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P2 Answers & Solutions
for
Time : 3 hrs. NEET (UG) - 2019 Max. Marks : 720

Important Instructions :
1. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question carries
4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one
mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.

2. Use Blue / Black Ball point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.

3. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.

4. On completion of the test, the candidate must handover the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator before leaving
the Room / Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

5. The CODE for this Booklet is P2.

6. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the
Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test
Booklet/Answer Sheet.

7. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admission Card to the Invigilator.

8. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.

9. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.

10. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to their conduct
in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of this
examination.

11. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.

12. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet / Answer Sheet in
the Attendance Sheet.

1
1. Under isothermal condition, a gas at 300 K 2 

S o l . Ca(OH)2  Ca  2OH
expands from 0.1 L to 0.25 L against a
constant external pressure of 2 bar. The work
done by the gas is pH = 9 Hence pOH = 14 – 9 = 5
(Given that 1 L bar = 100 J) [OH–] = 10–5 M

(1) –30 J (2) 5 kJ

105
Hence [Ca2+] =
(3) 25 J (4) 30 J 2
Answer ( 1 ) Thus Ksp = [Ca2+][OH–]2
S o l .  Wirr = – Pext V
 105  5 2
= – 2 bar × (0.25 – 0.1) L =   (10 )
 2 
= – 2 × 0.15 L-bar = 0.5 × 10–15
= – 0.30 L-bar 4. The number of moles of hydrogen molecules
= – 0.30 × 100 J required to produce 20 moles of ammonia
through Haber's process is :
= – 30 J
(1) 10 (2) 20
2. A compound is formed by cation C and
anion A. The anions form hexagonal close (3) 30 (4) 40
packed (hcp) lattice and the cations occupy Answer ( 3 )
75% of octahedral voids. The formula of the
compound is : S o l . Haber's process

(1) C2A3 N2 (g)  3H2 (g)  2NH3 (g)

(2) C3A2 20 moles need to be produced
(3) C3A4 2 moles of NH3  3 moles of H2
(4) C4A3
3  20
Hence 20 moles of NH3   30 moles of H2
Answer ( 3 ) 2
Sol. • Anions(A) are in hcp, so number of anions 5. For an ideal solution, the correct option is :
(A) = 6 (1) mix S = 0 at constant T and P
Cations(C) are in 75% O.V., so number of (2) mix V  0 at constant T and P
cations (C)
(3) mix H = 0 at constant T and P
3
= 6× (4) mix G = 0 at constant T and P
4
Answer ( 3 )
18
= S o l . For ideal solution,
4
mixH = 0
9
=
2 mixS > 0
mixG < 0
• So formula of compound will be
mixV = 0
C 9 A6  C9 A12
6. For a cell involving one electron E°cell = 0.59 V
2
at 298 K, the equilibrium constant for the cell
C9A12  C3A4 reaction is :
3. pH of a saturated solution of Ca(OH)2 is 9. The  2.303 RT 
solubility product (Ksp) of Ca(OH)2 is: Given that  0.059 V at T = 298 K 
F 
(1) 0.5 × 10–15 (2) 0.25 × 10–10 (1) 1.0 × 102 (2) 1.0 × 105
(3) 0.125 × 10–15 (4) 0.5 × 10–10 (3) 1.0 × 1010 (4) 1.0 × 1030
Answer ( 1 ) Answer ( 3 )

2
 
0.059 (c) 2KMnO 4   K2MnO 4  MnO2  O2
S o l . Ecell = E°cell – log Q ...(i)
n
(At equilibrium, Q = Keq and Ecell = 0) (d) 2MnO4  3Mn2   2H2 O 
 5MnO2  4H

Select the correct option from the following

0.059
0 = E°cell – log Keq (from equation (i)) (1) (a) and (b) only (2) (a), (b) and (c)
1
(3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (a) and (d) only
E°cell 0.59
log Keq = = = 10 Answer ( 1 )
0.059 0.059
1
Keq = 1010 = 1 × 1010
S o l . (a) 2Cu1 

7. Among the following, the one that is not a
green house gas is 2 0
Cu2(  )  Cu0 } Disproportionation
(1) Nitrous oxide (2) Methane
6
(3) Ozone (4) Sulphur dioxide ) ()
(b) 3MnO2(
4  4H 

Answer ( 4 )
7 4
S o l . Fact
2MnO4  MnO2  2H2 O} Disproportionation
SO2 (g) is not a greenhouse gas.
7 6

8. 8. The number of sigma () and pi () bonds in (c) 2KMnO42   K2MnO4 
pent-2-en-4-yne is
4 0
(1) 10 bonds and 3 bonds MnO2  O2 }  Not a disproportionation
(2) 8 bonds and 5 bonds 7 2

(3) 11 bonds and 2 bonds (d) 2MnO 4  3Mn2(  )  2H2 O 



(4) 13 bonds and no  bonds 4

5MnO2  4H }
Answer ( 1 )
11. Among the following, the narrow spectrum
H H
 antibiotic is :

S o l . H – C – C =
 C – C 


C – H
  (1) Penicillin G
H H
(2) Ampicillin
Number of  bonds = 10 (3) Amoxycillin
and number of  bonds = 3 (4) Chloramphenicol
9. Which of the following diatomic molecular Answer ( 1 )
species has only  bonds according to
Molecular Orbital Theory? S o l . Penicillin G

(1) O2 (2) N2 12. The correct order of the basic strength of

methyl substituted amines in aqueous solution
(3) C2 (4) Be2 is :
Answer ( 3 ) (1) (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3)3N
S o l . MO configuration C2 is: (2) (CH3)3N > CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH
2 2
1s2, *1s2, 2s2, *2s2, 2p x  2p y (3) (CH3)3N > (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2
(4) CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH > (CH3)3N
10. Which of the following reactions are
disproportionation reaction? Answer ( 1 )
S o l . In aqueous solution, electron donating
(a) 2Cu 
 Cu2   Cu0 inductive effect, solvation effect (H-bonding)
and steric hindrance all together affect basic
(b) 3MnO24  4H 
 2MnO4  MnO2  2H2 O strength of substituted amines

3
 Basic character : Answer ( 3 )
(CH3)2NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3)3N Sol.
2° 1° 3° (1) CH3COOH  NaOH  CH3COONa  H2O
13. Which mixture of the solutions will lead to the Before 25 mL 50 mL
0
formation of negatively charged colloidal × 0.1 M × 0.1M
[Agl]l– sol ? = 2.5 mmol = 5 mmol
(1) 50 mL of 1 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 1.5 M KI After 0 2.5 mmol 2.5 mmol

(2) 50 mL of 1 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 2 M KI This is basic solution due to NaOH.

(3) 50 mL of 2 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 1.5 M KI This is not basic buffer.
(4) 50 mL of 0.1 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 0.1 M KI (2) CH3COOH  NaOH  CH3COONa  H2O
Answer ( 2 ) Before 100 mL 100 mL
0
× 0.1 M × 0.1 M
S o l . Generally charge present on the colloid is due
to adsorption of common ion from dispersion  10 mmol  10mmol
medium. Millimole of KI is maximum in After 0 0 10 mmol
option (2) (50 × 2 = 100) so act as solvent and Hydrolysis of salt takes place.
anion I– is adsorbed by the colloid AgI formed
This is not basic buffer.

(3) HCl  NH4OH  NH4Cl  H2O

Before 100 mL 200 mL
0
ii
14. Conjugate base for Br onsted acids H2O and × 0.1 M × 0.1 M
HF are :  10 mmol  20 mmol
After 0 10 mmol 10 mmol
(1) OH– and H2F+, respectively
(2) H3O+ and F–, respectively This is basic buffer
(3) OH– and F–, respectively (4) HCl  NaOH  NaCl  H2O
(4) H3O+ and H2F+, respectively Before 100 mL 100 mL
0
Answer ( 3 ) × 0.1 M × 0.1 M
 10 mmol  10 mmol
–
OH Conjugate base After 0 0 10 mmol
S o l . H2O
+
H3O Conjugate acid  Neutral solution
–
HF on loss of H+
ion becomes F is the 16. The compound that is most difficult to
conjugate base of HF protonate is :
Example : O
– + (1) H H
HF + H2O F + H3O
Acid Base Conjugate Conjugate O
base acid (2) H3C H
15. Which will make basic buffer?
O
(1) 50 mL of 0.1 M NaOH + 25 mL of 0.1 M (3) H3C CH3
CH3COOH
O
(2) 100 mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH + 100 mL of 0.1 M
(4) Ph H
NaOH
Answer ( 4 )
(3) 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl + 200 mL of 0.1 M
NH4OH S o l . Due to involvement of lone pair of electrons in
resonance in phenol, it will have positive
(4) 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl + 100 mL of 0.1 M
charge (partial), hence incoming proton will
NaOH
not be able to attack easily.

4
17. The most suitable reagent for the following CH3 CH3
conversion, is : CH
O – CH H3C – C – O – O – H
3
H3 C CH3
H 3C C C CH3 (1) (2)
H H
cis-2-butene CH3 CH2 – O – O – H
(1) Na/liquid NH3 O – O – CH HC
CH3
(2) H2, Pd/C, quinoline CH3
(3) (4)
(3) Zn/HCl
(4) Hg2+/H+, H2O Answer ( 2 )

Answer ( 2 )
H3C CH3 CH3
H2, Pd/C, CH3
C C CH H3C – C – O – O – H
S o l . H3C C C CH3 quinoline CH3
H H O2 H
+

Sol.
cis-2-butene H 2O

Cumene (A)
Cumene
hydroperoxide
OH
O
+ H3C – C –CH3

Answer ( 4 )
S o l . • Due to presence of d-orbital in Si, Ge and 21. The manganate and permanganate ions are
Sn they form species like SiF62–, [GeCl6]2–, tetrahedral, due to :
[Sn(OH)6]2– (1) The -bonding involves overlap of
• SiCl 62– does not exist because six large p-orbitals of oxygen with d-orbitals of
chloride ions cannot be accommodated manganese
around Si4+ due to limitation of its size. (2) There is no -bonding
19. Which of the following is an amphoteric (3) The -bonding involves overlap of
hydroxide? p-orbitals of oxygen with p-orbitals of
(1) Sr(OH)2 manganese
(2) Ca(OH)2 (4) The -bonding involves overlap of
d-orbitals of oxygen with d-orbitals of
(3) Mg(OH)2
manganese
(4) Be(OH)2
Answer ( 1 )
Answer ( 4 )
O
S o l . Be(OH)2 amphoteric in nature, since it can
react both with acid and base S o l . • Manganate (MnO42–) : Mn O
–
Be(OH)2 + 2HCl  BeCl2 + 2H2O O –
O
Be(OH)2 + 2NaOH  Na2 [Be(OH)4]
 -bonds are of d–p type
20. The structure of intermediate A in the
following reaction, is O
CH3 • Permanganate (MnO4–) : Mn O
CH OH
CH3 O O –
O2 H
+
O
A + H3C CH3
H2 O
 -bonds are of d–p type

5
22. For the second period elements the correct Answer ( 4 )
increasing order of first ionisation enthalpy is: Axial bond
Cl
(1) Li < Be < B < C < N < O < F < Ne 240 pm
Cl 90°
(2) Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F < Ne Sol. 120° P Cl Equatorial bond
Cl 202 pm
(3) Li < B < Be < C < N < O < F < Ne
Cl
(4) Li < Be < B < C < O < N < F < Ne
(1) True
Answer ( 2 )
Cl
S o l . ‘Be’ and ‘N’ have comparatively more stable
valence sub-shell than ‘B’ and ‘O’. (2) True P 180°
 Correct order of first ionisation enthalpy
is: Cl

Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F < Ne (3) True

23. If the rate constant for a first order reaction Axial bond : 240 pm
is k, the time (t) required for the completion of Equatorial bond : 202 pm
99% of the reaction is given by:
(4) False
(1) t = 0.693/k (2) t = 6.909/k
Due to longer and hence weaker axial
(3) t = 4.606/k (4) t = 2.303/k bonds, PCl5 is a reactive molecule.
Answer ( 3 ) 25. 4d, 5p, 5f and 6p orbitals are arranged in the
S o l . First order rate constant is given as, order of decreasing energy. The correct option
is
2.303 [A ]
k log 0 (1) 5f > 6p > 5p > 4d (2) 6p > 5f > 5p > 4d
t [A]t
(3) 6p > 5f > 4d > 5p (4) 5f > 6p > 4d > 5p
99% completed reaction, Answer ( 1 )
2.303 100 S o l . (n + l) values for, 4d = 4 + 2 = 6
k log
t 1 5p = 5 + 1 = 6
5f = 5 + 3 = 8
2.303
 log102
t 6p = 6 + 1 = 7
 Correct order of energy would be
2.303
k  2log10 5f > 6p > 5p > 4d
t
26. The biodegradable polymer is:
2.303 4.606
t 2  (1) Nylon-6,6 (2) Nylon-2-Nylon 6
k k
(3) Nylon-6 (4) Buna-S
4.606 Answer ( 2 )
t
k S o l . Nylon-2-Nylon 6
24. Identify the incorrect statement related to 27. Match the Xenon compounds in Column-I with
PCl5 from the following: its structure in Column-II and assign the
(1) Three equatorial P–Cl bonds make an correct code:
angle of 120° with each other Column-I Column-II
(2) Two axial P–Cl bonds make an angle of (a) XeF4 (i) Pyramidal
180° with each other
(b) XeF6 (ii) Square planar
(3) Axial P–Cl bonds are longer than
equatorial P–Cl bonds (c) XeOF4 (iii) Distorted octahedral

(4) PCl5 molecule is non-reactive (d) XeO3 (iv) Square pyramidal

6
 Code: O – O
–
O O O O
(a) (b) (c) (d) –
(3) O – Br – Br – Br = O (4) O = Br – Br – Br – O –
– –
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) O O O O O
– O

(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) Answer ( 1 )

(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) S o l . The correct structure is
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
O O O
Answer ( 2 )
O = Br – Br – Br = O
O O O
F F
Tribromooctaoxide
S o l . (a) XeF4 : Xe  Square planar
F F 30. An alkene "A" on reaction with O3 and Zn–H2O
gives propanone and ethanal in equimolar
ratio. Addition of HCl to alkene "A" gives "B" as
F the major product. The structure of product
"B" is:
F F
(b) XeF6 : Xe  Distorted CH3
octahedral
F F
(1) Cl–CH2–CH2–CH
F
CH3

F F CH2Cl
Xe  Square
(c) XeOF4 : (2) H3 C–CH2 –CH–CH3
F F pyramidal
O
CH3
(3) H3C–CH2–C–CH3

Xe O Cl
(d) XeO3 : Pyramidal
O
O
CH3
28. Which is the correct thermal stability order for (4) H3C–CH–CH
H2E (E = O, S, Se, Te and Po)?
Cl CH3
(1) H2S < H2O < H2Se < H2Te < H2Po
(2) H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te < H2Po Answer ( 3 )
(3) H2Po < H2Te < H2Se < H2S < H2O
(4) H2Se < H2Te < H2Po < H2O < H2S Sol.
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . On going down the group thermal stability
order for H2E decreases because H–E bond
energy decreases
 Order of stability would be:-
H2Po < H2Te < H2Se < H2S < H2O
29. The correct structure of tribromooctaoxide is

O O O O O O
–
(1) O = Br – Br – Br = O (2) O = Br – Br – Br – O
–
O O O O
– O
O

7
31. Enzymes that utilize ATP in phosphate transfer [Given that Faraday constant F = 96500 C mol–1]
require an alkaline earth metal (M) as the
(1) – 46.32 kJ mol–1 (2) – 23.16 kJ mol–1
cofactor. M is :
(3) 46.32 kJ mol–1 (4) 23.16 kJ mol–1
(1) Be (2) Mg
Answer ( 1 )
(3) Ca (4) Sr
Answer ( 2 ) S o l . GΘ =  nF Ecell
Θ

S o l . All enzymes that utilize ATP in phosphate = – 2 × 96500 × 0.24 J mol–1

transfer require magnesium(Mg) as the
co-factor. = – 46320 J mol–1

32. Which one is malachite from the following? = – 46.32 kJ mol–1

(1) CuFeS2 36. In which case change in entropy is negative?

(2) Cu(OH)2 (1) Evaporation of water
(3) Fe3O4 (2) Expansion of a gas at constant
temperature
(4) CuCO3.Cu(OH)2
(3) Sublimation of solid to gas
Answer ( 4 )
(4) 2H(g)  H2(g)
S o l . Malachite : CuCO3.Cu(OH)2 (Green colour)
Answer ( 4 )
33. Which of the following series of transitions in
the spectrum of hydrogen atom fall in visible
Sol. •  H2 O  v  , S  0
H2 O    
region?
(1) Lyman series • Expansion of gas at constant
temperature, S > 0
(2) Balmer series
• Sublimation of solid to gas, S > 0
(3) Paschen series
(4) Brackett series • 2H(g) 
 H2(g), S < 0 (∵ ng < 0)
Answer ( 2 ) 37. Match the following :
S o l . In H-spectrum, Balmer series transitions fall (a) Pure nitrogen (i) Chlorine
in visible region.
(b) Haber process (ii) Sulphuric acid
34. The mixture that forms maximum boiling
(c) Contact process (iii) Ammonia
azeotrope is:
(d) Deacon’s process (iv) Sodium azide or
(1) Water + Nitric acid
Barium azide
(2) Ethanol + Water
(3) Acetone + Carbon disulphide Which of the following is the correct option?

(4) Heptane + Octane (a) (b) (c) (d)

Answer ( 1 ) (1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

S o l . Solutions showing negative deviation from (2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
Raoult's law form maximum boiling azeotrope (3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
Water and Nitric acid  forms maximum (4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
boiling azeotrope
Answer ( 4 )
35. For the cell reaction
S o l . (a) Pure nitrogen : Sodium azide or
2Fe3 (aq)  2I (aq)  2Fe2 (aq)  I2 (aq) Barium azide
(b) Haber process : Ammonia
EΘ
cell  0.24 V at 298 K. The standard Gibbs
(c) Contact process : Sulphuric acid
energy (r GΘ ) of the cell reaction is : (d) Deacon’s process : Chlorine

8
38. Which of the following is incorrect statement? CI CI

(1) PbF4 is covalent in nature

UV light
(2) SiCl4 is easily hydrolysed (3) + Cl2 CI CI

(3) GeX4 (X = F, Cl, Br, I) is more stable than

GeX2 CI CI

(4) SnF4 is ionic in nature

heat
(4) CH 2OH + HCl
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . PbF4 and SnF4 are ionic in nature.
CH 2Cl + H 2O
39. The non-essential amino acid among the
following is: Answer ( 2 )
(1) Valine Cl
(2) Leucine
AlCl 3
(3) Alanine Sol. + Cl2 + HCl
(4) Lysine
Answer ( 3 ) Generation of electrophile:

S o l . Alanine .. + –
Cl Cl
.. + AlCl3 Cl Cl AlCl3
..
40. A gas at 350 K and 15 bar has molar volume 20
percent smaller than that for an ideal gas
.. + –
under the same conditions. The correct option Cl
.. + AlCl4

..
about the gas and its compressibility factor (Z) Electrophile

is : Cl H
(1) Z > 1 and attractive forces are dominant +
Cl+
(2) Z > 1 and repulsive forces are dominant (i) etc

(3) Z < 1 and attractive forces are dominant

Cl Cl
(4) Z < 1 and repulsive forces are dominant H

Answer ( 3 ) +
(ii)
Vreal
Sol. • Compressibility factor(Z) =
Videal 42. The major product of the following reaction is:

∵ Vreal < Videal; Hence Z < 1 COOH

strong heating
+ NH3
• If Z < 1, attractive forces are dominant
among gaseous molecules and COOH
liquefaction of gas will be easy.
COOH
41. Among the following, the reaction that
(1)
proceeds through an electrophilic substitution,
is: CONH 2

+ Cu 2Cl2
(1) N 2CI
–
CI + N 2 O

(2) NH
AlCl 3
(2) + Cl2 CI + HCl
O

9
 COOH  2NH3
S o l . N2  3H2 
(3) Rate of reaction is given as
NH2
d[N2 ] 1 d[H2 ] 1 d[NH3 ]
  
NH2 dt 3 dt 2 dt

(4) 44. What is the correct electronic configuration of

NH2 the central atom in K 4 [Fe(CN) 6 ] based on
crystal field theory?
Answer ( 2 )
4
COOH
–
COO NH4
+ (1) t 2g e2g
Sol. + NH3
– + (2) t 62g e0g
COOH COO NH4

– 2H2O  (3) e3 t 32
CONH 2
(4) e 4 t 22
Answer ( 2 )
CONH 2
S o l . K4[Fe(CN)6]
– NH3 Strong heating
Fe ground state: [Ar]3d64s2
O Fe2+: 3d64s0
C
NH eg
C
O
Phthalimide In
Energy
Spherical t2g
43. For the chemical reaction
2+ field
Fe
 2NH3 (g)
N2 (g)  3H2 (g)  t 62g e0g In the presence of
–
6CN strong field

The correct option is:

45. The method used to remove temporary
hardness of water is :
1 d[H2 ] 1 d[NH3 ]
(1)   (1) Calgon's method
3 dt 2 dt
(2) Clark's method

d[NH3 ] (3) Ion-exchange method

d[N2 ]
(2)  2
(4) Synthetic resins method
dt dt
Answer ( 2 )
d[N2 ] 1 d[NH3 ] S o l . Clark's method is used to remove temporary
(3)   hardness of water, in which bicarbonates of
dt 2 dt
calcium and magnesium are reacted with
slaked lime Ca(OH)2
d[H2 ] d[NH3 ] Ca(HCO3)2 + Ca(OH)2  2CaCO3 + 2H2O
(4) 3 2
dt dt
Mg(HCO3)2 + 2Ca(OH)2  2CaCO3  + Mg(OH)2 

Answer ( 3 ) + 2H2O

10
46. In which of the following processes, heat is Answer ( 3 )
neither absorbed nor released by a system? S o l . From the given logic circuit LED will glow,
(1) Isothermal (2) Adiabatic when voltage across LED is high.
(3) Isobaric (4) Isochoric +6 V
R
Answer ( 2 ) A
S o l . In adiabatic process, there is no exchange of
heat.
47. Increase in temperature of a gas filled in a
container would lead to : B
(1) Increase in its mass Truth Table
(2) Increase in its kinetic energy
A B Y
(3) Decrease in its pressure
0 0 1
(4) Decrease in intermolecular distance 0 1 1
Answer ( 2 ) 1 0 1
1 1 0
S o l . Increase in temperature would lead to the
increase in kinetic energy of gas (assuming
This is out put of NAND gate.
F
far as to be ideal) as U  nRT 50. A block of mass 10 kg is in contact against the
2 inner wall of a hollow cylindrical drum of
48. The total energy of an electron in an atom in radius 1 m. The coefficient of friction between
an orbit is –3.4 eV. Its kinetic and potential the block and the inner wall of the cylinder is
energies are, respectively: 0.1. The minimum angular velocity needed for
(1) –3.4 eV, –3.4 eV the cylinder to keep the block stationary when
the cylinder is vertical and rotating about its
(2) –3.4 eV, –6.8 eV
axis, will be : (g  10 m/s2 )
(3) 3.4 eV, –6.8 eV
(4) 3.4 eV, 3.4 eV 10
(1) 10 rad/s (2) rad/s
2
Answer ( 3 )
(3) 10 rad/s (4) 10rad/s
S o l . In Bohr's model of H atom
Answer ( 3 )
U Sol.
 K.E.  TE 
2
fL
 K.E. = 3.4 eV 2
N mr
U = –6.8 eV mg

+6 V
49. 0 R For equilibrium of the block limiting friction
A 1 fL  mg
LED (Y)
 N  mg
R
 mr2  mg
0
B 1 g

r
The correct Boolean operation represented by g
the circuit diagram drawn is : min 
r
(1) AND (2) OR
10
(3) NAND (4) NOR min  = 10 rad/s
0.1 1

11
51. Body A of mass 4m moving with speed u 53. A mass m is attached to a thin wire and
collides with another body B of mass 2m, at whirled in a vertical circle. The wire is most
rest. The collision is head on and elastic in likely to break when:
nature. After the collision the fraction of (1) The mass is at the highest point
energy lost by the colliding body A is :
(2) The wire is horizontal
1 8
(1) (2) (3) The mass is at the lowest point
9 9
(4) Inclined at an angle of 60° from vertical
4 5
(3) (4)
9 9 Answer ( 3 )
Answer ( 2 )
Sol.
S o l . Fractional loss of KE of ccolliding body

KE 4  m1m2 

KE  m  m 2
1 2 T
4  4m  2m u

 4m  2m 2 mg
2
32m 8
 2

36m 9
mu2
52. The speed of a swimmer in still water is T  mg 
l
20 m/s. The speed of river water is 10 m/s and
is flowing due east. If he is standing on the
mu2
south bank and wishes to cross the river along T  mg 
the shortest path, the angle at which he should l
make his strokes w.r.t. north is given by : The tension is maximum at the lowest
(1) 30° west (2) 0° position of mass, so the chance of breaking is
maximum.
(3) 60° west (4) 45° west
54. The displacement of a particle executing
Answer ( 1 )
simple harmonic motion is given by
S o l . VSR  20 m/s y = A0 + Asint + Bcost
VRG  10 m/s Then the amplitude of its oscillation is given
by :
N
V RG
(1) A0  A2  B2
V SG
W E (2) A 2  B2
V SR 

(3) A20  (A  B)2

S
   (4) A + B
VSG  VSR  VRG
 Answer ( 2 )
VRG
sin    Sol. B
VSR A 2 B 2

10
sin  
20
A
1
sin   y = A0 + Asint + Bsint
2
 = 30° west Equate SHM

12
 y = y – A0 = Asint + Bcost
Resultant amplitude
R  A2  B2  2ABcos90
 A 2  B2
55. A 800 turn coil of effective area 0.05 m2 is kept
perpendicular to a magnetic field 5 × 10–5 T. When
the plane of the coil is rotated by 90° around
any of its coplanar axis in 0.1 s, the emf
induced in the coil will be:
57. A soap bubble, having radius of 1 mm, is blown
from a detergent solution having a surface
tension of 2.5 × 10–2 N/m. The pressure inside
the bubble equals at a point Z 0 below the
free surface of water in a container. Taking
g = 10 m/s2, density of water = 103 kg/m3, the
value of Z0 is :
(1) 100 cm (2) 10 cm
(3) 1 cm (4) 0.5 cm
Answer ( 3 )

(1) 2 V 4T
S o l . Excess pressure = , Gauge pressure
R
(2) 0.2 V = gZ0
(3) 2 × 10–3 V
4T
(4) 0.02 V P0   P0  gZ0
R
Answer ( 4 ) 4T
Z0 
S o l . Magnetic field B = 5 × 10–5 T R  g
Number of turns in coil N = 800 4  2.5  102
Z0  m
Area of coil A = 0.05 m2 103  1000  10
Time taken to rotate t = 0.1 s Z0 = 1 cm
Initial angle 1 = 0° 58. A copper rod of 88 cm and an aluminium rod of
unknown length have their increase
Final angle 2 = 90°
in length independent of increase in
Change in magnetic flux  temperature. The length of aluminium rod is :
= NBAcos90° – BAcos0° (Cu = 1.7 × 10–5 K–1 and Al = 2.2 × 10–5 K–1)

= – NBA (1) 6.8 cm (2) 113.9 cm

= – 800 × 5 × 10–5 × 0.05 (3) 88 cm (4) 68 cm

= – 2 × 10–3 weber Answer ( 4 )

 ()2  103 Wb S o l . CuLCu   AlL Al

e–   0.02 V
t 0.1 s 1.7 × 10–5 × 88 cm = 2.2 × 10–5 × LAl
56. Average velocity of a particle executing SHM in
1.7  88
one complete vibration is : LAl   68 cm
2.2
A 59. The unit of thermal conductivity is :
(1)
2 (1) J m K–1 (2) J m–1 K–1
(2) A (3) W m K–1 (4) W m–1 K–1

A2 Answer ( 4 )
(3)
2 S o l . The heat current related to difference of
(4) Zero temperature across the length l of a
conductor of area A is
Answer ( 4 )
dH KA
S o l . In one complete vibration, displacement is  T (K = coefficient of thermal
zero. So, average velocity in one complete dt 
conductivity)
vibration
 dH
Displacement y f  yi  K
  0 A dt T
Time interval T
Unit of K = Wm–1 K–1

13
60. When a block of mass M is suspended by a long
 3 
wire of length L, the length of the wire (1)  % (2) 16%
 13 
becomes (L + l). The elastic potential energy
stored in the extended wire is : (3) – 10% (4) 10%
(1) Mgl (2) MgL Answer ( 2 )

1 1 S o l . Given
(3) Mgl (4) MgL
2 2
1
Answer ( 3 ) A2B 2
x 1
C 3 D3
Sol.
x A 1 B
L % error,  100  2  100  
x A 2 B

1 c D
l 100   100  3  100
3 c D

1 1
Mg  2  1%   2%   3%  3  4%
2 3

 2%  1%  1%  12%
1
U (work done by gravity) = 16%
2
63. A body weighs 200 N on the surface of the
1 earth. How much will it weigh half way down
U  Mgl
2 to the centre of the earth ?
61. A disc of radius 2 m and mass 100 kg rolls on (1) 150 N (2) 200 N
a horizontal floor. Its centre of mass has speed (3) 250 N (4) 100 N
of 20 cm/s. How much work is needed to stop
it? Answer ( 4 )
Sol. g
(1) 3 J (2) 30 kJ
(3) 2 J (4) 1 J R d

Answer ( 1 ) g

S o l . Work required = change in kinetic energy C

Final KE = 0

1 1 3 Acceleration due to gravity at a depth d from

Initial KE = mv2  I2  mv2
2 2 4 surface of earth

3  d
  100  (20  102 )2  3 J g  g  1   ...(1)
4  R

|KE| = 3 J Where g = acceleration due to gravity at

earth's surface
62. In an experiment, the percentage of error
occurred in the measurement of physical Multiplying by mass 'm' on both sides of (1)
quantities A, B, C and D are 1%, 2%, 3% and 4%
respectively. Then the maximum percentage of  d  R
mg  mg  1   d  
1
 R  2
A2B 2
error in the measurement X, where X  1
,
C 3D3  R  200
 200  1    100 N
will be  2 R  2

14
64. Which colour of the light has the longest Answer ( 4 )
wavelength? S o l . At t = 0, y displacement is maximum, so
(1) Red (2) Blue equation will be cosine function.
(3) Green (4) Violet
y
Answer ( 1 )
Pt=0
S o l . Red has the longest wavelength among the
given options. T=4s

65. A solid cylinder of mass 2 kg and radius 4 cm is x

rotating about its axis at the rate of 3 rpm. The
torque required to stop after 2 revolutions is
(1) 2 × 10–6 N m (2) 2 × 10–3 N m
(3) 12 × 10–4 N m (4) 2 × 106 N m
T=4s
Answer ( 1 )
2 2 
S o l . Work energy theorem.    rad/s
T 4 2
1 2
W I(f  i2 )  = 2 revolution y = a cost
2
= 2 × 2 = 42 rad 
y  3cos t
2
2
Wi  3  rad / s
60 67. A hollow metal sphere of radius R is uniformly
1 1 2 2 charged. The electric field due to the sphere at
 –    mr (0  i2 ) a distance r from the centre
2 2
2 (1) Increases as r increases for r < R and for
1 1  2 
  2  (4  10 2 )  3   r>R
 – 2 2  60 
4 2 (2) Zero as r increases for r < R, decreases as
r increases for r > R
   2  106 N m (3) Zero as r increases for r < R, increases as
66. The radius of circle, the period of revolution, r increases for r > R
initial position and sense of revolution are (4) Decreases as r increases for r < R and for
indicated in the fig. r>R
y Answer ( 2 )
P(t = 0)

T=4s Sol. + Q
+ +
x R
r
3m + +
C

+ +
y - projection of the radius vector of rotating +
particle P is :
(1) y(t) = –3 cos2t, where y in m Charge Q will be distributed over the surface
of hollow metal sphere.
 t 
(2) y(t)  4 sin   , where y in m (i) For r < R (inside)
2
 3t    qen
(3) y(t)  3cos 
 2 
 , where y in m By Gauss law,  Ein · dS  0
0

 t   Ein = 0 (∵ qen  0)
(4) y(t)  3cos   , where y in m
2

15
 (ii) For r > R (outside) (1) 4 : 9 (2) 9 : 4
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 1
+
+ +
Answer ( 2 )
r
+ +
S o l . (i) All bulbs are glowing
+ +
+ R R

E R R

1 R R
E0  2
r
Ein = 0
r E
O R
R R 2R
  q Req   
3 3 3
 0 · dS  en0
E

E2 3E2
i 
Power (P)  ...(1)
Here, qen = Q (∵ qen  Q) Req 2R

Q (ii) Two from section A and one from section

 E0 4 r 2  B are glowing.
0
R
R
1
 E0 
r2 R

68. In which of the following devices, the eddy

current effect is not used?
E
(1) Induction furnace
R 3R
(2) Magnetic braking in train Req  R 
2 2
(3) Electromagnet
2E2
(4) Electric heater Power (Pf )  ...(2)
3R
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Electric heater does not involve Eddy Pi 3E 2 3R
  9:4
currents. It uses Joule's heating effect. Pf 2R 2E 2
69. Six similar bulbs are connected as shown in 70. At a point A on the earth’s surface the angle of
the figure with a DC source of emf E and zero dip,  = +25°. At a point B on the earth’s surface
internal resistance. the angle of dip,  = –25°. We can interpret
The ratio of power consumption by the bulbs that:
when (i) all are glowing and (ii) in the situation (1) A and B are both located in the northern
when two from section A and one from section hemisphere.
B are glowing, will be :
(2) A is located in the southern hemisphere
and B is located in the northern
A B hemisphere.
(3) A is located in the northern hemisphere
and B is located in the southern
hemisphere.
(4) A and B are both located in the southern
hemisphere.
E Answer ( 3 )

16
S o l . Angle of dip is the angle between earth's
B B
resultant magnetic field from horizontal. Dip
is zero at equator and positive in northern (1) (2)
hemisphere. R d
R d
BH
BV B
 = (+) ve B B
(3) (4)
B  = (–) ve
R d R d
BH
BV Answer ( 3 )
In southern hemisphere dip angle is
considered as negative.
71. A force F = 20 + 10 y acts on a particle in y- Sol.
direction where F is in newton and y in meter.
Work done by this force to move the particle d
from y = 0 to y = 1 m is
(1) 30 J (2) 5 J
(3) 25 J (4) 20 J
Answer ( 3 ) B

S o l . Work done by variable force is

yf O R d
W  Fdy
yi
Inside (d < R)
Here, yi = 0, yf = 1 m Magnetic field inside conductor

1 1 0 i
 10y2  B d
 W   (20  10y)dy  20y   = 25 J 2  R2
0
 2 0
or B = Kd ...(i)
72. Pick the wrong answer in the context with Straight line passing through origin
rainbow.
At surface (d = R)
(1) When the light rays undergo two internal
0 i
reflections in a water drop, a secondary B ...(ii)
rainbow is formed 2 R
Maximum at surface
(2) The order of colours is reversed in the
secondary rainbow Outside (d > R)
(3) An observer can see a rainbow when his 0 i
front is towards the sun B
2 d
(4) Rainbow is a combined effect of dispersion
refraction and reflection of sunlight 1
or B  (Hyperbolic)
d
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Rainbow can't be observed when observer 74. Two particles A and B are moving in uniform
faces towards sun. circular motion in concentric circles of radii rA
and rB with speed vA and vB respectively. Their
73. A cylindrical conductor of radius R is carrying time period of rotation is the same. The ratio of
a constant current. The plot of the magnitude angular speed of A to that of B will be :
of the magnetic field. B with the distance d
(1) rA : rB (2) vA : vB
from the centre of the conductor, is correctly
represented by the figure : (3) rB : rA (4) 1 : 1

17
Answer ( 4 ) 1 1 1 2
Equivalent focal length in air   
F1 f f f
Sol. rB When glycerin is filled inside, glycerin lens
behaves like a diverging lens of focal length (–f)
1 1 1 1
rA   
F2 f f f
1

f
F1 1
TA = TB = T 
F2 2
2 76. In total internal reflection when the angle of
A  incidence is equal to the critical angle for the
TA
pair of media in contact, what will be angle of
refraction?
2
B  (1) 180°
TB
(2) 0°
 A TB T
  1 (3) Equal to angle of incidence
B TA T
(4) 90°
75. Two similar thin equi-convex lenses, of focal Answer ( 4 )
length f each, are kept coaxially in contact
Sol.
with each other such that the focal length of
the combination is F 1 . When the space
between the two lenses is filled with 90°
glycerine (which has the same refractive index
( = 1.5) as that of glass) then the equivalent iC
focal length is F2. The ratio F1 : F2 will be :
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
At i = i c , refracted ray grazes with the
(3) 2 : 3 (4) 3 : 4 surface.
Answer ( 2 ) So angle of refraction is 90°.
77. Two parallel infinite line charges with linear
Sol. charge densities +C/m and – C/m are placed
at a distance of 2R in free space. What is the
electric field mid-way between the two line
charges?
2
(1) Zero (2) N/C
 0R
 
(3) N/C (4) N/C
 0R 20R
Answer ( 3 )

(2) (1)
S o l . + + – –
–
+
+ E1 –
–
+ E2 –
+ R –
–
+ –
+ –
+ –

18
 (1) Zero, 60 A (2) 60 A, 60 A
–X X
(3) 60 A, zero (4) Zero, zero
Answer ( 2 )
Electric field due to line charge (1) S o l . Capacitance of capacitor C = 20 F
= 20 × 10–6 F
  ˆ
E1  i N/C  dV 
2  0R Rate of change of potential    3 v/s
 dt 
Electric field due to line charge (2) q = CV
  ˆ dq dV
E2  i N/C C
2  0R dt dt
   ic = 20 × 10–6 × 3
Enet  E1  E2
= 60 × 10–6 A
 ˆ  ˆ = 60 A
= i i
2  0R 2 0R As we know that id = ic = 60 A
 81. In the circuits shown below, the readings of the
= î N / C
 0R voltmeters and the ammeters will be
78. For a p-type semiconductor, which of the 10  i 1
following statements is true ?
(1) Electrons are the majority carriers and
trivalent atoms are the dopants. V1 A1
(2) Holes are the majority carriers and
trivalent atoms are the dopants.
(3) Holes are the majority carriers and
pentavalent atoms are the dopants.
10 V
(4) Electrons are the majority carriers and Circuit 1
pentavalent atoms are the dopants. 10  i2
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . In p-type semiconductor, an intrinsic
10 
V2 A2

79. Which of the following acts as a circuit

protection device? 10 V
Circuit 2
(1) Conductor
(1) V2 > V1 and i1 = i2
(2) Inductor
(2) V1 = V2 and i1 > i2
(3) Switch
(3) V1 = V2 and i1 = i2
(4) Fuse
(4) V2 > V1 and i1 > i2
Answer ( 4 )
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Fuse wire has less melting point so when S o l . For ideal voltmeter, resistance is infinite and
excess current flows, due to heat produced for the ideal ammeter, resistance is zero.
in it, it melts.
10
80. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 20 F V1  i1  10   10  10 volt
is being charged by a voltage source whose 10
potential is changing at the rate of 3 V/s. The 10
V2  i2  10   10  10 volt
conduction current through the connecting 10
wires, and the displacement current through V1 = V2
the plates of the capacitor, would be,
10 V
respectively. i1  i2  1 A
10 

19
82. -particle consists of : 85. A small hole of area of cross-section 2 mm2 is
(1) 2 protons and 2 neutrons only present near the bottom of a fully filled open
tank of height 2 m. Taking g = 10 m/s2, the rate
(2) 2 electrons, 2 protons and 2 neutrons of flow of water through the open hole would
(3) 2 electrons and 4 protons only be nearly
(4) 2 protons only (1) 12.6 × 10–6 m3/s (2) 8.9 × 10–6 m3/s
Answer ( 1 ) (3) 2.23 × 10–6 m3/s (4) 6.4 × 10–6 m3/s
S o l . -particle is nucleus of Helium which has two Answer ( 1 )
protons and two neutrons.
Sol.
83. An electron is accelerated through a potential
dif ference of 10,000 V. Its de Broglie
wavelength is, (nearly) : (me = 9 × 10–31 kg) 2m

(1) 12.2 × 10–13 m (2) 12.2 × 10–12 m

a = 2 mm2
(3) 12.2 × 10–14 m (4) 12.2 nm Rate of flow liquid
Answer ( 2 )
Q  au  a 2gh
S o l . For an electron accelerated through a
potential V  2  106 m2  2  10  2 m/s

12.27 12.27  1010 = 2 × 2 × 3.14 × 10–6 m3/s

 Å  12.27  1012 m
V 10000 = 12.56 × 10–6 m3/s
84. When an object is shot from the bottom of a = 12.6 × 10–6 m3/s
long smooth inclined plane kept at an angle 60° 86. Two point charges A and B, having charges +Q
with horizontal, it can travel a distance x 1 and –Q respectively, are placed at certain
along the plane. But when the inclination is distance apart and force acting between them is
decreased to 30° and the same object is shot F. If 25% charge of A is transferred to B, then
with the same velocity, it can travel x2 distance. force between the charges becomes :
Then x1 : x2 will be:
9F
(1) 1: 2 (2) 2:1 (1) F (2)
16
(3) 1: 3 (4) 1: 2 3 16F 4F
(3) (4)
Answer ( 3 ) 9 3
Answer ( 2 )
Sol. A B
S o l . +Q –Q
r
kQ 2
u F
60° r2
If 25% of charge of A transferred to B then
g sin60°
Q 3Q Q 3Q
qA  Q   and q B  Q  
4 4 4 4
u
30° qA qB
r
g sin30° kqA qB
F1 
r2
u2  3Q 
2
(Stopping distance) x1  k
2gsin60 
F1   42 
r
u2
(Stopping distance) x2  9 kQ
2gsin30 F1 
16 r 2
x1 sin30 1 2 9F
    1: 3 F1 
x2 sin60 2  3 16

20
87. Ionized hydrogen atoms and -particles with 89. The work done to raise a mass m from the
same momenta enters perpendicular to a surface of the earth to a height h, which is
constant magnetic field, B. The ratio of their equal to the radius of the earth, is:
radii of their paths rH : r will be :
(1) mgR (2) 2mgR
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 4 1 3
(3) mgR (4) mgR
2 2
Answer ( 1 )
Answer ( 3 )
p
S o l . rH 
eB
Sol.
p
r 
2eB M R
p h=R
rH
 eB
r p
Initial potential energy at earths surface is
2eB
rH 2 GMm
 Ui 
r 1 R
 Final potential energy at height h = R
88. A particle moving with velocity V is acted by
three forces shown by the vector triangle PQR. GMm
The velocity of the particle will : Uf 
2R
P
As work done = Change in PE
 W = Uf – Ui

GMm gR2m mgR

   (∵ GM = gR2)
2R 2R 2
R Q
90. In a double slit experiment, when light of
(1) Increase
wavelength 400 nm was used, the angular
(2) Decrease width of the first minima formed on a screen
(3) Remain constant placed 1 m away, was found to be 0.2°. What
(4) Change according to the smallest force will be the angular width of the first minima, if
 the entire experimental apparatus is immersed
QR in water? (water = 4/3)
Answer ( 3 ) (1) 0.266°
(2) 0.15°
Sol. P
(3) 0.05°
(4) 0.1°
Answer (2)

S o l . In air angular fringe width 0 
R Q D
Angular fringe width in water
As forces are forming closed loop in same
order  
 w   0
So, Fnet  0 D 

dv 0.2
 m 0  = 0.15°
dt 4
 3
 v  cons tant  

21
91. Which of the following statements is Answer ( 4 )
incorrect? S o l . To produce enzyme in large quantity
(1) Viroids lack a protein coat. equipment required are bioreactors. Large
(2) Viruses are obligate parasites. scale production involves use of
(3) Infective constituent in viruses is the bioreactors.
protein coat. 96. Which of the following is true for Golden
(4) Prions consist of abnormally folded rice?
proteins. (1) It is Vitamin A enriched, with a gene from
daffodil
Answer ( 3 )
(2) It is pest resistant, with a gene from
S o l . Infective constituent in viruses is either DNA
Bacillus thuringiensis
or RNA, not protein.
(3) It is drought tolerant, developed using
92. Purines found both in DNA and RNA are Agrobacterium vector
(1) Adenine and thymine (4) It has yellow grains, because of a gene
(2) Adenine and guanine introduced from a primitive variety of rice
(3) Guanine and cytosine Answer ( 1 )
(4) Cytosine and thymine S o l . Golden rice is vitamin A enriched rice, with a
Answer ( 2 ) gene from daffodil and is rich in carotene.
S o l . Purines found both in DNA and RNA are 97. Which one of the following is not a method of
Adenine and guanine in situ conservation of biodiversity?
93. Which of the following glucose transporters is (1) Biosphere Reserve
insulin-dependent? (2) Wildlife Sanctuary
(1) GLUT I (2) GLUT II (3) Botanical Garden
(3) GLUT III (4) GLUT IV (4) Sacred Grove
Answer ( 4 ) Answer ( 3 )
S o l . GLUT-IV is insulin dependent and is S o l . Botanical garden - ex - situ conservation (off-
responsible for majority of glucose transport site conservation) i.e. living plants (flora) are
into muscle and adipose cells in anabolic conserved in human managed system.
conditions. Whereas GLUT-I is insulin 98. Under which of the following conditions will
independent and is widely distributed in there be no change in the reading frame of
different tissues. following mRNA?
94. Identify the cells whose secretion protects the 5AACAGCGGUGCUAUU3
lining of gastro-intestinal tract from various (1) Insertion of G at 5th position
enzymes. (2) Deletion of G from 5th position
(1) Chief Cells (2) Goblet Cells (3) Insertion of A and G at 4th and 5th positions
(3) Oxyntic Cells (4) Duodenal Cells respectively
Answer ( 2 ) (4) Deletion of GGU from 7 th , 8 th and 9 th
S o l . Goblet cells secrete mucus and bicarbonates positions
present in the gastric juice which plays an Answer ( 4 )
important role in lubrication and protection of Sol.
the mucosal epithelium from excoriation by 5 3
the highly concentrated HCl. m-RNA - A A C A G C G G U G C U A U U
95. Which one of the following equipments is
essentially required for growing microbes on Deletion
a large scale, for industrial production of
enzymes? 5 3

(1) BOD incubator (2) Sludge digester A A C A G C G C U A U U

(3) Industrial oven (4) Bioreactor No change in reading frame of m-RNA.

22
99. Which of these following methods is the most S o l . 1 map unit represent 1 % cross over.
suitable for disposal of nuclear waste?
Map unit is used to measure genetic distance.
(1) Shoot the waste into space
This genetic distance is based on average
(2) Bury the waste under Antarctic ice-cover
number of cross over frequency.
(3) Dump the waste within rocks under deep
ocean 102. Select the hormone-releasing Intra-Uterine
Devices.
(4) Bury the waste within rocks deep below
the Earth's surface (1) Vaults, LNG-20
Answer ( 4 ) (2) Multiload 375, Progestasert
S o l . Storage of nuclear waste should be done in (3) Progestasert, LNG-20
suitably shielded containers and buried within
(4) Lippes Loop, Multiload 375
rocks deep below the earth's surface (500 m
deep) Answer ( 3 )
100. Match the following organisms with the S o l . Progestasert and LNG-20 are hormone
products they produce releasing IUDs which make the uterus
unsuitable for implantation and the cervix
(a) Lactobacillus (i) Cheese
hostile to sperms.
(b) Saccharomyces (ii) Curd
103. Which of the following can be used as a
cerevisiae
biocontrol agent in the treatment of plant
(c) Aspergillus niger (iii) Citric Acid disease?
(d) Acetobacter aceti (iv) Bread
(1) Trichoderma (2) Chlorella
(v) Acetic Acid
(3) Anabaena (4) Lactobacillus
Select the correct option.
(a) (b) (c) (d) Answer ( 1 )
(1) (ii) (iv) (v) (iii) S o l . Fungus Trichoderma is a biological control
(2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (v) agent being developed for use in the
treatment of plant diseases.
(3) (iii) (iv) (v) (i)
(4) (ii) (i) (iii) (v) 104. Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) refers to :
Answer ( 2 ) (1) Genes expressed as RNA
S o l . Microbes are used in production of several (2) Polypeptide expression
household and industrial products – (3) DNA polymorphism
Lactobacillus – Production of curd (4) Novel DNA sequences
Saccharomyces cerevisiae – Bread making
Answer ( 1 )
Aspergillus niger – Citric acid production
S o l . Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) are DNA
Acetobacter aceti – Acetic acid sequences (genes) that are expressed as
101. What map unit (Centimorgan) is adopted in the mRNA for protein synthesis. These are used in
construction of genetic maps? human Genome Project.
(1) A unit of distance between two expressed 105. Colostrum the yellowish fluid, secreted by
genes representing 10% cross over. mother during the initial days of lactation is
(2) A unit of distance between two expressed very essential to impart immunity to the new
genes representing 100% cross over. born infants because it contains
(3) A unit of distance between genes on
(1) Natural killer cells
chromosomes, representing 1% cross
over. (2) Monocytes
(4) A unit of distance between genes on (3) Macrophages
chromosomes, representing 50% cross
over. (4) Immunoglobulin A
Answer ( 3 ) Answer ( 4 )

23
S o l . Colostrum, the yellowish fluid secreted by the 108. A gene locus has two alleles A, a. If the
mother during initial days of lactation is very frequency of dominant allele A is 0.4, then
essential to impart immunity to the new born what will be the frequency of homozygous
dominant, heterozygous and homozygous
infant because it contains Immunoglobulin A.
recessive individuals in the population?
It will impart naturally acquired passive
immunity to the newborn (1) 0.36(AA); 0.48(Aa); 0.16(aa)
(2) 0.16(AA); 0.24(Aa); 0.36(aa)
106. Select the incorrect statement.
(3) 0.16(AA); 0.48(Aa); 0.36(aa)
(1) Inbreeding increases homozygosity
(4) 0.16(AA); 0.36(Aa); 0.48(aa)
(2) Inbreeding is essential to evolve purelines
Answer ( 3 )
in any animal.
S o l . Frequency of dominant allele (say p) = 0.4
(3) Inbreeding selects harmful recessive
Frequency of recessive allele (say q)
genes that reduce fertility and productivity
= 1 – 0.4 = 0.6
(4) Inbreeding helps in accumulation of
 Frequency of homozygous dominant
superior genes and elimination of individuals (AA)
undesirable genes
= p2 = (0.4)2 = 0.16
Answer ( 3 ) Frequency of heterozygous individuals (Aa)
S o l . Inbreeding exposes harmful recessive genes = 2pq = 2(0.4)(0.6) = 0.48
that are eliminated by selection. It also helps Frequency of homozygous recessive
in accumulation of superior genes and individuals (aa)
elimination of less desirable genes. Therefore
= q2 = (0.6)2 = 0.36
this is selection at each step, increase the
109. Match the following organisms with their
productivity of inbred population. Close and
respective characteristics :
continued inbreeding usually reduces fertility
and even productivity. (a) Pila (i) Flame cells
(b) Bombyx (ii) Comb plates
107. Select the correct sequence for transport of
sperm cells in male reproductive system. (c) Pleurobrachia (iii) Radula
(d) Taenia (iv) Malpighian tubules
(1) Testis  Epididymis  Vasa efferentia 
Rete testis  Inguinal canal  Urethra Select the correct option from the following :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(2) Seminiferous tubules  Rete testis 
Vasa efferentia  Epididymis  Vas (1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
deferens  Ejaculatory duct  Urethra  (2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
Urethral meatus (3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(3) Seminiferous tubules  Vasa efferentia  (4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
Epididymis  Inguinal canal  Urethra Answer ( 2 )
(4) Testis  Epididymis  Vasa efferentia  S o l . (a) Pila is a Mollusc. The mouth contains a file
Vas deferens  Ejaculatory duct  - like rasping organ for feeding called
Inguinal canal  Urethra  Urethral radula.
meatus (b) Bombyx is an Arthropod. In Bombyx
excretion takes place through malpighan
Answer ( 2 )
tubules.
S o l . The correct sequence for transport of sperm (c) Pleurobrachia is Ctenophore. The body
cells in male reproductive system is bears eight external rows of ciliated comb
Seminiferous tubules  Rete testis  Vasa plates, which help in locomotion.
efferentia  Epididymis  Vas deferens  (d) Taenia is a platyhelminth specialised cells
Ejaculatory duct  Urethra  Urethral called flame cells helps in osmoregulation
meatus and excretion

24
110. The shorter and longer arms of a
submetacentric chromosome are referred to
as
(1) s-arm and l-arm respectively
(2) p-arm and q-arm respectively
(3) q-arm and p-arm respectively
(4) m-arm and n-arm respectively
Answer ( 2 )
S o l .  Sub metacentric chromosome
Heterobrachial.
 Short arm designated as 'p' arm
(p = petite i.e. short)
 Long arm designated as 'q' arm
111. What is the site of perception of photoperiod
necessary for induction of flowering in
plants?
(1) Lateral buds (2) Pulvinus
(3) Shoot apex (4) Leaves
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . During flowering, photoperiodic stimulus is
perceived by leaves of plants.
112. Which part of the brain is responsible for
thermoregulation?
(1) Cerebrum
(2) Hypothalamus
(3) Corpus callosum
(4) Medulla oblongata
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Hypothalamus in the thermoregulatory centre
of our brain. It is responsible for maintaining
constant body temperature.
113. Which of the following pair of organelles does
not contain DNA?
(1) Mitochondria and Lysosomes
(2) Chloroplast and Vacuoles
(3) Lysosomes and Vacuoles
(4) Nuclear envelope and Mitochondria
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Lysosomes and Vacuoles do not have DNA.
114. What is the genetic disorder in which an
individual has an overall masculine
development gynaecomastia, and is sterile ?
(1) Turner's syndrome
(2) Klinefelter's syndrome
(3) Edward syndrome
(4) Down's syndrome
Answer ( 2 )
is
S o l . Individuals with Klinefelter’s syndrome have
trisomy of sex chromosome as 44 + XXY (47).
They show overall masculine development,
gynaecomastia and are sterile.
115. Xylem translocates.
(1) Water only
(2) Water and mineral salts only
(3) Water, mineral salts and some organic
nitrogen only
(4) Water, mineral salts, some organic
nitrogen and hormones
Answer (4)
S o l . Xylem is associated with tanslocation of
mainly water, mineral salts, some organic
nitrogen and hormones.
116. Which of the following pairs of gases is mainly
responsible for green house effect?
(1) Ozone and Ammonia
(2) Oxygen and Nitrogen
(3) Nitrogen and Sulphur dioxide
(4) Carbon dioxide and Methane
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Relative contribution of various greenhouse
gases to total global warming is
 CO2 = 60%
 CH4 = 20%
 CFC = 14%
 N2O = 6%
 Therefore CO 2 and CH 4 are the major
greenhouse gases
25
117. Which of the following protocols did aim for 121. Which of the following factors is responsible
reducing emission of chlorofluorocarbons into for the formation of concentrated urine?
the atmosphere?
(1) Low levels of antidiuretic hormone
(1) Montreal Protocol (2) Maintaining hyperosmolarity towards
(2) Kyoto Protocol inner medullary interstitium in the kidneys.
(3) Gothenburg Protocol (3) Secretion of erythropoietin by
(4) Geneva Protocol Juxtaglomerular complex

Answer ( 1 ) (4) Hydrostatic pressure during glomerular

filtration
S o l . To control the deleterious effect of the
stratospheric ozone depletion an Answer (2)
international treaty was signed at Montreal, S o l . The proximity between loop of henle and vasa
Canada in 1987. It is popularly known as recta as well as counter current in them help
Montreal protocol. in maintaining an increasing osmolalrity
118. In some plants, the female gamete develops towards the inner medullary interstitium. This
into embryo without fertilization. This mechanism help to maintain a concentration
phenomenon is known as gradient in medullary interstitium so human
urine is nearly four times concentrated than
(1) Autogamy (2) Parthenocarpy initial filtrate formed.
(3) Syngamy (4) Parthenogenesis 122. Which of the following features of genetic
Answer ( 4 ) code does allow bacteria to produce human
insulin by recombinant DNA technology?
S o l . The phenomenon in which female gamete
(1) Genetic code is not ambiguous
develops into embryo without getting fused
with male gamete (fertilisation) is called (2) Genetic code is redundant
parthenogenesis. (3) Genetic code is nearly universal

119. Which of the following sexually transmitted (4) Genetic code is specific
diseases is not completely curable? Answer ( 3 )

(1) Gonorrhoea (2) Genital warts S o l . In recombinant DNA technology bacteria is

able to produce human insulin because
(3) Genital herpes (4) Chlamydiasis genetic code is nearly universal.
Answer ( 3 ) 123. Which of the following statements is not
S o l . Genital herpes is caused by type-II-herpes correct?
simplex virus. At present there is no cure for (1) Lysosomes have numerous hydrolytic
type-II-herpes simplex virus and therefore the enzymes
disease caused, genital herpes. Other non- (2) The hydrolytic enzymes of lysosomes are
curable STIs are hepatitis-B and HIV. active under acidic pH
120. Which of the following immune responses is (3) Lysosomes are membrane bound
responsible for rejection of kidney graft? structures
(1) Auto-immune response (4) Lysosomes are formed by the process of
(2) Humoral immune response packaging in the endoplasmic reticulum

(3) Inflammatory immune response Answer ( 4 )

(4) Cell-mediated immune response
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . The body is able to differentiate self and
nonself and the cell-mediated response is
responsible for graft rejection.
S o l . Lysosomes bud off from trans face of Golgi
bodies.
Precursor of lysosomal enzymes are
synthesised by RER and then send to Golgi
bodies for further processing.

26
124. The concept of “Omnis cellula-e cellula” 127. Which of the following muscular disorders is
regarding cell division was first proposed by inherited?
(1) Rudolf Virchow (1) Tetany
(2) Theodor Schwann (2) Muscular dystrophy
(3) Schleiden (3) Myasthenia gravis
(4) Aristotle (4) Botulism
Answer ( 1 ) Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Concept of “Omnis cellula-e cellula” regarding S o l . Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle
cell division was proposed by Rudolph mostly due to genetic disorder is muscular
Virchow. dystrophy where as tetany is muscular spasm
125. Use of an artificial kidney during hemodialysis due to low calcium in body fluid. Myasthenia
may result in : gravis is an anto immume disorder leading to
paralysis of skeletal muscles. Botulism is rare
(a) Nitrogenous waste build-up in the body
and dangerous type of food poisoning caused
(b) Non-elimination of excess potassium ions by bacterium Clostridium Botulinum.
(c) Reduced absorption of calcium ions from 128. Consider following features
gastro-intestinal tract
(a) Organ system level of organisation
(d) Reduced RBC production
(b) Bilateral symmetry
Which of the following options is the most
appropriate? (c) True coelomates with segmentation of
body
(1) (a) and (b) are correct
(2) (b) and (c) are correct Select the correct option of animal groups
which possess all the above characteristics
(3) (c) and (d) are correct
(1) Annelida, Arthropoda and Chordata
(4) (a) and (d) are correct
(2) Annelida, Arthropoda and Mollusca
Answer ( 3 )
(3) Arthropoda, Mollusca and Chordata
S o l . a and b statements are incorrect because
dialysis eliminates urea and potassium from (4) Annelida, Mollusca and Chordata
the body whereas, c and d are correct. As
phosphate ions are eliminated during dialysis, Answer ( 1 )
along with that calcium ions are also S o l . True segmentation is present in Annelida,
eliminated. So, there will be reduced Arthropoda and Chordata. They also have
absorption of calcium ions from organ system level of organisation, bilateral
gastrointestinal tract. RBC production will be symmetry and are true coelomates
reduced, due to reduced erythropoietin
hormone. 129. The frequency of recombination between
gene pairs on the same chromosome as a
126. What is the direction of movement of sugars
in phloem? measure of the distance between genes was
explained by :
(1) Non-multidirectional
(1) T.H. Morgan (2) Gregor J. Mendel
(2) Upward
(3) Alfred Sturtevant (4) Sutton Boveri
(3) Downward
(4) Bi-directional Answer ( 3 )

Answer ( 4 ) S o l . Alfred Sturtevant explained chromosomal

mapping on the basis of recombination
S o l . The direction of movement of sugar in phloem frequency which is directly proportional to
is bi-directional as it depends on source-sink distance between two genes on same
relationship which is variable in plants. chromosome

27
130. Following statements describe the 133. Which of the following is the most important
characteristics of the enzyme Restriction cause for animals and plants being driven to
Endonuclease. Identify the incorrect extinction?
statement. (1) Habitat loss and fragmentation
(1) The enzyme cuts DNA molecule at (2) Drought and floods
identified position within the DNA.
(3) Economic exploitation
(2) The enzyme binds DNA at specific sites
and cuts only one of the two strands. (4) Alien species invasion

(3) The enzyme cuts the sugar-phosphate Answer ( 1 )

backbone at specific sites on each strand.
(4) The enzyme recognizes a specific
palindromic nucleotide sequence in the
DNA.
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Habitat loss and fragmentation is the most
important cause driving animals and plants to
extinction.
eg: Loss of tropical rainforest reducing the
forest cover from 14 % to 6 %.

S o l . Restriction enzymes cut DNA molecules at a 134. Variations caused by mutation, as proposed by
particular point by recognising a specific Hugo de Vries are
sequence. Each restriction endonuclease (1) random and directional
functions by inspecting the length of a DNA
(2) random and directionless
sequence. Once it finds its specific
recognition sequence, it will bind to the DNA (3) small and directional
and cut each of the two strands of the double (4) small and directionless
helix at specific points in their sugar-
Answer ( 2 )
phosphate backbone.
S o l . According to Hugo de Vries, mutations are
131. Which of the following statements is
random and directionless.
incorrect?
(1) Morels and truffles are edible delicacies. Devries believed mutation caused speciation
and hence called saltation (single step large
(2) Claviceps is a source of many alkaloids
mutation).
and LSD.
(3) Conidia are produced exogenously and 135. Respiratory Quotient (RQ) value of tripalmitin
ascospores endogenously. is
(4) Yeasts have filamentous bodies with long (1) 0.9
thread-like hyphae.
(2) 0.7
Answer ( 4 )
(3) 0.07
S o l . Yeast is an unicellular sac fungus. It lacks
filamentous structure or hyphae. (4) 0.09
132. Placentation in which ovules develop on the Answer ( 2 )
inner wall of the ovary or in peripheral part, is
(1) Basal Amount of CO2 released
Sol. Respiratory Quotient 
(2) Axile RQ  Amount of O2 consumed

(3) Parietal
2(C51H98O6) + 145O2  102CO2 + 98H2O
(4) Free central
Answer ( 3 ) Tripalmitin + Energy

S o l . In parietal placentation the ovules develop on

102 CO2
the inner wall of ovary or in peripheral part. RQ   0.7
145 O2
eg. Mustard, Argemone etc.

28
136. In Antirrhinum (Snapdragon), a red flower 139. Thiobacillus is a group of bacteria helpful in
was crossed with a white flower and in F 1 carrying out
generation pink flowers were obtained. When
pink flowers were selfed, the F2 generation (1) Nitrogen fixation
showed white, red and pink flowers. Choose
(2) Chemoautotrophic fixation
the incorrect statement from the following :
(1) This experiment does not follow the (3) Nitrification
Principle of Dominance.
(4) Denitrification
(2) Pink colour in F 1 is due to incomplete
dominance. Answer ( 4 )
1 2 1
(3) Ratio of F 2 is (Red) : (Pink) : S o l . Thiobacillus denitrificans cause denitrification
4 4 4
(White) i.e., conversion of oxides of nitrogen to free
(4) Law of Segregation does not apply in this N2.
experiment
140. Polyblend, a fine powder of recycled modified
Answer ( 4 )
plastic, has proved to be a good material for
S o l . Genes for flower colour in snapdragon shows
incomplete dominance which is an exception (1) Making plastic sacks
of Mendel's first principle i.e. Law of
dominance. (2) Use as a fertilizer
Whereas Law of segregation is universally
(3) Construction of roads
applicable.
137. Select the incorrect statement. (4) Making tubes and pipes
(1) Male fruit fly is heterogametic
Answer ( 3 )
(2) In male grasshoppers 50% of sperms have
no sex-chromosome S o l . Polyblend is a fine powder of recycled
(3) In domesticated fowls, sex of progeny modified plastic waste. The mixture is mixed
depends on the type of sperm rather than with bitumen that is used to lay roads
egg
141. From evolutionary point of view, retention of
(4) Human males have one of their sex-
the female gametophyte with developing
chromosome much shorter than the other
young embryo on the parent sporophyte for
Answer ( 3 )
some time, is first observed in
S o l . In birds female heterogamety is found thus sex
of progeny depends on the types of egg rather (1) Liverworts
than the type of sperm.
(2) Mosses
eg.
 sperm = A + Z type (100%)
(3) Pteridophytes
Birds
(fowls) A + Z (50%) (4) Gymnosperms
 eggs
A + W (50%)
Answer ( 3 )
138. The correct sequence of phases of cell cycle
is S o l . In Pteridophyte, megaspore is retained for
(1) M  G1  G2  S (2) G1  G2  S  M some times in female gametophyte, however
(3) S  G1  G2  M (4) G1  S  G2  M the permanent retention is required for seed
Answer ( 4 ) formation in Gymnosperms.
S o l . The correct sequence of phases of cell cycle is
That's why Pteridophytes exhibit precursor to
G1  S  G2  M seed habit only.

29
142. Select the correct option.
(1) 8 th , 9 th and 10 th pairs of ribs articulate
directly with the sternum.
(2) 11th and 12th pairs of ribs are connected to
the sternum with the help of hyaline
cartilage.
(3) Each rib is a flat thin bone and all the ribs
are connected dorsally to the thoracic
vertebrae and ventrally to the sternum.
(4) There are seven pairs of vertebrosternal,
three pairs of vertebrochondral and two
pairs of vertebral ribs.
Answer ( 4 )
Sol. • Vertebrosternal ribs are true ribs, dorsally
they are attached to the thoracic
vertebrae and ventrally connected to the
sternum with the help of hyaline cartilage.
First seven pairs of ribs are called true
ribs.
• 8 th , 9 th and 10 th pairs of ribs do not
articulate directly with the sternum but
join the seventh ribs with the help of
hyaline cartilage. These are
vertebrochondral or false ribs.
• Last 2 pairs (11 & 12) of ribs are not
connected ventrally and are therefore,
called floating ribs.
• Only first seven pairs of ribs are ventrally
connected to the sternum.
143. Concanavalin A is
(1) an alkaloid (2) an essential oil
(3) a lectin (4) a pigment
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Concanavalin A is a secondary metabolite e.g
is lectin, it has the property to agglutinates
RBCs.
144. Extrusion of second polar body from egg
nucleus occurs :
(1) after entry of sperm but before fertilization
(2) after fertilization
(3) before entry of sperm into ovum
(4) simultaneously with first cleavage
Answer ( 1 )
30
S o l . Extrusion of second polar body from egg
nucleus occurs after entry of sperm but
before fertilization.
The entry of sperm into the ovum induces
completion of the meiotic division of the
secondary oocyte.
Entry of sperm causes breakdown of
metaphase promoting factor (MPF) and turns
on anaphase promoting complex (APC).
145. Pinus seed cannot germinate and established
without fungal association. This is because :
(1) its embryo is immature.
(2) it has obligate association with
mycorrhizae.
(3) it has very hard seed coat.
(4) its seeds contain inhibitors that present
germination.
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Fungus associated with roots of Pinus
increases minerals & water absorption for
the plant by increasing surface area and in
turn fungus gets food from plant. Therefore,
mycorrhizal association is obligatory for Pinus
seed germination
146. The Earth Summit held in Rio de Janeiro in
1992 was called
(1) to reduce CO 2 emissions and global
warming
(2) for conservation of biodiversity and
sustainable utilization of its benefits
(3) to assess threat posed to native species
by invasive weed species
(4) for immediate steps to discontinue use of
CFCs that were damaging the ozone layer
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Earth Summit (Rio Summit)-1992, called upon
all nations to take appropriate measures for
conservation of biodiversity and sustainable
utilisation of its benefits
147. DNA precipitation out of a mixture of 150. Match the following hormones with the
biomolecules can be achieved by treatment respective disease
with (a) Insulin (i) Addison's disease
(1) Isopropanol (b) Thyroxin (ii) Diabetes insipidus

(2) Chilled ethanol (c) Corticoids (iii) Acromegaly

(d) Growth Hormone (iv) Goitre
(3) Methanol at room temperature
(v) Diabetes mellitus
(4) Chilled chloroform
Select the correct option.
Answer ( 2 ) (a) (b) (c) (d)
S o l . During the isolation of desired gene, chilled (1) (v) (i) (ii) (iii)
ethanol is used for the precipitation of DNA. (2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
148. Grass leaves curl inwards during very dry (3) (v) (iv) (i) (iii)
weather. Select the most appropriate reason (4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
from the following
Answer ( 3 )
(1) Closure of stomata Sol.  Insulin deficiency leads to diabetes
(2) Flaccidity of bulliform cells mellitus

(3) Shrinkage of air spaces in spongy  Hypersecretion or hyposecretion of

thyroxine can be associated with
mesophyll
enlargement of thyroid gland called goitre
(4) Tyloses in vessels  Deficiency of corticoids (Glucocorticoid +
Answer ( 2 ) mineralocorticoid) leads to Addison's
disease
S o l . Bulliform cells become flaccid due to water
loss. This will make the leaves to curl inward  Growth hormone hypersecretion in adults
to minimise water loss leads to Acromegaly
151. Which of the following contraceptive methods
149. Match the following structures with their
do involve a role of hormone?
respective location in organs
(1) Lactational amenorrhea, Pills Emergency
(a) Crypts of Lieberkuhn (i) Pancreas contraceptives.
(b) Glisson's Capsule (ii) Duodenum (2) Barrier method, Lactational amenorrhea,
Pills.
(c) Islets of Langerhans (iii) Small
(3) CuT, Pills, Emergency contraceptives.
intestine
(4) Pills, Emergency contraceptives, Barrier
(d) Brunner's Glands (iv) Liver methods.
Select the correct option from the following Answer ( 1 )
(a) (b) (c) (d) S o l .  In lactational amenorrhoea, due to high
prolactin level, gonadotropin level
(1) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
decreases.
(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)  Oral pills are either progestogens or
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) progestogen-estrogen combinations used
by the females.
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
 Emergency contraceptives includes the
Answer ( 3 ) administration of progestogens or
S o l . Crypts of Lieberkuhn are present in small progestogen-estrogen combination or
intestine. Glisson's capsule is present in liver. IUDs within 72 hour of coitus.
Islets of langerhans constitutes the endocrine So, lactational amenorrhoea, oral pills and
portion of pancreas. Brunner's glands are emergency contraceptives involve a role of
found in submucosa of duodenum. hormone.

31
152. Drug called ‘Heroin’ is synthesized by
(1) methylation of morphine
(2) acetylation of morphine
(3) glycosylation of morphine
(4) nitration of morphine
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Heroin, commonly called smack and is
chemically diacetylmorphine which
synthesized by acetylation of morphine.
153. In a species, the weight of newborn ranges
from 2 to 5 kg. 97% of the newborn with an
average weight between 3 to 3.3 kg survive
whereas 99% of the infants born with weight
from 2 to 2.5 kg or 4.5 to 5 kg die. Which type
of selection process is taking place?
(1) Directional Selection
(2) Stabilizing Selection
(3) Disruptive Selection
(4) Cyclical Selection
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . The given data shows stabilising selection as
most of the newborn having average weight
between 3 to 3.3 kg survive and babies with
less and more weight have low survival rate.
154. Conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate,
the first irreversible reaction of glycolysis, is
catalyzed by
(1) Aldolase
(2) Hexokinase
(3) Enolase
(4) Phosphofructokinase
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Hexokinase catalyse the conversion of
Glucose to Glucose-6 phosphate. It is the first
step of activation phase of glycolysis.
155. Which of the following statements is
correct?
(1) Cornea is an external, transparent and
protective proteinacious covering of the
eye-ball.
(2) Cornea consists of dense connective
tissue of elastin and can repair itself.
(3) Cornea is convex, transparent layer which
is highly vascularised.
(4) Cornea consists of dense matrix of
collagen and is the most sensitive portion
is the eye.
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Cornea consists of dense matrix of collagen
and corneal epithelium. It is the most
sensitive part of eye.
156. Which of the following ecological pyramids is
generally inverted?
(1) Pyramid of numbers in grassland
(2) Pyramid of energy
(3) Pyramid of biomass in a forest
(4) Pyramid of biomass in a sea
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . In an aquatic ecosystem, the pyramid of
biomass is generally inverted.
TC = Large fishes
SC = Small fishes
PC = Zooplanktons
PP = Phytoplanktons
157. Consider the following statement :
(A) Coenzyme or metal ion that is tightly
bound to enzyme protein is called
prosthetic group.
(B) A complete catalytic active enzyme with
its bound prosthetic group is called
apoenzyme.
Select the correct option.
(1) Both (A) and (B) are true.
(2) (A) is true but (B) is false.
(3) Both (A) and (B) are false.
(4) (A) is false but (B) is true.
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Coenzyme or metal ion that is tightly bound to
enzyme protein is called prosthetic group. A
complete catalytic active enzyme with its
bound prosthetic group is called holoenzyme.
32
158. Due to increasing air-borne allergens and
pollutants, many people in urban areas are
suffering from respiratory disorder causing
wheezing due to
(1) benign growth on mucous lining of nasal
cavity
(2) inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles
(3) proliferation of fibrous tissues and
damage of the alveolar walls
(4) reduction in the secretion of surfactants
by pneumocytes.
161. It takes very long time for pineapple plants to
produce flowers. Which combination of
hormones can be applied to artificially induce
flowering in pineapple plants throughout the
year to increase yield?
(1) Auxin and Ethylene
(2) Gibberellin and Cytokinin
(3) Gibberellin and Abscisic acid
(4) Cytokinin and Abscisic acid

Answer ( 2 ) Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Asthma is a difficulty in breathing causing
S o l . Plant hormone auxin induces flowering in
wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi and
pineapple. Ethylene also helps in
bronchioles. It can be due to increasing air
synchronization of flowering and fruit set up
born allergens and pollutants. Asthma is an
allergic condition. Many people in urban areas in pineapple.
are suffering from this respiratory disorder.
162. Persistent nucellus in the seed is known as
159. Which one of the following statements
regarding post-fertilization development in (1) Chalaza
flowering plants is incorrect?
(2) Perisperm
(1) Ovary develops into fruit
(3) Hilum
(2) Zygote develops into embryo
(3) Central cell develops into endosperm (4) Tegmen
(4) Ovules develop into embryo sac
Answer ( 2 )
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Persistent Nucellus is called Perisperm
S o l . Following are the post-fertilisation changes.
• Ovule  Seed e.g.: Black pepper, Beet

• Ovary  Fruit
163. Cell in G0 phase :
• Zygote  Embryo
(1) exit the cell cycle
• Central cell  Endosperm
160. Phloem in gymnosperms lacks : (2) enter the cell cycle

(1) Albuminous cells and sieve cells (3) suspend the cell cycle
(2) Sieve tubes only
(4) terminate the cell cycle
(3) Companion cells only
(4) Both sieve tubes and companion cells Answer (1)

Answer ( 4 ) S o l . Cells in G0 phase are said to exit cell cycle.

S o l . Phloem in Gymnosperms lacks both sieve These are at quiescent stage and do not
tube and companion cells. proliferate unless called upon to do so.

33
164. Match Column - I with Column - II  Blood volume in ventricles at the end of
Column - I Column - II systole = 50 ml

(a) Saprophyte (i) Symbiotic association Stroke volume = 100 – 50

of fungi with plant
roots = 50 ml.

(b) Parasite (ii) Decomposition of So,

dead organic
5000 ml = 50 ml × Heart rate
materials
(c) Lichens (iii) Living on living So, Heart rate = 100 beats per minute.
plants or animals 166. What triggers activation of protoxin to active
(d) Mycorrhiza (iv) Symbiotic Bt toxin of Bacillus thuringiensis in boll
association of algae worm?
and fungi
(1) Body temperature
Choose the correct answer from the option
given below (2) Moist surface of midgut
(a) (b) (c) (d) (3) Alkaline pH of gut
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (4) Acidic pH of stomach
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
Answer ( 3 )
(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
S o l . Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
during a particular phase of their growth.
Answer ( 4 ) These crystals contain a toxic insecticidal
S o l . Saprophytes - Decomposition of dead protein. These protein exist as inactive
organic materials protoxins but once an insect ingest the
Parasites - Grow on/in living plants and inactive toxin, it is converted into an active
animals form of toxin due to alkaline pH of the gut
Lichens - Symbiotic association of which solubilize the crystals. The activated
algae and fungi toxin binds to the surface of midgut epithelial
Mycorrhiza - Symbiotic association of fungi cells and create pores that cause cell
with plant roots swelling and lysis and eventually cause death
of insect.
165. What would be the heart rate of a person if
the cardiac output is 5 L, blood volume in the 167. The ciliated epithelial cells are required to
ventricles at the end of diastole is 100 mL and move particles or mucus in a specific
at the end of ventricular systole is 50 mL? direction. In humans, these cells are mainly
(1) 50 beats per minute present in

(2) 75 beats per minute (1) Bile duct and Bronchioles

(3) 100 beats per minute (2) Fallopian tubes and Pancreatic duct
(4) 125 beats per minute (3) Eustachian tube and Salivary duct
Answer (3) (4) Bronchioles and Fallopian tubes
S o l . Cardiac output = stroke volume × Heart rate
Answer ( 4 )
 Cardiac output = 5L or 5000 ml
S o l . Bronchioles and Fallopian tubes are lined with
 Blood volume in ventricles at the end of ciliated epithelium to move particles or mucus
diastole = 100 ml in a specific direction.

34
168. Which of the statements given below is not 170. Match the following genes of the Lac operon
true about formation of Annual Rings in trees? with their respective products :

(1) Annual ring is a combination of spring (a) i gene (i) -galactosidase

wood and autumn wood produced in a
(b) z gene (ii) Permease
year

(2) Differential activity of cambium causes (c) a gene (iii) Repressor

light and dark bands of tissue early and (d) y gene (iv) Transacetylase
late wood respectively.
Select the correct option.
(3) Activity of cambium depends upon
variation in climate. (a) (b) (c) (d)

(4) Annual rings are not prominent in trees of (1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
temperate region.
(2) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
Answer (4)
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
S o l . Growth rings are formed by the seasonal
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
activity of cambium. In plants of temperate
regions, cambium is more active in spring and Answer ( 3 )
less active in autumn seasons. In temperate
regions climatic conditions are not uniform S o l . In lac operon
throughout the year. However in tropics
i gene Repressor
climatic conditions are uniform throughout
the year. z gene -galactosidase

169. What is the fate of the male gametes y gene Permease

discharged in the synergid?
a gene  Transacetylase
(1) One fuses with egg other(s) degenerate
(s) in the synergid. 171. Select the correct sequence of organs in the
alimentary canal of cockroach starting from
(2) All fuse with the egg. mouth

(3) One fuses with the egg, other(s) fuse(s)
with synergid nucleus.
(4) One fuses with the egg and other fuses
with central cell nuclei.
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . In flowering plants, out of the two male
gametes discharged in synergids, one fuses
with the egg and other fuses with the
secondary or definitive nucleus present in
central cell.
(1) Pharynx  Oesophagus  Crop  Gizzard
 Ileum  Colon  Rectum
(2) Pharynx  Oesophagus  Gizzard  Crop
 Ileum  Colon  Rectum
(3) Pharynx  Oesophagus  Gizzard 
Ileum  Crop  Colon  Rectum
(4) Pharynx  Oesophagus  Ileum  Crop
 Gizzard  Colon  Rectum
Answer ( 1 )

Egg (n) + 1st male gamete (n)  Zygote (2n) S o l . The correct sequence of organs in the
alimentary canal of cockroach starting from
mouth is :
Secondary nucleus  2nd male gamete (n) 

(2n)
(central cell nuclei) Pharynx  Oesophagus Crop  Gizzard 
PEN (3n) Ileum  Colon  Rectum

35
172. Match the hominids with their correct brain S o l . Steroid hormones directly enter into the cell
size : and bind with intracellular receptors in
nucleus to form hormone receptor complex.
(a) Homo habilis (i) 900 cc
Hormone receptor complex interacts with the
(b) Homo neanderthalensis (ii) 1350 cc genome
(c) Homo erectus (iii) 650-800 cc 175. Tidal Volume and Expiratory Reserve Volume
(d) Homo sapiens (iv) 1400 cc of an athlete is 500 mL and 1000 mL,
respectively. What will be his Expiratory
Select the correct option.
Capacity if the Residual Volume is 1200 mL?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) 1500 mL
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(2) 1700 mL
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(3) 2200 mL
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) 2700 mL
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
Answer ( 1 )
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Tidal Volume = 500 ml
S o l . The correct match of hominids and their brain
Expiratory Reserve Volume = 1000 ml
sizes are :
Expiratory Capacity = TV + ERV
Homo habilis — 650-800 cc
= 500 + 1000
Homo neanderthalensis — 1400 cc
= 1500 ml
Homo erectus — 900 cc
176. Which of the following is a commercial blood
Homo sapiens — 1350 cc
cholesterol lowering agent?
173. Identify the correct pair representing the
(1) Cyclosporin A (2) Statin
causative agent of typhoid fever and the
confirmatory test for typhoid. (3) Streptokinase (4) Lipases
(1) Plasmodium vivax / UTI test Answer ( 2 )
(2) Streptococcus pneumoniae / Widal test Sol.  Statin is obtained from a yeast (Fungi)
called Monascus purpureus
(3) Salmonella typhi / Anthrone test
 It acts by competitively inhibiting the
(4) Salmonella typhi / Widal test
enzyme responsible for synthesis of
Answer ( 4 ) cholesterol.
S o l . Salmonella typhi is the causative agent. 177. Which of the following statements regarding
Confirmatory test = Widal test, it’s based on mitochondria is incorrect?
antigen antibody reaction.
(1) Outer membrane is permeable to
174. How does steroid hormone influence the monomers of carbohydrates, fats and
cellular activities? proteins.
(1) Changing the permeability of the cell (2) Enzymes of electron transport are
membrane embedded in outer membrane.
(2) Binding to DNA and forming a gene- (3) Inner membrane is convoluted with
hormone complex infoldings.
(3) Activating cyclic AMP located on the cell (4) Mitochondrial matrix contains single
membrane circular DNA molecule and ribosomes.
(4) Using aquaporin channels as second Answer (2)
messenger S o l . In mitochondria, enzymes for electron
Answer ( 2 ) transport are present in the inner membrane.

36
178. Match the Column-I with Column-II 179. Select the correct group of biocontrol
agents.
Column-I Column-II
(1) Bacillus thuringiensis, Tobacco mosaic
(a) P - wave (i) Depolarisation of
virus, Aphids
ventricles
(2) Trichoderma, Baculovirus, Bacillus
(b) QRS complex (ii) Repolarisation of thuringiensis
ventricles
(3) Oscillatoria, Rhizobium, Trichoderma
(c) T - wave (iii) Coronary ischemia
(4) Nostoc, Azospirillium, Nucleopolyhedrovirus
(d) Reduction in the (iv) Depolarisation of Answer ( 2 )
size of T-wave atria S o l . Fungs Trichoderma, Baculoviruses (NPV) and
(v) Repolarisation of Bacillus thuringiensis are used as biocontrol
atria agents.

Select the correct option. Rhizobium, Nostoc, Azospirillum and

Oscillatoria are used as biofertilisers,
(a) (b) (c) (d) whereas TMV is a pathogen and aphids are
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) pests that harm crop plants.
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (v) 180. Select the correctly written scientific name of
Mango which was first described by Carolus
(3) (ii) (i) (v) (iii)
Linnaeus
(4) (ii) (iii) (v) (iv)
(1) Mangifera indica Car. Linn.
Answer ( 1 )
(2) Mangifera indica Linn.
S o l . In ECG P-wave represents depolarisation of (3) Mangifera indica
atria. QRS complex represents depolarisation
of ventricles. T-wave represents (4) Mangifera Indica
repolarisation of ventricle i.e. return from Answer ( 2 )
excited to normal state. Reduction in the size
S o l . According to rules of binomial nomenclature,
of T-wave i.e. if the T-wave represents
correctly written scientific name of mango is
insufficient supply of oxygen i.e. coronary
ischaemia. Mangifera indica Linn.

‰‰‰

37
CODE: P2 – Answer Key
1. (1) 2. (3) 3. (1) 4. (3) 5. (3) 6. (3) 7. (4) 8. (1) 9. (3) 10. (1)
11. (1) 12. (1) 13. (1,2) 14. (3) 15. (3) 16. (4) 17. (2) 18. (4) 19. (4) 20. (2)
21. (1) 22. (2) 23. (3) 24. (4) 25. (1) 26. (2) 27. (2) 28. (3) 29. (1) 30. (3)
31. (2) 32. (4) 33. (2) 34. (1) 35. (1) 36. (4) 37. (4) 38. (1) 39. (3) 40. (3)
41. (2) 42. (2) 43. (3) 44. (2) 45. (2) 46. (2) 47. (2) 48. (3) 49. (1) 50. (1)
51. (2) 52. (1) 53. (3) 54. (4) 55. (4) 56. (4) 57. (3) 58. (4) 59. (4) 60. (3)
61. (1) 62. (2) 63. (4) 64. (1) 65. (1) 66. (4) 67. (2) 68. (4) 69. (2) 70. (3)
71. (3) 72. (3) 73. (3) 74. (4) 75. (2) 76. (4) 77. (3) 78. (2) 79. (4) 80. (2)
81. (3) 82. (1) 83. (2) 84. (3) 85. (1) 86. (2) 87. (1) 88. (3) 89. (3) 90. (2)
91. (3) 92. (2) 93. (4) 94. (2) 95. (4) 96. (1) 97. (3) 98. (4) 99. (4) 100. (2)
101. (3) 102. (3) 103. (1) 104. (1) 105. (4) 106. (3) 107. (2) 108. (3) 109. (2) 110. (2)
111. (4) 112. (2) 113. (3) 114. (2) 115. (4) 116. (4) 117. (1) 118. (4) 119. (3) 120. (4)
121. (2) 122. (3) 123. (4) 124. (1) 125. (3) 126. (4) 127. (2) 128. (1) 129. (3) 130. (2)
131. (4) 132. (3) 133. (1) 134. (2) 135. (2) 136. (4) 137. (3) 138. (4) 139. (4) 140. (3)
141. (3) 142. (4) 143. (3) 144. (1) 145. (2) 146. (2) 147. (2) 148. (2) 149. (3) 150. (3)
151. (1) 152. (2) 153. (2) 154. (2) 155. (1) 156. (4) 157. (3) 158. (2) 159. (4) 160. (4)
161. (1) 162. (2) 163. (1) 164. (4) 165. (3) 166. (3) 167. (4) 168. (4) 169. (4) 170. (3)
171. (1) 172. (3) 173. (4) 174. (2) 175. (1) 176. (2) 177. (2) 178. (1) 179. (2) 180. (2)

38
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