffee and catch up this afternoon?”
- Susan: “ _______ , but I have to finish my English assignment”
A. I’ll certainly come B. Congratulations C. I’m sorry D. Good luck
Question 25: Andrew and Olivia are talking about the book they’ve read.
- Andrew: “Personally, I think the book was a bit too long.”
- Olivia: “ _______ 100 pages, just enough for us to read”
A. I can’t agree more B. Exactly right C. I don’t agree D. Great idea

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Bullying is hard to control and it affects millions of teenagers every day. In the past, it mostly
happened at school or in public places, but nowadays the Internet makes it possible for bullies to
(26)_______ their victims at home. We call it cyberbullying - when a bully teases or threatens someone
online. Experts believe that almost all children and teenagers will experience bullying at some point in
their lives.
Most people know that if someone bullies you, you can tell a teacher or a parent. (27) _______
what should you do if you see bullying happening to someone else? People (28) _______ try to ignore
bullying become bystanders: they stand by and see bullying happen, but don’t do anything to stop it.
Sometimes bystanders are frightened of the bullies, or they’re embarrassed about telling their parents or
a teacher. (29)_______ reason is that they just feel confused about what to do. But if you don’t do
anything, bullies think that their behavior is not bad. They think that people don’t mind, and more
bullying happens. That’s why we need to be up-standers. Up-standers say “no” to bullies because
bullying is (30) _______ ! Bullying is hard to stop - but together, we can stop it by being up-standers,
not bystanders.
(Adapted from Oxford Metro Student’s Book)
Question 26: A. arrive B. make C. bring D. reach
Question 27: A. But B. Because C. Although D. So
Question 28: A. who B. whom C. whose D. which
Question 29: A. Many B. Much C. Little D. Another
Question 30: A. relevant B. unaffected C. adequate D. unacceptable

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word for each of the questions from 31 to 35.

25
Samba is one of Brazil’s most popular music and dance styles. In many ways, it is a symbol of the
country itself. In the worlds of one of modern samba’s main artists, Seu Jorge: “Samba is our truth, our
peculiarity … and our flag”. When people today hear the word samba, they often think of the festival of
Carnaval and the city of Rio de Janeiro. But there are many different types of samba, and these styles
differ throughout Brazil.
Today, one of the most popular types of samba comes from Bahia, a state in the eastern part of the
country. It’s called samba reggae. From the 16th to 18th centuries, over three million Africans were
brought to Brazil to work as slaves. Samba from this region of Brazil is heavily influenced by African
rhythms. Modern samba reggae is a combination of Rio samba, African drumbeats, and Jamaican
reggae. It’s a bit slower than Rio samba, and it is usually performed in large groups – sometimes with
over 200 drums playing at one time!
Bahia’s most famous drumming group is Olodum. Many say the group invented the samba reggae
sound. But Olodum is not only a musical group. Its members also created local organizations to help
young people and the poor. Every year, in the city of Salvador in Bahia, the lively sound of samba
reggae fills the streets during Carnaval – one of the world’s greatest parties.
(Adapted from Reading Explorer 1)
Question 31: What is the passage mainly about?
A. Olodum, Bahia’s most famous drumming group
B. Brazil, a country with different types of samba
C. The Rio Carnaval, the most important festival in Brazil
D. Samba reggae, an important type of music in Brazil
Question 32: According to the passage, Rio samba is faster than _______ .
A. Samba reggae B. Jamaican reggae C. African drumbeats D. African rhythms
Question 33: The word “combination” in paragraph 2 mostly means _______ .
A. separation B. mix C. self D. coordination
Question 34: The word “Its” in paragraph 3 refers to _______ .
A. Bahia B. sound C. Olodum D. samba
Question 35: Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Olodum founded local organizations to support other people.
B. Samba reggae is rarely played with over 200 drums at one time.
C. Africans brought samba to Brazil from the 16th to 18th centuries.
D. Different types of samba are similar throughout Brazil.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word for each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Time management is a critical skill that can help us achieve our goals and be more productive. It
involves planning and organizing our time to ensure that we use it efficiently and effectively. Good time
management skills can help us reduce stress, increase productivity, and achieve a better work-life
balance.
One of the first steps in effective time management is prioritizing tasks based on their importance
and urgency. This can involve breaking down larger tasks into smaller, more manageable ones, and
setting realistic goals and deadlines for each one. By focusing on the most important and urgent tasks
first, we can maximize our productivity and minimize stress.
Another key aspect of time management is avoiding distractions. In today’s world, there are
countless distractions that can interfere with our ability to focus and be productive, such as social
media, email, and other digital devices. To avoid them, it can be helpful to set specific times to check
email or social media, or even turn off notifications altogether when working on important tasks.
Finally, it’s important to be flexible and adaptable in our approach to time management. No plan is
foolproof, and unexpected events or emergencies can arise at any time. By being open to changes in our
schedule and adjusting our priorities as needed, we can better manage our time and reduce stress.

26
In that way, time management is an important skill that can help us be more productive, reduce
stress, and achieve a better work-life balance. By prioritizing tasks, avoiding distractions, and being
flexible in our approach, we can enhance our overall productivity and well-being.
(Adapted from https://craftythinking.com/importance-of-time/)
Question 36: Which of the following could be the best title for the passage?
A. The Art and Science of Effective Time Management
B. Time Management – The Only Way to achieve Goals
C. Time Management – The Lead to Every Success
D. The Importance and Urgency of Time Management
Question 37: The word realistic in paragraph 2 mostly means _______ .
A. practical B. imaginary C. interesting D. impossible
Question 38: According to paragraph 3, one way to prevent distractions is by _______ .
A. focusing on social media B. working on important tasks
C. turning off digital devices D. setting times to check emails.
Question 39: The word them in paragraph 3 refers to _______ .
A. notifications B. distractions C. devices D. times
Question 40: The word enhance in paragraph 5 mostly means _______ .
A. remain B. improve C. drop D. decrease
Question 41: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as one of the ways to
better our time management?
A. Being flexible B. Prioritizing tasks
C. Reducing stress D. Avoiding distractions
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. To reduce stress and manage time better, people need a fixed approach to time management.
B. Effective Time Management can benefit individuals in both personal and professional lives.
C. People can increase productivity and reduce stress just by focusing on urgent tasks first.
D. Various digital distractions make people less productive and more stressful.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: She reads the latest issue of her favorite magazine during her commute yesterday.
A B C D
Question 44: His work remained obscene for years before it was finally recognized as
A B
groundbreaking and influential.
C D
Question 45: He bought a new suit so that he could use them for his upcoming job interview.
A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46: “Have you seen that movie before?” asked my roommate.
A. My roommate asked me if had I seen that movie before.
B. My roommate asked me if have I seen that movie before.
C. My roommate asked me if I had seen that movie before.
D. My roommate asked me if I have seen that movie before.
Question 47: He hasn’t taken a day off from work for months.
A. It’s months since he didn’t take a day off from work.
B. He has a day off from work to take every month.
C. He has taken a day off from work monthly.
D. He last took a day off from work months ago.
Question 48: It’s likely that we’ll be stuck in traffic for hours.
27
A. We needn’t be stuck in traffic for hours. B. We might be stuck in traffic for hours.
C. We must be stuck in traffic for hours. D. We can’t be stuck in traffic for hours.

Mark the letter A, B C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: The weather was so bad. We couldn’t go for a picnic.
A. If only the weather wasn’t so bad, we could go for a picnic
B. If the weather hadn’t been so bad, we couldn’t have gone for a picnic.
C. If the weather hadn’t been so bad, we could have gone for a picnic.
D. As long as the weather wasn’t so bad, we could have gone for a picnic.
Question 50: They were being followed by a group of strangers. They then realized that.
A. Only later they realized that were they being followed by a group of strangers.
B. Only later did they realize that they were being followed by a group of strangers.
C. Not until they realized that were they being followed by a group of strangers.
D. Not until were they being followed by a group of strangers, they realized that.

MOCK TEST 7
Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. pencils B. lemons C. motors D. presents
Question 2: A. species B. medal C. special D. helpful

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. lawyer B. sugar C. fitness D. prevent
Question 4: A. society B. epidemic C. initiate D. catastrophe

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: As of 2021, Vietnam had more than 300 social enterprises _______ under the Law on
Business.
A. registering B. to register C. registered D. which registered
Question 6: In technology and the media-driven world, it’s becoming __________ to get our students’
attention and keep them absorbed in classroom discussions.
A. more and more difficult B. the most difficult
C. most difficult D. more difficult and difficult
Question 7: A South Korean tourist died after his motorbike ___________ into a roadside power pole
in the Central Highlands resort town of Da Lat.
A. had crashed B. crashed C. was crashing D. will crash
Question 8: Ben Tre Province farmers are once again scrambling to save their drought-stricken durian
trees _____ saltwater intrusion.
A. for B. from C. of D. away
Question 9: Darkness is as essential to our biological welfare, to our internal clockwork, as light
itself, _______?
A. was it B. is it C. didn’t it D. isn’t it
Question 10: Full of intriguing foods and flavours, Vietnam’s cuisine is endlessly interesting and offers
____ valuable insight into the country’s culture.
A. Ø (no article) B. an C. the D. a
Question 11: The creator of ChatGPT says that the tool is only for ______ and is not always capable of
giving an exact answer.
A. example B. preference C. reference D. improvement
28
Question 12: The flight attendants and the drugs were _____ to the Drug Crime Investigation Division
at Ho Chi Minh City Police for further investigation.
A. brought forward B. sent out C. taken off D. handed over
Question 13: Vietnam is committed to ________ the 17 Sustainable Development Goals.
A. be reaching B. reach C. be reached D. reaching
Question 14: Public preschools do not accept children that young, and private ones are too expensive.
Lack of affordable childcare leaves low-income parents in the _______.
A. rain B. luck C. lurch D. cold
Question 15: A truck was smashed by a fast-moving train __________ in a railroad crossing in Hanoi.
A. when it got stuck B. when it stuck C. after it stuck D. before it was stuck
Question 16: Weightlifter K’Duong _____ three world records that were previously set by himself at
the 2023 Youth Weightlifting Championship on Sunday.
A. crashed B. broke C. set D. held
Question 17: Four Vietnam Airlines’ flight attendants ___________ for allegedly transporting 11.4
kilograms of ecstasy and methamphetamine from France to Vietnam.
A. have been detained B. has been detained C. had detained D. have
detained
Question 18: The Ministry of Planning and Investment (MPI) has suggested that Vietnam prioritize the
development of the green economy and the circular economy and climate change adaptation for
__________ development.
A. sustainable B. sustainably C. sustain D. sustainability
Question 19: Taxis will have to pay a service ____ to operate inside HCMC’s Tan Son Nhat airport and
pay another fee to pick up passengers.
A. fare B. fee C. ticket D. cost

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 20: ~ Daisy: “What an attractive hair style you have got, Mary!” ~ Mary: “.........”
A. Thank you for your compliment! B. I don’t like your sayings.
C. You are telling a lie. D. Thank you very much! I am afraid.
Question 21 : Sarah and Kathy are talking about bad habits of children.
~ Sarah: “Children under ten shouldn’t stay up late to play computer games.” ~ Kathy: “...........”
A. I don’t quite agree with you B. You are absolute right.
C. Yes, I share your opinion. D. Surely, they shouldn’t.

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word ( s ) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: A proposal by Hanoi’s downtown Hoan Kiem District to allow vending on the sidewalks
on five streets overnight has been rejected by the municipal transport department.
A. approved B. denied C. confronted D. operated
Question 23: Experts hope the plane’s flight recorders will shed light on the cause of the crash.
A. expose B. highlight C. conceal D. confide

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 24: Tech giants are capable of dominating the AI market, like Google in search.
A. affecting B. controlling C. keeping D. following
Question 25: “Chi Chi Em Em 2” (Sister Sister 2) pulled in VND101 billion so far this year, making it
the second highest-grossing film in Vietnam, despite criticism.
A. earned B. spent C. cost D. paid

29
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 26: “Stop smoking or you’ll be ill,” the doctor told me.
A. I was ordered not to smoke to recover from illness.
B. The doctor advised me to give up smoking to avoid illness.
C. The doctor suggested smoking to treat illness.
D. I was warned against smoking a lot of cigarettes.
Question 27: I have never listened to jazz music before.
A. This is the first jazz music I listen to.
B. This is the first time I listen to jazz music.
C. This is the first time I have listened to jazz music.
D. This is the first time I listened to jazz music.
Question 28: It’s possible that Joanna didn’t receive my message.
A. Joanna shouldn’t have received my message.
B. Joanna needn’t have received my message.
C. Joanna mightn’t have received my message.
D. Joanna can’t have received my message.

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: He wasn’t wearing a seat-belt. He was injured.
A. If he hadn’t been wearing a seat-belt, he wouldn’t have been injured.
B. If he had been wearing a seat-belt, he would have been injured.
C. If he had been wearing a seat-belt, he wouldn’t be injured.
D. If he had been wearing a seat-belt, he wouldn’t have been injured.
Question 30: John got a terminal illness. He couldn’t get out of the bed on his own.
A. Such was John’s illness that he could never get out of the bed on his own.
B. John’s illness is too terminal for him to get out of the bed on his own.
C. Were it not for his terminal illness, John would be able to get out of bed on his own.
D. No sooner had John’s illness got terminal than he could not get out of the bed on his own.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 31: Last week I have to bring work home every night to get it all done.
A. Last week B. have to C. every D. to get
Question 32: Young people nowadays often have his own idols who they really love and try to imitate.
A. his B. nowadays C. they D. to imitate
Question 33: The company had better develop more rapid and reliant systems for handling
customers’ complaints.
A. handling B. The C. complaints D. reliant

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Square Watermelons
(34) ________ the appearance of a watermelon is not as important as its flavour, people still
enjoy seeing and buying watermelons that (35) __________ unusual shapes. And contrary to popular
belief, anyone can grow a square watermelon if they want to. If you want to try it out, you can find
dozens of (36) ________ websites on the Internet that teach you how to do it.
But why do people even grow square watermelons? There are actually many practical reasons.
Firstly, they are easier to stack, which makes them easier to ship from country to country. (37)
________ reason is that square watermelons can be fit perfectly inside small spaces, making it more
convenient for consumers (38) ________ refrigerators are small.
30
(Adapted from whataboutwatermelon.com)
Question 34: A. However B. Although C. Despite D. In spite of
Question 35: A. accept B. assume C. adopt D. acquire
Question 36: A. assigned B. contributed C. dedicated D. committed
Question 37: A. The other B. Every C. Any D. Another
Question 38: A. what B. where C. which D. whose

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Do you remember what you had for dinner two years ago today? Most of us won’t have a clue,
but a small number of people, including a California woman named Jill Price, can remember such
events in great detail. That’s because they all have a condition called highly superior autobiographical
memory (HSAM).
The type of memory associated with HSAM may be called autobiographical memory or eidetic
memory. People with this type of memory recall events, images, dates, even conversations, in extremely
clear detail. And they’re able to access these memories easily. When researchers studied Jill Price, for
instance, they asked her about events on specific days, and she almost always answered correctly. After
several years of research, they asked if she remembered dates of her appointments with them. Without
pausing, she listed all those dates correctly.
When you experience something, your brain stores it as a short-term memory. You probably
remember what you wore yesterday, but that memory will fade quickly. If the experience was
meaningful, it may be stored indefinitely as a long-term memory: many people, for example, will
clearly remember where and when they married even if this happened years ago. In people with HSAM,
short-term memories are processed in the normal way, but researchers have found that the accuracy and
details of these actually improve over time instead of going away.
To date, only around 100 people worldwide have been diagnosed with HSAM, and research on
it is growing as scientists hope to explore the ways our brain processes memory. This has the potential
of helping people with damaged memory, such as people who have amnesia or have had a brain injury.
(Adapted from healthline.com)
Question 39: What is the passage mainly about?
A. Current scientific research on memory B. A rare condition related to human
memory
C. Jill Price and her extraordinary memory D. Possible treatment for damaged memory
Question 40: According to paragraphs 1 and 2, what do we learn about Jill Price?
A. She is the only woman in the world who has HSAM.
B. She can accurately remember every event in her life.
C. For many years, researchers studied her condition.
D. It was found that she is best at remembering dates.
Question 41: The word “indefinitely” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. slightly B. permanently C. temporarily D. roughly
Question 42: The word “these” in paragraph 3 refers to ___________.
A. people B. memories C. researchers D. details
Question 43: Which of the following is NOT TRUE, according the passage?
A. Those who have eidetic memory can recall small details effortlessly.
B. People with HSAM process short-term memories like everyone else.
C. Only about 100 people around the world are known to have HSAM.
D. Scientists are using their knowledge about HSAM to treat amnesia.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
“Do what you love” is career advice that’s easy to give but extremely hard to follow. We can’t
always accurately predict what kind of job we’ll love, and we may love doing a lot of things. “Asking
31
yourself what do you want is the wrong question,” said Sheena Iyengar, a Columbia Business School
professor. There are far better queries we can make when we’re trying to choose a career path,
according to Iyengar’s research.
First of all, ask yourself about what you can do better than others. This was a question that
Iyengar asked herself as a young adult. “Growing up as a blind person, I didn’t know what I was going
to do with my life and no one could tell me,” she explained. Then Iyengar began thinking abut what she
was really good at and how she could utilise these abilities. As it turned out, the answer lay in social
psychology. “In my third year at college, I went to a professor and asked to be his research assistant.
And when he knew I was blind, he was very excited. He was doing studies that involved asking
embarrassing questions and he had a notion: what if the person asking these questions couldn’t see
you? That’s when I started to feel I could become an experimentalist in a way that few others can.
Furthermore, take time to figure out what problems you want to solve. This question is
productive because it helps you identify your values and the issues you care about. For example, if you
love planning trips abroad and organizing restaurant outings for your friends to sample different global
cuisines, you might determine, “I want to help people better understand cultures outside their own.”
From there you can consider different career options that appeal to you, whether it’s working in
marketing or communications for an airline, leading group tours, teaching a foreign language, or
starting your own travel website.
Finally, think about how you want others to know you. Iyengar usually asks people to think of
five qualities they’d like to be known for, including anything from “compassionate” to “intelligent” and
“creative”. Then she has them draw a “qualities map”—a drawing that can provide a visual
understanding of the relationships between the qualities they’ve listed. If you want people to think
you’re a trustworthy, caring person, for example, you might want to consider a job in a classic
“helping” field, like being a teacher or a nurse.
The goal of these questions isn’t to pinpoint one specific job that’s right for you, but to narrow
down your choices and think more clearly about the kinds of professions that truly suit you. And as new
options arise throughout your career, think about how they fit with your answers to these three
questions. A good fit doesn’t guarantee a wise career move, but it can serve as a test as to whether this
is a move that ultimately reflects and gets you closer to your aspirations.
(Adapted from qz.com)
Question 44: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Expert Advice On How To Figure Out A Job That You Are Good At
B. “Doing What You Love” Is Actually A Bad Career Advice, Here’s Why
C. Three Things To Ask Yourself When You Consider Your Career Options
D. Identify The Ideal Job For You With These Simple But Effective Questions
Question 45: In paragraph 2, what do we learn about Iyengar’s process of finding a career that suits
her?
A. She believed her blindness would make her unable to do anything in life.
B. People around Iyengar underestimated her because she was a blind person.
C. It was in her third year at college that she began to think of her capabilities.
D. A meeting with a professor gave her the inspiration to be an experimentalist.
Question 46: The word “notion” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. suspicion B. idea C. opinion D. concept
Question 47: The word “them” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. people B. qualities C. others D. relationships
Question 48: Which of the following is NOT TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Finding out what type of work we enjoy doing is not always a simple matter.
B. Iyengar’s professor helped her realise her own potential as a blind researcher.
C. The things you care about can serve as a basis on which you can find career direction.
D. A “qualities map” gives people a deeper insight into each characteristic that they value.
Question 49: Which of the following can most likely be inferred from the passage?
A. In Iyengar’s opinion, people who give career advice like “do what you love” are ignorant.
32
B. Those who travel a lot usually wants to help others around them enrich their cultural
knowledge.
C. Your career choice should be mainly based on qualities you want others to know you for.
D. The main purpose of the questions proposed by Iyengar is to guide you towards your ideal
career.
Question 50: The word “aspirations” in paragraph 4 can be best replaced by ___________.
A. expectations B. resolutions C. ambitions D. predictions

MOCK TEST 8
Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. machine B. chemistry C. mechanic D. headache
Question 2: A. compete B. devote C. release D. deduce

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. contact B. listen C. offer D. provide
Question 4: A. industrious B. dangerous C. serious D. obvious

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions
Question 5: Hoang Vuong Lam Bach is one of a few examinees worldwide ______ a perfect SAT
score.
A. getting B. to get C. got D. which got
Question 6: __________ flowers you grow, _________ your garden will be.
A. The more - the more pretty B. The more - the prettier
C. More – prettier D. More - more pretty
Question 7: _________________, Quattrone had spent 17 years at Morgan Stanley.
A. Before he had taken Netscape public B. By the time he took Netscape public
C. After he took Netscape public D. As he was taking Netscape public
Question 8: Each of the eight defendants received 10-16 years behind bars for the charge _____
“trading human body parts.”
A. in B. on C. at D. of
Question 9: Let’s go to the library this Saturday, _________?
A. don’t we B. may we C. shall we D. haven’t we
Question 10: The device has ____ SOS button that alerts a central hub when needed, state TV reports.
A. Ø (no article) B. an C. the D. a
Question 11: Thirteen years and several hit albums later, Taylor Swift has __________ her place as one
of music’s biggest superstars.
A. cemented B. concreted C. fossilised D. densified
Question 12: Make-up artist Namrata encourages women to _______ the best in them.
A. call out B. work out C. bring out D. put out
Question 13: The death toll of an outbreak linked to _________ eye drops has risen and more people
have lost their vision.
A. recall B. recalled C. recalling D. recalls
Question 14: Japanese Chief Cabinet Secretary Hirokazu Matsuno will allocate more than 2 trillion
Yen to ________ the blow to economy from rising prices.
A. blanket B. soften C. reduce D. cushioned
Question 15 : ________ the boat leaves on time, we should reach France by morning.
A. If only B. Despite C. Provided that D. Whenever

33
Question 16: This can’t guarantee that someone will _______ the deadline, but it minimizes the role of
forgetfulness or poor planning.
A. met B. take C. make D. have
Question 17: It was Heinrich Schliemann’s ambition ________ the buried city of Troy, so he taught
himself to speak ancient Greek and Ottoman Turkish.
A. to uncover B. which uncovered C. had uncovered D. uncovered
Question 18: On the four corners of the two bell towers, there are hundreds of Pierre de Paris limestone
blocks, which are _________ sculpted, but have been eroded and damaged by rainwater.
A. beauty B. beautifully C. beautician D. beautiful
Question 19: Unions and headteachers have hit out at school leaders who have “thrown colleagues
under the ________”.
A. car B. train C. bus D. plane

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges
Question 20: Monica is talking to Rachel about school.
- Rachel: “What are you majoring in?” - Monica: “__________”
A. I’m majoring in Sociology. B. I really find the major very interesting.
C. You are so annoying! Stop asking! D. I’m busy.
Question 21 : Janice is making a reservation at a hotel.
- Janice: “Hi, good morning. I’d like to make a reservation for the third weekend in September. Do you
have any vacancies?”
- Receptionist: “ Yes madam, __________.”
A. we have several rooms available B. we are out of rooms
C. you are fired D. have a nice day

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word ( s ) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word ( s ) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The rain is then set to ease off to make way for sunny spells before more persistent rain
during the evening.
A. weaken B. intensify C. increase D. extend
Question 23: To grow the business, he needs to develop management expertise and innovation across
his team
A. knowledge B. skillfulness C. ignorance D. inexperience

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word in each of the following questions
Question 24: Five new caves where humans have never set foot were recently discovered in Lam Hoa
commune of Tuyen Hoa district in the central province of Quang Binh by experts of the British Royal
Cave Association.
A. explored B. discovered C. entered D. wandered
Question 25: It may tickle your fancy to know that besides being a coveted shopping destination,
Chandni Chowk also houses Asia’s biggest spice market.
A. catch your attention B. inspire you
C. make you laugh out loud D. please you

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions .
Question 26: It’s possible that she doesn’t know about our secret.
A. She may not know about our secret. B. She should not know about our secret.
C. She must not know about our secret. D. She cannot know about our secret.
Question 27: Joseph has difficulty pronouncing the word ‘chrisps’.
34
A. Pronouncing the word ‘chrisps’ is hard.
B. Joseph can never pronounce the word ‘chrisps’.
C. Joseph finds it difficult to pronounce the word ‘chrisps’.
D. Joseph is not good at pronouncing the word ‘chrisps’ .
Question 28: Anna said: “I heard them talking about you yesterday, John.”
A. Anna said I had heard them talking about John the day before.
B. Anna told John she had heard them talking about him the previous day.
C. Anna said to John she had heard them talking about you the previous day.
D. Anna said they had heard John talking about them the previous day.

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: Joey deeply regrets having spent 3 million dollars on a jacket. He is flat broke now.
A. If only Joey wouldn’t spend 3 million dollars on a jacket.
B. Joey wishes he hadn’t spent 3 million dollars on a jacket.
C. Joey must have been flat broke because he had spent 3 million dollars on a jacket.
D. If Joey hadn’t spent 3 million dollars on a jacket, he wouldn’t have been flat broke.
Question 30: She didn’t have enough money to pay the rent. She was kicked out of the house.
A. If she had enough money to pay the rent, she wouldn’t be kicked out of the house
B. Because she didn’t have enough money to pay the rent, so she was kicked out of the house.
C. Although she didn’t have enough money to pay the rent, she was kicked out of the house .
D. Had she had some money to pay the rent, she wouldn’t have been kicked out of the house.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions
Question 31: Yesterday afternoon, my father returns home late after a long tiring day at work.
A. afternoon B. returns C. late D. tiring day
Question 32: My students are very hard working and they always finish her homework before going to
school
A. My B. hard-working C. her D. before
Question 33: After the social science lecture, all students were invited to take part in a discussion on
the issues which were risen in the talk.
A. risen B. to take part in C. on the issues D. social science lecture

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Writer’s Block
Ever found yourself staring at a blank page for long periods of time, trying to write but being
unable to find the right words? You’re not alone. This is writer’s block, and (34) ___________ writers,
even accomplished and well-known ones, struggle with it. Writer’s block is a phenomenon (35)
___________ by writers, from journalists to novelists, (36) ___________ is best described as an
overwhelming feeling of being stuck in the writing process without the ability to move forward and
write anything new.
Writer’s block is triggered by a number of things, depending on the individual. Some people
believe that writer’s block stems from a lack of ideas or even talent, (37) __________ that’s usually not
the case. A study (38) ___________ by researchers at Yale University in the 1970s revealed that the
main triggers of writer’s block include anxiety and anger.
(Adapted from masterclass.com)
Question 34: A. all B. every C. all of D. any
Question 35: A. endured B. tolerated C. suffered D. experienced
Question 36: A. which B. whom C. who D. that
Question 37: A. so B. but C. or D. and
35
Question 38: A. conducted B. organized C. arranged D. regulated

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Having teenagers confined to home during the coronavirus crisis may not be as difficult as being
holed up with small children, but it definitely has its challenges. While younger children may be excited
about having parental attention 24/7, adolescents are likely to feel differently.
The first challenge with teens and young adults may be getting them to comply with the
guidelines for social distancing. Teenagers tend to feel invincible and they may think that the new
coronavirus is not as problematic for their age range as it is for older people. Parents are reporting a lot
of pushback when teens are told they cannot go out and get together with friends because they simply
do not see why social distancing should apply to them.
Another problem that may put parents under pressure is how to help kids with remote learning.
With younger children, it’s mostly a matter of finding fun activities that can be educational. But with
older students, keeping up with expectations from school from home can be challenging, especially for
those with ADHD, learning disorders or organization issues. “I’m completely overwhelmed by trying to
figure out how to structure a school day,” said a mother. “I was never planning on home-schooling my
kids. I don’t have training in this.”
One more issue that parents may have to resolve is helping adolescents cope with
disappointments. For many, the most painful part of the coronavirus crisis will be losing important
experiences like extra-curricular events and ceremonies in school. Some will also be worried about
missing activities expected to help them with college applications and scholarships. And while we’re all
missing out on very valued activities, it’s especially problematic for teenagers who are always seeking
new frontiers to be limited in this way.
(Adapted from childmind.org)
Question 39: What is the best title for this passage?
A. Raising Teens’ Awareness Of COVID-19
B. Helping Teens During COVID-19
C. Teen Issues In COVID-19 Times
D. Educating Teens As COVID-19 Continues
Question 40: Getting teens to follow social distancing guidelines can be difficult because __________.
A. they know that the coronavirus does not affect them
B. they do not properly understand how social distancing works
C. they believe the coronavirus only infects old people
D. they think the coronavirus is not such a big problem for them
Question 41: The word “pushback” in paragraph 2 can be best replaced by ___________.
A. resistance B. criticism C. nervousness D. influence
Question 42: The word “those” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. activities B. students C. expectations D. disorders
Question 43: Which of the following is NOT TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Unlike teens, children are actually happy to be confined at home.
B. Teens do not think they need to stay home but still practice social distancing.
C. For teens with learning disorders, learning from home is not easy.
D. Some teens worry about missing activities that affect their higher education.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
When you’re sleepy, stressed or have had a few drinks, you’re not in the best position to drive –
or even make that decision. But automated cars could soon determine whether or not you can drive for
you. In Europe, more than 25,000 people lose their lives on the road every year, while another 135,000
are seriously injured. And the main culprits are speed, alcohol or drug driving, non-use of seat belts,
distraction, and fatigue.
36
The type of automated cars on the road today provide steering, brake and acceleration support
while the driver is still at the wheel and constantly monitors the driving. These are known as level two
on the car autonomy scale, but cars could reach up to level five on the six-level scale in the future —
becoming a completely driverless car. However, there is still a long way to go and we have to take it
step-by-step, says Dr Anna Anund from the Swedish National Road and Transport Research Institute.
She and her team are developing a sensor-based system as part of a project to move towards
level three, in which the driver can rest and would only be expected to drive when the car requests it.
The system would also automatically transfer control between vehicle and driver to ensure road safety,
especially when the driver is sleepy, stressed, distracted or anxious. It also uses many types of sensors
to keep tabs on the drivers’ state, such as eye trackers and sensors to measure heart rate and changes in
voice or face images, most of which are on the vehicle’s dashboard, wheel or seat.
But all of this is still not enough. Dr Anund also notes that each person varies and reacts
differently in both normal and impairment states, such as sleepiness, and therefore the system should
work on an individual level. To measure heart rate variability accurately, for example, information such
as age and gender should be included or the initial state of the driver should be used as a reference. ‘It’s
important to develop systems where your individual preferences and behaviours are incorporated, so we
will also focus on human-computer interaction”, she said.
(Adapted from horizon-magazine.eu)
Question 44: What does the passage mostly concern?
A. The main causes of fatal traffic accidents in Europe
B. The development of a new self-driving car system
C. The reasons why more people prefer driverless cars
D. The biological factors that self-driving cars measure
Question 45: The word “culprits” in paragraph 1 can be best replaced by ___________.
A. wrongdoers B. contributors C. donors D. accomplices
Question 46: At level two of the car autonomy scale, cars can __________.
A. automatically steer, brake and accelerate without drivers
B. become completely automatic and operate with no driver
C. provide drivers with assistance while they are in control
D. determine whether or not a person is capable of driving
Question 47: Which of the following is TRUE about the system developed by Dr. Anund’s team?
A. It detects when a driver is sleepy and help them stay awake.
B. It helps driverless cars reach level six on the autonomy scale.
C. It makes use of many sensors to monitor drivers’ conditions.
D. It requests to take control if a driver is distracted or stressed.
Question 48: The phrase “keep tabs on” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. moderate B. command C. dominate D. monitor
Question 49: The word “It” in paragraph 3 refers to ___________.
A. vehicle B. system C. driver D. control
Question 50: What can be inferred from the passage?
A. Many cars will reach the fifth level of the car autonomy scale soon.
B. The final aim of Dr. Anund’s project is to create level-six driverless cars.
C. Dr. Anund’s team will focus on adding more sensors to their system.
D. Human-computer interaction can further improve Dr. Anund’s system.

MOCK TEST 9
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three
in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. honour B. honest C. hour D. hello
Question 2: A. academic B. grade C. behave D. examination
37
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. private B. protect C. reform D. regard
Question 4: A. entertain B. candidate C. referee D. afternoon

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: _______________ early for his appointment, Peter spent some time looking at the
magazines.
A. Arrived B. To arrive C. Having arrived D. Being arrived
Question 6: Honda recalls _________ 330,000 vehicles due to a side-view mirror issue
A. as large as B. more than C. much more D. the most
Question 7: Australian researchers _______ an enzyme that can convert air into energy.
A. had discovered B. to discover C. have discovered D. discovering
Question 8: According to a report by Dân Việt newspaper, the elephants have caused damage _____
numerous trees in gardens and farming fields at Thạch Màng Hamlet
A. to B. in C. at D. on
Question 9: Nobody likes being criticised in public, _________?
A. don’t we B. do they C. don’t they D. do we
Question 10: Phillip Nguyen, the third son of Johnathan Hanh Nguyen, chairman of the Imex Pan
Pacific Group (IPPG), will get married in a wedding party with 500 guests in ______ Philippines.
A. Ø (no article) B. an C. the D. a
Question 11: Emergency crews are working to _______ a wildfire in Villanueva de Viver Municipality,
Castellon Province, Valencia Autonomous Community, as of early March 28.
A. contain B. arrest C. capture D. engulf
Question 12: If you’re also looking for ways to break the doomscrolling cycle and be intentional with
your “me” time, you might want to try _______ some new hobbies.
A. bringing off B. taking out C. walking on D. picking up
Question 13: The capital city proposes ________ the tasks which can have an immediate impact on the
city’s tourism development.
A. that implement B. implementting C. to implement D. implement
Question 14: When Simon Edelman blew the ______ on his former employer, the US Department of
Energy, he couldn’t have known that his act of defiance was at the forefront of a growing national trend.
A. trumpet B. whistle C. balloon D. candle
Question 15 : ________ expensive airfares, many families have not yet finalized their travel plans for
the long holiday break.
A. Because B. Although C. Because of D. In spite of
Question 16: The Azerbaijan Armed Forces on March 25 _______ local control measures to suppress
illegal movement of military personnel and arms via the dirt roads.
A. brought B. took C. made D. had
Question 17: Rachel took an instant liking to her secretary ______.
A. before she had saw him B. after she has seen him
C. as soon as she will see him D. when she first saw him
Question 18: The oil and gas industry has played a _______ role in the global economic
transformation.
A. significant B. significance C. signify D. significantly
Question 19: India has come under _______ at the World Trade Organization (WTO) for “avoiding
questions’’ raised by members on its minimum support price (MSP) programmes for food grain.
A. weather B. rain C. fire D. lash

38
Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges
Question 20: ”Excuse me. Is there a bank near here ?” - “______________”
A. Yes. There is one on Baker Street. B. Sure. This is the easiest way.
C. There is no way you can find it. D. That’s it! Thanks for your instruction!
Question 21 : Jessica is taking with Chandler about the upcoming exam.
- Janice: “ Hi Chandler. Have you studied for the exam? - Chandler: “ __________.”
A. We still have many things to do. B. No. I’ve completely forgot about it.
C. I am tired of your questions D. No. I studied for one hour.

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word ( s ) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word ( s ) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: An international cyber security expert believes New Zealand’s critical infrastructure
remains vulnerable to hackers.
A. protected from B. liable to C. beneficial to D. protested against
Question 23: After being revitalised and reopened to the public at the end of 2021, the Bach Dang
Wharf Park has attracted a high number of visitors.
A. modernised B. replenished C. destroyed D. attached

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word in each of the following questions
Question 24: FC Barcelona need to choose between Lionel Messi and Robert Lewandowski, who
reportedly don’t see eye to eye.
A. disagree B. protest C. agree D. allow
Question 25: It’s the great TikTok panic – and it could accelerate the end of the internet as we know it.
A. slow down B. keep up with C. speed up D. bring out

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions .
Question 26: Sofia said to Anna: “My brother is in a bad mood right now. Just leave him alone.”
A. Sofia said that my brother is a bad mood right now and let him alone.
B. Sofia said that she was in a bad mood and asked Annad to leave her alone.
C. Sofia said that her brother was in a bad mood then and told Anna to leave him alone.
D. Sofia said that her brother was in a bad mood and if Anna left him alone.
Question 27: Ever since she had an accident, Jessica has stopped driving.
A. Jessica rarely drives due to she had an accident.
B. Jessica doesn’t like driving although she had an accident.
C. Jessica no longer drives because she used to have an accident.
D. Jessica has never driven before, so she had an accident.
Question 28: She really believes my funny drawings amused the kids.
A. The kids should have been very amused to see my drawings.
B. The kids might have been very amused to see my drawings
C. The kids can have been very amused to see my drawings.
D. The kids must have been very amused to see my drawings.

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: Vichy didn’t pay much attention in class. She regrets it now.
A. If only Vichy had paid attention in class.
B. Vichy wishes she hadn’t paid attention in class.
C. If Vichy paid attention in class, she wouldn’t regret it now.
D. Had Vichy paid attention in class, she would have regretted it then.
39
Question 30: Her relatives lent her a lot of money. She could open her own restaurant.
A. If her friends had lent her a lot of money, she could have opened her own restaurant.
B. No matter how much money her relatives lent her, she couldn’t open her own restaurant.
C. Had it not been for her relatives’ money, she couldn’t have opened her own restaurant.
D. Were her relatives not to lend her a lot of money, she couldn’t open her own restaurant.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 31. Some animals are in danger of extinction as humans are hunting it for meat.
A. it B. are C. in D. extinction
Question 32. There is a heavy storm hitting our village last Sunday evening.
A. evening B. hitting C. heavy D. is
Question 33. It is not advisory to make travel arrangements during this time when the Covid-19
pandemic is still spreading at an unprecedented rate.
A. spreading B. arrangements C. advisory D. unprecedented

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Qatar has (34) ___________ progress in its labour reforms but challenges in their
implementation remain, the International Labour Organization (ILO) has said in a new report released
19 days before the start of the World Cup.
According to the report, (35)___________ was published on the 31st of October, 2022, reforms
have improved the working and living conditions for hundreds of thousands of workers,
(36)___________ additional efforts are needed to ensure that all workers can benefit.
Qatar’s treatment of migrant workers has been under the (37) ___________ since it was
awarded the hosting of football’s 2022 FIFA World Cup. This led to a series of changes to the labour
law. In March last year, Qatar became the first country in the Gulf to adopt a minimum wage that
applies to all workers. However, according to the ILO, many workers still face hurdles in leaving jobs
and moving to (38) ___________, including retaliation from their employers.
(Adapted from aljazeera.com)
Question 34: A. gained B. done C. made D. taken
Question 35: A. who B. which C. what D. that
Question 36: A. however B. unless C. as soon as D. although
Question 37: A. spotlight B. headlight C. flashlight D. highlight
Question 38: A. any B. the others C. every D. others

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
For anyone interested in self-development, developing a reading habit is a crucial task.
However, reading regularly can feel like an exhausting task that you just cannot find the motivation for.
Luckily, it is not too late for you to learn how to turn reading into an integral part of your daily life.
The fastest way to make reading easy is to set an easy target. Many people set very ambitious
goals such as “read one book each week” or “finish 30 books per year”, but big objectives like these
only create unnecessary pressure and might even lead to demotivation. Therefore, consider simpler
goals like reading just one page per day. Many days, you will definitely be able to read more. But on
busy days, just focus on hitting your small goal by getting your one page completed. This way, you are
more likely to be able to keep your habit alive.
Next, you have to think about what you read. Don’t let people dictate what you should or should
not read. Instead, read whatever excites you. If you’re enjoying a book–no matter the topic–you’ll find
the experience satisfying and have a reason to read again in the future. Another option is to focus on
reading books that have an immediate impact on your life. If a book can help you solve problems or
enable you to achieve your goals, you will be more motivated to read it.
40
Finally, find a space for reading, whether it is a corner of your room or a coffee shop near your
house. Your brain usually makes connections between behaviours and situations. For example, the sofa
might be associated with the habit of watching Netflix, so you can be distracted if you choose to read
while sitting on it. This is why having a space solely dedicated to reading is so important. The more you
repeat the habit of reading, and nothing else, in a single location, the stronger the association in your
brain will be and the easier it will become as a result.
(Adapted from penguinrandomhouse.com)
Question 39: Which best serves as the title for this passage?
A. Don’t Ignore Reading! B. Ways To Read A Book Effectively
C. Make Reading a Habit D. Choosing the Right Book For You
Question 40: According to paragraph 2, what do we learn about setting reading goals?
A. Many people do not realise the importance of having reading goals.
B. The bigger the reading goal, the more demotivated you feel.
C. Smaller goals make it easier for you to maintain your habit.
D. It is recommended that you only read one page of a book every day.
Question 41: The word “dictate” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. instruct B. persuade C. suggest D. direct
Question 42: Which of the following is NOT supported by information in the passage?
A. When you like a book, it feels easier to keep reading it.
B. Any book you read should bring you some practical benefit.
C. Your reading space can be any location that you choose.
D. Our brain naturally links what we do with specific situations.
Question 43: The word “it” in paragraph 4 refers to ___________.
A. habit B. location C. association D. brain

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
When you feel down, turning to self-help books might seem like a good solution. But new
research suggests it probably won’t make you feel much better. Consumers of self-help books are more
sensitive to stress and show more depressive symptoms than those who don’t read such literature,
University of Montreal psychologists found.
This small-scale study was conducted on 30 people. Half of the participants said that they read
self-help books and half did not. The self-help consumers were divided into two categories based on
two broad types: problem-oriented self-help books that discuss the nature of personal challenges as well
as means of addressing these challenges, and growth-oriented books that promote inspirational
messages about life and happiness. All participants were tested for mental health traits like openness,
self-discipline, depressive symptoms, etc.
The results show that readers of problem-focused self-help books had the greatest depressive
symptoms, while those who read growth-oriented material had greater stress reactivity – the tendency of
our body to respond to stressful situations by releasing stress hormones, which can lead to changes in
the body like faster heartbeat or increased blood pressure – than non-readers. To put it simply: those
who read self-help books were more depressed and stressed out.
There’s one important question here: does high stress reactivity and a tendency towards
depression lead people to read self-help books, or does reading self-help books result in stressful or
depressive feelings? Catherine Raymond, the study’s lead author, said both are possible. “We would
need to perform an experimental study to have an unequivocal answer for this question.” Still, the
results showed that reading self-help books did not correlate with qualities like self-discipline,
emotional stability and self-esteem. So even if reading those kinds of books isn’t making things worse,
it certainly doesn’t seem to make things better.
“Readers should take time to inform themselves about the authors of the self-help books that
they wish to read,” Raymond said. “For instance, some self-help books that we call ‘bibliotherapy

41
books’ are written by health professionals, clinicians and scientific researchers and contain scientifically
proven facts about many subjects. We would suggest readers to go for these.”
(Adapted from huffpost.com)
Question 44: Which best serves as the title for this passage?
A. Stress And Self-Help Books: A Strange Link
B. How Self-Help Books Ruin Your Mental Health
C. The Self-Help Books You Read Are Lying
D. Are Self-Help Books As Helpful As We Think?
Question 45: The word “means” in paragraph 2 can be best replaced by ___________.
A. approaches B. instruments C. procedures D. materials
Question 46: According to paragraphs 2 and 3, which of the following is TRUE about the discussed
study?
A. It involved a total of 30 participants who were then divided into two different groups
B. During the study, participants were required to read two general types of self-help books.
C. Problem-focused self-help readers displayed more depressive symptoms than any other
group.
D. Those who do not read self-help showed the most positive mental health traits like self-
discipline.
Question 47: Which of the following is NOT TRUE, according to the passage?
A. There is a correlation between reading self-help books and high stress reactivity.
B. It is unclear if reading self-help is the cause or the result of stress and depression.
C. Even if they do not cause stress, self-help books still hinder traits like self-esteem.
D. Raymond suggested that readers be more careful when they select self-help books.
Question 48: The word “unequivocal” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. apparent B. definite C. essential D. noteworthy
Question 49: Which of the following can MOST LIKELY be inferred from the passage?
A. Most readers usually do not know who wrote the books they bought.
B. Follow-up studies on self-help books and stress are already underway.
C. Only books written by professionals should be called self-help books.
D. Not all self-help books are written based on actual scientific evidence.
Question 50: The word “these” in paragraph 5 refers to __________.
A. bibliotherapy books B. health professionals
C. proven facts D. many subjects

MOCK TEST 10

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three
in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. think B. sing C. thing D. launch
Question 2: A. monitor B. moment C. opponent D. component

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. debate B. persuade C. offer D. convince
Question 4: A. attachment B. database C. equation D. devotion

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: He handed over a brown envelope _________ a hundred-dollar bills.
A. contained B. contains C. to contain D. containing
42
Question 6: The 2024 Hyundai Kona will be one of ________ cars with over-the-air updates.
A. more affordable B. the most affordable C. as affordable as D. so affordable
Question 7: After the Secretariat of the Communist Party of Vietnam issued Directive 13 in 2017
________ forest protection, deforestation had decreased.
A. strengthening B. strengthens C. to strengthen D. strengthen
Question 8: He instructed people ________ the use of the gym equipment.
A. to B. in C. at D. on
Question 9: She seldom does the housework, _________?
A. doesn’t she B. hasn’t she C. has she D. does she
Question 10: Ocean Cleanup removes 200,000 kilograms of plastic from _____ Pacific Ocean.
A. Ø (no article) B. an C. the D. a
Question 11: The Kansas Senate will vote on whether or not to ______ disapproval of federal
protections for the lesser prairie chicken this week.
A. book B. register C. enroll D. apply
Question 12: Tristan Thompson secretly proposed to Khloé Kardashian in December 2020 — but she
______.
A. woke him up B. called him up
C. let him down D. turned him down
Question 13: According to the Ministry of Foreign Affairs, defense and security cooperation between
the two countries continues __________.
A. strengthening B. to be strengthened C. to strengthen D. strengthened
Question 14: In his annual letter to shareholders, JP Morgan CEO Jamie Dimon says US banking crisis
will _______ large in coming years.
A. longed B. brought C. came D. loomed
Question 15 : Last week’s heat accelerated the flowering, _______ the extra early fruit campaign is still
behind in Murcia.
A. although B. because of C. because D. despite
Question 16: Google warns users to _____ action to protect against remotely exploitable flaws in
popular Android phones
A. take B. have C. bring D. make
Question 17: US expert wants to bomb Russia’s TOS-1A ‘blazing sun’ _________.
A. after it reach Ukraine’s war zone B. since it reached Ukraine’s war zone
C. when it reach Ukraine’s war zone D. before it reaches Ukraine’s war zone
Question 18: “The helicopter then flew ______ past a fishing boat, plunged into the water and
exploded,” đềfishermen said.
A. close B. closing C. closely D. closure
Question 19: As the festive season comes to a close and normal life resumes, you find yourself
struggling to get back into the _____ of work, which can be a killer for your momentum and
productivity.
A. hammock B. sway C. swing D. apron

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges
Question 20: Vicky is aking Tina out.
- Vicky: “I have two tickets to the cinema. Are you free tonight, Tina?” - Tina: “______________”
A. Of course not. I would love to B. Sorry. I have to go to the cinema.
C. Yes. Can you pick me up at 6:30? D. I don’t know. I think I might have to
come.
Question 21: “Can you carry those bags for me?” - ” __________.”
A. Why not? I’m quite busy. B. Thanks. I just got them yesterday.
C. Do it yourself. You have hands, though. D. Sure. Let me lend you a hand.

43
Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word ( s ) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word ( s ) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: LQV is first and foremost a wine bar with typical French comfort food and an incredible
wine list, in a cosy and convivial atmosphere in Central, Hong Kong.
A. improper B. unfriendly C. outdated D. modern
Question 23: In our world today, I choose to utilize these moments of wonder to bolster my courage to
stand up for what I believe is good and right and true.
A. hinder B. exclude C. conceal D. reveal

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word in each of the following questions
Question 24: Over a year after ‘phimmoi’, a website providing pirated films, was prosecuted for
copyright infringement, the case has still not been resolved.
A. interference B. acquisition C. violation D. dependence
Question 25: Mistress Isabelle Brooks has hit back at claims that she forced producers to save her from
lipsyncing by throwing a tantrum on episode 10.
A. yelling at audiences B. singing excitedly
C. having a difficult time D. becoming furious

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions .
Question 26: Ian asked me, “Why don’t you take part in that competition?.”
A. Ian asked me why I didn’t take part in that competition.
B. Ian offered to sign up for me for that competition.
C. Ian said I had to take part in that competition.
D. Ian suggested that I should take part in that competition.
Question 27: I haven’t studied French for eight years.
A. I often studied French eight years ago. B. I last studied French eight years ago.
C. I have studied French for eight years. D. I didn’t study French eight years ago.
Question 28: I am sure that Rachel slapped Ross because of his red face.
A. Rachel could have slapped Ross because I could see it from his red face.
B. Rachel must have slapped Ross because I could see it from his red face
C. Rachel should have slapped Ross because I could see it from his red face.
D. Rachel might have slapped Ross because I could see it from his red face.

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: Lockwood moved abroad for a fresh start. He regrets it now.
A. Lockwood wishes he hadn’t moved abroad for a fresh start.
B. If Lockwood moved abroad for a fresh start, he would regret it.
C. Lockwood regrets not having moved abroad for a fresh start.
D. If only Lockwood had moved abroad for a fresh start.
Question 30: Timmy lied to his girl friend all the time. She broke up with him.
A. Unless Timmy broke up with his girl friend, she wouldn’t be lied to.
B. But for Timmy’s lies, his girl friend wouldn’t have broken up with him.
C. Had Timmy not lied to his girl friend, she could have broken up with him.
D. Were Timmy not to lie to his girl friend, she wouldn’t break up with him.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 31: The man, a poor man, is invited to the Clambake last night.
A. The B. a C. is D. to the
44
Question 32: Peacocks are among the most exotic birds in nature; its long tail feathers fan out to reveal
a profusion of vivid colors.
A. most exotic B. among C. fan out D. its
Question 33: Alice broke the school rules so many times that the headmistress finally had
no alternation but to expel her.
A. school rules B. expel her C. alternation D. so many

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Hamburgers are wildly popular in America and around the world, as evidenced by McDonalds,
Burger King, and many other fast food restaurant (34) __________ you can find on the streets. But have
you ever wondered where the name “hamburger” comes from?
There are many myths, but the truth revolves around the city of Hamburg, Germany. In the 19th
century, the city was famous for a chopped beef patty mixed with spices, (35) ___________ was
commonly known as a Hamburg steak. This ground beef patty (36) __________ widespread popularity
in America throughout the century as German immigrants brought their recipes with them.
They were sold from carts outside factories, (37) __________ eating them without a plate
proved tricky – until an entrepreneur began selling his Hamburg steaks between slices of bread. From
then on, people started to give it the name “hamburger” – the German way to refer to (38) ___________
gentleman from Hamburg.
(Adapted from katom.com)
Question 34: A. rings B. lines C. chains D. links
Question 35: A. when B. where C. whose D. which
Question 36: A. embraced B. enjoyed C. adored D. cherished
Question 37: A. for B. but C. so D. or
Question 38: A. some B. all C. another D. any

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Typically, when we dream, we do not know that the dream is not real. However, some people
are able to enter a dream and be fully aware of the fact that they are actually dreaming – this is known
as lucid dreaming. According to some research, around half of all people have had a lucid dream at
some time in their lives, and around 11% experience one or two lucid dreams per month.
Like most dreams, lucid dreaming will typically occur during rapid eye movement (REM) sleep.
For some people, it occurs spontaneously, but some can dream lucidly whenever they want after
training. The degree to which a person can influence their dream also varies. Some people may simply
wake up immediately upon realizing that they had been dreaming. Many others, however, may be able
to influence their own actions within the dream, or different parts of the dream itself.
Lucid dreaming certainly sounds extremely exciting and even magical. However, does this
experience have any practical applications? Dr. Denholm Aspy, a researcher who specializes in lucid
dreaming at the University of Adelaide in Australia explained that being able to control your dreams is
one way to help you effectively avoid nightmares, especially ones that keep repeating.
Lucid dreaming also has the potential to help people with phobias, such as a fear of flying or a
fear of spiders. Lucid dream environments can give people who suffer from particular phobias an
interesting opportunity to do things like exposure therapy, where you gradually expose yourself to
whatever you’re afraid of in order to slowly overcome your fear, Dr. Aspy said. This is possible, he
added, because these can provide a person with an experience that is both realistic enough and
completely safe at the same time.
(Adapted from medicalnewstoday.com)
Question 39: What is the passage mainly about?
A. The concept of lucid dreaming
B. Lucid dreaming and how it can benefit people
45
C. How to train yourself to have lucid dreams
D. Why lucid dreaming is a therapy
Question 40: The word “spontaneously” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. amazingly B. suddenly C. powerfully D. normally
Question 41: According to paragraph 2, what do we learn about the experience of having a lucid
dream?
A. Most people wake up without realizing that they were dreaming lucidly.
B. Some people do realize they are having a lucid dream but cannot control it at all.
C. Many people can influence what they and other people do in the dream.
D. A few people have the ability to control parts of their dream without realizing it.
Question 42: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. About 50% percent of all people have only had one lucid dream.
B. Most of our dreams, including lucid ones, happen during REM sleep.
C. Repeating nightmares can only be avoided by dreaming lucidly.
D. Lucid dream environments help people quickly overcome their fears.
Question 43: The word “these” in paragraph 4 refers to ___________.
A. environments B. people C. phobias D. things

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Think back to the last time you failed or made an important mistake. Do you still feel
embarrassed and blame yourself for having been so stupid? Research has shown that this response can
often have negative consequences. Besides increasing our unhappiness and stress levels, it can increase
procrastination, and makes us even less able to achieve our goals in the future.
Instead of chastising ourselves, we should try to practice self-compassion or, in other words,
forgive our own mistakes if possible and take good care of ourselves throughout times of
disappointment or embarrassment. “Most of us have a good friend in our lives, who is kind of
unconditionally supportive,” says Kristin Neff, an associate professor of educational psychology at the
University of Texas. “Self-compassion is learning to be that same warm, supportive friend to
yourself.” In her studies, Neff examined how it related to people’s overall mental health and wellbeing
and found that this trait can be linked to increased life satisfaction and decreased risks of depression and
anxiety.
Self-compassion has now become a blossoming field of research, attracting interest from more
and more researchers. Some of the most intriguing results concern people’s physical health, with a
recent study showing that people with high self-compassion are less likely to report different ailments
like back pain, headache, and nausea. A research from 2012 also found that people with high self-
compassion show greater motivation to correct their errors. For instance, they tended to work harder
after failing an important test. So it seems that self-compassion can also create a sense of safety that
allows us to confront our weaknesses and make positive changes in our lives. This is solid evidence
against the idea that self-compassion would lead to lazy behaviour and low willpower.
And if you would like to gain some of these benefits, there is now abundant evidence – from
Neff’s research group and many others – that self-compassion can be trained. Popular interventions
include “loving-kindness meditation”, which guides you to focus on feelings of forgiveness and warmth
to yourself and others. In one recent experiment, Tobias Krieger and colleagues at the University of
Bern in Switzerland designed an online course to teach this exercise alongside lessons about the causes
of self-criticism and its consequences. After seven sessions, they found significant increases in the
participants’ self-compassion scores, along with reduced stress, anxiety and depressive feelings.
More than ever, we need to stop seeing self-compassion and self-care as a sign of weakness,
says Neff. “The research is really overwhelming at this point, showing that when life gets tough, you
want to be self-compassionate. It’s going to make you stronger.”
(Adapted from bbc.com)
Question 44: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
46
A. The Great Power of Self-Compassion B. Self-Compassion And Mental Health
C. Self-Compassion: A Sign of Weakness? D. How To Practice Self-Compassion
Question 45: The word “chastising” in paragraph 2 can be best replaced by ___________.
A. obstructing B. criticizing C. disappointing D. threatening
Question 46: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ___________.
A. professor B. psychology C. self-compassion D. friend
Question 47: In paragraph 2, what do we learn about self-compassion?
A. It means that we should always forgive all the mistakes that we make.
B. Only those who have an unconditionally supportive friend can practice it.
C. Being self-compassionate means encouraging and taking good care of others.
D. It helps people become more happy with life and feel less anxious or depressed.
Question 48: The phrase “blossoming” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. intensifying B. developing C. transforming D. escalating
Question 49: Which of the following is NOT TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Low self-compassion makes it harder for people to achieve future goals.
B. An increasing number of researchers are now studying self-compassion.
C. Tobias Krieger’s course mostly focuses on the causes of self-criticism.
D. There is abundant evidence to prove the benefits of self-compassion.
Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Low self-compassion can significantly increase the risk of health problems.
B. Self-compassionate people can recover from ailments at a very rapid pace.
C. There are now many self-compassion training courses available online.
D. Many people still consider self-compassion to be a sign of weakness.

MOCK TEST 11
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three
in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. short B. question C. champagne D. chef
Question 2: A. control B. ecology C. correct D. polite

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. character B. guitarist C. bachelor D. astronaut
Question 4: A. canal B. surgeon C. conquest D. profit

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: The specialist decided the list of seven wonders needed ______.
A. update B. updating C. to be updated D. updated
Question 6: Jim Miller is one of ________ outlaws who ruled the Wild West.
A. so famous B. as famous as C. the most famous D. more famous
Question 7: ______ the Assumption of Mary Church, you must catch a ride on a wooden boat known
as a Pletna.
A. To visit B. Visiting C. Having visited D. Visited
Question 8: She is eager _________ her parents’ approval.
A. to B. in C. at D. for
Question 9: Jack hardly works on Saturday, _________?
A. has he B. hasn’t he C. does he D. doesn’t he
Question 10: We drove through a town with ___ vintage church on our way to Ha Tien.
A. this B. a C. the D. no article
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Question 11: All members of that team ________ him responsible for the project’s failure.
A. know B. take C. blame D. hold
Question 12: When I was in France, I ________ Trix - my old friend in high school.
A. ran out B. bumped into C. looked into D. turned out
Question 13: Lighting and music are used to encourage customers ________ more.
A. purchasing B. to be purchased C. purchase D. to purchase
Question 14: Global fans have the ________ over the death of 25-year-old K-pop star Moon Bin, a
member of the popular boy band Astro.
A. reds B. blues C. glues D. yellow
Question 15 : _____ “mam tom” has a bad reputation for its strong smell and is frequently listed as one
of the worst-smelling foods in Asian cuisine, anyone who gives it a chance will undoubtedly fall in love
with it.
A. Although B. Because C. Because of D. Despite
Question 16: FBI said that it was _____ the thin ice when customers used the public phone charging
stations.
A. taking on B. skating on C. running on D. putting on
Question 17: _______, Suga has continued to impress audiences with his solo work.
A. Since the release of his mixtape “Agust D”
B. Because of the release of his mixtape “Agust D”
C. Inspie of releasing the mixtape “Agust D”
D. Before releasing the mixtape “Agust D”
Question 18: The problem of ______ among young people is hard to solve.
A. employment B. employees C. employers D. unemployment
Question 19: I went to a milk tea shop last night. I was the one thousandth customer, so my bill was on
the ________.
A. dish B. chair C. table D. house

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges
Question 20: - Thu: “Do you know that the hippocampus’ primary functions include human learning
and memory, Nico?” - Nico: “_______________”
A. Of course not. I would love to. B. You can say that again.
C. There’s no hope about it. D. Well, that sounds interesting.
Question 21 : Anna: “I think we should recycle these bags. It will help protect the environment.”
- John: “ __________________. “
A. Do it yourself. You have hands, though. B. We are on the same wavelength.
C. There’s no hope about it. D. It’s rubbish. We shouldn’t use it.

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word ( s ) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word ( s ) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Maintaining eye contact throughout a discussion is considered courteous in Western
society.
A. respectful B. rude C. polite D. kind
Question 23: Strongly advocating healthy foods, Jane doesn’t eat any chocolate.
A. impugning B. advising C. supporting D. denying

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word in each of the following questions
Question 24: Dozens of valuable works of art disappeared during shipment to the US.
A. authority B. security C. activity D. delivery
Question 25: These days, seeing a live music performance may cost an arm and a leg.
A. make you injured B. quite expensive
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C. be in a good physical condition D. becoming tired

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions .
Question 26: “I won’t help you fix your bicycle” Luke said to Tom.
A. Luke promised to help Tom fixing his bicycle.
B. Luke refused Tom fixing his bicycle.
C. Luke asked Tom to help him fix his bicycle.
D. Luke denied helping Tom fixing his bicycle.
Question 27: I am sure that Jia’s cat scratched Jose because of the red line on his hand.
A. Jia’s cat could have scratched Jose because I could see the red line on his hand.
B. Jia’s cat must have scratched Jose because I could see the red line on his hand.
C. Jia’s cat should have scratched Jose because I could see the red line on his hand.
D. Jia’s cat might have scratched Jose because I could see the red line on his hand.
Question 28: I haven’t studied German for three years.
A. I often studied German three years ago. B. I last studied German three years ago.
C. I have studied German for three years. D. I didn’t study German three years ago.

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: The burglar broke into her garden. Her dog bit his leg.
A. If the burglar hadn’t broken into her garden, her dog wouldn’t have bitten his leg.
B. The burglar wished he didn’t break into her garden, his leg wouldn’t have been bitten.
C. The burglar regrets breaking into her garden.
D. If only the burglar didn’t break into her garden, he wouldn’t be caught.
Question 30: I failed to cook a new dish. My family went out for dinner.
A. Unless I failed to cook a new dish, my family went out for dinner.
B. Were I not to cook a new dish, my family would go out for dinner.
C. Had it not been for failing to cook a new dish, my family wouldn’t have gone out for dinner.
D. If I did not fail to cook a new dish, I wouldn’t go out for dinner.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 31: The man, a poor man, is invited to the Clambake last night.
A. the B. a C. is D. to the
Question 32: Their free trip, which they won on a television game show, include four days in London
and a week in Paris.
A. Their free trip B. on C. include D. a
Question 33: Today’s students also appear more formerly dressed and conservative-looking these
days.
A. Today’s B. also C. more formerly dressed D. these days

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Everyone knows that bees are busy. There is even a saying in English that one can be “as busy
as a bee”. However, (34) __________ is known about how bees play. Now, scientists from Queen Mary
University of London have discovered one way by (35) _________ bees could relax after a busy day
making honey: they play with balls.
The researchers experimented on 45 bumblebees in a (36) ___________ test area. The bees were
given two options. The first choice was to fly or walk directly to get a sugary treat. The second choice
was to get to the treat by going around different coloured wooden balls. Most of the bees decided to
play with the balls and then get their treat. Interestingly, younger bees reportedly rolled more balls than
49
older bees, (37) _________ adult males spent longer playing with balls than adult females. A researcher
said the experiments showed that bees are not “the mindless creatures they are traditionally believed to
be,” and added that these results (38) __________ the possibility that insect minds are far more
sophisticated than we might imagine.”
(Adapted from breakingnewsenglish.com)
Question 34: A. many B. little C. few D. much
Question 35: A. whom B. where C. which D. that
Question 36: A. dedicated B. committed C. contributed D. devoted
Question 37: A. even if B. although C. so that D. while
Question 38: A. specify B. indicate C. represent D. symbolise

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Natural language processing (NLP) refers to the branch of computer science that focuses on
giving computers the ability to understand text and spoken words in the same way human beings can.
And although it sounds like a strange or academic concept, there’s a good chance that you have seen
NLP a lot in your daily life.
When your email service automatically determines an email as spam, you may not think of this
as an NLP solution, but the best spam detection technologies use NLP’s text classification ability to
scan emails for language which often indicates that an email is a spam. These indicators can include
overuse of financial terms, characteristic bad grammar, threatening language, inappropriate urgency,
misspelled company names, and more.
Google Translate is another common example of widely available NLP technology at work.
Truly useful machine translation involves more than replacing words in one language with words of
another. An effective translation into the output language has to capture accurately the original
meaning and tone of the input language. And machine translation tools are making good progress in
terms of accuracy.
Virtual agents such as Siri use speech recognition to recognize patterns in voice commands and
natural language generation to respond with appropriate action or helpful comments. Chatbots perform
the same magic in response to typed text. The best of these also learn to recognize contextual clues
about human requests and use them to provide even better responses or options over time. The next
enhancement for these applications is question answering, the ability to respond to our questions with
relevant and helpful answers in their own words.
(Adapted from ibm.com)
Question 39: What is the passage mainly about?
A. Modern-day applications of NLP B. The development of NLP
C. Basic facts about NLP D. Future directions for NLP research
Question 40: In paragraph 2, what do we learn about spam detection?
A. Many people mistakenly consider it to be not important.
B. Various NLP technologies are applied in spam detection.
C. All spam detection technologies rely on NLP to function.
D. NLP can identify language signs that an email is a spam.
Question 41: The word “capture” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. decide B. arrest C. express D. contain
Question 42: The word “these” in paragraph 4 refers to ___________.
A. agents B. commands C. comments D. chatbots
Question 43: Which of the following is NOT supported by information in the passage?
A. NLP technologies have been used in many aspects of our lives.
B. Grammatical and spelling errors are common in spam emails.
C. Machine translation tools will never achieve absolute accuracy.
D. Virtual chatbots can gradually learn and enhance their quality.

50
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
If vampires in movies are monsters who suck blood, emotional vampires are people who drain
your emotional energy. They feed on your willingness to listen and care for them, leaving you
exhausted and overwhelmed. Energy vampires can be anywhere and anyone, and learning how to
identify and respond to this toxic behaviour can help you preserve your energy and protect yourself
from a great deal of emotional distress.
A common type of emotional vampire is the narcissist. These people always think about
themselves first. They have a strong sense of self-importance and covet attention and admiration more
than anything else. They are dangerous because they lack empathy and have a limited capacity for
unconditional love. If you don’t do things their way, they become punishing, withholding, or cold. To
protect yourself, do not expect them to be selfless and do not become to emotionally attached to them.
In other words, never make your self-worth dependent on them or confide your deepest feelings to
them, since they only really care about themselves and their own benefits.
There is also a kind of emotional vampire called the victim. These vampires ‘attack’ you with
their negative, “the world is against me” attitude. When you offer a solution, they will most likely say,
“Yes, but...” and follow up with another problem. You want to help as a friend or family member, but
their constant complaints overwhelm you and you might end up avoiding them and then feeling guilty
because of this. The best solution to deal with these people is to set kind but firm limits. Listen briefly
to that person but then say. “I love you but I can only listen for a few minutes unless you want to
discuss solutions.” With a co-worker, sympathize by saying, “I’ll keep having good thoughts for things
to work out.” Then add, “I hope you understand, but I must return to work.”
Finally, we have the constant talker. In a conversation, these people speak nonstop and are
usually not interested in what you have to say. Much like the narcissist, they are only concerned about
things related to themselves. You may wait for an opening to get a word in or leave the conversation but
it never comes because they simply do not know when to stop. As tough as it is to do, you must speak
up and interrupt to stop them, Listen for a few minutes, then politely say, “I hate to interrupt, but I have
to talk to these other people/go to the bathroom.”
To improve your relationships and increase your energy level, observe and take note of who
gives you energy and who drains you. If you learn to spend time with loving people and set proper
limits with the emotional vampires, your “mental blood” will stay safe and healthy!
(Adapted from healthline.com)
Question 44: Which best serves as the title for this passage?
A. Expert Advice On Setting Limits For Emotional Vampires
B. Be On The Lookout For These Real-Life ‘Vampires’
C. Are You An Emotional Vampire? Learn The Signs
D. How To Recover When People Suck Your Mental Energy
Question 45: The word “covet” in paragraph 2 can be best replaced by ___________.
A. willingly tolerate B. heavily favour C. fully support D. strongly desire
Question 46: In paragraph 2, what do we learn about the narcissist?
A. They only care about the benefit of themselves and who they love.
B. They find it hard to show the unconditional love they have for others.
C. They treat you with negativity if you do not comply with what they want.
D. They will always refuse to listen to your deepest feelings during conversations.
Question 47: The phrase “work out” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. become useful B. end well C. make sense D. be effective
Question 48: The word “it” in paragraph 4 refers to __________.
A. narcissist B. opening C. word D. conversation
Question 49: Which of the following is NOT TRUE, according to the passage?
A. The victim often displays a pessimistic mood when talking to others.
B. Dealing with the victim requires you to be harsh and firm to set limits.
C. The constant speaker care little about stories in which they are not involved.
51
D. When speaking to a constant talker, you should not be afraid to cut them short.
Question 50: Which of the following can most likely be inferred from the passage?
A. Emotional vampires can be anyone and are much more common than a person may normally
think.
B. The victim most often drains mental energy from friends who they think can offer them
advice.
C. To protect yourself from emotional vampires, you must not be too soft or show too much
empathy.
D. After spotting an emotional vampire, you should try to end that relationship as soon as
possible.

MOCK TEST 12
Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. rubber B. hungry C. campus D. punish
Question 2: A. measure B. usual C. visual D. pursuit

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. explore B. active C. language D. happy
Question 4: A. disappear B. recommend C. entertain D. literature

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: Conflicts over money will lead to conflicts of feelings, communication, and even sex,
_______ the quality of family life.
A. reduce B. reducing C. reduced D. to reducing
Question 6: The Empire State Building in America is _______ the Lotte Center in Hanoi.
A. more higher than B. more high than C. higher than D. highest than
Question 7: Nguyen Duc Thang was riding on his motorbike through an intersection in Hanoi when he
_________ the sound of a roaring car engine.
A. heard B. hear C. was hearing D. had heard
Question 8: Mondelez Kinh Do has invested heavily ____ digitalization and technology innovation in
daily sales, operations, and production.
A. for B. in C. on D. under
Question 9: The number of Vietnamese fruits allowed to be exported to China under the official quota
remains small, _______?
A. are they B. aren’t they C. does it D. doesn’t it
Question 10: Our group ___________ a new method to carry out the survey into teenagers’ attitudes
towards online learning.
A. recruited B. employed C. occupied D. engaged
Question 11: I went to hospital yesterday because I had __________ terrible headache.
A. the B. a C. an D. X
Question 12: According to a survey of 2,000 married people ________ by Insider and Morning Consult
in 2019, 37% of young married couples kept their finances separately.
A. carried up B. made out C. carried out D. made up
Question 13: Multiple Facebook fanpages were found to have been restricted on Wednesday, making it
impossible for administrators ____ new posts or for people to find their favorite pages on the platform.
A. to publish B. publishing C. publish D. published
Question 14: Linh didn’t have to rack her ____ calculating every family expense.
A. head B. brain C. mind D. eyes
52
Question 15: The training seminar will begin _____________
A. when all the staff were arriving B. as soon as all the staff arrive
C. by the time all the staff arrived D. after all the staff had arrived
Question 16: We’re planning to __________ an offer on a beautiful house which is for sale near the
town centre.
A. make B. break C. catch D. turn
Question 17: The new office of the Trung Nguyen Legend Corporation ______ in Gangnam district, a
popular entertainment and shopping center.
A. is located B. located C. is locating D. are located
Question 18: Israel is one of Vietnam’s leading partners in trade, _________, and labor in the region.
A. investee B. investion C. invest D. investment
Question 19: My father _____ when he found out that I’d damaged the car.
A. saw pink elephants B. hit the roof
C. made my blood boil D. brought the house down

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 20: Nam and Mai are having a party at Nam’s house.
- Nam: “Would you like to have some more dessert, Mai?” - Mai: “______. I’m hungry now.”
A. That won’t be great B. Yes, I like your party
C. Yes, thanks D. No, thanks
Question 21: Tim and Peter had a quarrel last week and now Tom is giving Tim advice.
- Tom: “I think the best way to solve that problem is to keep silent.”
- Tim: “______. Silence may kill our friendship.”
A. That’s a great idea B. That’s not a good idea
C. I’m not wrong D. Yes, I think much

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word ( s ) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Vietnam encourages Israeli businesses to invest in areas such as industrial production,
high-tech agriculture, materials, information technology, green production, and industrial infrastructure.
A. motivates B. stimulates C. persuades D. hampers
Question 23: Once heralded as a future star of the technological world, Daniel came a cropper when
his product proved to be a total flop.
A. failed B. succeeded C. abandoned D. escaped

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 24: Mondelez Kinh Do has achieved outstanding performance in the past few years.
A. distinguished B. excellent C. considerable D. competent
Question 25: The structure of Vietnam and Thailand’s goods exports have many similarities,
especially in the agriculture and aquatic industries.
A. differences B. analogies C. imbalances D. identities

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 26: She said, “John, I’ll show you round my city when you’re here.”
A. She made a trip round her city with John.
B. She planned to show John round her city.
C. She promised to show John round her city.
D. She organized a trip round her city for John.
Question 27: The last time I saw her was three years ago.
53
A. I have not seen her for three years.
B. About three years ago, I used to meet her.
C. I have often seen her for the last three years.
D. I saw her three years ago and will never meet her.
Question 28: It is unnecessary for you to finish the report until tomorrow afternoon.
A. You needn’t finish the report until tomorrow afternoon.
B. You have to finish the report until tomorrow afternoon.
C. You may finish the report after tomorrow afternoon.
D. You should finish the report until tomorrow afternoon

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: Susan didn’t apply for the summer job in the cafe. She now regrets it.
A. Susan wishes that she applied for the summer job in the cafe.
B. Susan wishes that she had applied for the summer job in the cafe.
C. Susan feels regret because she didn’t apply for the summer job in the cafe.
D. If only Susan didn’t apply for the summer job in the cafe.
Question 30: She had only just put the telephone down when the boss called.
A. She put the telephone down and the boss called.
B. Hardly had she put the telephone down when the boss called.
C. The boss called, but she put the telephone down.
D. She had put the telephone down, so she let it ring when the boss called.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 31: He didn’t meet her even one time since they said good bye together.
A. didn’t meet B. even C. one time D. said
Question 32: Grammy-winning singer Christina Aguilera has arrived in Hanoi ahead of its show at the
Hanoi Opera House on Tuesday.
A. in B. has C. the D. its
Question 33: Every employee is expected to be competent and industrial because wage rates depend
on levels of productivity.
A. employee B. competent C. industrial D. depend on

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Mary Joy Mandane-Ortiz, a professor at Bicol University College of Engineering, recently
shared a string of photos on Facebook, (34) __________ showed the youngsters wearing their elaborate
creations while sitting their mid-term exams. The students of the engineering college in Legazpi City
were asked to wear simple headgear to prevent them from peeking at others’ papers. (35) __________,
the students went even further in response to this request and created innovative and hilarious
homemade hats out of cardboard, egg boxes and (36) __________ recycled materials.
The images quickly took the internet by (37) _________ and even appeared on various news
(38) _________ in the Philippines. Ms Mandane-Ortiz said that she had been looking for a fun way to
ensure integrity and honesty in her class and claimed that her idea had been effective.
(Adapted from ndtv.com)
Question 34: A. which B. when C. where D. whom
Question 35: A. Consequently B. For example C. However D. Likewise
Question 36: A. others B. other C. another D. the other
Question 37: A. flood B. rain C. wind D. storm
Question 38: A. outsources B. outputs C. outlets D. outbreaks

54
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Subvocalization is a widespread habit among readers which involves saying words in your head
while reading, and it makes people read slowly because when they say every word in their head while
reading, they read at around the same rate as they talk, which is only about 150-250 words per minute.
Luckily, you can train yourself to slowly minimise subvocalization and boost your reading speed. The
first step is to realize one important thing: it is not necessary. For example, when you see a stop sign,
you just look at the word “STOP” and process it automatically instead of saying it in your head.
Understanding that you don’t need to say every word to understand what you read will make it easier
for you to try to reduce subvocalizing.
Completely stopping subvocalization while reading is impossible, but you can keep your inner
voice busy with something else. You can distract yourself by counting from one to three while you are
reading the material. While you are doing this, try fixating your eyes somewhere at the beginning of the
line, somewhere in the middle of the line, and somewhere at the end of the line. While you are looking
in those three places, count “one, two, three.” With some practice, you’ll be able to say less and less
words in your head as you read.
Listening to music will not only help you minimize subvocalization but also concentrate better.
However, keep in mind that not all types of music will prove helpful. You want to avoid listening to
music with lyrics or anything with a strong beat because this will distract you. It may also be a good
idea to avoid songs that remind you of things that can make you emotional (your high school crush, a
touching scene from a movie, etc.)
(Adapted from irisreading.com)
Question 39: Which best serves as the title for this passage?
A. Subvocalization: Beneficial or Useless?
B. Do You Know This Bad Reading Habit?
C. Ways To Reduce Subvocalizing
D. A Guide To Reading Faster
Question 40: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ___________.
A. subvocalization B. reading speed C. step D. important thing
Question 41: In paragraphs 1 and 2, what do we learn about subvocalization?
A. It is a habit that commonly develops in slow readers.
B. It makes people speak and read at a slower speed.
C. It helps us understand information more easily.
D. It can be minimized with enough practice.
Question 42: The word “fixating” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. affecting B. instructing C. directing D. managing
Question 43: Which of the following is NOT supported by information in the passage?
A. When people subvocalize, their reading speed is not faster than their speaking speed.
B. In many cases, there is no need for you to subvocalize words to understand them.
C. Counting is one way to distract your inner voice and eliminate subvocalization.
D. Some types of music can make you unable to pay attention to what you read.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
If you are trying to shed a few kilograms from your body weight, you will find a wide range of
methods being recommended by fitness enthusiasts or health experts, promising dramatic weight
reductions. But what if a good night’s sleep can be just as effective as these? A new study suggests that
this can actually be true.
In a trial with 80 overweight young adults, Dr Esra Tasali of the University of Chicago’s sleep
centre and her colleagues found that increased sleep duration reduced participants’ overall caloric intake
by an average of 270 calories per day, which would result in roughly 12 kg of weight loss over three
years if the effects were maintained over a long term. “If healthy sleep habits are maintained over
55
longer duration, this would lead to clinically important weight loss over time,” said Dr Tasali. “Many
people are working hard to find ways to decrease their caloric intake to lose weight – well, just by
sleeping more, you may be able to reduce it substantially.”
This study not only examines the effects of sleep extension on caloric intake but, importantly,
does so in a real-world setting, with no control over participants’ dietary habits. Over the course of two
weeks, participants slept in their own beds, tracked their sleep with wearable devices, and followed their
normal lifestyle without any instructions on diet or exercise. “Most other studies on this topic in labs are
short-lived, for a couple of days, and food intake is measured by how much participants consume from a
fixed diet,” said Tasali. “In our study, we only manipulated sleep, and had the participants eat whatever
they wanted.”
One of the unexpected findings from the study is that a single sleep counselling session could
change people’s bedtime habits enough to improve the amount of sleep they got. “We simply coached
each individual on good sleep hygiene, and discussed their own personal sleep environments, providing
tailored advice on changes they could make to improve their sleep duration,” Tasali said. Following just
a single session, participants increased their average sleep duration by over an hour a night.
Ultimately, Tasali and her team hope to examine the underlying mechanisms that may explain
these results, and believe this work should spur new, larger studies to determine if extending sleep can
support weight-loss programs and help prevent or reverse obesity.
(Adapted from hindustantimes.com; theguardian.com)
Question 44: Which best serves as the title for this passage?
A. Is Sleep The Best Method For Weight Loss?
B. Want To Lose Weight? Sleep Some More
C. Sleeping Is Not As Unhealthy As You Think
D. How Sleeping Habits Affect Your Weight
Question 45: The word “these” in paragraph 1 refers to __________.
A. kilograms B. methods C. experts D. reductions
Question 46: In paragraphs 2 and 3, what do we learn about the study?
A. It was the first study to investigate sleep and caloric intake.
B. All participants were overweight adults suffering from lack of sleep.
C. It found that increased sleep time can lead to significant weight loss.
D. The subjects’ eating and sleeping habits were not controlled.
Question 47: The word “fixed” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. firm B. harsh C. tight D. set
Question 48: Which of the following is NOT TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Throughout the study, the participants’ lifestyle did not undergo any remarkable change.
B. According to the study’s results, the more people slept, the lower their caloric intake.
C. Each participant in the study were instructed on how they can make their sleep longer.
D. All 80 subjects managed to sleep for one hour longer after one sleep counselling session.
Question 49: Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be inferred from the passage?
A. Many people keep failing to lose weight even though they tried every method they can find.
B. Previous research on the same topic as Tasali’s were carried out in more controlled settings.
C. It was surprisingly easy to help the participants of the study to adjust their sleeping habits.
D. Tasali hopes future studies on sleep and weight loss will be conducted on a bigger scale.
Question 50: The word “spur” in paragraph 5 can be best replaced by ___________.
A. provoke B. induce C. uphold D. compel

MOCK TEST 13
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. plan B. dart C. sand D. ant
Question 2. A. center B. clutter C. calcium D. castle
56
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. narrow B. asleep C. pushy D. pleasant
Question 4. A. automate B. interview C. criticize D. reinforce

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. The boss won’t return _______.
A. after the meeting had ended B. when the meeting ended
C. as soon as the meeting will end D. until the meeting ends
Question 6. There were four candidates _______ in the waiting room but there is only one left now.
A. sat B. were sitting C. sit D. sitting
Question 7. Cindy is rarely absent from class, _______?
A. is she B. isn’t she C. does she D. didn’t she
Question 8. Bob did not turn off _______ lights despite being the last to leave the room.
A. an B. Ø (no article) C. the D. a
Question 9. The _______ the job is, the higher its salary will be.
A. most skilled B. skilled C. more skilled D. skilled as
Question 10. The municipal authority faces an uphill _______ to limit the carbon emission by personal
vehicles.
A. battle B. combat C. attack D. conflict
Question 11. I _______ one of my old friends on my trip to Phu Quoc Island.
A. came across B. got over C. took after D. put aside
Question 12. Sadly, many young people are still unaware _____ the danger of drink-driving.
A. in B. of C. on D. at
Question 13. They pretend _____ interested in their parents’ stories in order to make them happy.
A. to be B. being C. be D. to being
Question 14. You should download _______ that support your study instead of games.
A. screens B. batteries C. applications D. devices
Question 15. While Mary was watering the plants, her mother ________ some yoga.
A. has done B. was doing C. is doing D. will do
Question 16. Little Anna is bright as a _______, eager to learn about everything in this world.
A. button B. key C. light D. mouse
Question 17. John is my soul mate; he is honest, _______ and responsible.
A. rely B. reliable C. reliably D. reliance
Question 18. The abandoned child _______ by a rich young couple.
A. adopts B. was adopted C. adopted D. has adopted
Question 19. The kids _______ a horrible mess on the floor with food, toys and clothes.
A. made B. took C. kept D. caught

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 20. I have been notified of the changes to the meeting schedule three days ago.
A B C D
Question 21. In today’s competitive business world, the qualities of being industrious and committed to
A B
assigned tasks are highly desirous.
C D
Question 22. Students should be equipped with some soft skills because he will need them later in life.
A B C D

57
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 23. Peter is in Hoa’s house.
- Hoa: “Would you like to have a drink?” - Peter: “_______. I’m not thirsty”
A. Yes, please B. No, I don’t C. Don’t mention it D. No, thanks
Question 24. Kathy and Mai are talking about public transport.
- Kathy: “We should use public transport more.” - Mai: “______. It’s beneficial to the environment.”
A. I don’t think so B. You’re right C. Not really D. I can’t agree with
you

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 25. I haven’t had a trip since 2019.
A. The last time I had a trip wasn’t in 2019. B. My last trip wasn’t in 2019.
C. I didn’t have any trips in 2019. D. I last had a trip in 2019.
Question 26. It is recommended that you replace your toothbrush every 6 months.
A. You needn’t replace your toothbrush every 6 months.
B. You must replace your toothbrush every 6 months.
C. You can replace your toothbrush every 6 months.
D. You should replace your toothbrush every 6 months.
Question 27. “We’ll try our best to find the solution to this problem.” said the spokesman.
A. The spokesman said they would try their best to find the solution to this problem.
B. The spokesman said they would try their best to find the solution to that problem.
C. The spokesman said we will try our best to find the solution to this problem.
D. The spokesman said they will try their best to find the solution to the problem.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 28. I have no day off this week. I cannot arrange an appointment with you.
A. Had I had a day off this week, I could have arranged an appointment with you.
B. If I had no day off this week, I couldn’t arrange an appointment with you.
C. If only I had a day off this week, I could arrange an appointment with you.
D. I wished I had a day off this week to arrange an appointment with you.
Question 29. Freddy had gotten out of the bank. Right after that, two policemen approached and
arrested him.
A. No sooner had Freddy gotten out of the bank than two policemen approached and arrested
him.
B. Hardly did Freddy get out of the bank when two policemen approached and arrested him.
C. Only when Freddy entered the bank did two policemen approach and arrest him.
D. Only by waiting for Freddy to get out of the bank could two policemen approach and arrest
him.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined bold word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 30. Jack is mischievous and, sometimes, a little bit rude, which makes him unpopular with his
classmates.
A. overjoyed B. naughty C. diverse D. well-behaved
Question 31. Someone must have spilled the beans about his bribe because he got fired this morning.
A. revealed secret information B. concealed secret information
C. spoke bad things about him D. told good things about him

58
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 32. In order for the event to take place on time, please make every effort to be punctual.
A. bravery B. attempt C. importance D. trial
Question 33. Town dwellers objected to the construction of the factory for the fear of general pollution.
A. opposed B. proposed C. devoted D. mentioned

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
Many young people choose to spend a year or two of their lives while they are still single living
in a foreign country and working as a volunteer. Working as a volunteer means that you can not only
help (34) ______ people, but also develop a greater understanding of the world and yourself. You must
have a university degree and (35) ______ at least one year’s experience before you can apply. Suitable
applicants are invited to attend a series of interviews and are then sent on a training programme.
Applicants are usually offered a post within months and can be sent anywhere from the Sahara to
Siberia.
The advantages of being a volunteer far outweigh the disadvantages. Being a volunteer can
enable you to get valuable experience (36) ______ you would otherwise not have had. It can help you
move up the career ladder faster. You will make lifelong friends and return with an appreciation of
another culture and language. (37) _______, volunteering is not for everyone. It can be difficult being
(38) ______ off from friends and family. Living on a modest allowance is challenging. But, if you do
choose to go, you will return a stronger, wiser person.
(Adapted from FCE Use of English by Virginia Evans)
Question 34. A. each B. other C. much D. another
Question 35. A. gain B. win C. deserve D. require
Question 36. A. what B. whose C. whom D. that
Question 37. A. However B. Therefore C. Moreover D. For example
Question 38. A. blocked B. barred C. closed D. cut

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
New technology is making it easier than ever for young people to take up campaigning. One
campaigner working with Battlefront is Aimee Nathan, 17, from London, who will soon have been
campaigning for six months. Aimee is trying to stop people using disposable coffee cups. These are
nonrecyclable due to their plastic covering, so they end up in landfill sites.
Aimee worked out that if just 1,000 people bring their own mugs with them when they buy
coffee, by the end of a year, one coffee shop will have saved 5.5 tonnes of waste and 125 trees.
Highlights of her campaign included appearing on TV and getting a crowd of people, including a
famous model, to take their own mugs to a coffee shop. Aimee’s Facebook page played a big part in
publicising the event.
Another Battlefront campaigner, Manpreet Darroch, 19, from Birmingham, became aware of the
importance of road safety when several people he knew were killed or injured in road accidents. He was
shocked to discover that traffic accidents are the biggest cause of death for 15-19-year-olds worldwide:
about 7,000 people under 25 will have lost their lives on the road by the end of next week.
Manpreet decided to focus his campaign on the danger of crossing the street while listening to
an MP3 player. He has used Twitter in his campaign, spoken at political meetings and made a video for
the Battlefront website. He is now hoping to work with musicians to make his message go viral!
(Adapted from Interactive by Helen Hadkins, Samantha Lewis and Joanna Budden)
Question 39. Which can be the best title for the passage?
A. A New Wave of Environmental Campaigns B. The Issue of Road Safety

59
C. Get Campaigning with BattleFront D. Young People Put an End to Plastic
Waste
Question 40. The word they in paragraph 1 refers to _______.
A. disposable coffee cups B. young people C. landfill sites D. months
Question 41. According to paragraph 1, what is indicated about Aimee Nathan’s campaign?
A. She wants to raise people’s awareness of campaigns.
B. She tries to stop people using single-use coffee cups.
C. She aims at recycling all coffee cups in the city.
D. She hopes to use new technology in her campaigns.
Question 42. The phrase worked out in paragraph 2 mostly means ________.
A. developed B. solved C. calculated D. created
Question 43. Which of the following is NOT true about Manpreet, according to the passage?
A. He has presented at some political meetings to promote his campaign.
B. He was shocked to find that the young die mostly because of road accidents.
C. He has been collaborating with some musicians to publicise his campaign.
D. His campaign is about the danger of street crossing while listening to music.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
A generation of teenagers who communicate via the Internet and by text messages are risking
unemployment because their daily vocabulary consists of just 800 words, experts have warned.
According to recent surveys, they know an average of 40,000 words, but they favour a ‘teenspeak’ used
in text messages, social networking sites and Internet chat rooms. Communication expert Jean Gross
thinks that the lack of range will affect their chances of getting a job. Miss Gross is planning a
nationwide campaign to ensure children use their full language potential.
She wants to make sure that teenagers do not fail in the classroom and later, in the workplace,
because they are inarticulate. It will target schoolchildren and she is asking celebrities to support her
campaign. ‘Teenagers are spending more time communicating through electronic media and text
messaging, which is short and brief, she says. ‘We need to help them understand the difference between
their textspeak and the formal language they need to succeed in life - 800 words will not get you a job.’
She plans to send children with video cameras into workplaces to observe the range of words used by
professionals and share their findings with classmates. She also wants parents to limit the amount of TV
that children watch, replacing it with conversation.
Her concern was raised, she said, by research conducted by Tony McEnery, a professor of
linguistics, who examined 10 million words of transcribed speech and 100,000 words from teenagers’
blogs. He found that teens use their top 20 words in a third of their speech, and also discovered words
likely to be unknown to adults, including ‘chenzed, which means tired, ‘spong’ (silly), and ‘lol, the
shorthand version of ‘laugh out loud.
John Bald, a language teaching consultant, said the poor use of language was a rebellious act.
‘There is undoubtedly a culture among teenagers of deliberately stripping away language, he said.
‘When kids are in social situations, the instinct is to simplify. It’s part of a wider anti-school culture that
exists among some children which parents and schools need to address! But David Crystal, honorary
professor of linguistics at Bangor University, argues that experts did not understand the complexities of
teen language. ‘The real issue here is that people object to kids having a good vocabulary for hip-hop
and not for politics, he said. ‘They have an articulate vocabulary for the kind of things they want to talk
about. Academics don’t get anywhere near measuring that vocabulary!’
(Adapted from Gateway by Frances Treloar)
Question 44. Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. The Impacts of Text Messages on Teens’ Vocabulary
B. Teenagers’ Vocabulary Fail to Work
C. Teens’ Language Poses a Threat to Reading Culture
D. ‘TeenSpeak’ – A Way to Increase Your Employability
60
Question 45. According to paragraph 1, experts believe that teenagers _______.
A. learn too few words when they are growing up
B. only use part of the vocabulary they know very well
C. can’t get a job easily because of their lack of vocabulary
D. find it difficult to communicate with employers
Question 46. The word inarticulate in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. too slow to react B. bad at calculating
C. unable express thoughts clearly D. easy to be influenced by others
Question 47. The word they in paragraph 2 refers to ________.
A. words B. cameras C. teenagers D. celebrities
Question 48. The word address in paragraph 4 can be best replaced by _______.
A. deal with B. switch off C. adapt to D. compete for
Question 49. Which of the following is true, according to the passage?
A. The campaign launched by Ms. Gross aims at students who are excellent at communicating.
B. Teenagers have the habit of using short and simple language while chatting online.
C. Tony McEnery was taken aback to discover some unusual words invented by teenagers.
D. John Bald and David Crystal share the idea of the anti-school culture among young people.
Question 50. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Parents often adopt permissive attitudes towards their children’s compulsive TV watching.
B. Experts’ judgements about teenagers’ poor language can be based on the wrong principles.
C. Teenagers are always the pioneers who pave the way for a new range of vocabulary.
D. Some teen languages are quite prevalent in today’s professional working environment.

MOCK TEST 14
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three
in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. happy B. multiply C. pretty D. daily
Question 2. A. sick B. second C. service D. sure

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. blackboard B. listen C. between D. student
Question 4. A. company B. atmosphere C. customer D. employment

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. The cake ______ by the baker looks delicious and smells amazing.
A. bakes B. baking C. baked D. is baking
Question 6. I lost the match because I was playing very badly. It was even________ than the last game.
A. more badly B. badly C. worst D. worse
Question 7. _________, we will be able to leave for the airport.
A. Before the taxi arrived B. After the taxi had arrived
C. While the taxi was arriving D. As soon as the taxi arrives
Question 8. I could not _______ the lecture at all. It was too difficult for me.
A. hold on B. make off C. get along D. take in
Question 9. Don’t let anyone know our secret, ___________?
A. can’t you B. can you C. won’t you D. will you
Question 10. At first she was trained to be _____ scriptwriter, but later she worked as _____ secretary.
A. the / a B. a/a C. the / the D. a / the
Question 11.Many students will not have to pay__________fees if their financial situation is below a
certain level.
61
A. collaboration B. institution C. tuition D. transcript
Question 12: We have been talking__________a good half hour.
A. to B. for C. about D. at
Question 13. My parents were really disappointed__________out the truth.
A. finding B. to find C. for finding D. find
Question 14.When hearing the news, Tom tried his best to keep a _______ on his surprise.
A. hat B. roof C. hood D. lid
Question 15. Ngoc _______ in the kitchen when she saw a mouse.
A. is cooking B. has cooked C. was cooking D. cooks
Question 16. Unfortunately, the company closed down because it couldn’t ________ pace with rapidly
changing technology
A. look B. come C. catch D. keep
Question 17. Mary________a pink dress by her mum yesterday.
A. is given B. was given C. will be given D. has been given
Question 18. You get to apply your newly acquired knowledge in ________
A. practically B. practical C. practicing D. practice
Question 19. We had a dreadful________ in the restaurant, but he phoned me the next day to apologise.
A. discussion B. presentation C. debate D. argument

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 20: Ann and Mary are talking about the use of mobile phones in class.
- Ann: “In my opinion, students should not be allowed to use mobile phones in class.”
- Mary:” ______________This will distract them from studying.”
A. I quite agree B. Not really
C. No way! It’s useful D. I’m of the opposite opinion
Question 21: Two students are talking to each other.
- John: “What’s wrong with you?” - Linh: “ ______________”
A. Thank you. B. Yes, I was tired yesterday
C. You are welcome. D. I’m having a headache.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. Some of the passengers looked green around the gills after the trip! Their faces turned
pale.
A. confident B. attractive C. energetic D. exhausted
Question 23: No one is quite sure why Walt Disney dressed the mouse in the shorts with two buttons
and gave him the yellow shoes.
A. wore out B. made up C. took off D. put on

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions.
Question 24: If I say something odd, it’s because I didn’t sleep at all last night. When I get extremely
tired, I can sometimes get a bit weird.
A. not be able to participate B. not be able to concentrate
C. to be too clever D. to act strangely or unusually
Question 25. He hurled the statue to the floor with such force that it shattered.
A. dropped B. pushed C. pulled D. threw

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions.
Question 26. It’s mandatory for people to check their temperature before entering the bank.
62
A. People should check their temperature before entering the bank.
B. People must check their temperature before entering the bank.
C. People can’t check their temperature before entering the bank.
D. People wouldn’t check their temperature before entering the bank.
Question 27. The last time I ate spaghetti was five months ago.
A. I didn’t eat spaghetti five months ago. B. I would eat spaghetti in five months.
C. I have eaten spaghetti for five months. D. I haven’t eaten spaghetti for five months.
Question 28. Our teacher asked us, ‘What are you most worried about?”
A. Our teacher asked us what I was most worried about
B. Our teacher asked us what were we most worried about
C. Our teacher asked us what we are most worried about
D. Our teacher asked us what we were most worried about

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 29. She has disappeared three days ago, and they are still looking for her now.
A. has disappeared B. and C. are still D. for her
Question 30. Electric bikes are becoming increasingly popular nowadays thanks to its convenience.
A. are becoming B. popular C. thanks D. its
Question 31: Some people were made redundant or even lost their relatives during the unprecedented
pandemic, and they just found that life was no longer enduring.
A. redundant B. relatives C. unprecedented D. enduring

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 32. Jane really wants to buy a new computer. She doesn’t have enough money.
A. Provided that Jane has enough money, she can’t buy a new computer.
B. If only Jane had had enough money, she couldn’t have bought a new computer.
C. If Jane had enough money, she could buy a new computer.
D. Jane wishes she had enough money so that she could have bought a new computer.
Question 33.Jack did poorly on his final test. He was aware of the importance of hard work.
A. Not until Jack did poorly on his final test he was aware of the importance of hard work.
B. Only after Jack did poorly on his final test was he aware of the importance of hard work.
C. Poorly though Jack did on his final test, he was aware of the importance of hard work.
D. Hardly had Jack done poorly on his final test when he was aware of the importance of hard
work.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Many people hold the belief that blind people’s sense of hearing is, by nature, significantly (34)
__________ to compensate for their loss of sight. (35) __________, this is generally not the case at all.
A considerably large body of research and numerous surveys have found that the sense of hearing or
touch that the blind (36) __________ is no better than that of a normal person.
So why do blind people seem to perceive things better with their (37) __________ senses than
the sighted? Simply because they have no other choice. For example, when a sighted person hears a car,
their natural inclination is not to try to tell how far away it is from what they hear, but simply to turn
and look so they can determine that distance. On the other hand, blind people, (38) __________
obviously cannot rely on sight, have to gather this much needed information by listening carefully to the
sound of the car in question.
(Adapted from todayifoundout..com)
Question 34: A. promoted B. endorsed C. enhanced D. assisted
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Question 35: A. Additionally B. Therefore C. Moreover D. However
Question 36: A. possess B. contain C. comprise D. embrace
Question 37: A. every B. other C. another D. any
Question 38: A. whom B. who C. that D. which

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
How would you use to describe an introvert? Shy? Always alone? Boring? Don’t work well in
groups? If these are your answers, then you may want to keep reading and think again.
When an introvert feels overwhelmed by too much socializing, they often need a little quiet time
and solitude to recharge. Unfortunately, people sometimes mistake this desire to be alone as a negative
emotion. While introverts might need to have some time alone each day to gain back their energy, it
certainly does not mean that they are in a bad mood or that they always want to be alone. It is important
to understand that they still enjoy spending time with people they know well.
Although some do experience shyness and social anxiety, introverted people do not necessarily
feel apprehensive about talking to others. Introverts prefer to think before they speak and usually do
not enjoy chit-chat or small talk. Instead, they like to get to know a person more before engaging in a lot
of conversation. So what can you do to start up a conversation with an introvert at social gatherings?
Try starting discussions about topics the introvert cares about and you just might find that they can be
surprisingly talkative.
Another common and possibly harmful misconception is that introversion is a negative
personality trait. This can be particularly problematic for introverted kids who are constantly pushed
into social situations by adults who think that socializing is the way to “fix” their kids. For an introvert,
constantly being told that “you need to speak more” is a lot like telling an extrovert that they “need to
shut up.” It implies that there is something wrong with the individual and is, therefore, extremely
offensive.
(Adapted from verywellmind.com)
Question 39: Which best serves as the title for this passage?
A. Things You Might Get Wrong About Introverts
B. Why Do Introverts Seem So Lonely?
C. Introversion Is Not A Mental Problem
D. A Guide To Connecting With Introverted People
Question 40: According to paragraph 2, why do introverts need alone time?
A. Because they hate socialising with people they do not know.
B. Because spending time with others lowers their energy level.
C. Because it helps them deal with their negative emotions.
D. Because other people sometimes do not understand them.
Question 41: The word “apprehensive” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. depressed B. anxious C. shocked D. upset
Question 42: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ___________.
A. gatherings B. discussions C. topics D. introvert
Question 43: Which of the following is NOT supported by information in the passage?
A. Introverts only want to interact with people who are close to them.
B. Some parents want their children to be extroverted instead of introverted.
C. Introverted people do not enjoy talking about topics that are unimportant.
D. It is very rude to tell an extroverted person that they talk too much.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
While it is common knowledge that the climate crisis is pushing daytime temperatures to record
highs, night-time temperatures are also rising fast. This is a crisis for plants, which have fewer defence
mechanisms available at night, posing a huge threat to the global food system.
64
“Because of how photosynthesis works, plants need cooler temperatures at night,” says Dr
Argelia Lorence, a professor at Arkansas State University, US. Every 1C rise in night-time temperatures
could cause wheat yields to drop by 6% and rice yields by as much as 10%. Hotter nights can also affect
the quality of the crops and even change their nutritional composition, making the grains taste worse or
contain less of a specific nutrient than usual.
Lorence is trying to figure out how to create varieties of rice that can withstand the impacts of a
fast-changing climate. In 2019, her team built 6 greenhouses and planted 1920 varieties of rice. During
this process, they intentionally raised temperatures at night with an automatic system. Finally, the plants
are harvested and taken back to the lab to analyse which ones withstood the night-time heat better.
Lorence’s lab is part of a wider ongoing project in the US to understand the impacts of night
temperatures on crops called the Wheat and Rice Center for Heat Resilience (WRCHR).
The research collaboration is helping develop new varieties of wheat and rice. “We can make
these available for breeders. And then breeders can make that available for farmers,” said agronomist
Harakamal Walia, whose project at the University of Nebraska-Lincoln, US, is also a part of WRCHR.
His lab took images of 400 varieties of rice at every stage of development and analysed the images to
identify changes caused by temperature. They have already identified one useful gene: fie1. Varieties
with this gene were less sensitive to high night-time temperatures. “They were able to sustain the grain
weight even when the nights were warmer,” said Walia.
The WRCHR hopes that the genes it isolates can be used by rice and wheat breeders to create
new varieties of crops, which can then be passed on to farmer. Also, the researchers hope breeders will
be able to combine genes that are resilient to a number of stressors – not just high night-time
temperatures but also drought, salinity and others – to create rice and wheat varieties that can keep the
world’s food supply consistent in the climate crisis.
(Adapted from theguardian.com)
Question 44: Which best serves as the title for this passage?
A. Hotter Nights Are Killing Crops. A Global Effort Wants To Stop This
B. Researchers Join Hands To Help Crops Survive Rising Temperatures
C. The Race To Make Vital Crops More Resilient To Night-Time Heat
D. How Farmers And Scientists Are Growing Strong Crops Together
Question 45: The word “composition” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. format B. makeup C. arrangement D. construction
Question 46: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. team B. greenhouses C. varieties D. temperatures
Question 47: According to paragraph 4, which of the following is TRUE about Walia’s project?
A. It has the same goals and methods as Lorence’s project in Arkansas.
B. It directly provides farmers with temperature-resistant crop varieties.
C. Its data comes from analysing photographs of many varieties of rice.
D. Its results have been the most positive of all projects in the WRCHR.
Question 48: The word “isolates” in paragraph 5 can be best replaced by ___________.
A. develops B. rejects C. excludes D. discovers
Question 49: Which of the following is NOT TRUE, according to the passage?
A. A total of over 1900 varieties of rice were planted in Lorence’s six greenhouses.
B. The WRCHR focuses on how crops are affected by temperatures during night-time.
C. Rice varieties with the fie1 gene produced heavier grains despite warmer nights.
D. Breeders may be able to make crop varieties that can tolerate many stressors at once.
Question 50: Which of the following can most likely be inferred from the passage?
A. The global food supply will soon be endangered despite scientific efforts.
B. Night-time heat is now the largest contributor to decreases in crop yield.
C. The projects led by Lorence and Walia are fully funded by the WRCHR.
D. As the climate crisis worsens, we will need more and more resilient crops.

65
MOCK TEST 15
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Biomimicry is (1) __________ people use ideas from nature to solve problems. Plants and
animals have different ways to solve problems that have inspired inventions.
(2) ___________ animals such as the sugar glider have wing-like structures to help them fly
from tree to tree. When they jump, all they have to do is to spread out their arms and legs to help them
glide down safely. These structures eventually became the inspiration for wingsuits, which can let
people (3) __________ flying as they jump down from an aircraft or a high place.
An armadillo has a hard covering that can protect it from predators. When an armadillo feels that
it is in danger, it curls into a ball. (4) __________ the predator goes away, it comes out of the ball. The
armadillo has inspired someone to create a backpack with a hard surface. And this surface can roll up to
protects the (5) __________ of the backpack from being crushed.
(Adapted from generationgenius.com)
Question 1: A. where B. who C. when D. which
Question 2: A. Some B. All C. Other D. Every
Question 3: A. endorse B. promote C. uphold D. support
Question 4: A. In order that B. Unless C. Even if D. As soon as
Question 5: A. elements B. matters C. contents D. ingredients

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Thanks to modern technology, the world has developed rapidly and our lives have become more
convenient than ever before. For the elderly, however, being surrounded by various types of new
technology can be unpleasant, and it is a known fact that many senior citizens have difficulty using
computers and smartphones. And there are many different explanations for this.
Obviously, there is a big digital gap. Old adults didn’t grow up with smart devices in their
hands. Computers were big, phones had wires, and a simple and light laptop nowadays is much more
powerful than the best computers from the 80s. The gap in technology becomes bigger every day, and it
is extremely difficult for seniors to catch up without any help.
Another barrier is the elderly’s natural fear of new technology. As humans, we have been always
afraid of the unknown. In many cases, doing something that we’ve never done before is very risky and
uncertain, which terrifies us. For example, some seniors may be afraid of putting any personal
information on the Internet and won’t want to learn digital skills until they feel comfortable, while
others think that because of their limited knowledge, they will break the computer if they do something
wrong while playing around with it.
Lack of time is also a big problem. Learning how to use technology (or anything else) means
that you have to allocate time for researching and practising as well as being patient and persistent
enough to make progress and see the benefits. This, combined with the factors mentioned above, is a
major reason why older generations are often not enthusiastic about developing their digital skills.
(Adapted from easytechseniors.com)
Question 6: What is the passage mainly about?
A. What makes technology so scary for old people
B. The benefits of new technology for senior citizens
C. Why the elderly struggle with new technology
D. How to help the old acquire technological skills
Question 7: According to paragraph 3, old people have a fear of new technology because
__________.
A. they consider new technology such as the Internet or computers to be unnatural.
B. they are uncertain about how they should feel, and fear is the most natural reaction.
C. they do not feel very comfortable about having to learn new things at an old age.
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D. they think their lack of technological knowledge will lead to negative consequences.
Question 8: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to ___________.
A. information B. the Internet C. computer D. limited knowledge
Question 9: The phrase “allocate” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. provide B. devote C. donate D. present
Question 10: Which of the following is NOT TRUE, according the passage?
A. Many old people find it hard to use new technological devices.
B. Computers in the past were much weaker than modern laptops.
C. We are afraid of doing new things since it is always very risky.
D. It takes considerable time and effort to learn technological skills.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
In 2015, Microsoft announced the release of Skype Translator, which can translate a
conversation between two people speaking different languages in real time. Today, it can handle more
than 30 languages. Obviously, it’s not hard to imagine the benefits for individual consumers, but it
seems that the technology is also starting to find its place in the business world.
“Of course, the day our CEO showed it on stage, we’ve been flooded with a lot of interest from
many of our enterprise partners asking about the business implications of this technology,” says Vikram
Dendi, the strategy director at Microsoft Research. Skype Translator and similar technologies, if
perfected, would likely be useful to large multinational corporations that depend on the presence of a
skilled translator for sensitive transactions. But perhaps even more potential lies in applying it to
developing economies—places where businesses are smaller, people can’t afford professional
translators, and, most importantly, English hasn’t taken hold as the default language of commerce.
As useful as this technology will be, though, it has yet to translate one complex component of
global interaction: culture. “Even if they got the language 90 percent right, they’re not dealing with the
issue of culture,” says Foster. says Dean Foster, the founder of a consultancy that educates
businesspeople about foreign cultures. Missing cultural cues can lead to material losses: In Brazil, for
example, touching the thumb to the index finger—the American sign for “OK”—is a profane gesture.
“There are stories in which American businesspeople spent months of negotiating to sign an important
contract and lose it because they flashed the ‘OK’ sign, which the CEO of the Brazilian company saw as
an insult,” Foster explains.
Another thing that might be lost in a world where computer translations become 100 percent
smooth is the appreciation that native speakers have for a foreigner who took the time to learn and can
communicate fluently with them in their mother tongue. Yui Kong Heung, who worked as a translator
in Hong Kong for a Japanese electronics manufacturer, found that he was more likely to win over his
bosses when they knew he spoke Japanese deftly. “The Japanese are very open-minded and easy-going
once they know that you speak the language,” he says.
Real-time translation in video chat might still be far away like some other ideas on the future of
business meetings such as virtual reality. But then again, there’s a time when every mode of
communication seems distantly futuristic—Slack, email, and the telephone included.
(Adapted from theatlantic.com)
Question 11: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. This Translator Can Help Boost Developing Economies
B. How Feasible Is Real-Time Computer Translation?
C. Live Computer Translator: Possibilities And Limitations
D. The Rise of Computer Translations Over The Years
Question 12: According to paragraph 2, how can Skype Translator help businesses if it is fully
developed?
A. It can help large multinational companies find and make better transactions.
B. It can provide support for skilled translators during a sensitive transaction.
C. It can allow small businesses in developing economies generate more profit.
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D. It can be used by those who have too little money to hire human translators.
Question 13: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to __________.
A. Skype Translator B. skilled translator
C. potential D. default language
Question 14: The word “profane” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. unlawful B. irregular C. indecent D. unsocial
Question 15: Which of the following is NOT TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Skype Translator offers potential advantages to both individuals and enterprises.
B. In developing economies, English is not used when people trade with one another.
C. Current computer translators have yet to be capable of capturing cultural differences.
D. Someone who can speak their employers’ mother tongue can impress them more easily.
Question 16: The word “deftly” in paragraph 4 can be best replaced by
___________.
A. proficiently B. cleverly C. efficiently D. sensibly
Question 17: Which of the following can most likely be inferred from the passage?
A. Technologies like Skype Translator may facilitate trading and commerce in developing
economies.
B. Cultural misunderstanding is the most common reason why international business
negotiations fail.
C. Developers of computer translators have massively underestimated the great importance of
culture.
D. Achieving perfect real-time translation in video chatting is much easier than what most
people think

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 18: Peter and Mary are talking about social networks.
- Peter: "Using social networks may have negative effects on students.
- Mary: “ ________ It distracts them from their studies."
A. That’s quite true B. I don’t quite agree
C. You’re wrong D. I’m not sure about that
Question 19: A customer is talking to a shop assistant about the sweater he has chosen.
- Customer: “That’s nice. Could I try it on?" - Shop assistant: " ________ ”
A. Yes, of course, but you must pay the bill first
B. Certainly, the changing rooms are over there.
C. That’s right. You must try it before buying.
D. Oh, sorry. We don’t have this room.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 20: A. thoughtful B. threaten C. therefore D. thin
Question 21: A. manly B. danger C. capable D. ancient

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 22: A. travel B. suggest C. sustain D. involve
Question 23: A. develop B. proposal C. urbanize D. variety

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 24: The book __________ by MP has sold millions of copies worldwide.
A. was written B. written C. writing D. writes
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Question 25: The performance of the new employee is _______than the performance of the previous
employee who held the same position.
A. better B. more better C. best D. the best
Question 26: ________ to the nearest city, we will have driven for 5 days.
A. When we will get B. While we are getting
C. As soon as we got D. By the time we get
Question 27: I’m not very good _______ playing video games.
A. at B. on C. with D. of
Question 28: The journey soon became tedious, ________?
A. won’t it B. wasn’t it C. didn’t it D. doesn’t it
Question 29: My friend plays ___________guitar beautifully in a popular local band.
A. Ø (no article) B. an C. the D. a
Question 30: Marie and James seem to be very close to each other. Do you think they are a(n)
__________?
A. unit B. piece C. thing D. item
Question 31: You will be brought before the disciplinary panel to ________ your behavior.
A. turn down B. take up C. account for D. put down
Question 32: they decided ____________ to the beach for their vacation.
A. go B. to go C. going D. went
Question 33: Be honest! Don’t let success go to your ________
A. head B. mouth C. hairs D. eyes
Question 34: She came while I ________ my homework.
A. have done B. am doing C. was done D. was doing
Question 35: They want to assimilate into the new culture, but they also want to ________ their own
culture.
A. conserve B. reserve C. maintain D. preserve
Question 36: we hopes that the movie ____ at the cinema next month.
A. will show B. showed C. will be shown D. is showing
Question 37: The map of the top ten most densely ________ countries in the world includes Monaco,
Singapore, Bahrain, Malta, and Bangladesh.
A. population B. popularly C. populated D. populate
Question 38: Maria will have to experience a nine-month ________ of physiotherapy after she broke
her leg in an accident.
A. stage B. course C. chapter D. episode

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 39: School uniform is compulsory in most Vietnamese schools.
A. dependent B. optional C. obligatory D. required
Question 40: We racked our brains but we couldn’t come up with a solution.
A. positively changed B. thought very hard
C. thought quickly D. considered carefully

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 41: It is found that endangered species are often concentrated in areas that are poor and
densely populated such as much of Asia and Africa.
A. increased B. reduced C. threatened D. disappeared
Question 42: The new college is intended to improve the life chances of children in the inner city.
A. questions B. communities C. opportunities D. productions

69
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 43: Using a cell phone in the examination room is strictly prohibited.
A. You can use a cell phone in the examination room.
B. You need to use a cell phone in the examination room.
C. Using a cell phone in the examination room is allowed.
D. You mustn’t use a cell phone in the examination room.
Question 44: They last ate raw fish two weeks ago.
A. They have eaten raw fish for two weeks. B. They ate raw fish since two weeks.
C. They haven’t eaten raw fish for two weeks. D. They didn’t eat raw fish since two
weeks.
Question 45: “We can go to the airport by taxi this morning", they said.
A. They said they could go to the airport by taxi that morning.
B. They said they can go to the airport by taxi that morning.
C. They said we can go to the airport by taxi this morning.
D. They said we could go to the airport by taxi that morning.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 46: An octopus has three hearts to pump blood throughout their body.
A B C D
A. An B. hearts C. pump blood D. their
Question 47: Although ostriches and penguins cannot fly, they had other abilities like swimming and
A B C D
running.
A. Although B. had C. other D. like
Question 48: After the social science lecture, all students were invited to take part in a discussion on
the
A B C
issues which were risen in the talk.
D
A. social science lecture B. to take part in C. on the issues D. risen

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: I did not follow the Health Ministry’s 5K message. I got infected with the Corona virus.
A. If I had followed the Health Ministry’s 5K message, I would never get infected with the
Corona virus.
B. If only I had followed the Health Ministry’s SK message, I would get infected with the
Corona virus.
C. I wish I hadn’t followed the Health Ministry’s 5K message and would have got infected with
the Corona virus.
D. I wish I had followed the Health Ministry’s 5K message and wouldn’t have got infected with
the Corona virus.
Question 50: My cousin was too ill. He couldn’t sit for the entrance examination last week.
A. So ill was my cousin that he couldn’t sit for the entrance examination last week.
B. Had my cousin been too ill, he couldn’t sit for the entrance examination last week.
C. But for my cousin’s illness, he couldn’t sit for the entrance examination last week.
D. Such ill was my cousin that he couldn’t sit for the entrance examination last week.

MOCK TEST 16
70
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks .
On October 29, 2022, a Halloween disaster (1) ___________ the lives of more than 150 people
in Seoul. This kind of event where a large group of people tries to move into a space at once, is called a
crowd crush or crowd surge. It can include a “crowd collapse,” (2) __________ is when several people
fall down and can’t get back up.
Crowd surges increase the pressure in an area, making it hard to breathe. Often, people get
injured when they either fall or lose consciousness in the midst of the crowd surge. (3) ___________
potential issue with crowd surges is that it can be difficult for people around those who are injured to
recognize that there is a problem, (4) __________ this can lead to delays in getting help to whoever
needs it.
If you find yourself in a dangerous crowd before you can pull away, there are some things to
keep in mind. The most important thing you can do is keep your balance. You should also stay collected
and refrain from screaming to (5) _________ the oxygen in your space, as well as try to keep your arms
at chest level to protect your rib cage. Above all, you should try to help others around you.
(Adapted from verywellhealth.com)
Question 1: A. snatched B. claimed C. grabbed D. robbed
Question 2: A. that B. whom C. which D. what
Question 3: A. Some B. Other C. Any D. Another
Question 4: A. for B. or C. but D. and
Question 5: A. secure B. withhold C. preserve D. contain

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three
in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 6. A. laugh B. although C. weigh D. plough
Question 7. A. extinct B. positive C. thrilling D. impressive

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 8. A. parent B. paper C. disease D. weather
Question 9. A. disaster B. countryman C. stadium D. habitat

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 10. Tom and Susan are talking about their plan to help disadvantaged children.
- Tom: “Why don’t we send them some textbooks and warm clothes?” - Susan: “_______”
A. Great idea! What meaningful gifts! B. No, they are not available.
C. You should agree with us. D. I’m sorry to hear that.
Question 11. Mrs. Kate is talking to her students at the end of the lecture.
- Mrs. Kate: “I wish you a merry Christmas and a happy new year!” - Students: “_______ “
A. You’re welcome. B. So so.
C. Just for fun! D. The same to you!

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 12. In some countries, guests tend to feel they are not highly regarded if the invitation to a
dinner party is extended only three or four days before the party date.
A. admired B. disrespected C. worshipped D. expected
Question 13. Once you choose to be in showbiz, you must learn to shut your ears to all rumours.
A. pay attention B. be indifferent C. refuse to listen D. be in reaction

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Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions.
Question 14. I actually learn more from her direct comments than from those of anyone else because
she is not afraid to tell me what she doesn’t like or agree with about my work.
A. disrespectful B. straight C. severe D. immediate
Question 15. You should speak at a moderate pace instead of talking nineteen to the dozen so
everyone can hear what you are saying more clearly.
A. speaking too fast B. speaking too loud
C. speaking too slow D. speaking too quietly

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions.
Question 16. It’s possible that it will rain heavily this evening.
A. It must rain heavily this evening. B. It can’t rain heavily this evening.
C. It needn’t rain heavily this evening. D. It may rain heavily this evening.
Question 17. The last time she went out with him was two years ago.
A. She hadn’t gone out with him for two years.
B. She has gone out with him two years ago.
C. She hasn’t gone out with him for two years
D. She have gone out with him since two years.
Question 18. He said to them: “Who will you see before you leave here?”
A. He asked them who they would see before they left there.
B. He asked them who would they see before they left there.
C. He asked them who they would see before you left there.
D. He asked them who you would see before they left there.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Turning down others is hard. After all, you may hurt their feelings or jeopardize a relationship.
However, learning to say no in the right way helps you not only to stay productive and stress-free, but
also to learn how to say “yes’ to what’s important. In other words, you aren’t just reacting to what life
throws at you, but are also seeking the opportunities that move you to where you want to be.
You can never be productive if you take on too many things. So the first step to learning how
best to say no is to know how valuable your precious time is. Then, when a person asks you to dedicate
time to a new commitment, you’ll know whether you can do it. Remember that when you are
overloaded, you will not get anything done nor will you help anyone, including yourself.
Even if you have time, setting your own priorities is a must. For example, if my wife asks me to
pick up the kids from school, I’ll likely do this as family is my highest priority. Meanwhile, if a co-
worker asks for help on some extra projects, I know that will mean spending less time with family, so
saying no is more likely. However, for others, work is their priority, and helping on extra projects could
mean more career chances. In short, it is all about knowing your long-term goals and what you need to
say yes and no to in order to get there.
Now that you know the “when”, let’s learn the “how”. Firstly, take time: instead of answering
right away, defer the decision. This gives you time to consider your commitments and priorities, and
the person will feel better knowing you thought about their request. Also, be honest. Other people also
have many responsibilities, so if you truthfully say that you lack time or that you cannot help right now,
they will likely understand and respect your openness and attention to self-care. In other words, don’t
forget that people can sympathise with you.
Crucially, do not apologise. “I’m sorry” sounds polite, but apologizing makes your refusal sound
weaker. You should never be mean, of course, but you still need to be firm, unapologetic, and set clear
limits. When you say no, realize that you have nothing to feel bad about. You have every right to ensure

72
you have time for the things that are important to you. Saying yes is good, but it can also be just as good
to do the opposite!
(Adapted from lifehack.org)
Question 19: Which best serves as the title for this passage?
A. How Saying No Can Be Positive B. Learn To Say No At The Right Time
C. Why Is Saying No Such A Challenge? D. Master The Art Of Saying No
Question 20: The word “jeopardize” in paragraph 2 can be best replaced by ___________.
A. downplay B. discredit C. diminish D. debunk
Question 21: Which of these pieces of advice is best supported by information in paragraphs 2 and 3?
A. You should consider the time of others to be worthless compared to yours.
B. Whenever you feel overloaded, stop trying to help anyone, even yourself.
C. Your family should be your most important commitment no matter what.
D. Keep your long-term goals in mind when considering a request for help.
Question 22: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. setting priorities B. picking up kids from school
C. spending less time with family D. saying no
Question 23: Which of the following is NOT TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Sometimes people can feel upset when you refuse to help them.
B. When you have too much to deal with, you accomplish less things.
C. Taking time means you can think about how to say no most politely.
D. In many cases, people will appreciate your honesty even if you say no.
Question 24: The phrase “defer” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. restrain B. suspend C. contain D. withhold
Question 25: Which of the following can most likely be inferred from the passage?
A. Saying no gives us a higher degree of control over our life.
B. It is advised that your priorities be related to family and work.
C. People will not respect your refusal if you say it immediately.
D. To say no the correct way, you must disregard politeness.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 26. The therapy aims to make thyroid cancers more responsible to treatment with radioactive
iodine.
A. therapy B. thyroid C. responsible D. radioactive
Question 27. The final football match is postponed last Sunday due to the heavy snowstorm.
A. final B. is C. Sunday D. heavy
Question 28. The FBI is seeking a 49-year-old man for their alleged involvement in a US$3 billion
money laundering scheme.
A. The FBI B. their C. involvement D. laundering

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 29. Her English is not good. She can’t apply for the job as a interpretter.
A. If her English were good, she could apply for the job as a interpretter.
B. If her English had been good, she couldn’t have applied for the job as a interpretter.
C. She wishes her English weren’t good so that she could apply for the job as a interpretter.
D. Provided that her English is good, she can’t apply for the job as a interpretter.
Question 30. He got down to writing the letter as soon as he returned from his walk.
A. No sooner had he returned from his walk when he got down to writing the letter.
B. Not until he returned from his walk did he get down to writing the letter.
C. Only after he had returned from his walk did he get down to writing the letter.
D. Hardly had he returned from his walk when he got down to writing the letter.
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Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 31. Many of the items such as rings, key chains, or souvenirs are made of unusual shell or
unique stones illegally _______ from the protected areas.
A. which is removed B. removing C. which is removing D. removed
Question 32. He arrived _______ than anyone else, so he had to wait more than an hour.
A. earlier B. more early C. early D. earliest
Question 33. As soon as the taxi _______, we will be able to leave for the airport.
A. arrives B. arrive C. will arrive D. arrived
Question 34. Educated women are becoming less dependent _______ their husbands’ decisions.
A. about B. of C. on D. for
Question 35. A strong wind spread the flames very quickly, _______?
A. doesn’t it B. does it C. did it D. didn’t it
Question 36. Regular radio broadcasting to inform and entertain the general public started in _______
1920s.
A. the B. a C. Ø (no article) D. an
Question 37. At least 200 civilians are still ___________ for after the earthquake in Haiti.
A. unaccounted B. unconsidered C. unexplained D. unregarded
Question 38. Let’s take _______ the situation before we make a final decision.
A. up with B. up on C. stock of D. out of
Question 39. Every man in this country who reaches the age of 18 is required _______ in the army for
two years.
A. to serve B. serving C. served D. serve
Question 40. I am afraid that if this solution isn’t accepted, we’ll be back to _______ one.
A. circle B. rectangle C. triangle D. square
Question 41. The teacher and her students _______ a discussion about job orientation when the light
went out.
A. were having B. are having C. have had D. have
Question 42. I _______ my breath waiting for my exam’s result and fortunately I passed it.
A. held B. have C. gave D. save
Question 43. He _______ the job as an administrative assistant if he meets the requirements of the
company.
A. offers B. will be offered C. offered D. is offering
Question 44. Every morning, my mother usually drinks several cups of tea, has a _______ breakfast
and then leads the buffalo to the field.
A. quick B. quickly C. quickness D. quicker
Question 45. I was given a free __________ in designing our class’ poster for the upcoming contest.
A. grasp B. hand C. mind D. call

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
It’s safe to say that almost all of us have skipped brushing out teeth before, and of course it’s not
the end of the world if you skip brushing your teeth every once in a while, but there are definitely some
reasons why you need to remember to brush twice a day.
Brushing and caring for your teeth help to remove plaque that’s often invisible to your eyes.
Plaque is a sticky layer that coats the teeth and contains bacteria that can perforate the enamel layer
which protects your teeth and then attacking the weaker layers inside. This leads to the formation of
holes in your teeth, which are called cavities. If left untreated, cavities can lead to dental infections and,
potentially, tooth loss.
In addition to weakening tooth enamel, excess plaque can have a fairly smelly side effect: bad
breath. The sticky food particles you would normally wash off will continue to add up, and your teeth
would start to have an unpleasant smell due to the build-up of plaque and food particles.
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Moreover, plaque can do more harm than just causing cavities in a tooth and making your breath
stink. It can also weaken the gums and lead to gingivitis, a form of gum disease. The bacteria present in
plaque inflame and irritate the gums. The consequence of this is that gums become puffy and more
likely to bleed. And if it isn’t treated, gingivitis can progress into periodontitis. At this stage, the gums
that normally support your teeth can pull away from them and you may feel a lot of pain when chewing
food or even suffer from severe tooth loss.
If you forget to brush your teeth every once in a while, don’t panic. But remember that a regular
toothbrushing routine is vital to your oral health!
(Adapted from healthline.com)
Question 46: What is the passage mainly about?
A. What happens when you don’t brush your teeth
B. The great importance of oral health
C. The link between plaque and bad breath
D. How to protect yourself from dental diseases
Question 47: Which of the following is TRUE, according to paragraphs 2 and 3?
A. Plaque is a sticky layer on our teeth that the human eye cannot see at all.
B. When plaque enters the inner layers of your teeth, cavities start to form.
C. Most dental infections are caused by the formation of cavities on teeth.
D. Eating too much food directly leads to excessive plaque and bad breath.
Question 48: The word “perforate” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. explode B. divide C. puncture D. collapse
Question 49: The word “It” in paragraph 4 refers to ___________.
A. plaque B. harm C. tooth D. breath
Question 50: Which of the following is NOT supported by information in the passage?
A. Forgetting to brush your teeth occasionally is not going to badly affect oral health.
B. The bacteria in plaque can start to attack the gums and this can result in bleeding.
C. Gingivitis can develop into a more dangerous stage if people receive no dental care.
D. In the periodontitis stage, you can painfully lose a lot of teeth whenever you chew.

MOCK TEST 17
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 1. It is essential to provide high school students with adequate career orientation, so they can
make more informative decisions about their future major.
A. essential B. orientation C. informative D. major
Question 2. Neither the Minister nor his colleagues has given an explanation for the chaos in the
financial market last week.
A. Neither B. has given C. for D. financial
Question 3. A turtle differs from all other reptiles in that its body is encased in a protective shell of their
own.
A. from B. other C. encased D. their

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 4. There have been surveys ________ in many countries to study people’s attitudes towards
robots, with a particular focus on domestic use.
A. conducted B. are conducted C. conducting D. which conducted
Question 5. Learning a new language is ________ than learning a new skill on the computer.
A. difficult B. most difficult C. the most difficult D. more difficult
Question 6. ________, she will buy her parents a new TV.
A. When she receives her salary B. Once she received her salary
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C. Until she received her salary D. After she had received her salary
Question 7. In this town, tall buildings are few and far ___________.
A. over B. around C. away D. between
Question 8. Michael returned to his hometown with his family last summer, ________?
A. won’t he B. doesn’t he C. didn’t he D. hasn’t he
Question 9. I have left my book in ________ kitchen and I would like you to get it for me.
A. the B. a C. Ø D. an
Question 10. The factory was one of the factors that __________ to the poor air quality of the town.
A. dedicated B. contributed C. devoted D. committed
Question 11. Luckily, they successfully ________ the fire and saved all of the children.
A. took out B. put out C. took off D. put off
Question 12. They arranged ________ a surprise party for their grandparents’ anniversary last Sunday.
A. throw B. to throw C. throwing D. throws
Question 13. Although he didn’t score a goal, Ronaldo still made a __________ contribution to the
game.
A. speaking B. talking C. telling D. saying
Question 14. While the thief ________ into the house to steal things, he was bitten by a dog.
A. broke B. breaking C. was breaking D. has broken
Question 15. The teacher ________ her compliments on her students’ excellent performance on the
topic of environmental pollution.
A. paid B. gave C. made D. said
Question 16. Every day, Peter’s mother drives him to school. However, today, he ________ to school
by his father.
A. takes B. is being taken C. is taking D. took
Question 17. People always say that ‘laughter is the best ___________’, but is this true?
A. medication B. medic C. medical D. medicine
Question 18. Don’t you think you should by a new computer? Your current one has definitely seen
better __________.
A. ages B. years C. times D. days

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 19. Ann and John is talking about social network.
- Ann: "Today social network plays an important role in communication.” - John: “________”
A. It’s rubbish B. I’m afraid I don’t know
C. I don’t agree with you D. You can say that again
Question 20. David is talking to Linda after a party.
- David: “Would you like me to give you a ride home?” - Linda: “________”
A. That’d be great, thanks. B. Sorry, you’re not my type.
C. Yes, I’m riding home now. D. No, thanks. I don’t like riding

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
In modern football or soccer, yellow and red cards have become indispensable. However, you
may be surprised to know that the carding system, whose creator was inspired by traffic lights, is
actually a fairly recent concept in this sport.
The story of the cards began in the 1966 World Cup, when an English referee named Ken Aston
was watching an extremely intense quarterfinal match between England and Argentina. During this
match, the German referee Rudolf Kreitlein ordered Argentina’s captain Antonio Rattin to leave the
pitch for using foul language. But Kreitlein did not speak Spanish, creating confusion and resulting in
Rattin refusing to leave the pitch. This moment made Aston realise that there needs to be a change to
combat this communication issue.
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And it was at a traffic light on Kensington High Street where Aston had his lightbulb moment.
While he was waiting in his car it dawned on him that yellow could work for a caution. And red would
mean to stop and your game will be over. The carding system was experimented with by FIFA, the
leading organisation of football, at the 1970 World Cup tournament in Mexico, and became such a
success that it was introduced to European leagues soon after.
Thanks to Aston’s innovation, a reliable common language that both players and referees can
clearly understand, wherever they come from, has been created. Furthermore, the carding system has
had a tremendous impact on football games – even a yellow card can change the way a player plays the
game, having to be more careful if they know that they might be sent off.
(Adapted from thesun.co.uk)
Question 21: What is the passage mainly about?
A. The birth of football’s carding system
B. How yellow and red cards affected football
C. An inventive referee who changed football forever
D. The language barrier in football
Question 22: According to paragraph 2, what made Aston realise a change is needed while watching
the 1966 match between England and Argentina?
A. Both teams were playing the game too intensely.
B. The German referee cannot speak Spanish at all.
C. The Argentine players behaved very badly throughout the whole match.
D. There was a miscommunication between Antonio Rattin and the referee.
Question 23: The word “foul” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. incorrect B. serious C. offensive D. illegal
Question 24: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to ___________.
A. system B. tournament C. organisation D. success
Question 25: Which of the following is NOT TRUE, according the passage?
A. Yellow and red cards were not used in football games until the 1970 World Cup.
B. Rudolf Kreitlein could not speak any other language apart from his own.
C. Aston came up with the idea for the carding system while looking at traffic lights.
D. Players can behave differently in a game after being given a yellow card.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions.
Question 26. It is possible that Nancy will come to the fashion show.
A. Nancy may come to the fashion show. B. Nancy should come to the fashion show.
C. Nancy needn’t come to the fashion show. D. Nancy mustn’t come to the fashion
show.
Question 27. She started driving to work one month ago.
A. She has driven to work since one month.
B. It is one month when she started driving to work.
C. She has driven to work for one month.
D. It was one month after she started driving to work.
Question 28. Tom said: “Why do you keep staring at me, Janet?”
A. Tom asked Janet why did she keep staring at him.
B. Tom asked Janet why she keeps staring at him.
C. Tom asked Janet why she had kept staring at him.
D. Tom asked Janet why she kept staring at him.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 29. The industrial revolution caused a complete upheaval of the textile industry, with manual
labor being replaced by mechanization and mass production.
77
A. stability B. catastrophe C. establishment D. disturbance
Question 30. The teacher will see red when he finds out you haven’t done your homework again!
A. be maddened B. annoy C. make things difficult D. be calm

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions.
Question 31. According to the officials of the MOET, reopening schools is inevitable since the vaccine
rate is high now.
A. unlikely B. doubtful C. unavoidable D. dispensable
Question 32. That matter is so confidential that it must not be discussed outside the office of chief
inspector.
A. secret B. fascinating C. important D. alarming

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 33. He is short-sighted. Therefore, he has to wear the glasses.
A. If only he were short-sighted, he wouldn’t have to wear the glasses.
B. If he hadn’t been short-sighted, he wouldn’t have had to wear the glasses,
C. If he weren’t short-sighted, he wouldn’t have to wear the glasses.
D. Should he not be short-sighted, he won’t have to wear the glasses.
Question 34. Laura thought she wouldn’t be able to pass the final exam. She didn’t have much
preparation for it.
A. Not for a moment did Laura think she would be able to pass the final exam as she didn’t have
much preparation for it.
B. Under no circumstances did Laura think that she could pass the final exam though she had
much preparation for it.
C. By no means did Laura think that she wouldn’t be able to pass the final exam because she
didn’t have much preparation for it.
D. No sooner had Laura thought she wouldn’t be

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three
in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 35. A. than B. thumb C. thank D. think
Question 36. A. hide B. pick C. shine D. like

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 37. A. attempt B. effort C. action D. product
Question 38. A. economics B. philosophy C. experiment D. biology

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
If the thought of having to cook an entire meal for your family always makes you nervous or
scared, you are definitely not alone. Fortunately, there might be a solution for you in the near future – a
number of tech firms are now developing robots that can cook and plate up entire meals, both for
commercial and domestic kitchens.
One of those at the forefront is London-based Moley Robotics, which will introduce its product,
the Moley Robotic Kitchen, to the wider public next year. Attached to rails fitted to the ceiling and
hanging over your kitchen, two robotic arms can cook more than 5,000 different recipes. You just pick
the dish in question on a touch screen, add the ingredients it tells you to the built-in containers, and it
does everything else. Moley enlisted Tim Anderson, the winner of MasterChef UK 2011, to help
develop their robot. "I would cook through the given recipes in a kitchen, and my movements would be
78
recorded, and then transferred onto the robotic hands and arms," says Mr Anderson, who is the owner
and former head chef of two Japanese restaurants.
For any home cook wishing to place an order, there is currently a significant problem - the cost.
The minimum price of a Moley Robotic Kitchen is £150,000. That being said, the price of such systems
is likely to drop, says Julia Segal, senior strategist at US food consultancy The Culinary Edge: "Many of
these technologies start well out of reach of the average home cook. However, as they continue to
proliferate, costs will eventually come down as supply gradually becomes higher than demand."
There are also other concerns. Mikaela Leal, a data scientist and expert in machine learning,
warns that despite the exciting benefits that they offer, such as reducing dangerous viruses in food or
ensuring consistent food quality, robot chefs can also “result in significant job losses and a need for
human chefs to drastically change how they work and cook”, Leal comments.
Meanwhile, Wesley Smalley, the head chef of a fine dining restaurant in Berkshire, UK, says
that while kitchen robots offer convenience, they won’t interest the higher end of the market. "I don’t
believe robots can replace the human touch, especially when it comes to quality restaurants and pubs,"
he says." The changes and variations of ingredients would not allow a robot to adjust or change a recipe
according to their flavour characteristics. “And let’s not forget that after all, we will still need people to
program it and stock it with the right ingredients.”
(Adapted from ideas.ted.com)
Question 39: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Will Robot Chefs Ever Be Successful In High-Quality Restaurants?
B. Kitchen Robots Are Transforming The Food Industry
C. These Robot Chefs Might Serve Your Future Dinners
D. Robots In The Kitchen: How Our Dining Experiences Will Change
Question 40: The word “enlisted” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. obtained B. gathered C. recruited D. summoned
Question 41: According to paragraph 2, what do we learn about the Moley Robotic Kitchen?
A. It consists of two robotic arms directly attached to ceilings.
B. It can prepare thousands of different dishes all by itself.
C. Tim Anderson helped Moley Robotics create recipes for it.
D. Its movements was based on those of a professional chef.
Question 42: The word “proliferate” in paragraph 3 can be best replaced by
___________.
A. multiply B. heighten C. amplify D. sharpen
Question 43: Which of the following is NOT TRUE, according to the passage?
A. People currently cannot buy a Moley Robotic Kitchen for less than £150,000.
B. According to Mikaela Leal, kitchen robots can help improve the safety of food.
C. Wesley Smalley thinks robot chefs are too inconvenient in quality restaurants.
D. Robots cannot alter recipes to adapt to the different flavour traits of ingredients.
Question 44: The word “they” in paragraph 4 refers to __________.
A. other concerns B. exciting benefits C. dangerous viruses D. robot chefs
Question 45: Which of the following can most likely be inferred from the passage?
A. The Moley Robotic Kitchen is mostly designed for professional chefs.
B. Average consumers will soon be able to afford a Moley Robotic Kitchen.
C. Most restaurants will only require one human chef to operate in the future.
D. Robot chefs have to be more flexible if they were to replace humans entirely.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
The Five Finger Rule
It’s very important to encourage your child to read from an early age, (46) ___________
sometimes it is quite hard to find the right books for them. Those that are too easy can make reading

79
time boring, while those that are too difficult can (47) ___________ your child to become frustrated.
This is where the five finger rule can help you.
To apply this rule, ask your child to read a random page in the book. For every word that they
don’t know, they should raise a finger. If they do not raise (48) __________ finger or only one finger,
the book is most like too simple. Raising two fingers means that the book is a reasonable choice while
three fingers (49) ___________ that the book is a bit challenging but is still fine if your child doesn’t
mind. Meanwhile, if they hold up four or five fingers, the book is probably too advanced for them to
read.
One important thing to remember about the five finger rule is that it is only a guideline based on
(50) ___________ you can help your child find books that are just right. If they are truly interested in a
book that seems too hard, it’s not a bad idea to let them try and support them in the process.
(Adapted from readingeggs.com)
Question 46: A. and B. but C. so D. or
Question 47: A. make B. get C. cause D. turn
Question 48: A. all B. every C. some D. any
Question 49: A. indicate B. represent C. exhibit D. recognise
Question 50: A. when B. whom C. which D. that

MOCK TEST 18
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. feather B. feature C. heat D. each
Question 2. A. theory B. therefore C. neither D. weather

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. effort B. actor C. perform D. area
Question 4. A. disappear B. recommend C. entertain D. fortunate

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: John is the first person _________ documents from the others in our group.
A. who stole B. steals C. to steal D. stealing
Question 6: The Secret Island is ___________than the other books you mentioned.
A. as popular B. more popular C. popular D. the most popular
Question 7: _______, she will buy her parents a new TV.
A. When she receives her salary B. Once she received her salary
C. Until she received her salary D. After she had received her salary
Question 8: The lives of thousands of fish are ___________ jeopardy as a result of the recent oil spill.
A. under B. on C. at D. in
Question 9: Betty plagiarized our document because of her arrogance, _______?
A. doesn’t she B. won’t she C. hadn’t she D. didn’t she
Question 10: ______ moon is the most beautiful object in the sky at night.
A. A B. An C. The D. Ø (no article)
Question 11: They might change their mind if you __________ your influence as the project
manager.
A. emit B. discharge C. release D. exert
Question 12: My grandfather died because of the war. However, his great spirit was _________ for all
generations.
A. given down B. handed down C. hold down D. went down
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Question 13: She had better ______ at home, she has been sick for a week.
A. stay B. to stay C. staying D. stayed
Question 14: He made __________ work of the given task, having done it thousands of time before.
A. short B. swift C. small D. slight
Question 15: He ___________ his guitar when his friend arrived.
A. played B. plays C. was playing D. has played
Question 16: Volleyball is a sport that always keeps you on your __________– you must never lose
your focus in a match.
A. ankles B. feet C. toes D. knees
Question 17:The report ____ by the research team tomorrow.
A. will be completed B. will complete C. completed D. is completing
Question 18: He both looks like Korean and Chinese, so everyone still confuses about his ________.
A. nationality B. national C. nation D. nationally
Question 19: The bank will insist you produce a driving ________ or passport as a form of ID.
A. certificate B. degree C. license D. diploma

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 20: A customer is talking to a shop assistant about the sweater he has chosen.
- Customer: “That’s nice. Could I try it on?” - Shop assistant: “______”
A. Certainly, the changing rooms are over there.
B. Oh, sorry. We don’t have this room.
C. That’s right. You must try it before buying.
D. Yes, of course, but you must pay the bill first.
Question 21: Laura and Tom are talking about their school curriculum.
-Laura: ‘‘I think Art should be a compulsory subject. ‘‘
- Tom : ‘‘______. Art helps develop creativity. ‘‘
A. I quite agree B. You must be kidding
C. I’m of the opposite opinion D. I don’t think that’s a good idea

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: We’re not taking on any new staff at the moment so that we can cut down the cost.
A. employing B. hiring C. offering D. laying off
Question 23: The captain ordered the soldiers to gather on the double even though they were sleeping.
A. willingly B. immediately C. slowly D. Intensively

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 24: His mother has no alternative but stitches his clothes as ready-made clothes are not
available.
A. bespoke B. off the shelf C. out of fashion D. second hand
Question 25: The company claims it has received a lucrative offer from the South Australian
government.
A. impoverished B. expensive C. profitable D. unfavorable

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 26: They last travelled to school by bike two years ago.
A. They have travelled to school by bike for two years.
B. They have travelled to school by bike two years ago.
C. They haven’t travelled to school by bike for two years.
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D. They haven’t travelled to school by bike two years ago.
Question 27: It’s crucial for you to save money for the future.
A. You must save money for the future. B. You shouldn’t save money for the future.
C. You can save money for the future. D. You needn’t save money for the future.
Question 28: “I have stolen documents to sell online since last year” Lien said.
A. Lien said that she had stolen documents to sell online since last year.
B. Lien said that she stolen documents to sell online since last year.
C. Lien said that she had stolen documents to sell online since the previous year.
D. Lien said that she stole documents to sell online since the previous year.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 29. He was so exhausted that he felt asleep at his desk.
A. so B. exhausted C. felt asleep D. at
Question 30. Tiana forgets to bring her notebook to the biology class yesterday morning.
A. forgets B. to C. biology D. morning
Question 31. Her laptop crashed ten minutes ago and she still hasn’t been able to turn them on.
A. crashed B. still C. been D. them

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Why Does Too Much Caffeine Keep You Awake at Night?
Caffeine is one of the most popular stimulants in the world and is most commonly consumed in
coffee. People (32) ___________ to caffeine to wake up in the morning and to stay energized
throughout the day, but there’s a downside: Too much caffeine can keep you (33) __________ awake
even when you’re ready to sleep.
The key to this unwanted effect is a compound called adenosine, (34) ___________ is produced
in our brain. Receptors in our nervous systems constantly monitor adenosine levels, and, when they
drop below a certain point in the brain and spinal column, the body readies itself for sleep. Caffeine
basically copies adenosine’s effects. (35) ___________, the body is tricked into thinking that the time to
sleep is still far away.
To prevent caffeine-related sleep issues, it is recommended that caffeine consumption be limited
to four cups of coffee per day and that the last cup be consumed no later than mid-afternoon. Also,
switching to caffeine-free coffee or tea is (36) __________ measure that can be helpful.
(Adapted from britannica.com)
Question 32: A. go B. turn C. head D. call
Question 33: A. full B. large C. wide D. bright
Question 34: A. that B. where C. which D. who
Question 35: A. Additionally B. For instance C. Nonetheless D. Therefore
Question 36: A. the other B. every C. any D. another

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 37 to 41.
Environmentalists are getting more worried about the effects of fast fashion on the environment.
Fast fashion is the mass production of clothes at a low cost. They are put in shops and online quickly to
create a high demand. Manufacturers make 100 billion items of clothing every year. This is expected to
grow by 60 per cent by 2030. The fast fashion business model is having a negative effect on the
environment. Many of the clothes end up in landfalls and are not recycled. Another negative effect on
the environment is caused by the chemicals used to make the clothes. These cause health problems for
people working in clothes factories.

82
The way people are buying clothes is adding to the problem of clothing waste. Many years ago,
people went to stores and tried clothes on. People took more time and thought more carefully before
they bought clothes. They also wore them for longer. Today, people order cheap clothes on the Internet
and if they don’t like them, they send them back. Some people say this is causing a throwaway society.
Some people buy clothes and never even wear them. The German media company Deutsche Welle
wrote: "Every year in Europe, four million tons of clothing ends up in the trash. Less than one per cent
of this is recycled." It seems the fashion industry is not so sustainable.
(Adapted from https://breakingnewsenglish.com/)
Question 37. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The appearance of fast fashion B. The way people buy clothes
C. The growth of the fashion industry D. Negative impacts of fast fashion
Question 38. The word ‘demand’ in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. level B. need C. possibility D. effect
Question 39. According to paragraph 1, what is fast fashion?
A. It’s about online shopping.
B. It’s about the production of clothes in large quantities at low prices.
C. It’s about recycling old clothes in landfills.
D. It’s about buying old clothes from developing countries.
Question 40. The word ‘them’ in paragraph 2 refers to ________.
A. stores B. people C. clothes D. tons
Question 41. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Workers in clothes factories may be negatively affected by chemicals to make clothes.
B. Recycling clothes thrown away doesn’t isn’t paid much attention in European countries.
C. In the past, clothes were more expensive and carefully designed.
D. Clothes at low prices can be found on the Internet.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 42 to 48.
For cycling enthusiast Jia Feng, riding to work in Beijing is an advantage as it allows him to get
in his daily exercise and frees him from the capital’s notorious traffic jams. But cycling is not always a
joyful experience. The occasional takeover by cars-the number of which rose by almost 5 million over
the past two decades to 6.57 million by the end of last year-of cycling lanes left him with conflicted
feelings about life in the saddle. Of late though, the Beijing resident has found that commuting is
becoming increasingly enjoyable as local authorities endeavor to encourage environmentally friendly
travel in the midst of a national campaign to promote green transition.
Green development has become a key concern of China’s central authorities. To achieve a
fundamental improvement in environmental quality by 2035, China will strive to push green
production and lifestyles. Recently, residents near the capital’s Second Ring Road were surprised to
discover that cycling lanes appeared to have been widened. Though traces of the original white lines
separating the lanes for cars and bicycles-as well as the ones dividing lanes for traffic-remained
visible in places, new lines had been drawn to make the lanes for cars narrower and the one for bicycles
wider. Beijing authorities also plan to build bike routes along 12 waterways, which will help connect
cycling networks between the Second and Fourth Ring roads and create a green transportation network.
The creation of this green, non-motorized network is high on the municipal government’s agenda.
Jia said he looks forward to seeing an increasingly green Beijing as local authorities make
sustained efforts to promote environmentally friendly travel. "As more people turn to bikes, fewer will
drive and traffic will move even faster, so both drivers and riders will be more comfortable. This will
make the city greener and reduce its carbon footprint," he said.
(Adapted from https://global.chinadaily.com.cn)
Question 42. Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Why Beijing Falls Behind with its ‘Green’ Policy?

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B. From the Viewpoint of a Local: the Dark Side of Going Green
C. Bikes Bite back: Streets Going Cycle-friendly
D. Bikes versus Cars: Which is Better?
Question 43. The word ‘conflicted’ in paragraph 1 mostly means __________
A. secure B. protected C. passive D. confused
Question 44. According to the passage, what has Jia Feng felt after local authorities try to encourage
environmentally friendly travel?
A. He hasn’t found it quite simple to travel to his workplace.
B. He has found that travelling experience is giving more pleasure.
C. He doesn’t need to lock his bikes anymore.
D. He has remained confused about the city’s green campaign.
Question 45. The word ‘fundamental’ in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _________
A. modern B. interesting C. important D. excited
Question 46. The word ‘which’ in paragraph 3 refers to ________
A. the plan to build bike routes along 12 waterway
B. the cycling network between two roads
C. the creation of a green transportation network
D. the municipal government’s agenda
Question 47. Which of the following is true, according to the passage?
A. Jia Feng is a big fan of cycling since it helps him to escape from the city’s traffic congestion.
B. There was a small increase in the number of people travelling by cars in China.
C. China will only need to pay attention to green lifestyles to have better living conditions.
D. The expansion of some cycling lanes in Beijing is predictable.
Question 48. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Beijing’s government seems uninterested in pushing green lifestyles among its citizens.
B. In some streets in Beijing, lanes for cars have been widened.
C. The effort to push environmentally friendly travel can have a positive impact on the
environment.
D. Jia Feng strongly believes that only by using bikes will Beijing’s carbon footprint be reduced.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: No sooner had Phat put the mobile phone down than his teacher rang back.
A. As soon as his teacher rang back, Phat put down the mobile phone.
B. Scarcely had Phat put the mobile phone down when his teacher rang back.
C. Hardly Phat had hung up, he rang his teacher immediately.
D. Phat had hardly put the telephone down without his teacher rang back.
Question 50: He couldn’t retake the exam because he missed too many lessons.
A. He would retake the exam if he didn’t miss too many lessons.
B. He could have retaken the exam if he hadn’t missed too many lessons.
C. If he missed too many lessons, he wouldn’t retake the exam.
D. If he had missed too many lessons, he wouldn’t have retaken the exam.

MOCK TEST 19
Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. breakfast B. feature C. peasant D. pleasure
Question 2: A. author B. other C. themselves D. than

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
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Question 3: A. confide B. divide C. language D. maintain
Question 4: A. compulsory B. certificate C. category D. accompany

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: The Baby Garden is a cooperative village-type religious group _______ by Kim Ki Soon in
1982.
A. reduce B. founded C. reduced D. to reducing
Question 6: Her work is not _____ they think, with hundreds of small tasks to be completed every day.
A. as easy as B. as easy so C. the same easy like D. more easier than
Question 7: Before Phuong assisted her father in their family business, she _______ her academic
studies in Switzerland, the U.S., and Singapore.
A. was pursued B. has pursued C. pursued D. had pursued
Question 8: After more than three decades of sitting at sewing machines, the 54-year-old now suffers
______ pain in the back, neck and joints.
A. for B. from C. with D. under
Question 9: There is little research on how or why the brain forgets things, ______?
A. is there B. isn’t there C. is it D. isn’t it
Question 10: Thanks to youth volunteers, Bach Long Vy island has been turned from a/an _______
piece of land in the sea into a residential island after 30 years.
A. populated B. uninhabited C. private D. impoverished
Question 11: Founded in 1994, Tan Hiep Phat is ____ largest privately-owned beverages provider in
Vietnam.
A. no article B. an C. a D. the
Question 12: Many high-end resort projects near Da Nang were _______ by various legal problems.
A. held up B. held on C. held down D. held in
Question 13: Meta committed to __________ unlock Vietnam’s growth.
A. being helped B. help C. helping D. be helped
Question 14: More and more women are choosing to go under the ______ to improve their appearance.
A. scissors B. surgery C. operation D. knife
Question 15: An increasing number of farmers in the Central Highlands’ Gia Lai Province ________
from coffee to passion fruit.
A. have switched B. has switched C. have been switched D. has been switched
Question 16: Mondelez Kinh Do _____ great progress in building a sustainable snacking company.
A. gets B. builds C. creates D. makes
Question 17: Multiple Facebook fanpages were found to ________ on Wednesday.
A. have been restricted B. located C. is locating D. are located
Question 18: Phuong and her 70-year-old father were arrested Monday on charges of ______
appropriating property.
A. illegal B. legally C. illegally D. legal
Question 19: It is true that the common flu still kills more people in the US than COVID-19 does. That
said, the fact that the death toll has reached 100,000 is no laughing __________.
A. subject B. issue C. matter D. business

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 20: Jane had difficulty carrying her suitcase upstairs, and Mike, her friend, offered to help.
- Mike: “Need a hand with your suitcase, Jane?” – Jane: “______”
A. Not a chance. B. That’s very kind of you.
C. Well done! D. I don’t believe it.
Question 21: Julia and Phoebe is talking about Peter.
- Julia: “Peter was born and brought up in Hastings and he must know it very well.”
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- Phoebe: “______. He even couldn’t tell me where to have some street food there.”
A. I can’t agree with you more. B. You must be right.
C. I’m of the opposite opinion D. I don’t think that’s a good idea

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word ( s ) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The students in class 1C always picks on a little black girl studying in class 1D. Every
day, they would mock her and steal all of her pocket-money.
A. support somebody with money B. treat somebody nicely
C. treat somebody badly D. allow somebody to join a group
Question 23: He said he met Rowan Atkinson when he was in London but I knew he was just pulling
my leg.
A. making a joke B. telling the truth
C. urting my leg D. making me jealous

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 24: The news that Alex passed the final exam with flying colors did not surprise me at all, for
he has always been a very able student.
A. effective B. clever C. healthy D. dynamic
Question 25: I would gladly give you the chance to join my team if you can prove your worth.
A. straightforwardly B. eagerly C. readily D. energetically

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions .
Question 26: “I’ll take the children to the park,” said the husband to his wife.
A. The husband promised to take the children to the park.
B. The husband offered to take the children to the park.
C. The husband insisted on taking the children to the park.
D. The husband requested to take the children to the park.
Question 27: This is the first time we have been to the circus.
A. We have been to the circus some times before.
B. We had been to the circus once before.
C. We have ever been to the circus often before.
D. We have never been to the circus before.
Question 28: Is it necessary to meet the manager at the airport?
A. Did the manager have to be met at the airport?
B. Does the manager have to be met at the airport?
C. Is the manager had to be met at the airport?
D. Does the manager have to meet at the airport?

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: Nam was so rude to them last night. Now he feels regretful.
A. Nam regrets to have been so rude to them last night.
B. Nam regrets having so rude to them last night.
C. Nam wishes he hadn’t been so rude to them last night.
D. Nam wishes he weren’t so rude to them last night.
Question 30: He started computer programming as soon as he left school.
A. No sooner had he started computer programming than he left school.
B. Hardly had he started computer programming when he left school.
C. No sooner had he left school than he started computer programming.
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D. After he left school, he had started computer programming.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Two giant pandas in Canada, Er Shun and Da Mao, will be heading back to China because their
main food source, fresh bamboo, was getting too difficult to find during the pandemic, (31) __________
at Calgary Zoo in Canada said. The bamboo for Er Shun and Da Mao was usually transported directly
from China, (32) __________ shipments were significantly reduced as a result of the global COVID-19
pandemic.
Bamboo composes 99 percent of the pandas’ diet, and (33) __________ eats about 88 pounds of
it in a day, according to the zoo. “We believe the best and safest place for Er Shun and Da Mao to be
during these challenging and unprecedented times is where bamboo is (34) __________ and easy to
access,” Calgary Zoo President and CEO Clément Lanthier said in a statement. “This was an incredibly
difficult decision to make but the health and well-being of the animals for (35) __________ we love and
care always comes first,” Lanthier stated.
(Adapted from readtoolead.com)
Question 31: A. offices B. officers C. officials D. officiants
Question 32: A. so B. or C. for D. but
Question 33: A. much B. each C. every D. little
Question 34: A. fruitful B. productive C. resourceful D. abundant
Question 35: A. what B. who C. which D. that

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
When our body temperature rises to a level that is higher than normal, it is called a fever. While
most people would call a fever an illness, it actually plays quite an important role in keeping you
healthy.
Fevers are part of the immune system’s natural response to harmful germs. Researchers believe
turning up the heat is the body’s way of killing viruses and bacteria or making your body a less
comfortable place for them. Furthermore, a fever acts as a signal to you, your family members, and your
doctor that you are sick and are in need of medical attention. Without a fever, it would be much harder
to discern an infection before the body has already been damaged.
For people who are generally healthy, fevers are not a major problem. When the cause of the
fever is treated or goes away on its own, your body temperature comes back down to normal and you
will feel fine again. Most doctors agree that people with a fever don’t need to take any special
medicines unless their fevers and other accompanying symptoms are making them too uncomfortable.
When it comes to higher fevers, doctors most often recommend medicines like paracetamol or
ibuprofen, both of which block the chemicals that tell the body to increase its temperature. In most
cases, all you have to do to break a fever is to get some rest and make sure you drink plenty of fluids to
prevent dehydration from the high body temperature. Keep in mind, however, that if your fever does not
go away after self-treatment or if you start to have other unusual symptoms, it is advised that you
consult your doctor.
(Adapted from kidshealth.org)
Question 36: Which best serves as the title for this passage?
A. Common Misconceptions About Fevers
B. When Are Fevers Dangerous?
C. The Right Way To Treat Fevers
D. Fevers: What You Need To Know
Question 37: According to paragraph 2, how do fevers help protect your health?
A. They naturally make the immune system stronger.
B. They urge the immune system to respond to germs.
C. They kill all the viruses and bacteria around your body.
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D. They help other people realise that you do not feel well.
Question 38: The word “discern” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. detect B. invent C. reveal D. witness
Question 39: The word “them” in paragraph 3 refers to ___________.
A. doctors B. people C. medicines D. symptoms
Question 40: Which of the following is NOT supported by information in the passage?
A. Healthy people should not be too worried about having fevers.
B. In general, fevers will go away naturally or with medical treatment.
C. Paracetamol is often recommended as the most effective fever medicine.
D. In some cases, you should visit the doctor instead of treating a fever yourself.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Society prizes self-sufficiency. We were taught from a young age that it’s not a good thing to
rely on others too much and that being independent is admirable. However, the truth is that self-reliance
is a double-edged sword. While it has many virtues, it can also take true away intimacy and the type of
partnerships we desire.
Being self-reliant can serve us well as we strive to achieve goals and overcome life challenges.
For instance, I was raised in a divorced family and learned to be independent from a young age, which
helped me to succeed at work and school. But many people start to have difficulty developing intimate
relationships because it’s not always easy to strike a balance between independence and reliance upon
others for emotional support.
Rachel, age 28, describes it like this: “I still feel like I have to take care of me. I feel like I never
want to depend on anyone.” Raised by a single mom, she learned early on the risks of being too
dependent on a partner because her mother suffered financially after her father left. Consequently, she
doesn’t want to come across as “needy” or “demanding” with her boyfriend Nathan. At times, Rachel
tends to keep to herself or look to her friends for emotional support rather than Nathan – leaving him
feeling excluded and lonely.
This is the danger of self-reliance. On the surface, it’s wonderful to be independent and resilient.
But when you believe you must do everything for yourself, you create a gap between you and people
around you. It’s hard to let others into your life and let them help you, but if you want to develop
intimacy, you must. In small doses, self-reliance is positive. But when taken to extreme levels, it can
result in a lack of true love, commitment and trust.
If you have an issue with being overly self-reliant, you must remember that allowing yourself to
depend on others can actually help you. Even though it’s hard, you need to embrace the idea that it’s
okay to show weakness. Letting go of control, fear and other intense emotions helps to make
relationships more solid. As you grow secure in the idea that others love you and will not leave you, you
learn that independence and love can co-exist. When you depend on others, you are at your strongest.
(Adapted from huffpost.com)
Question 41: Which best serves as the title for this passage?
A. The Importance Of Showing Your Weakness
B. When Should We Remember To Rely On Others?
C. How Self-Reliance Can Destroy Your Relationships
D. It Is Time To Stop Teaching Self-Reliance, Here’s Why
Question 42: The word “prizes” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. empowers B. confirms C. values D. authorises
Question 43: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. difficulty B. balance C. reliance D. support
Question 44: In paragraph 3, what do we learn about Rachel?
A. She never had anyone to take care of her.
B. She used to depend too much on her mother.
C. She could not trust anyone after her father left.
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D. She thinks relying on her boyfriend is a bad thing.
Question 45: Which of the following is NOT TRUE, according to the passage?
A. The writer achieved workplace success thanks to her self-sufficiency.
B. Nathan feels unhappy because Rachel constantly avoids talking to him.
C. Developing intimate relationships requires you to be reliant on people.
D. Too much self-reliance can make it much harder for you to trust others.
Question 46: The word “excluded” in paragraph 5 can be best replaced by ___________.
A. denied B. eliminated C. disqualified D. rejected
Question 47: Which of the following can most likely be inferred from the passage?
A. Many people consider dependence on others to be a sign of weakness
B. Contrary to popular belief, self-reliance is harmful to us in most cases.
C. The more self-reliant you are, the more intense your emotions become.
D. When you refuse to rely on others, they will slowly start to dislike you.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 48: Alice and Nancy were going to the store to buy some stationary when I bumped into them
yesterday morning.
A. were going B. stationary C. bumped D. them
Question 49: Before he was chosen for the interview, Harry has worked extremely hard to build an
impressive CV for himself.
A. was chosen B. has worked C. impressive D. himself
Question 50: She was praised by critics who said that they particularly liked their beautiful voice.
A. was praised B. critics C. particularly D. their

MOCK TEST 20
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
What Is Déjà Vu?
Essentially, “déjà vu” is a term used to describe the strange feeling that you have already seen or
gone through something, even when you know you never have. (1) __________, if you are exploring a
new city for the first time and suddenly feel that you have walked down a street before in your life, you
are (2) ___________ the feeling of déjà vu.
While déjà vu is fairly common, especially among young adults, experts haven’t been able to (3)
__________ a single cause. This is mainly because it is very difficult for scientists to thoroughly study
this phenomenon, (4) ___________ happens without any warning. (5) __________ challenge is that it
tends to end as quickly as it begins. The sensation may be so fleeting that if you don’t know much about
déjà vu, you may not even realize what just happened.
(Adapted from healthline.com)
Question 1: A. Consequently B. Likewise C. For instance D. However
Question 2: A. withstanding B. experiencing C. encountering D. tolerating
Question 3: A. qualify B. acknowledge C. identify D. detect
Question 4: A. which B. who C. that D. what
Question 5: A. Others B. Another C. Other D. The other

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three
in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 6. A. honest B. holiday C. home D. happiness
Question 7. A. instrument B. flight C. similar D. which

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 8. A. pollute B. appear C. answer D. become
Question 9. A. fantastic B. perfection C. computer D. fascinate

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 10. One masterpiece of literature _______ for the first time in 1975 has been nominated the
best short story ever.
A. was published B. published C. which published D. has published
Question 11. Learning a new language is _______ than learning a new skill on the computer.
A. the most difficult B. most difficult C. more difficult D. the least difficult
Question 12. That rising star won’t appear in the commercial _______.
A. once the contract will be signed B. when the contract had been signed
C. until the contract has been signed D. after the contract was signed
Question 13. Doctors advise people who are deficient _______ Vitamin C to eat more fruit and
vegetables.
A. in B. of C. from D. for
Question 14. Bob told you something about my story, _______?
A. didn’t he B. doesn’t he C. did he D. hadn’t he
Question 15. Half of the children were away from school last week because of an outbreak of _______
influenza.
A. a B. Ø C. an D. the
Question 16. In overcrowded refugee camps and prisons, social distancing is widely considered a
luxury that the people here cannot __________.
A. carry B. manage C. cover D. afford
Question 17. They _______ an old cottage in the Scottish Highlands because it was in bad condition.
A. did up B. filled up C. set up D. turn up
Question 18. The researchers advise people _______ car windows when in traffic because the car
fumes.
A. to close B. close C. closing D. to closing
Question 19. The student had to keep his _______ to the grindstone all year and passed the entrance
exam into the university he wanted.
A. nose B. mind C. heart D. face
Question 20. When he came, his girlfriend _______ in the living room.
A. has studied B. is studying C. studied D. was studying
Question 21. For Haley, the gravity of the COVID-19 pandemic only __________ home when one of
her relatives died after being infected.
A. slammed B. knocked C. pounded D. hit
Question 22. The new shopping mall _______ next month and a grand opening ceremony is being
planned.
A. will be opened B. opens C. opened D. will open
Question 23. Darwin’s theory of _______ explains that the strongest species can survive because they
have the ability to adapt to the new environment better than others.
A. evolution B. evolute C. evolutional D. evolutionally
Question 24. She lost the __________ of the conversation because she was thinking about something
else.
A. wire B. string C. chain D. thread

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 25. Peter and Dane are talking about environmental protection.
- Peter: “We should limit the use of plastic bags.” - Dane: “_______. We can use paper bags instead.”
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A. It’s not true B. I completely agree
C. I don’t quite agree D. You’re wrong
Question 26. A student is talking to his teacher about his IELTS result.
- Student: “Teacher, I’ve got 8.5 on the IELTS test.” - Teacher: “_______. Congratulations!”
A. Oh, hard luck B. Good job C. Big deal D. Good way

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 27. Do you really think humans will be exterminated when more and more intelligent
machines are invented in the future?
A. wiped out B. stored C. resurrected D. killed
Question 28. Instead of getting all riled up about the boy’s uncooperative behaviours, the teacher
should try to figure out how to get him involved in the class activities.
A. getting highly excited B. becoming really annoyed
C. being extremely satisfied D. appearing quite unconcerned

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions.
Question 29. Understanding why women have to apply for social assistance at the different life stages
requires knowledge about their support situation during their entire life course.
A. help B. benefit C. need D. acceptance
Question 30. The minister’s confession implicated numerous officials in the bribery scandal.
A. encouraged B. instructed C. indicated D. developed

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions.
Question 31. Drivers are required to wear their seat belts while driving.
A. Drivers may wear their seat belts while driving.
B. Drivers needn’t wear their seat belts while driving.
C. Drivers shouldn’t wear their seat belts while driving
D. Drivers must wear their seat belts while driving.
Question 32. Lucas and Oliver last got together more than a year ago.
A. The first time that Lucas and Oliver got together was more than a year ago.
B. Lucas and Oliver didn’t get together last year.
C. Lucas didn’t get together with Oliver for more than a year.
D. Lucas and Oliver haven’t got together for more than a year.
Question 33. “What have you done to your hair?” she said to her son.
A. She wanted to know what did her son do to his hair.
B. She wanted her son to know what he had done to his hair.
C. She asked her son what to do to his hair.
D. She asked her son what he had done to his hair.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Whether to achieve high scores in a quiz or pass an exam, remembering large amounts of
information has become an integral part of a student’s life. And of course, this process always requires a
huge amount of time and effort. Luckily, you can make it a bit easier to absorb all that knowledge with
the spacing effect.
When you learn new things, your brain stores mew pieces of information in neurons and then
creates connections between them and existing ones that contain information you already know.
However, it is impossible for your brain to grow strong neural connections in just one day. That’s why

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if you force yourself to study the same information many times in one or two days, also known as
cramming, you’ll have a hard time remembering it although you studied for hours.
Researchers have learned that it’s much more efficient to introduce your brain to new
information and then wait at least a day before reviewing that same information. This gives your brain
time to strengthen the connections it has already built, which means it will be ready and physically able
to make those connections even more durable at the second time.
For example, if you have an exam coming up in a week, it’s much better to review your notes
only once a day for those seven days than 30 times in one or two days. Even though you’ll have studied
several times less, you’ll do better, because you made use of the way your brain naturally stores
information.
(Adapted from medicaldaily.com)
Question 34: What is the passage mainly about?
A. How the brain stores new information
B. The best memorisation techniques
C. Why memorising things is important for students
D. A helpful strategy for remembering information
Question 35: The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to ___________.
A. things B. pieces C. neurons D. connections
Question 36: In paragraph 2, what do we learn about cramming?
A. When you cram, it can take you several hours to understand what you are learning.
B. Cramming directly harms your brain’s ability to learn and remember information.
C. Scientists have shown that it is the least efficient way of absorbing new knowledge.
D. It is ineffective as the brain needs a lot of time to form strong neural connections.
Question 37: The word “durable” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. continual B. long-lasting C. influential D. trustworthy
Question 38: Which of the following is NOT TRUE, according to the passage?
A. The spacing effect helps students remember information in a way that takes very little effort.
B. Your brain stores information by keeping them in neurons and link them to one another.
C. Scientists believe it is better to wait for one day or more before reviewing learnt information.
D. When you study less often, it does not always mean that you are studying ineffectively.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Do you have anxiety? Have you tried everything to get over it, but it just keeps coming back?
Luckily, whatever your circumstances, you can take action right now to defeat the many different
symptoms of anxiety and stop it from affecting your life.
Do you feel anxious when making decisions or find it hard to get things started? One way to
overcome indecision is to “do things badly”. This strategy sounds strange, but the reason it works is that
it expedites your decision-making process and brings you straight into action. People often wait for the
perfect moment to start a project, but this mentality can lead to procrastination or even prevent us from
doing it at all. And that causes stress and anxiety. Instead, just start by “doing it badly” without
worrying about the results. This will not only make it much easier to begin, but you’ll also find that
you’re completing tasks much more quickly than before.
Imagine that you have a friend who always tries to tell you everything that is wrong with you
and your life. You would probably want to get rid of them right away. However, people with anxiety
often do this to themselves so frequently that they don’t even realise it. So perhaps it’s time to change
and start being more empathetic towards ourselves for the mistakes we make. If you feel like you’ve
embarrassed yourself in a situation, don’t criticise yourself – simply realise that you have this tendency
to blame yourself, then drop the negative thought and redirect your attention back to whatever you were
doing and you will feel better right away.
Regardless of how much we work or the amount of money we make, we can’t be truly happy
until we know that someone else needs us. This doesn’t mean that we need people’s praise, but doing
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something with someone else in mind takes the spotlight off of us and our anxieties and places it onto
others and how we can help them. So how can you make yourself important in someone else’s life? It
could be as simple as taking care of a child or elderly parent, volunteering, or finishing work that might
benefit future generations. Even if these people never realise what you’ve done for them, it doesn’t
matter because you will know, and this will make you realise the uniqueness and importance of your
life.
(Adapted from theconversation.com)
Question 39: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Defeating Anxiety With A Self-Supportive Mindset
B. Practical Advice For An Anxiety-Free Life
C. The Anxiety-Reducing Power Of Caring For Others
D. Want No Anxiety? Do Things With No Fear
Question 40: The word “expedites” in paragraph 2 can be best replaced by ___________.
A. intensifies B. reinforces C. accelerates D. motivates
Question 41: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to __________.
A. moment B. project C. mentality D. procrastination
Question 42: According to paragraph 3, people with anxiety ___________.
A. often have many friends that do not support them emotionally
B. will get rid of a friend if he or she points our their mistakes
C. constantly criticise themselves whenever they make mistakes
D. are completely unaware of why their lives are going wrong
Question 43: The word “empathetic” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. carefree B. enduring C. cooperative D. understanding
Question 44: Which of the following is NOT TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Indecisiveness is not-only time-consuming but can also make us feel stressed.
B. “Doing things badly” gives you the ability to make better and bigger decisions.
C. It is important for you to be aware of self-criticism and dismiss it to feel better.
D. Even simple acts can help you to become someone other people can depend on.
Question 45: Which of the following can most likely be inferred from the passage?
A. Many people struggle with anxiety because they feel too nervous to find any solution.
B. The less worried you are about the result of something, the better you will perform it.
C. Negative thinking will severely hinder your ability to complete tasks in the long run.
D. When we know that we are important to others, we find life to be more meaningful.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 46. Many students at the institution worshipped her father because he was a distinguishable
professor and achieved many prestigious awards.
A. prestigious B. achieved C. distinguishable D. worshipped
Question 47. My close friends spend most of their free time helping the homeless people in the
community last year.
A. spend B. of C. close D. helping
Question 48. Bottlenose dolphins are usually slow swimmers, but it can reach speeds of over 30 mph
for
short periods.
A. usually B. of C. it D. periods

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 49. My brother is not old enough. He can’t take the driving test.
A. If my brother were old enough, he could take the driving test.
B. Provided that my brother is old enough, he can’t take the driving test.
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C. If only my brother were young enough to take the driving test.
D. If my brother had been old enough, he could have taken the driving test.
Question 50. Emily had just finished saving all the documents. The computer crashed then.
A. Hardly had Emily finished saving all the documents when the computer crashed.
B. The moment Emily started to save all the documents, the computer crashed.
C. Had it not been for the computer crash, Emily could have saved all the documents.
D. No sooner had the computer crashed than Emily finished saving all the documents.

MOCK TEST 21
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. grammar B. damage C. mammal D. drama
Question 2. A. switch B. stomach C. match D. catch

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. nervous B. active C. patient D. aware
Question 4. A. candidate B. holiday C. experience D. tourism

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
In today’s connected world, there is a growing demand for air travel, so work needs to be done
quickly to counteract the potential damage this demand could have on the environment, and electric
aircraft are proving to be a sustainable solution. All over the globe, electric engines have been designed
in an attempt to create an emission-free air industry.
Electricity can be used to power electric aircraft in a variety of ways, including batteries, ground
power cables, solar cells and power beaming. Power beaming involves the wireless delivery of energy
to the aircraft from a remote power plant: the most common methods of this are through microwaves or
through lasers.
Electric air travel was previously regarded as a dream for the future, until encouraging progress
began to be made. In 2016, Solar Impulse 2 brought this dream further into reality. The electricity-

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powered aircraft was the first of its kind to complete a trip around the world, in a journey that it took a
full 16 months to complete. During this time, no fuel was burned; it was a zero-emission trip.
(Adapted from howitoworksdaily.com)
Question 5: What is the best title for this passage?
A. Electric Aircraft B. Emission-Free Air Industry
C. Power Beaming D. Remote Power Plants
Question 6: The word “counteract” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. defeat B. assault C. dismiss D. reduce
Question 7: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a way to power electric planes?
A. batteries B. undersea cables C. solar cells D. power beaming
Question 8: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. dream B. aircraft C. trip D. world
Question 9: Which of the following is TRUE about Solar Impulse 2, according to paragraph 3?
A. It is powered both by electricity and other fuel sources.
B. It took a full 16 months for people develop it completely.
C. It is the first electric aircraft to travel around the world.
D. It will be produced in greater numbers in the near future.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 10. Tommy is on the way to his friend’s birthday party, carrying a gift box _____ colourful
paper.
A. were wrapped B. having wrapped C. wrapped D. wrapping
Question 11. Monkeys are_______learners than elephants.
A. faster B. very fast C. more faster D. more fast
Question 12. Richard will look for a job __________.
A. after he had passed his exams B. before he passed his exams
C. while he was passing his exams D. as soon as he passes his exams
Question 13. His choice of future career is quite similar______mine.
A. at B. with C. for D. to
Question 14. Your sister seldom cooks meals,___________?
A. did she B. didn’t she C. does she D. doesn’t she
Question 15. My brother has been playing piano since he was a small child.
A. the B. a C. no article D. an
Question 16. At the young age of 14, she __________ the nation’s Olympic squad thanks to her
extraordinary talent.
A. caught B. got C. reached D. made
Question 17. He’s a widower who _______ three children.
A. takes after B. makes off C. cuts down D. brings up
Question 18. Tom hopes __________ a solution soon.
A. to find B. finding C. find D. found
Question 19. He’s been acting very odd lately, but I can’t really put my __________ on it.
A. head B. finger C. hand D. brain
Question 20. When I returned from work, my dad _______ with his childhood friends.
A. have played B. was playing C. will be playing D. is playing
Question 21. He _______ sorry and we became friends again.
A. paid B. called C. talked D. said
Question 22: The river ________ with toxic waste from local factories for a long time.
A. pollutes B. has been polluted C. are being polluted D. is polluting
Question 23. You should ask for Henry’s advice; he is very _______ about gardening.
A. know B. knowledge C. knowledgeable D. knowledgeably
Question 24: If you can’t find a chapter, please refer to the __________ of contents.
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A. list B. board C. table D. index

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 25: Mary is talking to Linda over the phone.
- Mary: “Thank you for helping me prepare for the party.” - Linda: “ ________ “
A. My pleasure B. The meal was out of this world
C. I’m afraid not D. Of course not
Question 26: Tom and Susan are talking about their plan to help disadvantaged children.
Tom: “Why don’t we send them some textbooks and warm clothes?”- Susan: “ ________ “
A. No, they are not available. B. You should agree with us.
C. Great idea! What meaningful gifts! D. I’m sorry to hear that.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined bold word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 27. Hieu is writing an email to apply for the position of Sales Director.
A. situation B. job C. fund D. partner
Question 28. Taking a year out to travel can broaden your experience and teach you new skills.
A. limit B. produce C. interest D. increase

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 29. It’s very difficult to talk to our new classmate; she’s such a cold fish.
A. a pleasant person B. a person who is allergic to fish
C. a person who enjoy eating fish D. an unfriendly person
Question 30. The company should allow flexible working hours so that its employees can avoid traffic
congestion.
A. careful B. dangerous C. fixed D. changeable

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 31. It’s not a good idea for us to swim in this lake.
A. We can swim in this lake. B. We must swim in this lake.
C. We shouldn’t swim in this lake. D. We wouldn’t swim in this lake.
Question 32. He began to drive a motorbike last year.
A. He hasn’t driven a motorbike since last year. B. He used to drive a motorbike last year.
C. He got used to driving a motorbike last year. D. He has driven a motorbike since last
year.
Question 33: “Did you pay for the tickets, Laura?”, Peter asked.
A. Peter asked Laura if she paid for the tickets.
B. Peter asked Laura if she had paid for the tickets
C. Peter asked Laura if she was paid for the tickets.
D. Peter asked Laura if she would pay for the tickets.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
The world is treating the health and economic symptoms of the coronavirus pandemic but not
the environmental cause, according to the authors of a UN report. As a result, the number of diseases
that jump from animals to humans – commonly known as zoonotic diseases – will be on the rise in
coming years, they say.
Even before COVID-19, 2 million people died from zoonotic diseases every year, from Ebola to
SARS to West Nile virus and Rift Valley fever, with the root cause being the destruction of nature by
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humans and growing demands for meat, the report says. “COVID-19 may be the worst, but it is not the
first,” said the UN environment chief, Inger Andersen. According to the report, a “one health” approach
that unites the health of humans, animals and environments is vital, including much more surveillance
and research on disease threats and the food systems that carry them to people.
“There has been so much response to COVID-19 but much of it has treated it as a medical
challenge or an economic shock,” said Professor Delia Grace, the lead author of the report by the United
Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and the International Livestock Research Institute (ILRI).
“But its origins are in the environment, food systems and animal health. This is a lot like having
somebody sick and treating only the symptoms and not treating the underlying causes, and there are
many other zoonotic diseases with pandemic potential.”
Wildlife and livestock are the source of most viruses infecting humans and the report cited a
series of drivers of outbreaks, including rising demand for animal protein, more intensive and
unsustainable farming, greater exploitation of wildlife, surging global travel and also the climate crisis.
Additionally, there is the fact that many farmers, regions and nations are unwilling to declare outbreaks
for fear of damaging trade.
“The primary risks for future spillover of zoonotic diseases are deforestation of tropical
environments and large-scale industrial farming of animals, specifically pigs and chickens at high
density,” says the disease ecologist Thomas Gillespie of Emory University in the US, an expert
reviewer of the report. ”We are at a crisis point. If we don’t radically change our attitudes toward the
natural world, things are going to get much, much worse. What we are experiencing now will seem
mild by comparison.”
(Adapted from theguardian.com)
Question 34: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. The COVID-19 Pandemic: A Medical Challenge And An Economic Shock
B. The Environmental Causes of COVID-19 Must Be Addressed, Says Report
C. How The World Can Handle The Root Causes Of COVID-19 Effectively
D. Wildlife Destruction And Its Role In Spreading The COVID-19 Pandemic
Question 35: The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to ___________.
A. humans B. environments C. threats D. systems
Question 36: According to paragraph 2, a “one health” approach involves ________.
A. conducting more research on animal and environmental health.
B. fully focusing on environmental health instead of human health.
C. disrupting all food systems that can spread diseases to humans.
D. significantly increasing supervision and study of disease threats.
Question 37: What does Delia Grace most likely think about the world’s COVID-19
response?
A. Most countries are only considering it as an economic shock.
B. Many health experts have failed to find COVID-19’s exact origins.
C. Countries have not addressed the underlying causes of COVID-19.
D. Doctors should try to prevent other zoonotic diseases instead.
Question 38: The word “reluctant” in paragraph 4 can be best replaced by ___________.
A. half-hearted B. reluctant C. emotionless D. inconsiderate
Question 39: The word “mild” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. delightful B. comfortable C. moderate D. easy-going
Question 40: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. More and more people will die from zoonotic diseases in the coming years.
B. Unless we take a “one health” approach, there will be more zoonotic diseases.
C. Wildlife exploitation is currently considered the biggest driver of outbreaks.
D. Zoonotic diseases can only be prevented if we completely ban animal farming.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
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Question 41. Some animals are in danger of extinction as humans are hunting it for meat.
A. in B. extinction C. are D. it
Question 42. There is a heavy storm hitting our village last Sunday evening.
A. is B. heavy C. hiting D. evening
Question 43. It is not advisory to make travel arrangements during this time when the Covid-19
pandemic is still spreading at an unprecedented rate.
A. advisory B. arrangements C. spreading D. unprecedented

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Many people hold the belief that blind people’s sense of hearing is, by nature, significantly (44)
__________ to compensate for their loss of sight. (45) __________, this is generally not the case at all.
A considerably large body of research and numerous surveys have found that the sense of hearing or
touch that the blind (46) __________ is no better than that of a normal person.
So why do blind people seem to perceive things better with their (47) __________ senses than
the sighted? Simply because they have no other choice. For example, when a sighted person hears a car,
their natural inclination is not to try to tell how far away it is from what they hear, but simply to turn
and look so they can determine that distance. On the other hand, blind people, (48) __________
obviously cannot rely on sight, have to gather this much needed information by listening carefully to the
sound of the car in question.
(Adapted from todayifoundout..com)
Question 44: A. promoted B. endorsed C. enhanced D. assisted
Question 45: A. Additionally B. Therefore C. Moreover D. However
Question 46: A. possess B. contain C. comprise D. embrace
Question 47: A. every B. other C. another D. any
Question 48: A. whom B. who C. that D. which

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 49: It is the earth’s gravity that gives us our weight.
A. If there were not the earth’s gravity, we would be weightless
B. Due to the earth’s gravity we cannot weigh anything.
C. We are overweight because of the earth’s ‘gravity.
D. The earth’s gravity is given weight by people.
Question 50: She only felt relaxed after a few months working for him.
A. She used to feel relaxed working for him a few months.
B. A few months ago, she didn’t find it relaxed working for him.
C. Only after a few months working for him did she feel relaxed.
D. It was not until a few months working for him did she feel relaxed

MOCK TEST 22
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. biologist B. generation C. gender D. argument
Question 2. A. parachutist B. space C. donation D. destination

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. pursuit B. advice C. career D. ticket
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Question 4. A. adequate B. upmarket C. tedious D. envious

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. I really like all the characters in his last film, ________ on a true story about a group of
university students in his hometown.
A. is based B. basing C. based D. is basing
Question 6. My students do the mini-tests __________ with fewer mistakes than the previous term.
A. carefully B. most carefully C. more carefully D. the most carefully
Question 7._________________, they will buy a new house in the countryside.
A. When my parents retired B. As soon as my parents retires
C. After my parents had retired D. Since my parents retired
Question 8. They take all the precaution to _______ their children healthy and strong.
A. bring over B. bring back C. bring together D. bring up
Question 9. She usually spends every afternoon after school on the phone with her friends, _________?
A. doesn’t she B. doesn’t he C. won’t she D. isn’t she
Question 10. ______ women who set up the first women’s refuges in the UK in the 1970s changed the
world.
A. The B. A C. An D. Ø
Question 11. We need you to submit a copy of your birth __________ by next Monday.
A. qualification B. diploma C. certificate D. degree
Question 12. The province’s personnel administration department announces to award prizes to the
staff who can ____________ good solution
A. come up with B. catch up with C. go through with D. live up to
Question 13. After leaving for school, my younger sister decided ___________ abroad.
A. to work B. working C. work D. to working
Question 14. A: "Just let me know if there is anything else I can do you for you in case of
need, Janet."
B: "Thanks, Mary. I can count on you to help; You’ve always been a __________.”
A. good deal B. good whip C. close call D. good egg
Question 15. More than fourty people ____ the highest tower when the bomb exploded in one of the
dustbins.
A. visited B. were visiting C. visit D. are visiting
Question 16. Many people do not __________ the need to take naps, but naps are actually important.
A. feel B. sense C. catch D. see
Question 17. A new supermarket _______________ in our neighbourhood in June 2024.
A. build B. will be built C. builds D. be built
Question 18. At companies like Google, Apple, Facebook, Amazon, and Netflix, they aim at
developing long-term plans and digital___________.
A. interacts B. interactive C. interactions D. interactional
Question 19. It is said that when Donald Trump downplayed the severity of COVID-19, he let the genie
out of the __________ : the damage that mostly resulted from this attitude was irreversible.
A. cave B. lamp C. bottle D. chest

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
A power nap – a short sleep that you have during the day – has numerous health benefits. It has
been found that it improves learning and memory, prevents stress, and even helps lower the risk of (20)
__________ heart diseases. However, there are times when you feel very (21) __________ after a nap,
and other times when you wake up feeling disoriented and even more exhausted. Why?
The answer is the four-stage sleep cycle. In stage 1, we’re in a light rest – the state between
being awake and asleep. In stage 2, we detach from our surroundings and real sleep kicks (22)
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__________. Then, stages 3 and 4 are deep rest, in which your breathing really slows down and your
muscles are relaxed.
The difference between a good nap and a terrible one (23) __________ down to which stage of
sleep you’re waking up in. The perfect nap stays in stages one and two. Once in stage 3, your brain is
going to hate the idea of being awake, (24) ___________ you will not feel very good when you get up.
To stay in stages 1 and 2, take a power nap that is twenty to forty minutes long, depending on how long
it takes you to fall asleep.
(Adapted from sleepadvisor.org)
Question 20: A. developing B. progressing C. advancing D. evolving
Question 21: A. refresh B. refreshed C. refreshing D. refreshment
Question 22: A. out B. in C. on D. over
Question 23: A. gets B. reaches C. goes D. comes
Question 24: A. for B. so C. but D. or

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 25. Anne: “Excuse me, would you please tell me ______?”
Johnson: “Certainly. Go straight along here; it’s next to a hospital.”
A. how could we get to the post office B. how can we get to the post office
C. how get to the post office D. how we can get to the post office
Question 26. Jisoo: “I think that the youth are high-flying but inexperienced - Rose:
“_____________.”
A. There’s no doubt about it. B. Certainly.
C. Are you kidding me? D. It’s a nice of you to say so.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 27. Because the boss had a bad day, he made an impetuous decision that no one could eat
lunch at their desk.
A. rash B. cautious C. reckless D. temperamental
Question 28. The new manager put the cat among the pigeons by suggesting that the staff might have
to come to work earlier than usual.
A. made a lot of people satisfied B. made a lot of people annoyed
C. made other people disappointed D. made other people nervous

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 29. One of the clearest differences between depression and melancholy is that depression is
an emotional state of resignation, whereas melancholy is something we even desire as it provides this
time out for losing in reflection.
A. mellifluous B. happy C. mournful D. unpleasant
Question 30. The increase in life expectancy can be attributed to healthier lifestyle, better nutrition, and
advances in medical science and technology.
A. deterioration B. breakthroughs C. stealth D. subsidies

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in the meaning to each of the
following questions.
Question 31. It is possible that she wasn’t in a confused state of mind.
A. She may not be in a confused state of mind.
B. She must not have been in a confused state of mind.
C. She should have been in a confused state of mind.
D. She may not have been in a confused state of mind.
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Question 32. I last bought one thing with bitcoin two years ago, which looks like a USB to secure my
funds.
A. I have two years to buy one thing with bitcoin, which look like a USB to secure my funds.
B. I didn’t buy one thing with bitcoin two years ago, which looks like a USB to secure my
funds.
C. I have bought one thing with bitcoin for two years, which looks like a USB to secure my
funds.
D. I haven’t bought one thing with bitcoin for two years, which looks like a USB to secure my
funds.
Question 33. “What are you going to give the name to this cat?”, asked my wife.
A. My wife asked me what was I going to give the name to that cat.
B. My wife asked me what you are going to give the name to this cat.
C. My wife asked me what I was going to give the name to that cat.
D. My wife asked me what you were going to give the name to that cat.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 34. Management has promised to facsimile an easy transition to the new ownership structure.
A. facsimile B. ownership C. to D. has
Question 35. I thought we would talk about how life is so much different for teens today than it is for
our generation in the old days.
A. generation B. it is C. talk about D. different
Question 36. It was Charles Goodyear who began the modern-day plastic revolution when they
vulcanized rubber in 1839, paving the way for the tire.
A. was B. they C. the way D. who

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 37. Hoa doesn’t come to class today. She contracts a serious illness
A. If Hoa didn’t contract a serious illness, she would come to class today.
B. In case Hoa didn’t contract a serious illness, she wouldn’t come to class today.
C. If Hoa contracted a serious illness, she won’t come to class today.
D. If Hoa contracted a serious illness, she would come to class today.
Question 38 I noticed that I’d seen her before only after she turned up at the meeting.
A. Only after she turned up at the meeting did I notice that I’d seen her before.
B. No sooner had I noticed that I’d seen her before than she turned up at the meeting.
C. Only after did I notice that I’d seen her before she turned up at the meeting.
D. Only after I noticed that I’d seen her before did she turn up at the meeting.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Thanks to advanced medical research and innovations, it’s more than possible for us to live
longer, stronger and healthier lives in today’s world. However, relying on medicine alone for a longer
life is not enough. In fact, to truly achieve longevity, there are also some essential things that you must
do.
Getting medical check-ups is the habit that can make a difference between a long, happy life and
a short, unhealthy one. To prevent or effectively treat fatal diseases, it is crucial that they are detected
early. Also, a check-up gives you a better understanding of your health and what action you can take to
protect it. For instance, a medical examination can reveal a lack of important nutrients like vitamins and
minerals.
The next thing you need to care about is your diet. For every meal, try to have at least one dish
with vegetables or fruits to reduce risks of contracting heart diseases. Furthermore, do your best to
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avoid processed foods, which are full of salt, sugar, saturated fats and other chemicals. A 2019 study of
20,000 men and women found that a diet high in processed foods resulted in an 18% increased risk of
death by all causes.
Finally, get moving in whatever way you can. Just 5 to 25 minutes of moderate exercise every
day can prolong your life. Anything that gets you out of the chair, moving and breathing more intensely
on a regular basis is going to help. For example, the simple exercise of brisk walking (walking at a
speed of at least 4,8km/h) can improve heart health and reduce risk of obesity, diabetes and high blood
pressure. It can even ease symptoms of depression and anxiety.
(Adapted from cnbc.com)
Question 39: What is the passage mainly about?
A. Medical advances in the modern era
B. Ways to achieve longevity without medicine
C. How to motivate yourself to live healthily
D. Healthy habits for a longer life
Question 40: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ___________.
A. check-up B. understanding C. health D. action
Question 41: According to paragraph 3, processed foods __________.
A. should only be avoided if there is too much salt and sugar
B. indirectly resulted in the deaths of 20,000 people in 2019
C. increases a person’s risks of dying when they are consumed
D. contain high amounts of substances that can harm our health
Question 42: The word “contracting” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. assisting B. generating C. developing D. constructing
Question 43: Which of the following is NOT TRUE, according to the passage?
A. It has become easier for us to live longer and healthier lives than before.
B. Medical check-ups can help you learn important things about your health.
C. You only need to exercise for 5-25 minutes per week to become healthier.
D. Brisk walking improves not only physical health but also mental health.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Movement and exercise make us feel good, but why? The answer offered by science journalist
Caroline Williams in her book Move!: The New Science of Body Over Mind goes deeper than well-
known factors like the release of hormones and highlights how our bodies and minds are connected in
ways we may not even realize.
Williams explains that our body is constantly processing signals from the world. At the same
time, it is sending signals to the brain about the state of our bodies. And while we may not recognize it,
our moods and feelings have a lot to do with how our bodies are functioning. If our body is
communicating to our brain that we are sedentary, that might create feelings of depression or anxiety,
insecurity or uncertainty. By contrast, a lifestyle with more movement could create positive changes
that, when passed along to the brain, give us a sense of happiness, confidence, and positivity.
Also according to Williams, our brain evolved partly to help us move, and for mankind in
ancient times, movement meant the ability to run away from danger and toward food. Therefore, when
it has nothing to oversee, we suffer. In fact, our brains reduce capacity when we move less, slowly
removing cells from brain areas like the hippocampus – the centre of memory formation. Meanwhile,
the emotional benefits of movement are well-documented. For example, strength training can boost our
self-esteem, reduce depression and anxiety, and make us feel more capable of facing emotional
challenges. In other words, the strength in our muscles may dictate our strength and confidence in the
world.
In her book, Williams offers some ideas for a variety of ways of moving that have different
kinds of physical, mental, and cognitive benefits. In addition to strength training, walking, and running,
we can try tai chi and group exercise to tap into feelings of connection with others. Moving to music
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can also create that sense of connection and allow us to get lost in the rhythm and disconnect from
negativity.
With all of these advantages in mind, perhaps we should start moving more, not to burn calories
or build muscles, but just because it feels good for our bodies to do what they’re meant to do.
(Adapted from greatergood.berkeley.edu)
Question 44: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Move Your Body The Right Way
B. Energetic Body, Happy Mind
C. Mind And Movement: An Ancient Connection
D. Step-By-Step Guide To A Stronger Brain
Question 45: The word “sedentary” in paragraph 2 can be best replaced by ___________.
A. dispassionate B. inactive C. unmoved D. indifferent
Question 46: In paragraph 2, what does Williams say about the connection between our body and
emotional state?
A. The body frequently transmits signals to the brain to inform it on how we are feeling.
B. Our mood can have a very significant effect on the functions of our body.
C. Different feelings can be triggered depending on what our body conveys to the brain.
D. The brain naturally creates a sense of happiness whenever we try to move.
Question 47: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. brain B. mankind C. movement D. danger
Question 48: The word “dictate” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. compel B. motivate C. enforce D. determine
Question 49: Which of the following is NOT TRUE, according to the passage?
A. In the distant past, the primary function of the brain was to control movement.
B. When you do not move much, your brain functions can gradually degrade.
C. Some forms of exercise can help us feel connected with people around us.
D. When we move to music, our mind can be distracted from negative feelings.
Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Williams’ book helped disprove that hormones are what make us happy when exercising.
B. If we move too little in our lives, our cognitive ability will become seriously hindered.
C. The emotional benefits of movement are much stronger than those of other activities.
D. Walking and running boosts our physical health but can make us feel disconnected.

MOCK TEST 23

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three
in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. though B. these C. there D. breath
Question 2. A. online B. drive C. include D. life

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. turtle B. hotel C. robot D. money
Question 4. A. positive B. relevant C. enormous D. typical

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. More than a mile of roadway has been blocked with trees, stones and other things, _______
the explosion.
A. causing B. which caused by C. caused by D. which caused
Question 6. Rolls Royce cars are _______ than Toyota ones.
A. expensive B. the most expensive C. more expensive D. most expensive
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Question 7. _______, I will have worked at this school for 30 years.
A. Before I had reached 55 years old B. When I reached 55 years old
C. Until I will reach 55 years old D. By the time I reach 55 years old
Question 8. The manager is directly responsible _______ the efficient running of the office
A. about B. for C. at D. in
Question 9. Donald John Trump is the 45th President of the United States, _______?
A. is he B. is not he C. isn’t it D. isn’t he
Question 10. Nguyen Thuc Thuy Tien became _______ first Vietnamese contestant to win the title
Miss Grand International 2021 in Thailand.
A. a B. Ø C. the D. an
Question 11. This is no time to __________ a joke, James! Be more sensitive, will you?
A. snap B. pop C. crack D. bust
Question 12. Coach Park Hang-Seo’s contract _______ at the end of January 2023, but the team
couldn’t win the AFF Cup title as a parting gift for Park.
A. called off B. broke down C. ran out D. gave back
Question 13. The college principal promised _______ into the matter.
A. to look B. look C. looking D. looked
Question 14. A news _______ is broadcasting over a television in the waiting room about natural
disasters occurring nation-wide.
A. journalist B. anchorman C. columnist D. correspondent
Question 15. Paul noticed a job advertisement while he _______ along the street.
A. would walk B. was walking C. walked D. had walked
Question 16. In overcrowded refugee camps, social distancing is impossible, and the lack of medical
supplies only __________ the problem.
A. mingles B. enhances C. compounds D. augments
Question 17. Next year, this new plaza building _______.
A. was completed B. will be completed C. will completed D. complete
Question 18. The COVID-19 pandemic remains highly _______ in the world due to the emergence of
Omicron.
A. unpredictable B. predict C. prediction D. predictably
Question 19. The young swimmer came within a(n) __________ of winning but failed in the end.
A. nick B. ace C. crack D. trump

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 20. Jack and David are talking about social networks.
- Jack: “I think using social networks may have negative effects on students.”
- David: “_______. It distracts them from their studies.”
A. That’s quite true B. I don’t quite agree
C. You’re wrong D. I’m not sure about that
Question 21. Linda is thanking Daniel for his birthday present.
- Linda: “Thanks for the book. I’ve been looking for it for months.”
- Daniel: “_______”
A. Thank you for looking for it. B. You can say that again.
C. I’m glad you like it. D. I like reading books.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. He thought Janet’s response seemed a bit fishy, so he did a bit of investigation into her
role in the company.
A. suspicious B. unfaithful C. loyal D. honest
Question 23. The president was a lame duck during the end of his second term because he pushed his
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country into a financial crisis.
A. an important person B. a successful person
C. a famous person D. a polite person

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions.
Question 24. Fierce storms have been hampering rescue efforts and there is now little chance of
finding more survivors.
A. allowing B. preventing C. encouraging D. promoting
Question 25. Cambridge is the ideal place to learn English; it’s a beautiful and hospitable city with
institutions for high quality linguistic teaching.
A. noticeable B. natural C. friendly D. ugly

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions.
Question 26. They are not allowed to use our personal information for their own purposes.
A. They don’t have to use our personal information for their own purposes.
B. They can use our personal information for their own purposes.
C. They mustn’t use our personal information for their own purposes.
D. They may use our personal information for their own purposes.
Question 27. Mrs. Brown last went on a trip to Hanoi two years ago.
A. Mrs. Brown has gone on a trip to Hanoi for two years.
B. Mrs. Brown didn’t go on a trip to Hanoi two years ago.
C. Mrs. Brown has two years to go on a trip to Hanoi.
D. Mrs. Brown hasn’t gone on a trip to Hanoi for two years.
Question 28. “What is the name of your latest album?”, Tom asked Helen.
A. Tom asked Helen what the name of her latest album is.
B. Tom asked Helen what was the name of her latest album.
C. Tom asked Helen what the name of her latest album would be.
D. Tom asked Helen what the name of her latest album was.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 29. Every employee is expected to be competent and industrial because wage rates depend on
levels of productivity.
A. employee B. competent C. industrial D. productivity
Question 30. My former friend, together with his wife, pays a visit to my family last Sunday.
A. former B. with C. pays D. Sunday
Question 31. When children experience too much frustration, its behavior ceases to be integrated.
A. too much B. experience C. its D. ceases

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 32. He isn’t qualified. He is not given important tasks.
A. If only he were qualified and wouldn’t be given important tasks.
B. If he were qualified, he would be given important tasks.
C. If he were qualified, he would not be given important tasks.
D. Provided he is qualified, he will be given important tasks.
Question 33. The train arrived at the station. Shortly after that the passengers rushed towards it.
A. No sooner has the train arrived at the station than the passengers rushed towards it.
B. Hardly had the passengers rushed towards it when the train arrived at the station.
C. Scarcely had the train arrived at the station when the passengers rushed towards it.
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D. Not until the train arrived at the station did the passengers rush towards it.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Simply explained, machine learning is the process of teaching a computer system (34)
__________ to make accurate predictions when provided with data. Those predictions could be
answering whether a piece of fruit in a photo is a banana or an apple, whether an email is spam, or (35)
__________ speech accurately enough to generate captions for a YouTube video.
The key difference of machine-learning model from traditional computer software is that a
human developer does not write specific codes to instruct the system. (36) __________, it is gradually
“trained” to perform a task using a large amount of data. For instance, a huge number of images labelled
as containing a banana or an apple can be used to teach a machine-learning computer to (37)
__________ between the two types of fruit. So we can (5) ___________ say that data, and lots of it, is
what makes machine learning possible.
(Adapted from zdnet.com)
Question 34: A. why B. what C. when D. how
Question 35: A. discovering B. recognizing C. realizing D. locating
Question 36: A. However B. Instead C. Nonetheless D. Similarly
Question 37: A. split B. detach C. separate D. discriminate
Question 38: A. gently B. peacefully C. harmlessly D. safely

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
With the advancement of technology, the learning environment is more dynamic than ever
before. And teachers around the world are slowly realising that technology, thanks to its many impacts
on the classroom, has become essential in education.
Technology makes it easier for students to find information quickly and accurately. Search
engines and e-books are replacing traditional printed textbooks as sources of knowledge. Instead of
personal tutors, students can get one-on-one help through educational videos on the Internet – anytime
and anywhere – or join massive open online courses (MOOCs) to study whatever they want at their own
pace.
To develop and achieve success in the 21st-century workplace, students need to be capable of
effectively using certain technological tools (electronic calendars, web pages, teleconferencing, etc.). By
integrating these technologies into the regular curriculum, educational institutions are ensuring that their
students are prepared for the modern office by equipping them with excellent technological skills.
Many educational tools offer a variety of functionalities that conduce student-student
collaboration. For example, Skype, Zoom, or Google Meet provides a way for students to hold virtual
meetings with classmates from anywhere in the world. Meanwhile, with tools like Google Docs or
Google Slides, students can easily share and edit projects with each other.
In a world where technology is accessible to billions of people, most students are already digital
citizens. Therefore, by incorporating various types of technology into the classroom, they can begin to
learn how to be responsible in the digital world. The class becomes a smaller version of the bigger
digital world where students can practice how to engage with others online.
(Adapted from collegeuncharted.com)
Question 39: What is the passage mainly about?
A. Helping students to become good digital citizens
B. How classroom technology benefits learners
C. Some tips for teaching effectively with technology
D. The best technologies to use in the classroom
Question 40: According to paragraph 2, how does technology help students’ learning?
A. With technology, students can learn without any information from teachers.
B. Students no longer need books to access information thanks to search engines.
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C. Personal tutors are now always available on the Internet so as to help students.
D. MOOCs give students more freedom and flexibility in the learning process.
Question 41: The word “conduce” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. support B. excite C. promote D. approve
Question 42: The word “they” in paragraph 5 refers to ___________.
A. people B. students C. citizens D. types
Question 43: Which of the following is NOT TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Educational videos are a resource that students can access no matter where they are.
B. To succeed their future career, students will need to be skilful at using technology.
C. Students from different places can still study with each other via Zoom or Skype.
D. In a classroom with technology, students can safely join the big digital world.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Today, just 13 crops provide 80 percent of people’s energy intake worldwide. Yet some of these
crops may not grow well in the higher temperatures, unpredictable rainfall and extreme weather events
caused by climate change. To feed a growing population in a rapidly changing world, food scientists are
exploring more possibilities, while thinking about how to be environmentally friendly.
The United Nations has declared 2023 the International Year of Millets. First cultivated in Asia
about 10,000 years ago, millet is a major source of food in parts of Asia and Africa. Compared with
wheat, maize and rice, millet is much more climate resilient; the crop needs little water and thrives in
warmer, drier environments. Some more good news: Millet is one of many ancient grains — including
teff, amaranth and sorghum — that are similarly sustainable and resilient.
You’ve heard of almond milk and soy milk. The next alternative at your coffee shop could be
made from Bambara groundnut. Like other legumes, the Bambara groundnut is packed with protein, and
bacteria on the plant can convert atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia so the groundnut can still grow
well in nutrient-poor soil without fertilizers. A better understanding of the plant could pave the way for
breeding programs to help the Bambara groundnut become as popular as the soybean, a legume that
produces high yields but is less able to withstand drought.
Kelp is a type of seaweed with a few cool climate-friendly tricks. By taking in carbon dioxide
during photosynthesis, it can lower the acidity of its watery surroundings, and this can help ensure the
well-being of marine life. Kelp can also capture carbon in the atmosphere and store it, like underwater
trees. That means growing and eating more kelp could be good for the environment. While kelp and
other seaweeds have been widely consumed in Asia for thousands of years, they’re still not prevalent in
many Western countries.
The enset, cultivated in Ethiopia, is nicknamed the “false banana” because the plant resembles a
banana tree, though its fruit is inedible. It’s also called “the tree against hunger” because its starchy
stems can be harvested at any time of year, making it a reliable food crop during dry periods.
Environmental reports suggest that the enset could be planted in other parts of Africa, and possibly
beyond. However, the processing required to make enset edible is complex, so any expansion would
have to be led by the communities who hold that knowledge.
(Adapted from sciencenews.org)
Question 44: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. How The Changing Climate Is Affecting What You Eat Right Now
B. As Climate Change Continues, These Foods May Reach Your Table
C. Foods Of The Future And How They Will Solve The Climate Crisis
D. What Can We Do To Feed A World Of Increasing Climate Change?
Question 45: The word “thrives” in paragraph 2 can be best replaced by ___________.
A. advances B. blossoms C. succeeds D. excels
Question 46: In paragraph 2, what do we learn about millets?
A. It will be officially recognised as an international crop in 2023.
B. It is an important food source in a number of Asian regions.
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C. It has been widely cultivated in Asia for thousands of years.
D. It can endure more severe conditions than other ancient grains.
Question 47: The word “prevalent” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. commonplace B. traditional C. prestigious D. habitual
Question 48: Which of the following is NOT TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Bambara groundnut plants can create essential nutrients for the nuts themselves.
B. Compared to soybean, Bambara groundnuts do not require as much water to develop.
C. Kelp can help preserve marine life and improve the environment at the same time.
D. There have been reports of the enset being planted in various areas all around Africa.
Question 49: The word “it” in paragraph 5 refers to __________.
A. enset B. banana tree C. fruit D. food crop
Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Food scientists believe that current food crops can no longer develop in the current climate.
B. In the future, we may see the increasing popularity of a diverse range of ancient grains.
C. Thanks to its environmental benefits, kelp will soon be the most commonly grown seaweed.
D. Ethiopian communities are not very willing to share knowledge about processing enset.

MOCK TEST 24

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Square Watermelons
(1) ________ the appearance of a watermelon is not as important as its flavour, people still
enjoy seeing and buying watermelons that (2) __________ unusual shapes. And contrary to popular
belief, anyone can grow a square watermelon if they want to. If you want to try it out, you can find
dozens of (3) ________ websites on the Internet that teach you how to do it.
But why do people even grow square watermelons? There are actually many practical reasons.
Firstly, they are easier to stack, which makes them easier to ship from country to country. (4) ________
reason is that square watermelons can be fit perfectly inside small spaces, making it more convenient
for consumers (5) ________ refrigerators are small.
(Adapted from whataboutwatermelon.com)
Question 1: A. However B. Although C. Despite D. In spite of
Question 2: A. accept B. assume C. adopt D. acquire
Question 3: A. assigned B. contributed C. dedicated D. committed
Question 4: A. The other B. Every C. Any D. Another
Question 5: A. what B. where C. which D. whose

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
It is common knowledge that our teeth are generally quite sensitive to pain. But wouldn’t it be
better if they could just chew away under any conditions? In spite of our dental discomfort, it turns out
there’s a good reason our teeth are so sensitive.
To begin with, we should understand how our teeth can hurt. A normal tooth has three layers,
and only the innermost layer, called the pulp, can feel pain. This is because it contains a large number of
nerves that scientists call afferent sensory fibres, and they only respond to one sensation: pain. So,
whereas people with tooth sensitivity may complain of tooth pain triggered by heat or cold, the nerves
in the pulp don’t actually sense temperature, but instead only feel pain.
So, what’s the point? Whenever a tooth is being damaged, pain acts as a signal that we can
easily perceive, which urges us to avoid making things worse, said Julius Manz, spokesperson for the
American Dental Association. “If you eat something too hot or chew something too cold, or if the tooth
is worn down to the point where the underlying tissue underneath is exposed, all of those things cause
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pain, and then the pain tells the person that they should not use that tooth or do something to try to
protect it a little bit more. So, it’s really a protective mechanism more than anything,” Manz explained.
If teeth didn’t feel pain, we might continue to use them in situations that damage them so much
that they break or have to be removed completely, Manz said. And for humans, this can be a big
problem because, unlike sharks and alligators, we can’t replace them when they are broken.
(Adapted from livescience.com)
Question 6: What is the passage mainly about?
A. What happens when our teeth feel no pain B. The three layers of the human tooth
C. The way human teeth respond to pain D. Why our teeth should feel pain
Question 7: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ___________.
A. teeth B. nerves C. scientists D. people
Question 8: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 3?
A. Teeth pain is a way for the body to tell you to prevent them from any further damage.
B. Our teeth feel the most pain when their underlying tissue becomes exposed.
C. Eating something that is too cold is one of the things that causes tooth pain.
D. Pain in a tooth is a mechanism that helps people realise they should protect it better.
A. Teeth pain is a way for the body to tell you to prevent them from any further damage.
Question 9: The word “perceive” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. capture B. observe C. reveal D. notice
Question 10: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. In a normal human tooth, layers other than the pulp do not respond to pain.
B. Afferent sensory fibres is the scientific name of nerves lying in a tooth’s layers.
C. The tissue underneath your teeth is most often exposed when you eat hot things.
D. If our teeth did not hurt, most of us would do things that heavily damage it.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
In the modern era, online shopping has made buying things more convenient than ever before.
However, buying products on the Internet - whether on Shopee or Lazada - requires a whole new set of
skills to make sure that you don’t waste your money on low-quality products that are falsely advertised
on e-commerce platforms.
To begin with, when you look at an ad or listing for a product, look for any evidence that the
company supplying it actually exists. A specific company website is a good sign but remember that fake
sites can easily be created with tools like WordPress. Therefore, when you’re on the website, scroll
around and look for contact details and the “About Us” page. If all the information seems genuine and
there are names of any employee or manager, this is also a positive sign. Also look for any presence on
Facebook, Instagram and TikTok, since it’s not uncommon for brands to try to reach their customers via
these networks. In fact, a lack of social media presence might be a sign that something is wrong,
especially for fashion or beauty brands.
You may also want to reconsider how you examine reviews and comments. You naturally want
to see a lot of positive reviews, and that’s reasonable. However, an inordinate number of five-star
reviews for a particular product can mean a company paid for them and used a review service to help
push it to the top of the search results. Try looking up a company’s one- and two-star reviews and
customer photos, which often provide more detailed insights about a product such as problems that
people have when using it and, in many cases, even confirm that it is real. Be aware of reviews that all
use similar language or sound like they’re for an entirely different product. Finally, check the date of the
reviews to see if the listing got a large number of reviews unusually fast.
And when you’re still not sure, you can always type the name of the brand into a search engine
like Google and see if any sites pop up flagging it as a scam. You can also search on social media for
posts where people review or discuss that brand, and if there are no results, this can be a sign it’s not a
safe place to purchase from. In addition, try to find other buyers sharing their own experiences. For

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instance, online writer Michele Eilertsen keeps a long list of scam brands that she ran into on her
personal blog.
(Adapted from washingtonpost.com)
Question 11: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Signs Of Fake Online Stores That You Should Always Watch Out For
B. How Much Research Do You Need To Avoid Online Shopping Scams?
C. Here’s Why Online Shopping Takes More Effort Than You Think It Is
D. Techniques To Help You Avoid Being Fooled When Shopping Online
Question 12: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 2?
A. Try to look for detailed information on how you can contact a company on its website.
B. On the “About Us” page, there should be names of people who work for the company.
C. Many businesses connect with their customers on social platforms such as Facebook.
D. Brands without any presence on social media networks are most likely not reliable.
Question 13: The word “inordinate” in paragraph 3 can be best replaced by ___________.
A. uncontrolled B. outstanding C. confusing D. excessive
Question 14: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. number B. product C. company D. service
Question 15: Which of the following is NOT TRUE, according to paragraph 3?
A. Customers obviously like products with many good reviews when they shop online.
B. Looking at customer photos can help buyers learn more about a product.
C. Shoppers should be careful when they spot multiple reviews with similar language.
D. A great number of reviews usually suggest that a company paid for them.
Question 16: The word “flagging” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. justify B. associate C. identify D. accredit
Question 17: Which of the following can most likely be inferred from the passage?
A. Most sellers who do not have a website of their own should not be trusted.
B. Negative reviews can actually be a better indicator of an authentic product.
C. Reviews that sound like they are for another item are often cheaply bought ones.
D. Online blogs are the best source to confirm whether or not a brand is scamming.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three
in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 18. A. garbage B. subtle C. climbing D. debtror
Question 19. A. fare B. black C. match D. calcium

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 20. A. prevent B. receive C. recent D. remote
Question 21. A. dominate B. disagree C. disrespect D. interfere

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 22. Phong Nha - Ke Bang National Park, __________ by the UNESCO as Natural World
Heritage for the criteria of geology and geomorphology in 2003, is one of the favorite destinations In
Vietnam.
A. to recognize B. to be recognized C. recognized D. recognizing
Question 23. The population of China is much_______than that of any countries in the world.
A. large B. more large C. the most large D. larger
Question 24. ________ the destination, he will have been walking for about three hours.
A. When John will get B. By the time John gets
C. After John has got D. Until John is getting
Question 25. There is a rumour that the National Bank is going to take ________ the company I am
working for.
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A. on B. up C. off D. over
Question 26. Let’s go for a long walk, ________ ?
A. will we B. shall we C. don’t you D. do you
Question 27. In ________ Phillipines 23.7% of the population lived below the national poverty line in
2021.
A. an B. Ø C. a D. the
Question 28. Nina is a well-behaved child, but she can be a(n) __________ sometimes.
A. fistful B. handful C. spoonful D. armful
Question 29: She believes that all countries should_________ the death penalty as it is inhumane.
A. put down to B. catch up on C. get down to D. do away with
Question 30. Park Hang Seo decided _____ the national football team after his contract expired on
January 31th 2023.
A. leave B. to leave C. leaving D. be leave
Question 31. After some initial success, expanding and entering new markets is now at the top of the
company’s __________.
A. calendar B. schedule C. timeline D. agenda
Question 32. Mike _________ his favourite program on TV when the lights went out.
A. was watching B. is watching C. watched D. watches
Question 33. We can only finish the project in time if you all __________ your weight.
A. take B. pull C. lift D. carry
Question 34. The revised Land Law of Vietnam _______ by the National Assembly in its upcoming
October and May sessions and approved in the October 2023 session.
A. will discuss B. will be discussed C. are discuss D. discuss
Question 35. Thanks to the laser beams, at last, he could get rid of the ________ birthmark on his face.
A. normal B. abnormal C. abnormality D. abnormally
Question 36. Their predictions were wrong and they have to accept that. There’s no two ______ about
it.
A. tracks B. paths C. ways D. roads

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 37: A waiter in a restaurant is talking to a customer who has just finished his meal there.
- Waiter: “Here’s your bill, sir” - Customer: “________.”
A. Don’t mention it B. Can I pay by credit card?
C. What do you have? D. You’re welcome
Question 38: Two students are talking about the school curriculum.
- Ted: “Swimming should be made part of the school curriculum.”
- Kate: “______. It is an essential life skill.”
A. Oh, that’s a problem B. I can’t agree with you more
C. Not at all D. You can make it

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 39. He didn’t bat an eye when he realized he failed the exam again.
A. didn’t want to see B. showed surprise
C. wasn’t happy D. didn’t care
Question 40. He was so insubordinate that he lost his job within a week.
A. fresh B. disobedient C. obedient D. understanding

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions.
Question 41. My original statement has been completely distorted by the media.
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A. wrong B. evil C. deform D. harm
Question 42. Each year about fifty hundred species of plants and animals are already being eliminated.
A. dropped B. removed C. kicked D. tossed

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions.
Question 43.It is unnecessary for you to finish the report until tomorrow afternoon
A. You needn’t finish the report until tomorrow afternoon.
B. You have to finish the report until tomorrow afternoon.
C. You may finish the report after tomorrow afternoon.
D. You should finish the report until tomorrow afternoon
Question 44. The last time we met Nguyen Quang Hai football player was two months ago.
A. I haven’t met Nguyen Quang Hai football player for two months.
B. I met Nguyen Quang Hai football player for two months.
C. I didn’t met Nguyen Quang Hai football player for two months ago.
D. I haven’t met Nguyen Quang Hai football player was for two months.
Question 45. “How many lessons are you going to learn next month?”, he asked me.
A. She asked me how many lessons was I going to learn the next month.
B. She wanted to know how many lessons I am going to learn the next month.
C. She wondered what how many lessons I were going to learn the next month.
D. She asked me what how many lessons I was going to learn the next month.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 46. My brother usually asked me for help when he has difficulty with his homework.
A. asked B. help C. has D. homework
Question 47. In his speech on taking office, President Võ Văn Thưởng thanked the NA for the trust and
for giving them the chance to serve the Fatherland and the people in this position.
A. his speech B. thanked C. them D. this position
Question 48. You can make informed decisions if you are informative
A. You B. make C. decisions D. informative

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 49. Jack’s watch was ten minutes slow. That was why he was late for his interview
A. If Jack’s watch hadn’t been ten minutes slow, he wouldn’t be late for his interview
B. If Jack’s watch hadn’t been ten minutes slow, he wouldn’t have been late for his interview
C. If Jack hadn’t been late for his interview, his watch wouldn’t have been ten minutes slow
D. If only Jack’s watch weren’t ten minutes slow, he wouldn’t be late for his interview
Question 50. Right after the boy got out of his house, it started to rain heavily.
A. It had rained heavily before the boy got out of his house.
B. No sooner had the boy got out of his house than it started to rain heavily.
C. Not until it started to rain heavily did the boy got out of his house.
D. Hardly had it started to rain heavily when the boy got out of his house.

MOCK TEST 25
Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. repeats B. amuses C. attacks D. coughs
Question 2: A. academic B. grade C. behave D. examination

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Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. contain B. conquer C. conserve D. conceal
Question 4: A. conical B. sacrifice C. approval D. counterpart

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: A helicopter _______ five people crashed at the border of Quang Ninh province.
A. to carry B. carried C. carry D. carrying
Question 6: The more you practice speaking in public, _______.
A. the more you become confident B. the more you become confidently
C. the greater confidence you become D. the more confident you become
Question 7: I was listening to “Khong the say” by Hieuthuhai while my parents __________ a romantic
film.
A. was watching B. were watching C. watched D. had watched
Question 8: The village is famous ___ its ancient houses surrounded by centuries-old mossy rock
fences.
A. for B. in C. on D. with
Question 9: The seafood market had been overlooked by foreign tourists for years, _______?
A. hadn’t it B. had it C. did it D. didn’t it
Question 10: In recent years, sitting on a round bamboo boat and rowing through the forest has become
a must-try travel ________ on a tour of Hoi An.
A. exposure B. expedition C. experiment D. experience
Question 11: ____ number of young people hospitalized for cardiovascular diseases has increased 5-
10% each year in recent years.
A. No article B. An C. A D. The
Question 12: In the new Netflix film “A Tourist’s Guide to Love,” an American girl ______ love with
a local tour guide on a trip to Vietnam.
A. falls for B. falls in C. falls into D. falls down in
Question 13: Quang Nam authorities also plan _____ the village into an eco-tourism site.
A. developing B. develop C. to develop D. to developing
Question 14: Linh didn’t have to rack her ____ calculating every family expense.
A. head B. brain C. mind D. eyes
Question 15: HCMC _______ to deploy Covid-19 prevention measures since the number of cases rose
across the country.
A. has begun B. began C. had begun D. has been beginning
Question 16: Vietnam National Brand Forum 2023 aimed to raise ________ about the Vietnamese
national brand and introduce outstanding local products.
A. awareness B. attraction C. attention D. agreement
Question 17: Many high-end resorts ________ of eco-friendly materials and prioritize environmental
sustainability.
A. is built B. are built C. build D. are building
Question 18: The "Forests For Good" initiative is ______ aligned with our values of social
responsibility and sustainability.
A. imperfectly B. perfective C. perfect D. perfectly
Question 19: Coracle boats are ______ into colorful paintings along Tam Thanh beach in Quang Nam.
A. transferred B. converted C. transformed D. transmitted

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 20: Lan And Hoa are talking about taking part in an organization for youth this summer.
Mai: - “I like to work part-time for an organization for youth this summer.” - Hoa : - “________.”
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A. Me too. I’m thinking of applying for AIESEC.
B. I do, but I don’t have enough time for studying.
C. That’s great. You have been coming of age.
D. Is that all? How about using time wisely?
Question 21: Peter is talking to Laura about her house.
Peter : “What a lovely house you have!” - Laura: “________.”
A. Of course not, it’s not costly. B. Thank you. Hope you will drop in.
C. I think so. D. No problem.

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word ( s ) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The building has maintained its original features for more than 110 years, undergoing
only some minor renovations and changes.
A. destructions B. renewals C. restorations D. fluctuations
Question 23: “A Tourist’s Guide to Love” is a melting pot featuring both an international and local
cast, including US actress, Vietnamese-American actor, and local stars.
A. a mixed situation where there are a lot of people or ideas
B. a place where many people exit
C. a situation where there’s only a kind of people
D. a place where so many problems happen

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 24: The United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO), was
established in 1946.
A. set up B. found out C. run through D. put away
Question 25: Her notable contributions include 12 successful promotional campaigns that helped the
company become globally well-known.
A. extraordinary B. noticeable C. considerate D. unimpressive

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions .
Question 26: “Let’s go on a walking today?” said Jane.
A. Jane suggested going on a walking. B. Jane wanted us to going on a walking.
C. Jane suggested to go on a walking. D. Jane allowed us to go on a walking.
Question 27: This is the first time we have been to the circus.
A. We have been to the circus some times before.
B. We had been to the circus once before.
C. We have ever been to the circus often before.
D. We have never been to the circus before.
Question 28: You can take some photos at the park.
A. You are allowed to take some photos at the park.
B. You musn’t take some photos at the park.
C. You may have taken some photos at the park.
D. You need to take some photos at the park.

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: She has much money, so she can buy a big house in the city.
A. If she had much money, she could buy a big house in the city.
B. If she had had much money, she could buy a big house in the city.
C. Without money, she couldn’t buy a big house in the city.
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D. Unless she has much money, she can’t buy a big house in the city.
Question 30: Mike became a father. He felt a strong sense of responsibility towards his parents.
A. Were Mike to become a father himself, he would feel a strong sense of responsibility towards
his parents.
B. Only after Mike had become a father himself did he feel a strong sense of responsibility
towards his parents.
C. Had Mike become a father himself, he would have felt a strong sense of responsibility
towards his parents.
D. Not until he felt a strong sense of responsibility towards his parents did Mike become a father
himself.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Greta Thunberg, the soft-spoken Swedish teenager who became a global conscience for climate
change and environmental activism, has been named Time magazine’s Person of the Year for 2019.
“She became the biggest voice on the biggest issue facing the planet this year, coming from essentially
nowhere to lead a worldwide movement," Time editor-in-chief Edward Felsenthal said, adding that
Thunberg is the magazine’s youngest choice ever to be named Person of the Year.
Thunberg quickly bloomed into one of the world’s most notable climate change activists,
sparking a collective movement to fight the issue after protesting alone outside the Swedish Parliament
during school hours on Fridays when she was 15. The teen held up a now universally recognized hand-
painted sign that read “skolstrejk för klimatet,” which translates to “School strike for the climate.” Her
solo protest, Fensenthal noted, eventually prompted millions of people in 150 countries "to act on behalf
of the planet."
Thunberg’s signature direct style of speaking made her a force that could not be ignored by
world leaders and she was asked to speak in front of several high-profile entities, including the United
Nations and the U.S. Congress. In October, Thunberg was the recipient of another honor — an
environmental award at a Stockholm ceremony held by the Nordic Council. But she declined it,
explaining in an Instagram post, "The climate movement does not need any more awards."
When asked what he thought Thunberg’s response would be after learning that she is Time’s
Person of the Year, Felsenthal said, "I don’t know, but I think what she has done, her rise in influence,
has been really extraordinary."
(Adapted from edition.cnn.com)
Question 31: What is the passage mainly about?
A. Environmental movements in countries around the world.
B. The most popular climate change activists in the world.
C. A young and inspiring activist voted Person of The Year.
D. A magazine that praises global environmental activists.
Question 32: Which of the following is NOT true about Greta Thunberg?
A. The hand-panited sign she used is now universally recognised.
B. She inspired people worldwide to take action for the environment.
C. The United Nations asked her to deliver a speech in front of them.
D. She joined protests with her school friends when she was 15.
Question 33: The word “notable” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. knowledgeable B. outstanding C. professional D. experienced
Question 34: Greta Thunberg attracted the attention of world leaders with her __________.
A. direct style of speaking B. protest outside the Swedish Parliament
C. speech in front of the United Nations D. extraordinary rise in influence
Question 35: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to ___________.
A. the award B. a Stockholm ceremony
C. the Nordic Council D. the recipient

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Many factors affect how you relate to colleagues like the different personalities in the office or
the kind of boss you have. However, if you find yourself struggling to accept negative feedback,
avoiding asking others for help or fearing failure – there could be another less obvious source to your
problems. The nature of your parents’ relationship, and especially whether they solved problems
amicably and constructively or resorted to conflict, could have shaped your way of relating to others.
Attachment theory, first proposed by the British psychologist John Bowlby in the middle of the
last century, proposes that our relationships – especially with our parents – shape how we relate to
others through life, known as our attachment style. Generally, people have either ‘secure attachment’,
meaning they are confident in their worth and have great trust in others; ‘anxious attachment’, in which
they have low self-esteem and fear rejection and neglect by others; or ‘avoidant attachment’, which
means they too have low self-esteem and low trust in others, but cope by avoiding getting too close to
others in the first place.
There are many contributing factors to the kind of attachment style we develop, including the
responsiveness of our parents, as well as our own personality. Also relevant, however, is our parents’
relationship with each other. For children, parents provide a model for how disagreements should be
resolved in close relationships, and research suggests this has consequences for children’s later
attachment style. For example, one study involving 157 couples found that those individuals whose
parents had divorced when they were children were more likely to have an insecure attachment style as
adults.
Your work behaviour can be affected by your attachment style in many ways. For instance, if
you are anxiously attached, you might be extra fearful of facing rejection for performing your tasks
poorly. These deep-rooted psychological processes also affect bosses – for example, those with a secure
attachment style are more inclined to delegate more important work to their employees. Your
attachment style is not unchangeable, though. Recent research has shown attachment styles evolve to
some extent through life in response to current circumstances. Being more aware of your tendencies in a
relationship and a variety of situations can enable you to take steps to improve them or turn them to
your advantage. Your ways of relating to others at work might have deep roots, but if psychology has
taught us one thing, it’s that learning and changing is possible through life.
(Adapted from bbc.com)
Question 36: Which of the following best serves as a title for the passage?
A. What You Can Do To Change Your Attachment Style In The Workplace
B. How Your Work Behaviour May Have Been Affected By Your Parents
C. The Influence Of Divorces On The Mentality Of Young Children
D. The Negative Mental Impacts Of An Insecure Attachment Styles
Question 37: Which of the following is NOT TRUE about attachment styles?
A. They can be divided into three common types.
B. They are the result of various factors.
C. They affect both bosses and employees.
D. They are changeable and not deep-rooted.
Question 38: The word “amicably” in paragraph 1 can be best replaced by ___________.
A. slightly B. secretly C. carefully D. peacefully
Question 39: The word “them” in the last paragraph refers to ___________.
A. circumstances B. tendencies C. situations D. styles
Question 40: The phrase “delegate” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to __________.
A. provide B. assign C. distribute D. share
Question 41: What can be inferred from the passage?
A. Your parents’ relationship is has the most significant effect on your work behaviour.
B. Children whose parents get along are more likely develop a secure attachment style.
C. People’s type of attachment style is mostly determined by their own personality.
D. Those with ‘avoidant attachment’ generally have the lowest self-esteem and trust.
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Question 42: What’s the difference between those with ‘anxious attachment’ and those with “avoidant
attachment”?
A. Those with ‘anxious attachment’ trust other people more
B. Those with ‘avoidant attachment’ usually stay away from others
C. Those with ‘anxious attachment’ usually neglect or reject others
D. Those with ‘avoidant attachment’ are afraid of failures

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 43: In the end, he decided to buy non-alcohol drinks instead of wine for the party tomorrow.
A. In B. to buy C. non-alcohol D. the
Question 44: I was relieved to find out that Simon had passed the entry exam and was admitted to his
dream university.
A. relieved B. had passed C. entry D. admitted
Question 45: Some say that the new policy could unintentionally inflict economic harm on African
countries while others say it will benefit.
A. could B. inflict C. others D. it

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
A power nap – a short sleep that you have during the day – has numerous health benefits. It has
been found that it improves learning and memory, prevents stress, and even helps lower the risk of (46)
__________ heart diseases. However, there are times when you feel very (47) __________ after a nap,
and other times when you wake up feeling disoriented and even more exhausted. Why?
The answer is the four-stage sleep cycle. In stage 1, we’re in a light rest – the state between
being awake and asleep. In stage 2, we detach from our surroundings and real sleep kicks (48)
__________. Then, stages 3 and 4 are deep rest, in which your breathing really slows down and your
muscles are relaxed.
The difference between a good nap and a terrible one (49) __________ down to which stage of
sleep you’re waking up in. The perfect nap stays in stages one and two. Once in stage 3, your brain is
going to hate the idea of being awake, (50) ___________ you will not feel very good when you get up.
To stay in stages 1 and 2, take a power nap that is twenty to forty minutes long, depending on how long
it takes you to fall asleep.
(Adapted from sleepadvisor.org)
Question 46: A. developing B. progressing C. advancing D. evolving
Question 47: A. refresh B. refreshed C. refreshing D. refreshment
Question 48: A. out B. in C. on D. over
Question 49: A. gets B. reaches C. goes D. comes
Question 50: A. for B. so C. but D. or

MOCK TEST 26

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. visual B. treasure C. collision D. consent
Question 2: A. three B. think C. truth D. bathe

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which differs from the other
three in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. convey B. reveal C. summit D. ignite
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Question 4: A. agriculture B. reassuring C. execution D. scientific

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: Your first son was born in America, ______?
A. didn’t he B. is he C. was he D. wasn’t he
Question 6: When the international students have any problems, they ______by their teachers.
A. will be helped B. were helped C. are helping D. will help
Question 7: Although he didn’t want to, the student had to turn __________ his friend for help.
A. at B. for C. to D. in
Question 8: Exercising regularly is ______ than sitting for long periods of time in front of a screen.
A. as beneficial B. most beneficial C. more beneficial D. the most beneficial
Question 9: I will call you immediately ______.
A. when I had landed at the airport B. when I land at the airport
C. when I landed at the airport D. when I will land at the airport
Question 10: By next summer, he __________ in this school for 30 years.
A. had taught B. will have taught C. has taught D. will be teaching
Question 11: Katie Bouman is __________ scientist whose algorithm allowed researchers to take
__________ first ever image of a black hole.
A. a/a B. a/the C. the/the D. the/a
Question 12: The Hydro-Ram is a wonderful ______ which makes it easier for firemen to get people
out of crashed cars.
A. inventively B. invention C. inventive D. invent
Question 13: Barney stopped __________ when doctors told him he had lung cancer.
A. to smoke B. smoking C. smoke D. to smoking
Question 14: The Apple II computer, ______ in 1977, was designed by Steve Wozniak.
A. created B. to be created C. was created D. creating
Question 15: If you are caught cheating, half of your total score will be __________.
A. deducting B. deducted C. deduced D. deductive
Question 16: Frying an egg seems easy at first __________, but it is actually quite a difficult task.
A. look B. glance C. view D. glimpse
Question 17: He has ______ a valuable contribution to the life of the school
A. caused B. created C. done D. made
Question 18: While shopping undercover at some of the top jewellers, the journalists ______ sales
pitches filled with false claims.
A. took after B. turned out C. came across D. made up
Question 19: Music seems ______ psychological well-being and mental states significantly.
A. to influencing B. influence C. influencing D. to influence

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: He’s been studying in his bedroom for 20 hours non-stop. I think we should tell him to
rest.
A. straight B. breathtaking C. continual D. demanding
Question 21: His first-hand experience gives him a slight edge over the other applicants.
A. right B. advantage C. authority D. exception

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Try to find your opponent’s Achilles heel and take advantage of it in order to win.
A. skills B. durability C. strength D. weakness
Question 23: My boss is always getting at me, even when I’ve done nothing wrong!
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A. commending B. implying C. criticising D. encouraging

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: - Hira: “Do you have time? I want to tell you something.” - Joe: “__________”
A. Sorry, I don’t have it here. B. Sure, I’m busy at the moment.
C. Sure thing, I’m all ears. D. Of course I would, fire away.
Question 25: - Joseph: “__________” - Receptionist: “I’m sorry, but he’s not here right now.”
A. Can I come back later then?
B. In that case, can I leave a message?
C. Can you tell me where Dr. James went?
D. Is Dr. James available at the moment?

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
What is FOMO?
FOMO, or “fear of missing out,” is a real phenomenon that is becoming increasingly common
and can cause significant stress in your life. The fear of missing out (26) __________ to the feeling that
others are having more fun, living better lives, or experiencing better things than you are. It involves a
deep sense of envy and affects self-esteem (27) __________ is often exacerbated by social media sites
like Instagram and Facebook.
The idea that you might be missing out on a good time is not new. Since the advent of social
media, however, FOMO has become more obvious and has been studied more often. The biggest way in
(28) __________ social media has (29) __________ the FOMO phenomenon is by creating a situation
in which you are comparing your regular life to the highlights of others’ lives. You might see photos of
your friends or (30) ___________ people enjoying fun times without you, which may lead you to
believe that your life is not as good as it should be.

Question 26: A. refers B. mentions C. implies D. expresses


Question 27: A. so B. and C. but D. or
Question 28: A. where B. when C. which D. whom
Question 29: A. weakened B. declined C. worsened D. degraded
Question 30: A. another B. others C. the others D. other

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 31: The members in the yoga club are forbidden to take photographs during their practice in
the room. There is no exception whatsoever.
A. Under no circumstances are the members in the yoga club allowed to take photographs
during their practice in the room.
B. By no means were the members in the yoga club allowed to take photographs during their
practice in the room.
C. Never are the members in the yoga club banned from taking photographs during their practice
in the room.
D. On no occasion were the members in the yoga club banned from taking photographs during
their practice in the room.
Question 32: I am busy on Monday morning. But I will come to your house if it is absolutely
necessary.
A. I’d rather not come to your house even if needed as I am busy on Monday morning.
B. Despite the fact that I’m busy, I’ll come to your house, come what may.
C. If I am needed on Monday morning, I would come to your house even if I’m busy.
D. Although I am busy on Monday morning, I will come to your house if need be.
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to the sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 33: I decided not to go to the carnival yesterday and I really regret it.
A. I really wish I decided to go the carnival yesterday.
B. I’d rather I decided to go to the carnival yesterday.
C. Suppose I went to the carnival yesterday, I would regret it.
D. If only I had decided to go to the carnival yesterday.
Question 34: “Be careful not to touch that knife, you will get hurt”, said Hope.
A. Hope asked us not to touch that knife or we would die
B. Hope warned us not to touch that knife or we would die.
C. Hope advised us not to touch that knife unless we would die.
D. Hope begged us not to touch that knife or she would die.
Question 35: I think you should buy the red car, it is much more eco-friendly than the white one.
A. Should I be you, I will buy the red car as it is much more eco-friendly than the red one.
B. I suggest to buy the red car for it is far more eco-frendly than the white one.
C. I would’ve bought the red car if I were you, the white one is nowhere near as eco-friendly.
D. If I were you, I wouldn’t buy the white car as it is not nearly as eco-friendly as the red one.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 36: There is comprehension that there may be an adverse effect on the number of patients
treated
A. adverse B. number C. treated D. comprehension
Question 37: Jane visits Trang An Scenic complex with her family last summer.
A. summer B. her C. visits D. Scenic
Question 38: Vietnamese athletes are determined to defend her regional throne in athletics.
A. regional throne B. her C. determined D. Vietnamese

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions.
It’s being called the unnoticed apocalypse: The number of insects is declining rapidly and 41%
of bug species face extinction, scientists say. “If this massive decline continues, the ramifications are
enormous,” said Dave Goulson, a professor of biology at the University of Sussex in the UK and the
author of a new report on insect decline for the UK Wildlife Trusts. “Three quarters of our crops depend
on insect pollinators. Crops will begin to fail. We won’t have things like strawberries,” Dave stated.
Collapses in bug populations have been reported in Germany and in Puerto Rico. And a global
scientific review published earlier this year estimated that, on average, the number of insects is
declining by 2.5% each year, with more than 40% of insect species threatened with extinction. In North
America, the report said five bumblebee species have undergone massive declines in range and
abundance in the last 25 years, with one, Franklin’s bumblebee, going extinct. In Ohio, the butterfly
population has fallen by a third.
According to Goulson, habitat loss was the biggest culprit in declining insect populations
globally, but pesticide use in farming and climate change were also contributing. However, the report
says we can all act as first responders and take relatively simple steps to help reverse what it describes
as a “catastrophic decline in the abundance and diversity of insects” such as mowing your lawn less
frequently and allow part of it to flower and avoiding using pesticides as well as encouraging others to
do the same.
(Adapted from edition.cnn.com)
Question 39: What is the passage mainly about?
A. Steps you can take to make your garden more attractive to insects.
B. The importance of insects to the growing of crops around the world.
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C. The decrease in insect populations and what we can do to prevent it.
D. The main contributors to the extinction of insect species worldwide.
Question 40: The word “ramifications” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. impressions B. impacts C. dangers D. extinctions
Question 41: According to the passage, collapses in insect population __________.
A. are most severe in countries such as Germany and Puerto Rico.
B. will ultimately cause the disappearance of all crops except strawberries.
C. have been detected in many areas around the world.
D. are the reason why many species of bees have gone extinct in Ohio.
Question 42: All of the following are mentioned in the passage as causes of decreasing insect
populations EXCEPT __________.
A. Crop failure B. Climate change C. Habitat loss D. Use of pesticides
Question 43: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to ___________.
A. lawn B. report C. decline D. diversity

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Throwaway plastic has found its way into various aspects of our lives. As awareness of the
detrimental impacts that plastic can have on the environment has exploded in recent years,
environmentally friendly alternatives are becoming increasingly common.
Biodegradable plastics are one set of materials that are becoming a popular replacement as
consumers demand green alternatives. Rather than remaining stable for hundreds of years,
biodegradable plastics can be broken down by microbes in the air, chewed up and turned into biomass,
water and carbon dioxide. A smaller group of them are compostable, which means that not only are they
broken down by microbes, but they can also be turned into compost. Most biodegradable and
compostable plastics are made from plants rather than fossil fuels and depending on the application you
need them for, there are plenty to choose from.
The biggest potential area of impact for compostable plastics is in food service. From coffee
cups to sandwich packaging to takeaway containers, putting food in compostable plastics means that the
plastic and any food waste still stuck to it can be composted together. It’s a double win: reducing the
amount of plastic being sent to landfill and at the same time making sure food waste is returned to the
soil, not left to rot in landfill where it will release methane. By reducing the amount of traditional
plastics that contaminate food waste, we can at least ensure that some of that wasted food is eventually
used as compost, rather than ending up in landfill or incineration.
There are some other applications suited to biodegradables, too. Traditionally, farmers in Europe
have used sheets made from polyethylene mulch over crops to prevent weeds growing and to conserve
water, with around half of this plastic ending up in landfill after it’s used. But since 2018, a new
European biodegradability standard for these mulches means that farmers can buy plastic that they can
plough back into the field safe in the knowledge that it will break down and not harm the soil. Industry,
too, is beginning to use bio-lubricants used to keep machines running smoothly rather than fossil fuel-
based ones. Progress made by countries like Italy – where single-use bags for produce and baked goods
must be compostable, and can be recycled as part of widespread food waste collections – shows that
solutions to some of our plastic problems are indeed possible.
(Adapted from bbc.co.uk)
Question 44: The word “exploded” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. soared B. ascended C. fluctuated D. diminished
Question 45: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. People have found uses for biodegradable materials in fields other than agriculture.
B. Before 2018, European farmers were banned from ploughing plastic back into fields.
C. Italy is the first country where single-use bags for baked goods must be compostable.
D. Compared with fossil fuel-based lubricants, bio-lubricants are not as effective.
Question 46: The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to ___________.
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A. plants B. plastics C. fossil fuels D. microbes
Question 47: Which of the following is TRUE, according to paragraph 2?
A. Biodegradable plastic is good for the environment but has few applications.
B. Most types of biodegradable plastic are considered compostable. .
C. Water is one product of the degradation process of biodegradable plastic.
D. Compostable plastics cannot be broken down by microbes in the air.
Question 48: The word “release” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. publicize B. reveal C. emit D. free
Question 49: According to paragraph 3, all of the following are benefits of using compostable plastic in
food service EXCEPT __________.
A. Less plastic and food waste will be sent to landfills to rot.
B. Plastic and food waste can be composted simultaneously.
C. Food waste will relase less methane into the atmosphere.
D. Traditional plastics will no longer contaminate food waste.
Question 50: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?
A. Biodegradable plastics are much more effective and common than throwaway plastics.
B. All biodegradable plastics are made from plants, which makes them compostable.
C. Wasted food will release methane if they are put in traditional plastic bags.
D. All polyethylene mulches used by farmers in Europe must now be biodegradable.

MOCK TEST 27

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

Question 1: A. educated B. acquainted C. knowledgeable D. experienced


Question 2: A. what B. that C. this
D. which
Question 3: A. but B. so C. and D. or
Question 4: A. vastly B. completely C. highly D. extremely
Question 5: A. assigned B. contributed C. dedicated D. appointed

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 6. A. wine B. cinema C. diner D. ninth
Question 7. A. divisible B. design C. disease D. excursion

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 8. A. meaningful B. suitable C. attentive D. courteous
Question 9. A. detect B. conclude C. instruct D. contact

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 10.The experiment _________ by the scientist yielded unexpected results.
A. conducts B. conducting C. conducted D. is conducting
Question 11.He is_________about his work than his hobbies.
A. more serious B. serious C. the most serious D. seriouser
Question 12. Peter will wear this suit _________.
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A. when he attends his friend’s wedding B. once he attended his friend’s wedding
C. as he was attending his friend’s wedding D. after he had attended his friend’s
wedding
Question 13. Many workers are still unaware_________the importance of following safety procedures.
A. of B. about C. with D. in
Question 14. This room is very hot, _______?
A. wasn’t it B. is it C. isn’t it D. hasn’t it
Question 15:______number of boys were swimming in the lake, but I didn’t know the exact number of
them.
A. A B. The C. no article D. An
Question 16: Her explanation didn’t really add up, but I still gave her the __________ of the
doubt.
A. benefit B. profit C. interest D. advantage
Question 17. Peter was bitterly disappointed at the test result, but I think he’ll soon _______ it.
A. put through B. get over C. make up D. turn into
Question 18. In order to avoid having unexpected problems on the road, car owners are
advised________out regular maintenance on their vehicles.
A. carrying B. carry C. carried D. to carry
Question 19. Farms in the area have been closed off in an attempt to __________ the
disease.
A. detain B. retain C. contain D. sustain
Question 20. Katherine __________ an essay when someone knocked the door.
A. was writing B. has written C. writes D. is writing
Question 21. They ________ a big row about how to raise their child last night.
A. paid B. took C. gave D. had
Question 22: She hopes that the document ……….by a professional translator.
A. translated B. will be translated C. has translated D. was translating
Question 23. Nam is _______ at learning new information.
A. quickly B. quicken C. quick D. quickness
Question 24. Sadly, thier success was nothing more than a __________ in the pan.
A. spark B. glow C. flash D. burst

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 25. Jack and Linda are at the school gate.
- Jack: ‘Have a nice weekend!” - Linda: “_______”
A. You’re welcome. B. Never mind. C. Same to you! D. Here you are.
Question 26. Hung is inviting Lan to join the youth club.
- Hung: “Would you like to join our youth club?” - Lan: “_______”
A. Thanks a lot! B. My pleasure. C. Yes. I’d love to! D. No worries!

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined bold word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 27. Mitchell appeared at the door, asking me to lend him some money.
A. saw B. arrived C. knew D. smiled
Question 28. The addition of some features made these smartphones more appealing to consumers.
A. attractive B. boring C. modem D. old

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 29. The details of the celebrity’s death were finally revealed by her mother.
A. created B. renewed C. hid D. opened
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Question 30. His life hung in the balance when he had a massive stroke.
A. was certain B. worsened a lot C. was unsuccessful D. changed quickly

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 31. You’re not allowed to record the programme.
A. You shouldn’t record the programme. B. You mustn’t record the programme.
C. You can’t record the programme. D. You needn’t record the programme.
Question 32. He hasn’t changed his Facebook profile picture for 2 years.
A. He had 2 years to change his Facebook profile picture.
B. He has changed his Facebook profile picture for 2 years.
C. He didn’t change his Facebook profile picture 2 years ago .
D. The last time he changed his Facebook profile picture was 2 years ago.
Question 33. “I am attending an online class,” Martin said.
A. Martin said he had attended an online class.
B. Martin said he wasn’t attending an online class.
C. Martin said he was attending an online class.
D. Martin said he hadn’t attended an online class.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 34. Her uncle comes to visit her family last summer holiday.
A. comes B. visit C. family D. holiday
Question 35. Young children are advised to participate in community activities to improve his social
skills.
A. are advised B. in C. activities D. his
Question 36. The citizens were seething with contentment over the municipal authority’s recent
changes to the transport system.
A. seething B. contentment C. municipal D. changes

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 37: The car driver in front stopped so suddenly. Therefore, the accident happened.
A. If the car driver in front didn’t stop so suddenly, the accident wouldn’t happen.
B. If the car driver in front hadn’t stopped so suddenly, the accident wouldn’t have happened.
C. If the car driver in front hadn’t stopped so suddenly, the accident would have happened.
D. If the car driver in front had stopped suddenly, the accident would have happened.
Question 38: I had just arrived home. I was called immediately back to the head office 10 kilometers
away.
A. Hardly had I arrived home when I was called immediately back to the office 10 kilometers
away.
B. Because I had just arrived home, I was called immediately back to the office 10 kilometers
away.
C. Should I had just arrived home, I was called immediately back to the office 10 kilometers
away.
D. Whenever I had just arrived home, I was called immediately back to the office 10 kilometers
away.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.

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Think about this: the United Nations predicts that by 2050, the world’s population will reach 9.8
billion. As a result, global demand for food and feed is expected to increase by 70 per cent, putting
additional pressure on already overexploited agricultural resources. Meanwhile, nearly one billion
people worldwide are still suffering from food deprivation.
To meet the considerable challenge of ensuring food security for the future, it is imperative to
find alternative and sustainable sources of protein, both for human consumption and for animal feed,
and eating insects is one possible solution that is gradually receiving more and more attention from the
public.
For example, insects are already a natural source of food for pigs and poultry as well as many
fish species. In addition, insect larvae are generally high in protein and are rich in other beneficial
nutrients such as fats, minerals and vitamins. As a source of protein for direct human consumption,
insects offer several advantages over traditional sources of meat. They have a significantly higher feed
conversion rate than other livestock, which means they are more effective at converting the ingredients
used to feed them into nutrients.
In addition, insect production is more environmentally friendly than conventional livestock
production. Insects release much lower amounts of greenhouse gases and ammonia into the atmosphere
per kilogram of meat than cattle or pigs.
(Adapted from theconversation.com)
Question 39: What is the passage mainly about?
A. Sustainable sources of protein B. The health benefits of insects
C. The advantages that eating insects bring D. Why insect production is efficient
Question 40: The word “deprivation” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. emoval B. shortage C. challenge D. destruction
Question 41: The word “They” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. insects B. advantages C. sources D. nutrients
Question 42: Why is insect production more environmentally friendly than conventional livestock
production?
A. Because it takes a lot less ammonia to raise insects.
B. Because insects can absorb more greenhouse gases.
C. Because cattle or pigs cannot absorb gases like ammonia.
D. Because insects release less greenhouse gases into the air.
Question 43: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Sustainable protein sources must be found to ensure food security.
B. Eating insects is quickly gaining popularity among the public.
C. All insect larvae are rich in proteins, fats, minerals and vitamins.
D. Pigs relase more ammonia into the atmosphere than cattles do.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
For indigenous peoples in many northern regions of the world, livelihoods often depend on
access to frozen lakes in winter for hunting, fishing and travel. In countries like the US, Canada and
Russia, winter leisure activities such as skating or tobogganing on ice are also hugely popular. But as
the world gets warmer, winter ice is becoming less stable and in a recently published study, scientists
believe that it poses an increasing threat of accidental drowning.
Researchers looked at data, which was collated from official sources including coroner’s
offices, on 4,000 drowning events in 10 countries over three decades since the 1990s. They were then
able to compare these figures to records from lakes showing when ice formed and melted each winter.
What they found was that higher temperatures were a good predictor of the number of deaths by
drowning. “We can confidently say that there is a quite a strong correlation between warmer winter air
temperatures and more winter drownings,” said study leader Sapna Sharma, from York University in
Toronto, Canada. “Almost half of the winter drownings were associated with warmer temperatures.”

125
One of the saddest aspects of the study, however, was the fact that many of the victims were
very young. “They were playing on the ice, tobogganing or ice skating and they just weren’t able to
recognise when the ice was unsafe. They may not have recognised that slushy ice or a little open patch
of water could be so fatal.” Even when lake or river accidents were not deadly, they often had life-
changing impacts. In cold water accidents where children suffered cardiac arrest, about 90% of them
also experienced significant neurological damage, and only 27% were alive a year later.
Researchers say that despite efforts made by governments to educate the public on the dangers
of melting ice due to climate change, they expect that winter drowning events will likely increase in the
future. They are particularly worried about this winter, as people may be spending more time outdoors
due to the global COVID-19 pandemic.
“Everything is closed right now, and more people are spending time in nature and where they
might not have done so before,” explained Sapna Sharma. “This year, it’s forecast to be a warmer,
wetter winter, so in combination with more people going outside that could be that could be quite
dangerous.”
(Adapted from bbc.com)
Question 44: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Warmer Winters Associated With Increased Risk Of Drowning
B. Why Is Climate Change Making People Afraid Of Winter Activities?
C. Educating People About The Dangers Of Melting Ice: A Difficult Task
D. How A Warmer Climate With More Melting Ice Is Putting Children At Risk
Question 45: The word “collated” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. arranged B. summoned C. combined D. gathered
Question 46: According to paragraph 2, how did the researchers conduct their study?
A. They analysed data taken from coroner’s offices on drowning events.
B. They compared data on drownings to records of when ice formed and melted.
C. They looked at the formation and melting of ice in 10 countries over 30 years.
D. They examined 4,000 drownings in each of the 10 countries studied.
Question 47: The word “slushy” in paragraph 3 can be best replaced by ___________.
A. faulty B. unstable C. vulnerable D. damaged
Question 48: In paragraph 3, what do we learn about non-deadly water accidents involving
children?
A. In a small number of cases, they still had life-changing impacts on children.
B. The vast majority of these accidents led to children having cardiac arrest.
C. About 90% of children still suffered neurological damage in these accidents.
D. Over 70% of children who suffered cardiac arrest in these accidents died.
Question 49: The word “They” in paragraph 4 refers to ___________.
A. researchers B. efforts C. dangers D. events
Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Winter activities have recently gained more and more popularity in places like Canada.
B. The warmer the winter temperatures are, the more likely it is that more drownings will occur.
C. Parents should never allow their children to play on ice in order to prevent drownings.
D. People will start spending more time in nature even after the global COVID-19 pandemic.

MOCK TEST 28

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions.
Question 1: It is mandatory for you to learn how to swim.
A. You shouldn’t learn how to swim. B. You would learn how to swim.
C. You must learn how to swim. D. You needn’t learn how to swim.
Question 2: It is 10 years since I last spoke to her.
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A. I didn’t speak to her for 10 years. B. I haven’t spoken to her for 10 years.
C. I have spoken to her for 10 years. D. I spoke to her for 10 years.
Question 3: “How many peope are there in your family?” Linda asked Peter.
A. Linda asked Peter how many peope were there in his family.
B. Linda asked Peter how many peope there are in his family.
C. Linda asked Peter how many peope there were in his family.
D. Linda asked Peter how many peope are there in his family.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Using Robots In Healthcare
Although it sounds like science fiction, robots have been used to (4) __________ a wide variety
of medical purposes over the years. In many hospitals, disinfection robots work hard 24 hours a day –
within the (5) ___________ of 10 minutes, these machines can destroy 99.9% of all microorganisms in
the hospital room.
Robots have also helped doctors (6) __________ have to perform complex surgeries on a
regular basis, allowing them to make incisions with greater precision. (7) __________, success rates
have improved significantly and patients have also enjoyed faster recovery times.
In the future, we may also see the widespread use of (8) __________ medical robot types like
assistance robots, which can provide information, respond to simple questions and even enable remote
communication between doctors, nurses, and patients.
Question 4: A. attain B. perform C. fulfill D. complete
Question 5: A. zone B. gap C. room D. space
Question 6: A. when B. which C. who D. where
Question 7: A. Therefore B. By contrast C. Moreover D. Similarly
Question 8: A. every B. all C. other D. another

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three
in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 9: A. canal B. survival C. mental D. cultural
Question 10: A. graduate B. mandatory C. explode D. persuade

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 11: A. conserve B. achieve C. employ D. waver
Question 12: A. volunteer B. vocation C. attendance D. importance

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
During our time as students, we will have many classes to attend, assignments to complete, and
exams to prepare. All these activities will require self-discipline to complete. Therefore, developing the
ability to be self-disciplined will be important to get things done in school and life.
When we want to build our self-discipline, we should first identify the distractions in our life. A
common example is the smartphone: we may be caught up in messaging our friends or surfing the
Internet non-stop. If this is true for you, the best advice is to put your phone away or, if you are not
comfortable with this, at least turn it off when you are working or studying. Similarly, figure out what
things often distract you and find practical ways to eliminate them.
You should also know your own specific needs, such as a tendency to become hungry at a
specific time of the day, since this knowledge will help you build self-discipline if you can make use of
it. For example, if you feel most energized in the afternoon each day, then it might be best to schedule
your most challenging task at that time. That means you will require less mental energy to work on it
and will be less likely to lose your focus.
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Building and maintaining self-discipline is linked to your motivation, so you will want to keep
your motivation level high. To help you do this, try treat yourself to something, such as a break or a
snack upon completing a task. This will be a small boost that energizes and recharge your mind. While
it is a small effect, doing so frequently over time can accumulate the amount of motivation that leads to
better self-discipline.
(Adapted from edugage.com)
Question 13: What is the passage mainly about?
A. Ways to build self-discipline when studying
B. Why self-discipline is essential for students
C. How motivation and self-discipline are connected
D. Eliminating distractions to develop self-discipline
Question 14: In paragraph 2, which of the following is mentioned about the smartphone as a
distraction?
A. It is the most common distraction among students.
B. The more friends we have, the more it distracts us.
C. We should only use it when we need it for working.
D. Turning it off is the best way to prevent distraction.
Question 15: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to ___________.
A. tendency B. time C. knowledge D. self-discipline
Question 16: Which of the following is NOT TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Knowing your needs can help you boost self-discipline.
B. Hard tasks should be dealt with when you feel energised.
C. Taking breaks before a task helps you recharge your mind.
D. Giving yourself a treat is a good way to maintain motivation.
Question 17: The word “accumulate” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. quickly build B. gradually gain C. suddenly achieve D. steadily collect

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 18. The 13 rings of the spire symbolizes the 13 steps of the ladder__________to Nirvana.
A. to lead B. led C. leading D. which led
Question 19. I think that she sings ______ than other contestants.
A. more beautiful B. the more beautiful C. the most beautiful D. more beautifully
Question 20. More tourists will visit this site _______ .
A. as its construction was completed B. once its construction is completed
C. after its construction had been completed D. until its constructions was completed
Question 21: It is predicted that over the next few decades many species will ______ as once fertile
areas turn to desert.
A. give off B. die out C. give up D. go after
Question 22. Here’s _______ present he gave me last Sunday.
A. an B. a C. the D. ∅
Question 23. No one believed her stories, _______ ?
A. didn’t they B. haven’t they C. did they D. have they
Question 24. You can form strong _______ when you work with people who share a mutual interest.
A. connections B. elements C. attitudes D. consumers
Question 25: Just mold and shape that piece of clay __________ will! No need to worry about whether
you’re doing it correctly or not!
A. at B. on C. in D. to
Question 26. John and Karen persuaded me________ the conference.
A. attending B. attended C. to attend D. to have attended
Question 27. He desperately tried to open the elevator door but to no __________.
A. use B. avail C. success D. end
Question 28. I was surfing the Internet while my classmates ________ to each other.
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A. have chatted B. are chatting C. will chat D. were chatting
Question 29. Don’t spend so much time playing video games, Harry! Give _________ to other
activities!
A. priority B. way C. privilege D. liking
Question 30. Trang An Scenic Landscape Complex _______ as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in
2014.
A. was recognized B. recognized C. recognizes D. has recognised
Question 31. My sister is a woman of____age.
A. marriage B. married C. marrying D. marriageable
Question 32. For beginners, listening and understanding French is quite a __________ order.
A. tall B. great C. high D. big

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 33: Nam: “What do you personally do to keep fit?” - Lan: “ __________.”
A. I think keeping fit is necessary for everyone.
B. As far as I know, more and more people exercise to keep fit.
C. Fitness centres are mushrooming.
D. I just do morning exercise and maintain a balanced diet.
Question 34: Jane is talking to Billy about the meeting.
- Jane: “Is everybody happy with the decision?”. - Billy: “______”.
A. That sounds like fun. B. Yes, it is certainly.
C. No, have you? D. Not really.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 35. Given the economic crisis, many small and medium-sized enterprises didn't have enough
budget to expand.
A. help B. open C. grow D. restrict
Question 36. Man used to be breadwinners in our country, but now women go to work and many of
them make a bundle.
A. earn little money B. have a few coins
C. have a lot of money D. earn a lot of cash

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 37. American children customarily go trick-or-treating on Halloween.
A. inevitably B. happily C. traditionally D. readily
Question 38. In cities, two of the most pressing problems facing the world today also come together:
poverty and environmental degradation.
A. development B. growth C. deprivation D. progression

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
If you’ve been feeling stressed or even mentally unstable over the past few months, the lack of
sleep can be partly responsible. According to a new research paper, sleep deprivation dampens our
enthusiasm about positive events, and makes it harder to feel hopeful when we’re under stress.
In this 2020 study, researchers surveyed nearly 2,000 adults in the United States. For eight days,
participants received a phone call each evening in which they were asked to report how much they had
slept the night before, whether they had experienced any stressful or positive events, and their overall
levels of positive and negative emotions.

129
When participants got more sleep, they had higher levels of positive emotions and lower levels
of negative emotions the next day. Moreover, sleep impacted how the events of the day affected them.
On days when participants had a stressful event, they felt more positive if they had got a good night’s
sleep beforehand. And, on days when good things happened, participants experienced an even greater
boost in positive emotions if they were well-rested the night before. These benefits were even more
pronounced for people who had a greater number of chronic health conditions, such as high blood
pressure or diabetes.
According to Nancy Sin, assistant professor at the University of British Columbia and lead
author of the paper, aside from its well-known negative effects on mental health, sleep deprivation can
impact our relationships with others in our social circle. First, the irritability that results from it can
harm relationships directly, which might be a reason to delay serious conversations until a day when
you’re more well-rested. Furthermore, because positive emotions play a crucial role in building strong
relationships, not experiencing as many positive emotions when you lack sleep could make it harder to
cultivate a sense of closeness with others.
The good news is that simple changes can help us improve and enjoy the emotional benefits of
sleep. Things like keeping a regular sleep schedule, exercising, and limiting unnecessary light and noise
in your bedroom can all lead to better sleep. One major advice Sin offers is to limit screen time before
bed – research suggests that electronics can emit blue light that interferes with sleep – and consider
switching to a more relaxing activity like reading or listening to calming music. For those who live with
family or roommates, Sin emphasizes that the behaviours of those we live with can disrupt our sleep.
Therefore, consider, for example, making a pact with household members to limit screen time, and
holding each other accountable.
(Adapted from inc.com)
Question 39: Which best serves as the title for this passage?
A. Tips To Stop Lack Of Sleep From Ruining Your Mental Health
B. Your Sleep Tonight Can Change How Good You Feel Tomorrow
C. A Good Night’s Sleep: The Key To Building Great Relationships
D. New Study Links Good Sleep With Long-Term Health Benefits
Question 40: According to paragraphs 2 and 3, which of the following is TRUE about the study?
A. Researchers studied 2,000 adults in the United States for more than a week via phone calls.
B. Throughout the day, participants had to report on their mental state and amount of sleep.
C. Participants experienced better mood in a day when they had slept more the night before.
D. When well-rested, people got the same boost in good feelings no matter what event happens.
Question 41: The word “pronounced” in paragraph 3 can be best replaced by ___________.
A. distinctive B. remarkable C. abnormal D. unthinkable
Question 42: The word “it” in paragraph 4 refers to __________.
A. lead author B. mental health C. sleep deprivation D. social circle
Question 43: The word “cultivate” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. affirm B. harvest C. receive D. nurture
Question 44: Which of the following is NOT TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Being sleep-deprived can damage our relationships both directly and indirectly.
B. When you have not been sleeping well, it might be a bad idea to have serious talks.
C. Electronics should be used for relaxing activities such as reading when bedtime comes.
D. Household members can agree on and implement measures that help enhance sleep quality.
Question 45: Which of the following can most likely be inferred from the passage?
A. People who do not sleep enough are generally not as good at socialising as others.
B. Developing a strong relationship requires positive emotions more than anything else.
C. In order to improve sleep, it is absolutely essential that you apply a variety of changes.
D. Trying to raise the quantity and quality of sleep is, in some cases, not an individual effort.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
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Question 46. I have decided that I will look for another job.
A. have decided B. will look C. for D. another job
Question 47. They are having her house painted by a construction company.
A. having B. her C. painted D. contruction
Question 48: The Raleigh International Bike Ride is open to anyone that wants to raise money for a
good reason.
A. the B. to C. raise D. reason

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 49. Trang has some work to do tonight. She can’t eat out with her family.
A. If Trang had some work to do tonight, she couldn’t eat out with her family.
B. If only Trang hadn’t had some work to do tonight, she could have eaten out with her family.
C. Supposing that Trang doesn’t have some work to do tonight, she can eat out with her family.
D. If Trang didn’t have some work to do tonight, she could eat out with her family.
Question 50. Alice registered for the course. She then received the scholarship.
A. Hardly had Alice registered for the course when she received the scholarship.
B. Only after Alice registered for the course, she received the scholarship.
C. Having received the scholarship, Alice registered for the course.
D. Registering for the course helped Alice receive the scholarship.

MOCK TEST 29
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. visit B. present C. business D. mistake
Question 2: A. authentic B. through C. tablecloth D. although

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which differs from the other
three in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. surprise B. surgeon C. explore D. predict
Question 4: A. activity B. eliminate C. invitation D. impossible

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: Most people accept the proposition that we have a duty to protect _________ animals.
A. dangerous B. endangered C. dangerously D. endanger
Question 6: Carol’s father works as ______ electrician.
A. an B. Ø (no article) C. the D. a
Question 7: I thought you said she was going away the next Sunday, _________?
A. didn’t I B. didn’t you C. wasn’t it D. wasn’t she
Question 8: The theory_________ by Albert Einstein is still widely accepted.
A. proposed B. proposes C. was proposed D. proposing
Question 9: The coffee at this cafe is ______ than the coffee at the one down the street.
A. as delicious B. delicious more C. most delicious D. more delicious
Question 10: All the time she has been nagging __________ me with question, not helping me.
A. in B. up C. at D. on
Question 11: Your _________ to this university will depend on marks you score in the entrance
examination.
A. admission B. attendance C. permission D. admittance
Question 12: The documents ______ to the government agency when the secretary finishes copying
them.
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A. will have submitted B. will be submitted
C. have submitted D. will submit
Question 13: When I entered the room, my daughter ______ the Internet.
A. has surfed B. was surfing C. is surfing D. surfed
Question 14: I will contact you ______.
A. as soon as I get the information about the course
B. as soon as I was getting the information about the course
C. as soon as I had got the information about the course
D. as soon as I got the information about the course
Question 15: The company will fail ______ if it doesn’t adapt to market changes.
A. to succeeding B. to succeed C. succeeding D. succeed
Question 16: Henry is thinking of ______ golf but the equipment is too expensive.
A. turning up B. running up C. looking up D. taking up
Question 17: During their first date, Jane had nervously peppered the conversation with _________
talk.
A. unimportant B. tiny C. small D. trivial
Question 18: He said there was nothing that happened, but I began to ______ when he kept beating
about the bush.
A. get cold feet B. smell a rat C. keep an eye on D. be off my head
Question 19: Zachary has long been considered a dead __________ of the volleyball team, only
allowed to stay because he was the coach’s son.
A. loss B. knot C. link D. waste

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: We need to look into exactly why a number of football fans become hooligans.
A. overlook B. examine C. consider D. consult
Question 21: He felt that moving out from his parents’ home was a milestone in his life.
A. real marker B. touchstone C. significant event D. landmark

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Human prehistory is divided into three successive periods: the Stone Age, the Bronze
Age and the Iron Age.
A. scattered B. continuous C. inconsecutive D. infrequent
Question 23: He was in the very seventh heaven when the girl consented to be his wife.
A. utterly discontented B. extremely depressed
C. amazing dreamy D. very imaginative

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: - Aaron: “I forgot my girlfriend’s birthday last night.” - Jason: “__________”
A. You really carry a torch for her B. Too bad! I guess you will be in the doghouse
C. You should go back on your word D. Tell her something to cut the ice
Question 25: - Saleman: “This is my last wallet. I’ll let you have it for seventy dollars”
- Elizabeth: “__________”
A. Would you do me a favor? B. Seventy dollars of it is mine.
C. Thanks for your help D. Can I have a discount?

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.

132
Technology has become a fantastic and useful tool in the classroom. Teachers are expected to
make (26) _______ of it to enhance the learning experience and information dissemination. However,
knowledge of the different tools available, what they can do, and their impact allows teachers to use
them (27) ________. With numerous technology users actively involved in developing gadgets of the
future, we can only speculate what new advances will be making their way (28) _________ classrooms
in the coming days.
Following the evolution of technology, educational capabilities are changing and growing daily.
The Internet is a vast library of data that is useful in (29) ________ the landscape of education as we
know it. All in all, technology alone will not change education. Good grades and practical knowledge
are as important as ever. Technology in education is therefore simply a catalyst, a tool for conveying
lessons (30) __________ effectiveness cannot be overlooked.
(Adapted from https://www.usetechnology.com)
Question 26: A. use B. benefit C. value D. advantage
Question 27: A. freely B. optimally C. absolutely D. exclusively
Question 28: A. in B. at C. for D. into
Question 29: A. rolling in B. shaping up C. showing up D. passing on
Question 30: A. which B. that C. whose D. why

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 31: I didn’t know much about computer programming. Therefore, I didn’t study computer
science in university.
A. Had I known more about computer programming, I would have studied computer science in
university.
B. Not knowing much about computer programming, I wouldn’t study computer science in
university.
C. I would study computer science in university if I knew more about computer programming.
D. I wish I knew more about computer programming to study computer science in university.
Question 32: Peter must be tired. He has been studying since the morning.
A. Peter must be tired because he has been studying since the morning.
B. Tired though Peter was, he has been studying since the morning.
C. Despite being tired, Peter was still studying from the morning.
D. Since Peter hasn’t studied the morning, he mustn’t be tired now.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to the sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 33: “Why don’t you take extra classes in English if you want to have a scholarship?” said my
friend.
A. My friend suggested I take extra classes in English If I wanted to have a scholarship.
B. My friend advised me to take extra classes in English only if I wanted to have a scholarship.
C. My friend recommended me to take extra classes in English If I wanted to have a scholarship.
D. My friend asked why I didn’t take extra classes in English If I wanted to have a scholarship.
Question 34: Although the homework was difficult, I tried my best to complete it.
A. Difficult as the homework was, I tried my best to complete it.
B. Despite the homework was difficult, I completed it.
C. I have completed the difficult homework because I tried my best.
D. As though the homework was difficult, I tried my best to complete it.
Question 35: There is no point in phoning Jennifer as she always turns the phone off at night.
A. It would be a waste of time phoning Jennifer at night because she always turns the phone off
then.
B. You waste your time if you insist on phoning Jennifer at night as she has turned the phone
off.
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C. It’s worth trying to phone Jennifer although she usually turns the phone off.
D. Jennifer wouldn’t answer the phone because it was turned off at night.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 36: Many parents are concerned about the health hazards of having his children spend so
many hours staring at a screen.
A. staring B. his C. concerned D. hazards
Question 37: As soon as I will finish this project, I’ll take a vacation to relax.
A. As soon as B. take C. will finish D. to relax
Question 38: After Peter left school, he had the narrowest escape possible of intruding himself into
another place of accommodation for distinguishable people.
A. narrowest B. accommodation C. possible D. distinguishable

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
At the beach and on the boardwalk, seagulls have a bad reputation for swooping down on
unsuspecting people to steal their food. But scientists recently discovered there’s a simple solution to
deter these avian thieves: Stare at them.
“I noticed that gulls seemed to have a bad reputation for food-snatching, but only saw it happen
quite rarely,” said lead study author Madeleine Goumas, a researcher with the Center for Ecology and
Conservation at the University of Exeter’s Penryn Campus in Cornwall, U.K. “When I did see it
happen, gulls often swooped in from behind, and the people were completely oblivious.”
Prior studies had shown that some animal species change their behavior in response to the
human gaze, and the study authors wondered if that also might be true for the gulls. The scientists
approached 74 herring gulls in coastal towns in Cornwall, tempting them with bags of fried potatoes.
Whenever a gull showed interest in the food bag, a researcher would either ignore or stare at it intently.
Both trials would continue until the bird either pecked at the food bag or 300 seconds elapsed with no
approach. “By far, the biggest challenge was gulls being scared off by people or their dogs, as we were
conducting these experiments in urban areas that weren’t free of passersby,” Goumas said.
During the tests in which the researchers looked away, all of the gulls touched the food. On the
other hand, the majority of gulls took, on average, about 21 seconds longer to touch the food if they
were being stared at, and six of the watched gulls wouldn’t tap at the food at all, the researchers
reported. But there was also a lot of variation in the gulls’ responses when being watched; some
approached more slowly than others, while others appeared not to notice the researchers’ stares.
Overall, the gulls’ behavior suggested that they would be more likely to stay away from food if humans
were close to the birds, the authors wrote.
(Adapted from nbcnews.com)
Question 39: What is the passage mainly about?
A. Seagull’s bad reputation B. A misconception about seagulls
C. A research into seagulls’ behaviour D. Interesting ways to deter seagulls
Question 40: According to the last paragraph, how do most seagulls respond when being watched by
researchers?
A. approach the food more slowly B. ignore the bag and fly away
C. touch the food immediately D. stare back at the researchers
Question 41: The word “oblivious” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. annoyed B. disturbed C. unaware D. forgetful
Question 42: What did Goumas say was the biggest difficulty when conducting the research?
A. Seagulls were very hard to notice. B. Most seagulls ignored the food bag.
C. People scared the seagulls away. D. The researchers’ dogs were too aggressive.
Question 43: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to ___________.
A. researcher B. food bag C. interest D. gull
134
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Although experts agree that traditional meetings are essential for making certain decisions and
developing strategy, many employees view them as one of the most unnecessary parts of the workday.
The result is not only hundreds of billions of wasted dollars, but the worsening of what psychologists
call “meeting recovery syndrome”: time spent cooling off and regaining focus after a useless meeting.
It isn’t anything novel that workers feel fatigued after a meeting, but only in recent decades have
scientists deemed the condition worthy of further investigation. Meeting recovery syndrome (MRS) is
most easily understood as a slow replenishment of our limited mental resources. When an employee sits
through an ineffective meeting their brain power is essentially being drained away, says Joseph A.
Allen, a professor at the University of Utah. If they last too long, fail to engage employees or turn into
lectures with little to no personal interactions, meetings will significantly diminish employees’
psychological stamina. Taking time to recover is a must, but doing so comes at the expense of
productivity.
As humans, when we transition from one task to another – such as from sitting in a meeting to
doing normal work – it takes an effortful cognitive switch. We must make a big mental effort to stop the
previous task and then expend significant mental energy to move on to the other. Some can bounce
back from horrible meetings rather quickly, while others carry their fatigue until the end of the
workday. It’s even worse when a worker has several meetings that are separated by only 30 minutes.
While no counter-MRS measures have been tested, Allen says one trick that might work is for
employees to identify things or locations that quickly change their mood from negative to positive. As
simple as it sounds, finding a personal happy place, going there and then coming straight back to work
might be the key to reducing recovery time. Another solution is to ask ourselves if our meetings are
even necessary in the first place. If all that’s on the agenda is a quick catch-up, or some non-urgent
information sharing, it may better for managers to send an e-mail to his or her subordinates instead.
Most important, however, is for organisations to awaken to the concept of meetings being flexible, says
Allen. We have to get rid of the acceptance of meetings as sites of pain, when they should be places of
gain,” Allen says.
(Adapted from bbc.com)
Question 44: The word “novel” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. thunderous B. groundbreaking C. hammering D. magnificent
Question 45: What can be inferred from the passage?
A. More interactive meetings are less mentally exhausting.
B. Experts consider meetings a complete waste of money.
C. Switching between tasks is very physically demanding.
D. Companies should only communicate using e-mails.
Question 46: What does Joseph A. Allen suggest employees do to quickly regain mental stamina?
A. Have meetings that are seperated by 30 minutes
B. Try to interact more with others in the meeting
C. Go somewhere that makes them feel better.
D. Think of meetings as a happy place.
Question 47: The word “bounce back” in paragraph 4 can be best replaced by ___________.
A. encourage B. upgrade C. recover D. develop
Question 48: In which case should managers only send e-mails to their employees?
A. When a meeting is too costly to organize.
B. When no urgent information needs to be communicated.
C. When their employees are too exhausted to join meetings.
D. When a meeting is necessary but too time-consuming.
Question 49: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to by ___________.
A. employees B. lectures C. interactions D. meetings
Question 50: Which of the following best serves as a title for the passage?
135
A. Employees’ Negative Attitude Towards Meetings
B. A Workplace Disease And How We Can Stop It
C. The Reason Why Meetings Make Us Feel Tired
D. How To Make Meetings More Interactive

MOCK TEST 30
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. candy B. sandy C. many D. handy
Question 2: A. wrap B. wreath C. write D. want

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which differs from the other
three in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. argue B. conceal C. discard D. release
Question 4: A. mineral B. delicate C. odorless D. organic

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: Although my village is not far away from the city center, we have had no __________ until
recently.
A. electric B. electricity C. electrical D. electrify
Question 6: By the time I return to my country, I _________ away from home for more than three
years.
A. will be B. was C. has been D. will have been
Question 7: The company ______ by a larger corporation, is now a subsidiary.
A. acquired B. was acquired C. acquiring D. acquires
Question 8: Reading a book is ______ than playing a video game.
A. as educational B. most educational
C. the most educational D. more educational
Question 9: The move to a different environment brought about a significant _________ in my cousin’s
state of mind.
A. influence B. effect C. change D. impact
Question 10: ________ in 2000, his novel was the best-seller at that time.
A. Writing B. Written C. Being written D. To be written
Question 11: They have __________ a lot of extensive research into renewable energy sources.
A. carried B. made C. solved D. do
Question 12: “All work and no play makes Jack a dull boy”, as the old _________ goes.
A. speech B. proverb C. saying D. motto
Question 13: The weather was perfect when we _________ but it was raining when we got back.
A. brought out B. got on C. turned up D. set off
Question 14: The Government has brought _________a new law in an effort to prevent further
environment deterioration.
A. in B. about C. up D. on
Question 15: Connie! Give me __________ knife you’re holding immediately! It is extremely
dangerous to play with __________ sharp objects.
A. the / a B. an/ Ø C. the /Ø D. a/ the
Question 16: I think I hear someone _________ the back windows. Do you hear it, too?
A. trying open B. tried opening C. try opened D. trying to open
Question 17: We didn’t arrange to meet. It was __________ coincidence that I saw him.
A. clear B. clean C. great D. pure
136
Question 18: When I entered the room, my daughter ______ the Internet.
A. has surfed B. was surfing C. is surfing D. surfed
Question 19: They should give up trying to argue with the boss on that subject. They’re beating a dead
______.
A. sheep B. horse C. buffalo D. cow

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: You don’t love someone for their looks, or their clothes or for their fancy car, but because
they sing a song only you can hear.
A. expensive B. funny C. new D. private
Question 21: The first time I met my friend’s parents, I was walking on eggshells because I knew their
political views were very different from mine.
A. had a lot of pleasure B. was talking nervously
C. had to be very cautious D. was given many eggs

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: We have rather lofty expectations for you, son. You will attend college and be successful.
You will become rich and famous before you turn forty.
A. high B. shaky C. small D. humble
Question 23. We need to build up people’s awareness about the environment.
A. decrease B. raise C. stabilize D. fluctuate

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: - Mai: “Why don’t you come with us to the Harvest Festival next week?”
- Tom: “_______________!”
A. Yes, that’s right B. What a boring
C. Oh, I doubt it D. Sounds great
Question 25: - Boss: “Have you been able to reach that customer?” - Secretary: “_____________”
A. Oh, no. The line’s busy. B. Yes, I have known him for 6 years.
C. It’s much too high to reach D. Oh, there’s no approval.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
The Language Of The Skies
Back in the early days of aviation, it did not matter whether you speak English or not while
piloting a plane. (26) ___________, as the skies become more crowded all around the world, people
started to (27) __________ recognise the importance of communication – pilots in the air as well as air
traffic controllers needed to clearly understand one another to prevent tragic accidents.
In 1951, the International Civil Aviation Organization recommended English as the exclusive
language for (28) ___________ radio communications in the airline industry. On one level, having one
common language made things much more convenient. On another level, it (29) __________ the
widespread usage of the ICAO phonetic alphabet (alpha, bravo, charlie, etc.) and universal
understanding of emergency terms, (30) __________ include “Mayday” and “Pan-Pan”.
(Adapted from simpleflying.com)
Question 26: A. However B. As a result C. Similarly D. In addition
Question 27: A. perfectly B. strongly C. totally D. fully
Question 28: A. every B. some C. all D. other
Question 29: A. enlarged B. upgraded C. promoted D. hardened
Question 30: A. that B. which C. when D. who
137
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 31: In South Korea, the national government built English immersion schools all over the
country so far.
A. built B. immersion C. South Korea D. over
Question 32: On April 15, the Health Ministry of Viet Nam issued vaccine passports that the
general public can use to travel in line with their schedule.
A. On B. their C. issued D. general
Question 33: The current restructuring of the advisable service provides a timely opportunity to
address some of these issues
A. address B. current C. advisable D. opportunity

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to the sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 34: It’s obligatory for teachers to change their teaching methods.
A. Teachers should change their teaching methods.
B. Teachers must change their teaching methods.
C. Teachers may change their teaching methods.
D. Teachers need to change their teaching methods.
Question 35: “What are you studying for your exam?” asked my mom.
A. My mom asked me what I was studying for her exam.
B. My mom asked me what was I studying for my exam.
C. My mom asked me what I was studying for my exam.
D. My mom asked me what I had been studying for my exam.
Question 36: Ms. Hoa started working as a career consultant ten years ago.
A. Ms Hoa last worked as a career consultant for ten years.
B. Ms. Hoa has been working as a career consultant for ten years.
C. Ms. Hoa hasn’t worked as a career consultant for ten years.
D. Ms. Hoa didn’t work as a career consultant for ten years.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Altruism is a type of behavior in which an animal sacrifices its own interest for that of another
animal or group of animals. Altruism is the opposite of selfishness; individuals performing altruistic
acts gain nothing for themselves.
Examples of altruism abound, both among humans and among other mammals. Unselfish acts
among humans range from the sharing of food with strangers to the donation of body organs to family
members, and even to strangers. Such acts are altruistic in that they benefit another, yet provide little
reward to the one performing the act.
In fact, many species of animals appear willing to sacrifice food, or even their life, to assist other
members of their group. The meerkat, which is a mammal that dwells in burrows in grassland areas of
Africa, is often cited as an example. In groups of meerkats, an individual acts as a sentinel, standing
guard and looking out for predators while the others hunt for food or eat food they have obtained. If the
sentinel meerkat sees a predator such as a hawk approaching the group, it gives an alarm cry alerting the
other meerkats to run and seek shelter. By standing guard, the sentinel meerkat gains nothing—it goes
without food while the others eat, and it places itself in grave danger. After it issues an alarm, it has to
flee alone, which might make it more at risk to a predator, since animals in groups are often able to
work together to fend off a predator. So the altruistic sentinel behavior helps ensure the survival of other
members of the meerkat’s group.

138
Question 37: What is the passage mainly about?
A. A type of behavior among humans and animals
B. A means of communication among humans being
C. A special manner that is exclusive to human beings
D. A common need that both humans and animals share
Question 38: “Altruism” is defined as _________.
A. a personal interest B. the opposite to selfishness
C. an animal sacrificed D. an act for nothing gained
Question 39: Which of the following will NOT be considered that of altruism among human beings?
A. sharing of food with strangers
B. the donation of body organs to family members
C. the donation of body organs to strangers
D. working hard to earn a decent living
Question 40: The word “sentinel” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. safety B. security C. watchman D. guard
Question 41: The word “others” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. predators B. meerkats C. members D. animals

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
About the time that schools and others quite reasonably became interested in seeing to it that all
children, whatever their background, were fairly treated, intelligence testing became unpopular.
Some thought it was unfair to minority children. Through the past few decades such testing has
gone out of fashion and many communities have indeed forbidden it.
However, paradoxically, just recently a group of black parents filed a lawsuit in California
claiming that the state’s ban on IQ testing discriminates against their children by denying them the
opportunity to take the test . They believed correctly, that IQ tests are a valid method of evaluating
children for special education classes. The judge, therefore, reversed, at least partially, his original
decision.
And so the argument goes on and on. Does it benefit or harm children from minority groups to
have their intelligence tested? We have always been on the side of permitting, even facilitating, such
testing. If a child of any color or group is doing poorly in school it seems to us very important to know
whether it is because he or she is of low intelligence, or whether some other factor is the cause.
What school and family can do to improve poor performance is influenced by its cause. It is not
discriminative to evaluate either a child’s physical condition or his intellectual level.
Unfortunately, intellectual level seems to be a sensitive subject, and what the law allows us to do
varies from time to time. The same fluctuation back and forth occurs in areas other than intelligence.
Thirty years or so ago, for instance, white families were encouraged to adopt black children. It was
considered discriminative not to do so.
Then the style changed and this cross-racial adopting became generally unpopular, and social
agencies felt that black children should go to black families only. It is hard to say what the best
procedures are. But surely good will on the part of all of us is needed.
As to intelligence, in our opinion, the more we know about any child’s intellectual level, the
better for the child in question.

Question 42. Why did the intelligence test become unpopular in the past few decades?
A. Its validity was challenged by many communities.
B. It was considered discriminative against minority children.
C. It met with strong opposition from the majority of black parents.
D. It deprived the black children of their rights to a good education.
Question 43. The recent legal action taken by some black parents in California aimed to__________
A. raw public attention to IQ testing B. put an end to special education
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C. remove the state’s ban on intelligence tests D. have their children enter white schools
Question 44. The word “valid” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. virtually denied B. officially accepted
C. partially reasonable D. mostly impossible
Question 45. It is believed that intelligence testing_____________.
A. may ease racial confrontation in the United States
B. can encourage black children to keep up with white children
C. may seriously aggravate racial discrimination in the United States
D. can help black parents make decisions about their children’s education
Question 46. The word “it” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to _________
A. poor performance B. physical condition C. school D. family
Question 47. The word “varies” in the paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to .
A. remains B. changes C. worsens D. improves
Question 48. Child adoption is mentioned in the passage to show that_________________.
A. good will may sometimes complicate racial problems
B. social surroundings are vital to the healthy growth of children
C. intelligence testing also applies to non-academic areas
D. American opinion can shift when it comes to sensitive issues

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: I had just arrived home. I was called immediately back to the head office nearly 10
kilometers away.
A. Hardly had I arrived home when I was called immediately back to the head office nearly 10
kilometers away.
B. Because I had just arrived home, I was called immediately back to the head office nearly 10
kilometers away.
C. Should I had just arrived home, I was called immediately back to the head office nearly 10
kilometers away.
D. Whenever I had just arrived home, I was called immediately back to the head office nearly 10
kilometers away.
Question 50. The office is closed. We can’t get any work done today.
A. Provided that the office is open, we can’t get any work done today.
B. If the office were open, we could get some work done today.
C. If the office were open, we wouldn’t be able to get any work done today.
D. If the office is not closed, we can get some work done today.

MOCK TEST 31

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. tea B. leather C. leave D. lead
Question 2: A. cat B. hat C. man D. cake

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. correct B. provide C. produce D. finish
Question 4: A. beautiful B. creative C. national D. politic

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: You knew his name and his address, ______?
A. haven’t you B. didn’t you C. wasn’t you D. aren’t you
Question 6: The staff ______by the company to watch a safety video every year.
A. are required B. require C. are requiring D. required
Question 7: The ILO is sending a clear message that they must take responsibility _____ providing a
safe and healthy working environment for all workers.
A. for B. in C. with D. by
Question 8: ______ you plan, the better the result will be.
A. The most carefully B. The carefully C. The more carefully D. Carefully
Question 9: She came into the room while they ______ television.
A. watched B. have watched C. are watching D. were watching
Question 10: I saw _____ interesting documentary on TV last night.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø (no article)
Question 11: The recipe __________ by the chef is a closely guarded secret and has made them
famous.
A. creates B. creating C. created D. is creating
Question 12: More than 100 students were treated in hospital of Manila, due to dehydration after taking
part in a fire drill ________________ between 39C and 42C.
A. while temperatures has been B. when temperatures was
C. as soon as temperatures were D. when temperatures were
Question 13: She hopes ___________ a good grade on the exam.
A. get B. to get C. getting D. got
Question 14: Everyone helped during the flood sent many ______ to a charity group.
A. thanks B. thankful C. thankfully D. thanking
Question 15: The child really ________his father even the smallest actions.
A. takes after B. looks after C. goes off D. sits for
Question 16: My sister tried her best and successfully ________ a place at university.
A. had B. won C. attained D. achieved
Question 17: Truyen Kieu is ____ unique work containing 3,254 verses which are divided
into hundreds of short poems.
A. no article B. an C. a D. the
Question 18: The new general educational ________ aims to reduce pressure on students.
A. course B. period C. lesson D. curriculum
Question 19: You’re falling short on class attendance and you failed to submit the last assignment.
You’re walking on thin _______in this semester.
A. ice B. eggshells C. air D. sky

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s)or phrase(s)CLOSEST
in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 20: Animals are being rapidly eliminated by man’s ever-increasing encroachment.
A. terrified B. destroyed C. attacked D. approached
Question 21: It is a well-known fact that caffeine is a stimulant. So, don’t drink too much.
A. horrible B. relaxing C. famous D. comfortable

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s)in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Adding a garage will enhance the value of the house.
A. stabilize B. alter C. reduce D. increase
Question 23: I can say for sure that your father will hit the roof if he finds out that you have broken his
watch.
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A. destroy the house B. get angry C. repair the roof D. become happy

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: Mike is going to New York to study next week.
- Linda: “Have a nice trip!” - Mike: “______”
A. Thanks. I will call you when I arrive in New York. B. Don’t mention it.
C. Sorry, I can’t call you later. D. What a pity.
Question 25: Tim and David are talking about family life.
- Tim: “From my point of view, all family members should share the chores equally.” - David:
“______”
A. It’s a breath taking view. B. You lied to me.
C. But you’re right. D. There’s no doubt about it.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Global Warming and You
How is global warming affecting you? Many people in the world would not know how to
answer this question as they do not see any sort of change in climate. The people ___(26)____ do not
notice it tend to live in cities where the climates are already controlled; in essence, they mostly live
indoors. If it is raining, they stay inside. If it is too cold or too hot, they turn on the heat or their air
conditioning ___(27)___.
For farmers and others who live closer to the land; ____(28)___, global warming is not
something they are separated from. Although they cannot prove on any given day that the weather,
extreme or mild, has anything to do with climate change, they can say over time that things are
beginning to seem different. They notice that flowers and ___(29)___ plants are blooming earlier in
northern regions of the world’s continents. This ___(30)___ them to change planting times for crops in
some cases. Meanwhile, farmers are facing more floods and droughts in our country and elsewhere.

Question 26: A. when B. who C. where D. which


Question 27: A. respectively B. relatively C. independently D. successively
Question 28: A. therefore B. moreover C. however D. because
Question 29: A. every B. other C. another D. one
Question 30: A. does B. makes C. causes D. takes

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 31: When we were in Canada, we play basketball almost every day.
A. When B. in C. play D. almost
Question 32: If Jane calls, ask for their number so I can call her back.
A. calls B. their C. so D. back
Question 33: The selling manager is an absolutely unforgetful man with a nice smile and attractive
white teeth always on his face.
A. selling manager B. an C. unforgetful D. always

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 34: The last time she had a swim was five years ago.
A. She had had a swim five years ago. B. She has had a swim for five years.
C. She hasn’t had a swim for five years. D. She was having a swim five years ago.
Question 35: "Don’t cross the road there" she said to the children.
A. She allowed the children not to cross the road there.
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B. She threatened the children not to cross the road there.
C. She warned the children not to cross the road there.
D. She advised the children to cross the road there.
Question 36: You are not permitted to use your mobile phone during the test.
A. You should use your mobile phones during the test.
B. You may use your mobile phone during the test.
C. You mustn’t your use mobile phones during the test.
D. You needn’t your use mobile phones during the test.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 37: My laptop is broken. I need it for my online learning.
A. If my laptop is not broken, I could use it for my online learning.
B. In case my laptop was not broken, I could use it for my online learning.
C. If only my laptop had not been broken, I could have used it for my online learning.
D. I wish my laptop were not broken, I could use it for my online learning.
Question 38.Peter arrived at the fashion show. He then realized that he had left the ticket at home.
A. Not until Peter arrived at the fashion show did he realize that he had left the ticket at home.
B. Having realized that he had left the ticket at home, Peter arrived at the fashion show
C. Had Peter realized that he had left the ticket at home, he wouldn’t arrive at the fashion show.
D. Only after Peter realized that she had left the ticket at home did he arrive at the fashion show.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
The hours we spend scrolling through our smartphones appear to be changing the shape of our
skulls. This may be the reason why some people — especially the younger crowd — are developing a
weird, bony spike just above their necks. This spike, known as an external occipital protuberance,
appears at the lower end of the skull, and is sometimes so large, you can feel it by pressing your fingers
on the base of your skull.
A study published in the Journal of Anatomy found that the spike was becoming more frequent
— especially among 18 to 30-year-olds. David Shahar, the Australian health scientists who conducted
the research, believes the development was triggered by prolonged use of smartphones or tablets. As
people tilt their head forward to look at the screen, they put pressure on where the neck muscles meet
the skull, so the body then develops more bone layers to be able to withstand it, said Shahar.
In the study, Shahar and a colleague looked at the radiographs of 218 young patients, aged 18 to
30, to determine how many had these spikes. In all, 41% of the group had an enlarged spike and 10%
had an especially large spike measuring at least 0.7 inches (20 mm), the doctors found. In general,
enlarged spikes were more common in males than in females. The largest spike belonged to a man,
sticking out at 1.4 inches (35.7 mm).
Shahar believes that the spikes will continue to grow in size as people keep hunching over their
handheld devices, but adds that they should not be very harmful and rarely cause serious medical issues.
“But if you are experiencing discomfort, maybe you should try improving your posture,” he said.
(Adapted from breakingnewsenglish.com)
Question 39: What is the passage mainly about?
A. A spike in the brain that can be extremely harmful.
B. Serious medical issues caused by using smartphones.
C. A change in our skull shape due to smartphone use.
D. How to avoid discomfort when using smartphones.
Question 40: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about the results of David
Shahar’s study?
A. The spike is more common in women than men.
B. The spike can grow to a size of more than 30mm.
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C. The spike is the result of using smartphones and tablets.
D. The spike is becoming increasingly common.
Question 41: The word “triggered” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. developed B. fired C. encouraged D. caused
Question 42: According to Shahar, the spikes __________.
A. will shrink in the future B. are very dangerous
C. are generally harmless D. usually lead to illness
Question 43: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ___________.
A. skull B. pressure C. screen D. head

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Like many emergency responders, Nicholas Groom is used to stress at work. “I’ve always
considered us a bit of a weird group because we voluntarily go into situations that other people run
away from,” says 29-year-old Groom. On one hand, the stress can be helpful. “I find that when
attending a serious incident, it helps me to maintain focus on the situation.” On the other hand, the work
can be highly pressurised. “Too much stress can impair your ability to make decisions,” Groom adds.
And Groom is not alone in his complicated relationship with stress.
Many people believe that that there should be a balanced amount of stress. In other words, not
too much stress so you’re not overwhelmed but not too little stress so you don’t feel unmotivated. After
all, some anxiety is motivating; think of the adrenaline before a deadline or the excitement before a
competition. Sports fans sometimes even talk about a “gene” in some athletes who seem to play best in
the decisive final moments of a match. Furthermore, many psychologists claim that performance in
many situations increases with stress up to a point. Of course, any stress can cause harm when it’s
prolonged. To take just one example, a long-term high heart rate is linked to cardiovascular diseases.
And additional stressors, such as financial pressures or psychiatric issues, clearly affect how
beneficially someone can respond to stress.
So is there a way to harness stress to your advantage while being mindful of its detrimental
long-term effects? One key factor is to avoid, whenever possible, the point when stress leads to mental
and physical collapse. Crystal Wernicke, 30, has always used stress as a motivator. But juggling
between parenting, a full-time job, a voluntary role and financial troubles at the same time became too
much and eventually led to a two-month period of illness. Another factor is the presence of control. For
those who feel powerless over their situation, stress is unlikely to be beneficial. Studies show that
uncontrolled stress limits the functions managed by the prefrontal cortex - the part of the brain that is
responsible for working memory, which affects reasoning and decision-making. But with some
autonomy over stressful tasks, we are better able to convert that pressure into higher performance.
When it comes to stress and how it affects your performance, it’s helpful to recognise the
variations in personality, type of stress and task that affect the level of pressure you are under, as well as
understanding tools you can use to control and harness that stress. Ultimately, it’s not helpful to take a
one-sided view, either demonising or glorifying stress. As James C Quick, a management professor at
the University of Texas, sums up: “Stress can be the kiss of death as well as the spice of life.”
(Adapted from bbc.com)
Question 44: Which of the following best serves as a title for the passage?
A. Maintaning A Balanced Level Of Stress Can Be Helpful
B. Getting Rid Of Stress Completely Is The Key To Success
C. The Different Types Of Stress-Related Diseases
D. How Prolonged Stress Affects Your Mental Health
Question 45: The word “detrimental” in paragraph 3 can be best replaced by ___________.
A. difficult B. unfortunate C. damaging D. inconvenient
Question 46: Which of the following is NOT TRUE, according to paragraph 2?
A. Excitement before a competition can motivate people.
B. A stressor can have negative impacts if it exists for too long.
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C. Financial pressures can encourage us to work harder in life.
D. It is widely believed that a moderate level of stress is the best.
Question 47: The phrase “sums up” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to __________.
A. assumes B. concludes C. predicts D. proposes
Question 48: The word “it” in the first paragraph refers to ___________.
A. stress B. incident C. focus D. situation
Question 49: What can be inferred from the passage?
A. People consider emergency responders like Groom to be unusual.
B. Athletes always perform at their best towards the end of a match.
C. There is a limit beyond which stress is harmful for one’s mental health.
D. The more stressful the situation, the more powerless people feel when facing it.
Question 50: Why was Crystal Vernicke sick for two months?
A. She didn’t have the money to take care of her health.
B. She was stressed out about too many responsibilities.
C. She worked too hard for a very long period of time.
D. She spent time and effort on parenting instead of healthcare.

MOCK TEST 32

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word ( s ) in each of the following questions.
Question 1: As fears about COVID-19, France has warned its citizens to pause their famous cheek
kisses.
A. continue B. develop C. stop D. prevent
Question 2: Nam’s been walking with a spring in his step ever since he found out he was getting a
promotion.
A. a happy and excited mood B. a joyful and energetic mood
C. a worried and depressed moon D. a bad and sorrow mood

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 3: Toxic stress can have profound consequences, sometimes even spanning generations.
A. extensive B. sincere C. marginal D. slight
Question 4: Longevity genes have also been found in abundance in other organisms, including over 70
in particular worms.
A. plenty B. scarcity C. obscurity D. power

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 5: Marry is talking to Linda over the phone.
Mary: “Thank you for helping me prepare for the party.” - Linda: “_____________”
A. My pleasure B. The meal was out of this world
C. Never mention me D. Of course not
Question 6: Peter is talking to Tim in their classroom.
Peter: “_____________” - Tim: “I won’t say no!”
A. How are things with you, Tim?
B. What about playing badminton this afternoon?
C. Tim, do you know where the scissors are?
D. What’s your favorite drink, tea or coffee?

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions .
Question 7: “I am going to Brighton tomorrow.”, said he.
A. He said he was going to Brighton tomorrow.
B. He said he was going to Brighton next day.
C. He said he was going to Brighton the following day.
D. He said he is going to Brighton the day after.
Question 8: I haven’t stayed in a hotel for years.
A. It’s years since I stayed in a hotel. B. It’s years when I stayed in a hotel.
C. It’s years since I stay in a hotel. D. I haven’t stayed in a hotel years ago.
Question 9: It’s time for us to leave for the disco.
A. We may leave for the disco now. B. We needn’t leave for the disco now.
C. We should leave for the disco now. D. We must have leave for the disco now

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
We live in an age of unbelievable technological progress, things don’t seem to have changed
much in some areas of our everyday lives, and transportation is a(n) (10) ___________ example of this,
Even in 2020, roads are still lined with vehicles even though we have dreamed about flying cars ever
since the 20th century.
Dreams never die, however, and the fantasy of futuristic transportation is still alive right now, as
exemplified by (11) __________ is known as the Hyperloop. This concept was proposed by the
billionaire Elon Musk, CEO of the aerospace firm SpaceX.
Musk’s Hyperloop consists of two massive tubes extending from San Francisco to Los Angeles.
Pods carrying passengers would travel through these tubes at speeds that can (12) __________ 700 mph
(1127km/h). The tubes would house a low pressure environment, surrounding the pod with a cushion of
air that permits the pod to move safely at (13) __________ high speeds, like a puck gliding over an air
hockey table. The Hyperloop tubes would also have solar panels installed on the roof, which would
make (14) __________ a clean and self-powering system.
(Adapted from digitaltrends.com)
Question 10: A. total B. faultless C. absolute D. perfect
Question 11: A. what B. which C. whom D. who
Question 12: A. make B. reach C. touch D. gain
Question 13: A. so B. too C. such D. that
Question 14: A. out B. for C. over D. into

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 15: People _________ abuse or household dysfunction as children were more likely to have
serious health problems.
A. experience B. experiencing C. experienced D. to experience
Question 16: The current generation of Cambodian football players is receiving ______ investment in
training and competing conditions to date.
A. the bigger B. bigger C. biggest D. the biggest
Question 17: He ___________ his guitar when his friend arrived.
A. played B. plays C. was playing D. has
Question 18: Toxic chemicals in air, water and land have also driven many species ______the verge of
extinction.
A. of B. about C. at D. to
Question 19: Our bodies are built to respond when under attack, ______?
A. aren’t I B. aren’t they C. do they D. don’t they

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Question 20: Ha Long Bay is also ______ to a large fish-farming industry with 20,600 fish-ponds and
9,600 fish cages.
A. house B. ground C. home D. place
Question 21: ______ man suffering from shock should not be given anything to drink.
A. the B. an C. Ø D. a
Question 22: My father is very talented and kind-hearted. I always _______ him.
A. look for B. look like C. look after D. look up to
Question 23: Japan is considering _______ the areas in which skilled foreign workers can receive long-
term work visas.
A. expanding B. to expand C. to expanding D. expand
Question 24: Foreign tourists had started _________ their belts amid the global economic slowdown.
A. collecting B. tightening C. pushing D. holding
Question 25: I will call you and we will go out for dinner _______.
A. as soon as I have finished my report B. when I finished my report
C. after I had finished my report D. while I was finishing my report
Question 26: In June 2022, the International Labor Organization _____ a historic step when it added a
safe and healthy working environment to its Fundamental Principles and Rights at Work.
A. created B. got C. made D. took
Question 27: Around 50 people __________ for “illegal trading and transport of narcotics” now.
A. are investigated B. are being investigated
C. have been being investigated D. have been investigated
Question 28: Before the pandemic, Da Nang and Nha Trang used to be heavily _______ on Chinese
tourists.
A. dependable B. depend C. independent D. dependent
Question 29: In fact, some 2.9 million women and men around the world _______ to work-related
accidents or diseases every year.
A. response B. resort C. succumb D. secure

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Just getting out of a tough relationship and looking for a distraction? This new travel app called
Breakup Tours might be for you. Developed by a Hong Kong-based company, it offers experiences and
services aimed at people who are dealing with heartbreak. Stephen Chung, co-founder of the company,
says the app was inspired by the belief that traveling is the best way to get over heartbreak. “Like
changes, relationship breakups are hard,” he says. “When you stick to your routine, you become very
aware of the things missing in your routine. Traveling allows you to break away and forget about that
loss as well as giving you new perspectives.”
Tours include a three-hour visit to temples to pray to the Chinese Love Gods , a trip to a
Kintsugi (pottery repair) workshop in Tokyo where participants learn about the Japanese philosophy of
wabi-sabi - to “embrace the flawed, imperfect, yet wonderful things in life,” and even a visit to a gun
shooting workshop in Chiang Mai. Additionally, clients are given a “Break-Up First-Aid Kit”, which
includes a therapeutic writing exercise the company co-created with a psychology professor at the
Chinese University of Hong Kong, before their trip.
Breakup Tours also has a function called “Circles of Travelers,” which allows users to find
others who have booked the same tour and connect with them. But Chung affirms that it’s not a dating
app. “We don’t want to be a match-making service and we don’t think you should jump right into
another relationship, so if you want to be alone, you can turn on the “invisible” button so other users
cannot find you. Another lesson we learned from our participants: Don’t pack too much on a trip. Plan
only 30% of your trip and allow 70% of your trip to be alone and do nothing.”, says Chung.
For now, the start-up company is targeting Hong Kong travelers, but anyone with the app can
book the experiences (prices are listed in HKD). Chung adds that they aim to expand services to
travelers from Taiwan and Thailand next year.
147
(Adapted from edition.cnn.com)
Question 30: What is the passage mainly about?
A. Special tours in Asia B. A unique travel app.
C. Tourist destinations for the heartbroken. D. Writing exercises to forget about
breakups.
Question 31: Which of the following is NOT true about the app Breakup Tours?
A. It is based on the belief that traveling can help people get over break-ups.
B. It offers users a varitety of unique tours around Asia.
C. Its services will be expanded in the near future.
D. It is currently only available for Hong Kong travelers.
Question 32: The word “affirms” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. state B. assumes C. imagines D. suppposes
Question 33: The function “Circles of Travelers” enables users to __________.
A. connect with all the other users on the app.
B. establish a new romantic relationship with other users.
C. find other users who are on the same tour.
D. find users who have turned on the “invisible” button.
Question 34: The word “it” in the first paragraph refers to ___________.
A. distraction B. travel app C. company D. relationship

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 35: You can learn a lot about American history. Make sure you visit the exhibition tomorrow.
A. You can learn a lot about American history if you visit the exhibition tomorrow.
B. You can’t learn a lot about American history in case you visit the exhibition tomorrow.
C. You can’t learn a lot about American history provided you visit the exhibition tomorrow.
D. You can learn a lot about American history unless you visit the exhibition tomorrow.
Question 36: The rainy weather has had considerable benefits for organic vegetables. The local people
have started to export them to other countries.
A. Only if the rainy weather had considerable benefits for organic vegetables would the local
people start to export them to other countries.
B. Only after the local people have started to export oganic vegetables to other countries did the
rainy weather have benefits.
C. So beneficial is the rainy weather that the local people have started to export organic
vegetables to other countries.
D. If it were not for benefits of the rainy weather, the local people would have started to export
organic vegetables to other countries.

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 37: A. honor B. harbor C. honey D. heavy
Question 38: A. capable B. ancient C. angle D. danger

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 39: A. broaden B. enter C. travel D. absorb
Question 40: A. inflation B. maximum C. applicant D. character

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Many factors affect how you relate to colleagues like the different personalities in the office or
the kind of boss you have. However, if you find yourself struggling to accept negative feedback,
148
avoiding asking others for help or fearing failure – there could be another less obvious source to your
problems. The nature of your parents’ relationship, and especially whether they solved problems
amicably and constructively or resorted to conflict, could have shaped your way of relating to others.
Attachment theory, first proposed by the British psychologist John Bowlby in the middle of the
last century, proposes that our relationships – especially with our parents – shape how we relate to
others through life, known as our attachment style. Generally, people have either ‘secure attachment’,
meaning they are confident in their worth and have great trust in others; ‘anxious attachment’, in which
they have low self-esteem and fear rejection and neglect by others; or ‘avoidant attachment’, which
means they too have low self-esteem and low trust in others, but cope by avoiding getting too close to
others in the first place.
There are many contributing factors to the kind of attachment style we develop, including the
responsiveness of our parents, as well as our own personality. Also relevant, however, is our parents’
relationship with each other. For children, parents provide a model for how disagreements should be
resolved in close relationships, and research suggests this has consequences for children’s later
attachment style. For example, one study involving 157 couples found that those individuals whose
parents had divorced when they were children were more likely to have an insecure attachment style as
adults.
Your work behaviour can be affected by your attachment style in many ways. For instance, if
you are anxiously attached, you might be extra fearful of facing rejection for performing your tasks
poorly. These deep-rooted psychological processes also affect bosses – for example, those with a secure
attachment style are more inclined to delegate more important work to their employees. Your
attachment style is not unchangeable, though. Recent research has shown attachment styles evolve to
some extent through life in response to current circumstances. Being more aware of your tendencies in a
relationship and a variety of situations can enable you to take steps to improve them or turn them to
your advantage. Your ways of relating to others at work might have deep roots, but if psychology has
taught us one thing, it’s that learning and changing is possible through life.
(Adapted from bbc.com)
Question 41: Which of the following best serves as a title for the passage?
A. What You Can Do To Change Your Attachment Style In The Workplace
B. How Your Work Behaviour May Have Been Affected By Your Parents
C. The Influence Of Divorces On The Mentality Of Young Children
D. The Negative Mental Impacts Of An Insecure Attachment Styles
Question 42: Which of the following is NOT TRUE about attachment styles?
A. They can be divided into three common types.
B. They are the result of various factors.
C. They affect both bosses and employees.
D. They are changeable and not deep-rooted.
Question 43: The word “amicably” in paragraph 1 can be best replaced by ___________.
A. slightly B. secretly C. carefully D. peacefully
Question 44: The word “them” in the last paragraph refers to ___________.
A. circumstances B. tendencies C. situations D. styles
Question 45: The phrase “delegate” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to __________.
A. provide B. assign C. distribute D. share
Question 46: What can be inferred from the passage?
A. Your parents’ relationship is has the most significant effect on your work behaviour.
B. Children whose parents get along are more likely develop a secure attachment
style.
C. People’s type of attachment style is mostly determined by their own personality.
D. Those with ‘avoidant attachment’ generally have the lowest self-esteem and trust.
Question 47: In their relationship, parents can shape their children’s behaviour through ___________.
A. how much they believe each other B. how they accept negative feedback
C. how they resolve arguments D. how they teach their childen
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 48: Since he started primary school, he helped his mother prepare meals, do the washing up
and take care of his younger sister.
A. started B. helped C. meals D. take care
Question 49: Kate didn’t enjoy the roller coaster ride because it was the most terrifying experience of
their life.
A. enjoy B. coaster ride C. the most terrifying D. their life
Question 50: Kazakova’s performance made her the heroin of the Moscow Film Festival.
A. Kazakova’s B. made C. the heroin of D. Film Festival

MOCK TEST 33

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. scholar B. charity C. chemistry D. chaos
Question 2: A. intend B. compete C. medal D. defend

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. polite B. special C. easy D. useful
Question 4. A. dangerous B. mischievous C. supportive D. confident

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: _________, we will be able to leave for the airport.
A. Before the taxi arrived B. After the taxi had arrived
C. While the taxi was arriving D. As soon as the taxi arrives
Question 6: Playing basketball is _______ than playing badminton.
A. easier B. most easy C. the easiest D. more easy
Question 7: Vietnam is the ________ of ASEAN 2020 with the theme “Cohesive and Responsive”
A. Table B. Chair C. Sofa D. Scale
Question 8: My new apartment is different ______ my old one.
A. to B. from C. of D. about
Question 9: The weather is really bad today in your country, ______?
A. isn’t it B. wasn’t it C. doesn’t it D. didn’t it
Question 10: She needs __________ new phone because her old one was broken.
A. Ø (no article) B. an C. the D. a
Question 11: If you put your money in a bank now, you may get 8% _______ annually.
A. interest B. profit C. money D. income
Question 12: I could hear voices but I couldn’t ________ what they were saying.
A. bring about B. turn up C. try out D. make out
Question 13: John is planning ___________ to the gym after work today.
A. go B. to go C. going D. went
Question 14: This safe, ________ friendly city is like a paradise for its inhabitants who can enjoy the
highest quality of life.
A. environment B. environmental C. environmentally D. environmentalist
Question 15: Although he didn’t score a goal, Ronaldo still made a __________ contribution to the
game.
A. speaking B. talking C. telling D. saying
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Question 16: Think carefully before you speak. Say one wrong thing and you will __________ yourself
in trouble with the boss.
A. bring B. drive C. land D. hook
Question 17: The application form ________ to the university before May 31st.
A. must send B. must be sending C. sent D. must be sent
Question 18: The advertisement __________ by the marketing team was effective in promoting the
product.
A. creates B. creating C. created D. is creating
Question 19: Don’t you think you should buy a new computer? Your current one has definitely seen
better __________.
A. ages B. years C. times D. days

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: I’m sure that he did not ignore you by design, he has never been so impolite towards
anyone.
A. coincidentally B. unintentionally C. unexpectedly D. subconsciously
Question 21: With the number of COVID cases on the increase, the government is tightening up
lockdown rules.
A. dismissing B. lowering C. relaxing D. neglecting

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 22: I do not think it is sensible for us to spend so much money to buy this.
A. reasonable B. feasible C. attentive D. considerate
Question 23: Losing the first match in the tournament really deflated Jenny.
A. disquieted B. dissuaded C. disheartened D. discomposed

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 24: Mike and Laura are talking about their plan for the weekend.
Mike: “Why don’t we go out for a change at the weekend.” - Laura: “_______”
A. Come off it! B. That’s great! C. How come? D. I hate to differ
Question 25. Tracy and Roger have just finished their dinner in their local restaurant.
Tracy: “This restaurant is awful. “ - Roger: “_______. The food is stale and the waiters are impolite.
A. What a surprise B. That would be fun
C. I couldn’t agree more D. Yes, I don’t think so

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 26: The last time I went to the museum was a year ago.
A. I have not been to the museum for a year.
B. A year ago, I often went to the museum
C. My going to the museum lasted a year.
D. At last I went to the museum after a year.
Question 27. Tom said: “I have already had breakfast, so I can work for long hours. “
A. Tom refused to work for long hours. B. Tom agreed to work for long hours.
C. Tom was required to work for long hours. D. Tom was asked to work for long hours.
Question 28. Maybe my parents will shout at me when I come home late.
A. I must be shouted by my parents when I come home late.
B. I shouldn’t be shouted by my parents when I come home late.
C. I may be shouted by my parents when I come home late.
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D. I can’t be shouted by my parents when I come home late.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 29: I was relieved to find out that Simon had passed the entry exam and was admitted to his
dream university.
A. relieved B. had passed C. entry D. admitted
Question 30: Some say that the new policy could unintentionally inflict economic harm on African
countries while others say it will benefit.
A. could B. inflict C. others D. it
Question 31: When I was young, Maths is one of my most favourite subjects at school.
A. young B. is C. most D. subjects

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: My father wants to help me with the assignments. He doesn’t have time.
A. If my father had had time, he could help me with the assignments.
B. Provided my father has time, he cannot help me with the assignments.
C. My father wishes he had time so that he could help me with the assignments.
D. If only my father had time, he couldn’t help me with the assignments.
Question 33: She tested positive for Covid-19. She isolated herself to protect other people in her
community.
A. Had she tested positive for Covid-19, she would have isolated herself to protect other people
in her community.
B. Not only did she test positive for Covid-19 but she also isolated herself to protect other
people in her community.
C. Only when had she tested positive for Covid-19, she isolated herself to protect other people in
her community.
D. No sooner had she tested positive for Covid-19 than she isolated herself to protect other
people in her community.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
Diego Maradona
Diego Maradona is a famous Argentine football player (34) __________ is generally regarded as
the top footballer of the 1980s and one of the greatest of all time. Renowned for his amazing ability to
control the ball and (35) ___________ scoring opportunities for himself and his teammates, he led club
teams to championships in Argentina, Italy, and Spain, and he starred on the Argentine national team
that won the 1986 World Cup.
At the young age of 16, Maradona became the youngest Argentine ever to (36) __________ the
national football team. (37) __________ he was excluded from the 1978 World Cup-winning squad
because the head coach felt that he was still too young, the next year he led the national under-20 team
to a Junior World Cup championship. In the 1986 World Cup at Mexico, Maradona and his teammates
dominated their competitors and, in a 2–1 quarterfinal victory over England, he scored two of the most
memorable goals in World Cup history.
After his retirement, Maradona was named head coach of the Argentine national team and then
managed (38) __________ clubs until his tragic death on November 25th, 2020.
Question 34: A. when B. who C. which D. that
Question 35: A. create B. design C. produce D. invent
Question 36: A. reach B. make C. get D. hit
Question 37: A. Even if B. Provided C. Although D. Because
Question 38: A. the other B. all C. any D. other
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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Do you remember what you had for dinner two years ago today? Most of us won’t have a clue,
but a small number of people, including a California woman named Jill Price, can remember such
events in great detail. That’s because they all have a condition called highly superior autobiographical
memory (HSAM).
The type of memory associated with HSAM may be called autobiographical memory or eidetic
memory. People with this type of memory recall events, images, dates, even conversations, in extremely
clear detail. And they’re able to access these memories easily. When researchers studied Jill Price, for
instance, they asked her about events on specific days, and she almost always answered correctly. After
several years of research, they asked if she remembered dates of her appointments with them. Without
pausing, she listed all those dates correctly.
When you experience something, your brain stores it as a short-term memory. You probably
remember what you wore yesterday, but that memory will fade quickly. If the experience was
meaningful, it may be stored indefinitely as a long-term memory: many people, for example, will
clearly remember where and when they married even if this happened years ago. In people with HSAM,
short-term memories are processed in the normal way, but researchers have found that the accuracy and
details of these actually improve over time instead of going away.
To date, only around 100 people worldwide have been diagnosed with HSAM, and research on
it is growing as scientists hope to explore the ways our brain processes memory. This has the potential
of helping people with damaged memory, such as people who have amnesia or have had a brain injury.
(Adapted from healthline.com)

Question 39: What is the passage mainly about?


A. Current scientific research on memory B. A rare condition related to human
memory
C. Jill Price and her extraordinary memory D. Possible treatment for damaged memory
Question 40: According to paragraphs 1 and 2, what do we learn about Jill Price?
A. She is the only woman in the world who has HSAM.
B. She can accurately remember every event in her life.
C. For many years, researchers studied her condition.
D. It was found that she is best at remembering dates.
Question 41: The word “indefinitely” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. slightly B. permanently C. temporarily D. roughly
Question 42: The word “these” in paragraph 3 refers to ___________.
A. people B. memories C. researchers D. details
Question 43: Which of the following is NOT TRUE, according the passage?
A. Those who have eidetic memory can recall small details effortlessly.
B. People with HSAM process short-term memories like everyone else.
C. Only about 100 people around the world are known to have HSAM.
D. Scientists are using their knowledge about HSAM to treat amnesia.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
The global market for plant-based meat, a type of meat made from plants, is projected to
explode to 85 billion US dollars in 2030. Grocery stores are offering consumers an increasingly diverse
array of burgers, sausages, and seafood options that have no trace of animal products. But if you think a
diet of plant-based food is better for your health, you may want to look at the facts and seriously
contemplate your choice before reaching a decision.
According to one recent study, the nutritional benefit of plant-based foods is minimal.
Researchers from the Singapore Institute for Food and Biotechnology Innovation investigated the
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outcome of replacing bacon, chicken, beef burgers and ice cream with animal-free versions. What they
found was that diets which substituted animal products with the plant-based alternatives were below the
daily recommendations for essential nutrients vitamin B12, calcium, potassium, zinc and magnesium,
and higher in sodium, sugar and saturated fat, all of which can be harmful to your body in excessive
amounts.
Plant-based meat manufacturers argue their products contain similar amounts of protein that are
comparable in quality to animal protein. However, “foods contain hundreds to thousands of compounds
that are capable of impacting human health.”, says Stephan van Vliet at the Duke Molecular Physiology
Institute. In their own studies, Van Vliet and colleagues compared samples of different plant-based meat
alternatives with ground beef and found that 90 percent of them were different from each other. Plant-
based meat alternatives lacked certain essential amino acids and other substances like creatine, taurine
and anserine, which can all have an impact on our health and potentially brain function as well as
muscle function.
Interestingly, Van Vliet also discovered that other beneficial substances like polyphenols and
antioxidants were found in greater quantities or only in plant-based meats, which denotes a
complementary relationship between plant and animal-based foods in our diet, where some nutrients are
better obtained from animal sources and others from plants.
(Adapted from theconversation.com)
Question 44: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Be Careful! Plant-Based Doesn’t Always Mean Healthy
B. New Study Shows Major Flaw Of Plant-Based Diets
C. Why Mixed Diets Are Better Than Plant-Based Ones
D. Animal And Plant-Based Product: An Interesting Combo
Question 45: The word “contemplate” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. reverse B. regret C. renew D. revise
Question 46: According to paragraph 2, the study at the Singapore Institute for Food and
Biotechnology Innovation __________.
A. was one of the Institute’s many recent studies that focus on plant-based foods.
B. mostly examined the outcome of replacing bacon with its animal-free version.
C. demonstrated that a plant-based diet is actually not really nutritious.
D. found a dangerous amount of sodium and sugar in plant-based diets.
Question 47: The word “them” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. studies B. colleagues C. samples D. alternatives
Question 48: The word “denotes” in paragraph 4 can be best replaced by ___________.
A. announces B. indicates C. symbolizes D. realises
Question 49: Which of the following is NOT TRUE, according to the passage?
A. The global plant-based meat market is going to reach 85 billion dollars 2030.
B. Apart from protein, there are many compounds in food that affect our health.
C. Plant-based meat cannot provide some amino acids that we have to consume.
D. Traditional meats were found to have less antioxidants than plant-based ones.
Question 50: Which of the following can most likely be inferred from the passage?
A. Plant-based meat has become the most popular item in a large number of stores.
B. Manufacturers will soon be able to create healthier versions of plant-based products.
C. Only comparing animal and plant-based meats in terms of protein quality is not enough.
D. The best diets are those that consist mostly of animal products and some plant-based foods.

MOCK TEST 34

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 1: I last saw him when I was a student.
154
A. I haven’t seen him since I was a student.
B. I have seen him since I was a student.
C. The last time I saw him was since I have been a student
D. I haven’t seen him since I were a student.
Question 2. Miss White said to him, “ Why are you so late? Did your car have a flat fire?”
A. Miss White told him why was he so late and did your car have a flat fire
B. Miss White asked him why was he so late and did your car have a flat fire.
C. Miss White asked him why was he so late and if your car have a flat fire.
D. Miss White asked him why he was so late and whether his car had a flat fire.
Question 3. I don’t think she is English. She doesn’t speak English at all.
A. She shouldn’t be English because she doesn’t speak English at all.
B. She mustn’t be English because she doesn’t speak English at all.
C. She needn’t be English because she doesn’t speak English at all.
D. She can’t be English because she doesn’t speak English at all.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 4. We aren’t interested in this novel. Its plot is so complicated.
A. Because we aren’t interested in this novel, its plot is so complicated.
B. Provided the novel’s plot were complicated, we would be interested in it.
C. We would be interested in this novel but for its complicated plot.
D. Unless the novel’s plot is complicated, we won’t be interested in it.
Question 5. She immediately turned up. Everything changed.
A. As soon as everything changed, she turned up.
B. Upon appearing, everything changed.
C. Soon after she turned up did everything change.
D. No sooner had she appeared did everything change.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 6. A. thank B. thick C. that D. thing
Question 7. A. think B. pink C. finger D. blind

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 8: A. happy B. helpful C. secure D. rapid
Question 9: A. confident B. effective C. passionate D. musical

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 10: Kate wasn’t at the party last weekend, ______?
A. won’t she B. is she C. didn’t she D. was she
Question 11: The message ____ to her before she leaves.
A. will convey B. conveyed C. will be conveyed D. is conveying
Question 12: Da Nang and its neighbor Quang Nam are at risk ________ water shortages over the next
three months.
A. for B. of C. with D. in
Question 13: _____ sun is very hot in the summer.
A. An B. The C. A D. Ø (no article)
Question 14: It began to snow while we ______football.
A. were playing B. played C. have played D. play

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Question 15: Federico Dimarco has been forced _________ to AC Milan fans after he went too far with
his celebrations on Tuesday night.
A. to be apologized B. apologizing C. to apologize D. apologize
Question 16: He will go to the cinema with his friends ______.
A. as soon as he has finished his work B. when he was finishing his work
C. until he finished his work D. after he had finished his work
Question 17: The ________ of people to get involved has impressed the organizers of the event.
A. willing B. willingness C. willingly D. will.
Question 18: While Da Nang, Phu Quoc and Nha Trang are expected to be less overcrowded during the
long holiday break, a number of luxury resorts near Hanoi and HCMC __________.
A. were fully booked B. will be fully booked
C. had been fully booked D. are fully booked
Question 19: My father still hasn’t really ______ the death of my mother.
A. looked after B. taken after C. gone off D. got over
Question 20: The biggest fear is that humans might ______ control over robots.
A. gain B. keep C. lose D. take
Question 21: This flower is _______ than that one.
A. pretty B. prettier C. the prettiest D. more pretty
Question 22: The WHO has played a primary ____ in directing international health within the United
Nations’ system.
A. responsibility B. duty C. role D. aim
Question 23: I only recently joined the firm so I’m still finding my ______.
A. arms B. feet C. fingers D. legs
Question 24: She gave up nursing training when she found she had no________for looking after the
sick.
A. vocation B. mission C. ambition D. dream

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word ( s ) in each of the following questions.
Question 25: Footwear maker Pou Yuen Vietnam will lay off nearly 6,000 workers, or 10% of its
workforce, amid a decline in orders.
A. resign B. recruit C. dismiss D. assess
Question 26: Eurocharm will incorporate cutting-edge technology and provide advanced training to
employees.
A. modern B. outdated C. advanced D. ordinary

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 27: Many foreigners were enchanted by the beauty of Vietnam’s natural landscapes and
transformation in urban cities after watching the new Netflix film "A Tourist’s Guide to Love.”
A. fantastic B. popular C. surprised D. dissappointed
Question 28: The most effective prevention for toxic stress is to reduce the source of the stress.
A. avoidance B. assistance C. clearance D. ignorance

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 29. Trang is thanking Mai for visiting her.
- Trang: “Thank you very much for spending time with me.” - Mai: “________.”
A. It’s quite OK B. That’s right
C. I’d love to D. You’re welcome
Question 30. John is talking to Tom about the result of the driving test.
- John: “I’ve passed my driving test.” - Tom: “________”
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A. Congratulations! B. It’s nice of you to say so.
C. That’s a good idea. D. Good luck.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
Engineers are building machinery to harness the power of ocean waves. As an abundant source
of clean energy, wave power can be categorised along with (31) _______ sustainable energy sources,
such as wind and solar power.
Wave power is extracted by wave energy converters, or WECs, which are placed along ocean
(32) _______ that produce strong waves. The first wave farm, (33) _______ comprises three WECs,
was built off the coast of Portugal in 2008. It was set to produce over two megawatts of energy –
enough to power 2,000 homes. Sadly, the project hit a (34) _______ block two months into operation
and has remained offline ever since, demonstrating the high probability of technical difficulties that can
still arise.
Engineers are continuing to build wave farms worldwide, (35) _______ it is worth cultivating
the extraction of wave power. The amount of power that could potentially be extracted is three terawatts
– enough for billions of homes and businesses.
(Adapted from “Use of English for advanced”)
Question 31. A. other B. another C. every D. one
Question 32. A. floods B. streams C. currents D. brooks
Question 33. A. whom B. which C. why D. who
Question 34. A. stumbling B. stepping C. tripping D. rolling
Question 35. A. despite B. so C. as D. but

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 40.
With the spread of the corona virus getting worse and worse, many of us must be thinking about
how to socialise without having to go outside. While this situation is new to many of us, there are
thousands of people who are constantly make lasting and meaningful connections from their homes,
through the world of online gaming.
Almost all video games today have their own gaming communities where players can socialise,
and most gamers value these socialisation aspects of games very highly. They are among the main
motivations for playing, particularly when it comes to games that have large numbers of players who
interact and play with each other on the same big server, also known as “massively multiplayer online
games”.
Over the past three decades, gaming has become more and more social and many players have
developed good friendships with the people they meet with online. One surprising fact is that among
gamers, the gender gap is narrowing – 46% are female (average age 34 years) and 54% are male
(average age 32 years). Another significant finding is that 63% of gamers play with others and that
many players get social support from the gaming communities that they are in. In addition, other
research has shown that there appears to be no difference in the friendships between gamers and non-
gamers.
Gaming often gets bad publicity because most media coverage tends to concentrate on the
minority of gamers who play to such an extent that it compromises all other areas of their life (in other
wors, those who suffer from “gaming disorders”). However, we have to remember that millions of
gamers play every day and many do so for the many positives it brings. So, if you’re one of those
people staying under lockdown, going online and connecting with hundreds and thousands of people in
the gaming community might just be the perfect solution you’re looking for.
(Adapted from theconversation.com)
Question 36: Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Misconceptions That People Often Have About Online Gaming
B. How Gaming Can Help You Socialise From Your Own Home
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C. The Gender Difference In Many Online Multiplayer Games
D. What Gamers Value The Most When They Play With Others
Question 37: Why does gaming often get bad publicity?
A. Because the media only focuses on those with gaming disorders.
B. Because research has proved that playing games is very harmful.
C. Because few players actually play for the positives that it brings.
D. Because most gamers’ life are negatively affected when playing.
Chọn đáp án A – Kiến thức: Kĩ năng tìm và đọc thông tin
Question 38: The word “They” in paragraph 2 refers to ___________.
A. players B. communities C. games D. aspects
Question 39 All of the following are mentioned in the passage as research findings related to online
gaming EXCEPT __________.
A. Many players receive social support from gaming communities.
B. The gender gap between online gamers is surprisingly narrow.
C. Most players highly value the socialisation aspects of games.
D. The friendships between gamers and non-gamers seem similar.
Question 40: The word “compromises” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. hinders B. discredits C. injures D. contradicts

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 41 to 47.
As COVID-19 spreads around the world, many countries are entering periods of total lockdown,
with all but essential services closed and people ordered to stay inside. All this means bookshops are
rapidly closing. Yet, with people stuck at home and in need of distraction and escape, books suddenly
feel more vital than ever. This is exactly why booksellers are coming up with new ways to serve their
customers and communities.
Many bookshops are quickly moving to prioritising online ordering now that their physical store
is closed. On social media, movements like IndieBound are connecting readers to bookshops, and
showing people how they can support their local store, from ordering books online and buying gift cards
to signing up for newsletters and pre-ordering new releases. Meanwhile, other bookstores are changing
their delivery strategy. For example, many booksellers are getting an extra workout as they dash around
town on their bicycles. Digital book clubs and online writing courses are some of the avenues that are
also being explored to keep readers who are spending their time under lockdown entertained.
It’s not just adult readers affected by bookshop closures, but children too. As a result, bookstore
owner Kristen Proud, in an effort to keep children connected, have posted story-time videos to
YouTube. “After our first video was uploaded, we had an overwhelmingly positive response, with
many people in isolation contacting us with photos of their children enjoying it and people thanking us
for keeping some routine in their lives.”, said Proud. Her shop are also offering free delivery for an area
covering almost 1,750 km2.
“Bookshops have been swift to adapt to the obstacles of social distancing and self-isolation to
provide incredible services for their customers,” says Meryl Halls, managing director of the Booksellers
Association of the UK and Ireland. But she says it’s vital to remember that they still desperately need
the support of the public, the publishing industry and their governments to survive in these changing
and difficult times. When French bookstores closed after the government ordered the shut-down of all
non-essential businesses, publishers stepped in to help by delaying release dates and postponing
payment deadlines. In Beijing, where 80% of bookstores have been closed, booksellers have teamed up
with food delivery services to get books to readers.
(Adapted from aljazeera.com)
Question 41: Which best serves as the title for this passage?
A. Things Every Reader Can Do To Support Local Bookstores
B. Should Publishers Help Bookshops During The Global Pandemic?
C. The Devastating Effects of COVID-19 On Many Bookshops
158
D. What Are Bookshops Doing During The COVID-19 Pandemic?
Question 42: According to the passage, people can support their local bookstore by __________.
A. joining online courses B. ordering new books in advance
C. sending gift cards D. organising online book clubs
Question 43: The word “they” in the final paragraph refers to __________.
A. bookshops B. obstacles C. services D. customers
Question 44: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Many children likes to read books online rather than in bookshops.
B. Bookstores are now offering free delivery to attract more readers.
C. Governments are not trying hard enough to help bookstores survive.
D. Public support plays a significant role in keeping bookstores alive.
Question 45: The word “avenues” in paragraph 2 can be best replaced by ___________.
A. likelihoods B. possibilities C. capabilities D. expectations
Question 46: Which of the following is NOT TRUE?
A. Bookshops have coped with the difficulties of social distancing creatively.
B. With their creativity, bookshops will be able to survive easily on their own.
C. Publishers in France took steps to provide help to bookstores in the country.
D. Chinese booksellers are working with food delivery services to ship books.
Question 47: The word “overwhelmingly” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. forcefully B. shatteringly C. exceptionally D. uncontrollably

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 48: Some bacteria are extremely harmful, but others were regular used in producing foods.
A. extremely B. but C. were D. used
Question 49: The manager will be free soon—you can wait for it here.
A. will B. soon C. can D. it
Question 50: We will offer you a comprehensible training in all aspects of the business if you take this
course.
A. offer B. comprehensible C. aspects D. take

MOCK TEST 35

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. shame B. drank C. cable D. blaze
Question 2: A. think B. thank C. theater D. therefore

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. defend B. proceed C. decent D. expand
Question 4. A. initiate B. epidemic C. opponent D. enthusiast

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: The song __________ by the singer was a tribute to their late friend and touched many
hearts.
A. sung B. singing C. sings D. is singingt
Question 6: Vietnam suffered from ________ incidence of cyberattacks in Southeast Asia last year.
A. the three highest B. third the highest C. the third highest D. the highest third

159
Question 7: Singapore’s Bryce Chong _______ to his girlfriend on the beach after he had won the
duathlon bronze medal at the SEA Games 32.
A. proposes B. has proposed C. proposed D. had proposed
Question 8: He is fond ______ jazz music.
A. off B. with C. by D. of
Question 9: To preserve our traditional music “cai luong”, we need to expand it among younger
generations, ______?
A. don’t we B. do we C. need we D. needn’t we
Question 10: There is a lot that can be ________ in a handshake, a kiss, or a hug.
A. conveyed B. transferred C. transmitted D. concealed
Question 11: Vietnam lost 2-3 to Indonesia in ______ SEA Games 32 semifinals despite having more
men in the second half.
A. no article B. an C. a D. the
Question 12: Countries can’t develop if half the population are ____________ from fulfilling their full
potential.
A. put back B. held back C. turned down D. brought down
Question 13: Out of all the OECD countries, Turkey is reported ________ the most expensive
electricity, while Norway has the least expensive.
A. to be having B. to have C. having had D. having
Question 14: The book describes the ______ of events that led up to the assassination.
A. bus B. coach C. subway D. train
Question 15: The job offer ____ to the candidate soon.
A. will be extended B. will extend C. extended D. is extending
Question 16: Tens of thousands of people from around the world continued to queue across London on
Sunday to _____ their respects to Queen Elizabeth II.
A. pay B. make C. give D. bring
Question 17: The Indian python (Python molurus) ___________ as endangered in Vietnam.
A. have been restricted B. is classified C. is locating D. are located
Question 18: With no _______, Mai Nha Island in Phu Yen Province provides a simple kind of
“deserted island” experience where you can escape the crowds, relax and enjoy nature.
A. electricity B. electrics C. electrical D. electronic
Question 19: __________ drought has drained Tri An reservoir in the southern Dong Nai Province,
leaving its bed dry and cracked for the first time in 12 years.
A. Prolonged B. Expanded C. Widened D. Strengthened

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 20. Hoa is talking to Mai, her best friend, in the classroom.
Hoa: “Shall we go boating tomorrow?” - Mai: “______. The weather report says a storm is coming”.
A. I’m afraid we can’t B. Sure
C. That’s a good idea D. That’s a deal
Question 21. Sarah and Kathy are talking about bad habits of children.
Sarah: “Children under ten shouldn’t stay up late to play computer games.” - Kathy: “ .”
A. I don’t quite agree with you B. Yes, I share your opinion.
C. You are absolute right. D. Surely, they shouldn’

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 22. The last time I saw her was three years ago.
A. I have not seen her for three years.
B. About three years ago, I used to meet her.
C. I have often seen her for the last three years.
160
D. I saw her three years ago and will never meet her
Question 23. Our teacher asked us, ‘What are you most worried about?”
A. Our teacher asked us what I was most worried about
B. Our teacher asked us what were we most worried about
C. Our teacher asked us what we are most worried about
D. Our teacher asked us what we were most worried about
Question 24. I’m sure that they had practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals.
A. They couldn’t have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals.
B. They must have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals.
C. They shouldn’t have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals.
D. They might have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 25. Nam was so rude to them last night. Now he feels regretful.
A. Nam regrets to have been so rude to them last night.
B. Nam regrets having so rude to them last night.
C. Nam wishes he hadn’t been so rude to them last night.
D. Nam wishes he weren’t so rude to them last night.
Question 26: Smoking is unhealthy. It also costs governments billions of dollars in health-care costs.
A. Not only is smoking unhealthy but it also costs government billions of dollars in health-care
costs.
B. Whereas smoking is unhealthy, it costs government billions of dollars in health-care costs.
C. If smoking is unhealthy, it will cost government billions of dollars in health-care costs.
D. Smoking is so unhealthy that it costs government billions of dollars in health-care costs.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 27: It was really difficult to decide between the two candidates.
A. steal B. think C. attempt D. choose
Question 28: Students are expected to always adhere to school regulations.
A. question B. violate C. disregard D. follow

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s)OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s)in each of the following questions.
Question 29: Our well- trained staff are always courteous to customers.
A. helpful B. friendly C. rude D. polite
Question 30: The nominating committee always meets behind closed doors, lest its deliberations
become known prematurely.
A. privately B. safely C. publicly D. dangerously

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 31: The equator is an imaginative line around the middle of the earth.
A. equator B. imaginative C. around D. the
Question 32: Jenny gives a great performance at the festival yesterday, we now know she has artistic
talent.
A. gives B. at C. know D. has
Question 33: Since poaching is becoming more serious, the government has imposed stricter laws to
prevent them.
A. poaching B. serious C. stricter laws D. them

161
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
A pandemic is the global outbreak of a disease. There are many examples of pandemics in
history, the most recent being COVID-19, as declared by the World Health Organization on March 12,
2020.
Generally, pandemics are first classified as epidemics – the rapid spread of a disease across a
particular region or regions. The Zika virus outbreak that began in Brazil in 2014 and made its way
across the Caribbean and Latin America was an epidemic, as was the Ebola outbreak in West Africa in
2014-2016. The U.S. has been experiencing an opioid epidemic since 2017 because of the widespread
misuse and high numbers of deaths caused by the drug. COVID-19 started as an epidemic in China
before becoming a pandemic, after its rampant spread around the world in a matter of months.
However, it must be noted that epidemics don’t always become pandemics, and it’s not always a
fast or clear transition. For example, HIV was considered an epidemic in West Africa for decades
before becoming a pandemic in the late 20th century. Now, thanks to advances in modern medicine, it
is considered endemic, which means the rate of the disease is stable and predictable among certain
populations, according to the American Medical Association.
(Adapted from livescience.com)
Question 34: What is the best title for this passage?
A. Why Is COVID-19 A Pandemic? B. What Is A Pandemic?
C. How Epidemics Become Pandemics D. The Most Deadly Pandemics
Question 35: The word “rampant” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. brutal B. intensive C. rapid D. prominent
Question 36: Based on paragraph 2, why was the Zika virus outbreak considered an epidemic?
A. It spread widely and became a pandemic in the end.
B. It spread from the Caribbean to Latin America.
C. It spread quickly from Brazil to other regions.
D. It spread in West African regions just like Ebola did.
Question 37: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. HIV B. epidemic C. West Africa D. medicine
Question 38: Which of the following is NOT TRUE about pandemics, according to the passage?
A. Pandemics are diseases that spread globally.
B. There have been many pandemics in history.
C. Pandemics are usually classified as epidemics at first.
D. Most epidemics will quickly develop into pandemics.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Around the world, an estimated 92 million tonnes of everyday clothing is thrown away each
year. In the US alone, about 85% of all discarded textiles – roughly 13 million tonnes in 2017 – are
either dumped into landfill or burned. By 2030, it is expected that we would discard more than 134
million tonnes of textiles annually.
There are many good reasons to seek out alternatives to chucking clothes in the trash bin – the
global fashion industry is responsible for 10% of all greenhouse gas emissions, with textile production
alone is estimated to release 1.2 billion tonnes of greenhouse gases into the atmosphere every year. Vast
amounts of water are also needed to produce the clothes we wear too and the fashion industry is
responsible for 20% of global waste water. At the same time, we are buying more clothes than ever
before. Globally, around 56 million tonnes of clothing are bought each year, and this can rise to 93
million tonnes by 2030. So, would recycling our clothes help to reduce the toll our fashion addiction is
having on the environment?
Much of the problem comes down to what our clothes are made from. The fabrics we drape over
our bodies are usually made from problematic blends of natural yarns, man-made filaments, plastics
and metals, which makes it to separate and effectively recycle them. Sorting textiles into different fibres
162
and material types by hand is labour intensive, slow and requires a skilled workforce. The growing use
of modern fabric blends in clothing also makes it hard to do this mechanically too. Moreover, clothes
sent for recycling are usually of such poor quality that they are simply torn up. Consequently, very few
of these clothes are actually turned into new clothing in the end.
Many major brands across the fashion industry are starting to pay attention to the demand for
more sustainable practices. Adidas recently announced a range of trainers made from ocean plastic.
Zara, one of the world’s biggest fashion retailers, also announced in 2019 that it would be using only
sustainable materials by 2025. However, some are sceptical about how committed to sustainability they
actually are, with some accusing them of “greenwashing” – the act of making people believe that a
company is doing more to protect the environment than it really is through misleading behaviour or
activities.
Consumers themselves also need to change their behaviour if we hope to lessen the impact that
the fashion industry is having on our planet. “We need to slow down, take a little time to reconnect with
our clothes and appreciate them again,” says Clare Press, Australian Vogue’s sustainability editor and
author of the book Wardrobe Crisis. “Remember that whatever you are wearing, it took both physical
and creative resources to make it.”
(Adapted from bbc.com)
Question 39: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Is The Creation Of A Sustainable Fashion Industry Possible?
B. Recycling The Clothes We Wear Daily: A Challenging Task
C. Innovative Ways Of Recycling Textile Waste Effectively
D. How Consumers Can Contribute To Sustainable Fashion
Question 40: According to paragraph 2, one of the reasons we should find alternatives to throwing
away clothes is that __________.
A. the fashion industry accounts for more than 20% of greenhouse gas emissions.
B. textile production will emit 1.2 billion tonnes of greenhouse gases in the future.
C. the process of producing the clothes we wear takes immense quantities of water.
D. the amount of clothing we purchase is declining more quickly than ever before.
Question 41: The word “problematic” in paragraph 3 can be best replaced by ___________.
A. demanding B. complex C. puzzling D. tiresome
Question 42: According to paragraph 3, very few clothes are actually recycled because __________.
A. recycling them would be a very labour intensive and slow process.
B. it is impossible to reuse the materials commonly used to make them.
C. a skilled workforce and a range of modern machines will be needed.
D. most of them are in such terrible conditions that they are discarded.
Question 43: The word “they” in paragraph 4 refers to ___________.
A. brands B. practices C. retailers D. materials
Question 44: The word “misleading” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. disloyal B. unreasonable C. inconsiderate D. deceptive
Question 45: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The more clothes we purchase, the bigger the environmental impact of the fashion industry.
B. Sorting discarded textile into different fibres and material types should be done mechanically.
C. By 2025, the majority of global fashion retailers will only use materials that are sustainable.
D. A great number of consumers are now trying to rebuild appreciation for the clothes they
wear.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase
that best fits each the numbered blanks.
Teen spending
A large-scale study has been done by advertisers on the spending habits of today’s teenagers. It
has come up with some fascinating results. Girls across Europe ranging in age from 15 to 18 were

163
interviewed. The researchers discovered that these girls want to be successful and sophisticated and are
willing to spend to (46) ______ the look they want — when they have the money, that is!
Feeling confident is the most important factor when it comes to buying clothes. 47) ______
interesting piece of information coming out of the study is that German teenagers go for clothes that are
practical and comfortable, while British and French teenagers are more concerned about appearance,
(48) ______ they all agreed that the clothes should fit them properly. All the girls (49) _______ were
interviewed shop for clothes regularly, half of them buying something from a department store or a
large clothes shop at least once a month. They also see it as a social (50) ______ and going round the
shops with their friends is the main way they learn what the latest trends are.
(Adapted from “Laser B2” by Malcomn Mann and Steve Taylor-
Knowles)
Question 46. A. reach B. manage C. succeed D. achieve
Question 47. A. Many B. Another C. Few D. Other
Question 48. A. although B. so C. but D. for
Question 49. A. who B. whom C. which D. whose
Question 50. A. circumstance B. aspiration C. activity D. commitment

MOCK TEST 36

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three
in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. cast B. cite C. cold D. cup
Question 2. A. bite B. sign C. hide D. fill

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. express B. enter C. employ D. reduce
Question 4: A. purity B. chemical C. habitat D. destruction

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. She has read an interesting book, ________?
A. has she B. hasn’t she C. does she D. didn’t she
Question 6. He promised ________ his daughter a new bicycle as a birthday present.
A. to buying B. buying C. buy D. to buy
Question 7. In November, Tam Dao, a _______________ retreat built by the French in Vinh Phuc, was
voted the world’s leading tourist town in the 2022 World Travel Awards.
A. popularity B. popularly C. popular D. popularize
Question 8. When she was stopped by the police for speeding, she gave them a(n)________ name and
address.
A. false B. counterfeit C. inauthentic D. artificial
Question 9. Tom burnt his hand when he_______ dinner.
A. has cooked B. were cooking C. cooked D. was cooking
Question 10. The museum of modern art we went to yesterday was fantastic, but the entrance_______
was a bit expensive.
A. charge B. cost C. ticket D. fee
Question 11. The bike tour lasts around one hour, ________ visitors to ride along the coast of Tam
Thanh beach.
A. enabling B. enables C. enabled D. which enable
Question 12. It’s difficult to ___________ accurate predictions about the effects on the environment.
A. make B. do C. go D. take
164
Question 13. Jane_______ the word in the dictionary whenever she is not sure of its spelling or
meaning.
A. looks up B. turns on C. takes after D. stands for
Question 14. During the interview, you should try to_________ a good impression on your
interviewer.
A. try B. give C. have D. create
Question 15. I find that ______ Japanese are very friendly.
A. a B. the C. Ø (no article) D. an
Question 16. Crossing a busy street is_________ flying in an airplane.
A. more dangerous B. more dangerous than
C. most dangerous than D. the most dangerous
Question 17. It wasn’t very sensitive of you to put her on the __________ with private questions like
that.
A. set B. spot C. site D. scene
Question 18. I will have been away from home for more than three years
A. until I will have returned to my country next month
B. once I had returned to my country next month
C. as soon as I will return to my country next month
D. by the time I return to my country next month.
Question 19. All candidates _____________ to take a short test.
A. have required B. require C. requires D. will be required

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s)CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined


word(s)in each of the following questions.
Question 20. Wilson is a sociable boy. He makes friends at his new school quite easily.
A. shy B. careful C. nervous D. friendly
Question 21: One of my distant relatives is wavering between buying a house in the inner city or
moving away.
A. weakening B. hesitating C. growing D. approving

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s)OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined


word(s)in each of the following questions.
Question 22. The burglar crept into the house without making any noise. That’s why no one heard
anything.
A. silently B. slowly C. rapidly D. noisily
Question 23: I don’t think we should kick the can down the road and let our next generation solve the
global warming problem.
A. determine to solve a problem B. delay dealing with a problem
C. avoid dealing with a problem D. try in vain to address a problem

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 24. Josh and Mike are talking about hobbies.
Josh: “What is your hobby Mike?” - Mike: “___________”
A. Well, I like hiking. B. Well, I want sugar
C. Sure, I’ll go with you. D. Oh, I live here.
Question 25. John and Smith are talking about solar energy.
John: “Solar energy is not only plentiful and unlimited but also clean and safe. Do you think so?”
Smith: “_________”
A. Thanks for your kind words. B. Thank you, I’m fine at the moment.
C. Thank you for your consideration. D. Yeah. You’re absolutely right.

165
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase
that best fits each the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
In an educational context, the term ‘learner independence’ has gained increasing importance in
recent years. It is of particular (26) _______ to language learning and commonly refers to the way
students confidently control and organise their own language learning process. While some people seem
to have an almost instinctive flaw for languages, (27) _______ have to rely on strategies to maximise
their skills and learn a foreign language more effectively.
The main thing to remember is that becoming a truly independent learner ultimately depends
above all on taking responsibility for your own learning and being prepared to take every opportunity
available to you to learn. You also increase your chances of (28) _______ by learning according to your
own needs and interests, using all available resources. Research shows that learners (29) _______ adopt
this approach will undoubtedly manage to broaden their language abilities considerably and, (30)
_______ are mote likely to achieve their objectives in the longer term.
(Adapted from “Complete Advanced” by Laura Mathews and Barbara
Thomas)
Question 26. A. resemblance B. acceptance C. relevance D. acquaintance
Question 27. A. each B. every C. others D. few
Question 28. A. interest B. failure C. suspicision D. success
Question 29. A. who B. why C. which D. where
Question 30. A. though B. as a result C. because D. in contrast

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Notre Dame Cathedral will be rebuilt just the way it stood before last year’s devastating fire, according
to the verdict reached by French President Emmanuel Macron, the cathedral’s present-day architects
and the general in charge of the reconstruction project for one of the world’s most treasured landmarks.
Macron, who wants the monument reopened in time for the 2024 Olympics, had initially pushed
for a contemporary approach, prompting eye-catching proposals from architects around the world such
as a swimming pool and an organic garden on its roof. However, he came around to the traditionalists’
argument, and approved reconstruction plans that were presented on Thursday.
The plan includes recreating the 19th century spire designed by architect Eugene Viollet-le-Duc
that collapsed in the fire and replicating original materials “to guarantee the authenticity, harmony and
coherence of this masterpiece of Gothic art.” These include tons of lead, which is raising concerns
among health and environmental groups, as toxic lead particles released during the fire forced schools
in the area to close and led to a lengthy, painstaking clean-up effort.
(Adapted from apnews.com)
Question 31: What is the best title for this passage?
A. Can Notre Dame Be Reopened Before The 2024 Olympics?
B. How Notre Dame Will Be Rebuilt After The Devastating Fire
C. The French President’s Approach To Rebuilding Notre Dame
D. Concerns About The Use Of Lead To Rebuild Notre Dame
Question 32: The phrase “came around to” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. was deceived by B. was forced by
C. was persuaded by D. was inspired by
Question 33: The word “its” in paragraph 2 refers to __________.
A. monument’s B. approach’s C. pool’s D. garden’s
Question 34: Which of the following is NOT TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Macron initially wanted to rebuild Notre Dame in a modern way.
B. Proposals from architects worldwide included a swimming pool.
C. The 19th century spire designed by Eugene Viollet-le-Duc will be repaired.
D. Lead was one of the original materials that were used to build Notre Dame.

166
Question 35: According to paragraph 3, health and environmental groups are worried about the use of
lead as material for the reconstruction of Notre Dame because __________.
A. the release of toxic lead particles forced local schools to close.
B. a lengthy clean-up operation will be necessary after the reconstruction.
C. the lead particles released can increase the risk of another fire.
D. schools in the area will have to close once again during reconstruction.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Some people look at an equation and see a bunch of complicated numbers and symbols while
others see beauty. Now, thanks to a new tool created at Carnegie Mellon University, anyone can now
translate the abstractions of mathematics into beautiful and instructive illustrations.
This exciting new tool is named Penrose after the mathematician Roger Penrose, who is famous
for using diagrams and other drawings to communicate complicated mathematical ideas. Penrose
enables users to create diagrams simply by typing mathematical expressions and letting the software do
the drawing. Unlike a graphing calculator, these aren’t restricted to basic functions, but can be complex
relationships from any area of mathematics. ”Some mathematicians have a talent for drawing beautiful
diagrams by hand, but they vanish as soon as the chalkboard is erased,” said Keenan Crane, an assistant
professor of computer science and robotics. “We want to make this expressive power available to
anyone.”
Diagrams are often underused in mathematical communication, since producing high-quality
illustrations is beyond the skill of many researchers and requires a great deal of time and effort. Penrose
addresses these challenges by letting diagram-drawing experts turn their knowledge about creating
diagrams into computer codes so that other users can access this capability using familiar mathematical
language and a computer. “We started off by asking: ‘How do people translate mathematical ideas into
pictures in their head?’” said Katherine Ye, a Ph.D. student in the Computer Science Department who is
involved in the development of Penrose. “The secret sauce of our system is to empower people to
easily ‘explain’ this translation process to the computer, so the computer can do all the hard work of
actually making the picture.”
Once the computer learns how the user wants to see a mathematical object visualized – a vector
represented by a little arrow, for instance, or a point represented as a dot – it uses these rules to draw
several candidate diagrams. Users can then select and edit the diagrams they want from a gallery of
possibilities. A special, simple-to-learn programming language was also developed so that they can
easily convey the ideas in their minds to the Penrose system, Crane said. “Mathematicians can get very
picky about notations,” he explained. “We let them define whatever notation they want, so they can
express themselves naturally.”
The researchers will present Penrose at the SIGGRAPH 2020 Conference on Computer
Graphics and Interactive Techniques, which will be held this July. “Our vision is to be able to dust off
an old math textbook from the library, drop it into the computer and get a beautifully illustrated book --
that way more people understand,” Crane said, noting that Penrose is a first step toward this goal.
(Adapted from sciencedaily.com)

Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Penrose: The Tool Making Textbooks Outdated
B. Visualizing Mathematics With Penrose
C. The Age of Computer Mathematicians
D. Why Mathematicians Cannot Draw Diagrams
Question 37: The word “restricted” in paragraph 2 can be best replaced by ___________.
A. confined B. enclosed C. included D. contained
Question 38: In paragraph 2, what do we learn about the tool Penrose?
A. It was named after the famous mathematician who developed it.
B. It helps users to create mathematical diagrams by themselves.
167
C. It is much more powerful than a typical graphing calculator.
D. It was created so that anyone can draw diagrams by hand.
Question 39: The phrase “secret sauce” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. unexpected benefit B. mysterious feature
C. unnatural ability D. special element
Question 40: Penrose address the challenges of creating diagrams in mathematical communication by
allowing users to _________.
A. make mathematical diagrams from computer codes with the help of diagram-drawing
experts.
B. describe how they visualize mathematical ideas to the computer so that it can create
diagrams.
C. learn about how experts translate mathematical language into pictures created with
computers.
D. utilize codes developed by diagram experts to figure out how to visualize mathematical ideas.
Question 41: The word “they” in paragraph 4 refers to ___________.
A. users B. diagrams C. possibilities D. ideas
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Hand-drawn diagrams are not as beautiful and easy to understand as digital diagrams.
B. In general, mathematicians are not very good at remembering and defining notations.
C. How a mathematical object should be visualized varies from person to person.
D. Almost all people consider traditional math textbooks to be extremely boring.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 43. One can only live without water for about ten days because almost 60 percent of their
body is water.
A. for B. because C. their D. is
Question 44. You should be more respectable of other people’s points of view. Don’t embarrass
someone even if they are wrong.
A. should be B. respectable C. points of view D. embarrass
Question 45. We first have met each other in San Diego in 2018.
A. first B. have met C. each other D. in

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46. The last time I talked to Rose was three years ago.
A. I didn’t talk to Rose three years ago. B. I have talked to Rose for three years.
C. I hadn’t talked to Rose for three years. D. I haven’t talked to Rose for three years.
Question 47. “I have just seen your mother this morning”.
A. Laura told Lewis I have just seen your mother this morning.
B. Laura told Lewis she had just seen his mother that morning.
C. Laura told Lewis she has just seen his mother that morning.
D. Laura told Lewis he had just seen her mother that morning.
Question 48. Perhaps Susan know the address.
A. Susan may know the address. B. Susan must know the address.
C. Susan should know the address. D. Susan could know the address.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. You help me every day. I can finish my work.
A. I could finish my work if you didn’t help me every day.
B. If it weren’t for your daily help, I couldn’t finish my work.
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C. Unless you help me every day, I can finish my work.
D. In case you help me every day, I can’t finish my work.
Question 50. She was so busy that she couldn’t answer the phone.
A. She was very busy that she couldn’t answer the phone.
B. So busy was she that she couldn’t answer the phone.
C. She was too busy not to answer the phone.
D. She was very busy so that she couldn’t answer the phone

MOCK TEST 37

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. thickly B. theft C. theme D. though
Question 2: A. hood B. hook C. stood D. tool

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. purchase B. ladder C. forest D. police
Question 4: A. organize B. devastate C. sacrifice D. deliver

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: The people applauded __________ than before when Bobo the Clown came out.
A. most loudly B. louder C. loudest D. more loud
Question 6: My father ______ at 70 km/h when a policeman stopped him.
A. drove B. drives C. is driving D. was driving
Question 7: Mr Robert _________ from the company, is now facing legal charges.
A. was fired B. fired C. firing D. was firing
Question 8: The number of rare animals is decreasing so rapidly, ________ ?
A. is it B. isn’t it C. doesn’t it D. does it
Question 9: She expects that her presentation _________ by many people..
A. will be watched B. will watch C. was watching D. will be watched
Question 10: When Tommy started to learn French, he had a difficult time ________ the words
correctly.
A. pronounce B. pronounced C. pronouncing D. to pronounce
Question 11: When the old man ________ past the park, he saw some children playing football.
A. was walking B. is walking C. walked D. walks
Question 12: ______________, he will have had a full day and will be ready for sleep.
A. By the time Bill goes to bed tomorrow B. After Bill had gone to bed tomorrow
C. As soon as Bill went to bed tomorrow D. Until Bill will go to bed tomorrow
Question 13: Although she had never met him before, she could fall _____ a conversation with him
easily.
A. into B. down C. on D. up
Question 14: Could you lend me some more? I’ve spent _____ money you gave me yesterday.
A. Ø B. the C. a D. an
Question 15: Rapid ________ happened during the period of industrialization in Europe and North
America the 19th and early 20” centuries.
A. urbanized B. urbanize C. urbanization D. urbanizing
Question 16: 4 months after it was founded, the company is now ___________ ground.
A. making B. digging C. building D. shaking
Question 17: In order to stop bullying, the principal decided to _________ a new rule
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A. offer B. exhibit C. display D. introduce
Question 18: Did you hear? A new tennis ________ will be built next month.
A. pitch B. field C. ground D. court
Question 19: When he was in his 30s, my father worked day and night to bring home the __________.
A. fish B. bread C. meat D. bacon

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: It was not easy, but Andy managed to restrain his anger.
A. obstruct B. detain C. contain D. frustrate
Question 21: In a development that shocked the public, the famous singer was arrested.
A. incident B. consequence C. accident D. phenomenon

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: I’ll try to unpack this research paper so that everyone here can understand its main
points.
A. disorganize B. mystify C. complicate D. scramble
Question 23: The company decided to take him on despite his inexperience.
A. dismiss him B. deceive him C. disregard him D. defame him

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 24: Maria and Alex are talking about the environment.
- Maria: “Our environment is getting more and more polluted. Do you think so?”
- Alex: “________ . It’s really worrying.”
A. I don’t think so. B. I’ll think about that.
C. I don’t agree D. I can’t agree with you more.
Question 25: A student is asking the librarian to help her to fax a report.
- Student: “Could you help me to fax this report?” - Librarian: “________ “
A. Certainly, what’s the fax number? B. It’s very kind of you to say so.
C. Sorry, I have no idea. D. What rubbish! I don’t think it’s helpful.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
CITIES GOING GREEN
As more and more people concentrate in cities, planners are looking for ways to transform cities
into better living spaces, (26) ________ can be done by improving existing infrastructure while also
creating more public (27) ________ that are both beautiful and green. This can be hard to accomplish,
especially in cities with a haphazard fashion. Some cities have been created with the idea of a green city
as the goal.
One such city, Masdar City in the United Arab Emirates, aims to become a model for (28)
________ cities to follow. It is being known as a truly green city that relies strictly on renewable
sources such as solar energy to provide all of its energy needs. (29) ________ , it will be a zero waste
city in which everything that is used can be recycled. Whether it will truly (30) ________ its goal
remains to be seen, but it will also act as an experiment for environmentally friendly areas to be tested.
(Adapted from https://www.purdueglobal.edu/
Question 26: A. why B. when C. which D. that
Question 27: A. rooms B. places C. spaces D. breaks
Question 28: A. other B. every C. one D. another
Question 29: A. Therefore B. In addition C. Although D. However
Question 30: A. accompany B. access C. account D. accomplish
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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Obviously, regular exercise can help you improve your strength, stay in good shape, and prevent
dangerous diseases. But did you know that aside from its physical effects, staying active can also offer
you a wide range of mental benefits?
When faced with mental or emotional challenges in life, exercise can help you build resilience
and cope in a healthy way, instead of resorting to alcohol, drugs, or other negative behaviours that only
worsen your symptoms. It also releases endorphins, powerful chemicals in your brain that energize your
spirits and make you feel good. In addition, physical activity can also serve as a distraction, allowing
you to find some quiet time to break the cycle of negative thoughts that feed mental health problems
like depression.
Even if you are feeling just fine and not suffering from mental health issues, regular exercise can
still give you another advantage: a sharper, more active brain. This is because the same endorphins that
make you feel better also help you concentrate and feel mentally sharp for tasks at hand. Exercise also
stimulates the growth of new brain cells and helps prevent age-related memory decline.
And of course, leading an active lifestyle will significantly boost your self-confidence. Regular
activity is an investment in your mind, body, and soul. And when it becomes a habit, it can develop
your sense of self-worth and make you feel strong and powerful. You’ll feel better about your
appearance, and by meeting exercise goals, you’ll also feel a sense of achievement and success.
(Adapted from helpguide.org)
Question 31: What is the passage mainly about?
A. Fighting mental illnesses with the help of exercises
B. Why physical activity sharpens your brain
C. The positive mental effects of exercising
D. How to become more confident while exercising
Question 32: According to paragraph 2, endorphins are chemicals that ___________.
A. help you become more resilient when you exercise
B. is released when you face emotional challenges
C. boost your spirits to help you exercise more
D. make you feel better and more energized
Question 33: The word “feed” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. assist B. intensify C. motivate D. provide
Question 34: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Alcohol or drugs reduce mental issues but also cause health problems.
B. Endorphins boost both your emotions and your ability to stay focused.
C. People who do not exercise will lose their memories as they grow old.
D. The more exercise goals you meet, the more success you will achieve.
Question 35: The word “it” in paragraph 4 refers to ___________.
A. lifestyle B. activity C. investment D. soul

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Although her mother constantly complains about it, Beijing resident Lili is not planning to have
children any time soon. “I have very few peers who have children, and if they do, they’re obsessed
about getting the best nanny or enrolling the kids in the best schools. It sounds exhausting.” And she is
not alone: her opinion reflects the changing attitudes of many young urban Chinese toward having
children.
A national census showed that around 12 million babies were born in 2020, which is a
significant decrease from 18 million in 2016, and the lowest number recorded since the 1960s. And
while the overall population grew, it moved at the slowest pace in decades, adding to worries that China
may face a severe population decline. This is problematic due to the inverted age structure, with more
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old people than young. When that happens, there won’t be enough workers in the future to support old
people, and demand for health and social care for them will increase.
Although lower birth rates tend to fall when countries become more developed as people focus
more on their education or career, experts say that China’s situation could be uniquely exacerbated
given the number of men who are finding it difficult to even find a wife. Last year, there were 34.9
million more males than females. Such a severe gender imbalance in the country was a consequence of
the country’s strict one-child policy, which led to people aborting or abandoning their children because
of their sex, in a culture that historically favours boys over girls.
Experts also pointed out the lack of policy changes from the government that support family life
- such as financial support for education or access to childcare facilities. And many people simply
cannot afford to raise children amid the rising costs of living. Additionally, women may also be afraid
of having kids because this may affect their career prospects. “The reality is that there aren’t many good
jobs out there for women, and the women who do have good jobs will want to do whatever it takes to
keep them. Who would dare have kids in this situation?” one person asked on Chinese social media
platform Weibo.
However, because getting married and having children is still the norm in Chinese society, there
is hope for change, provided that there are more measures to support families in childcare and
education. Even Lili may be convinced to change her mind. “If it becomes less competitive for kids to
get the resources they need, I might feel more mentally ready and less stressed about having a child,”
she said.
(Adapted from bbc.co.uk)
Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. The Pressure Of Having Kids In Modern Chinese Society
B. Birth Rates In China Have Been On The Decline, Here’s Why
C. Gender Imbalance In China And How This Resulted In Less Children
D. How Is The Chinese Government Encouraging People To Have More Kids?
Question 37: The word “reflects” in paragraph 1 can be best replaced by ___________.
A. discloses B. expresses C. approves D. declares
Question 38: According to paragraph 2, what is the effect of an inverted age structure?
A. Young people will no longer want to take care of older people.
B. More young people will demand for health and social care.
C. The workforce will be too small to support the elderly.
D. Workers in the future will need to work harder.
Question 39: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to __________.
A. census B. decrease C. number D. population
Question 40: In paragraph 3, what do we learn about the severe gender imbalance in China?
A. It is a natural tendency as the country becomes increasingly developed.
B. It has made it impossible for Chinese men to find a wife and have children.
C. It was the result of the one-child policy and cultural views that favour men.
D. It resulted in Chinese parents abandoning their kids based on their sex.
Question 41: The word “exacerbated” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. damaged B. heightened C. inspired D. enhanced
Question 42: Which of the following can most likely be inferred from the passage?
A. The inverted age structure creates more conflicts between generations in a society.
B. Most Chinese men do not want children because finding a wife is just too difficult.
C. Birth rates in China will continue falling unless there is more support for family life.
D. Lili will soon change her mind and have children in order to make her mother happy.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: In a hot, sunny climate last year, the farmers acclimatize by eating less, drinking more
liquids, wearing lighter clothing, and experience a darkening of the skin.
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A. In B. acclimatize C. more liquids D. experience
Question 44: The famous writer J. K. Rowling is expected to be present at the event, where they will
sign books and deliver a speech.
A. is B. be present C. they D. deliver
Question 45: The boy has found dead cockroaches in his house late, so he asked an exterminator for
help.
A. has found B. dead C. late D. exterminator

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46: I am pretty sure Dan is at home because the lights are on
A. Dan may be at home because the lights are on
B. Dan needn’t be at home because the lights are on.
C. Dan can’t be at home because the lights are on
D. Dan must be at home because the lights are on
Question 47: We last visited my uncle two years ago
A. We have two years to visit my uncle. B. We have visited my uncle for two years.
C. We haven’t visited my uncle for two years. D. We didn’t visit my uncle two years ago.
Question 48: “I met her two days ago,” said Tim
A. Tim said that he had met her two days before. B. Tim said that he had met her two days
ago
C. Tim said that I met her two days before D. Tim said that I met her two days ago

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: The children are noisy. She can’t concentrate on working.
A. She wishes the children are not noisy and she can concentrate on working.
B. In case the children are not noisy, she can concentrate on working.
C. If the children were not noisy, she can concentrate on working.
D. If only the children were not noisy and she could concentrate on working.
Question 50: She went to live in France. She realized how much she loved England.
A. Only when she went to live in France, did she realize how much she loved England.
B. Were she to go to live in France, she would realize how much she loved England.
C. Had she gone to live in France, she would have realized how much she loved England.
D. Not until she had realized how much she loved England did she go to live in France.

MOCK TEST 38

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. horrible B. hour C. hundred D. hold
Question 2: A. shown B. flown C. grown D. crown

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. struggle B. certain C. police D. action
Question 4: A. considerate B. continental C. territorial D. economic

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 5: Customer: “Can I try this jumper on?” - Salesgirl: “______”
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A. No, the shop is closed in half an hour. B. Sorry, only cash is accepted here.
C. Yes, it costs one hundred and fifty dollars. D. Sure, the changing rooms are over there.
Question 6: Tom and Linda are talking about jobs they would like to choose.
- Tom: “I think working as a doctor is a challenging job.” - Linda: “______”
A. It’s a good idea. B. Not at all.
C. I’m sorry, but I agree with you. D. That’s exactly what I think.

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word ( s ) in each of the following questions.
Question 7: Getting tattoos without thorough consideration is the reason why many have to get them
removed later.
A. comprehensive B. profound C. superficial D. meticulous
Question 8: Jose had a hard time comparing the iPhone to the Samsung phone because to him they
were apples and oranges.
A. containing too many technical details B. very similar
C. completely different D. very complicated

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Whales have been being hunted for hundreds of years with numbers reaching an all-time low in
the 1930s when over 50,000 were killed each year. While conservation efforts and bans on whaling
have helped, the gentle sea giants still face dangers such as ship strikes, fishing nets and the overall
increase in ocean temperatures. Whale biologists think that only a fourth of the planet’s population
remains today, with blue whales at as little as 3% of their previous numbers.
Restoring these incredible sea mammals to their pre-whaling numbers could prove vital to
reversing climate change. Scientists at the International Monetary Fund (IMF) have calculated the value
of a whale at $2 million each due to the important role they have in reducing the amount of CO 2 in our
atmosphere. Throughout their life, the animals accumulate carbon in their bodies and then sink to the
bottom of the ocean. A great whale, for example, can take nearly 30000kg of CO 2 out of the atmosphere
for centuries compared to the around 15kg captured by a tree each year.
It’s not just what they store in their bodies, however. In a unique system that no other animal
can reproduce, the waste that whales produce is brought to the surface by their vertical movement and
feeds organisms called phytoplankton, which are tiny organisms that capture 40% of CO 2 produced and
generate 50% of all oxygen. And restoring the number of whales to around 5 million would
significantly increase phytoplankton numbers (even a 1% increase in phytoplankton would capture
millions of tonnes of additional CO). Whale conservation, therefore, can be a vital tool in battling our
increasing carbon emissions.
(Adapted from readtoolead.com)
Question 9: What is the passage mainly about?
A. Measures taken to prevent whale hunting
B. How saving whales can help the environment
C. Why whales produce so much oxygen
D. The link between whales and phytoplanktons
Question 10: The word “captured” in paragraph 1 can be best replaced by ___________.
A. arrested B. maintained C. immersed D. absorbed
Question 11: IMF scientists calculated a whale’s value based on __________.
A. how much oxygen they release into the atmosphere every year
B. the amount of carbon they store in their bodies during lifetime
C. the important role they play in changing the world’s climate
D. their significance in the reduction of CO2 in our atmosphere
Question 12: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Whales can only live healthily if ocean temperatures are at very low levels.
174
B. Nowadays, only 25 per cent of the planet’s blue whale population remains.
C. A great whale takes much more CO2 out of the atmosphere than a tree does.
D. A rise in the number of phytoplanktons will help restore whale populations.
Question 13: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. whales B. changes C. amounts D. centuries

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 14: My brother has been playing______piano since he was a small child.
A. the B. a C. no article D. an
Question 15: Her voice is __________ than his.
A. more beautiful B. beautiful C. the most beautiful D. beautifuler
Question 16: We were watching TV when it ______ to rain.
A. started B. had started C. was starting D. was started
Question 17: Certain chemicals have been banned because of their damaging effect __________ the
environment.
A. for B. to C. on D. of
Question 18: There are no official statistics about the number of people having and removing tattoos in
Vietnam, _______?
A. are there B. aren’t there C. are they D. aren’t they
Question 19: The wealthy man ____________ by three masked men has been safely rescued.
A. be kidnapped B. kidnapping C. kidnapped D. was kidnapped
Question 20: The sports equipment ____________ in the game came from Oregon.
A. using B. used C. use D. to use
Question 21: The company management decided to_____more workers to meet the production
schedule.
A. take on B. make out C. take over D. make up
Question 22: British Airways regretted _________ the cancellation of flight BA205 to Madrid.
A. having announced B. to announce C. announcing D. announced
Question 23: Every Christmas is a trip down _________ lane for the family when our parents take out
the photograph albums.
A. collection B. thought C. memory D. feeling
Question 24: He will take the dog out for a walk ____________ dinner.
A. as soon as he finishes B. as soon as he finished
C. while he will finish D. before he shall have finished
Question 25: Unluckily, David’s dangerous and incredible journey in search of the Blue Fairy is in
____.
A. advance B. danger C. end D. vain
Question 26: An energy storage project costing nearly $3 million ________ in Khanh Hoa Province
next month.
A. will be built B. will build C. will be being built D. has been built
Question 27: Email and instant messaging services have ____________ global communication.
A. revolutionized B. revolutionary C. revolution D. revolutionarily
Question 28: She doesn’t want to see her plans go down the ________ but she doesn’t know what to
do.
A. plate B. pot C. pan D. bowl

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 29: It is our case that he was reckless and negligent in the way he drove.
A. inharmonious B. ingenious C. intangible D. incautious
Question 30: Tremendous waste characterizes this industry as it depletes healthy soil, destroys forests
and damages ecosystems and the health of their biodiversity.
175
A. diminishes B. recycles C. fosters D. nurtures

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 31: We last went to that cinema 2 months ago.
A. We have been to the cinema for 2 months.
B. We haven’t been to the cinema for 2 months.
C. We didn’t want to go to the cinema anymore.
D. We didn’t go to the cinema for 2 months.
Question 32: “Would you like to go to the show with me?” Anna said to Bella.
A. Anna reminded Bella to go to the show with her.
B. Anna persuaded Bella to go to the show with her.
C. Anna invited Bella to go to the show with her.
D. Anna encouraged Bella to go to the show with her.
Question 33: You shouldn’t have allowed them to watch too much TV.
A. You were wrong to let them watch too much TV.
B. You allowed them to watch too much TV which is wrong.
C. It was not necessary to allow them to watch too much TV.
D. Watching too much TV is not good for them.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 34: Nam was so rude to them last night. Now he feels regretful.
A. Nam regrets to have been so rude to them last night.
B. Nam regrets having so rude to them last night.
C. Nam wishes he hadn’t been so rude to them last night.
D. Nam wishes he weren’t so rude to them last night.
Question 35: We arrived at the cinema. Then we realized our tickets were still at home.
A. No sooner had we realized that our tickets were still at home than we arrived at the cinema.
B. Not until we arrived at the cinema that we realized that our tickets were still at home
C. Only after we had arrived at the cinema did we realize that our tickets were at home.
D. Hardly had we arrived at the cinema than we realized that our tickets were still at home.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Today, many governments are promoting organic or natural farming methods (36) _________ use of
pesticides and other artificial products. The aim is to show that they (37) ____________ environment
and about people’s health. But is this the right approach?
Europe is now the biggest (38) _____________ for organic food in the world, expanding by 25
percent a year over the past 10 years, Eating organic is (39) ____________ way of defining oneself as
natural, good, caring different from the junk-food-scoffing masses. As a journalist puts it: “It feels
closer to the source, the beginning, the start of things”.
The organic approach means farming with natural, rather than man-made. Techniques such as
crop rotation improve soil quality and help organic farmers compensate for the absence of man-made
chemicals (40) ______________ for its ineffective use of land and labour, there are severe limits to how
much food can be produced.
(Adapted from IELTS by Cambridge)
Question 36: A. how B. that C. who D. why
Question 37: A. care B. account C. take D. bring
Question 38: A. site B. place C. market D. basis
Question 39: A. every B. other C. each D. one
Question 40: A. However B. Moreover C. Although D. Because
176
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 41. We are going to visit our grandparents when we will finish our final exams.
A. are going to B. our C. when D. will finish
Question 42. A good artist like a good engineer learns as much from their mistakes as from successes.
A. like B. as C. their D. from
Question 43. Many successful film directions are former actors who desire to expand their experience
in the film industry.
A. successful B. film directions C. former D. expand

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
With the number of mobile devices in the world increasing at a rapid rate, one may assume the
use of gadgets such as tablets and smartphones would have a negative impact on quality time spent
between children and parents. Nonetheless, a new study conducted by researchers at the Universities of
Oxford and Warwick has discovered this may not be the case.
According to the study’s findings, which were published in the Journal of Marriage and Family,
children are spending more time at home with their parents than they were in 2000. However, the
amount of time children and parents spend together doing shared activities such as eating meals or
watching television remains largely unchanged.
For the study, the research team analysed a sample of 5,000 daily diaries written by 2,500
children aged between eight and 16 and their parents, and what they found was that families spent an
average of 30 more minutes together per day in the same location in 2015 than they did in 2000, with
average overall family time increasing from 347 minutes to 379 minutes. They also added that the
amount of time parents and children spend daily on doing shared activities has only slightly altered over
the past 15 years, increasing by three minutes.
“Our analysis has found that the overall family time has extended, but it’s this alone-together
time, when children and parents are in the same location but children are reporting that they are alone,
which has made up most of the increase,” says Dr Killian Mullan, from the department of sociology at
the University of Oxford. “Given this large increase in alone-together time, it is perhaps reassuring that
we also found no decline in the amount of time families spent in shared activities between 2000 and
2015. “This suggests that parents still value key aspects of traditional family life, such as family meals
or shared hobbies, and seek to prioritise them in the face of pressure from technological change.”
Dr Stella Chatzitheochari, from the department of sociology at the University of Warwick,
explains that the study indicates how use of digital devices has become “embedded into family life”. “It
is worth noting that mobile device use may be complementing family activities and also help children
and young people build and maintain friendships outside of the home,” she states. However, the
sociology professor also believes more research is needed to explore how the quality of interactions
between family members is impacted by mobile device use.
(Adapted from independent.co.uk)

Question 44: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Study Reveals The Surprising Positive Effects Of Gadgets On Families
B. Researchers Proved Use Of Mobile Devices Will Benefit The Whole Family
C. Technology Use Does Not Reduce Family Time At Home, Study Finds
D. Research Suggests Parents No Longer Focus On Key Values Of Family Life
Question 45: Which of the following is one of the findings of the study, as stated in paragraph 2?
A. Children spend more time doing things with their parents than they do in the past.
B. Children do not spend much time on having meals and watching TV with parents.
C. Children still spend as much time staying at home as they did in previous years.
D. Children spend the same time on activities with their family members as before.
177
Question 46: The word “They” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. researchers B. diaries C. parents D. families
Question 47: How did the research team carry out the study, according to paragraph 3?
A. They analysed how children aged 8 and above wrote their own diaries.
B. They looked into a sample of daily written records of children and parents.
C. They examined the daily diaries of young children below the age of 16.
D. They asked 5,000 families to write diaries daily to collect the needed data.
Question 48: The word “reassuring” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. stimulating B. vitalising C. encouraging D. refreshing
Question 49: The word “embedded” in paragraph 5 can be best replaced by ___________.
A. implemented B. engrossed C. engaged D. incorporated
Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Children only want to spend time with their parents while watching TV.
B. Family meals are the most significant aspect of traditional family life.
C. Many parents cannot handle the pressure from technological change.
D. The use of technology has actually improved children’s social life.

MOCK TEST 39

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. purity B. burning C. durian D. cure
Question 2. A. mechanic B. chemistry C. charge D. chorus

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. adapt B. damage C. award D. prefer
Question 4. A. authority B. associate C. television D. essential

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: Our planned visit to______United Kingdom fell through because we were unable to get the
visas.
A. a B. an C. the D. no article
Question 6: The faster we walk, _______ we will get there.
A. the soonest B. the soon C. the more soon D. the sooner
Question 7: When I last saw him, he___________in London.
A. is living B. has been living C. was living D. lived
Question 8: His parents object strongly___________his playing too much computer games.
A. at B. to C. in D. against
Question 9: USAID has contributed more than $140 million toward these efforts, _______?
A. doesn’t it B. does it C. has it D. hasn’t it
Question 10: The ________ of Hue city as the ‘ASEAN Environmentally Sustainable City’ is expected
to be further advertised to international friends.
A. painting B. picture C. image D. photograph
Question 11: The recipe __________ by the chef is a closely guarded secret and has made them
famous.
A. creates B. creating C. created D. is creating
Question 12: A lot of research in medical science has been_____to improve human health.
A. made up B. carried out C. taken up D. given off

178
Question 13: Gen Z is providing inspiration, with 45% having stopped _______ certain brands because
of ethical or sustainability concerns.
A. to purchase B. purchasing C. to purchasing D. purchased
Question 14: The DJs began a non-stop performance that pumped up adrenalin levels as the party ____
began rocking to the lively rhythm.
A. animals B. sweets C. candies D. buffet
Question 15: ________, there will be great joy throughout the land.
A. After the war had been over B. When the war was over
C. As soon as the war is over D. Once the war will be over
Question 16: The poor child was in floods of ___________because his bicycle had been stolen.
A. tears B. sorrow C. sadness D. upset
Question 17: Paintings from the collection of the Dutch national museum of Rijksmuseum _________
in Hanoi now.
A. are displayed B. have been displayed
C. are being displayed D. are displaying
Question 18: An only child often creates an___________friend to play with.
A. imagery B. imaginable C. imaginary D. imaginative
Question 19: People usually look through travel ________ to decide on their holiday destinations.
A. catalogues B. brochures C. handbooks D. lists

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 20: - May: “From my point of view, all family members should share the chores equally.”
- Tam: “______”
A. It’s a breathtaking view. B. You lied to me.
C. But you’re right. D. There’s no doubt about it.
Question 21: Nam: “Would you like something to drink?” - Hoa: “______”
A. Could I have some water? B. For sure.
C. I didn’t. D. That’s right.

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word ( s ) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Rosé, BLACKPINK, is not only stylish and elegant in her outfits, but also in her
hairstyles.
A. fashionable B. dull C. impressive D. ordinary
Question 23: After their long-standing conflict had been resolved, the two families decided to bury the
hatchet.
A. become enemies B. become friends C. give up weapons D. reach an agreement

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 24: Her parents are growing increasingly concerned by her erratic behavior.
A. answerable B. angelic C. anxious D. ancestral
Question 25: If the player commits five personal fouls, the referee will eject him.
A. defend B. include C. exclude D. object

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions .
Question 26: We last went to that cinema 2 months ago.
A. We have been to the cinema for 2 months.
B. We haven’t been to the cinema for 2 months.
C. We didn’t want to go to the cinema anymore.
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D. We didn’t go to the cinema for 2 months.
Question 27: “He is talking to your sister”, She said to me.
A. She told me he was talking to your sister. B. She told me she was talking to my sister.
C. She told me he was talking to my sister. D. She told me he was talking to her sister.
Question 28: Every student is required to write an essay on the topic.
A. Every student might write an essay on the topic.
B. Every student must write an essay on the topic.
C. They require every student write an essay on the topic.
D. Every student should write an essay on the topic.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 29: I really regret that you haven’t told me about her family.
A. If only you would tell me about her family.
B. If only I didn’t regret that you hadn’t told me about her family.
C. If only you had told me about her family.
D. If only you hadn’t told me about her family.
Question 30: We couldn’t have managed our business successfully without my father’s money.
A. We could have managed our business successfully with my father’s money.
B. If we could manage our business successfully, my father would give us his money.
C. Hadn’t it been for my father’s money, we couldn’t have managed our business successfully.
D. Had it not been for my father’s money, we couldn’t have managed our business successfully.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 31: I wish I had known about this medicine sooner. It is so efficient that I only needed to take
one spoonful to get rid of my stomachache.
A. medicine B. efficient C. take D. spoonful
Question 32: Jenny gives a great performance at the festival yesterday, we now know she has artistic
talent.
A. gives B. at C. know D. has
Question 33: A beaver uses the strong front teeth to cut down trees and peel off its bark.
A. uses B. front C. cut down D. its

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
The trend for children to multitask by juggling all sorts of electronic gadgets at the same time is
(34)______damaging their levels of concentration, scientists have warned. Rocketing use of the
Internet, iPods, mobile phones, and DVDs lies behind that finding. Scientists have confirmed the belief
of many parents that it is impossible to concentrate on more than one thing at the same time. They
found that children (35)________ homework while sending messages via the Internet can end up
spending 50% longer than if they had done each task separately.
David E Meyer, (36)________ is the Professor of Cognitive Psychology at the University of
Michigan, said that true multitasking is only possible for simple activities such as ironing and listening
to the radio. He ran experiments demonstrating that young adults who had to switch from one maths
problem to (37)_________wasted significant amounts of time. Meyer said: “For situations involving
more complex tasks, especially those requiring language, the total time taken to (38)_______ all the
tasks done will increase greatly. Over long periods, this kind of multitasking can stress you out and lead
to mental and physical exhaustion.”

Question 34. A. seriously B. absolutely C. intensely D. extremely


Question 35. A. attending B. undergoing C. engaging D. tackling
180
Question 36. A. who B. that C. whose D. whom
Question 37. A. another B. other C. many D. much
Question 38. A. make B. get C. put D. bring

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Indonesian cafe worker Rudi Hartono struggled to persuade residents of his small coastal
community of Pare-pare to follow his example and pick up rubbish strewn on the streets and beaches –
until he dressed up as Spider-Man.
“At first, I did the same activity - picking up trash and junk - without wearing this costume and
it did not attract the public’s attention in order for them to join and help,” said the 36-year-old Hartono,
wearing his red and blue Spider-Man costume. “After wearing this costume, it turns out the public’s
response was extraordinary,” he added. Hartono usually collects waste as Spider-Man before his cafe
work begins at 7 p.m. and his efforts have helped put a spotlight on the waste issue nationally. He has
been interviewed by newspapers and appeared on television chat shows dressed in his superhero
costume to explain his motivation. Initially, he admits, he bought the Spider-Man outfit simply to amuse
his nephew, before others in his town took notice.
“We need a creative role model to foster society’s active engagement in protecting the
environment,” said Saiful Bahri, a resident of Pare-pare. With a population of around 142,000, Pare-
pare produces around 2.7 tonnes of unmanaged waste per day.
Hartono said he hoped the government would throw more weight behind efforts to clean up trash
and tighten rules on waste management including on single-use plastic bags. “Minimizing plastic waste
is the most important thing to do, because plastic is difficult to decompose,” he said.
(Adapted from readtoolead.com)

Question 39: What is the best title for this passage?


A. The Indonesian Public’s Response To The Waste Management Issue
B. Indonesia’s Waste Management Crisis Solved Thanks To One Man
C. An Inspiring Man In Superhero Costume Raises Public Awareness
D. The Problems Caused By Lack Of Waste Management in Indonesia
Question 40: Which of the following is NOT true?
A. In Hartano’s opinion, we should try to keep plastic waste at a minimum.
B. Hartano attracted public attention when he dressed up as Spider-Man.
C. Pare-pare’s residents have always paid attention to Hartano’s actions.
D. The government needs to do more to manage waste, according to Hartano.
Question 41: The phrase “foster” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. adore B. promote C. assist D. praise
Question 42: Why did Hartono buy the Spider-Man costume?
A. Because he noticed that people like Spider-Man
B. Because Spider-Man is his favorite superhero
C. Because he wanted to entertain a family member
D. Because he planned to attract the public’s attention
Question 43: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ___________.
A. activity B. trash C. costume D. junk

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Nicolas Vandenberghe’s company has 42 employees scattered among 36 cities in 15 countries.
As technology makes it possible for people to be in constant touch while working remotely, businesses
like Chili Piper are becoming the norm. “We have Zoom, Slack, and an array of other collaborative
tools — do we really need face-to-face meetings?” asks Vandenberghe, whose business makes software
to help companies manage meetings.
181
Whether it means a parent working from home while caring for a sick child, an employee who
logs into a company computer daily from a coffee shop or an entire firm that operates online, remote
working is gaining momentum at small businesses. Technology that makes communication and
meetings easy is a big factor in the growth of remote working. But a shrinking labour market, which
means companies must now recruit employees outside their main area of operation, is also an influential
factor that should be taken into account. Another reason why remote jobs is becoming popular is the
fact that working remotely is usually very flexible; employees can make their own hours, take time off
for children’s activities or to go to the gym or walk the dog.
But even as remote working grows, business owners find managing offsite employees involves
more than giving them the latest technology. For instance, owners say a remote operation can’t work
without trust between a boss and staffers, especially because it can be difficult for an owner to know
what an employee is doing during a workday. Tyler Forte recalls that when he first managed staff
remotely, he worried that his employees were spending time on social media sites and checked on them
too frequently, making them feel uncomfortable as a result. But over time, “you know that you’re all
working toward the same goals and you eventually develop trust in them,” says Forte, adding that he
has also found project management softwares that help him keep track of what everyone is doing.
Sometimes, remote work can also be a bad fit for some employees because it often is isolating,
which means they can feel disconnected and even alienated from co-workers. That can be countered to
some extent through messaging channels that allow everyone to join a fun discussion. Some bosses
even went further and created channels devoted to specific topics such as pets, sports, etc. Meanwhile,
other owners find remote work can stifle a team’s overall creativity. “You’re able to brainstorm ideas
better in person than when you’ve got several people on the phone,” says Andrew DeBell, CEO of a
company in California.
(Adapted from apnews.com)

Question 44: Which of the following best serves as a title for the passage?
A. The Growing Trend Of Remote Working And Some Of Its Issues
B. The Solutions To Issues Encountered When Working Remotely
C. The Unwanted Effects Of Remote Working On Some Employees
D. The Reasons Why Remote Working Is Becoming More Popular
Question 45: How can managers or bosses help their remote employees feel less isolated?
A. Always keep track of what they are doing.
B. Message them about topics like sports.
C. Encouraging them to join fun discussions.
D. Telling them to brainstorm ideas in meetings.
Question 46: The word “array” in paragraph 1 can be best replaced by ___________.
A. extent B. range C. span D. scale
Question 47: The word “them” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. goals B. employees C. sites D. softwares
Question 48: Technology can help bosses do all of the following EXCEPT
__________.
A. Creating channels for conversations B. Brainstorming new ideas
C. Organizing online meetings D. Manage what employees are doing
Question 49: The word “stifle” in the final paragraph is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. hamper B. withhold C. smother D. contain
Question 50: What can be inferred from the passage?
A. Those who do not work remotely rarely have leisure time.
B. Most remote employees feel isoleated or alienated from others.
C. Remote employees tend to surf the Internet during a workday.
D. In some cases, holding face-to-face meetings might still be better.

182
MOCK TEST 40

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. those B. thin C. thank D. thought
Question 2: A. climate B. liveable C. city D. discussion

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. purpose B. compose C. propose D. suppose
Question 4: A. entertain B. engineer C. committee D. referee

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: I really like all the characters in his last film, __________ on a true story about a group of
university students in his hometown.
A. is based B. basing C. based D. is basing
Question 6: The better the weather is, ________________.
A. the most crowded the beaches get B. the most the beaches get crowded
C. the more crowded the beaches get D. the more the beaches get crowded
Question 7: The passengers were waiting to board the game when it ________ to rain.
A. starts B. was starting C. started D. would start
Question 8: Durian is now ____ harvest season in Mekong Delta provinces.
A. in B. at C. under D. on
Question 9: Director Pham Thien An felt confused when he first studied films, ______?
A. did he B. didn’t he C. had he D. hadn’t he
Question 10: Nobody died in the terrorism, but 20 people were ____________
A. damaged B. injured C. spoiled D. wounded
Question 11: My parents hope to travel around______world next summer.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
Question 12: The online game “Dumb ways to die” quickly_____________with young people after
being released in 2013.
A. took on B. caught up C. caught on D. took up
Question 13: The police showed him a photo to try _____ his memory about what had happened on the
night of the robbery.
A. jogging B. to jog C. jogged D. to jogging
Question 14: He saw them watching him and bared his ___________ in the manner of an angry dog.
A. mouth B. tooth C. teeth D. nose
Question 15: ____________, the plans had been made for an intermediate evacuation of the city.
A. As soon as the bombing starts B. When the bombing had started
C. By the time the bombing started D. As long as the bombing started
Question 16: Amazon acquired Ring in 2018, ______ the way for the e-commerce giant to get into the
home security business.
A. getting B. putting C. paving D. showing
Question 17: Over 700 durian trucks __________ at the Vietnam-China border now.
A. are sticking B. were being stuck C. are stuck D. are being stuck
Question 18: What __________ views do Americans and Asians have about love and marriage?
A. tradition B. traditionally C. traditionalism D. traditional
Question 19: His poor standard of play fully justifies his __________from the team for the next match.
A. expulsion B. dismissal C. rejection D. exclusion

183
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 20: Jane: “Could you show me the way to the station?” - Jack: “___________”
A. About ten minutes. B. The show is not interesting.
C. The station is far from here. D. Go ahead, then turn left.
Question 21: Peter: “The air quality in Hanoi is getting worse and worse”.
Jenny:” ____________. I can’t see anything in the morning because of too much smoke.”
A. I don’t really think so. B. I don’t quite agree.
C. You can say that again. D. That’s not a matter.

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word ( s ) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Authorities in Bali will distribute a list of “dos and don’ts” for visitors arriving at the
tourist island.
A. collect B. assign C. circulate D. delete
Question 23: I’m sure it won’t rain, but I’ll take an umbrella just to be on the safe side.
A. careful B. easy C. careless D. difficult

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 24: The charming old buildings and cottages are a throwback to the colonial past.
A. cunning B. exciting C. interesting D. fascinating
Question 25: Greater gender equality brings freedom, boosts prosperity and strengthens global
security.
A. wealth B. disadvantage C. stagnation D. safety

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 26. I haven’t heard from him for ages.
A. I didn’t write to him for ages. B. I last wrote to him long time ago.
C. I wrote to him for ages. D. I haven’t written to him long time ago.
Question 27: ‘‘ Where did you go last night?” she said to her boyfriend.
A. She asked her boyfriend where did he go last night.
B. She asked her boyfriend where he went the night before.
C. She asked her boyfriend where had he gone the night before.
D. She asked her boyfriend where he had gone the night before.
Question 28: Jane still wants to go to the supermarket although the fridge is full of fruits.
A. There is no need for Jane to go to the supermarket.
B. Jane should go to the supermarket.
C. Jane hadn’t better go to the supermarket.
D. Jane mustn’t go to the supermarket.

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: We couldn’t see the mountains because of the rain.
A. If only it didn’t rain so we could see the mountains.
B. If it hadn’t rained, we could see the mountains.
C. I wish I had been able to see the mountains without rain.
D. But for the rain, I could see the mountains.
Question 30: When we crossed the fields, we saw a tiny house at the foot of the mountain.
A. No sooner had we crossed the fields when we saw a tiny house at the foot of the mountain.
B. Not until we crossed the fields did we see a tiny house at the foot of the mountain.
184
C. Scarcely had we crossed the fields than we saw a tiny house at the foot of the mountain.
D. It was not until we crossed the fields did we see a tiny house at the foot of the mountain.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 31: He was arrested at the airport with a kilo of heroine secreted in his clothing.
A. arrested B. with C. heroine D. clothing
Question 32: The national soccer team make every effort to win the match yesterday.
A. make B. effort C. to win D. yesterday
Question 33: Animals like frogs have waterproof skin that prevents it from drying out quickly in air,
sun, or wind.
A. have B. that C. it D. wind

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
There are many types of English around the world. Some well-known varieties in Asia include
Chinglish in China, Singlish in Singapore and Japanese English. A group of language experts in Japan
is troubled by how the government uses English. ___(34)_____, it says the government uses computer
or online translation too much. Researchers say many translations create strange and confusing words
and expressions _(35)_______are confusing to English speakers. The researchers worry this could have
a negative impact on Japan’s tourist industry. They even say the increasing number of unsuitable words
is becoming a “national embarrassment” in Japan.
The research team says computer software gives ____(36)_______ or incorrect translations for
individual kanji - the Chinese characters used in Japanese writing. There are____(37)________
examples of this, including “Hello Work” - the name for job centers, and “Go To Travel” a plan to help
tourism in Japan during the COVID-19 pandemic. The team says software creates, “unintentionally
funny translations that could easily be corrected if they were just checked by an English speaker”.
Businesses also create this English. The Christmas message being used by the Seibu Sogo department
store has raised ____(38)____. It says “Stay Positive.” Many people believe this is the wrong thing to
say during coronavirus and “Stay Happy” would be better.

Question 34: A. Consequently B. While C. In particular D. Generally


Question 35: A. whose B. who C. which D. whom
Question 36: A. foul B. odd C. flashy D. precise
Question 37: A. much B. many C. a lot D. plenty
Question 38: A. hands B. fingers C. voices D. eyebrows

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
The Chinese government has removed pangolin scales from its 2020 list of approved ingredients
used in traditional Chinese medicine, a move campaigners describe as a “critical step” towards saving
the world’s most trafficked mammal.
Pangolins are highly valued in Asia for scales, which many people believe can improve blood
circulation and reduce inflammation. Last year alone, authorities confiscated more than 130 tons of
illegal pangolin related products. There are eight species of pangolin found in Asia and Africa. To date,
three species are listed as critically endangered by the International Union for Conservation of Nature,
while the remaining five are listed as either vulnerable or endangered.
According to Chinese media, the latest edition of Chinese Pharmacopoeia - an official
government list of drugs covering approved traditional Chinese and Western medicines - no longer
includes pangolin scales. The decision to remove the pangolin from the official list comes just days after
China’s State Forestry and Grassland Bureau announced that the Chinese pangolin would be upgraded
185
to a “first-level protected wild animal,” the highest possible protection status alongside pandas and
tigers.
While conservationists from China and other countries have praised the actions of Chinese
authorities, some still felt that they came a bit too late. “Many years have passed. How many pangolins
have already been hunted and killed?” said Sophia Zhang, director of the Pangolin Working Group at
the China Biodiversity Conservation and Green Development Foundation.
(Adapted from edition.cnn.com)

Question 39: What is the best title for this passage?


A. What We Can All Do To Protect Pangolins
B. Why Are Chinese Pangolins Under Threat?
C. Pangolin Scales: How Valuable Are They?
D. A Big Step In The Protection Of Pangolins
Question 40: The word “confiscated” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. robbed B. detained C. arrested D. seized
Question 40: How have conservationists in China and in other countries react to the Chinese
government’s actions?
A. They are pleased but some felt that actions should have been taken sooner.
B. They believe these actions are useless, given the number of pangolins killed.
C. They doubt whether these actions will prevent people from hunting pangolins.
D. They are all glad that Chinese authorities have taken measures at the right time.
Question 42: Which of the following is NOT TRUE, according to the passage?
A. It is widely believed that pangolin scales have medicinal powers.
B. The Chinese government has a list of approved medicines.
C. There are five species of pangolins that are not endangered.
D. Pandas and tigers are first-level protected wild animals in China.
Question 43: The word “they” in paragraph 4 refers to __________.
A. conservationists B. countries C. actions D. authorities

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Despite the easing of lockdowns across the world, many businesses continue to operate largely
online. However, this new business model has exposed a problem: cyber attackers are
disproportionately targeting people of colour and ethnic minorities during this pandemic.
Rashad Robinson, the executive director of Color of Change, the United States’ largest online
racial justice organisation, which has lobbied social media companies to address civil rights violations
on their platforms through many public campaigns, says the Black, Asian and minority ethnic (BAME)
community faces “immediate danger” when working on the video call platform Zoom, where hackers
are still actively searching for loopholes to specifically target BAME communities online.
Robinson explained that these are not random pranks by individuals, but a coordinated effort.
“Color of Change have been contacted by at least 15 groups who have had their gatherings hijacked,”
he added. For instance, a virtual casting call for black actors, a meeting between minority students and
lecturers to discuss racism in universities, and a series of online talks about the aftermath of George
Floyd’s death were targeted on Zoom. Another Zoom event with speakers from White Coats for Black
Lives, an organisation of BAME medical students tackling racism within the US’s healthcare system,
was hijacked.
Lydia Amoah, a diversity specialist, was a target of a racially-motivated cyber-attack during a
webinar with 100 of her colleagues, clients and industry experts in April. “I felt sick for five days after
the hackers attacked. I felt so unsafe online, where I have no choice but to work [...] Even now I feel hot
[and] defenseless, they could see me but I couldn’t see them.” Amoah is now advising businesses and
other companies on how to deal with racism in the virtual workspace. Her new policy, the STOPIT

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Protocol, offers businesses a step-by-step guide on how to protect workers online, and has already been
implemented by some UK charities and organisations.
Color of Change has been in contact with Zoom and has asked the company to release a specific
plan to combat racial harassment on the platform and apologise to targets of Zoom bombings, but Lydia
believes responsibility also lies with employers who have not taken measures to protect minorities in the
virtual workspace. “The first step is sharing our stories, the next is for companies to start implementing
real and lasting policies that will protect all of their users.”
(Adapted from aljazeera.com)

Question 44: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. New Measures That Can Be Taken To Deal With Online Racism
B. Racism In The Virtual World: A Growing Problem
C. Why Do Hackers Always Target Zoom For Security Loopholes?
D. How Online Racism Affects People’s Mental State
Question 45: The word “lobbied” in paragraph 2 can be best replaced by ___________.
A. threatened B. forced C. urged D. deceived
Question 46: Why does Rashad Robinson say in paragraph 2 that the BAME community face
“immediate danger” when using Zoom?
A. Because Zoom has not tried to tackle civil rights violations.
B. Because this community is not being protected by Zoom.
C. Because hackers are planning to attack all Zoom users.
D. Because Zoom still has too many security loopholes.
Question 47: According to paragraph 3, which of the following is NOT an example of gatherings that
have been hijacked by hackers?
A. A virtual casting call on Zoom for actors who are black.
B. A Zoom meeting between minority students to discuss racism.
C. A series of talks about the aftermath of George Floyd’s death.
D. An event with speakers who are BAME medical students.
Question 48: The word “coordinated” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. scheduled B. engineered C. programmed D. organised
Question 49: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. No social media company has addressed civil rights violations.
B. White Coats for Black Lives is very popular with medical students.
C. Lydia Amoah was deeply affected emotionally after a cyber-attack.
D. Zoom will soon release its plan to deal with racial harassment.
Question 50: The word “them” in paragraph 4 refers to ___________.
A. colleagues B. clients C. experts D. hackers

MOCK TEST 41

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three
in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. health B. smooth C. bath D. depth
Question 2. A. climate B. livable C. city D. discuss

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. express B. depend C. discuss D. struggle
Question 4. A. solution B. principal C. passenger D. continent

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Revenge Bedtime Procrastination
“Revenge bedtime procrastination” is a term that describes the decision to sacrifice sleep for
leisure activities, (5) __________ this is driven by a daily schedule that lacks free time. For people in
high-stress jobs that take up the (6) __________ of their day, revenge bedtime procrastination is a way
to find a few hours of entertainment even though it results in insufficient sleep.
Sleep procrastination can take several different forms. One form involves delaying the act of
getting into bed (bedtime procrastination), while (7) ___________ is more about delaying the time of
trying to fall asleep once in bed (while-in-bed procrastination). The English term “revenge bedtime
procrastination” emerged from a translation of an expression in Chinese that (8) ___________
frustration caused by long, stressful working hours that left little time for personal enjoyment. In this
way, bedtime procrastination is seen as a way to get “revenge” on daytime hours for people
(9)________ have little or no free time.
(Adapted from sleepfoundation.org)
Question 5: A. so B. and C. or D. but
Question 6: A. pile B. bulk C. mass D. heap
Question 7: A. another B. others C. other D. the other
Question 8: A. relieved B. revealed C. released D. reflected
Question 9: A. who B. what C. that D. which

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 10. We can also see the stone dragons of Kinh Thien Palace and relics associated with many
Vietnamese royal families, ____ during archaeological excavations.
A. discovered B. being discovered C. to discover D. discovering
Question 11. Going by air is sometimes __________ than going by train.
A. dangerous B. most dangerous C. the most dangerous D. more dangerous
Question 12. I will send you some postcards, ______.
A. until I will arrive at the destination B. as soon as I arrive at the destination
C. when I arrived at the destination D. after I had arrived at the destination
Question 13. The Iphone 14 Pro Max is very popular _____ young adults because of its notable
features.
A. with B. on C. for D. about
Question 14. The flowers in our school garden are very beautiful, _______?
A. aren’t we B. is it C. isn’t he D. aren’t they
Question 15. The concert is expected to attract a lot of audience, so you should book _______ tickets in
advance.
A. a B. an C. the D. x
Question 16. Oprah Winfrey has been an important role model for black American women, breaking
down many invisible _______.
A. barriers B. trends C. gaps D. races
Question 17. I am thinking of changing my current job because I can’t _______ my low salary.
A. live on B. pay out C. save up D. set out
Question 18. The acupoints are stimulated _______ the healing capability of the body itself.
A. enhance B. to enhance C. enhancing D. enhanced
Question 19. The ceremony will be boring, but I suggest you still __________ in an appearance.
A. bring B. place C. set D. put
Question 20. When she came home from school yesterday, her mother _______in the kitchen.
A. cooked B. was cooking C. is cooking D. cooks
Question 21. He only receives a ________ salary every month, but it allowed him to make ends meet.
A. simple B. modest C. humble D. lowly
Question 22. The contract ________ when we reach an agreement on the price .
188
A. will have signed B. signs C. is signing D. will be signed
Question 23. For a public campaign to_______, it is important to make use of existing social
organizations as well as other relations.
A. successful B. success C. succeed D. successfully
Question 24. Don’t make a(n) ______ of going to bed late, Yumi. It’s only going to harm you.
A. custom B. habit C. pattern D. routine

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
As we explore outer space, we are also been creating a bit of a mess. Orbiting our planet are
thousands of dead satellites, along with bits of machinery from all the rockets we’ve launched over the
years. And one day, these objects that we leave in space – which are called space debris or space junk –
could pose serious issues.
All space junk are man-made objects launched from Earth, which remain in orbit until they re-
enter the atmosphere. Some objects in lower orbits of a few hundred kilometres often re-enter the
atmosphere quite fast and then burn up before reaching the ground. But junk and dead satellites that are
left at higher altitudes of 36,000 kilometres, can continue to circle Earth for hundreds or even thousands
of years.
Even the smallest pieces of space junk can travel at speeds up to 28,000 kilometres per hour,
presenting great risks to satellites functioning around the Earth. As a result of this, they have to actively
move out of the way to avoid getting hit. In total, across all satellites, hundreds of collision avoidance
manoeuvres are performed every year, including by the International Space Station (ISS), where
astronauts live. Fortunately, collisions scarcely happen and when they do, there has been no serious
loss.
The United Nations have called for the removal of satellites from orbit, and several companies
around the world have come up with creative solutions, including removing dead satellites from orbit
and dragging them back into the atmosphere, where they will burn up. However, these methods are only
useful for large satellites orbiting Earth. For now, we can only wait for smaller pieces of debris to
naturally re-enter Earth’s atmosphere.
(Adapted from nhm.ac.uk/discover)

Question 25: What is the passage mainly about?


A. Benefits of keeping outer space clean B. How satellites avoid hitting space junk
C. The problem of space debris D. Innovative ways to clean up space
Question 26: In paragraph 2, what do we learn about space debris or space junk?
A. Most space debris are created and sent into space by humans.
B. Space junk at lower altitudes usually returns to Earth quickly.
C. A lot of space debris burn up as they go near the Earth’s atmosphere.
D. When satellites are dead, they circle the Earth for thousands of years.
Question 27: The word “They” in paragraph 3 refers to ___________.
A. pieces B. speeds C. risks D. satellites
Question 28: The word “scarcely” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. slightly B. rarely C. faintly D. roughly
Question 29: Which of the following is TRUE, according the passage?
A. Dead satellites are the most common type of space junk.
B. The bigger a piece of space debris is, the faster it can travel.
C. The ISS help satellites avoid collisions hundreds of times yearly.
D. There is currently no method to remove smaller space junk from orbit.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following
exchanges.

189
Question 30. John was in Hanoi and wanted to send a parcel to his parents. He asked a local passer-by
the way to the post-office.
- John: “Can you show me the way to the nearest post office, please?” - Passer-by: “______”
A. Look it up in a dictionary! B. Just round the corner over there.
C. There’s no traffic near here. D. No way! I hate him.
Question 31. Mrs Brown and Mr Smith are talking about teaching soft skills at school.
- Mrs Brown: “Some soft skills should be taught to children.”
- Mr Smith: “______. They are necessary for them.”
A. I don’t either B. I agree with you C. You’re quite wrong D. You’re welcome

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 32. In this writing test, candidates will not be penalized for minor mechanical mistakes.
A. punished B. rewarded C. motivated D. discouraged
Question 33. John has been unemployed for the past three years – he’s really in dire straits.
A. in a serious situation B. in a bad situation
C. in a difficult situation D. in a pleasant situation

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions.
Question 34. My neighbor is a reckless driver. He has been fined for speeding this month.
A. enormous B. cautious C. careless D. famous
Question 35. Young couple got divorced after they realized that they were not compatible.
A. able to share an apartment or house B. able to budget their money
C. capable of living harmoniously D. capable of having children

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions.
Question 36. Every student is required to write an essay on the topic of lifelong learning.
A. Every student might write an essay on the topic of lifelong learning.
B. Every student must write an essay on the topic of lifelong learning
C. Every student can’t write an essay on the topic of lifelong learning.
D. Every student needn’t write an essay on the topic of lifelong learning.
Question 37. He last cooked for the whole family five months ago.
A. He didn’t cook for the whole family five months ago.
B. He has cooked for the whole family for five months.
C. He hasn’t cooked for the whole family for five months.
D. He would cook for the whole family in five months.
Question 38. “How long have you been working as a journalist?” She asked him.
A. She asked him how long he has been working as a journalist.
B. She asked him how long has he been working as a journalist.
C. She asked him how long he had been working as a journalist
D. She asked him how long had he been working as a journalist.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 39. The company had better develop more rapid and reliant systems for handling customers’
complaints.
A. company B. rapid C. reliant D. complaints
Question 40. My brother leaves his job last week because he did not have any chance to travel.
A. leaves B. because C. did not have D. to travel

190
Question 41. Commercial airliners do not fly in the vicinity of volcanic eruptions because even a small
amount of volcanic ash can damage its engines.
A. do not fly B. vicinity C. because D. its

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
When 37-year-old Heather Marcoux was expecting her son several years ago, she and her
husband assumed he would be the first of many. But today, the parents are very clear that the young boy
will never have a sibling. “We can offer our one child a pretty good standard of living,” she says. “But
if we added any more kids, it would go down significantly.”
It’s easy to see why young people are hesitating to have large families. Financial stability is
more difficult to achieve than ever. One in 10 non-retired Americans say their finances may never
recover from the COVID pandemic. For many, home ownership is nothing but a wild dream. In
Marcoux’s case, having to pay increasing living expenses and maintaining a home are part of the
reasons why the family won’t have more children. It’s scary, she says, to think that something
catastrophic could happen and throw them into financial crisis in the uncertain future. On top of that,
adds Marcoux, she worries that she isn’t providing enough for her son.
For other would-be parents, these financial concerns are only compounded by worries over
political and civil unrest, both local and global. While wars and political issues have been a reality for
nearly every generation, parents today face a world that seems much scarier than that of their own
parents or grandparents. Despite higher-than-ever life expectancy, improved technology and access to
modern healthcare, the constant presence of the mass media everywhere means we’re much more aware
of all the terrifying things happening around the world, from food shortages to school shootings.
The ongoing climate crisis is also a factor. A 2019 poll by Business Insider showed close to a
third of Americans thought couples should “consider the negative effects of climate change when
deciding whether to have children”. Marcoux says she fears the next generation will suffer with the
worst effects of climate change, and she worries about the dismal version of the Earth her child and
potential grandchildren will inherit. “Why would I bring another child into the mix when I sometimes
think about the future and am just terrified for him or her?” This is also the question many young people
have as they decide how many children to have, or whether to have any at all, in the face of increasingly
desperate reports about the state of the planet.
(Adapted from bbc.com)

Question 42: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Is The World Really As Bad As Parents Think It Is?
B. Why Parents Are Worrying About Their Children’s Future
C. Parenthood Is Becoming Scarier Than Ever In Today’s World
D. The Financial Challenge Facing The Next Generation Of Parents
Question 43: Why does Marcoux no longer want to have more children?
A. She is already struggling to maintain a good standard of living.
B. She may never recover financially after the COVID pandemic.
C. She believes that a catastrophic event will soon take place.
D. She is concerned about how much she is providing her son.
Question 44: The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to __________.
A. expenses B. reasons C. children D. family
Question 45: The word “compounded” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. exaggerated B. dramatized C. intensified D. emphasised
Question 46: Which of the following is NOT TRUE, according to the passage?
A. 10 percent of Americans say their finances will never return to pre-COVID levels.
B. Owning a house has become something that is entirely impossible for many people.
C. The mass media heightened our awareness of horrifying things happening globally.
D. Marcoux is worried about the future, which deters her from having more children.
191
Question 47: The word “dismal” in paragraph 4 can be best replaced by ___________.
A. flat B. blunt C. dim D. sour
Question 48: Which of the following can most likely be inferred from the passage?
A. Future generations will no longer understand the values of having children.
B. In the past, people around the world were less alarmed by negative issues.
C. Conflicts and political issues around the world can never come to an end.
D. Most young people will not have children until the climate crisis is over.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 49. She is snowed under with work. She cannot go out with her friends at weekend.
A. If she weren’t snowed under with work, she could go out with her friends at weekend.
B. Provided that she is snowed under with work, she cannot go out with her friends at weekend.
C. She wishes she were snowed under with work, she could go out with her friends at weekend.
D. If she were snowed under with work, she couldn’t go out with her friends at weekend.
Question 50. Ngoc’s personal information was leaked. She was aware of the danger of the Internet.
A. No sooner had Ngoc realised that the Internet was dangerous than her personal information
was leaked.
B. Only after Ngoc’s personal information had been leaked did she realise how dangerous the
Internet was.
C. Not until Ngoc’s personal information had been leaked was she aware of the benefit of the
Internet.
D. Hardly had Ngoc’s personal information been leaked when she realised how beneficial the
Internet was.

MOCK TEST 42
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Releasing Goldfish Into The Wild: A Terrible Idea
Goldfish may look small and cute in your home, but in the wild, it’s (1) __________ story.
Given enough time and resources, they will grow into giants, weighing as much as 2 kilograms. These
big fish are also big eaters, feeding on plants, insects, crustaceans, and even other fish (2) ___________
are smaller than them, posing a great threat to marine life in lakes and rivers.
If that’s not enough, they also (3) __________ foreign parasites and diseases that wreak havoc
on the delicately balanced ecosystems wherever they go. And they aren’t content to stay in one place.
Goldfish (4) __________ very rapidly and will migrate across multiple bodies of water. (5)
__________, when a few were dumped in a local Australian river in the early 2000s they eventually
migrated to the Vasse River, where they’re still a major problem today.
(Adapted from businessinsider.com)
Question 1: A. others B. the other C. another D. other
Question 2: A. where B. who C. what D. that
Question 3: A. impose B. implement C. install D. introduce
Question 4: A. regenerate B. reconstruct C. reproduce D. recreate
Question 5: A. For instance B. Likewise C. However D. By contrast

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
192
People celebrate many kinds of festivals, but the La Tomatina festival is definitely one of the
most unusual. La Tomatina is a food fight festival where people throw tomatoes at each other for fun. It
is held every year in the town of Buñol, Spain.
This festival, which is also known as “the world’s biggest food fight”, started in 1945. People
tell different stories about how it began. Some people blame it on children causing trouble. Others say
people were angry at the town’s government. But most stories agree that there was an argument and
then people fought with tomatoes. This tomato fight was so big that people remembered it and did it
again the next year for fun.
La Tomatina always happens on the last Wednesday of August. The tomato fight usually begins
at 11am, when a fleet of trucks transport more than 125,000 kilos of ripe tomato into the town, and it
lasts for about 1 hour. All participants are advised to wear old clothes, while many others also wear
goggles or masks to keep tomato juice out of their eyes.
The number of people joining La Tomatina used to be large but manageable. However, in
recent years, the number of attendees has been limited to 20,000 because too many people were trying
to visit the tiny town of Buñol, which led to safety and security concerns. This is why you need to book
much in advance if you want to join the fun!
(Adapted from kids.kiddle.co)
Question 6: What is the passage mainly about?
A. A day in the famous town Buñol B. A special public holiday in Spain
C. The origin of a food festival D. The biggest tomato fight in the world
Question 7: According to paragraph 2, which of the following is TRUE about the origin of La
Tomatina?
A. Most stories agree that it started because of naughty children.
B. It began with an angry argument over the town’s government.
C. The residents of Buñol loved growing and throwing tomatoes.
D. A big tomato fight in 1945 inspired people to start the festival.
Question 8: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to ___________.
A. fight B. fleet C. tomato D. town
Question 9: The word “manageable” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. reasonable B. controllable C. achievable D. predictable
Question 10: Which of the following is NOT TRUE about La Tomatina, according to the passage?
A. It is a food festival which is organised annually in a small Spanish town.
B. People always celebrate it on the Wednesday of the last week in August.
C. Many participants try to protect their eyes as they join the tomato fight.
D. There have been concerns about its safety and security for a long time.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three
in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 11: A. foot B. look C. smooth D. should
Question 12: A. appreciate B. psychology C. programme D. respectively

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 13: A. bamboo B. cattle C. journey D. forest
Question 14: A. attendance B. candidate C. scholarship D. scenery

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 15. Laura always buys products _______ on social media.
A. advertising B. to advertise C. advertise D. advertised
Question 16. Perhaps John was ______ person when he was nominated for the presidency.
A. happy B. the happier C. the happiest D. happier
Question 17. The meeting will begin ______ .
193
A. when all the participants were arriving B. by the time all the participants arrived
C. as soon as all the participants arrive D. after all the participants had arrived
Question 18: A good friend should _____ you whatever happens.
A. be in favor of B. take after C. stand by D. bring around
Question 19. According to new research, _______ elderly are most affected by the covid-19 pandemic.
A. the B. Ø C. an D. a
Question 20. Everybody is tired of watching the same commercials on TV every night, _____?
A. are they B. haven’t they C. aren’t they D. don’t they
Question 21. The commercial includes colorful imagery since pre-school children are the __________
audience for it.
A. intent B. desired C. purpose D. target
Question 22: Loan was initially keen __________ see the movie Mat Biec tonight, but for some reason
she doesn’t want to do that anymore.
A. at B. in C. on D. to
Question 23. I regret ______ you that your flight to Chicago has been delayed.
A. to inform B. informing C. to informing D. inform
Question 24. Just days after he __________ 18, my grandfather was drafted into the army.
A. reached B. aged C. turned D. made
Question 25. Someone knocked the door when Bob ________ a shower.
A. has taken B. is taking C. was taking D. takes
Question 26. He’s not exactly a stranger to me, but we’re only on __________ terms.
A. greeting B. knowing C. nodding D. talking
Question 27. Do you think that elephants _______ only in African countries?
A. can be found B. can find C. must find D. may find
Question 28. The atmosphere at the meeting was very _____ and everyone was on first name terms.
A. formal B. informal C. formality D. informality
Question 29. It’s easy to lose your temper and say inappropriate things in the ________ of the moment.
A. height B. heat C. frenzy D. madness

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
In the 1960s, doctors studying the survivors of the 1918 Spanish flu pandemic began to notice a
trend: patients who were infants or young adults at the time of the pandemic appeared to had been two
or three times more likely to develop Parkinson’s disease than others. Neurologists attempting to
understand why this happens believe that this virus may be able to enter and, in some cases, damage the
brain, starting a process of degeneration which can lead to Parkinson’s.
Now, they are trying to monitor whether the current COVID pandemic will also trigger a higher
rate of Parkinson’s cases in the coming years. “We don’t know but we need to consider that this could
become the case,” says Patrik Brundin, a Parkinson’s researcher. “There are several studies highlighting
that people who have recovered from COVID often have long-term central nervous system
impairments, including loss of sense of smell and taste, brain fog, depression, and anxiety.”
Over the past year, scientists like Brundin have been concerned by a small number of case
studies describing patients who have developed abnormal symptoms similar to Parkinson’s such as
tremors, muscle stiffness, and impaired speech after COVID-19 infection. More recent research has
found that some COVID patients have disruptions in one of the human body’s most critical systems,
known as the kynurenine pathway, which is used to produce a number of crucial amino acids required
for brain health. When it malfunctions, there can be an accumulation of toxins which are thought to play
a role in causing Parkinson’s disease.
Many feel that there is a need for continued monitoring of any Parkinson’s-like symptoms which
emerge in people previously infected with COVID, in case the near future reveals a gradual spike in
cases. However, Parkinson’s is not the only concern. Experts around the world are trying to figure out if
COVID-19 will induce a hidden wave of other illnesses related to the effects of the Sars-CoV-2 virus
194
on our immune system. In the future, these research efforts can help us find new ways of detecting these
diseases at an early stage, and even pave the way to new and more effective treatments and vaccines.
(Adapted from bbc.com)

Question 30: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. How Pandemics Of The Past May Have Caused Parkinson’s Disease
B. COVID-19 And Parkinson’s Disease: A Possible Connection
C. How Will Your Brain Health Be Affected After COVID-19?
D. The Global Effort To Discover The Cure For COVID-Related Illnesses
Question 31: According to paragraph 1, neurologists believe that ___________.
A. The Spanish flu was the main cause of Parkinson’s disease in the 1960s.
B. Adults suffering from the Spanish flu were less likely to have Parkinson’s.
C. The brain may be affected by the Spanish flu virus, triggering Parkinson’s.
D. Brain damage caused by viruses results in more serious Parkinson’s cases.
Question 32: The word “impairments” in paragraph 2 can be best replaced by ___________.
A. obstructions B. degradations C. imperfections D. restrictions
Question 33: The word “induce” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. originate B. establish C. develop D. revitalise
Question 34: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. recent research B. human C. kynurenine pathway D. brain health
Question 35: Which of the following is NOT TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Some people still lose the ability to smell or taste after suffering from COVID-19.
B. A rising number of COVID-19 patients developed similar symptoms to Parkinson’s .
C. The brain cannot function well without amino acids made by the kynurenine pathway.
D. It is believed that some toxins can contribute to the development of Parkinson’s disease.
Question 36: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Most researchers think there is most likely a link between COVID-19 and Parkinson’s.
B. There is proof to suggest COVID-19 can worsen human brain health in the long term.
C. Parkinson’s-like symptoms are more severe in those who were infected with COVID-19.
D. Observing the Sars-CoV-2 virus will help us discover a cure for Parkinson’s disease.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 37. David is apologizing to his teacher for being late.
David: “Sorry I’m late! The traffic is so heavy.” - Teacher:” ______ . Come in and sit down.’’
A. Thank you B. You’re so kind C. Me neither D. It’s alright
Question 38: Susan shared with her friend about her losing purse,
Susan: “I have lost my purse.” - Her friend: “ ________ .”
A. It’s careless B. Oh, what a pity C. That’s nothing D. Oh, be careful

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 39. Because of his disease, the doctor advised him to desist from alcohol and meat. However,
he seems not to follow this advice.
A. continue B. cease C. abstain D. undermine
Question 40. Most families in my village have been on the breadline since the covid-19 pandemic
broke out.
A. healthy B. exhausted C. poor D. wealthy

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

195
Question 41. Today hectic lifestyles also prevent us from spending as much time as we should on
staying in shape.
A. happy B. idle C. free D. occupied
Question 42. Cycling would be a practical approach to the problem of air pollution in this city.
A. debate B. review C. solution D. conclusion

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions.
Question 43: It is obliged for you to help her finish that project.
A. You shouldn’t help her finish that project. B. You would help her finish that project.
C. You must help her finish that project. D. You needn’t help her finish that project.
Question 44: It is six months since I last went to the park.
A. I didn’t go to the park for six months. B. I haven’t gone to the park for six months.
C. I have gone to the park for six months. D. I went to the park for six months.
Question 45: “How long have you volunteered at this hospital?” Linda asked me.
A. Linda asked me how long had I volunteered at that hospital.
B. Linda asked me how long I have volunteered at this hospital.
C. Linda asked me how long I had volunteered at that hospital
D. Linda asked me how long have I volunteered at that hospital.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 46.1. I think artificial intelligence is going to replace jobs in the future.
A. I think B. artificial intelligence C. is going to replace D. in the
future
Question 47. Barack Obama, along with their wife and two daughters entered the white House.
A. along B. their C. and D. entered
Question 48: People suppose that the adventure of ChatGPT will have negative impacts on how college
students write essays.
A. suppose B. adventure C. on D. essays

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 49. His essay isn’t perfect. His illegible handwriting spoils it.
A. His essay would be perfect if his handwriting were illegible.
B. Unless his handwriting is illegible, his essay will be perfect.
C. Without his illegible handwriting, his essay would be perfect.
D. Provided that his handwriting was illegible, his essay wouldn’t be perfect.
Question 50. Hans told us about his investing in the company. He did it on his arrival at the meeting.
A. Only after investing in the company did Hans inform us of his arrival at the meeting.
B. Not until Hans told us that he would invest in the company did he arrive at the meeting.
C. Hardly had he informed us about his investing in the company when Hans arrived at the
meeting.
D. No sooner had Hans arrived at the meeting than he told us about his investing in the
company.

MOCK TEST 43

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
196
Question 1: A. scholar B. architect C. machine D. scheme
Question 2: A. brought B. ought C. thought D. though

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. develop B. adjective C. generous D. popular
Question 4: A. deploy B. maintain C. focus D. attain

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: Two NASA astronauts _____ from the USA will meet with 3,000 students in Binh Dinh to
talk about life in space.
A. coming B. come C. are coming D. to come
Question 6: I think that Den Vau is ____________ singer in Vietnam.
A. the more warm-hearted B. the most warm-hearted
C. most warm-hearted D. more warm-hearted than
Question 7: At least 207 people were killed and 900 injured when two passenger trains _____ in
Odisha, India.
A. collided B. was collided C. had collided D. collide
Question 8: Brain’s attitude _______ his work has always been very positive.
A. with B. into C. at D. towards
Question 9: Everyone injured was taken to hospital last night, _______?
A. weren’t they B. were they C. wasn’t he D. was he
Question 10: You can form strong __________ when you work with people who share a mutual
interest.
A. connections B. elements C. attitudes D. consumers
Question 11: After dozens of years of living in ___ United States, my uncle decided to move back to
Vietnam.
A. no article B. a C. an D. the
Question 12: Airlines and airports are _________ ways to handle bags quicker and more efficiently.
A. working out B. making out C. seeing out D. giving out
Question 13: A surge in demand amid declining hydropower production has forced Vietnam Electricity
_______ power supply to a Hanoi suburb to ensure system safety.
A. to cut B. to cutting C. cutting D. cut
Question 14: During her time in China for “Sisters Who Make Waves”, Chi Pu and her team have
helped put many Vietnamese brands under the _______.
A. headline B. highlight C. stage D. spotlight
Question 15: _______, they will have done their homework.
A. By the time you finish cooking B. By the time you finished cooking
C. When you finish cooking D. While you finish cooking
Question 16: Smart companies are discovering that it is no longer a choice between _____ green and
growing long-term profits.
A. getting B. making C. going D. having
Question 17: The application form ______ to the university before May 31st.
A. must send B. sent C. must be sending D. must be sent
Question 18: It is desirable that the hotel manager remember to call the _______ staff every 6 months
to clean up the air conditioners.
A. maintaining B. maintain C. maintainable D. maintenance
Question 19: The festival is only held once every 10 years, so I won’t miss it for the __________.
A. star B. globe C. earth D. world

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 20: Two students, Joe and James are chatting about time.
- Joe: “The weekend goes so quickly.” - James: “I know. _______________”
A. I love watching TV all Saturdays and Sundays.
B. I can’t believe that it’s Monday tomorrow.
C. I have English lessons on Tuesdays and Fridays.
D. How about going out for a meal this weekend?
Question 21: Tom is in Ho Chi Minh city and asks a passer-by the way to the railway station.
- Tom: “Can you show me the way to the railway station, please?” - Passer-by: “_______”
A. No way. B. Just round the corner over there.
C. Look it up in a dictionary! D. There’s no traffic near here.

letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word (s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Some vegetables are grown without soil and artificial light.
A. real B. natural C. genuine D. true
Question 23: Specialists listed out three reasons why Silicon Valley Bank went belly up.
A. went bankrupt B. went out business C. went on thriving D. went out of track

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 24: I knew she was only flattering me because she wanted to borrow some money.
A. teasing B. threatening C. praising D. helping
Question 25: Vietnam can simply buy Covid-19 vaccines at appropriate prices instead of trying to
develop one by itself.
A. proper B. reasonable C. expensive D. irrelevant

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 26: The last time I saw David was when I ran into him at the station on my way to New York.
A. I haven’t seen David since a chance meeting with him at the station when I was setting off for
New York.
B. When I last went to New York, I happened to meet David at the station.
C. When I last saw David at the station in New York, I ran after him.
D. I finally saw David at the station when I was on my way to New York.
Question 27: “How long have you lived in Ha Noi”? said my friend.
A. My friend asked me how long have I lived in HaNoi.
B. My friend asked me how long had I lived in HaNoi.
C. My friend asked me how long I had lived in HaNoi.
D. My friend asked me how long I have lived in HaNoi.
Question 28: Her daughter is able to play the piano very well.
A. Her daughter can play the piano very well.
B. Her daughter needn’t play the piano very well.
C. Her daughter must play the piano very well.
D. Her daughter couldn’t play the piano very well.

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: They didn’t have breakfast this morning. That’s why they are hungry now.
A. They wish they had had breakfast this morning.
B. They wish they had breakfast this morning.
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C. They wish they have breakfast this morning.
D. They wish they would have breakfast this morning.
Question 30: He was very surprised to be addressed by the Queen. He didn’t answer at once.
A. Not until he was so surprised to answer did the Queen address him.
B. Only when he was addressed by the Queen could he answer the surprising questions at once.
C. So surprised was he to be addressed by the Queen that he didn’t answer at once.
D. But for such a nice surprise, he would have been addressed by the Queen.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 31: We will offer you a comprehensible training in all aspects of the business if you take this
course.
A. offer B. comprehensible C. aspects D. take
Question 32: We first have met each other in San Diego in 2018.
A. first B. have met C. each other D. in
Question 33: Sloths spend most of its time hanging upside down from trees and feeding on leaves and
fruit.
A. most B. its C. feeding D. fruit

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase
that best fits each the numbered blanks.
The knock-on effect of volunteering on the lives of individuals can be profound. Voluntary work
helps foster independence and imparts the ability to deal with different situations, often simultaneously,
thus teaching people how to (34) ________ their way through different systems. It therefore brings
people into touch with the real world; and, hence, equips them for the future.
Initially, young adults in their late teens might not seem to have the expertise or knowledge to
impart to others that say a teacher or agriculturalist or nurse would have, (35) ________ they do have
many skills that can help others. And in the absence of any particular talent, their energy and
enthusiasm can be harnessed for the benefit of their fellow human beings, and ultimately themselves.
From (36) ________this, the gain to any community no matter how many volunteers are involved is
(37) ________.
Employers will generally look favorably on people (38) ________ have shown an ability to
work as part of a team. It demonstrates a willingness to learn and an independent spirit, which would be
desirable qualities in any employee.

Question 34. A. give B. work C. put D. take


Question 35. A. so B. but C. or D. for
Question 36. A. all B. none C. above D. both
Question 37. A. unattainable B. immeasurable C. undetectable D. impassible
Question 38. A. which B. whose C. who D. what

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Right now, most people, across all sectors of society, are being affected by COVID-19, and one
particular group we should keep in mind during this challenging time is older adults, whose routines and
usual support systems may be disrupted as the pandemic continues its spread.
The stress of COVID-19, the/ uncertainty it creates, and the potential for older adults to be more
susceptible to the virus, can heighten underlying risks for depression or anxiety. Thankfully, patients
with these mental health conditions can be effectively treated, as they are not a natural part of ageing.
However, we do have to make sure that they are given enough medical attention and social support.
During this pandemic, being in an older age group and having chronic health conditions
significantly increase one’s risks of contracting the disease. This can compound the stress many older
199
adults already feel in daily life. When pain or illness lead to functional disability, the individual’s sense
of identity and well-being can be significantly impacted. However, physical conditions are prevalent for
most older adults and can often be well managed, minimising the negative effects they can have on
mentality.
Finally, social distancing can create further isolation, which means that the usual social support
and contacts that many older adults have with others may be diminished. This is why we must pay
attention to the important points of contact, including regular interaction with family, neighbors, clubs,
faith communities, and social services such as meal delivery or home care personnel.
(Adapted from afsp.org)
Question 39: What is the best title for this passage?
A. Mental Risks For Older People During COVID-19 Pandemic
B. Why Does COVID-19 Create So Much Stress And Uncertainty?
C. How COVID-19 Can Cause More Physical Illnesses In The Old
D. What Should Older Adults Do To Reduce COVID-19 Stress?
Question 40: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to __________.
A. adults B. risks C. patients D. conditions
Question 41: Depression or anxiety can be effectively treated because ___________.
A. we can cure them completely with little medical attention.
B. providing social support is enough to reduce their intensity.
C. these conditions are not a natural occurrence when we age.
D. they occur as people get older and will go away eventually.
Question 42: The word “compound” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. trigger B. worsen C. enhance D. combine
Question 43: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Having chronic health conditions increases COVID-19 infection risks.
B. Physical illnesses are mostly prevalent and manageable in older adults.
C. Social distancing can lead to reduced social support for many older adults.
D. Family interactions are the most important point of contact for older people.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
The worldwide total volume of plastic has reached 8.3 billion metric tons, the equivalent of
more than 800,000 Eiffel Towers, according to a 2017 article in Science Advances. Every year, 8
million tons of plastic reaches the oceans, which is equivalent of a full garbage truck every minute.
Furthermore, plastic does not biodegrade easily and stays around for thousands of years. Slowly, it leaks
chemical substances that are harmful for the environment, for animals and for people. So what can be
done?
It is heartening that many countries have implemented policy measures to tackle their plastic
problem. Last year, Kenya completely banned the production, sale and use of plastic bags. Violations
may result in imprisonment of up to four years, or fines of up to $40,000. Many other countries,
including Bangladesh, Rwanda and China, are following Kenya’s lead, putting in place either total or
partial bans on plastic bags, or new forms of plastic taxation.
One promising idea to fight plastic pollution is known as the circular economy, which focuses
on waste Reduction, Reuse, and Recycling (3R). In a circular economy, waste is treated as an extremely
valuable material that should be reused or recycled, not only in order to reduce the volume of trash but
also to generate new economic opportunities. This economic model requires policies that actively
encourage a 3R approach to plastic waste. For example, the EU adopted a Circular Economy Action
Plan in 2016, which includes targets for recycling 75% of packaging waste by 2030 and making all
plastic packaging recyclable by the same date. It is also proposing a ban on the most commonly used
single-use plastic products.
However, to truly make lasting changes that will help to save the environment, it is critical that
we not only focus on large-scale measures but also on raising public awareness. This can happen
200
through environmental education and information campaigns, directed at young people especially, as
well as at the private sector. Even small individual acts, such as bringing one’s own shopping bag to the
market, contribute to lowering the amount of plastic waste. Businesses can ban plastic bags and
encourage the use of biodegradable bags. Hotels and factories have the opportunity to create networks
of recycling and reusing materials, simultaneously saving money and decreasing waste. If we all
commit to beating plastic pollution, we can make a monumental difference.
(Adapted from readtoolead.com)
Question 44: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. What The Public Must Do To Minimise The Impacts Of Plastic Pollution
B. The Large-Scale Changes Being Made In Our Battle Against Plastic
C. The World’s Plastic Problem And The Actions We Can Take To Solve It
D. Will A Circular Economy Help The World Tackle Plastic Pollution?
Question 45: The word “heartening” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. electrifying B. exhilarating C. encouraging D. energising
Question 46: According to paragraph 2, how are many countries following Kenya’s example in solving
plastic pollution?
A. They all imposed total bans on plastic bag use.
B. They imprisoned those who produce plastic bags.
C. They forced plastic bag users to pay heavy fines.
D. They introduced new forms of taxes on plastic.
Question 47: In paragraph 3, we learn that in a circular economy,
__________.
A. waste is an extremely valuable material that can be traded.
B. we reduce the total volume of waste by means of vứt bỏ.
C. reusing or recycling can result in economic opportunities.
D. policies encouraging the 3R approach will not be needed.
Question 48: The word “This” in paragraph 4 refers to __________.
A. Making lasting changes B. Helping to save the environment
C. Focusing on large-scale measures D. Raising public awareness
Question 49: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Even with proper measures, plastic pollution will continue for decades.
B. More nations will soon take strict policy measures like those of Kenya.
C. Only big organisations such as the EU wishes to support the circular economy.
D. The general public plays a significant role in the fight against plastic pollution.
Question 50: The word “monumental” in paragraph 4 can be best replaced by ___________.
A. dominant B. vigorous C. assertive D. impactful

MOCK TEST 44

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. regional B. gender C. surgeon D. singular
Question 2. A. shame B. care C. make D. skate

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. devastate B. conclusion C. optimist D. interest
Question 4: A. worker B. borrow C. cartoon D. happen

201
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Thanks to scientific and technological developments, new building materials are emerging,
which opens up a wide range of possibilities. In the near future, we will most likely see buildings that
are stronger, more environmentally-friendly, and more cost-efficient than those of the present day.
Concrete is strong, but even a small crack in a concrete structure can develop into a much
bigger, more expensive problem over time. However, scientists have recently found a way to help
concrete mend itself when cracks occur. The solution involves adding to wet concrete a special type of
spores that can grow and produce calcite, which helps fill and prevent cracks in concrete from getting
wider. This type of self-healing concrete can help buildings and other structures last longer without
significant repairs or replacement.
Air conditioning is an energy-intensive process that is responsible for a considerable portion of
global carbon emissions. Recently, however, students at the Institute for Advanced Architecture of
Catalonia have created hydroceramics, a material made of a clay composite and hydrogel that can cool
buildings. First, the hydrogel collects water in the atmosphere and when the building becomes hotter,
heat will be transferred to the collected water. Then, the water will evaporate and take the heat away
with it. In ideal conditions, the use of this material could reduce air conditioning use by 28 percent,
which would result in significant savings and reduction in carbon emissions.
Architects and builders are also making use of recycled materials like scrap metal, cardboard,
and even plastic bottles to create new buildings with smaller carbon footprints. Recycled cardboard, for
example, is being used to create cellulose insulation whose quality is significantly higher than insulation
made with traditional processes.
(Adapted from aquicore.com)
Question 5: What is the passage mainly about?
A. Environmentally-friendly buildings
B. Innovative building materials
C. How to help building materials become stronger
D. How buildings will be constructed in the future
Question 6: The word “those” in paragraph 1 refers to ___________.
A. developments B. materials C. possibilities D. buildings
Question 7: The word “mend” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. reform B. upgrade C. restore D. adjust
Question 8: How does hydroceramics help cool buildings?
A. Hydrogel will collect evaporated water in the atmosphere to reduce air temperatures.
B. Heat will be lost with the water collected by hydrogel in the process of evaporation.
C. Water in the atmosphere will first absorb heat and then be evaporated by hydrogel.
D. Hydrogel will take the heat away by making water in the atmosphere evaporate.
Question 9: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Self-healing concrete will help buildings and other structures last longer without any repair
work.
B. Although it uses little energy, air conditioning still contributes greatly to carbon emissions.
C. Hydroceramics will help people reduce air conditioning use and save 28 percent of money.
D. The insulation provided by recycled cardboard is better than that made with traditional
processes.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 10 - “Mom, I’ve received an offer for a summer internship in Singapore!” - “____”
A. Really? Good luck! B. Oh, that’s great! Congratulations!
C. I couldn’t agree more. D. Oh, I’m sorry to hear that.
Question 11. “Excuse me, is anybody sitting here?” – “_____”.
A. No, thanks B. Yes, I am so glad
202
C. Sorry, the seat is taken D. Yes, yes. You can sit here

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 12. The shop assistant was totally bewildered by the customer’s behavior.
A. disgusted B. enlightened C. angry D. upset
Question 13. The Internet is a treasure trove of information, which offers knowledge on any given topic
under the sun.
A. densely B. scarcely C. abundantly D. undoubtedly

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions.
Question 14. At last, Huong made a single-minded effort to get a scholarship so that she could have
chance to study overseas.
A. dogged B. serious C. unresolved D. necessary
Question 15.These are all stars, professional teams composed of 22 players each.
A. stupid B. ugly C. amateurish D. ill

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions
Question 16. Hoi An Ancient town, __________in Viet Nam’s central Quang Nam Province,
comprises 30 ha and it has a buffer zone of 280 ha.
A. locating B. located C. to locate D. which located
Question 17. The prices of Japanese cars are _______ than those of Chinese ones.
A. expensive B. most expensive C. the most expensive D. more expensive
Question 18. _______, they will have done their homework.
A. By the time you finish cooking B. By the time you finished cooking
C. When you finish cooking D. While you finish cooking
Question 19. They were taught that families were strong, and everybody should stick
together ________ adversity.
A. with B. to C. of D. in
Question 20. Nobody called me yesterday, ________?
A. did they B. are they C. is he D. isn’t she
Question 21. First our team should identify a specific need in the community and then carry out a
project to address ________ need.
A. an B. Ø C. a D. the
Question 22. Volunteers may be required to obtain Red Cross _______ in order to serve through
hospitals and healthcare organizations or provide disaster relief.
A. diploma B. certificate C. license D. degree
Question 23: Peter is not a modest boy since he often _______his prizes.
A. boasts for B. takes pride C. shows off D. appriciates with
Question 24. My mother wanted my teeth _____.
A. examine B. to examine C. examining D. to be examined
Question 25.Our new classmate, John is a bit of a rough ________ but I think I’m going to like him
once I get used to him.
A. stone B. rock C. diamond D. pearl
Question 26. We _______ about the future when the teacher came in.
A. were discussing B. will discuss C. has discussed D. had discussed
Question 27.We _______ full advantage of the fine weather and had a day out.
A. took B. created C. did D. made
Question 28. A new textbook _______ by that company next year.
A. will publish B. will be published C. are published D. publish
203
Question 29. Lessons from the ___ developed countries are worth learning to save our time.
A. economically B. economic C. economize D. economical
Question 30. In this job, experience accounts for more than paper_____
A. background B. certificates C. quality D. qualifications

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks
Ever since humans (31) _____ the earth, they have made use of various forms of communication
Generally, this expression of thoughts and feelings has been in the form of oral speech. When there is a
language barrier, communication is accomplished through sign language in 32) _____ motions stand for
letters, words, and ideas. Tourists, the deaf, and the mute have had to resort to this form of expression.
(33) _____ of these symbols of whole words are very picturesque and exact and can be used
internationally, spelling, however, cannot.
Body language (34) _____ ideas or thoughts by certain actions, either intentionally or
unintentionally. A wink can be a way of flirting or indicating that the party is only joking. A nod
signifies approval, while sharking the head indicates a negative reaction. Other forms of nonlinguistic
language can be found in Braille, signal flags, Morse code, and smoke signals. (35) _____ verbalization
is the most common form of language, other systems and techniques also express human thoughts and
feelings.

Question 31: A. settled B. inhabited C. resided D. lived


Question 32: A. where B. which C. that D. whose
Question 33: A. Many B. Every C. Each D. Much
Question 34: A. transmits B. translates C. transforms D. transacts
Question 35: A. Despite B. However C. While D. As

Mark the letter A.B.C. or D on your answer seer to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
following questions.
Question 36: The Simpsons have a barbecue in the garden when it suddenly started to rain
A. suddenly B. have C. The Simpsons D. it
Question 37: Discovering that he had an attitude for finance, he got a job as a commercial-credit
analyst
A. commercial B. attitude C. Discovering D. analyst
Question 38: There were only a few classrooms and its walls were made of mud and straw
A. few B. its C. of D. were

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions.
Question 39. It’s mandatory for people to check their temperature before entering the bank.
A. People should check their temperature before entering the bank.
B. People must check their temperature before entering the bank.
C. People can’t check their temperature before entering the bank.
D. People wouldn’t check their temperature before entering the bank.
Question 40. The last time I ate spaghetti was five months ago.
A. I didn’t eat spaghetti five months ago. B. I would eat spaghetti in five months.
C. I have eaten spaghetti for five months. D. I haven’t eaten spaghetti for five months.
Question 41. Our teacher asked us, ‘What are you most worried about?”
A. Our teacher asked us what I was most worried about
B. Our teacher asked us what were we most worried about
C. Our teacher asked us what we are most worried about
D. Our teacher asked us what we were most worried about

204
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 42: She didn’t take her father’s advice. That’s why she is bored with her work
A. If she took her father’s advice, she wouldn’t have been bored with her work.
B. If she takes her father’s advice, she won’t be bored with her work
C. If she had taken her father’s advice, she wouldn’t have been bored with her work.
D. If she had taken her father’s advice, she wouldn’t be bored with her work.
Question 43: I arrived at work. The assistant knocked at the door
A. No sooner had I arrived at work than the assistant knocked at the door
B. I hardly knew the assistant knocked at the door as I just arrived at work
C. I was arriving at work as the assistant knocked at the door.
D. Hardly had I arrived at work then the assistant knocked at the door

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions
Having a second version of yourself, or “alter ego”, may seem unusual, but research suggests
there may be some real benefits. Adopting an alter ego is an extreme form of ‘self-distancing’, which
involves taking a step back from our immediate and often illogical feelings about a situation to allow us
to view it in a more dispassionate way.
Research has shown that even small shifts in perspective can help people to rein in their
negative emotions. In one study, participants were asked to think about a challenging future event, like
an important exam, in two different ways. The group in the “immersed” condition were told to picture it
as if they were experiencing the situation, whereas those in the “distanced” condition were asked to
picture it as if they were observers. The differences were striking, with those taking the distanced
viewpoint feeling much less anxious about the event compared to the immersed group. In addition, the
self-distancing experience encouraged greater feelings of self-efficacy – the sense that they could
actively handle the situation and achieve their goal.
Another possibility is that self-distancing could increase self-discipline. In an experiment,
Rachel White, an assistant professor of psychology, told a group of six-year-olds to do a concentration
test. It was designed to be boring, but the children were told that it was an important activity. As a
potential distraction, the researchers also left them with an iPad with a fun game. Beforehand, the
children were told to think about their feelings if they feel bored. Some were told to think “Am I
working hard?”, others were told to think in the third-person (“Is Hannah working hard?”), and a third
group were told to think as if they were their favourite fictional hero like Batman. The result were as
expected: it was the children in the third group who stay focused on the task for the longest.
Given these findings, researchers suspect that we could all boost our emotional regulation and
self-control by creating a different identity and switching to it when necessary. White also suggests
picking a different alter ego to adopt for different goals – maybe a wise family member for a personal
dilemma, or a work mentor that you admire and trust for a professional problem. “When I was a
postdoc, we had a little saying in our lab that if you’re an undergrad, pretend to be a grad student. If you
are a grad student, pretend to be a postdoc, and if you’re a postdoc, pretend to be the leader of the lab –
just to get you to that next level,” she says.
Whatever alter ego we choose, the practice should create some psychological space away from
potentially distracting feelings, while also reminding us of the behaviours we want to imitate. Whether
we’re placing ourselves in the shoes of a friend, a celebrity, or Batman himself, a little imagination
might bring us closer to the person we wish to become.
(Adapted from bbc.com)
Question 44: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Want To Be More Self-Disciplined? Try Having Multiple Personalities
B. How Having Another Version Of Yourself May Offer You Benefits
C. Why Switching To An Alter-Ego Can Help You Feel Less Anxious
D. What You Need To Consider To Create The Best Alter Ego For You
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Question 45: The word “dispassionate” in paragraph 4 can be best replaced by ___________.
A. productive B. unfeeling C. insensitive D. rational
Question 46: The phrase “rein in” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. obstruct B. enclose C. contain D. disrupt
Question 47: What did the study in paragraph 2 find?
A. Viewing a challenging situation in an immersed condition can increase anxiety.
B. The self-distancing experience helps reduce anxiety in challenging situations.
C. Self-efficacy is only promoted when people have a distanced perspective.
D. Taking an immersed viewpoint will make people fail to achieve goals.
Question 48: Which of the following is TRUE about the experiment in paragraph 3?
A. The children were told to do an unimportant concentration test to test their self-discipline.
B. The researchers told the children that the test would be fun even though it was designed to be
boring.
C. The researchers encouraged the children to use the iPad to see whether they will be distracted
or not.
D. The children told to think as if they were their favourite hero had the most concentration.
Question 49: The word “It” in paragraph 3 refers to ___________.
A. experiment B. group C. test D. computer
Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The more alter egos a person has, the less anxious they feel.
B. We should only switch to an alter ego when we encounter difficulties.
C. Role models can serve as good alter egos for people to adopt.
D. Alter egos work best when you are trying to solve a personal problem.

MOCK TEST 45

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions.
Question 1. It’s very likely that the company will accept his application.
A. The company needs accept his application.
B. The company might accept his application.
C. The company must accept his application.
D. The company should accept his application.
Question 2. I last ate this kind of food five years ago.
A. I haven’t eaten this kind of food for five years.
B. I ate this kind of food for five years.
C. I didn’t eat this kind of food five years ago.
D. I have eaten this kind of food for five years.
Question 3. “What did you take part in the game show The Road to Mount Olympia for?” she said to
me.
A. She asked me what had you ever taken part in the game show The Road to Mount Olympia
for.
B. She wanted to know what I have taken part in the game show The Road to Mount Olympia
for.
C. She wanted to know what I took part in the game show The Road to Mount Olympia for.
D. She asked me what I had taken part in the game show The Road to Mount Olympia for.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 4. His parents are satisfied with his result when he was at high school yesterday.
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A. His B. are C. with D. was
Question 5. Her weight has increased remarkably since they began receiving treatment.
A. Her weight B. remarkably C. they D. receiving
Question 6. Alike light waves, microwaves may be reflected and concentrated elements.
A. Alike B. waves C. may be D. concentrated

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Have you ever wondered how hot the peppers you eat are or why some peppers can set your
mouth on fire? Well, the Scoville Scale can help you answer these questions.
The Scoville scale is named after its creator, Wilbur L. Scoville (1865-1942), and is used to
measure the amount of capsaicin, the chemical compound found in peppers that gives them their heat. It
is also used to measure other plants which produce spicy chemicals. For instance, the resin spurge, a
cactus-like plant native to Morocco, produces a chemical substance called resiniferatoxin, which is a
thousand times hotter on the Scoville scale than pure capsaicin.
The scale measures the hotness of peppers in units known as Scoville Heat Units (SHU). The
number of SHUs in a pepper or hot sauce gives us an idea of the amount of capsaicin present in a
pepper. So, of course, a low rating indicates little or no heat while a high rating means that a pepper is
extremely spicy.
To determine the number of Scoville Heat Units, an extract of capsaicin oil from a dried pepper
is mixed with a solution of water and sugar to the point where a panel of human taste-testers can’t detect
the heat of the pepper. The pepper is then assigned a Scoville Heat Unit according to the dilution
required for the “burn” to no longer be sensed. For example, if a pepper rates at 5,000 Scoville Heat
Units, then the extract must be diluted in sugar water 5,000 times before the heat is not detectable
anymore.
(Adapted from quepasafoods.com)
Question 7: What is the passage mainly about?
A. Why some peppers can be extremely hot
B. The inventor of the Scoville scale
C. Plants that produce the most spicy chemicals
D. How the spiciness of peppers is measured
Question 8: The word “It” in paragraph 2 refers to ___________.
A. scale B. amount C. compound D. heat
Question 9: The word “indicates” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. reveals B. announces C. signifies D. proposes
Question 10: According to paragraph 4, how is the number of Scoville Heat Units of a pepper
determined?
A. Human taste-testers will eat the pepper until they can no longer taste heat.
B. The pepper will be dried and blended with water and sugar until oil is released.
C. An extract of capsaicin oil from fresh pepper will be diluted using sugar water.
D. Capsaicin oil and sugar water will be mixed until heat is no longer tasted.
Question 11: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Wilber L. Scoville was the first person to discover capsaicin.
B. Capsaicin and resiniferatoxin are compounds that give peppers their heat.
C. The resin spurge is a chemical substance that is far hotter than capsaicin.
D. The higher the SHU rating of a pepper is, the more spicy it is.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 12. John cannot see off his sister at the airport because he is seriously ill.
A. John’s sister wishes he hadn’t been seriously ill so that he couldn’t see her off at the airport.
B. As long as John could see his sister off at the airport, he couldn’t be seriously ill.
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C. If John hasn’t been seriously ill, he can see off her sister at the airport.
D. If John weren’t seriously ill , he could see off his sister at the airport.
Question 13. He started computer programming as soon as he left school.
A. No sooner had he started computer programming than he left school.
B. Hardly had he started computer programming when he left school.
C. No sooner had he left school than he started computer programming.
D. After he left school, he had started computer programming.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 14. The dish ______ by the chef is a fusion of different cuisines and flavors.
A. cooks B. cooking C. cooked D. is cooking
Question 15. He arrived _______ than anyone else, so he had to wait more than an hour.
A. earlier B. more early C. early D. earliest
Question 16. As soon as he _______ dinner, he will take the children for a walk to a nearby
playground.
A. finishes B. will finish C. had finished D. finished
Question 17. Police said the thieves were obviously well acquainted _______ the alarm system at the
department store.
A. with B. to C. of D. in
Question 18. His parents don’t approve of what he does, _______?
A. do they B. don’t they C. did they D.
didn’t they
Question 19. Air pollution is getting more and more serious in ____ big cities such as Hanoi and
Beijing.
A. the B. a C. an D. x
Question 20. Yesterday the naval authorities _______ the reports in Friday’s newspapers that they had
exploded three bombs near an unknown submarine.
A. published B. confirmed C. re-stated D. agreed
Question 21. She had been depressed all day but she started to _______ after she heard that she was
promoted.
A. turn up B. cheer up C. take up D. break up
Question 22. In the sustainable agriculture, farmers try _______ the use of chemicals and fertilizers.
A. to limit B. limiting C. limited D. limit
Question 23. It’s a good idea in theory, but it’s going to be hard to put it into ________.
A. practice B. trial C. test D. examination
Question 24. Yesterday I _______ in the park when I saw Dick playing football.
A. was walking B. is walking C. has walked D. has been walking
Question 25. Laura had a blazing _______ with Eddie and stormed out of the house.
A. word B. row C. gossip D. chat
Question 26. The trees _______ more and more in our countryside next year.
A. will plant B. will be planted C. are planted D. plant
Question 27. To many children, playing computer games is a form of _______.
A. relax B. relaxingly C. relaxation D. relaxed
Question 28. An important rule in Tim’s family is that they have to pay _______ visits to their
grandparents in the countryside.
A. customary B. normal C. usual D. regular

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three
in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 29. A. parachute B. machine C. champagne D. chaos
Question 30. A. tangle B. dangerous C. battle D. calculate

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 31. A. achieve B. happen C. detect D. enroll
Question 32. A. politics B. division C. policemen D. reflection

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 33. Sue and Anne are talking about their future plans.
- Sue: “I am not interested in the idea of taking a gap year and going backpacking in Nepal.”
- Anne: “Well, _______.”
A. I am B. help yourself C. neither do I D. that’s life
Question 34. Jack and Peter are talking about their plan for this weekend.
- Jack: “Why don’t we visit the imperial citadel this weekend?” - Peter: “_______.”
A. To learn more about its history B. That’s a great idea
C. Because it is very old D. I couldn’t agree with you more

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 35. The ASEAN Foreign Ministers had candid and fruitful discussions on ASEAN’s
priorities for the year ahead, as well as deep exchanges on regional and international developments.
A. frank B. personal C. sincere D. dishonest
Question 36. They are always optimistic although they don’t have a penny to their name.
A. are very poor B. are very rich C. are very mean D. are very healthy

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions.
Question 37. We can never feel fulfilled by following someone else’s dreams: independent living is the
only way to find true satisfaction.
A. amused B. frightened C. satisfied D. tired
Question 38. The sun is a powerful energy source, and this energy source can be harnessed by
installing solar panels.
A. depleted B. exploited C. devastated D. expressed

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase
that best fits each the numbered blanks.
We need to attend to the tree loss because of the following tree benefits. Firstly, trees provide
shade for homes, office buildings, parks and roadways, cooling surface temperatures. They also take in
and evaporate water, (39) ______ cools the air around them. Secondly, trees absorb carbon and remove
pollutants from the atmosphere. Trees also reduce energy costs by $4 billion a year, according to
Nowak’s study. “The shading of those trees on buildings (40) ______ your air conditioning costs. Take
those trees away; now your buildings are heating up, you’re running your air conditioning more, and
you’re burning more fuel from the power plants, so the pollution and emissions go up.” (41) ______,
trees act as water filters, taking in dirty surface water and absorbing nitrogen and phosphorus into the
soil. Last but not least, (42) ______ studies have found connections between exposure to nature and
better mental and physical health. Some hospitals have added tree views and plantings for patients as a
result of these studies. Doctors are even prescribing walks in nature for children and families due to
evidence that nature exposure lowers blood (43) ______ and stress hormones. And studies have
associated living near green areas with lower death rates.

Question 39. A. which B. whose C. that D. what


Question 40. A. reduces B. increases C. pays D. values
Question 41. A. However B. Consequently C. Besides D. Afterwards
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Question 42. A. much B. every C. each D. many
Question 43. A. stream B. pressure C. line D. drop

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions
There’s an ugly truth to the products we use and the foods we eat: many are made with palm oil,
whose production is responsible for the rapid deforestation of some of the world’s most biodiverse
forests, destroying the habitat of already endangered species. But now the biotech industry says it has
come up with a solution – creating palm oil in a way that doesn’t involve destroying forests.
“Over the last 30 years, 50% of palm oil plantation growth has come at the hands of
deforestation of tropical forest and peatland,” says Shara Ticku, founder of C16 Biosciences, one of the
biotech firms pioneering a synthetic, or lab-created, type of palm oil. “That is really the core of the
problem we’re trying to solve.” The company’s research is still in a pre-commercial stage, but there has
been significant interest. Earlier this year, it received a $20m investment from Breakthrough Energy
Ventures, a fund backed by billionaires like Bill Gates and Amazon’s Jeff Bezos.
At C16 Biosciences, genetically-engineered microbes are used to convert food waste and
industrial by-products into a product that is chemically very similar to natural palm oil. “It’s a yeast, we
feed it sugars, then the yeast grows and they’re able to produce large amounts of oil within their cells,
and we have to squeeze out that oil or extract it,” Ms Ticku says. This is how the firm’s synthetic palm
oil is created. At the moment, the focus of C16 Biosciences is on creating a prototype, and getting
feedback from companies that might choose to use it in their products.
However, the challenges are substantial. To succeed commercially and at scale, the synthetic
alternative must first be capable of mimicking natural palm oil’s versatility, making it a suitable
replacement in everything from food to household products. Cost is obviously another issue. It is
calculated that synthetic palm oil will be between two to three times more expensive than its natural
version, and that’s the best scenario.
Added to that are the doubts consumers in many markets have about eating anything that might
contain an ingredient derived from genetically modified microbes. If these challenges are not
overcome, a synthetic palm oil may only make a small dent in natural palm oil’s global production,
especially considering that the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) has estimated that consumption
worldwide will rise to between 264 and 447 million tonnes by 2050.
That, however, is not putting off C16 Bioscience’s Shara Ticku: “We believe that with our
technology platform, at a scale of hundreds of thousands of kilograms annually, we will be cost
competitive with palm oil. If we can get enough people to change then there is no longer any justified
reason for burning forest to produce this vegetable oil, and that is a success.”
(Adapted from bbc.com)
Question 44: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. This Company Is Making Palm Oil In Their Own Lab, But How?
B. A New Alternative To Palm Oil That Could Help Save Forests
C. How Is Palm Oil So Useful But Destructive At The Same Time?
D. Why This New Chemical Product Can Replace Palm Oil Soon
Question 45: According to paragraph 2, which of the following is TRUE about C16 Biosciences?
A. It is trying to increase palm oil plantation growth without destroying forests.
B. It is the first biotech company to conduct research on alternatives to palm oil.
C. It will soon do research on the commercial stage thanks to financial support.
D. It has already captured the attention of famous billionaires such as Bill Gates.
Question 46: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ___________.
A. problem B. company C. stage D. interest
Question 47: How is C16 Biosciences’ synthetic palm oil produced, according to paragraph 3?
A. Food waste or industrial by-products are genetically engineered to make large amounts of
oil.
B. Microbes and sugars are used to help yeast produce large amounts of natural palm oil.
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C. Scientists directly extract oil from a product produced with genetically-engineered microbes.
D. Oil is obtained from a type of yeast made from food waste and industrial by-products.
Question 48: The word “mimicking” in paragraph 4 can be best replaced by ___________.
A. revitalizing B. duplicating C. imitating D. impersonating
Question 49: The phrase “derived” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. invented B. isolated C. disconnected D. utilized
Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. If we keep using palm oil, most species on the planet will go extinct due to habitat
destruction.
B. A synthetic palm oil will succeed commercially once it can be used in a wide variety of
products.
C. Consumers generally do not believe in products whose development involves genetic
modification.
D. Shara Ticku thinks that palm oil will no longer be produced when enough people change their
minds.

MOCK TEST 46
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. thin B. thing C. think D. this
Question 2: A. walk B. call C. take D. talk

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. govern B. cover C. perform D. father
Question 4. A. Perfection B. Computer C. Fascinate D. Fantastic

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: The woman is really friendly, ______?
A. was she B. isn’t she C. doesn’t she D. did she
Question 6: Every night, the office ______ by the cleaning crew.
A. is vacuumed B. vacuumed C. vacuumes D. has vacuumed
Question 7: We borrowed the bikes ______ our uncle.
A. on B. in C. at D. from
Question 8: ______ we grow, the wiser we become.
A. The older B. Older C. The oldest D. Oldest
Question 9: Mount Vesuvius, _________ as an active volcano, is situated in Italy.
A. regarded B. regarding C. Ø (no article) D. regard
Question 10: He saw the accident when he ______ home from work.
A. drove B. was driving C. is driving D. drives
Question 11: _____ moon is visible in the night sky.
A. The B. A C. An D. Ø (no article)
Question 12: She will send me the design of my new house ______.
A. after she had finished it B. while she was finishing it
C. as soon as she has finished it D. before she finished it
Question 13: He became ________ as a writer at the age of 30.
A. success B. successfully C. succeed D. successful
Question 14: Mike knew she should report the accident but decided to let sleeping ____ lie
A. dogs B. cats C. rabbits D. camels
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Question 15: They ______ a big fortune when they were young, so they didn’t have to work hard.
A. came into B. went up C. came across D. went around
Question 16: Na wants to improve her pronunciation so she decided to________a course at her school.
A. arrange B. buy C. give D. take
Question 17: I allow my little daughter ____ with her friends in the flower garden.
A. not to play B. to play C. playing D. play
Question 18: We are going to build a fence around the field with a(n) _____ to breeding sheep and
cattle.
A. goal B. outlook C. reason D. view
Question 19: She was a minister with considerable influence in the ______ of power.
A. corridors B. cabinets C. priorities D. concepts

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s)CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s)in each of the following questions.
Question 20. I should be grateful if you would let me keep myself to myself.
A. be lonely B. be public C. be quiet D. be private
Question 21. Whatever the activity level, all types of hobbies can require high levels of expertise.
A. capability B. incompetence C. expertness D. skillfulness
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions.
Question 22. During the recession, many small companies were eradicated.
A. taken over B. wiped out C. run on D. set up
Question 23. With the dawn of space exploration, the notion that atmospheric conditions on Earth may
be unique in the solar system was strengthened.
A. outcome B. beginning C. expansion D. continuation

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24: Tom and Linda are talking about jobs they would like to choose.
- Tom: “I think working as a doctor is a challenging job.” - Linda: “______”
A. It’s a good idea. B. Not at all.
C. I’m sorry, but I agree with you. D. That’s exactly what I think.
Question 25. Two friends are talking about the coming Christmas holiday.
- Tony: “Are you going to your family reunion this Christmas holiday?” - Mark: “_______”
A. As a matter of fact, I don’t mind it at all.
B. I do. I’ve been excited about it now.
C. However, my parents and I are going to take a trip abroad
D. You bet. All my uncles and aunts will take their children along, too.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Do you ever wish you were more optimistic, someone (26)______ always expected to be
successful? Having someone around who always fears the worst isn’t really a lot of enjoyment - we all
know someone who sees a single cloud on a sunny day and says, “It looks like rain.” but if you catch
yourself thinking such things, it’s important to do something about it.
You can change your view of life, (27)______ psychologist. It only takes a little effort, and
you’ll find life more rewarding as a result. Optimism, they say, is partly about self-respect and
confidence but it’s also a more positive way of looking at life and all it has to (28)______. Optimists are
more likely to start new projects and are generally more prepared to take risks.
Upbringing is obviously very important in forming your attitude to the world. Some people are
brought up to depend too much on (29)______ and grow up forever blaming other people when

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anything goes wrong. Most optimists, on the other hand, have been brought up not to suppose
(30)______ as the end of the world - they just get on with their lives.

Question 26: A. who B. whose C. whom D. which


Question 27: A. otherwise B. according to C. therefore D. however
Question 28: A. apply B. propose C. suggest D. offer
Question 29: A. others B. ones C. another D. all
Question 30: A. income B. freedom C. failure D. direction

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
If you’re new to running, or new to marathons, you might be worried about or even fearful of
the distance. And these feelings are completely understandable, given the fact that more than 42
kilometres is a very long way. However, more and more people are taking on this challenge every year,
and for very good reasons.
Obviously, running such a long distance requires a lot of training, and the more you train, the
more your endurance will be enhanced. And of course, as you become more physically active, your
heart and muscles will be stronger, your blood circulation will improve, and you will most likely get in
shape in no time. Additionally, there are also mental and social benefits such as feeling less stressed and
more energized as well as having the chance to meet and establish meaningful relationships with other
people.
If you think about it, running a marathon is also a chance for personal development. Everyone
has at least one fear or insecurity, and for many people, completing a marathon race can seem like an
extremely daunting or even impossible task. Of course, it’s true that this is a big challenge that requires
commitment and perseverance. That being said, every time you step outside out of your comfort zone
and accomplish something new, you will grow stronger and become more confident.
Sometimes, you can actually help many others when you run a marathon. Many runners now
combine their marathon goal with the goal of helping others by participating in races that raise money
for charity. Besides, running in such marathon races will most likely give you all the motivation you
need to get through the exhausting 42-kilometer run. After all, it’s quite difficult to quit when you know
that you are giving help to people in need.
(Adapted from active.com)
Question 31: What is the passage mainly about?
A. The health benefits of running a marathon
B. How marathons make you more confident
C. Reasons why you should try running marathons
D. What to prepare before a marathon race
Question 32: The word “fearful” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. scary B. afraid C. frightening D. anxious
Question 33: According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT a benefit of running a
marathon?
A. You will be able to improve your blood circulation and quickly get in shape.
B. Your endurance will start to improve as you train harder and harder.
C. Your muscles will be strengthened since you are more active.
D. You will feel less stressed when meeting other people.
Question 34: The word “this” in paragraph 3 refers to ___________.
A. personal development B. insecurity
C. completing a marathon D. challenge
Question 35: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. If you want to run a marathon, you need to commit and persevere.
B. When you complete a marathon, you will no longer have any fear.
C. Most runners will not run marathons that do not raise money at all.
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D. You cannot complete a marathon if you do not want to help others.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions
When companies, teachers, or apps introduce symbolic rewards, competition, or other things to
make something feel more like a game, they’re relying on gamification to enhance an experience that
might otherwise be boring. But to get the results we seek in our own lives, it’s important to understand
when this will work and when it will only make matters worse.
In 2012, Jana Gallus, a student at the University of Zurich, run an experiment to help Wikipedia
find a way to keep their top and long-time editors engaged with the demanding task of managing and
updating content on the website without paying them. In this experiment, Gallus told some hard-
working Wikipedia newcomers that for their efforts, their names were listed as award winners on a
Wikipedia page. They also received one, two, or three stars, which appeared next to their username,
based on their performance. Meanwhile, other newcomers who had contributed equally got no symbolic
awards. In the end, volunteers who received recognition for their efforts were 20 percent more likely to
volunteer for Wikipedia again in the following month than those who earned no praise.
Despite these exciting results, a more recent experiment shows gamification may not solve
anything and can even backfire. It involved several hundred salespeople who reach out to businesses
and convince them to buy coupons. Researchers designed a game in which salespeople could earn
points by closing deals with customers, with more points awarded for bigger deals. Surprisingly,
playing the game didn’t improve sales performance and the way they felt at work in the end. And
digging into data revealed a very interesting pattern: those who considered the game pointless actually
felt worse about work, and sales performance even declined in some cases. This highlights a common
mistake companies make with gamification: It is unhelpful if people feel that their employer is forcing
them to participate.
So gamification seems to work when it helps people achieve the goals they intrinsically want to
reach (like volunteering for Wikipedia to provide accurate information to the public) by making the
process of goal achievement more exciting. When people fully buy into a game, the results can be
impressive: volunteers’ productivity is durably improved and workers’ enthusiasm is raised. However,
if a "game" is mandatory and designed to encourage people to do something they don’t really care to do,
it will not be a good solution and can even be harmful.
While not every context is the right one, under certain conditions, gamification can make
pursuing your aspirations feel more like play. And that is a powerful tool in any personal or
professional quest for change.
(Adapted from wired.com)
Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Gamification: When It Works And When It Does Not
B. How Does Gamification Make People Work Harder?
C. Steps To Implement Gamification In The Workplace
D. Why Gamification Is Actually Harmful To Companies
Question37: In paragraph 2, what do we learn about Jana Gallus experiments?
A. It involved the top and long-time editors of the website.
B. It aimed to find a way to persuade more editors to work at Wikipedia for free.
C. It showed that praising editors with symbolic awards can keep them engaged.
D. It helped Wikipedia increase the quality of their editors.
Question 38: In the experiment in paragraph 3, what is the interesting pattern that the researchers
found?
A. Most of the salespeople believed the game was pointless.
B. Some salespeople said the game made them performed worse.
C. The salespeople’s employers forced them to participate in the game.
D. Salespeople felt worse at work when they do not see the value of the game.
Question 39: The word “backfire” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ___________.
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A. having unwanted effects B. being unexpectedly beneficial
C. making no impacts D. harming mental health
Question 40: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. researchers B. salespeople C. customers D. deals
Question 41: Which of the following can most likely be inferred from the passage?
A. Volunteers will usually have many more intrinsic goals than paid workers.
B. Gamification is the best way to enhance workers’ enthusiasm and productivity.
C. A well-designed game will create goals that people intrinsically want to reach.
D. Companies who want to apply gamification should not make it obligatory.
Question 42: The word “aspirations” in paragraph 5 can be best replaced by ___________.
A. motivations B. ambitions C. positions D. arrangements

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: Nearly 230, 000 people die in 2004 Indian Ocean earthquake and tsunami, making it one
of the deadliest disasters in modern history.
A. die B. earthquake C. making D. deadliest
Question 44: When children go to bed on Christmas Eve, they hang up a pillow case or a sack for its
presents.
A. go B. on C. hang up D. its
Question 45: This type of computer jargon is barely comprehensive to most people.
A. of B. jargon C. comprehensive D. most

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46: They last travelled to school by bike two years ago.
A. They have travelled to school by bike for two years.
B. They have travelled to school by bike two years ago.
C. They haven’t travelled to school by bike for two years.
D. They haven’t travelled to school by bike two years ago.
Question 47: Our teacher asked us, ‘What are you most worried about?”
A. Our teacher asked us what I was most worried about
B. Our teacher asked us what were we most worried about
C. Our teacher asked us what we are most worried about
D. Our teacher asked us what we were most worried about
Question 48: It isn’t necessary for you to write the essay now.
A. You don’t have to write the essay now. B. You should write the essay now.
C. You mustn’t write the essay now. D. You must write the essay now.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: You don’t understand the lesson. You keep talking in the class.
A. Unless you paid attention in the class, you won’t understand the lesson.
B. I wish you pay attention in the class, you will understand the lesson.
C. As long as you didn’t pay attention in the class, you would understand the lesson.
D. If only you paid attention in the class, you would understand the lesson.
Question 50: My aunt was too weak. She couldn’t take part in the marathon last week.
A. So weak was my aunt that she couldn’t take part in the marathon last week.
B. Such weak was my aunt that she couldn’t take part in the marathon last week.
C. Had my aunt been too weak, she couldn’t take part in the marathon last week.
D. But for my aunt’s weakness, she couldn’t take part in the marathon last week.

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MOCK TEST 47
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three
in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. substantial B. initiate C. particular D. attention
Question 2. A. spear B. gear C. fear D. pear

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. express B. effort C. employ D. reduce
Question 4: A. preference B. attraction C. advantage D. community

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase
that best fits each the numbered blanks.
ChatGPT: New AI chatbot has everyone talking to it
A new chatbot has passed one million users in less than a week, the project behind it says.
ChatGPT was publicly released on Wednesday by OpenAI, an artificial intelligence research firm
(5)_____ founders included Elon Musk. ChatGPT is the latest in a series of AIs which the firm refers to
as GPTs, an acronym which (6)_____ for Generative Pre-Trained Transformer. To develop the system,
an early version was fine-tuned through conversations with human trainers. The system also learned
from access to Twitter data according to a tweet from Elon Musk who is no longer part of OpenAI’s
board. The Twitter boss wrote that he had paused access “for now”. The results have impressed
(7)_____ who’ve tried out the chatbot. OpenAI chief executive Sam Altman revealed the level of
interest in the artificial conversationalist in a tweet. The project says the chat format allows the AI to
answer “follow-up questions, admit its mistakes, challenge incorrect premises and reject inappropriate
requests”. A journalist for technology news site Mashable who tried out ChatGPT reported it is hard to
provoke the model into saying offensive things. (8)_____, OpenAI warns that “ChatGPT sometimes
writes plausible-sounding but incorrect or nonsensical answers”. Training the model to be more
cautious, says the firm, causes it to decline to answer questions that it can answer correctly. Briefly
questioned by the BBC for this article, ChatGPT revealed itself to be a cautious interviewee (9)_____ of
expressing itself clearly and accurately in English.
(https://www.bbc.com/news/technology)
Question 5: A. where B. which C. who D. whose
Question 6: A. care B. take C. stand D. look
Question 7: A. little B. few C. much D. many
Question 8: A. As a result B. Therefore C. However D. So
Question 9: A. afraid B. fond C. able D. capable

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 10: There’s a feeling of accomplishment from having a job and all that goes with it.
A. involvement B. prosperity C. achievement D. contribution
Question 11: I found the movie completely engrossing from beginning to end. It’s such a pity that you
haven’t seen it.
A. daunting B. interesting C. embarrassing D. shocking

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the words) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 12: When you’re new in a school, it’s easiest to just go with the flow for a while, and see
what people are like.
A. follow the common rules B. do what other people are doing
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C. follow the current trends D. do something different from other people
Question 13: Doing voluntary work is a rewarding experience.
A. beneficial B. worthwhile C. worthless D. satisfying

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 14: My cousin started investing in stocks in 2018
A. My cousin has been investing in stocks since 2018
B. My cousin hasn’t invested in stocks since 2018
C. The last time my cousin invested in stocks was in 2018
D. It is the first time my cousin invested in stocks
Question 15: “You got an A in Chemistry Congratulations!” Peter said to his classmate
A. Peter persuaded his classmate to get an A in Chemistry
B. Peter insisted on getting an A in Chemistry for his classmate
C. Peter congratulated his classmate on getting an A in Chemistry
D. Peter encouraged his classmate to get an A in Chemistry
Question 16: Sally paid for her travel in advance, but it wasn’t necessary.
A. Sally couldn’t have paid for her travel in advance.
B. Sally might not have paid for her travel in advance
C. Sally needn’t have paid for her travel in advance
D. Sally may not have paid for her travel in advance

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 17. Taj Mahal is the second World Heritage site__________under the campaign which will
be carried out by ONGC at this monument.
A. covered B. covering C. to cover D. to be covered
Question 18. Universities in Vietnam have become ____________ to foreign students than ever before.
A. the most attractive B. most attractive C. more attractive D. attractive
Question 19. I will call and tell you something interesting _______.
A. when I come home after work B. after I had come home after work
C. before I came home after work D. while I was coming home after work
Question 20. Such approaches should be supported and mainstreamed in health interventions in
order to________ positive behavior change.
A. put off B. set off C. bring about D. hold up
Question 21. Her parents rarely let her stay out late, _______?
A. do they B. don’t they C. does she D. doesn’t she
Question 22. It is _______ funniest book that I have ever read.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø (no article)
Question 23. The discovery was a major ________ for research workers.
A. breakthrough B. breakdown C. break-in D. breakout
Question 24: I think there’s a picture of the hotel ________ the first page.
A. on B. at C. in D. to
Question 25. To save energy, we should remember ________off the lights before going out.
A. being turned B. turning C. to turn D. turn
Question 26. I tried to talk to her, but she was __________
A. as high as a kite B. as high as a house C. as high as a sky D. as high as a wall
Question 27. I _______ along the street when I suddenly heard footsteps behind me.
A. was walking B. walk C. am walking D. walked
Question 28. The young girl ______ down completely on hearing of her father’s death.
A. broke B. fell C. turned D. went
Question 29. This old wooden chest _______ by my grandfather over 40 years ago.
A. built B. had built C. was built D. was building
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Question 30. Delegates will meet with _____ from industry and the government.
A. represented B. representative C. representatives D. representers
Question 31. We usually do go by train, even though the car _______ is a lot quicker.
A. travel B. journey C. trip D. voyage

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 32. She has disappeared three days ago, and they are still looking for her now.
A. has disappeared B. and C. are still D. for her
Question 33. Ozone has his origin in a number of sources, a prime one being the automobile engine.
A. his B. prime C. being D. the
Question 34: After going through a protection period that may last from several months to a year, new
recruits will be offered a long-term contract.
A. going through B. protection C. last D. new recruits

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 35. I’d prefer to be out with my friends. I have too much homework now.
A. I wish I had no homework now and can be out with my friends.
B. If only I didn’t have too much homework now and could be out with my friends.
C. If I don’t have much homework now, I will be out with my friends.
D. Provided I have no homework now, I will be out with my friends.
Question 36. I didn’t recognize my uncle. I did after he raised his voice only.
A. Not until I recognized my uncle did he raise his voice.
B. My uncle raised his voice as soon as I recognized him.
C. Only after my uncle raised his voice did I recognize him.
D. No sooner had I recognized my uncle than he raised his voice.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges
Question 37: Charles: “Thanks so much for looking after the children!” – Lisa: “_____.”
A. Of course, not B. That sounds nice
C. I’m fine, thanks D. That’s all right. Anytime
Question 38: Laura: “I think swimming helps us exercise all our muscles” - David: “_____.”
A. There is no doubt about it B. You can do it. Thanks anyway
C. Not at all. You can make it D. Yes, swimming does, too

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
As any student can tell you, sometimes it takes a lot of work and effort to commit information to
memory before a big exam. However, some other events, details, and experiences enter our memory
with little or no effort. For example, you might hear a catchy song on the radio once and still remember
its tune days or weeks later. So why does it seem like some things are so difficult to remember and other
things so easy? What’s the difference?
When you’re trying to intentionally remember something (like a formula for your statistics class
or a list of dates for your history class), this information is stored in your explicit memory. People use
these memories every day, from remembering information for a test to recalling the date and time of a
doctor’s appointment. There are two types of explicit memory: episodic memory, which is your long-
term memories of specific events, like what you did yesterday or your high school graduation, and
semantic memory, which is memories of facts, concepts, names, and other general knowledge.
Things that people don’t have to purposely try to remember are stored in implicit memory. This
kind of memory is both unconscious and unintentional. Some examples of implicit memory include
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singing a familiar song, typing on your computer keyboard, and brushing your teeth. Riding a bike is
another example. Even after going years without riding one, most people who have already learned how
to ride a bike are able to hop on and ride it effortlessly without thinking consciously.
These two major types of memory play important roles in shaping your ability to recall pieces of
information and interact with things in your environment. Knowing some of the major differences
between them is important for understanding how memory works.
(Adapted from verywellmind.com)
Question 39: What is the passage mainly about?
A. The role of explicit and implicit memory B. The different types of memory
C. Episodic memory and semantic memory D. How to have a better memory
Question 40: Which of the following is an example of semantic memory?
A. Remembering about what you ate for lunch yesterday.
B. Remembering about the date of an important historical event.
C. Remembering about the first time you travel abroad
D. Remembering about your experience at a traditional festival.
Question 41: The word “purposely” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. easily B. decisively C. deliberately D. freely
Question 42: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. It is always very hard for students to learn information to take exams.
B. People use explicit memory mostly for remembering specific events.
C. Implicit memories can be recalled without conscious effort.
D. Humans can remember any song they hear unintentionally.
Question 43: The word “them” in paragraph 4 refers to ___________.
A. types of memory B. important roles
C. pieces of information D. things in environment

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions
While watching sports on TV, the chances are children will see professional players cheating,
having tantrums, fighting, or abusing officials. In addition, it’s highly likely that children will be aware
of well-known cases of sportspeople being caught using drugs to improve their performance. The
danger of all this is that it could give children the idea that winning is all that counts and you should win
at all costs. Good behavior and fair play aren’t the message that comes across. Instead, it looks as if
cheating and bad behavior are reasonable ways of getting what you want. This message is further
bolstered by the fact that some of these sportspeople acquire enormous fame and wealth, making it
seem they are being handsomely rewarded either despite or because of their bad behavior.
What can parents do about this? They can regard sport on television as an opportunity to discuss
attitudes and behavior with their children. When watching sports together, if parents see a player
swearing at the referee, they can get the child’s opinion on that behavior and discuss whether a player’s
skill is more important than their behavior. Ask what the child thinks the player’s contribution to the
team is. Point out that no player can win a team game on their own, so it’s important for members to
work well together.
Another thing to focus on is what the commentators say. Do they frown on bad behavior from
players, think it’s amusing or even consider it’s a good thing? What about the officials? If they let
players get away with a clear foul, parents can discuss with children whether this is right and what
effect it has on the game. Look too at the reactions of coaches and managers. Do they accept losing with
good grace or scowl and show a bad attitude? Parents can use this to talk about attitudes to winning and
losing and to remind children that both are part of sport.
However, what children learn from watching sports is by no means all negative and parents
should make sure they accentuate the positives too. They should emphasize to children the high
reputation that well-behaved players have, not just with their teammates but also with spectators and the
media. They can focus on the contribution made by such players during a game, discussing how
219
valuable they are in the team. In the interviews after a game, point out to a child that the well-behaved
sportspeople don’t gloat when they win or sulk when they lose. And parents can stress how well these
people conduct themselves in their personal lives and the good work they do for others when not
playing. In other words, parents should get their children to focus on the positive role models, rather
than the antics of the badly behaved but often more publicized players.

Question 44: The word “accentuate” in paragraph 4 can be best replaced by _____ .
A. consolidate B. embolden C. actualize D. highlight
Question 45: According to paragraph 2 what should parents teach their children through watching
sports?
A. A player’s performance is of greater value than his behavior.
B. Cheating is frowned upon by the majority of players.
C. A team with badly-behaved players will not win a game.
D. Collaboration is fundamental to any team’s success
Question 46: Which of the following about sport is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Misconduct from sportspeople may go unpunished despite the presence of officials.
B. Reactions of coaches and managers when their teams lose a game may be of educational
value.
C. Many sports people help others so as to project good images of themselves
D. A well-behaved player enjoys a good reputation among his teammates, spectators and the
media.
Question 47: The word “bolstered” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. energized B. reinforced C. inspired D. represented
Question 48: The word “They” in paragraph 4 refers to _____.
A. parents B. teammates C. children D. spectators
Question 49: Which of the following does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The influence of model sportspeople on children
B. Moral lessons for children from watching sports
C. Different attitudes toward bad behavior in sport
D. The importance of team spirit in sport
Question 50: According to paragraph 1, misconduct exhibited by players may lead children to think
that _____.
A. it is necessary in almost any game
B. it is disadvantageous to all concerned
C. it is an acceptable way to win the game
D. it brings about undesirable results

MOCK TEST 48
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. honest B. hungry C. hotel D. handle
Question 2: A. now B. cow C. bowl D. vowel

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. manage B. protect C. reform D. regard
Question 4. A. interact B. entertain C. compassion D. understand

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: The road ________ to the village is surrounded with hundreds of murals.
A. leading B. leads C. that lead D. led
Question 6: Though streets in Hoi An are ________ major cities like Hanoi and HCMC, bikers should
be careful with truck drivers.
A. less crowded than B. more crowded than C. crowded than D. as crowded as
Question 7: When I ______, I deposited money into a social security fund.
A. first graduating B. was just graduating C. first graduated D. was just graduated
Question 8: Motorbikes and cars are banned _____ the town center for large parts of the day.
A. for B. in C. on D. from
Question 9: Travelers have various expectations for Vietnam’s tourism services, _______?
A. do they B. don’t they C. have they D. haven’t they
Question 10: Environmental workers have operated at full ______, but the volume of styrofoam
floating in Ha Long and Bai Tu Long bays is still huge.
A. capacity B. wattage C. ability D. power
Question 11: ___ five-day stay in Ho Chi Minh City only costs a person US$259, putting it sixth in the
list of cheapest tourist destinations in the world.
A. No article B. An C. A D. The
Question 12: Amanda __________ her boyfriend during her trip to Vietnam, and she has been single
ever since.
A. broken up with B. fallen out with C. faced up with D. put up with
Question 13: All four female attendants of Vietnam Airlines denied ______ what was inside the
containers.
A. knowing B. to know C. to knowing D. being known
Question 14: The boy would scream _____ murder if his mother didn’t let him watch his favorite
Doraemon films.
A. purple B. black C. red D. blue
Question 15: Since June 2016, the Korea Foundation for International Exchange _________ a Korean-
Vietnamese community art exchange project in Tam Thanh Village.
A. has been implemented B. has implemented
C. implemented D. had implemented
Question 16: As demand for travel increases, criminals have taken _______ of the situation to defraud
unsuspecting individuals of their hard-earned money.
A. control B. use C. advantage D. advance
Question 17: The Vietnam women’s bicycle team ______ by coach Dang Trung Hieu with five
cyclists.
A. is led B. are led C. is leading D. are leading
Question 18: Recently, the Ministry of Public Security has received numerous _____ of fraudulent
activities aimed at taking advantage of people’s property.
A. complain B. complaints C. complainants D. complaining
Question 19: On March 16, a security _______ at Tan Son Nhat Airport in Ho Chi Minh City found
hundreds of toothpaste tubes containing 11.4 kg of drugs.
A. judgment B. inspection C. examination D. assessment

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 20. Claudia is being interviewed by the manager of the company she’s applied for.
- Manager: “________” - Claudia: “I work hard and I enjoy working with other people.”
A. Can you do jobs on your own? B. Would you describe yourself as
ambitious?
C. What are some of your main strengths? D. Why have you applied for this position?
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Question 21. Lan and Ba are discussing a question of their teacher.
- Lan: “I think it is a good idea to have three or four generations living under one roof.” - Ba:
“________”
A. I can’t agree with you anymore. There will be lots of understanding.
B. No, I don’t think so. They can help each other a lot.
C. That’s a good idea. Many old-aged parents like to live in a nursing home.
D. You can say that again.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word ( s ) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Hai Phong will restrict car access to Cat Ba Island during the Reunification Day and
Labor Day holiday to prevent congestion at a ferry port.
A. assist B. narrow C. diminish D. degrade
Question 23: It’s quite disappointing that many bystanders still turn a blind eye to acts of injustice
they witness in the street.
A. take no notice of B. show respect for
C. pay attention to D. have no feeling for

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 24: A total of 65 people were arrested in a drug trafficking case involving four Vietnam
Airlines attendants after a month-long investigation.
A. delivering B. smuggling C. supplying D. stealing
Question 25: Littering and the overuse of plastic are making Vietnam lose its charms to foreign
tourists.
A. the problem of using too much
B. the fact that something is not used enough
C. the fact that people spend enough buying
D. the problem of using less

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 26. We haven’t written to each other for two months.
A. It has been two months that we wrote to each other.
B. It is two months since we wrote together.
C. There are two months for us to write to each other.
D. It has been two months since we last wrote to each other.
Question 27. “You’re always making terrible mistakes.” said the teacher.
A. The teacher asked his students why they always made terrible mistakes.
B. The teacher realized that his students always made terrible mistakes.
C. The teacher complained about his student making terrible mistakes.
D. The teacher made his students not always make terrible mistakes.
Question 28. I don’t think Max broke your vase because he wasn’t here then.
A. Max wouldn’t have broken your vase because he wasn’t here then.
B. Max was likely to break your vase because he wasn’t here then.
C. Max can’t have broken your vase because he wasn’t here then.
D. Max wasn’t able to break your vase because he wasn’t here then.

Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29. Marie didn’t turn up at John’s birthday party. I feel so sorry for that.
A. If only Marie turn up at John’s birthday party.
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B. I wish Marie had turned up at John’s birthday party.
C. I wished Marie wouldn’t turn up at John’s birthday party.
D. It a shame Marie had turned up at John’s birthday party.
Question 30. You can feel more at ease by taking part in group dating. It’s the only way.
A. By taking part in group dating can you only feel more at ease.
B. Only by taking part in group dating can you feel more at ease.
C. The only way you are by taking part in group dating can feel more at ease.
D. The way you can feel more at ease is taking part in only group dating.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 31: Animals adapt a number of diverse strategies for self-defense, such as vibrant body colors
that make them look poisonous to predators.
A. adapt B. self-defense C. make D. look
Question 32: I only know the fundamentals, so it’d be best if you consult James if you want a definite
answer to your question, since Mathematics are his major.
A. fundamentals B. consult C. definite D. are
Question 33: A number of angry protesters shoved the security guards and made its way into the city
hall where the mayor was attending a meeting.
A. where B. its C. was attending D. the

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Why Is Airplane Food So Bad?
You may have heard those (34) __________ have travelled on airplanes say that in-flight food is
very bad, but do you know why this is? To begin with, one of the major criteria for (35) __________
tasty dish is freshness, but this is exactly what in-flight food lacks. This is because most airlines freeze
pre-made meals on the ground and reheat them while in air, (36) __________ you are flying first class
where your meals are carefully prepared by experienced cooks with expensive ingredients.
The environment in which the food is served also plays an important role in how taste is
perceived. Unfortunately, the aircraft’s environment tends to (37) ___________ our sense of smell,
which is one of the most important factors in taste. Dry air and a high decibel level in the cabin
interferes with our tastes and makes us lose the (38) __________ to taste salty and sweet meals.
(Adapted from baatraining.com)
Question 34: A. which B. when C. where D. who
Question 35: A. some B. every C. all D. much
Question 36: A. although B. provided C. unless D. because
Question 37: A. prevent B. contain C. withhold D. disrupt
Question 38: A. skill B. ability C. power D. competence

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
The Cold War, a tense global conflict between the U.S and the Soviet Union, affected today’s
world in many major ways. And one of its results was The Space Race: a historical period during which
both countries constantly demonstrated new technologies to prove that they are better at space
exploration.
The beginning of the Space Race was marked with the launch of the Soviet satellite Sputnik 1 in
1957. The public in the U.S was shocked when they saw that the Soviet Union, whose economy was
still recovering after World War II, achieved this milestone first, especially when the U.S. government
had already formed a plan to launch its own artificial satellite, something they did not manage to do
until 1958 with the Explorer 1. That same year, NASA was officially founded and publicly announced
the creation of a program to send human passengers into space.
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In the first half of the space race, the Soviet Union was considered to be ahead. Its engineers
accomplished many firsts, including the first probe to reach the moon, Luna 2. In April 1961, the
Soviets obtained another spectacular victory with the successful flight of Yuri Gagarin, the first person
to fly in space. Upon his safe return to Earth, Gagarin was hailed as an international hero.
Then, in 1969, the Space Race reached its peak with the Apollo 11 mission, in which Neil
Armstrong and Buzz Aldrin landed on the moon and walked on its surface. Even though the race did not
officially reach its conclusion after this historic event, it was widely believed to have been won by the
U.S at this point. Eventually, as the Cold War was slowly coming to an end, both sides agreed to stop
the Race and cooperate in space, and this led to the construction of the International Space Station
(ISS), which officially began in 1998.
(Adapted from space.com)
Question 39: What is the passage mainly about?
A. How the Cold War affected the Space Race B. The beginning of the Space Race
C. Why the United States won the Space Race D. A brief history of the Space Race
Question 40: According to paragraph 2, why was the public in the U.S surprised when Sputnik 1 was
launched?
A. Because the Soviet government had not announced any plans before the launch.
B. Because after World War II, the Soviet Union’s economy was still recovering.
C. Because the U.S had already built and was preparing to launch its own satellite.
D. Because the Sputnik 1 launch happened one year before the Explorer 1 launch.
Question 41: The phrase “hailed” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. recommended B. confirmed C. assisted D. celebrated
Question 42: The word “it” in paragraph 4 refers to ___________.
A. race B. conclusion C. event D. point
Question 43: Which of the following is NOT TRUE, according to the passage?
A. In 1958, NASA decided to start a space travel program for human passengers.
B. Yuri Gagarin became the first person in history to travel into space.
C. After the Apollo 11 mission, many believed that the U.S won the Space Race.
D. At the end of the Space Race in 1998, the ISS was fully constructed.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions
Many people may be surprised to hear that poaching - the illegal hunting of wild animals - is
still one of the biggest drivers of extinction, despite efforts from governments around the world. From
figuring out where illegal hunting is taking place to identifying the source of an animal product,
conservationists still face many challenges. That being said, developments in technology are putting
new tools into the hands of the law enforcement officials and conservation biologists who desperately
need them.
One difficulty faced when illegal bones, horns and skin are seized is knowing where they came
from. Fortunately, there are ways that artificial intelligence can help. For example, every tiger has a
unique stripe pattern, like a fingerprint. With this knowledge in mind, scientists in India have created a
database powered by AI containing images of tigers and their specific stripe pattern, which has been
successfully implemented to determine that a piece of tiger skin came from a protected area and thus
had been poached rather than farmed. Information like this is hugely valuable for officials, since it
allows them to pinpoint areas where there is poaching activity. Currently, efforts are being made to
expand the database with images from other countries and regions worldwide.
Taking a different approach is Professor Fritz Vollrath of the University of Oxford, who spent
decades studying the properties of various biological materials before turning his attention to ivory. He
is now working with researchers in China to develop a man-made version of natural ivory. “Ivory is a
nice material that people like to handle – but does it have to come from a dead elephant? What if we can
create a mixture of collagen and minerals that has the same qualities?” he says. Likewise, startup

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company Pembient is trying to produce a synthetic form of rhino horn. They’ve created a few
prototypes and expect their final product to be ready for sale in 2022 at only $2.61 per gram.
Meanwhile, Professor Milind Tambe in California, using 14 years of data on poaching activities
in Queen Elizabeth National Park, were able to create a system that would predict likely hotspots for
poaching and direct patrols there to remove traps before they can kill any animals, plus generate new
routes to areas where patrols were often sparse in the past. Perfecting the program day by day, Tambe
is now partnering with many wildlife agencies to integrate it into their software. “My job is to support
conservationists, and to see what I can do for them,” says Tambe.
(Adapted from bbc.co.uk)
Question 44: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Rise In Illegal Hunting Indicates the Need for Global Scientific Cooperation
B. Innovations That Are Giving Us an Edge in The Fight Against Poaching
C. These Technologies Will Give Us the Ability to Hunt Down Illegal Hunters
D. Will Technological Developments Finally Put an End to Illegal Hunting?
Question 45: The word “which” in paragraph 2 refers to __________.
A. knowledge B. database C. AI D. pattern
Question 46: According to paragraph 3, what do we learn about Professor Vollarth?
A. He has studied ivory as well as many other biological materials for decades.
B. Thanks to his help, Chinese researchers managed to create artificial ivory.
C. In his opinion, a good material like ivory should not be handled by humans.
D. His idea is to make a type of ivory that has the same traits as natural ivory.
Question 47: The phrase “pinpoint” in paragraph 2 can be best replaced by ___________.
A. diagnose B. define C. distinguish D. detect
Question 48: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Many governments worldwide have yet to take actions to address poaching.
B. The AI database of tiger images allows people to track tigers in protected areas.
C. In 2022, people might be able to buy prototypes of Pembient’s synthetic rhino horn.
D. Professor Tambe’s system utilizes data to point out where poaching is likely to happen.
Question 49: The word “sparse” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. slight B. fine C. thin D. dim
Question 50: Which of the following can most likely be inferred from the passage?
A. Many people are not fully aware of the potentially destructive consequences of poaching.
B. The Indian tiger database are being recreated in other regions around the world.
C. When man-made ivory is widely available, it is probable that less elephants will be killed.
D. Tambe plans to work with more wildlife agencies to further improve his system.

MOCK TEST 49

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. control B. unfold C. record D. profession
Question 2: A. hospital B. hope C. hospitable D. honest

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which differs from the other
three in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. ticket B. handle C. object D. foreign
Question 4: A. conversational B. sophisticated C. representative D. improvisation

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.

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Question 5: The commercial includes people dressed in colourful costumes to appeal __________
children.
A. for B. in C. to D. at
Question 6: The house with a garden is ________ than the house without a garden.
A. the most beautiful B. as beautiful C. more beautiful D. beautiful
Question 7: She put a lot of effort into __________ her room so that people will instantly know that the
room belongs to her when they step into it.
A. personalising B. personifying C. personality D. personal
Question 8: Mr. Richardson was a sympathetic listener, ________?
A. was he B. did he C. didn’t he D. wasn’t he
Question 9: The old building had __________ into disuse for years before it was eventually
demolished.
A. gone B. fallen C. dropped D. sunken
Question 10: Red is the symbol of danger because it _________ among other colours.
A. stands out B. stands by C. takes off D. settles down
Question 11: She ________ a feeble effort to smile, then started crying again.
A. took B. made C. gave D. did
Question 12: ______, we will travel to Da Nang.
A. When the epidemic is over B. When the epidemic will be over
C. When the epidemic had been over D. When the epidemic was over
Question 13: Vietnam Airlines regretted ______ the cancellation of the flight VA270887 to Ho Chi
Minh city.
A. announcing B. to announce C. announce D. to announcing
Question 14: The buildings ______ in the 2023 earthquake in Turkey were not built to withstand such a
disaster.
A. were destroyed B. destroying C. were destroying D. destroyed
Question 15: Minh Huy ______ his assignments when his parents came back home from work.
A. are completing B. completed C. was completing D. has completed
Question 16: When somebody asks you to name a sunken ship, Titanic is most likely the first name that
__________ to mind.
A. jumps B. leaps C. springs D. bounces
Question 17: I always find it very difficult ________ a conversation with those who are older than me.
A. to starting B. start C. starting D. to start
Question 18: Can you give me _________ piece of paper, please?
A. Ø (no article) B. an C. a D. the
Question 19: My father has turned over a new _________and he is not smoking anymore.
A. leaf B. branch C. flower D. book

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: I would’ve dropped out of college if he hadn’t helped me pay my tuition fee.
A. cover B. donate C. purchase D. balance
Question 21: I only have rudimentary knowledge on this subject, so I can’t really help you with these
more complex problems.
A. unclear B. obsolete C. elementary D. confusing

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The government has recently brought in new legislations to address the obesity
epidemic.
A. abolished B. rejected C. denied D. diminished
Question 23: So far, all of the experiments conducted have produced inconclusive results.
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A. accurate B. promising C. definite D. detailed

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: - Linh: “Oh no! I forgot to bring water for you.” - Phuong: “Don’t worry! __________”
A. You sure did! B. No harm done! C. No worries! D. No problem!
Question 25: - Nero: “__________”
- Jimmy: “Can you help me bring those suitcases to room 105?”
A. May I take your order? B. Can you do me a favour?
C. How can I help you? D. What brings you here?

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Multitasking
Multitasking is not a new concept. With access to so much entertainment and information, many
students often (26) __________ their attention between more than one task. (27) __________, it is
common for a student to check their messages on Facebook while studying or to try to complete
multiple homework assignments at once.
However, multitasking can have a number of negative effects on learning. The most obvious of
these is the fact that students fail to absorb the information they are studying effectively, (28)
__________ is the result of not paying full attention to schoolwork. And without a good comprehension
of what they are learning, they can start to (29) ___________ worse at school.
Fortunately, the multitasking habit can be broken by taking simple steps such as removing (30)
___________ technological distractions, putting away unnecessary books or items, and designing a
detailed schedule to create the best learning environment possible.
(Adapted from oxfordlearning.com)
Question 26: A. divide B. distribute C. distinguish D. detach
Question 27: A. As a result B. For example C. Similarly D. By contrast
Question 28: A. whom B. who C. that D. which
Question 29: A. display B. operate C. demonstrate D. perform
Question 30: A. few B. all C. any D. every

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 31: The members in the yoga club are forbidden to take photographs during their practice in
the room. There is no exception whatsoever.
A. Under no circumstances are the members in the yoga club allowed to take photographs
during their practice in the room.
B. By no means were the members in the yoga club allowed to take photographs during their
practice in the room.
C. Never are the members in the yoga club banned from taking photographs during their practice
in the room.
D. On no occasion were the members in the yoga club banned from taking photographs during
their practice in the room.
Question 32: Chris doesn’t have enough time. He can’t travel to Ha Long Bay for his holiday.
A. Provided Chris has enough time, he can travel to Ha Long Bay for his holiday.
B. If Chris had enough time, he could travel to Ha Long Bay for his holiday.
C. If only Chris had had enough time, he could have traveled to Ha Long Bay for his holiday.
D. Chris can travel to Ha Long Bay for his holiday in case he doesn’t have enough time.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to the sentence given in each of the following questions.
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Question 33: She last met him when she graduated from high school.
A. She has not met him since she graduated from high school.
B. She last met him since she graduated from high school.
C. The last time she met him since she graduated from high school
D. She didn’t meet him when she graduated from high school.
Question 34: ”How long have you been living in this city, Lily?” asked the new neighbor.
A. The new neighbor asked Lily how long she had been living in that city.
B. The new neighbor asked Lily how long she had been living in this city.
C. The new neighbor asked Lily how long had she been living in that city.
D. The new neighbor asked Lily how long she had lived in that city.
Question 35: It is necessary for you to educate yourself about the destination you are visiting by
reading guidebooks and travel articles.
A. You may object to educating yourself about the destination you are visiting by reading
guidebooks and travel articles.
B. You don’t have to educate yourself about the destination you are visiting by reading
guidebooks and travel articles.
C. You should educate yourself about the destination you are visiting by reading guidebooks and
travel articles.
D. You mustn’t be required to educate yourself about the destination you are visiting by reading
guidebooks and travel articles.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 36: In South Korea, the national government built English immersion schools all over the
country so far.
A. built B. immersion C. South Korea D. over
Question 37: On April 15, the Health Ministry of Viet Nam issued vaccine passports that the general
public can use to travel in line with their schedule.
A. On B. their C. issued D. general
Question 38: The current restructuring of the advisable service provides a timely opportunity to
address
some of these issues
A. address B. current C. advisable D. opportunity

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions.
In today’s fast-paced modern world, where everything can be done with just a simple click,
online shopping has easily become all the rage, with multiple e-commerce websites doing all they can to
meet the demand and keep the tides flowing via multiple sales every few months. And it’s very easy to
see why. For one thing, it saves everyone the trouble of going to a physical store since everything can
be bought with your phone, with the added benefit of that product getting delivered to your
doorstep. According to psychotherapists, however, too much online shopping should be recognized as
an actual mental health disorder.
It’s not a new problem in the first place. Throughout time, the idea of shopping to make
ourselves feel good has always been considered as a problem, and is usually referred to as ‘buying-
shopping disorder,’ or BSD. However, experts state that when placed in the context of the internet age
and today’s technological climate, it takes on a whole new, worse meaning, and is now so rampant that
it affects one in 20 people.
Those who suffer from BSD can easily start showing negative behaviors, such as spending too
much money on things they don’t need, buying things just for the sake of buying, end up in debt and in
worst cases, even lose self-control. “It really is time to recognize BSD as separate mental health
condition and to accumulate further knowledge about BSD on the Internet,” Dr. Astrid Müller, a
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psychotherapist at Hannover Medical School in Germany, said. In one of their studies, she and her
colleagues looked at data from 122 patients seeking help for their online shopping addiction and found
that they have a higher risk of developing both anxiety and depression. And while BSD is not classified
a disorder, it affects five percent of the population, and so should be given more serious attention.
(Adapted from medicaldaily.com)
Question 39: Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage?
A. What Makes Online Shopping So Addictive For Many People?
B. More And More Online Shopaholics Are Now In Debt Due To Addiction
C. Online Shopping Addiction Should Be Considered A Mental Illness
D. The Symptoms Of Online Shopping Addiction And Their Consequences
Question 40: According to the passage, online shopping addiction can lead to all of the following
EXCEPT __________.
A. increased risk of anxiety and depression B. purchase of unnecessary things
C. higher risk of physical diseases D. loss of self-control
Question 41: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ___________.
A. studies B. patients C. colleagues D. data
Question 42: According to the passage, online shopping __________.
A. provides buyers with greater conveniences B. can only be done using a phone
C. is beneficial for buyers’ mental health D. is not as popular as physical shopping
Question 43: The word “rampant” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. aggressive B. disobedient C. energetic D. widespread

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Two billion tons of solid waste is generated globally per year, and as urban populations continue
to grow, many cities are turning to new technologies for cost-effective solutions to clean up waste.
“Cities that address waste problems immediately have the best chance to avoid severe long-term
consequences,” says Ricardo Cepeda-Márquez, solid waste director for C40 Cities, a global network of
cities committed to tackling climate change. Waste that goes uncollected can lead to blocked drains,
severe flooding on the street and the spread of waterborne diseases. Additionally, organic matter
dumped in landfills generates methane gas, accelerating climate change in the process.
Copenhagen, Denmark, recently opened its innovative waste-to-energy power plant, known as
Copenhill or Amager Bakke. The plant, which burns waste instead of fossil fuels, is capable of
converting 450,000 tons of trash into energy annually, delivering electricity to 30,000 households and
heating to 72,000. Though it still produces CO2 emissions from burning, the city plans to install a
system to capture the carbon released and then store this amount of carbon or find a commercial use for
it. By tapping an otherwise unused resource, it will also help the city move away from its dependence
on fossil fuels. Other cities are also experimenting with similar waste-to-energy plants, but it is warned
that a city needs solid infrastructure and a strong waste collection system already in place before it can
reap the benefits of one of these plants.
Other cities are starting on a street level, using artificial intelligence and automation to sort
recyclables, or sensors to reduce the amount thrown away. For instance, Singapore and Seoul, South
Korea, have installed smart, solar-powered trash cans on their streets. Each is equipped with a
compactor, enabling it to hold more trash. Once the bin is full, its sensors alert the waste collectors.
Typically, cities send out different trucks to collect different types of waste - one truck
collecting plastic for recycling, another collecting food waste, for example. However, that requires a lot
of trucks, which means added costs and more traffic. Norway's capital Oslo has designed a clever model
to circumvent this. Since 2012, city residents have been required to use different colored bags for
different types of waste, and instead of collecting them separately, trucks gather all the bags at once and
take them to an optical sorting plant. The green bags containing food waste and blue bags with plastic
waste are separated from other waste by sophisticated optical reading technology, which detects the
color of the bags with approximately 98% precision. The city claims that increased waste segregation
229
and public awareness campaigns have had a positive effect, reducing the amount thrown away by each
household and increasing the amount that is reused and recycled.
(Adapted from bbc.co.uk)
Question 44: The word “circumvent” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. adapt B. tolerate C. avoid D. support
Question 45: The word “segregation” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. circulation B. separation C. demolition D. distribution
Question 46: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The bigger the population of the city, the more cost-effective technologies it has.
B. Trash bins in Singapore and South Korea can automatically sort and collect trash.
C. Every city should build waste-to-energy plants like that in Denmark immediately.
D. Optical sorting plants will help reduce the number of garbage trucks on the street.
Question 47: Which of the following is TRUE, according to paragraph 2?
A. Copenhill provides both electricity and heating to more than 30,000 households annually.
B. A city’s infrastructure must reach an adequate standard to benefit from waste-to-energy
plants.
C. Thanks to Copenhill, Copenhagen has become completely independent from fossil fuels.
D. The CO2 emissions captured by Copenhagen’s system will also be turned into energy.
Question 48: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ___________.
A. carbon B. city C. system D. plant
Question 49: According to the first paragraph, all of the following are mentioned as problems caused
by uncollected waste in cities EXCEPT __________.
A. Drainage system being blocked. B. More waste dumped into landfills.
C. Transmission of diseases via water. D. Serious street flooding.
Question 50: What is the passage mainly about?
A. Waste management measures in European cities.
B. The negative impacts of poor waste management.
C. What cities around the world are doing to manage waste.
D. The global network of cities trying to solve climate change.

MOCK TEST 50

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. spear B. overhear C. appear D. footwear
Question 2: A. shrine B. drink C. uncle D. blanket

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which differs from the other
three in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. compose B. support C. precise D. challenge
Question 4: A. hesitate B. tsunami C. synchronize D. conference

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: Though we were ___________ after hard-working days, we tried to help our parents
redecorate the house to welcome Tet.
A. exhaustion B. exhausted C. exhausting D. exhaustive
Question 6: Your mother is an English teacher, ______ ?
A. isn’t she B. was she C. is she D. does she
Question 7: I found these photos while I ______ out my cupboards.
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A. is cleaning B. have cleaned C. was cleaning D. cleaned
Question 8: The gate ______when my father has free time.
A. was repaired B. is going to repair C. will be repaired D. repairs
Question 9: The main elements ________ for survival are food, fire, shelter and water.
A. required B. requiring C. is required D. require
Question 10: I’m surprised ____________ the amount of traffic today. I didn’t think it would be so
busy.
A. about B. at C. with D. for
Question 11: The museum’s collection of paintings is often ______ than its collection of sculptures.
A. most impressive B. the most impressive C. impressive D. more
impressive
Question 12: _____ Moby-Dick is a classic novel written by Herman Melville.
A. the B. Ø (no article) C. a D. an
Question 13: Don’t forget ______ the goldfish in the tank when I am on holiday.
A. to feeding B. feed C. to feed D. feeding
Question 14: Is he a good student? –Yes, he speaks English __________of all.
A. as fluently B. the most fluently C. more fluently D. fluently the most
Question 15: On July 6, 2018, in a separate move aimed at China, the Trump administration ____ a
tariff of 25 percent on 818 categories of goods imported from China worth $50 billion, which led to
China accusing the U.S. of instigating a trade war.
A. pay B. reduce C. impose D. rise
Question 16: “My daughter, Mary, tries to_______ to see me at least once a week,” Mrs. Jones told the
social worker.
A. call up B. go up C. come on D. drop in
Question 17: She even feel ashamed of her skirt she wore at the trendy party much less _____ pride in
it.
A. make B. have C. get D. take
Question 18 No way will you beat him. You don’t _______ a chance. He’s a hundred times better than
you are.
A. hold B. run C. possess D. stand
Question 19: His accountant had been cooking the ______ for years so he was finally caught and sent
to prison.
A. leaflets B. books C. newspapers D. magazines

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: Today, Amur leopard, one of the world’s most endangered wild cats, is found only in the
Amur River basin of eastern Russia, having already gone extinct from China and the Korean Peninsula.
A. died for B. died from C. died of D. died out
Question 21: The Australian Open is a tennis tournament held annually over the last fortnight of
January in Melbourne, Australia.
A. two days B. four days C. two weeks D. two months

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: We had a whale of time as everything was quite fantastic.
A. felt disappointed B. had little time to play
C. felt happy D. had a lot time to play
Question 23: The ship went down although strenuous efforts were made to save it.
A. exhausting B. forceful C. energetic D. half-hearted

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: “My son is taking his final exam at the moment. I’m so nervous” – “__________”
A. I’m sure he did a good job. B. I could not agree more.
C. You shouldn’t have been. D. He’ll be fine, don’t worry.
Question 25: “Would you mind printing this document for me?” – “__________”
A. Don’t bother! B. Will do! C. No kidding! D. Of course!

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Why Are Cell Phones Banned At Gas Stations?
We are often told that to turn off our phones at gas stations since they may cause a fire or even
an explosion. But scientists say that it is virtually impossible for these devices to (26) ___________
such a threat as they emit too little energy. In fact, a mobile phone can only generate a spark if it has a
defective battery, (27) __________ likelihood is extremely low. And until now, there have been no (28)
__________ incidents of fires or explosions caused by mobile phones at gas stations.
The truth is that the use of mobile phones is probably more dangerous as a source of distraction.
When dealing with gasoline, it’s crucial to fully focus and not to be distracted by (29) __________
things. Accidentally walking into someone while your eyes were (30) __________ to the screen is not
too serious, but driving off with the gas pump still in your car because you were too busy checking your
email can be extremely dangerous.
(Adapted from blogthinkbig.com & yahoo.com)
Question 26: A. express B. present C. display D. propose
Question 27: A. where B. when C. which D. whose
Question 28: A. recorded B. collected C. enrolled D. obtained
Question 29: A. other B. every C. another D. any
Question 30: A. pinned B. tied C. fixed D. glued

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 31: The poor old man was unable to explain what was going on to their family.
A. explain what B. their C. poor old D. going on
Question 32: Though the exact death toll is not known, it is considered the deathliest tropical cyclone
on record.
A. known B. record C. deathliest D. death toll
Question 33: My friends get lost on the campus of their university a few days ago.
A. university B. days C. campus D. get

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to the sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 34: She last met him when she graduated from high school.
A. She has not met him since she graduated from high school.
B. She last met him since she graduated from high school.
C. The last time she met him since she graduated from high school
D. She didn’t meet him when she graduated from high school.
Question 35: “How long have you been living in this city, Lily?” asked the new neighbor.
A. The new neighbor asked Lily how long she had been living in that city.
B. The new neighbor asked Lily how long she had been living in this city.
C. The new neighbor asked Lily how long had she been living in that city.
D. The new neighbor asked Lily how long she had lived in that city.
Question 36: It is necessary for you to educate yourself about the destination you are visiting by
reading guidebooks and travel articles.
232
A. You may object to educating yourself about the destination you are visiting by reading
guidebooks and travel articles.
B. You don’t have to educate yourself about the destination you are visiting by reading
guidebooks and travel articles.
C. You should educate yourself about the destination you are visiting by reading guidebooks and
travel articles.
D. You mustn’t be required to educate yourself about the destination you are visiting by reading
guidebooks and travel articles.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions.
The health benefits of coffee may be regularly disputed, but a new study has linked caffeine
consumption with improvements in heart health. In fact, consuming four cups of coffee a day could help
protect cardiovascular cells from damage and also help them to repair themselves.
In a study published in PLOS Biology, researchers from Heinrich-Heine-University and the
IUF-Leibniz Research Institute for Environmental Medicine in Düsseldorf, Germany, found that
caffeine may improve the health of the cells which line the arteries and veins, thus strengthening their
ability to recover from damage. The researchers suggest drinking coffee – or other caffeinated
beverages – could be particularly beneficial for the elderly, who are more at risk of heart problems than
younger people.
“Our results indicate a new mode of action for caffeine, one that promotes protection and repair
of heart muscle,” said study author Professor Judith Haendeler. “These results should lead to better
strategies for protecting heart muscle from damage, including consideration of coffee consumption or
caffeine as an additional dietary factor in the elderly population.”
Commenting on the research, Professor Tim Chico, Professor of Cardiovascular Medicine and
Honorary Consultant Cardiologist, University of Sheffield, said: “These are very interesting findings
but need to be confirmed in clinical trials before we can tell whether caffeine is truly helpful after a
heart attack in humans [...] I do not think people need to drink more coffee in response to this study, but
that people who already drink coffee can be reassured that it might have health benefits, as long as they
don’t use it to wash down an enormous muffin, cake, or doughnut.”
(Adapted from readtoolead.com)
Question 37: What is the passage mainly about?
A. How coffee causes health problems B. A recently found health benefit of coffee
C. Research into coffee consumption D. Why old people should drink coffee
Question 38: Which of the following is NOT true?
A. Heart-protecting strategies using coffee may be developed thanks to the study.
B. People commonly argue about whether or not coffee is good for health.
C. According to the study, the elderly can benefit greatly from drinking coffee.
D. Thanks to the study, coffee has been definitely proven to improve heart health. .
Question 39: The phrase “trials” in the final paragraph is closest in meaning to __________.
A. challenges B. examinations C. standards D. surveys
Question 40: How can caffeine help cells that line the arteries and veins?
A. It repairs them when they are damaged.
B. It protects them from being damaged.
C. It makes them stronger and recover faster.
D. It greatly strengthens the arteries and veins.
Question 41: The word “them” in the first paragraph refers to ___________.
A. cups B. benefits C. cells D. improvements

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.

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A 500-year-old brewery in Bavaria, Germany has become an unlikely leader in the eco-friendly
beer making movement. The Hofmühl Brewery, founded in 1492, has reduced its carbon footprint by
40% over the past two decades through solar panels and efficient water filtration, while making use of
excess grains.
Family-run since 1876, Hofmühl Brewery’s owner Benno Emslander took over in 1993,
growing annual production from 15,000 hectoliters to 80,000, while offering 12 varieties of beer. In
2012, Emslander invested €190,000 in a heat and power unit that produces electricity from a mix of
natural gas and thermal energy from solar panels. The unit paid for itself in four years and now meets
half the brewery’s electricity demands. Plans are being drawn up for further investments to boost
efficiency in the future, including installing photovoltaic panels to produce electricity directly from the
sun, and sourcing natural gas from the fermentation of organic waste like leftover grains from the
brewing process.
After fermentation, 98% of Hofmühl’s beer is packaged in recyclable kegs or bottles, while
excess grains and yeast from the brewing process are sold to farms as livestock feed or fertilizer — an
increasingly common practice for beer makers. None of these developments, however, should get in the
way of the customers’ experience, stressed Johannes Jung, Hofmühl’s plant manager and brewmaster.
“Of course, we don’t want to change the taste or flavor because of our production process,” he said. “I
don’t think that they buy our beer because of the eco-friendly production.”
Outside of Germany, some major beer producers have quietly caught on to the eco-friendly
model. The world’s second-largest beer maker, Heineken, says 34% of its agriculture is now sourced
sustainably, and it has installed thousands of solar panels in its breweries in Europe, the United States
and Singapore. Sierra Nevada Brewing Co., the largest independently-owned brewery in the United
States, operates with a zero-waste policy by reusing nearly all of its byproduct.
In Britain, Bedlam Brewery has recently seen a shift in customer recognition for its eco-focused
beer. Since launching in 2015 with the help of a German brewmaster, Bedlam relocated to a solar-
powered farm outside of Brighton, marketing eight varieties including a vegan option. “They are caring
more now than they did in 2015,” said Sally O’Connor, Bedlam’s communication manager, citing better
public understanding of environmental wastage.
(Adapted from bbc.com)
Question 42: Which of the following best serves as a title for the passage?
A. The Different Uses Of Leftover Grains From Beer-Making
B. How Eco-Friendly Beer Is Gaining Popularity Worldwide
C. Breweries Praised By The Public For Eco-Friendly Practices
D. An Eco-Friendly Beer Trend Started by A German Brewery
Question 43: How has Heineken caught on to Hofmühl’s eco-friendly model?
A. It is currently operating with a zero-waste policy.
B. It sources the majority of its agriculture sustainably.
C. It reuses all of its byproduct from the brewing process.
D. It built solar-powered farms in Europe, the U.S and Singapore.
Question 44: The word “drawn up” in paragraph 2 can be best replaced by ___________.
A. implemented B. launched C. developed D. constructed
Question 45: Excess grains from the brewing process can ___________.
A. ferment and produce natural gas. B. be sold to farms as crops.
C. be fed to livestock at breweries. D. produce electricity by fermenting.
Question 46: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ___________.
A. beer makers B. customers C. developments D. farms
Question 47: What can be inferred from the passage?
A. The Hofmühl Brewery will produce all of its electricity using photovoltaic panels in the
future.
B. Since Benno Emslander took over, Hofmühl has become the largest brewery in Germany.
C. Natural gas from organic waste will be sold to other breweries along with excess grains.
D. Electricity from the heat and power unit is a major energy source at the Hofmühl Brewery.
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Question 48: The word “recognition” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. admiration B. affection C. appreciation D. respect

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: She doesn’t know a foreign language. She can’t get a job easily.
A. If she knew a foreign language, she could get a job easily.
B. Provided that she knows a foreign language, she can’t get a job easily.
C. If she had known a foreign language, she could have gotten a job easily.
D. If she knew a foreign language, she couldn’t get a job easily.
Question 50: Candidates are prohibited from discussing with anyone while they are taking the entrance
exam. There is no exception.
A. By no means were candidates allowed to discuss with anyone while they are taking the
entrance exam.
B. At no time are candidates banned from discussing with anyone while they are taking the
entrance exam.
C. On no account are candidates forbidden to discuss with anyone while they are taking the
entrance exam.
D. Under no circumstances are candidates allowed to discuss with anyone while they are taking
the entrance exam.

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