Key points:

low grade fever: infection

CF: backpain, and fever
and IV DRUG ABUSER

C TB: usually more insidious and backpain is late

symptom and consituitional symptoms are usually
chronic illness, malaise, night sweats and weight
loss

Key points:
usually for younger patients,
a total hip replacement is recommended.
In this case the femoral head and acetabulum has
been affected so partial does not fit well here.
Post traumatic arthritis is also one of the indicators
which is also remarkable here in his radiological findings

Key points:
It is not Septic Arthritis or Transient synovitis
B because it does not mention any infection or
fever in the question
so it rules out C and D
A: is not because it is only common in obese
adolescent males
(usually thigh pain)

B is the answer: 4-8years old, painless limb

( bear weight with support)
Radiology: widened joint space fragmentation,
ossific nucleus of femoral head
Ossific nucleus is present as an indication of hip
stability.
in this case it is fragmented
 Key points:
For intra articular
fractures usually the
management is ORIF
if it was an extra
articular:
then it will be a close
reduction and splint/cast
immobilization
if it was an open fracture,
D than would consider
external fixation

CT scan usually is more suitable

for bone imaging,
because this man has muscle
weakness the best approach
would be MRI imaging to see the
blood vessels.
C

Grade 1 open fracture, so

IV antibiotics will do
C usually for vein injuries dont need any repairs
only nerve or arteries
 They already did a knee radiograph,
so D is not an option
E: stress knee radiographs are
usually for arthritis
MRI: soft tissue injury
CT scan: if there was a nail or
c something..

so answer is C because it is a staple

investigation for post traumatic
arthrotomy

Key points:
The type of fractures of the spine
caused by osteoporosis is
compression fractures. In this case
A she is also elderly.

It cannot be C or E because the

radiograph mentioned no lytic or
sclerotic lesions, if there was lytic
lesions than it could suggest
malignancy

A(osteosarcoma: not smooth) and E ( GGT -

C progressive) are definitely not the answer
because it is bone tumours.
E is nerve sheath tumour
Lipomas ( not adherent) usually not present on
the wrist

Hence the answer is C

 MRI soft tissue
A Bone CT scan

e
 e

Because of the age 6years old:

B Perthes is usually 4-10 years old
and there is presence of the ossific nucleus
 B

There is an infection in this

patient with pus discharge
so Incision and drainage is the
D best option because we need to
treat the local casue
 Because of the age and there is no
presence of lateral thrusting,
it is physiological bowing.
If the question says lateral thrusting it
could then be blount disease.
C

MRI is the investigation

E of choice for soft tissue
swellings
 non contact
B injury usually
is ACL

Key point of deformity

A of shoulder joint
and present of axillary
nerve injury is
flat deltoid contour
E

Homans test postive

usually indicates presence of
A thrombosis
In this case it seems to be
DVT hence doppler US is the
diagnostic tool
 C

B There are no
bone erosions
in arthritis
 Key points:
B Not septic arthritis or transient synovitis because
there is no fever.
Slipped capital femoral epiphysis more towards
obese male adolescents

Key points:
Hip dysplasia
because of Barlow test positive:
E USG is a good guide for children less than 6 months old

A
 B

B
A C

Key points:
housemaid kneeling is associated
with
pre-patellar bursitis
Patellar tendonitis: associated with
A
D Jumpers knee
Infra patellary bursitis is clergyman
knee - has stiffness

B
 Again, there is infection
and because it is tense
B there could be pus so
incision and biopsy

Key point is
gamma
D globulinemia and
calcium raised