Professional Documents
Culture Documents
MANAGEMENT
BUSINESS LAW
SUBMITTED TO:- Dr. Osheen
Modi
SUBMITTED BY:- Savi
Bilandi
MBA 4th
sem.
1
Q.1.
What is breach of contract? Discuss in brief the remedies
available to an aggrieved party in case of breach of
contract.
What Is a Breach of Contract:-
A breach of contract is when one party breaks the terms of an agreement between two
or more parties. This includes when an obligation that is stated in the contract is not
completed on time—you are late with a rent payment, or when it is not fulfilled at all
—a tenant vacates their apartment owing six-months' back rent.
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There are a variety of remedies available for a contract breach:-
Monetary damages. The party who breached the contract can be held
responsible for the losses caused by the breach. Both general or
expectation damages and consequential damages can result from a breach
of a contract. General or expectation damages refer to the loss directly
caused by the breach. Consequential damages refer to losses that occurred
because of the breach but that were an indirect cause. For example, if
you contracted and paid for a machine to be delivered and it never came,
the general losses would include the value of the money you paid for the
machine. The consequential losses could include the loss of business
caused by the fact you did not have the machine you needed to do your
work.
Specific performance. In some cases, the appropriate remedy for a
breach of contract is to correct the breach by forcing the breaching party to
complete the terms of the agreement. Specific performance is an
appropriate remedy in situations where monetary damages could not
possibly make the non-breaching party whole for the losses. For example,
if there was a contract created for a buyer to purchase a very rare piece of
art, the buyer could not simply find the art elsewhere. The only remedy
that would help the buyer in this circumstance is for the court to require
the sale to go through so the buyer got the unique one-of-a-kind painting
that he contracted for.
Rescission. Rescission allows the non-breaching party to essentially be
released from performance obligations. Recession is a remedy for a breach
of contract because it makes clear that the party is relieved of his duties
due to the failure of the other party to perform.
Liquidation damages. Sometimes, it is very difficult to determine how
much a person was damaged by a breach of contract. To address this
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problem, some contracts contain liquidated damage clauses. Essentially,
these clauses specify that the non-breaching party will be awarded.
Q.2
Explain redressal mechanism available under Consumer
Protection Act ?
The Act lays down certain provisions regarding the definition of consumer,
various consumer protection councils, and provisions in connection with various
consumer redressal agencies in India as well as other miscellaneous provisions.
Among this, provisions relating to consumer redressal agencies demand a lot of
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attention in the present Indian scenario. Many people are still not aware that
there are such agencies working in favor of consumers in every district. Due to
this reason, many of them are not getting proper solutions for their problems as
consumers. Chapter III of the Act provides for the implementation of redressal
agencies. Section 9 of the Act provides for ‘establishment of consumer dispute
redressal agencies’ which include:
District Forum:-
Each District Forum shall consist of a person who is or has been qualified as a
District judge, as the President. There must be two other persons who are not
less than thirty-five years of age and also possesses a degree from a recognized
university. The persons must have adequate knowledge in the field of
economics, commerce, industry, public affairs, and administration. The district
forum must have the jurisdiction to entertain such complaints where the value of
goods or services and the compensation, does not exceed Rs. twenty lakhs. The
need for district forums for consumer redressal is that majority of the people
who face any consumer rights violation are unable to file a complaint in a state
or national forum because such f have to look at matters concerning various
other district forums which result in a large number of pending cases. District
forums are also enabled with a faster way of dispensing consumer redressal as
the amount of claim is pretty less than that of State/National redressal forums
which enables normal people to seek a solution for their problems.
State Commission:-
Each State Commission shall consist of a person who is or has been a judge of
High Court as its president. The Commission also consists of not less than two
members, who are above thirty-five years of age and also possesses a degree
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from a recognized university. The persons must have adequate knowledge in the
field of economics, commerce, industry, public affairs, and administration. The
Act also states that not less than fifty percent of the members shall be from
amongst the persons having a judicial background. The State Commission has a
jurisdiction to entertain cases where the value of goods or services or the
compensation claimed, if any, exceeds the number of Rs. twenty lakhs but does
not exceed Rs. one crore. It also entertains appeals against any District Forum
within the state and also looks after any pending disputes or cases decided by
any of the District forums in which the forums have exercised a jurisdiction not
vested in them by the law, or has been exercised illegally or with any material
irregularity.
National Commission:-
The National Commission shall consist of a person, who is or has been a judge
of the Supreme Court, to be appointed by the Central Government, shall be the
President, provided that no appointment shall be made except after the
consultation with the Chief Justice of India. The commission shall consist of not
less than four members of its executive committee who shall not be less than
thirty-five years of age and must be graduates from a recognized university.
They must also be specialized in the areas of commerce, economics, and
administration. The jurisdiction of the commission shall extend to any case
where the compensation amount might exceed Rs. one crore and the
Commission shall also entertain appeals against State Commissions. The
Commission also has the power to check any pending disputes or cases decided
by any of the State Commissions where the State Commission has exercised a
jurisdiction not vested in it by law or it has been exercised illegally or with any
material irregularity.
There are various powers for all of the redressal forums with regards to its
jurisdiction. Some of them include:
Limitation period:-
The District, State or National Forum for consumer grievance redressal will not
entertain a case which is filed two years after the occurrence of the case unless
the party/parties can condone themselves regarding the reasons behind the delay
of filing within the specified period. Such a provision was formulated to
increase the accuracy of the function of such forums and also for delivering fast
redressal solutions to the parties.
Conclusion:-
Passing of Property :-
Passing of Property
There are four primary rules that govern the passing of property:
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Passing of Ascertained Goods:-
This is the first rule of the passing of property. It deals with the passing
of specified goods and states that –Specific or ascertained goods pass when
intended to pass. Section 19 of The Sale of Goods Act, 1930, has three sub-
sections as follows:-
Introduction:-
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Having said that, among the number of pros and cons, the legitimacy of the
partnership as a business entity needs particular speculation and analysis of the
business environment as a new form of business known as the “Limited
Liability Partnership” has evolved into a mainstream business establishment
model where the concerned business developers can opt for a relative term of
risk and liability which was fundamentally missing in the partnership agreement
and was a much needed change, which is particularly appreciated by the
business communities across the world for the amount of flexibility it provides
for the new business commodities such as startups and other ventures. However
an exclusive understanding of the registration of the firms under the Indian
Partnership Act, 1932.
Secondly, all partners should necessarily solicit their signature application form
or their authorised agents in their behalf in the occupancy of a witness who must
be Advocate, Gazetted Officer, Vakil or Magistrate of Registered Accountant. If
a partner declines to sign the application form, registration cannot happen unless
that partner’s name is dribbled.
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The application as mentioned above has to be sent to the Registrar at the
enumerated address along with the prescribed fees. As per section 71 of Indian
Partnership Act, states are authorized to make their own regulations with respect
to prescribe the fee structure for registration or incorporation of partnership.
However, Schedule I of Indian Partnership act states the at most or maximum
prescribed fees that can be charged by the states. As per Schedule I, the
maximum registration fees for a statement under section 58 is Rs.525
(1) A partner is not entitled to file a suit in any court of law against the other
partners or the firm for the execution of any right emerging from any
undertaking or right bestowed by the Partnership Act.
(3) Moreover, the firm or any of its associates cannot assert a set off (i.e.
fundamental negotiation of debts possessed by the argufied parties to one
another) or other actions in a disagreement with a third party.
Registration of a firm is not compulsory in India. While the Act does not
impose any penalty for non-registration, there are certain legal disabilities
arising from non-registration which are so great that generally the partners of a
firm would want to have their firm registered.
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Section 69 of the Indian Partnership Act is designed to exert pressure on
partners to get the firm registered.
Under Section 69(1), a partner or any person on his behalf cannot file a suit
against the firm or any person alleged to be a partner of the firm to enforce a
right arising from a partnership contract or under thePartnership Act unless the
firm is a registered one and the person has his name filed as a partner in the
register of firms as held in the case of Jagat Mittar Saigal v. Kailash Chander
Saigal. Thus, if a firm is unregistered or the name of a partner isn’t lodged in
the register of firms, that partner cannot sue the firm or another partner of the
firm if any of his rights are violated.
Under Section 69(2), a firm or any other person on its behalf cannot file a suit
against a third party for enforcing any contractual rights unless that firm is a
registered one as held in the case of Beacon Industries v. Anupam
Ghosh and Bharat Sarvodaya Mills Co. Ltd v. M/s Mohatta Brothers. This can
be overcome only by registration of the firm before filing a suit. No such
disability has been imposed upon a third party. Any person can bring a suit even
against an unregistered firm or any of its partners.
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Q.5.
Explain the main provisions of offences, penalties and
adjudication under Information Technology Act 2000.
Introduction:-
Information Technology Act, 2000 was enacted on 17 th May, 2000 to provide
legal recognition for electronic transactions and facilitate E-Commerce. It was
later amended by passing Information Technology (Amendment) Act, 2008.
The following are the important objectives of Information Technology Act,
2000
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Offences under Information Technology Act, 2000:-
Section 65: Any person tamper, conceal, destroy, or alter any computer source
document intentionally, then he shall be liable to pay penalty
upto Rs.2,00,000/-, or Imprisonment upto 3 years, or both.
Section 66: Any person dishonestly, or fraudulently does any act as referred
in Section 43, then he shall be liable to pay penalty upto Rs.5,00,000/-, or
Imprisonment upto 3 years, or both.
Section 66B: Any person dishonestly, or fraudulently receives or retains any
stolen computer resource or communication device, then he shall be liable to
pay penalty upto Rs.1,00,000/-, or Imprisonment upto 3 years, or both.
Section 66C: Any person dishonestly, or fraudulently make use of Electronic
Signature, Password or any other Unique Identification Feature of any other
person, then he shall be liable to pay penalty upto Rs.1,00,000/-, or
Imprisonment upto 3 years, or both.
Section 66D: Any person dishonestly, or fraudulently by means of any
communication device or computer resource cheats by personating, then he
shall be liable to pay penalty upto Rs.1,00,000/-, or Imprisonment upto 3 years,
or both.
Section 66E: Any person intentionally captures, publishes, or transmits image
of private area of any person without consent, then he shall be liable to pay
penalty upto Rs.2,00,000/-, or Imprisonment upto 3 years, or both.
Section 66F: Any person does any act electronically, or with use of computer
with intent to threaten unity, integrity, security, or sovereignty of India, then he
shall punishable with Imprisonment for Life.
Section 67: Any person publishes, or transmits in electronic form any material
which appeals to prurient interest, or if its effect is such as to tend to deprave
and coorupt persons who are likely to read, see, or hear matter contained in it,
then he shall be liable to pay penalty upto Rs.5,00,000/-, or Imprisonment
upto 3 years, or both, And in the event of second or subsequent conviction, he
shall be liable to pay penalty upto Rs.10,00,000/-, or Imprisonment upto 5
years, or both.
Section 67A: Any person publishes, or transmits in electronic form any material
which contains sexually explicit act, or conduct, then he shall be liable to pay
penalty upto Rs.10,00,000/-, or Imprisonment upto 5 years, or both, And in the
event of second or subsequent conviction, he shall be liable to pay penalty
upto Rs.10,00,000/-, or Imprisonment upto 7 years, or both.
Section 68: The Controller may, by order, direct a Certifying Authority or any
employee of such Authority to take such measures or cease carrying on such
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activities as specified in the order if those are necessary to ensure compliance
with the provisions of this Act, rules or any regulations made thereunder and if
any person who intentionally or knowingly fails to comply with the order, then
he shall be liable to pay penalty upto Rs.1,00,000/-, or Imprisonment upto 2
years, or both.
Section 69: Where the Central Government or a State Government or any of its
officers specially authorized by the Central Government or the State
Government, as the case may be, in this behalf may, if satisfied that it is
necessary or expedient so to do, in the interest of the sovereignty or integrity of
India, defense of India, security of the State, friendly relations with foreign
States or public order or for preventing incitement to the commission of any
cognizable offence relating to above or for investigation of any offence, it may
with reasons to be recorded in writing, by order, direct any agency of the
appropriate Government to intercept, monitor or decrypt or cause to be
intercepted or monitored or decrypted any information generated, transmitted,
received or stored in any computer resource, Any person who fails to comply
with the order, then he shall be liable to Imprisonment of 7 years, along with
the fine (amount of fine is not specified in the act).
Section 70: The appropriate Government may, by notification in the Official
Gazette, declare any computer resource which directly or indirectly affects the
facility of Critical Information Infrastructure, to be a protected system, Any
person who fails to comply with the notification, then he shall be liable to
Imprisonment of 10 years, along with the fine (amount of fine is not specified
in the act).
Section 71: Whoever makes any misrepresentation to, or suppresses any
material fact from the Controller or the Certifying Authority for obtaining any
License or Electronic Signature Certificate, as the case may be, then he shall be
liable to pay penalty upto Rs.1,00,000/-, or Imprisonment upto 2 years, or both.
Section 72: If any person who has secured access to any electronic record,
book, register, correspondence, information, document or other material without
the consent of the person concerned discloses such electronic record, book,
register, correspondence, information, document or other material to any other
person, then he shall be liable to pay penalty upto Rs.1,00,000/-, or
Imprisonment upto 2 years, or both.
Section 72A: If any person who has secured access to any material containing
personal information about another person, with the intent to cause or knowing
that he is likely to cause wrongful loss or wrongful gain discloses, without the
consent of the person concerned, or in breach of a lawful contract, then he shall
be liable to pay penalty upto Rs.5,00,000/-, or Imprisonment upto 3 years, or
both.
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Section 73: If any person publishes a Electronic Signature Certificate, or make
it available to any other person with the knowledge that
Certifying Authority has not issued it, or
Subscriber has not accepted it, or
Certificate has been revoked or suspended
then he shall be liable to pay penalty upto Rs.1,00,000/-, or Imprisonment
upto 2 years, or both.
Section 74: If any person knowingly creates, publishes, or otherwise makes
available Electronic Signature Certificate for any fraudulent or unlawful
purpose, then he shall be liable to pay penalty upto Rs.1,00,000/-, or
Imprisonment upto 2 years, or both.
Section 75: If any person have committed an offence, or contravention
committed outside India, and if the act or conduct constituting the offence or
contravention involves a computer, computer system or computer network
located in India, then the provisions of this Act shall apply also to any offence
or contravention committed outside India by any person irrespective of his
nationality.
Section 76: Any computer, computer system, floppies, compact disks, tape
drives, or any other accessories related thereto, in respect of which any
provision of this Act, rules, orders, or regulations made thereunder has been, or
is being contravened, shall be liable to confiscation. However, if it is proved
that such resources were not used in committing fraud then only person in
default will be arrested.
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Q.6.
Write short note on following, (a) Memorandum and
Articles of Association,
(b)Procedure for formation of companies, (c) Carbon
Credit.
{A}
Memorandum of Association:-
Forms of Memorandum:-
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Table B = It relates to Memorandum of Association of a company limited by
shares.
Contents of Memorandum:
Sec. 13 of the Companies Act states that the Memorandum of Association
of every company must contain
Articles of Association:-
Articles of Association contain the rules and regulations which are to be
followed for the internal management of the company based on the
Memorandum of Association. In other words, it is a document which contains
rules, regulations, bye-laws etc. of the company.
Form of Articles:-
Sec. 30 of the Companies Act lays down the model form of Articles, for use in
the case of companies not limited by shares, which are given in Schedule I to
the Act. The Articles must (i) be printed, (ii) be divided into paragraph and
numbered consecutively, and (iii) be signed by each member of the
Memorandum in the presence of at least one witness who shall attest the
signature, add his address and description and occupation.
{B}
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Procedure for formation of companies:-
{C}
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direction of low Greenhouse Gases(GHGs). These mitigation projects generate
credits, which can be traded in the international markets for monetary benefits.
There are also many companies that sell carbon credits to commercial and
individual customers who are interested in lowering their carbon footprint on a
voluntary basis. These carbon credits are bought from an investment fund or a
carbon development company that has aggregated the credits from individual
projects. The quality of the credits is based in on the validation process and
sophistication of the fund or development company that acted as the sponsor to
the carbon project. Voluntary units typically have less value than the units sold
through the rigorously-validated Clean Development
A carbon credit is a permit that allows the company that holds it to emit a
certain amount of carbon dioxide or other greenhouse gases. One credit permits
the emission of a mass equal to one ton of carbon dioxide.
KEY TAKEAWAYS
Companies or nations are allotted a certain number of credits and may trade
them to help balance total worldwide emissions. "Since carbon dioxide is the
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principal greenhouse gas," the United Nations notes, "people speak simply of
trading in carbon."
The intention is to reduce the number of credits over time, thus incentivizing
companies to find innovative ways to reduce greenhouse gas emissions.
Section B
Solve the following Case studies
Q1 a) Mr. X has made an offer to sell the Car which Mr. Y has accepted on
behalf of Mr. Z. When offer was made Mr. Y had no authority to accept
the offer on the behalf of Mr. Z But subsequently Mr. Z has ratified the act
of Mr.Y. Are Mr. X and Mr. Y bound to sell and buy the Car. Give your
decision with support of appropriate provisions under the Act.
Ans.Indian sale of goods act 1930. Is a mercantile law which provisions for the
selling up of contract where the transfer the tiltle in the goods for buyer for
condition.
Under given circumstances where Mr. X has made an offer to sell the Car which
Mr. Y has accepted on behalf of Mr Z. Mr z ratified the act of Mr y. Under such
situation Mr x and Mr y are not bound to sell/buy the car as the agreement to
valid on the basis of following provision.
A Latin maxim says: ‘Nemo dat quod non habet’ which means that no one can
give what he doesn’t have. This is the ground principle regarding the transfer of
title. Sections 27 to 30 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 specify these laws about
the transfer of title. Let us take a look.
Transfer of Title
Section 27 deals with the sale by a person who is not the owner. Imagine a sale
contract where the seller –
Is not the owner of the goods
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Does not have consent from the owner to sell the goods
Has not been given authority by the owner to sell the goods on his behalf
In such cases, the buyer acquires no better title to these goods than the seller
had, provided the conduct of the owner precludes the seller’s authority to
sell.
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If an owner of goods is stopped by the conduct from denying the seller’s
authority to sell, the buyer gets a good title. However, to get a good title by
estoppel, it needs to be proved that the original owner had actively suffered or
held out the seller in question as a person authorized to sell the goods.
Example: Peter, John, and Oliver are having a conversation. Peter tells John that
he owns the BMW car parked nearby which actually belongs to Oliver.
However, Oliver remains silent. Subsequently, Peter sells the car to John.
In this case, John will get a good title to the car even though the seller is Peter
who has no title to it. This is because, Oliver, by his conduct, did not deny
Peter’s authority to sell the car.
7] Sale by an Unpaid Seller [Section 54 (3)]
If an unpaid seller exercises his right of lien or stoppage in transit and sells the
goods to another buyer, then the second buyer gets a good title to the goods as
against the original buyer. So in such a case transfer of title will occur.
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The promise to pay must be definite and unconditional- The promise to pay
contained in the note must be unconditional. If the promise to pay is coupled
with a condition, it is not a promissory note.
The maker of the pro-note must be certain- The instrument should show on
the fact of it as to who exactly is liable to pay. The name of the maker should
be written clearly and ascertainable on seeing the document.
It should be signed by the maker- Unless the maker signs the instrument, it is
incomplete and of no legal effect. Therefore, the person who promises to pay
must sign the instrument even though it might have been written by the
promisor himself.
The promise should be to pay money- The promissory note should contain a
promise to pay money and money only, i.e., legal tender money. The
promise cannot be extended to payments in the form of goods, shares, bonds,
foreign exchange, etc.
The payee must be certain- The money must be payable to a definite person
or according to his order. The payee must be ascertained by name or by
designation. But it cannot be made payable either to bearer or to the maker
himself.
It should be dated- The date of a promissory note is not material unless the
amount is made payable at the particular time after date. Even then, the
absence of date does not invalidate the pro-note and the date of execution
can be independently proved. However to calculate the interest or fixing the
date of maturity or lm\imitation period the date is essential. It may be ante-
dated or post-dated. If post-dated, it cannot be sued upon till ostensible date.
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The rate of interest- It is unusual to mention in it the rated interest per
annum. When the instrument itself specifies the rate of interest payable on
the amount mentioned it, interest must be paid at the rate from the date of the
instrument.
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