CHAPTER 1
1.1 Which of the following are key discoveries that
contributed to current knowledge about parasites?
A. Consistent status quo preservation of samples
B. Techniques that indicate only the presence or
absence of parasites
C. Modifications of traditional parasite identification
techniques
D. Decrease in parasite incidence because of global
Travel
1.2 Which of the following people may be at risk for
contracting a parasitic infection?
A. A toddler who attends an all-day preschool or day
care center
B. A 25-year-old man who lives on his own in an
apartment complex
C. A 37-year-old South American refugee
D. More than one of these: A and C
(specify)
1.3 The primary function of a host in a parasite-host
relationship is to:
A. Carry on the parasite’s life cycle.
B. Provide immunologic protection for the host.
C. Carry on the host’s life cycle.
D. Provide a food source for the host.
1.4 Which of the following key pieces of information may
be extracted from the portion of a parasite’s life cycle that
occurs outside the body?
A. Parasitic disease symptoms and disease processes
B. Epidemiology and prevention and control
measures
C. Appropriate parasite diagnosis methodologies
D. Selection of appropriate antiparasitic medication
1.5 Which of the following groups of symptoms represents
those most commonly observed in parasitic infections?
A. Diarrhea, abdominal cramping, and anemia
B. Enlargement of the spleen, fever, and chills
C. Skin lesions, abdominal pain, and diarrhea
D. Abdominal cramping, abdominal pain, and
Diarrhea
1.6 Which of the following represent examples of available
treatment therapies to combat parasitic infections?
A. Regulated exercise plan
B. Change in diet
C. Avoidance of vitamin supplements
D. More than one of these: ______________ (specify)
1.7 Which of the following are examples of possible
parasite prevention and control measures?
A. Avoiding the use of insecticides
B. Practicing unprotected sex
C. Practicing proper sanitation practices
D. More than one of these: ________________
(specify)
1.8 Which of the following specimen type is most often
submitted for parasite study?
A. Blood
B. Sputum
C. Urine
D. Stool
1.9 Which of the following correctly represents the three
major groups of clinically significant parasites?
A. Protozoa—worms; Metazoa—single-celled parasites;
Arthropods—insects and their allies
B. Protozoa—insects and their allies; Metazoa—
worms; Arthropods—single-celled parasites
C. Protozoa—single-celled parasites; Metazoa—
worms; Arthropods—insects and their allies
D. Protozoa—single-celled parasites; Metazoa—
insects and their allies; Arthropods—worms
CHAPTER 2
2.1 How many stool samples should be collected when
following the typical O&P collection protocol? (Objective
2-3)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
2.2What is the purpose of fixatives for the collection of
stool samples? (Objective 2-4)
A. Enhance the motility of protozoa.
B. Stain the cytoplasmic inclusions of protozoa.
C. Preserve the morphology of protozoa and prevent
further development of helminths.
D. All of the above.
2.3 Which of the following characteristics is observed
during the macroscopic examination of stool specimens?
(Objective 2-5)
A. Consistency
B. Color
C. Adult worms
D. All of the above
2.4 Which of these procedures is involved in the
microscopic
examination of stool specimens for parasites?
(Objective 2-6)
A. Performing a concentration technique
B. Determining specimen consistency
C. Examining sample for gross abnormalities
D. Analyzing sample for color
2.5 The direct wet preparation can be eliminated from
the O&P examination if the specimen is received in a
fixative. (Objective 2-8)
A. True
B. False
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2.6 Which of the following parasitic stages is not usually CHAPTER 3
detected after using a concentration technique?
(Objective 2-9) 3.1 Amoebas transform from trophozoites to cysts on
A. Protozoan cysts entry into an unsuspecting human. (Objective 3-5A)
B. Protozoan trophozoites A. True
C. Helminth eggs B. False
D. Helminth larvae
3.2 Formed stool specimens are more likely to contain
2.7 The permanent stained smear is critical for detection which of the following? (Objective 3-8)
of helminth eggs and larvae. (Objective 2-10) A. Trophozoites
A. True B. Cysts
B. False
3.3 Infections with intestinal amebas are prevalent in
2.8 What is one advantage of the stool screening method? which of the following? (Objective 3-2)
(Objective 2-11) A. Underdeveloped countries with poor sanitary
A. It is highly sensitive and specific. conditions
B. It can detect all parasites. B. Beef consumers in the United States
C. It can be performed on fresh or preserved C. People traveling to Europe
specimens. D. Japan, because of seafood diet
D. It is labor-intensive.
3.4 Which of the following structures is (are) typical in
2.9 From which area can the Enterotest be used to collect trophozoites of E. histolytica? (Objective 3-9A)
specimens? (Objective 2-12) A. Single nucleus with a small karyosome
A. Duodenum B. Unevenly distributed peripheral chromatin
B. Sigmoid colon C. Chromatoid bars
C. Stomach D. Glycogen mass
D. Perianal area
3.5 E. histolytica infection is traditionally diagnosed by
2.10 Thick blood smears for malaria are recommended for finding which of the following? (Objective 3-8)
species identification. (Objective 2-13) A. Adult and egg forms of the parasite in a suspected
A. True stool sample
B. False B. Trophozoites and/or cysts in a suspected stool
sample
2.11 Giemsa is the preferred stain for the detection of C. Larvae in a suspected CSF sample
blood parasites. (Objective 2-13) D. Adult form of the parasite in suspected tissue
A. True Samples
B. False
3.6 The infective stage of E. histolytica is which of the
2.12 Which of the following is the specimen of choice to following? (Objective 3-5)
demonstrate intracellular parasites such as Toxoplasma A. Trophozoite
gondii and Leishmania spp.? (Objective 2-13) B. Cyst
A. Sputum
B. Urine 3.7 Which of the following factors is not responsible for
C. Tissue the asymptomatic carrier state of a patient infected
D. Genital secretions with E. histolytica? (Objective 3-7A)
A. Low virulence strain
2.13 The detection of an antibody to a given parasite in a B. Low inoculation into host
patient with no previous exposure prior to travel to C. Intact patient’s immune system
an endemic area can be considered a positive result. D. Patient’s blood type
(Objective 2-14)
A. True 3.8 Which of the following prevention measures can
B. False control the spread of E. histolytica? (Objective 3-7C)
A. Drinking tap water
2.14 Which one of these parasites should be quantitated B. Using human feces as fertilizer
in the parasitology report? (Objective 2-17) C. Boiling water or treat with iodine crystals
A. Giardia intestinalis D. Practicing unsafe sex
B. Entamoeba coli
C. Trichomonas vaginalis
D. Blastocystis hominis

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3.9 A main difference between the trophozoites of E.
hartmanni and E. histolytica is which of the following?
(Objective 3-11A)
A. Trophozoites of E. histolytica are smaller in size.
B. Presence of pseudopods
C. Trophozoites of E. hartmanni do not contain
ingested red blood cells.
D. Nuclear structure and peripheral chromatin
3.10 Which of the following is true regarding E.
hartmanni?
(Objectives 3-2, 3-4, 3-5, and 3-7)
A. The organism is found worldwide.
B. It is generally considered a pathogen and treatment
is indicated.
C. It is an extraintestinal ameba.
D. The life cycle requires one morphologic form, the
trophozoite.
3.11 The trophozoites of E. coli: (Objective 3-9A)
A. Have eight nuclei
B. Have a typical nucleus consists of a large, often
irregularly shaped karyosome that is eccentrically
located
C. Are characterized by a karyosome that is surrounded
by evenly distributed peripheral
chromatin
D. Contain red blood cell inclusions
3.12 Which of the following is not true about E. coli?
(Objectives 3-2, 3-5, and 3-7C)
A. The parasite is found worldwide.
B. It is considered to be a pathogen.
C. The infection is transmitted through the ingestion
of the infected cyst through contaminated food
or drink.
D. The infection can be prevented by adequate disposal
of human feces and good personal hygiene
practices.
3.13 Which of the following statements is not true about
the cysts of E. polecki? (Objective 3-9A)
A. Cysts vary in shape from spherical to oval.
B. Cysts contain at least four nuclei.
C. The typical cyst nucleus resembles that of E.
histolytica.
D. A diffuse glycogen mass may be present in the
cytoplasm of cysts.
3.14 Infection with E. polecki is mainly transmitted to
humans via which of the following? (Objective 3-5A)
A. Ingestion of E. polecki trophozoite
B. Ingestion of E. polecki cysts
C. Humans do not get infected with E. polecki.
D. Touching an injected pig or monkey
3.15 The appearance of an E. nana karyosome is usually
which of the following? (Objective 3-9A)
A. Granular
B. Large and round
C. Small and round
D. Blotlike
3.16 Which of the following statements is true regarding
E. nana? (Objectives 3-2 and 3-7)
A. E. nana is found primarily in cold regions of the
world.
B. E. nana is prevalent in areas in which poor hygiene
and substandard sanitary conditions exist.
C. E. nana is considered as a human pathogen, so
treatment is mandatory.
D. Humans can obtain protection from E. nana via
vaccination.
3.17 Iodamoeba bütschlii cysts typically: (Objective 3-9A)
A. Contain four nuclei
B. Have a small karyosome in a central position
C. Lack chromatoid bars
D. Lack a glycogen mass
3.18 Transmission of I. bütschlii occurs when: (Objective
3-5A)
A. The infective cysts are ingested in contaminated
food or drink.
B. The infective trophozoites are ingested in contaminated
food or drink.
C. Examining stool specimens from infected
individuals
D. An infected mosquito vector bites an unsuspecting
human.
3.19 Which of the following is a unique characteristic of
E. gingivalis? (Objectives 3-5B, 3-9A, and 3-9C)
A. The trophozoites exhibit active motility via their
pseudopods.
B. There is no known cyst form of this parasite.
C. The trophozoite has a single nucleus with characteristics
that resemble those of E. histolytica.
D. E. gingivalis is the only ameba that may ingest
white blood cells.
3.20 E. gingivalis: (Objectives 3-4, 3-5, and 3-7)
A. Is an intestinal ameba
B. Is a pathogen and must be treated with
metronidazole
C. Can be found in the mouth and in the genital tract
D. Has a typical amebic life cycle (i.e., trophozoites
and cysts)
3.21The known morphologic forms of Naegleria fowleri
are: (Objective 3-5B)
A. Ameboid trophozoites, flagellate forms, and cysts
B. Ameboid trophozoites, immature cysts, and
mature cysts
C. Eggs, larvae, and adults
D. Flagellate forms, cysts, and larvae
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3.22 The specimen of choice for the recovery of N. fowleri 3.29Infections with Acanthamoeba species are
is which of the following? (Objective 3-8) encountered
A. Sputum in which of the following anatomical parts?
B. Stool (Objective 3-5)
C. Cerebrospinal fluid A. Eye
D. Urine B. Large intestines
C. Lungs
3.23 Humans most often contract N. fowleri by which of D. Liver
the following? (Objective 3-5B)
A. Swimming in contaminated water 3.30 To prevent infection with Acanthamoeba species,
B. Kissing an infected person contact lens wearers should avoid which of the following?
C. Practicing unprotected sex (Objective 3-7C)
D. Ingestion of contaminated food A. Strenuous exercise
B. Foods with high carbohydrate content
3.24 The ameboid trophozoites of N. fowleri enter the C. Wearing clothing made of cotton
human body through all of the following routes D. Using homemade nonsterile saline solutions
except: (Objective 3-5B)
A. Entry through the nasal mucosa
B. Inhalation of contaminated dust
C. Sniffing contaminated water Chapter 4
D. Ingesting contaminated food and drink
1. All flagellate life cycles possess trophozoite and cyst
3.25 Practical measures for the control and prevention morphologic forms. (Objectives 4-5A and 4-5B)
of N. fowleri include which of the following? (Objective A. True
3-7C) B. False
A. Banning swimming at all times during the summer
months 2. This flagellate morphologic structure is often not visible
B. Avoidance of chlorinating swimming pools and under microscopic examination. (Objective 4-9A)
hot tubs A. Undulating membrane
C. Providing education and awareness in the medical B. Pseudopods
community C. Flagella
D. Avoidance of consuming contaminated food or D. Axostyle
water prior to swimming
3. The presence of nonpathogenic flagellates is important
3.26 The term acanthopodia refers to: (Objective 1) because it suggests that: (Objective 4-5A)
A. Spinelike pseudopods A. The patient will develop clinical signs and
B. Hairy projections symptoms.
C. Double-layer cell wall
B. Only cyst forms will be recovered in corresponding
D. Large karyosome and no obvious peripheral
patient samples.
Chromatin
C. The parasites will invade multiple organ systems
3.27 The specimen of choice for diagnosing Acanthamoeba in the body.
species trophozoites and cysts is which of the D. Contaminated food or drink was consumed by the
following? (Objective 3-8) patient.
A. Urine
4. The proposed function(s) of the median bodies seen
B. Sputum
in G. intestinalis is (are) which of the following?
C. Cerebrospinal fluid
(Objective 4-9 B)
D. Stool
A. Support
3.28 Humans may acquire Acanthamoeba species by B. Energy
which of the following? (Objective 3-5B) C. Metabolism
A. Aspiration or nasal inhalation of the organisms D. All of the above
B. Direct invasion of the parasites in the eye
5. Which specimen type and collection regimen would
C. Swimming or bathing in contaminated water
be most appropriate for the diagnosis of G. intestinalis?
D. A or B
(Objective 4-8)
A. One stool sample
B. Two stool samples
C. Multiple stool samples collected on subsequent
days

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D. One stool sample and one blood sample 13. The specimen of choice for the recovery of T. hominis
is which of the following? (Objective 4-8)
6. G. intestinalis trophozoites attach to the mucosa of A. Stool
the duodenum and feed with the assistance of this B. Urine
morphologic structure. (Objective 4-9B) C. Intestinal contents
A. Sucking disk D. Gastric contents
B. Axostyle
C. Axoneme 14. Trichomonas hominis can be transmitted by which of
the following? (Objective 4-5C)
7. Individuals become infected with G. intestinalis by A. Contaminated milk
which of the following? (Objective 4-5C) B. Bite of an infected mosquito
A. Swimming in contaminated water C. Ingestion of an embryonated ovum
B. Ingesting contaminated food or drink D. Ingestion of undercooked meat
C. Inhalation of infective cysts
D. Walking barefoot on contaminated soil 15. When E. hominis cysts contain more than one nuclei,
where do they tend to be positioned within the
8. Individuals at risk for contracting G. intestinalis when cytoplasm?
camping and hiking are encouraged to take which of (Objective 4-9A)
these steps to prevent infection? (Objective 4-7C) A. Center
A. Treat potentially infected water with a double strength B. Around the periphery of the organism
saturated saline solution prior to C. At opposite ends of the cell
consuming. D. Throughout the organism
B. Use only bottled water for drinking, cooking &
appropriate personal hygiene. 16. Treatment is always indicated for patients when
C. Avoid swimming in contaminated water. E. hominis is present on parasite examination. (Objective
D. Wear shoes at all times. 4-7B)
A. True
9. Which of the following are key morphologic B. False
characteristics
of C. mesnili? (Objective 4-9A) 17. The traditional technique and specimen of choice for
A. Round and four to eight nuclei identifying Retortamonas intestinalis is which of the
B. Oval and presence of a cytosome following? (Objectives 4-8 and 4-12)
C. Round and presence of an axoneme A. Permanently stained blood
D. Lemon-shaped and presence of a cytosome B. Iodine prep of urine
C. Saline prep of bronchial wash
10 A liquid stool is the specimen of choice for the recovery D. Permanently stained stool
of which of these morphologic forms of C.
mesnili? (Objective 4-8) 18. Individuals contract R. intestinalis by which of the
A. Trophozoites only following? (Objective 4-5C)
B. Cysts only A. Ingesting infective cysts in contaminated food or
C. Trophozoites and cysts drink
B. Consuming trophozoites in contaminated
11. A flagellate trophozoite that could be described as 9 beverages
to 12 μm with one or two nuclei, each with four C. Stepping barefoot on infective soil
symmetrically positioned chromatin granules and D. Inhaling infective dust particles
vacuoles containing bacteria in the cytoplasm,
would most likely be which of the following? (Objective 19. How far down the body length does the Trichomonas
4-9C) tenax undulating membrane extend? (Objective 4-9A)
A. Giardia intestinalis A. One fourth
B. Dientamoeba fragilis B. One half
C. Chilomastix mesnilli C. Three fourths
D. Blastocystis hominis D. Full body

12. The permanent stain of choice for observing the 20. The specimen of choice for the recovery of
nuclear features of D. fragilis is which of the following? Trichomonas tenax is which of the following? (Objective 4-
(Objective 4-12) 8)
A. Trichrome A. Stool
B. Iodine B. Urine
C. Saline C. Mouth scrapings
D. Iron hematoxylin D. Cerebrospinal fluid

5|Page
21. This prominent structure found in T. vaginalis 4. Of the following laboratory diagnostic methods,
trophozoites which is the most commonly used for the recovery
that often extends beyond the body provides of members of the L. braziliensis complex? (Objective
the parasite with support. (Objective 4-9A) 5-8)
A. Nucleus A. Schizodeme analysis
B. Axostyle B. Culture of infected material
C. Axoneme C. Identifying amastigotes in infected material
D. Granule D. Zymodeme analysis

22. The cyst morphologic form is not known to exist in 5. The organism causing chiclero ulcer is most likely
the life cycle of T. vaginalis. (Objective 4-5C) found in: (Objectives 5-1 and 5-2)
A. True A. Texas
B. False B. South American rainforest region
C. Nova Scotia
23. T. vaginalis may be recovered in which of the following D. Egypt
specimen types? (Objective 4-8)
A. Spun urine 6. Which of the following is not an acceptable treatment
B. Vaginal discharge for mucocutaneous leishmaniasis caused by L. braziliensis?
C. Stool (Objective 5-7A)
D. Urethral discharge (A,B,C) A. Amoxicillin
E. More than one of the above: ____________ B. Pentosam
(specify) C. Ambisome
D. Fungizone
24. All cases of T. vaginalis infection result in symptomatic
vaginitis in women and urethritis in men. (Objectives 7. A common name for disease caused by L. donovani
4-6 and 4-7) is: (Objective 5-3)
A. True A. Visceral leishmaniasis
B. False B. Kala-azar
C. Dum dum fever
25. Infant infections with T. vaginalis tend to affect which D. All of the above
of the following of these body areas? (Objective 4-6)
A. Respiratory and genital 8. The vector responsible for the transmission of L.
B. Genital and intestinal donovani
C. Intestinal and eye is: (Objective 5-5)
D. Respiratory and eye A. Lutzomyia sandfly
B. Phlebotomus sandfly
C. Psychodopygus sandfly
D. None of the above

9. Which of the following items does not describe

CHAPTER 5 kalaazar?
(Objectives 5-2, 5-5, and 5-12)
1. This is the only hemoflagellate morphologic form
A. Commonly found in Iraq
that does not have an external flagellum. (Objective
B. Transmitted by the Phlebotomus and Lutzomyia
5-11A)
sandfly species
A. Trypomastigote
C. Is not transmitted by blood transfusion
B. Amastigote
D. Can be serologically determined by ELISA, IFA, and
C. Promastigote
DAT methods
D. Epimastigote
10. The specimen of choice for the recovery of L. mexicana
2. Hemoflagellates are typically found in stool samples.
complex members is: (Objective 5-8)
(Objective 5-8)
A. CSF
A. True
B. Stool
B. False
C. Lesion biopsy material
3. The symptoms of hemoflagellate infections range D. Duodenal contents
from minor, such as irritation at the infection site, to
11. Which of the following is not a reservoir host for L.
serious (comatose state and death). (Objective 5-6)
mexicana complex? (Objective 5-5)
A. True
A. Squirrels
B. False
B. Chipmunks

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C. Rats 19. The diagnostic stage of T.b. rhodesiense is the:
D. Snakes (Objective
5-5)
12. Which of the following best describe disease caused A. Trypomastigote
by the L. mexicana complex? (Objective 5-6) B. Epimastigote
A. Can disseminate into a diffuse cutaneous form C. Promastigote
B. Appears around the ears in approximately 40% of D. Amastigote
patients
C. Both A and B are correct. 20. Which of the following trypanosomal parasites that
D. None of the above causes sleeping sicknesses is the more aggressive
form? (Objective 5-11)
13. All the following are geographic regions in which the A. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
members of the L. tropica complex can be found B. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense
except: (Objective 5-2) C. Trypanosoma cruzi
A. Brazil D. Trypanosoma rangeli
B. Uzbekistan
C. Iran 21. What complicates the prevention and control efforts
D. Syria for T.b. rhodesiense? (Objective 5-7B)
A. Vast species of reservoir hosts
14. The specimen of choice for the recovery of L. tropica B. Breeding occurs wherever brush is abundant
complex members is: (Objective 5-8) C. Both A and B
A. CSF D. None of the above
B. Fluid underneath the ulcer bed
C. Blood 22. The specimen of choice for the detection of T. cruzi
D. Tissue biopsy is: (Objective 5-8)
A. Stool
15. The most common morphologic form seen in B. Blood
samples positive for L. tropica complex members is: C. Tissue
(Objective 5-5) D. Ulcer
A. Trypomastigote
B. Promastigote 23. Which of the following is the vector first identified as
C. Epimastigote responsible for transmitting T. cruzi? (Objective 5-5)
D. Amastigote A. Phlebotomus spp.
B. Lutzomyia spp.
16. Of the following, which tests are considered diagnostic C. Panstrongylus megistus
for trypanosomiasis? (Objectives 5-8 and 5-12) D. Glossina spp.
A. Giemsa-stained blood slides revealing the
trypomastigote 24. Which of the following is not a characteristic finding
B. Giemsa-stained blood slides revealing the in Chagas’ disease? (Objective 5-6)
amastigote A. Romana’s sign
C. Increased serum and CSF IgM levels B. Megacolon
D. Both A and C are correct. C. Cardiomegaly
E. All of the above D. Somnolence

17. There are no known animal reservoir hosts for T.b. 25. The diagnostic testing methods for T. rangeli are the
gambiense. (Objective 5-5) same as those for identifying and confirming and
A. True infection with T. cruzi. (Objectives 5-8, 5-11)
B. False A. True
B. False
18. The enlargement of cervical lymph nodes in reference
to trypanosomal disease caused by T.b. gambiense is 26. The phrase that best describes the infection associated
referred to as: (Objective 5-1) with T. rangeli is that it: (Objective 5-6)
A. Chancre A. Mimics that of individuals infected with T. cruzi
B. Kerandel’s sign B. Causes South American sleeping sickness
C. Winterbottom’s sign C. Is considered a benign infection
D. Somnolence D. Produces Winterbottom’s sign

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27. Which of the following is not a prevention and control 8. In which geographic regions would the laboratorian
measure for T. rangeli? (Objective 5-7) most likely suspect P. ovale as the infecting agent?
A. Use of DDT to control reduviid bug populations (Objective 6-2)
B. Better housing construction A. Tropical Africa
C. Removing overgrown vegetation B. Asia
D. Educational programs in endemic area C. South America
D. All of the above
CHAPTER 6
9. Which of the following is considered an antimalarial
1. The infective stage of Plasmodium is (are) the: medication? (Objective 6-9A)
(Objective A. Amoxicillin
6-6) B. Erythromycin
A. Merozoites C. Chloroquine
B. Oocyst D. Dicyclomine
C. Sporozoites
D. Gametocytes 10. Which morphologic form is not typically seen in
infections
2. The best time to collect blood for Plasmodium parasites of P. malariae? (Objective 6-7B)
is: (Objective 6-10) A. Mature schizont
A. Between paroxysms B. Ring form
B. During paroxysms C. Immature schizont
C. Morning D. Macrogametocyte
D. Evening
11. Which of the following are morphologic features of
3. A paroxysm is: (Objective 6-1) P. malariae? (Objective 6-12A)
A. An allergic reaction A. Schüffner’s dots
B. A periodic episode characterized by fever, chills, B. Ziemann’s dots
sweats, and fatigue C. Maurer’s dots
C. Both A and B are correct. D. None of the above
D. None of the above
12.Which of the following is not a prevention and control
4. Which morphologic characteristic may help in measure for malaria? (Objective 6-9B)
distinguishing A. Wearing the hair up
P. vivax from P. falciparum? (Objective 6-11) B. Following prophylactic therapy when traveling to
A. Hemozoin malaria-endemic areas
B. Schüffner’s dots C. Bed netting
C. 72-hour paroxysm D. Proper clothing, such as long-sleeved shirt and
D. None of the above long pants
5. P. vivax characteristically invades: (Objective 6-7A) 13. What age of red blood cell does P. falciparum typically
A. Immature RBCs invade? (Objective 6-7A)
B. Senescent RBCs A. Mature red blood cells
C. All RBCs B. Immature red blood cells
D. Lymphocytes C. All red blood cells, regardless of age
D. Does not invade red blood cells
6. The incubation period for P. vivax is generally:
(Objective 14. P. falciparum is commonly found in the United States.
6-8) (Objective 6-2)
A. 6 to 8 days A. True
B. 7 to 10 days B. False
C. 12 to 24 days
D. 10 to 17 days 15. Black water fever can be described by which of the
following: (Objective 6-1)
7. Which morphologic form would be the best choice A. Marked hemoglobinuria
for distinguishing between P. vivax and P. ovale? B. Kidney involvement in P. falciparum infections
(Objective 6-11) C. Caused by P. falciparum–induced red blood cell
A. Mature schizont destruction
B. Ring form D. All of the above
C. Early trophozoite
D. Immature schizont

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16. Humans are an accidental host of Babesia species. 3. The life cycle of Balantidium coli and clinical symptoms
(Objective 6-6) are similar to that of which of the following?
A. True (Objectives 7-11)
B. False A. Isospora belli
B. Entamoeba histolytica
17. The specimen of choice for the recovery of Babesia C. Crytosporidium parvum
is: (Objective 6-10) D. Giardia intestinalis
A. Tissue
B. Cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) 4. Which two factors play an important role in the
C. Stool prognosis
D. Blood of a Balantidum coli infection? (Objective 7-7A)
A. How infection occurred and duration of the
18. Babesiosis is characterized by all the following except: infection
(Objective 6-8) B. Presence of coinfection and duration of the
A. Trophozoites resembling the ring form seen in infection
Plasmodium infections C. Severity of infection and response to treatment
B. A mild to severe hemolytic anemia D. Immunocompetent status and severity of
C. Fever periodicity Infection
D. None of the above
5. All the following are highly recommended when
19. Which of the following are laboratory diagnostic processing
procedures is recommended for specifically identifying T. samples for the identification of Isospora belli
microti? (Objective 6-10) to ensure identification except: (Objective 7-8)
A. Thick and thin blood films A. Iodine wet prep
B. Serologic testing B. Decreased microscope light level
C. PCR techniques C. Modified acid-fast stain
D. Both B and C are correct. D. Saline wet prep
E. None of the above
6. Which stage of reproduction is considered capable of
20. Which of the following is not a location known for initiating another infection of Isospora belli? (Objectives
infection by T. microti? (Objective 6-2) 7-5)
A. California A. Sporozoites
B. North Carolina B. Immature oocysts
C. Mexico C. Merozoites
D. Nantucket D. Mature oocysts
21. For which patient would babesiosis be more severe? 7. Which of the following patients would be more likely
(Objective 6-8) to contract an infection with Isospora belli? (Objective
A. The splenectomized 7-6)
B. The patient with Babesia divergens A. HIV-positive man
C. Older adults B. Female leukemia patient
D. All of the above C. Pig farmer
D. Nursing home resident
Chapter 7
8. Which genus of parasite is most similar to Sarcocystis
1. What makes each member of the the parasites based on morphologic similarities? (Objective 7-11)
discussed A. Isospora
in this chapter similar? (Objective 7-11) B. Blastocystis
A. Presence of cilia C. Entamoeba
B. They are all unicellular. D. Toxoplasma
C. All are intestinal protozoa.
D. Presence of tachyzoites 9. How do humans become infected with Sarcocystis?
(Objectives 7-5)
2. Which structure is always visible in the stained cyst A. Ingestion of uncooked or undercooked beef or
and troph of Balantidium coli? (Objective 7-9A) pork
A. Macronucleus B. Inhalation of oocysts
B. Micronucleus C. Ingestion of animal fecal contaminated food
C. Cilia D. More than one of the above: ________________
D. Ingested bacteria (specify)

9|Page
10. In addition to oocysts, these Sarcocystis morphologic D. Addition of 5% potassium dichromate
forms may be seen in human samples: (Objective 7-5)
A. Packets of eggs 18. The clinical symptoms associated with Cyclospora
B. Single or double sporocysts infections in children are similar to those seen in
C. Clusters of cysts cases of infection by which of the following? (Objectives
D. Groups of sporoblasts 7-11)
A. Naegleria
B. Cryptosporidium
C. Leishmania
11. Which stage of reproduction is considered capable of D. Balantidium
autoinfection of Cryptosporidium? (Objectives 7-5)
A. Intact oocysts 19. The most important Cyclospora prevention step that
B. Merozoites can be taken is: (Objective 7-7C)
C. Gametocytes A. Proper water treatment
D. Sporozoites B. Wearing shoes when walking in sandy soil
C. Insecticide treatment of mosquito breeding areas
12. The permanent stain of choice for the recovery of D. Thoroughly cooking beef and pork.
Cryptosporidium parvum is: (Objective 7-8)
A. Iron hematoxylin 20. How do Microsporidia spores differ from other
B. Modifed acid-fast protozoan
C. Gram spores? (Objective 7-11)
D. Trichrome A. Double outer wall
B. Extruding polar filaments
13. All the following are recommended to prevent and C. Cilia
control an outbreak of Cryptosporidium except: D. Pseudopods
(Objective 7-7C)
A. Proper treatment of water supplies 21. 2Of the following, which laboratory technique is
B. Sterlize equipment using high heat. required for species identification of Microsporidia?
C. Sterilize equipment using full-strength bleach. (Objective 7-8)
D. Sterilize equipment using 5% to 10% household A. Giemsa-stained biopsy material
ammonia. B. Electron microscopy
C. Fecal concentration
14. Which is the best screening method for the D. PAS stain
identification
of Blastocystis hominis? (Objective 7-8) 22. The life cycle of Microsporidia is a complex process in
A. Saline wet prep which both the infective and diagnostic stages are
B. Modified acid-fast stain spores. (Objective 7-5)
C. Iodine wet prep A. True
D. Iron hematoxylin stain B. False

15. Blastocystis hominis is always considered as being 23. All the following are morphologic forms in the life
responsible for clinical symptoms when present in cycle of Toxoplasma gondii except: (Objectives 7-5)
human samples. (Objective 7-6) A. Oocysts
A. True B. Tachyzoites
B. False C. Bradyzoites
D. Sporozoites
16. Which of the following measures that when taken
can prevent the spread of Blastocystis hominis? 24. Human infection of Toxoplasma is initiated in all the
(Objective 7-7C) following ways except: (Objectives 7-5)
A. Avoid swimming in potentially contaminated A. Accidental ingestion of rodent feces
water. B. Ingestion of contaminated undercooked meat
B. Proper sewage treatment from cattle, pigs, or sheep
C. Use insect repellent. C. Transplacental infection
D. Avoid unprotected sex. D. Transfusion of contaminated blood

17. Diagnosis of Cyclospora can be accomplished by all 25. In which geographic area would you be likely to find
the following except: (Objective 7-8) Toxoplasma gondii? (Objective 7-2)
A. Concentration with formalin fixative A. Tropics
B. Flotation methods B. Africa
C. Modified acid-fast stain C. United States

10 | P a g e
D. All of the above B. Child
C. Adult prisoner
26. What is the preferred method of diagnosis for D. Military personnel
Pneumocystis
jiroveci? (Objective 7-8) 6. The morphologic forms recovered in cases of pinworm
A. Histologic stain infection are which of the following? (Objective 8-6)
B. Giemsa stain A. Eggs and adult females
C. Iron hematoxylin stain B. Adult males and females
D. Iodine wet prep C. Eggs and larvae
D. Larvae and adult males
27. Which of the following groups of individuals is
considered 7. Trichuris trichiura eggs are characterized by the
at highest risk for contracting Pneumocystis presence
jiroveci? (Objective 7-6) of which of the following? (Objective 8-10A)
A. Veterans A. Triple-layer cell wall
B. Active military personnel B. Flattened side
C. Immunosuppressed individuals C. Hyaline polar plugs
D. Newborns D. Prominent cytostome

28. Pneumocystis jiroveci is believed to be spread via 8. Of the following choices, the best laboratory diagnosis
which of the following? (Objective 7-5) technique for the recovery of Trichuris trichiura
A. Contaminated water eggs is which of the following? (Objective 8-9)
B. Mosquito bite A. Zinc sulfate flotation
C. Person-to-person B. Modified acid-fast stain
D. Hand-to-mouth C. Ethyl acetate concentration
D. Wright-Giemsa stain

9. Children infected with Trichuris trichiura commonly

CHAPTER 8 suffer from: (Objective 8-7)
A. Mental confusion
1. The junvenile stage of developing nematode worms B. Hemoglobinuria
is referred to as: (Objective 8-1) C. Severe anemia
A. Eggs D. Rectal prolapse
B. Cysts
C. Larvae 10. Individuals contract Ascaris lumbricoides via which of
D. Adults the following? (Objective 8-6)
A. Inhalation
2. Adult nematodes are never recovered in clinical B. Insect bite
samples. (Objective 8-6) C. Ingestion
A. True D. Inappropriate sexual practices
B. False
11. The term that describes the lack of an outer
3. These individuals are prone to experiencing severe mammillated
nematode infections: (Objective 8-7) albuminous coating is called which of the following?
A. Completely healthy individuals with a heavy worm (Objective 8-1)
burden A. Unfertilized
B. Unhealthy individuals who are asymptomatic B. Fertilzed
C. Healthy individuals with a light worm burden C. Corticated
D. Unhealthy individuals with a heavy worm burden D. Decorticated
4. The specimen of choice for the recovery of Enterobius 12. The specimen of choice for the recovery of Ascaris
vermicularis is: (Objective 8-9) lumbricoides eggs is which of the following? (Objective
A. Stool 8-9)
B. Urine A. Stool
C. Cellophane tape prep B. Gallbladder biopsy
D. Tissue biopsy C. Urine
D. Sputum
5. The most likely individual to contract pinworm infection
is(are) a(an): (Objective 8-7) 13. This adult hookworm is characterized by a buccal
A. Older adult cavity that contains teeth. (Objective 8-10A)

11 | P a g e
A. Ancylostoma 21. Trichinosis is acquired via which of the following?
B. Necator (Objective 8-6)
C. Both Ancylostoma and Necator A. Swimming in contaminated water
D. Neither Ancylostoma nor Necator B. Consuming contaminated water
C. Ingestion of contaminated food
14. Individuals contract hookworm via which of the D. Inhalation of contaminated air droplets
following?
(Objective 8-6)
A. Contaminated water
B. Skin penetration 22. The two morphologic stages present in the
C. Insect bite Dracunculus
D. Contaminated food medinensis are which of the following? (Objective
8-6)
15. Which of the following are appropriate Ascaris A. Eggs and larvae
lumbricoides B. Larvae and adults
prevention and control strategies? (Objective C. Eggs and adults
8-8C) D. None of the above
A. Proper water treatment
B. Appropriate food handling 23. The specimen of choice for the recovery of
C. Use of insect repellent Dracunculus
D. Proper sanitation practices medinensis is which of the following? (Objective
8-9)
16. This diagnostic stage of Strongyloides stercoralis is A. Infected ulcer
best seen in stool using fecal concentration techniques: B. Skeletal muscle
(Objective 8-9) C. Stool
A. Eggs D. Blood
B. Rhabditiform larvae
C. Filariform larvae 24. When humans contract Dracunculus medinensis, the
D. Adult worms parasite’s life cycle ceases to continue. (Objective 8-6)
A. True
17. The life cycle of Stronglyoides most resembles that of B. False
which of the following? (Objective 8-12) C. Unable to determine
A. Pinworm
B. Whipworm CHAPTER 9
C. Hookworm
D. Threadworm 1. Speciation of the microfilariae can be done by
E. Human roundworm recognition
of the distribution of nuclei in the tip of the tail
18. The two clinical symptoms most commonly associated and the presence or absence of a delicate transparent
with Trichinella spiralis are which of the following? covering known as the: (Objective 9-1)
(Objective 8-7) A. Flilariform
A. Constipation and abdominal pain B. Cuticle
B. Vomiting urticaria C. Sheath
C. Diarrhea and vomiting D. Nucleus
D. Abdominal pain and diarrhea
2. What type of periodicity is exhibited if microfilariae
19. The specimen of choice for the identification of appear in the blood of an individual at 2:00 p.m. each
Trichinella day? (Objective 9-1)
spiralis is which of the following? (Objective 8-9) A. Nocturnal
A. Cerebral spinal fluid B. Diurnal
B. Stool C. Subperiodic
C. Skeletal muscle D. Biannual
D. Urine
3. Which of the following is similar for all microfilariae
20. The diagnostic stage of Trichinella spiralis is which of discussed? (Objective 9-13)
the following? (Objective 8-6) A. Presence of a sheath
A. Encysted larvae B. Ability to exhibit periodicity
B. Cysts C. Location of the adult worms
C. Eggs D. The basic life cycle
D. Adult worms

12 | P a g e
4. Diagnosis of infection with Wuchereria bancrofti is D. They are found in the skin rather than blood
best accomplished by: (Objective 9-8)
A. Examination of stained peripheral blood taken 11. Skin snips are the specimen of choice for diagnosis of
during the night infection with: (Objective 9-8)
B. Examination of stained tissue biopsy taken during A. Loa loa
the night B. Onchocerca volvulus
C. Use of serologic testing with blood taken during C. Brugia malayi
the day D. Wuchereria bancrofti
D. Examination of stained lymph fluid taken during
the day 12. How are the microfilariae of Mansonella ozzardi
differentiated from those of Ochocerca volvulus?
5. Which of the following, in combination with (Objective 9-13)
albendazole, A. Location of the microfilariae
has proven to be an important drug for the B. Absence of a sheath
treatment of Bancroft’s filariasis? (Objective 9-9C) C. Lack of terminal nuclei in the tail
A. Doxycycline D. Presence of a sheath
B. Ivermectin
C. Metronidazole 13. Which of the following filarial drugs is effective
D. None of the above against Mansonella ozzardi if therapy is necesary?
(Objective 9-9)
6. Which of the following can be used in the differentiation A. Albendazole
and identification of Brugia malayi? (Objective B. Diethylcarbamazine
9-13) C. Doxycycline
A. Absence of a sheath D. Ivermectin
B. Absence of nuclei in the tail
C. Presence of a sheath that is very difficult to observe 14. If a physician suspects an individual has the potential
on Giemsa stain for infection with Mansonella perstans, what specimen
D. Presence of two terminal nuclei in the tail type would you suggest for recovery of the
organism? (Objective 9-8)
7.Select the ideal time period to collect blood samples A. Skin snips
for examination for the presence of the microfilariae B. Lymphatic fluid
of Brugia malayi. (Objective 9-8) C. Blood
A. 10:00 p.m. to 4:00 a.m. D. Infected nodules
B. 10:00 a.m. to 4:00 p.m.
C. 4:00 p.m. to 8:00 p.m. 15. What type of periodicity does Mansonella perstans
D. Any time of the day or night exhibit? (Objective 9-8)
A. Nocturnal
8. A small threadlike worm is observed under the B. Diurnal
conjunctiva C. Subperiodic
of the eye. What organism and form is most D. None
likely? (Objective 9-8)
A. Wuchereria bancrofti adult CHAPTER 10
B. Brugia malayi microfilaria
1. The cestode morphologic form characterized by a
C. Onchocera volvulus larva
segmented appearance that houses male and female
D. Loa loa adult
reproductive structures is referred to as a(an): (Objective
9. What type of periodicity does Loa loa exhibit? 10-1)
(Objective A. Scolex
9-8) B. Proglottid
A. Nocturnal C. Egg
B. Subperiodic D. Cyst
C. Diurnal
2. Characteristics of the cestodes include all the following
D. None
except: (Objective 10-9)
10. How do the microfilariae of Onchocerca volvulus A. They are hermaphroditic.
differ from those of other filarial? (Objective 9-13) B. They generally require intermediate host(s).
A. The presence of a sheath. C. Their laboratory diagnosis consists of finding
B. Nuclei are present continuous to the end of the larvae in feces.
tail D. Their anatomic regions include the scolex, neck,
C. They exhibit diurnal periodicity and strobila

13 | P a g e
3. A persistent cough, localized pain, and liver and lung
involvement are associated with an infection with
which of the following cestodes? (Objective 10-6)
A. Diphyllobothrium latum
B. Echinococcus granulosus
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
4. Which of the following are key distinguishing factors
in differentiating an infection between T. saginata
and T. solium? (Objective 10-9)
A. Egg morphology and number of uterine branches
in proglottid
B. Presence of hooklets on scolex and egg
morphology
C. Presence of hooklets and number of uterine
branches in proglottid
D. Egg morphology and presence of suckers on
Scolex
5. The primary means of developing an intestinal infection
with Taenia spp. is via which of the following?
(Objective 10-5)
A. Skin penetration of larvae
B. Ingestion of raw or poorly cooked meat
C. Egg consumption
D. Drinking contaminated water
6. Which is the preferred drug for treating intestinal
infection by Taenia spp.? (Objective 10-7)
A. Praziquantel
B. Penicillin
C. Nicolasamide
D. Pentamidine
7. Which of the following is characteristic of an H.
diminuta egg? (Objective 10-10A)
A. Spherical, with radial striations
B. Ellipsoid, with terminal polar plugs
C. Oval, with thin shell and polar filaments
D. Oval, with polar thickenings and no filaments
8. The infective stage of H. diminuta for humans is
which of the following? (Objective 10-5)
A. Rhabditiform larva
B. Cysticeroid larva
C. Embryonated egg
D. Encysted form
9. Prevention and control measures against H. diminuta
include all except which of the following? (Objective
10-7B)
A. Vaccination program
B. Effective rodent control
C. Inspection of food prior to consumption
D. Protection of food from rodents
10. A primary differential feature between an H. nana
egg and H. diminuta egg is which of the following?
(Objective 10-9)
A. A flattened side for H. diminuta egg
B. A thick shell for H. nana egg
C. Polar filaments in H. nana egg
D. Radial striations in H. diminuta egg
11. The characteristic of the life cycle of H. nana that
differentiates it from the other cestodes is which of
the following? (Objective 10-9)
A. Lack of an intermediate host.
B. Infective larval stage.
C. Need for external environment
D. Larval passage through the lungs
12. Which of the following does not apply to H. nana?
(Objectives 10-3, 10-6, 10-7A, 10-7B)
A. Dwarf tapeworm
B. Steatorrhea
C. Proper hygiene and sanitation procedures
D. Praziquantel therapy
13. A unique characteristic of Dipylidium caninum is
which of the following? (Objective 10-10A)
A. Lack of suckers on the scolex
B. Formation of egg packets
C. Proglottid resemblance to Taenia solium
D. Alternation of female and male proglottids
14. A 2-year-old girl and her pet dog were diagnosed
with D. caninum infection. This infection was acquired
by which of the following? (Objective 10-5)
A. Ingestion of the parasite’s egg
B. Penetration of soil larva
C. Ingestion of a flea
D. Consumption of poorly cooked beef
15. Prevention and control measures to prevent D.
caninum infection include all except which of the
following? (Objective 10-7B)
A. Treat dog and cat pets to prevent fleas.
B. Warn children against dog and cat licks.
C. Deworm dog and cat pets, as needed.
D. Neuter dog and cat pets.
16. The egg of D. latum is unique among the cestodes in
that it contains which of the following? (Objective
10-10A)
A. An operculum and terminal knob
B. Radial striations and oncosphere
C. An operculum and lateral spine
D. A ciliated rhabditiform larva
17. Which of the following associations is correct for D.
latum? (Objective 10-5)
A. Snail-coracidium
B. Copepod-procercoid
C. Fish-cysticercus
14 | P a g e
D. Beetle-pleurocercoid 5. The determination of Fasciolopsis versus Fasciola can
only be accomplished in the laboratory by the recovery
18. The primary pathology associated with a D. latum of which of the following? (Objective 11-5)
infection is which of the following? (Objective 10-6) A. Eggs
A. Eosinophilic pneumonitis B. Larvae
B. Vitamin D deficiency C. Adults
C. Vitamin B12 deficiency D. Sporocysts
D. Fat malabsorption
6. The eggs of Fasciolopsis and Fasciola possess a caplike
19. Which of the following procedures would not be structure from which their contents are released
appropriate for diagnosing an infection with Echinococcus under the appropriate conditions; this is called a (an):
granulosus? (Objective 10-8) (Objective 11-1)
A. Serologic procedure, such as ELISA A. Operculum
B. O&P examination of stool specimen B. Shoulder
C. CT scan of suspect organ C. Coracidium
D. Biopsy of cyst D. Digenea
20. In humans, Echinococcus granulosus infection results 7. The number of Clonorchis cases has tripled in which
in which of the following? (Objective 10-5) country because of aquaculture? (Objective 11-2)
A. Eggs similar to those of H. nana A. Japan
B. A nutritional deficiency B. Vietnam
C. A hydatid cyst C. China
D. Filariform larva D. Korea
21. Which of the following is not a usual site for 8. What procedures must be done to recover the adult
Echinococcus form of Clonorchis sinensis? (Objective 11-8)
granulosus infection in humans? (Objective A. Direct examination of stool and after autopsy
10-8) B. Direct and concentration examinations of stool
A. Brain C. Following surgery and after autopsy
B. Liver D. Following surgery and duodenal aspiration
C. Lung
D. Genitalia 9. Which of the following is a recommended prevention
and control strategy designed to halt the spread of
CHAPTER 11 Clonorchis? (Objective 11-7B)
A. Consuming raw, pickled, freshwater fish
1. The first intermediate host for all the trematodes is B. Protecting food from flies
which of the following? (Objective 11-5) C. Avoidance of swimming in fresh water
A. Fish D. Proper human and reservoir host fecal disposal
B. Snail
C. Shrimp 10. The key feature that distinguishes Heterophyes from
D. Water plant Clonorchis is which of the following? (Objective 11-9)
A. Size
2. Adult trematodes are readily recoverable in clinical B. Shape
samples. (Objective 11-5) C. Appearance of shoulders
A. True D. Location of operculum
B. False
11. The treatment of choice for Heterophyes and
3. Individuals suffering from trematode infections Metagonimus
experience is which of the following? (Objective 11-7A)
a variety of species-dependent symptoms. A. Niclosamide
(Objective 11-6) B. Praziquantel
A. True C. Pyrantel pamoate
B. False D. Metronidazole
4. Fasciolopsis buski infects which organ in humans? 12. The specimen of choice for the recovery of
(Objective 11-5) Heterophyes
A. Bile ducts and Metagonimus is which of the following?
B. Liver (Objective 11-8)
C. Colon A. Stool
D. Small intestine B. Duodenal contents

15 | P a g e
C. Urine 2. Which of the following characteristics can help
D. Sputum differentiate
vegetable spirals from helminth larvae?
13. In addition to its typical location, Paragonimus eggs (Objective 11-1)
are also known to cause serious complications when A. Presence of head or tail region
recovered in which of the following? (Objective 11-8) B. Ladder-like appearance
A. Bile C. Characteristic worm shape
B. Cerebrospinal fluid D. Length of spiral
C. Brain tissue
D. Feces 3. What is the clinical significance of the presence of
Charcot-Leyden crystals in a stool or sputum specimen?
14. A key feature that distinguishes Paragonimus from (Objective 12-2)
the other trematode eggs is which of the following? A. Indicative of an immune response of unknown
(Objective 11-9) origin
A. Prominent operculum B. Indicative of a parasitic infection
B. Obvious terminal shell thickening C. Indicative of a bacterial infection
C. Discrete shoulders D. Not a significant finding
D. Three pairs of hooklets
4. Plant material differs from a helminth eggs in that
15. The typical transmission route of Paragonimus to plant material may have peripheral pseudocilia.
humans consists of which of the following? (Objective (Objective 12-1)
11-5) A. True
A. Consumption of contaminated crayfish or crabs B. False
B. Swimming in contaminated water
C. Hand-to-mouth contamination 5. Which parasite may be confused with epithelial
D. Walking barefoot on contaminated sandy soil cells because of their similar size and shape? (Objective
12-1)
16. The adults of this species of Schistosoma dwell in A. Helminth eggs
the veins surrounding the urinary bladder: (Objective B. Plasmodium spp.
11-5) C. Amebic trophozoites
A. S. haematobium D. Dientamoeba fragilis
B. S. mansoni
C. S. japonicum 6. The major feature that distinguishes starch cells
D. All of the above from protozoan cysts is which of the following?
(Objective 12-1)
17. The specimen of choice for the recovery of A. Presence of bacteria in the cytoplasm
Schistosoma B. Unusually large size
japonicum is which of the following? (Objective C. Shape
11-8) D. Lack of defined internal structures
A. Tissue biopsy
B. Urine 7. Which of these characteristics distinguish(es) stain
C. Sputum precipitate from malarial parasites? (Objective 12-1)
D. Stool A. Color
B. Size
18. A systemic hypersensitivity reaction caused by the C. Shape
presence of Schistosoma is called which of the following? D. More than one: __(A B C D)_________ (specify)
(Objective 1-1)
A. Bilharziasis
B. Katayama fever
C. Swamp fever Chapter 13
D. Schistosomiasis
1. All arthropods possess a hemocele at some point in
CHAPTER 12 their life cycle. (Objective 13-6)
A. True
1. Which of the following findings can help differentiate B. False
WBCs from amebic cysts? (Objective 11-1) C. Unable to determine
A. Size
B. Number of nuclei
C. Absence of protozoan nuclear inclusions
D. None of the above

16 | P a g e
2. Arthropods that live in or on human skin are referred B. Pediculus spp.
to as which of the following? (Objective 13-1) C. Ornithodorus spp.
A. Larvae D. Dermatophagoides spp.
B. Pronotal ctenidia
C. Ectoparasites 9. The best way to remove mites from infected clothing
D. Pupae and linens is to do which of the following? (Objective
13-10)
A. Wash in cold water; fluff dry.
B. Wash in warm water; fluff dry.
C. Wash in warm water; dry at medium heat.
D. Wash in hot water; dry at high heat.
3. Vertical transmission occurs when an arthropod does
which of the following? (Objective 13-1)
A. Bites a unsuspecting human
B. Ingests human blood 10. Which type of spider is noted for its tendency to
C. Passes infective agents to offspring remain out of plain sight? (Objective 13-5)
D. Comes in contact with insecticides A. Brown recluse
B. Hobo
4. The morphologic form in the tick life cycle that most C. Black widow
closely resembles an adult is which of the following?
(Objective 13-1) 11. The most venomous spider in North America is which
A. Cysts of the following? (Objective 13-5)
B. Eggs A. Brown recluse
C. Larvae B. Hobo
D. Nymphs C. Black widow
5. Ixodes ticks (deer ticks) can be found throughout the 12. Antivenin is a possible treatment for older adults
United States. Those in the New England area may who have encountered which of these spider(s)?
be responsible for transmitting which of the following (Objective 13-10)
diseases? (Objectives 13-7 and 13-8) A. Brown recluse
1. Malaria B. Hobo
2. Babesia C. Black widow
3. Trypanosomiasis D. More than one: __________ (specify)
4. Lyme disease
A. 1, 2, and 3 are correct 13. Unlike the other arachnids discussed in this chapter,
B. 1 and 3 are correct scorpions are equipped with a designated pair of
C. 2 and 4 are correct clawlike legs used to hold their prey. (Objective 13-5)
D. Only 4 is correct A. True
E. None are correct B. False
C. Unable to determine
6. The presence of which of these tick anatomic parts
in human skin is known to be responsible for 14. With each molting, developing scorpions change
severe tissue reactions and secondary infections? morphologically and increase in size. (Objective 13-6)
(Objective 13-9) A. True
A. Legs B. False
B. Mouthparts C. Unable to determine
C. Antennae
D. Wings 15. Healthy individuals are at the greatest risk of
developing
7. The typically mite evolves from eggs to adults in this serious complications following the bite of a
time frame. (Objective 13-6) scorpion. (Objective 13-9)
A. 2 days A. True
B. 2 weeks B. False
C. 2 months C. Unable to determine
D. 2 years
16. This distinguishing feature allows fleas to move
8. Which of the following genera contain the organisms quickly. (Objective 13-5)
responsible for the disease scabies caused by the itch A. Presence of pronotal ctenidia
mite? (Objective 13-8 and 13-11) B. Absence of eyes
A. Sarcoptes spp. C. Extra long rear pair of legs

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D. A and C are correct C. 27 days
D. 30 days
17. The Oriental rat flea, Xenopsylla cheopis, can be
involved in transmitting which of the following 24. To treat lice infections successfully, which morphologic
microorganisms? forms are necessary to destroy? (Objective
(Objective 13-8) 13-10)
A. Rickettsia typhi A. Eggs and larvae
B. Hymenolepis nana B. Eggs and adults
C. Yersinia pestis C. Larvae and adults
D. Plasmodium spp. D. Eggs, larvae, and adults
E. A and C are correct
25. The three segments of a mosquito are which of the
18. The treatment of choice for flea infestations is which following? (Objective 13-5)
of the following? (Objective 13-10) A. Head, thorax, and abdomen
A. Topical antiflea cream B. Thorax, abdomen, and pelvis
B. Prescription antiflea medication C. Head, neck, and thorax
C. Soaking infected area in hot, soapy water D. Thorax, neck, and pelvis
D. Complete aseptic removal
26. Which of the following mosquitoes are responsible
19. Flies are identified and speciated based on which of for transmitting Plasmodium spp. parasites? (Objective
the following characteristics? (Objective 13-5) 13-8)
A. Two body sections, three pair of legs, one pair of A. Culex spp.
antennae, two sets of wings B. Anopheles spp.
B. Three body sections, four pair of legs, one pair of C. Aedes spp.
antennae, two sets of wings D. Armigeres spp.
C. Two body sections, three pair of legs, no pair of
antennae, no wings 27. For the mosquito life cycle to continue, these
D. Three body sections, three pair of legs, one pair arthropods
of antennae, two sets of wings must lay their eggs in or near which of the
following? (Objective 13-6)
20. The process that flies undergo in development A. Sand
characterized B. Water
by distinct larval stages is known as which C. Rocks
of the following? (Objective 13-1) D. Grass
A. Myiasis
B. Vertical transmission 28. Which of the following features are found in all
C. Metamorphosis bugs at some point during their development? (Objective
D. Nymphosis 13-5)
A. Three pairs of legs and wings
21. The major symptom most often experienced by B. Wings and rudimentary mouth
individuals C. Three pairs of legs and webbed feet
who have been bitten by a fly is which of the D. Rudimentary mouth and webbed feet
following? (Objective 13-9)
A. Fever and chills 29. The most notable symptom humans experience as a
B. Allergic reaction result of encounters with bugs is which of the following?
C. Irritated and painful bite site (Objective 13-9)
D. Difficulty breathing A. Breathing difficulties
B. Nausea and vomiting
22. This type of louse is characterized by hair extremities. C. Diarrhea and abdominal cramping
(Objective 13-5) D. Intense itching at bite site
A. Head louse
B. Body louse 30. How do cockroaches affect the health of humans?
C. Crab louse (Objectives 13-6 and 13-8)
D. Foot louse A. They transmit diseases during a blood meal on the
human host.
23. The typical life span for adult lice is which of the B. They are capable of vertical transmission of rickettsial
following? diseases.
(Objective 13-6) C. They carry and transmit diseases by mechanical
A. 18 days transfer to uncovered food.
B. 24 days D. None of the above

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