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1. Who among these is an ancient linguist of India?

a) Patanjali
b) Tista Bagchi
c) Noam Chomsky
d) Kshetresa Chandra Chattopadhyaya
Answer: a
Explanation: Linguistics is the study of language. Patanjali, the ancient linguist of India, considered it as a human ex
pression uttered out by speech organs. The other three are modern linguists belonging to 19th and 20th century.

2. Which of these people perceives language as a means to interpret human experience?

a) Anthropologist
b) Sociologist
c) Philosopher
d) Students of literature
Answer: c
Explanation: Language means different things to different people. To an anthropologist, it is a form of cultural beha
viour whereas to a sociologist, it is a means of communication between members of a social group. Students of litera
ture may consider it as an artistic medium, while those of philosophy may consider it a means to interpret human ex
perience.

3. Language is a social phenomenon.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Language is a social phenomenon. Man may not have needed a language if he had not made himself a
part of a social group. A language must thus convey social realities if it is to become an effective means of communi
cation.

4. Which of these words is based on the phenomena, ‘Onomatopoeia’?

a) Cuckoo
b) Book
c) Door
d) Blackboard
Answer: a
Explanation: Language is arbitrary, that is there is no logical link between any gjven feature of a language and its me
aning. The only exception is in the case of onomatopoeia, where the words imitate the sounds of their referents. Her
e, cuckoo is the sound made by the bird which is how the bird got its name.

5. Which of these is not a type of linguistics?

a) Historical
b) Personal
c) Comparative
d) Synchronic
Answer: b
Explanation: Linguistics is a scientific study of language. It can be divided into three types namely: Historical or Dia
chronic Linguistics, Synchronic Linguistics and Comparative Linguistics.

6. Which of these finds out how a certain set of people use a language at a given time?
a) Diachronic Linguistics
b) Comparative Linguistics
c) Synchronic Linguistics
d) Historical Linguistics
Answer: c
Explanation: Synchronic Linguistics finds out how a certain set of people use a language at a given time. Historical
or Diachronic Linguistics studies the link between language and history. Comparative Linguistics studies the compar
ison between two or more languages.

7. Which of these is not a level of language?

a) Phonology
b) Grammar
c) Running
d) Semantics
Answer: c
Explanation: R.H. Robins recommends three levels of structure of language. These are phonology, grammar and se
mantics.

8. Which of these terms refers to the study of speech sounds of a given language and their function within the sound
system of that language?

a) Phonetics
b) Phonology
c) Syntax
d) Morphology
Answer: b
Explanation: Phonology refers to the study of speech sounds of a given language and their function within the sound
system. Phonetics is the study of speech process. Syntax and Morphology are sub-levels of the grammatical system.

9. Which of these is the study of meaning of words, and the development of the meaning of words?

a) Morphemics
b) Phonetics
c) Semantics
d) Syntax
Answer: c
Explanation: Semantics is the study of the meaning of words, and the developments of the meaning of words. The s
mallest unit of semantics is semene, which is the minimum functional unit of meaning.

10.

a) 1) – Phonetics and 2) – Phonology


b) 1) – Syntax and 2) – Morphology
c) 1) – Syntax and 2) – Phonetics
d) 1) – Phonetics and 2) – Morphology
Answer: b
Explanation: Grammatical level can be divided into 2 broad levels. These are Syntax and Morphology. Syntax is the
science to study and lay down the rules regarding the grammatical arrangement of words in a sentence. Morphology
is the study and analysis of the structure, form and classes of words.

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1. Which of these terms refer to the study of speech process?

a) Phonology
b) Phonetic substances
c) Phonetics
d) Semantics
Answer: c
Explanation: Phonetics is the study of speech processes. It includes the anatomy, neurology and pathology of speech
. It also includes the articulation, classification and perception of speech sounds. It shouldn’t be confused with Phon
ology, which is the study of speech sounds of a given language and their function within the sound system of that la
nguage; or Semantics, which is a field of Linguistics that is primarily concerned with meaning in various languages.

2. Which of these is not a type of phonetics?

a) Articulatory
b) Personal
c) Acoustic
d) Auditory
Answer: b
Explanation: Phonetics can be divided into three main branches. These are Articulatory phonetics, Accoustic phoneti
cs and Auditory phonetics.

3. Articulatory phonetics is the study of physical properties of speech sounds.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Articulatory phonetics is the study of the movement of the speech organs while words are being uttered
. Acoustic phonetics is the study of physical properties of speech sounds which include frequency and amplitude.

4. Which of these terms refer to the study of hearing and perception of speech sounds?

a) Articulatory phonetics
b) Acoustic phonetics
c) Auditory phonetics
d) Laboratory phonetics
Answer: c
Explanation: Auditory phonetics is the study of hearing and perception of speech sounds. Articulatory phonetics dea
ls with the movement of speech organs whereas Acoustic phonetics deals with the physical properties of speech sou
nds.

5. Laboratory phonetics is a branch which uses instruments to study sounds.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Laboratory phonetics is experimental phonetics which uses instruments ( both mechanical and electroni
cs) to study sounds.

6. What is the term used for ingressive air-sounds produced?

a) Claps
b) Snap
c) Clicks
d) Beats
Answer: c
Explanation: Normally, speech sounds are produced on egressive pulmonic air-stream during exhilaration. In few ca
ses, ingressive air sounds are also made. Such speech sounds are called clicks.

7. Which of these refer to the sound features of a language?

a) Morphemics
b) Phonetic substances
c) Phonetics
d) Syntax
Answer: b
Explanation: Phonetic substances refer to the sound features of a language, as studied by articulatory, acoustic and a
uditory phonetics. It is different from Phonetics, which studies the kinds of sounds made by human speech using the
speech organs; and also different from Morphemics, which is the synchronic study of words.

8. What does the phonetic symbol d represent?

a) Voiced bilabial plosive


b) Voiceless palatal plosive
c) Voiced alveolor plosive
d) Voiced dental fricative
Answer: c
Explanation: The symbol d refers to Voiced alveolor plosive. The symbol b refers to Voiced bilabial plosive and c re
fers to Voiceless palatal plosive.

9. What is the full form of IPA?

a) Indian Phonetic Alphabet


b) International Phonetic Alphabet
c) International Phonetic Agreement
d) Indian Phonetic Agreement
Answer: b
Explanation: IPA is International Phonetic Alphabet which provides a uniform international medium for studying an
d transcribing sounds of all languages of the world. In case of English, it assists in creating international intelligibilit
y in pronunciation.

10. What does the sign /\xa0\xa0/ represent?

a) Phonetic transcription
b) Centralization
c) Voiced bilabial nasal
d) Rising- falling pitch
Answer: a
Explanation: Phonetic transcription is represented by / /. Centralization is represented by “. Voiced bilabial nasal is r
epresented by m.

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1. The nucleus of the syllable is the vowel.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: A syllable is a unit of pronunciation which consists only a vowel or a vowel and a consonant. The nucl
eus of the syllable is the vowel; the consonant is its marginal element.

2. What is a consonant called when it is placed at the end of a syllable?

a) Releasing consonant
b) Arresting consonant
c) Dental consonant
d) Alveolar consonant
Answer: b
Explanation: When a consonant is placed at the end of a syllable, it is called an arresting consonant. When it is place
d at the beginning of a syllable, it is called a releasing consonant.

3. What is the structure in the following syllable : pack?

a) CVC
b) CV
c) VCC
d) VC
Answer: a
Explanation: In CVC, C stands for consonant and V stands for vowel. For the word pack, the first letter p is a conso
nant. The last two letters c and k are also consonants, but they come together to make a single sound. Between these
two consonants, there’s the vowel a. Hence the structure of the word would be CVC.

4. f and z are examples of :

a) Bilabial consonant
b) Sibilant consonant
c) Dental consonant
d) Alveolar consonant
Answer: b
Explanation: A consonant is a letter of the alphabet which represents a sound that can only be articulated with a vow
el. Sibilant consonant like f and z are exceptions which can be pronounced without the help of a vowel.

5. Which of the following is a voiceless sound component?

a) b
b) d
c) c
d) g
Answer: c
Explanation: The voiced sounds in English are l,b,d,g,v,z,m,n,r,w,j, that is, the vocal cords must be used in order to
produce the sound made by these letters. All vocoids and semi-vowels are voiced sounds. The letter c’s sound on the
other hand, can be made without using one’s voice. Hence, c is a voiceless sound component.

6. According to the place of articulation, which of these is not a type of consonant?

a) Bilabial
b) Dental
c) Velar
d) Public
Answer: d
Explanation: According to the place of articulation, consonants are classified into 9 types. These are Bilabial, Dental
, Labio-dental, Alveolar, Post-alveolar, Palato-alveolar, Palatal, Velar and Glottal.

7. Which of these consonants are the one whose place of articulation is the lower lip and upper teeth?

a) Bilabial
b) Dental
c) Labio-dental
d) Glottal
Answer: c
Explanation: For the labio-dental consonant, the place of articulation is the lower lip and the upper teeth whereas for
the bilabial consonant, it is the upper and lower ljp. For the dental consonant, it is the teeth and tip of the tounge.

8. According to the placement of the tongue, which of these is not a type of vowel?

a) Cross vowels
b) Front vowels
c) Back vowels
d) Central vowels
Answer: a
Explanation: The classification of vowels can be made into three depending on the placement of the tongue. These a
re front vowels, back vowels and central vowels.

9. As per quality, vowels sounds can be differentiated as Monopthongs and Dipthongs.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Vowel sounds can be differentiated as per their quality as Monopthongs and Dipthongs. Monopthongs
are pure vowels, because theydo not change in quality. Dipthongs are gliding vowels, and they change their quality c
ontinually.

10. Which of the following vowels is an example of back vowel?

a) i
b) e:
c) u
d) a
Answer: c
Explanation: Back vowels are pronounced by placing the back of the tongue towards the soft palate. Examples of su
ch vowels are /o,u,u:/

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1. Which of these is not an article?

a) An
b) A
c) This
d) The
Answer: c
Explanation: A, an and the are called articles in English grammar. An is used before a vowel or silent h. The word ‘t
his’ can be a pronoun (Eg: This is my seat.); or a determiner (Eg: This cake is the tastiest one.)
2. A is used before a vowel sounding like a consonant.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: A is used before a consonant or a vowel sounding like a consonant. For example, A man, a unit, a usef
ul thing, a one rupee- note.

3. What are a, an and the collectively called?

a) Indefinite articles
b) Demonstrative adjectives
c) Definite articles
d) Demonstrative adverbs
Answer: b
Explanation: A, an and the are adjectives. They are called demonstrative adjectives. A and an are indefinite articles a
nd the is called a definite article.

4. Fill in the blank with article :

a) A
b) An
c) This
d) That
Answer: a
Explanation: Articles are classified into two types. They are indefinite and definite articles. Indefinite articles are a a
nd an. Definite article includes only the. The correct statement is : A child must respect his parents.

5. Which if these belong to indefinite articles?

a) A
b) A and an
c) An and the
d) A and the
Answer: b
Explanation: A and an are called the indefinite articles because they leave indefinite the person or thing spoken of. T
hus, a boy means any boy. The is a definite article.

6. Which of these belong to definite articles?

a) A and the
b) The
c) A and an
d) An and the
Answer: b
Explanation: The is called a definite article because it speaks of some particular person or thing. Example : He is the
boy who teased me. A and an are indefinite articles.

7. The indefinite article is used when a singular noun is meant to represent a whole class.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The definite article the is used when a singular noun is meant to represent a whole class. For example,
The cow is a mammal.

8. Fill in the blank : Bismillah Khan plays _____ shehnai with great skill.

a) a
b) an
c) the
d) a or the
Answer: c
Explanation: Here we will use the definite article the. The is used before musical instruments as in the above questio
n. The is also used before the names of certain books. Example, The Mahabharat.

9. Correct the incorrect statement :

a) How gentle a person Mr. Bhatia is!


b) How gentle the person Mr. Bhatia is!
c) How gentle person the Mr. Bhatia is!
d) How a gentle person Mr. Bhatia is!
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct statement would be ‘How gentle a person Mr. Bhatia is!’. We use a or an before a single co
untable noun.

10. Fill in the blank : Neha has left for ___ United States of America.

a) a
b) the
c) an
d) to
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement will be – Neha has left for the United States of America. Usually, countries aren’t prece
ded by any article, but the nations that are a union or which are united states, are preceded by the definite article ‘the
’. Eg: The United States of America, The People’s Republic of China

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1. Articles are usually omitted before proper nouns.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Articles are usually omitted before proper nouns. For example, Shakespeare had a comprehensive soul.
An article used before a proper noun makes it a common noun.

2. In which of these cases, the article is not omitted?

a) Before names of materials


b) Before names of relations
c) Before the names of certain books
d) Before languages
Answer: c
Explanation: Before the names of certain books, the definite article the is used. For example, The Mahabharat . Befo
re languages, names of materials and relations, articles are omitted.
3. What does the word in bold letters refer to?

a) Hardly
b) Not much
c) Scarcely
d) Wasn’t
Answer: b
Explanation: little is used chiefly with better or more in formal english. For example, His second composition was lit
tle (= not much) better than his first.

4. Choose the correct statement.

a) Her brother is an engineer.


b) Her brother is a engineer.
c) Her brother is the engineer.
d) Her brother is engineer.
Answer: a
Explanation: When we define or classify someone or something we use a/an + singular count noun. In the above que
stion, the noun starts with a vowel, so we use an.

5. When we mention someone or something for the first time, we use the.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: When we mention someone or something for the first time, we use a/ an not the. When we mention the
same person or thing again, we use the. For example: I saw a dog on the street today. The dog looked hungry.

6. Correct the statement :

a) Family is the unit of society.


b) Family is a unit of society.
c) Family is unit of society.
d) The family is unit of society.
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is : Family is a unit of society. We use a or an as per the sound of the vowel and
not the actual vowel. Here the vowel u is pronounced as yoo.

7. Fill in the blank : He is ___ honest lawyer.

a) a
b) an
c) the
d) very
Answer: b
Explanation: Usually, if the first letter of the word is a consonant, it is preceded by the article a. However, there are s
ome exceptions. The word honest is one such exception. Its first letter is a consonant, but the first syllable of the wor
d is a vowel-like sound. Hence, it should be preceded by an.

8. Little as an adverb can’t be used with which one of these?

a) Verbs
b) Unfavourable adjectives
c) Countable nouns
d) Comparative adverbs
Answer: c
Explanation: The word little has different usages as an adverb. It can be used as with verbs (Eg: The sun came out a
little during the day.), with unfavourable adjectives (Eg: His looked a little worse today compared to yesterday.), and
so on. However, when dealing with magnitudes and quantities, the word little can only be used if the quantity can’t
be counted or assigned a proper value.

9. Find the correct statement.

a) Sun rises in the east.


b) The sun rises in the east.
c) Sun rises in east.
d) The sun rises in east.
Answer: b
Explanation: We use the before names of things that are unique like the sun, the sky, the sea, etc. We also use the wh
en we emphasise to a specific direction.

10. Fill in the blanks : ___ more you concentrate, ___ better you become.

a) the, a
b) the, the
c) a, a
d) the, then
Answer: b
Explanation: The is always used an adverb with comparative. Here as the sentence is comparative, we use the in bot
h the places.

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1. A preposition is placed before which of these?

a) Noun
b) Verb
c) Adjective
d) Noun or pronoun
Answer: d
Explanation: A preposition is a word placed before a noun or a pronoun to show in what relation the person or thing
denoted by it stands in regard to something else. For example: There is a dog in the garden. For this sentence, the pr
eposition is in, and it is placed before the noun garden. Another example is: The boy’s cellphone lay beside him. In t
his sentence, the preposition is beside, and it precedes the pronoun him.

2. The noun or pronoun which is used with a preposition is called its object.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The noun or pronoun which is used with a preposition is called its object. It is in the accusative case an
d is said to be governed by the preposition. Example: There is a dog in the garden. The noun ‘garden’ is in the accus
ative case governed by the preposition ‘in’.

3. In which of these cases, the preposition is always placed at the end?


a) Relative pronoun
b) Reciprocal pronoun
c) Possessive pronoun
d) Reflexive pronoun
Answer: a
Explanation: The preposition is always placed at the end when the object is an interrogative or a relative pronoun. F
or example: Here is the money that you asked for. , What are you thinking of.

4. Which of these is not a simple preposition?

a) From
b) Through
c) Above
d) With
Answer: c
Explanation: At, by, for, from, in, of, off, as, out, through, till, to, up, with are simple prepositions. Compound prepo
sitions are generally formed by prefixing a preposition to a noun, adjective or an adverb. Example, above.

5. Phrase prepositions are group of words used with the force of single preposition.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Phrase prepositions are group of words used with the force of single preposition. Examples are in addit
ion to, in place of, in spite of, etc.. For example: Call me in case of an emergency.

6. Fill in the blank: He acted ________ my instructions.

a) agreeable to
b) according to
c) in favour of
d) in course of
Answer: b
Explanation: Here we use a phrase preposition, according to. The correct statement will be: He acted according to m
y instructions.

7. Which of these is a participial?

a) Underneath
b) Beside
c) Considering
d) Along with
Answer: c
Explanation: Participials are present participles of verbs which are used absolutely without any noun or pronoun bei
ng attached to them. For all practical purposes, they have become prepositions. In the above question, the word Cons
idering is the present continuous tense of the word consider, and it’s used as a participial preposition. Example: Con
sidering his age, the Sports Council felt that he was too old to be in the international team.

8. Correct the incorrect statement :

a) I do not agree with his proposal.


b) I do not agree for his proposal.
c) I do not agree on his proposal.
d) I do not agree at his proposal.
Answer: a
Explanation: Here the correct statement is: I do not agree with his proposal. Frequent mistakes are made through wr
ong use of prepositions in certain idiomatic usage.

9. Fill in the blank: We walked ___ the river and back.

a) till
b) to
c) at
d) about
Answer: b
Explanation: The preposition used here is- to. Do not use wrong prepositions. To is used with distance and till or unt
il with time.

10. Fill in with appropriate preposition : I have not seen the television ______ yesterday.

a) from
b) since
c) till
d) for
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct preposition here would be- since. Since is used before a noun or a phrase, which denotes so
me point of time. It is preceded by a verb in perfect tense.

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1. Which of these relations is not indicated by prepositions?

a) Place
b) Age
c) Time
d) Manner
Answer: b
Explanation: Prepositions normally indicate nine relations. These are place, time, agency, manner, cause, possession
, measure, contrast, inference.

2. Which of the options draws a relation between the preposition and manner?

a) Fought among themselves


b) Came before time
c) Cut it with a knife
d) Fought with courage
Answer: d
Explanation: The phrase in which the preposition is related with manner is: Fought with courage, as it describes the
manner with which the action was done. In the phrase: Fought among themselves, the preposition is related with pla
ce; in the phrase: Came before time, it is related to time; and in the phrase: Cut with a knife, the preposition is relate
d with a possession, that is the knife.

3. In the phrase, love for humanity, the preposition is related to possession.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false as it is related to cause and not to possession. An example of a phrase where the
preposition is related to possession is ‘The girl with red dress’.

4. Fill in the blank: He lives ___ Bezonbagh ___ Nagpur.

a) in, at
b) at, in
c) at, on
d) on, at
Answer: b
Explanation: In is used with name of countries and large towns. However, at is used for small towns and villages. So
the statement will be, He lives at Bezonbagh in Nagpur.

5. Fill in: The cat sprang ___ me.

a) on
b) upon
c) in
d) at
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is: The cat sprang upon me. The preposition on is often used when speaking of things w
hich are at rest, and upon is used for things in motion. Example of on: the cat sat on the mat. In is used when speakin
g of location (He is in China.), or manner (He was in great pain). At is used for location (No one is at home right no
w.), or for time (The appointment is at 10 o’clock.)

6. Choose the correct statement:

a) She walked till the end of the road.


b) She walked to the end of the road.
c) She walked at the end of the road.
d) She walked on the end of the road.
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: She walked to the end of the road. Till is used for time and to is used for place
. For example: She slept till the sun was overhead.

7. Fill in the blank: The factory began production _____ 22nd July.

a) since
b) from
c) by
d) at
Answer: b
Explanation: From is used before a noun or phrase denoting some point of time, but, is used with the non-perfect ten
ses. Hence, the statement will be: The factory began production from 22nd July.

8. Choose the correct statement:

a) Kunal has been absent for five days.


b) Kunal has been absent since five days.
c) Kunal has been absent from five days.
d) Kunal has been absent till five days.
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct statement is: Kunal has been absent for five days. The preposition for describes a period of
time with a proper start and end. Prepositions like since (Kunal has been absent since Friday) and from (From Friday
, Kunal stopped showing up) are more open-ended, as they highlight the starting time of the scenario, but not the end
ing time.

9. Correct the incorrect statement:

a) I’ve got nobody to talk to.


b) I’ve got nobody to talk with.
c) I’ve got nobody to talk from.
d) I’ve got nobody to talk into.
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct statement is: I’ve got nobody to talk to. Don’t avoid an obvious preposition because you do
n’t want to end your sentence in a preposition. The rule is absurd and is often flouted.

10. ‘She compared me with her friend’- the statement is correct.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is incorrect. The correct statement is: She compared me to her friend. Compare to is use
d to note similarities between dissimilar things.

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1. Which of these nouns takes the preposition for after it?

a) Alliance
b) Ambition
c) Bargain
d) Experience
Answer: b
Explanation: The noun ‘ambition’ takes the preposition for after it. Alliance and bargain take the preposition with aft
er them and experience takes the preposition of after it.

2. Descent takes the preposition from after it.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Some nouns take the preposition from after them. For example, descent, digression, escape, exemption,
inference.

3. Which of these adjectives takes the preposition with after it?

a) Accused
b) Absorbed
c) Drenched
d) Anxious
Answer: c
Explanation: The adjective drenched takes the preposition with after it. The adjective accused takes of after it, absor
bed takes in and anxious takes for after it.

4. Which of these verbs takes the preposition for after it?


a) Beware
b) Mourn
c) Delight
d) Determine
Answer: b
Explanation: The verb mourn takes the preposition for after it. The verb beware takes the preposition of, delight take
s the preposition in and determine takes the preposition on after it.

5. Which of these is not a preposition of time and date?

a) At
b) On
c) In
d) With
Answer: d
Explanation: At, on, by, before, in are prepositions of time and date. For example; at dusk, on Sunday, by 10 p.m. on
Monday. With is a preposition used to indicate possession, or feeling. Examples: He cut the vegetables with a knife;
He looked at me with sympathy.

6. The preposition from also denotes time.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Prepositions from, since, for, during also denote time. From mostly precedes to/till/until. For example,
This shop is open from 10 a.m. to 8 p.m.

7. Fill in the blank: Aahna didn’t reach her class ____ noon.

a) by
b) to
c) till
d) at
Answer: c
Explanation: To is used for time and place; till/until is used only for time. We use till/until and not to when there is n
o from. The correct statement is: Aahna didn’t reach her class till noon.

8. Choose the correct statement:

a) The hooligans broke in the factory.


b) The hooligans broke into the factory.
c) The hooligans broke onto the factory.
d) The hooligans broke at the factory.
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: The hooligans broke into the factory. The preposition in indicates positions, w
hereas into indicates movements.

9. Correct the incorrect statement:

a) Why are our trains so late compared by European trains?


b) Why are our trains so late compared with European trains?
c) Why are our trains so late compared on European trains?
d) Why are our trains so late compared under European trains?
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: Why are our trains so late compared with European trains?. To compare with
means ‘to examine side by side with’.

10. Fill in the blank: The boy ___ brown hair stole my book.

a) in
b) with
c) from
d) below
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is: The boy with brown hair stole my book. The preposition with is used to describe peo
ple and things.

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1. Which of these is not a type of tense?

a) Present
b) Language
c) Past
d) Future
Answer: b
Explanation: A tense shows the time of action and its degree of completeness. It is broadly classified into three types
: present, past and future tense.

2. Which of these is not a type of present tense?

a) Simple
b) Continuous
c) Imperfect
d) Perfect
Answer: c
Explanation: A particular tense can further be divided into four types. They are: simple, continuous, perfect, perfect
continuous.

3. A perfect tense denotes an action which has been completed, and is in a perfect state.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The perfect form (in present, past or future) denotes an action which has been completed, and is in a pe
rfect state. For example: I have loved, I had loved, I shall have loved.

4. Which of these statements belongs to perfect continuous tense?

a) I was loving
b) I had written
c) I had been writing
d) I shall be writing
Answer: c
Explanation: The perfect continuous tense combines the meanings of the both the perfect and continuous tense. For
example: I have been writing, I had been writing, I shall have been writing. I was loving is past continuous tense, I h
ad written is past perfect tense, and I shall be writing is future continuous tense.
5. The statement I have written a letter belongs to which of these tenses?

a) Simple present tense


b) Present perfect tense
c) Present continuous tense
d) Present perfect continuous tense
Answer: b
Explanation: The present perfect tense denotes an action which has been completed, and is in a perfect state in the pr
esent form. For example, I have written a letter, I have loved, I have been to Chennai. Simple present tense would be
: I write letters. Present continuous tense would be: I am writing a letter. Present perfect continuous tense would be:
I have been writing a letter.

6. Which of these statements belong to present continuous tense (plural)?

a) We are writing a letter.


b) She is writing a letter.
c) They were writing a letter.
d) We were writing a letter.
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct statement is: We are writing a letter. In the present continuous form the event denotes an ac
tion that is still continuing or is yet not completed. It can be in singular or plural form.

7. To which of these tenses does the following statement belong?

a) Simple past tense


b) Past continuous tense
c) Past perfect tense
d) Past perfect continuous tense
Answer: b
Explanation: The past continuous tense is used to denote an action going on at some time in the past. The time of the
action may or may not be indicated. For example: We were watching television all day.

8. Fill in with past perfect tense: I _______ my homework when my uncle arrived.

a) completed
b) had completed
c) was completing
d) had been completing
Answer: b
Explanation: The past perfect tense describes an action completed before a certain moment in the past. For example,
I had completed homework when my uncle arrived.

9. Which of these is an example of simple present tense?

a) I am going to Delhi tomorrow.


b) There she goes!
c) He has just gone out.
d) I am reading the gita.
Answer: b
Explanation: The simple present tense is used in exclamatory sentences, to express what is actually taking place in th
e present. For example: There she goes!

10. Choose the correct statement:


a) I am a student for over three years now.
b) I have been a student for over three years now.
c) I am being a student for over three years now.
d) I was a student for over three years now.
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: I have been a student for over three years now. To refer to something which b
egan in the past and which has continued upto now, we used the present perfect tense.

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1. Which of these is used to express habitual actions?

a) Present perfect tense


b) Simple present tense
c) Past continuous tense
d) Present continuous tense
Answer: b
Explanation: The simple present tense is used to express habitual actions. For example: I bathe every morning. It is a
lso used to express general truths.

2. Which tense does this statement belong to?

a) Simple future tense


b) Simple past tense
c) Simple present tense
d) Future perfect tense
Answer: c
Explanation: Simple present tense is used to indicate a future event where the context tells us the future time. So the
statement belongs to Simple present tense. In vivid narrative, it is also used as substitute for simple past.

3. Choose the correct statement:

a) He sweared that he had not stolen the bag.


b) He swore that he had not stolen the bag.
c) He was swearing that he had not stolen the bag.
d) He swears that he had not stolen the bag.
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: He swore that he had not stolen the bag. The simple past tense of most irregul
ar verbs is not formed with -d or -ed.

4. Which of these tenses does the statement belong to?

a) Present perfect tense (active)


b) Present continuous tense (active)
c) Present continuous tense (passive)
d) Present perfect tense (passive)
Answer: c
Explanation: The statement: A letter is being written by me, belongs to the present continuous tense in passive form.
In active form, the statement would be: I am writing a letter.

5. To which of the tenses does the statement belong?


a) Future perfect tense
b) Future continuous tense
c) Future perfect continuous tense
d) Simple future tense
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement belongs to future continuous tense. The future continuous tense represents an action goi
ng on at some time in the future. For example: When I reach class, the students will be studying.

6. Fill in the blank with past perfect tense:

a) saw
b) had seen
c) was seeing
d) had been seeing
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement will be: I met Ruchi in Nagpur yesterday. I had seen her a week before. The past perfect
tense describes an action completed before a certain moment in the past.

7. Correct the incorrect statement:

a) He said I owed him money.


b) He said I had been owing him money.
c) He said I shall owe him money.
d) He said I am owing him money.
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct statement is: He said I owed him money. When the main verb is past, the verb in the report
ing clause is also past.

8. In which of these cases, present continuous tense is not used?

a) For an action going on at the time of speaking.


b) For a temporary action which may not be actually happening at the time of speaking.
c) For an action that is planned to take place in the near future.
d) For an action which began sometime in the past and is still continuing.
Answer: d
Explanation: The present perfect continuous tense is used for an action which began at some time in the past and is s
till continuing. For example, I have been writing a book for five hours (and am still writing). An easy way to spot an
y form of continuous tense would be to observe whether the verb in the sentence ends with the suffix –ing.

9. Correct the incorrect statement

a) I love it.
b) I was loving it.
c) I have been loving it.
d) I shall be loving it.
Answer: a
Explanation: Verbs of perception, appearance, emotion, thinking possession are not used in the continuous form. Th
e correct statement is: I love it and not I am loving it.

10. Fill in the blank: He said that he ______ tomorrow.

a) will come
b) would come
c) will be coming
d) has been coming
Answer: b
Explanation: When the verbs in the principal clause is in the past tense, shall and will change to should and would in
the subordinates clause. Similarly may changes to might, can to could. The correct statement is: He said that he wou
ld come tomorrow.

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1. If the subject is of singular number, third person; in what number and person will the verb be?

a) Singular number, first person


b) Singular number, third person
c) Plural number, first person
d) Plural number, third person
Answer: b
Explanation: The verb takes the same number as its subject. It must agree with its subject in number and person. If t
he subject is of singular number, third person, the verb must also be of the singular number, third person.

2. If two singular nouns refer to the same person or thing, the verb must be singular.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. If two singular nouns refer to the same person or thing, the verb must be singular
. Example: My friend, philosopher and guide is here. If different persons are referred,; My friend, the philosopher an
d the guide are here.

3. Choose the correct statement:

a) The quality of books were poor.


b) The quality of books was poor.
c) The quality of books are poor.
d) The quality of books were being poor.
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: The quality of books was poor. The subject is ‘the quality of books’ and not ‘
books’. The phrase ‘quality of books’ is in singular form, so it should not take a plural verb.

4. If singular subjects are preceded by every and each, the verb is plural.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. If singular subjects are preceded by every and each, the verb is singular. For exa
mple: Every child and parent brings his own food.

5. Fill in the blank: Neither he nor I ____ present.

a) were
b) was
c) are
d) am
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is: Neither he nor I was present. Two or more singular subjects connected by or, nor, eit
her, neither take the verbs in singular.

6. Correct the statement:

a) Your best bet is free tickets.


b) Your best bet were free tickets.
c) Your best bet am free tickets.
d) Your best bet seems free tickets.
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct statement is: Your best bet is free tickets. The subject is, ‘your best bet, not ‘free tickets’.
Hence it should take a singular verb.

7. Choose the correct statement:

a) The fire caused many damages.


b) The fire caused much damage.
c) The fire caused many damage.
d) The fire caused much damages.
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: The fire caused much damage. In this scenario, the word ‘damages’ can’t be u
sed as it denoted the money paid to make good or loss for a ‘damage’. The word ‘damage’ is used in this situation, a
nd it isn’t a word that can be preceded by ‘many’, as it isn’t a countable quantity which can be represented by a defi
nite number. So, it should be preceded by ‘much’.

8. Fill in the blank: The ship ___ set sail.

a) has
b) is
c) was
d) have
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is: The ship has set sail. A collective noun takes a singular verb when the collection is th
ought of as a whole and a plural verb when the individuals of which it is composed of are thought of.

9. Correct the statement:

a) Bread and butter is my favourite breakfast.


b) Bread and butters are my favourite breakfast.
c) Breads and butters are my favourite breakfast.
d) Breads and butter are my favourite breakfast.
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct statement is: Bread and butter is my favourite breakfast. Bread and butter are two different
nouns, but they come together to form a single entity, that is, a single breakfast dish. So, the phrase ‘bread and butter
’ should have a singular verb like is/was attached to it.

10. Fill in the blank: None of the students ___ happy with the teacher.

a) were
b) was
c) have
d) has
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: None of the students was happy with the teacher. None usually means no one
and so takes a singular verb.
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1. Pick out the verb in the sentence :

a) find
b) with
c) fault
d) me
Answer: a
Explanation: Verbs can be classified into two types. It is classified into finite and non finite. A verb which is limited
by number or person is called a finite verb. For example, They always find fault with me.

2. A verb which is not limited by person and number is called the infinitive.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. A verb which is not limited by person and number is called the infinitive. For ex
ample, They always try to find fault with me.

3. Infinitive is also known as :

a) Verb adjective
b) Verb noun
c) Verb pronoun
d) Adverb noun
Answer: b
Explanation: An infinitive is a kind of noun with certain features of a verb, especially that of taking an object. Thus,
infinitive is a verb noun.

4. Which of these verbs is accompanied by to?

a) Let
b) Make
c) See
d) Determined
Answer: d
Explanation: The infinitive is usually accompanied by word to though with certain verbs like bid, let, make, see, hea
r, etc.. we use the infinitive without to. For example: I will pray = I am determined to pray.

5. The infinitive with or without adjuncets may be used, like a noun.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. The infinitive with or without adjuncets may be used, like a noun. As the subject
of the verb, as: To err is human.

6. What is an infinitive called when it is used as a noun?

a) Simple infinitive
b) Complex infinitive
c) Present infinitive
d) Qualifying infinitive
Answer: a
Explanation: When an infinitive is used as a noun, it is called the simple infinitive. It is also used to qualify a verb, u
sually to express a purpose. For example, We eat to live.

7. Fill in the blank with an infinitive:

a) to eat
b) for eating
c) eat
d) to eating
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct statement is : Strawberries are good to eat. The infinitive is used to qualify an adjective as s
hown in the above statement.

8. When infinitive is active, what forms can it be present in?

a) Present
b) Perfect
c) Present and perfect
d) Continuous
Answer: c
Explanation: The infinitive may be active or passive. When active, it may have a present and perfect form. It may m
erely name the act, or it may represent progressive or continued action.

9. Fill in the blank:

a) to speak
b) for speak
c) in speak
d) speaking
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct statement is: He was terrified to speak. Here, the infinitive is used to qualify a sentence. It
can also be used to qualify a noun. For example: She is a woman to be loved.

10. Choose the correct statement:

a) It cost the management 10 crores to built the hospital.


b) It cost the management 10 crores to build the hospital.
c) It cost the management 10 crores to building the hospital.
d) It cost the management 10 crores for build the hospital.
Answer: b
Explanation: The infinitive is the base form of the verb. ‘built ‘ is the past tense of ‘build’. The correct statement is :
It cost the management 10 crores to build the hospital.

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1. Which of these words is not used in the bare infinitive?

a) to
b) that
c) is
d) are
Answer: a
Explanation: The infinitive can broadly be classified into two types : Bare infinitive and split infinitive. There are ce
rtain verbs and expression where to is not used. These are called the bare infinitive.

2. To which infinitive does the following phrase belong?

a) Perfect infinitive
b) Present infinitive
c) Perfect infinitive passive
d) Present infinitive passive
Answer: d
Explanation: The phrase ‘to be done’ belongs to present infinitive passive. Example for perfect infinitive passive is ‘
to have been done’ and for perfect infinitive is ‘to have done’.

3. Normally, no words are used between to and the verb. The only exception is the split infinitive.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Normally, no words are used between to and the verb. The only exception is the
split infinitive. The other type is bare infinitive.

4. Choose the correct statement:

a) Because he failed, the school may cancel his admission.


b) Because he had failed, the school may cancel his admission.
c) Because he is failed, the school may cancel his admission.
d) Because he have failed, the school may cancel his admission.
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: Because he had failed, the school may cancel his admission. When we refer to
something that happened or was expected to happen before now, we use a perfect infinitive, not a present infinitive.

5. After which of these nouns, an infinitive can’t be used?

a) Failure
b) Ambition
c) Desire
d) Escape
Answer: d
Explanation: The infinitive can also be used after certain nouns. These nouns include ability, ambition, demand, desi
re, effort, failure, promise, refusal, scheme, wish.

6. The infinitive can also be used with too/enough after certain adjective and adverbs.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. The infinitive can also be used with too/enough after certain adjective and adver
bs. For example: The spoon was too hot to touch.

7. Fill in the blank with bare infinitive:

a) to move
b) move
c) move to
d) moving
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: He made me move my motorcycle. Other examples of bare infinitive are: I co
uld read it tomorrow, Live and let live.

8. For which of these cases do but/except not take the bare infinitive?

a) do + anything
b) do + nothing
c) do + everything
d) do + something
Answer: d
Explanation: But and except take the bare infinitive when they follow do+ anything/ nothing/ everything. For examp
le, Aahna does nothing but smile.

9. In which of these cases, the continuous infinitive is not used?

a) After auxiliary verbs


b) With certain verbs like appear, happen, seem.
c) After hope and promise.
d) At the beginning of a sentence.
Answer: d
Explanation: The form of a continuous infinitive is to be + present participle. For example, My mother must be won
dering what is wrong with me. Initial infinitive phrases are placed at the beginning of a sentence.

10. Which of these forms represent the perfect infinitive continuous?

a) to + have + past participle


b) to + have been + present participle
c) to be + present participle
d) to + present participle
Answer: b
Explanation: The perfect infinitive continuous has the form of to + have been + present participle. For example, Pink
i seems to have been studying in a haphazard fashion.

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1. A participle is a verb which is partly a verb and partly a noun.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. A participle is a verb which is partly a verb and partly an adjective. It is that for
m of a verb which has the characteristics of a verb as well as an adjective. For example, Hearing the noise, the old m
an got up with a start.

2. What is a participle called when it is used as a simple qualifying adjective in front of a noun?

a) Past participle
b) Participial adjective
c) Participial noun
d) Participial adverb
Answer: b
Explanation: When a participle called when it is used as a simple qualifying adjective in front of a noun, it is called a
participial adjective. Foe example, A rolling stone gathers no moss.

3. Fill in the blank with present participle :

a) carried
b) carrying
c) was carrying
d) had carrying
Answer: b
Explanation: The present participle ends with -ing. It represents an action which is going on or is incomplete or impe
rfect. So the statement is, I met boy carrying a box of chocolates.

4. Pick out the participle in the following sentence:

a) Knowing
b) Aptitude
c) Scored
d) Runs
Answer: a
Explanation: Here, the participle is ‘knowing’. In certain cases, accepted usage permits the following constructions
where the participle is left without a proper subject or reference. Such a participle is called the impersonal absolute.

5. Fill in the blank with past participle:

a) Blinding
b) Blinded
c) Blind
d) Having blind
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is : Blinded by hate, he lashed out with a knife. A past participle represents a co
mpleted action or state of the thing mentioned. The above statement is an example.

6. The noun or pronoun used with a participle is called nominative absolute.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. The participle with the noun or pronoun going before it, forms a pbrase independ
ent of the rest of the sentence. Such a phrase is called an absolute phrase. The noun or pronoun used with a participle
is called nominative absolute.

7. Which of these is an example of present participle?

a) Studying
b) Having finished
c) Stolen money
d) Having been told
Answer: a
Explanation: The form of the present participle is the infinitive + ing. For example, working, studying, eating. Havin
g finished is an example of the active perfect participle and stolen money is an example of the past participle.
8. Choose the correct statement:

a) Being in haste, the door was left open.


b) Being in haste, he left the door open.
c) Being in haste, door was open.
d) Door was left open being in haste.
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: Being in haste, he left the door open. The word ‘being’ work partially as a ver
b and partially as an adjective in this sentence. Hence, ‘being’ is the participle of this sentence, and its subject is the
man, not the door.

9. What is a participle linked to the wrong noun or pronoun called?

a) Misrelated participle
b) Wrong participle
c) Incorrect participle
d) Misleading participle
Answer: a
Explanation: A participle linked to the wrong noun or pronoun is said to be misrelated. For example, Waiting for my
mother, a truck came and hit me. The correct form is : As I was waiting for my mother a truck came and hit me.

10. Choose the correct statement :

a) The school usually remains opened till 5 pm.


b) The school usually remains open till 5 pm.
c) The school usually remain open till 5 pm.
d) The school usually remains opens till 5 pm.
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is : The school usually remains open till 5 pm. We use the past participle to deno
te action. But we use the adjective form to describe a state or quality.

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1. A clause contains a subject and a predicate of its own.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. A clause is a group of words which forms part of a sentence, and contains a subje
ct and a predicate of its own.

2. What is the part of the sentence which denotes the person or thing about which something is said?

a) Predicate
b) Subject
c) Phrase
d) Clause
Answer: b
Explanation: The part of the sentence which denotes the person or thing about which something is said, is called the
subject of the sentence. For example, Mili sings a song. Here, Mili is the subject.

3. Pick out the clause in the following sentence:


a) Neha played
b) Played when evening
c) When evening came
d) Evening came
Answer: c
Explanation: In the sentence, the group of words ‘when evening came’ make some sense, but it doesn’t make compl
ete sense. It however, has a subject (evening) and predicate (came when) of its own. Such a group of words is called
a clause.

4. Pick out the phrase in the sentence:

a) Monica
b) Monica played
c) Played at sunset
d) At sunset
Answer: d
Explanation: The phrase in the sentence is ‘at sunset ‘. The group of words ‘at sunset ‘ makes some sense but does n
ot make complete sense. Such a group of words is called a phrase.

5. Which of these is not a type of sentence?

a) Simple
b) Continuous
c) Compound
d) Complex
Answer: b
Explanation: Sentences can be broadly classified into three types. They are : Simple sentences, Compound sentences
and Complex sentences.

6. A sentence with only one clause is called a compound sentence.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. A sentence with only one clause is called a simple sentence. For example, Aahn
a broke her hand. A sentence with two or more independent clauses is called a compound sentence.

7. What is a sentence with one principal clause and one or more subordinate clauses called?

a) Compound sentence
b) Complex sentence
c) Simple sentence
d) Principal sentence
Answer: b
Explanation: A sentence with one principal clause and one or more subordinate clauses is called a complex sentence.
For example: Pinki found the purse that I had lost. The principal clause is- Pinki found the purse and the subordinat
e clause is – that I had lost. It shouldn’t be confused with a simple sentence, which is a sentence with only one claus
e. It is also different from a compound sentence, which is a sentence that contains more than one subject or predicate
.

8. Which of these is not a type of subordinate clause?

a) Adverb
b) Verb
c) Adjective
d) Noun
Answer: b
Explanation: The subordinate clause can be divided into three types. They are: Adverb clause (Eg: Call me when yo
u’ve finished your homework.), Adjective clause (Eg: The street in which he lives, is very safe.) and Noun Clause (
Eg: Your body digests whatever you eat.).

9. Fill in the blank with an adjective clause :

a) with a broken handle


b) which has a broken handle
c) and a broken handle
d) with a broke handle
Answer: b
Explanation: The group of words ‘which has a broken handle’ describes the cricket bat and does the work of an adje
ctive. It contains a subject and predicate of its own. It is, therefore, an adjective clause.

10. Choose the correct statement:

a) I’ll write a letter when I will reach Mumbai.


b) I’ll write a letter when I reach Mumbai.
c) I’ll write a letter as I reach Mumbai.
d) I’ll write a letter when I shall reach Mumbai.
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is : I’ll write a letter when I reach Mumbai. When we refer to the future in an adv
erbial clause of time, we normally use the simple present tense ( not will or shall).

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1. Adverbs that change in form to show comparison are called degrees of comparison.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. Adjectives that change in form to show comparison are called degree of compar
ison. Example, pretty : prettier: prettiest.

2. Which of these is not a type of degree of comparison?

a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Comparative
d) Superlative
Answer: b
Explanation: Degrees of comparison can be classified into three types. They are : positive degree, comparative degre
e and superlative degree. For example , good is positive, better is comparative and best is superlative.

3. What is the superlative of little?

a) Less
b) Lesser
c) Least
d) Worst
Answer: c
Explanation: This is an irregular comparison of adjective. The comparative of little is less or lesser and the superlati
ve of little is least. The superlative of bad is worst.

4. Fill in with correct degree of comparison:

a) precious
b) more precious
c) most precious
d) many precious
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is : Platinum is more precious than any metal. When two objects are compared with each
other, the latter terms of comparison must exclude the former.

5. What is the positive of inner?

a) In
b) Inmost
c) Innermost
d) most in
Answer: a
Explanation: The positive of inner is in. The superlative of inner is innermost. The word inmost does not exist; and t
he phrase most in is grammatically incorrect. This is an irregular comparison of adjectives.

6. Which of the following words’ comparative degree is formed by simply adding the word more before the adjectiv
e itself?

a) Small
b) Nice
c) Heavy
d) Difficult
Answer: d
Explanation: When the initial, positive form of an adjective has two or more syllables, the comparative degree is for
med by adding the adverb more with the positive. The superlative degree is formed by adding the adverb most befor
e the positive. In the case, positive: difficult, comparative: more difficult, superlative: most difficult. Smaller adjecti
ves with less syllables can be converted to comparative and superlative forms by adding the suffixes ‘er’ and ‘est’ re
spectively. Eg: small, smaller, smallest.

7. Choose the correct statement:

a) Milk is more cheap than water.


b) Milk is cheaper than water.
c) Milk is cheap than water.
d) Milk is cheapest than water.
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: Milk is cheaper than water. In this case, using ‘cheapest’ would be incorrect, s
ince it’s a comparison between only two entities, that is milk and water. Most one syllable adjectives form their com
paratives and superlatives with -er/-est. However, participles used as adjectives are exceptions, as, I’ve never felt mo
re tired in all my life.

8. Fill in with the right degree:

a) good
b) better
c) best
d) most good
Answer: c
Explanation: The correct statement is : Hunger is the best sauce. As it shows the highest quality of the word, we use
the superlative degree of good which is best.

9. Choose the correct statement:

a) She is one of the most prettiest girl in the class.


b) She is the prettiest girl in the class.
c) She is the most prettiest girl in the class.
d) She is one of the pretty girl in the class.
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is : She is the prettiest girl in the class. We do not use -er/-est together with more
or most.

10. When the positive ends in e, only r and st are added.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. When the positive ends in e, only r and st are added. For example: nice, nicer, ni
cest.

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1. When the positive ends in y, preceded by a consonant, the y is changed into i before adding er and est.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. When the positive ends in y, preceded by a consonant, the y is changed into i bef
ore adding er and est. For example: heavy, heavier and heaviest.

2. The comparative in er is used when we compare two qualities in the same person or thing.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. The comparative in er is not used when we compare two qualities in the same pe
rson or thing. For example: Meera is more pretty ( not prettier) than wise. The suffix ‘er’ is used only when compari
ng two completely different entities or a specific quality in two different entities. Example: Ann is prettier than Mary
.

3. What is the positive of most (quantity)?

a) many
b) much
c) more
d) good
Answer: b
Explanation: The positive of most (quantity) is much and its comparative is more. The positive of most (number) is
many.
4. What is the comparative of far (physical distance)?

a) Farther
b) Further
c) Farthest
d) More far
Answer: a
Explanation: The comparative of far is farther and its superlative is farthest. More far is incorrect and should not be
used. Also, farther should not be confused with further. The two words cannot be used interchangeably. The word fa
rther is used to denote physical distance between two locations. For example: According to the map, we have to wal
k farther. The word further is used in a more metaphorical sense. For example: This topic needs to be discussed furth
er.

5. What is the superlative of late (with respect to time)?

a) Later
b) Latter
c) Latest
d) Last
Answer: c
Explanation: The comparative of late with respect to time is later and superlative is latest. With respect to position, t
he comparative is latter and the superlative is last.

6. Fill in the blank :

a) elder
b) older
c) eldest
d) oldest
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: Karan is older than Kashish. Elder is not used followed by than and so we use
older.

7. Choose the correct statement:

a) I’m not as intelligence as he.


b) I’m not as intelligence as him.
c) I’m not intelligent than he.
d) I’m not intelligent than him.
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is : I’m not as intelligence as him. Modern grammarians say that in these cases a
s can be regarded as preposition, and the object pronoun him is more natural.

8. Choose the correct statement:

a) Kalidas is the greatest of all other poets.


b) Kalidas is the greatest of all poets.
c) Kalidas is the greater of all other poets.
d) Kalidas is the greater of all poets.
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: Kalidas is the greatest of all poets. Here, other is unnecessary. Though in the
comparative degree, Kalidas is greater than any other poet.
9. Fill in the blank :

a) more strong
b) stronger
c) most strong
d) strongest
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: Aahna is stronger than Neha. Most one-syllable adjectives form their compara
tives and superlatives with -er/-est.

10. Choose the correct statement:

a) He is unhappy than his friend.


b) He is more unhappy than his friend.
c) He is unhappier than his friend.
d) He is most unhappy than his friend.
Answer: c
Explanation: The correct statement is: He is unhappier than his friend. Two or three syllable adjectives made up of u
n- take -er or -est.

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1. Which of these does not come under transformation of sentences?

a) Changing active voice into passive voice.


b) Changing passive voice into active voice.
c) Changing affirmative sentences into negative sentences.
d) Changing interrogative sentences into assertive sentences and their reverse.
Answer: b
Explanation: Transformation of sentences have various forms. These include : Changing active voice into passive vo
ice, changing affirmative sentences into negative sentences, changing interrogative sentences into assertive sentence
s and their reverse, etc..

2. Which of these is not a type of sentence?

a) Assertive
b) Interrogative
c) Complicated
d) Imperative
Answer: c
Explanation: There are four kinds of sentences. They are : Assertive sentence, interrogative sentence, imperative sen
tence and exclamatory sentence.

3. An assertive sentence states a fact, describes a thing or reports an event.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. An assertive sentence states a fact, describes a thing or reports an event. For exa
mple, He wrote a letter.

4. Which of these is not a type of assertive sentence?


a) Affirmative
b) Informal
c) Negative
d) Emphatic
Answer: b
Explanation: An assertive sentence can be classified into three types. They are : Affirmative sentence, negative sente
nce and emphatic sentence.

5. Assertive sentence can also be called as :

a) Emphatic sentence
b) Declarative sentence
c) Imperative sentence
d) Exclamatory sentence
Answer: b
Explanation: An assertive sentence states a fact, describes a thing or reports an event. Assertive sentence can also be
called as declarative sentence or a statement.

6. An imperative sentence inquires about something.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. An imperative sentence expresses some command, request, advice, etc. For exa
mple: Sit down, please.

7. To which of these types does the following sentence belong?

a) Assertive sentence
b) Interrogative sentence
c) Imperative sentence
d) Exclamatory sentence
Answer: a
Explanation: The above sentence is an example of an assertive sentence. To be precise, it is an affirmative sentence
as it states a fact.

8. Which of these words is not used to transform non-emphatic sentence to emphatic sentence?

a) Do
b) Does
c) Did
d) Has
Answer: d
Explanation: A non-emphatic sentence can be transformed into an emphatic sentence with words like do, does, did.
For example, He wrote a letter. Emphatic : He did write a letter.

9. To which type does the sentence belong?

a) Assertive sentence
b) Interrogative sentence
c) Imperative sentence
d) Exclamatory sentence
Answer: d
Explanation: The above sentence is an example of exclamatory sentence. An exclamatory sentence expresses sudden
emotion or feeling.

10. Which of these is an example of affirmative sentence?

a) Can you do this?


b) What a pretty girl!
c) Everyone accepts his version.
d) Please open the door.
Answer: c
Explanation: An affirmative sentence is a type of assertive sentence which states a fact or describes a thing. ‘Can yo
u do this?’ is an example of interrogative sentence. ‘Please open the door’ is an example of imperative sentence.

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1. Which of these is an assertive sentence?

a) Why waste time in reading trash?


b) I wish that I were healthy again.
c) How beautiful is the rainbow!
d) Please have a look at the brochure.
Answer: b
Explanation: The sentence ‘ I wish that I were healthy again.’ is an assertive sentence. An assertive sentence states a
fact, describes a thing or reports an event. It is also called a declarative sentence or a statement.

2. Convert the affirmative sentence into a negative sentence:

a) Neha is not as pretty as Mili.


b) Mili is not as pretty as Neha.
c) Neha is not as prettier as Mili.
d) Mili is not prettier than Neha.
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct statement is: Neha is not as pretty as Mili. Both of them are assertive sentences but one is a
ffirmative and the other is negative.

3. Convert the following interrogative sentence to an assertive sentence:

a) No one loves his country.


b) Everyone loves his country.
c) Someone loves his country.
d) Everyone loves the country.
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct assertive sentence is : Everyone loves his country. The interrogative sentence is actually a s
tatement saying that, there is no one who does not love his country.

4. Convert the following exclamatory sentence to an assertive sentence:

a) Hurrah, we have one the match.


b) We won the match.
c) We rejoice to have won the match.
d) We have won the match, hurrah.
Answer: c
Explanation: The correct assertive sentence is: We rejoice to have won the match. An exclamatory sentence expresse
s sudden emotion or feeling about something and has an exclamatory mark. Hence, while converting an exclamatory
sentence to any other form, the words that denote exclamation must be replaced with suitable verbs that convey the
same emotion. In this situation, ‘Hurrah’ has been replaced with ‘rejoiced’. Another example would be: ‘wow’ being
replaced with ‘amazed’.

5. A simple sentence can be converted into a compound sentence by enlarging a word or a phrase into a co-ordinate
clause.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. A simple sentence can be converted into a compound sentence by enlarging a wo
rd or a phrase into a co-ordinate clause.

6. Convert the following simple sentence to a compound sentence :

a) He was rude and arrogant.


b) He was not only rude but also arrogant.
c) He was not only arrogant but also rude.
d) He was being rude and arrogant.
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct compound sentence is : He was not only rude but also arrogant. A compound sentence is al
so called a double sentence.

7. Which of these conjunctions is not used in the transformation of simple into compound sentences?

a) Alternative conjunctions
b) Illative conjunctions
c) Cumulative conjunctions
d) Complex conjunctions
Answer: d
Explanation: Four types of conjunctions are used in the transformation of simple into compound sentences. They are
: Alternative conjunctions, illative conjunctions, cumulative conjunctions and adversative conjunctions.

8. Which of the conjunctions is used in the following transformation?

a) Alternative conjunctions
b) Illative conjunctions
c) Cumulative conjunctions
d) Adversative conjunctions
Answer: c
Explanation: The conjunction used in the above transformation is cumulative conjunction. The simple sentence is co
nverted into a compound sentence that is a double sentence using a conjunction.

9. A compound sentence can be converted into a simple sentence by substituting a participle for a finite verb.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. A compound sentence can be converted into a simple sentence by substituting a
participle for a finite verb. Example: The moon rose and the dog whined. (compoun
d) = The moon having risen, the dog whined. (simple)

10. Convert the following compound sentence into a simple sentence :


a) We must live to eat.
b) We must eat to live.
c) We can’t live if we eat.
d) We can’t eat if we live.
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct simple sentence is : We must eat to live. The conjunction used in the compound sentence is
alternative conjunction.

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1. A simple sentence can be converted to a complex sentence by expanding a verb or phrase into a subordinate claus
e.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. A simple sentence can be converted to a complex sentence by expanding a verb
or phrase into a subordinate clause.

2. A verb in a simple sentence CANNOT be expanded to which of the following clauses?

a) Noun clause
b) Verb clause
c) Adjective clause
d) Adverb clause
Answer: b
Explanation: There are three types of subordinate clauses to which a verb or phrase can be expanded. They are noun
clause, adjective clause and adverb clause.

3. The following transformation is an example under which clause?

a) Noun clause
b) Verb clause
c) Adjective clause
d) Adverb clause
Answer: c
Explanation: The subordinate clause here is adjective clause. The adjective here is ‘unforgivable’ which is expanded
and thus it becomes an adjective clause.

4. Convert the following simple sentence into a complex sentence :

a) As soon as you reach the gate, you will have to turn left.
b) When you reach the gate take a left turn.
c) Turn left when you reach the gate.
d) Reaching the gate, take a left turn.
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct complex sentence is : soon as you reach the gate, you will have to turn left. The subordinat
e clause used here is adverb clause.

5. Convert the following complex sentence into a simple sentence:

a) Her death at so early an age is sad.


b) She dying so young is sad.
c) It is sad to know that she died at an early age.
d) She dying at an early age is sad.
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct simple sentence is : Her death at so early an age is sad. A complex sentence can be convert
ed into a simple sentence by substituting a noun for the noun clause introduced by the conjunction ‘that’.

6. A complex sentence can be converted into a simple sentence by using a compound noun.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. A complex sentence can be converted into a simple sentence by using a compoun
d noun. For example, Complex : The place where Buddha was cremated has been found. Simple : The place of Budd
ha’s cremation has been found.

7. Which of these conjunctions is not used during the conversion of compound to complex sentence?

a) Cumulative conjunctions
b) Alternative conjunctions
c) Illative conjunctions
d) Principal conjunctions
Answer: d
Explanation: Four types of conjunctions are used for conversion of compound to complex sentences. They are : Cum
ulative conjunctions, alternative conjunctions, illative conjunctions and adversative conjunctions.

8. Convert the following complex sentence to a compound sentence:

a) He is wrong, and of this she is sure.


b) Of this she is sure that he is wrong.
c) He Is wrong, she is sure.
d) She is sure, he is wrong.
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct compound sentence is : He is wrong, and of this she is sure. While converting, the principa
l clause must be placed last and the subordinate clause must be placed first.

9. Change the degree of comparison:

a) She is not prettier than me.


b) She is prettier than me.
c) I am the prettiest.
d) We both are pretty.
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct statement is: She is not prettier than me. Here a positive degree is converted into a compara
tive degree. It is possible to change the degree of comparison without changing the meaning of the sentence.

10. Change the degree of comparison:

a) No other batsman is as good as Sachin.


b) Sachin is as good as any other batsman.
c) Any other batsman is better than Sachin.
d) Sachin is a good batsman.
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct statement is : No other batsman is as good as Sachin. This is the positive degree. The comp
arative degree would be : Sachin is better than any other batsman.
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1. The passive of an active tense is formed by inserting the verb ‘to be’ into the same tense as the active verb and ad
ding the past participle of the active verb.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. The passive of an active tense is formed by inserting the verb ‘to be’ into the sam
e tense as the active verb and adding the past participle of the active verb. For example, active voice: He threw the b
all. Passive voice: The ball was thrown by him.

2. Convert the following sentence in active voice to passive voice :

a) The book has been written by him.


b) The book is being written by him.
c) The book is written by him.
d) The book was written by him.
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is : The book is being written by him. The passive of continuous tenses requires t
he present continuous form of “to be”. And the verb ‘writing’ needs to be converted to its past participle form, that i
s, ‘written’.

3. Auxiliary + infinitive combinations are made passive by using a passive infinitive.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Auxiliary + infinitive combinations are made passive by using a passive infinitiv
e. Example : Active : You must write this letter. Passive : This letter must be written by you.

4. Verbs of which of these do not form their passive with the passive infinitive?

a) Liking
b) Loving
c) Wanting
d) Advice
Answer: d
Explanation: Verbs of liking/ loving/ wanting/ wishing etc + object + infinitive form their passive with the passive in
finitive.

5. Verbs of which of these form their passive by using the passive form of the main verb.

a) Wanting
b) Wishing
c) Liking
d) Command
Answer: d
Explanation: Verbs of advice, command etc + indirect object + infinitive form their passive by using the passive for
m of the main verb.

6. Convert the following active form to passive form :


a) I was determined that the car should be mortgaged.
b) The car was determined to be mortgaged.
c) I was determined that car will be mortgaged.
d) I am determined that car will be mortgaged.
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct statement is: I was determined that the car should be mortgaged. Agree/ be anxious/ arrang
e/ be determined/ determine/ decide + infinitive + object are usually expressed in the passive by that…should.

7. Which of these is not an use of the passive voice?

a) When we know about the doer of the action.


b) When the subject of the active verb would be people.
c) To avoid awkward or ungrammatical sentences.
d) When an active form would create problems for the speaker.
Answer: a
Explanation: The passive voice has a lot of uses. Some of them are : When we don’t know about the doer of the acti
on, when the subject of the active verb would be people, to avoid awkward or ungrammatical sentences, etc.

8. Which of these is not a part of speech?

a) Noun
b) Verb
c) Preposition
d) Object
Answer: d
Explanation: There are eight parts of speech. They are : Noun, pronoun, verb, adverb, adjective, preposition, conjunc
tion and interjection.

9. In the following sentence, replace the verb by a noun :

a) He put up a brave fight.


b) A fight was put up bravely.
c) A brave fight was put up.
d) A fight is put up bravely.
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct statement is: He put up a brave fight. Here fought is a verb and fight is a noun. So there is i
nterchange of part of speech.

10. In the following sentence, replace the adverb with a noun:

a) He watched her with care.


b) He watched the girl with great care.
c) With care he watched her.
d) Care was taken while watching her.
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: He watched the girl with great care. Here, carefully is an adverb and care is a
noun.

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1. Indirect speech is when one quotes the exact words spoken by a speaker.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. Direct speech is when one quotes the exact words spoken by a speaker. For exa
mple, Neha said “I am very tired now.”

2. Indirect speech is also called as :

a) Reported speech
b) Quoted speech
c) Simple speech
d) Principal speech
Answer: a
Explanation: Indirect speech is also called reported speech. Indirect speech is when one reports what the speaker sai
d without quoting his exact words.

3. While converting direct speech to indirect, simple present becomes a simple past.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. While converting direct speech to indirect, simple present becomes a simple past.

4. Convert the following direct speech to indirect :

a) She said that her mother was cooking food.


b) She said that my mother was cooking food.
c) She said that her mother is cooking food.
d) She said that my mother is cooking food.
Answer: a
Explanation: While converting direct speech to indirect, present continuous becomes a past continuous. The above st
atement is an example for the same. So the correct statement is: She said that her mother was cooking food.

5. Change the speech for the following statement :

a) She said the man died in the afternoon.


b) She said that the man had died in the afternoon.
c) She had said the man died in the afternoon.
d) She said the man was dead in the afternoon.
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: She said that the man had died in the afternoon. As a rule, the simple past in t
he direct becomes the past perfect in the indirect.

6. Convert the following statement in direct speech to indirect :

a) He said he didn’t believe me.


b) He said I don’t believe you.
c) He said he don’t believe me.
d) He said I didn’t believe you.
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct statement is: He said he didn’t believe me. The pronouns of the direct speech are changed i
n such a manner that their relationship with the reporter and the hearer, is indicated.
7. Change the speech in the following sentence :

a) She said she was happy to be there that evening.


b) She said she is happy to be there that evening.
c) She said she is happy to be there that evening.
d) She said she was happy to be there this evening.
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct statement is : She said she was happy to be there that evening. Words expressing nearness i
n time or place are changed into words expressing distance.

8. Change the direct speech to indirect :

a) He asked me where is Neha.


b) He asked me where Neha was.
c) He asked me where Neha is.
d) He said where was Neha.
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: He asked me where Neha was. We use verbs like ‘asked’, ‘inquired’, etc., whi
le reporting questions in indirect speech.

9. Convert the following direct speech to indirect :

a) Vineet ordered Nitin to go away.


b) Vineet said Nitin to go away.
c) Vineet ordered Nitin go away.
d) Vineet said to Nitin go away.
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct statement is: Vineet ordered Nitin to go away. The indirect speech is introduced by a verb
which expresses a command or a request while reporting commands or requests.

10. Convert the following direct speech to indirect:

a) She exclaimed sadly that she failed.


b) She exclaimed sadly that she had failed.
c) She exclaimed sadly that I failed.
d) She exclaimed that she failed.
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: She exclaimed sadly that she had failed. In reporting exclamations and wishes
the indirect speech is introduced by a verb which expresses exclamation or wish.

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1. If the reported speech expresses some universal truth, habit, historical incident or permanent fact, its tense does no
t change even when the reporting verb is in the past tense.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. If the reported speech expresses some universal truth, habit, historical incident or
permanent fact, its tense does not change even when the reporting verb is in the past tense. For example, direct spee
ch: The teacher said, “New Delhi is the capital on India.” Reported speech: The teacher said that New Delhi is the ca
pital of India.
2. Convert the following sentence in indirect speech to direct speech :

a) He said I am undone.
b) He said, “Alas ! I am undone.”
c) He said, “I am undone.”
d) He said , “Alas. I am undone.”
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: He said, “Alas ! I am undone.” An exclamatory sentence must have an excla
matory mark.

3. While changing a question into indirect speech, the reporting verb must be changed into ask, inquire or demand.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. While changing a question into indirect speech, the reporting verb must be chang
ed into ask, inquire or demand. Also, the question mark must be removed.

4. Which of these prepositions is used with inquire or demand?

a) Is
b) At
c) Of
d) On
Answer: c
Explanation: The preposition of is used with inquire or demand. For example, She inquired of me what I was doing.

5. Convert the following direct speech to indirect :

a) My mother asked me if I was going to school that day.


b) My mother asked me are you going to school today.
c) My mother asked me if I was going to school today.
d) My mother asked me if I am going to school today.
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct statement is: My mother asked me if I was going to school that day. The conjunction if and
whether is used to introduce the reported speech if the question begins with auxiliary verbs like is, are, am, etc.

6. Which of these forms are used to report negative commands?

a) not + infinitive
b) no + infinitive
c) command + infinitive
d) object + infinitive
Answer: a
Explanation: Negative commands, requests, etc., are usually reported by not + infinitive form. For example, Direct:
“Don’t venture out too far, children”, the teacher said. Indirect: The teacher warned the children not to venture out to
o far.

7. Which of these verbs don’t follow the object + infinitive form?

a) Beg
b) Order
c) Invite
d) Pray
Answer: d
Explanation: Verbs like advice, beg, order, invite, recommend, warn use the object + infinitive form. The person add
ressed is normally not mentioned in direct command or requests.

8. Convert the following direct speech to indirect speech :

a) She said that they would analyse it the next day.


b) She said that we would analyse it the next day.
c) She said that they will analyse it the next day.
d) She said that we will analyse it the next day.
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct statement is: She said that they would analyse it the next day. This/ these used as pronouns
can become it.

9. Convert the following direct speech to indirect :

a) She thanked me.


b) She said me thank you.
c) She said thank you to me.
d) She said thank you!
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct statement is: She thanked me. Exclamations normally become statements in indirect speech
. The exclamatory mark is not used.

10. Convert the following sentence in direct speech to indirect speech :

a) She asked me can you read and I said yes.


b) She asked me if I could read and I said that I could.
c) She asked me can you read and I said that I could.
d) She asked me if I could read and I said yes.
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: She asked me if I could read and I said that I could. Yes or no are expressed i
n indirect speech by subject + appropriate auxiliary verb.

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1. Which of these is not an adjectival?

a) Noun
b) Verb
c) Adverb
d) Gerund
Answer: b
Explanation: Nouns are modified by nouns, participles, gerunds, adverbs, possessives and prepositional phrases. The
y are called adjective equivalents or adjectivals.

2. Which of these is an example of a participle as a modifier?

a) A canvas trouser
b) Running nose
c) A walking stick
d) A student’s pen
Answer: b
Explanation: ‘Running nose’ is an example of a participle as a modifier. ‘A canvas trouser’ is an example of a noun
as a modifier. ‘A walking stick’ is an example of a gerund as a modifier.

3. Fill in the blank :

a) verbs
b) nouns
c) adverbs
d) pronouns
Answer: b
Explanation: Adjective modify nouns. Adjectives are used in two ways: attributively and predicatively. For example
: This is a new car. (attributive use), This car is new. (predicative use).

4. Suffixes “er” and “est” are added to monosyllabic adjectives to express contrasts.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Suffixes “er” and “est” are added to monosyllabic adjectives to express contrasts.
These create comparative and superlative forms.

5. Which of these is not modified by adverb?

a) Verb
b) Adjective
c) Noun
d) Adverb
Answer: c
Explanation: Adverbs modify verbs, adjectives and adverbs. They are used in different positions. Interrogative adver
bs “how”, “when”, “where” and “why” are used in the front position.

6. Which of these is not an adverb of frequency?

a) Often
b) Never
c) Usually
d) Smoothly
Answer: d
Explanation: Adverbs like “often”, “never”, “sometimes”, “usually” etc., are placed with verbs. They are adverbs of
frequency and are known as mid position verbs.

7. Which of these sentences is an example of an end position adverb?

a) He normally wakes up at 6 A.M.


b) This car runs smoothly.
c) How wonderful she looks !
d) Why did he visit the zoo?
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: This car runs smoothly. Some adverbs are placed after the verb, and after obje
ct when used in the sentence. Due to this reason, they are known as end position adverbs.

8. Choose the correct statement:

a) The principal placed the notice for all students on the notice board.
b) The principal placed on the notice board the notice for all students.
c) The principal placed the notice on the notice board for all students.
d) The principal on the notice board placed the notice for all students.
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: The principal placed on the notice board the notice for all students. Place the
modifiers so that the reader knows what they modify. This is called coherence.

9. Fill in the blank :

a) most perfect
b) perfect
c) totally perfect
d) absolutely perfect
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: He is the perfect man for the job. Some adjectives are absolute or ungradable.
They should not be modified with words like absolutely, totally, etc.

10. Choose the correct statement:

a) On opening the window, Neha’s eyes at once fell on the bird.


b) As Neha opened the window, her eyes at once fell on the bird.
c) On opening the window, at once Neha’s eyes fell on the bird.
d) As Neha opened the window, her eyes fell on the bird at once.
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: As Neha opened the window, her eyes at once fell on the bird. Here the openi
ng phrase has been expanded into an adverbial clause.

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1. A conjunction is a word which merely joins together sentences and words.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. A conjunction is a word which merely joins together sentences and words. They
are also known as sentence connectives.

2. Coordinating clauses are clauses of ______ rank.

a) equal
b) unequal
c) different
d) varied
Answer: a
Explanation: Conjunctions can broadly be classified into two types. They are: Co-ordinating conjunctions and subor
dinating conjunctions. Coordinating clauses are clauses of equal rank.

3. Which of these is not a coordinating conjunction?

a) Cumulative
b) Adversative
c) Possessive
d) Alternative
Answer: c
Explanation: Co-ordinating conjunctions can be classified into four types. They are: Cumulative, adversative, alterna
tive and illative.

4. Which of these is not a type of subordinating conjunction?

a) Result
b) Time
c) Cause
d) Age
Answer: d
Explanation: Subordinating conjunctions can be classified into seven types. They are: time, cause, purpose, result, c
ondition, concession and comparison.

5. Which of these words is not an example of subordinating conjunction related to time?

a) Before
b) Till
c) Because
d) Since
Answer: c
Explanation: Subordinating conjunctions which are related to time are indicated by words like before, till, since. For
example, “She reached here after he had left.” ‘Because’ is a conjunction related to reasoning. It joins two clauses w
herein one clauses states something and the other clauses provides reason to support the first clause.

6. Choose the correct statement:

a) He wants to win. But he doesn’t have the skills to do so.


b) He wants to win, but he doesn’t have the skills to do so.
c) He wants to win and he doesn’t have the skills to do so.
d) He wants to win as he doesn’t have the skills to do so.
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: He wants to win, but he doesn’t have the skills to do so. We don’t place the c
oordinating conjunctions and, or and but at the beginning of the sentence.

7. Choose the correct statement:

a) Either the action was just or unjust.


b) The action was either just or unjust.
c) The action was just or unjust.
d) The action was just or the action was unjust.
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: The action was either just or unjust. In correlative conjunctions, each member
of the pair should be placed before the same part of the speech.

8. Fill in the blank :

a) smart and beautiful


b) smart beautiful
c) smart or beautiful
d) smart but beautiful
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: The man was looking for a smart beautiful girl. Two adjectives used before a
noun are linked with and only if the belong to the same class.
9. Choose the correct statement:

a) These men are poor hence they are weak.


b) These men are poor and so they are weak.
c) These men are poor because they are weak.
d) These men are poor since they are weak.
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: These men are poor and so they are weak. Hence is an adverb, not a conjuncti
on. It can’t be used to link clauses.

10. Fill in the blank:

a) which
b) that
c) who
d) whom
Answer: c
Explanation: The correct statement is: son, who is only ten, has started playing rugby. A relative class which tells us
which person the speaker is talking about can begin with who or what, but if a relative clause simply adds a commen
t, it can’t begin with that.

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1. Which of these is an example of adversative co-ordinating conjunction?

a) He didn’t raise his hand and he didn’t raise his voice.


b) She was pretty, but she was dumb.
c) Hurry up, else you will lose.
d) You must have not studied hard, for the paper was easy.
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: She was pretty, but she was dumb. The adversative co-ordinating conjunction
represents contrast.

2. Which of these is not an example of subordinating conjunction related to cause?

a) Because
b) Since
c) As
d) Unless
Answer: d
Explanation: Cause is indicated by words like because, since and as. For example: He didn’t win the race, because h
e was injured.

3. A sentence may be joined by two clauses.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. The clauses may be joined by such connectors as and, but, that, when etc. For ex
ample, The water is cold and tasty.

4. Which of these words is not used to join the dependent clause with the main clause?
a) Who
b) When
c) For
d) But
Answer: d
Explanation: The dependent clause can be joined with the main clause by using words like who, when and for. But i
s used to join independent clauses.

5. Which of these words are not used by independent clauses?

a) Nor
b) Still
c) And
d) For
Answer: d
Explanation: Independent clauses use the words and, but, or, nor, still and however. For example, “He wanted to go
in the car, but it was unserviceable. For is used by dependent clauses.

6. A dependent clause may refer to a noun or pronoun in the main clause.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. A dependent clause may refer to a noun or pronoun in the main clause. It is joine
d with the main clause by connectors like what, which, whose, etc.

7. In relative clauses, which of these is used to refer to things?

a) Who
b) Which
c) That
d) Whom
Answer: b
Explanation: In relative clauses, we use which to refer to things, not to people. For example: The student who sits ne
xt to me in class comes from China. In this sentence, which isn’t used because people are being referred to. A senten
ce that uses which to refer to things is: The ice cream flavor which I like, was out of stock at the store.

8. Choose the correct statement :

a) Although he was hurt, but he continued to walk.


b) Although he was hurt, he continued to walk.
c) He was hurt, he continued to walk.
d) Although he continued to walk, he was hurt.
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: Although he was hurt, he continued to walk. We don’t use although and but t
ogether. To link two clauses, we just use one conjunction.

9. Choose the correct statement:

a) There were between 8 to 10 policemen present.


b) There were between 8 and 10 policemen present.
c) There were among 8 to 10 policemen present.
d) There were atleast 8 and 10 policemen present.
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: There were between 8 and 10 policemen present. After between we use and a
nd not to.

10. Fill in the blank:

a) however
b) but
c) though
d) hence
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: The man was badly injured, but he was alive. However is an adverb. It can no
t link sentences. We should use conjunctions like but, although or yet to link two contrasting clauses.

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1. A gerund is a form of verb which ends in -ing.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. gerund is a form of verb which ends in -ing, and has the force of a noun or a verb
. For example, “Eating is his pet hobby.”

2. The gerund is also called as :

a) Verb
b) Noun
c) Verb – noun
d) Adverb
Answer: c
Explanation: In “Eating is his pet hobby.”, the word “eating” is used as the subject of a verb. Hence it does a work o
f a noun, and is called a verb-noun. So, the gerund is also called a verb-noun.

3. In which of these, the gerund is the subject of the verb?

a) Sleeping is his favourite pastime.


b) I love sleeping.
c) I like eating apples.
d) He loves accumulating wealth.
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct statement is: Sleeping is his favourite pastime. A gerund, like a noun, can be the subject of
the verb, but like a verb, it also takes an object.

4. In which of these sentences, the gerund is the object of the verb?

a) I love eating apples.


b) Cleaning is his favourite pastime.
c) Eating is his hobby.
d) Ram was tired of walking.
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct statement is: I love eating apples. A gerund, like a noun, can be the object of the verb, but l
ike a verb, it also takes an object.
5. A gerund can be governed by a preposition.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. A gerund, like a noun, can be governed by a preposition, but like a verb, it also ta
kes an object. For example, “He loves accumulating wealth.”

6. The gerund is the same as:

a) Adverb
b) Pronoun
c) Adjective
d) Infinitive
Answer: d
Explanation: The gerund and the infinitive are alike. They are both used as nouns, and yet retain the power that a ver
b has of governing the noun or pronoun in the objective case.

7. Which of these is used to form a compound gerund form?

a) Past participle
b) Present participle
c) Perfect participle
d) Participial adjective
Answer: a
Explanation: Compound gerund forms are formed by placing a past participle after the gerunds of “have” and “be”.
For example, We are tired after having walked so much.

8. The present participle is also called as:

a) Adverb- noun
b) Verbal noun
c) Verbal adjective
d) Verbal pronoun
Answer: c
Explanation: The gerund has the force of a noun and a verb, it is a verbal noun. The present participle has the force o
f an adjective and a verb, it is called a verbal adjective.

9. A gerund can not be used as:

a) Subject of a noun
b) Object of the transitive verb
c) Object of a preposition
d) Absolutely
Answer: a
Explanation: A gerund may be used as: Subject of a verb, as, “Wiving and hanging go by destiny.” It is also used as
object of the transitive verb, object of a preposition and also absolutely.

10. Choose the correct statement:

a) We must prevent him playing.


b) We must prevent his playing.
c) We must prevent him for playing.
d) We must prevent his from playing.
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: We must prevent his playing. We must use the gerund qualified by the posses
sive adjective and not the object of the verb.

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1. Which of these is not a punctuation mark?

a) Full stop
b) Comma
c) Colon
d) Hashtag
Answer: d
Explanation: The main punctuation marks are full stop, comma, colon, semicolon, question mark, exclamation mark,
hyphen, dash, brackets, apostrophe. Hashtag isn’t a punctuation mark. It is a symbol used in social networks, and it
has no relevance in English Grammar.

2. The full stop is used at the end of an indirect question.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. The full stop is used at the end of an indirect question. It is used to mark the clos
e of a complete sentence. Example: I was wondering if you’d be interested in going to the cinema tonight.

3. The comma is used after a word used to address a person.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. The comma used before or after a word used to address a person. For example, “
Come here, Mohan.”

4. Which of these is used after a nominative absolute?

a) Colon
b) Comma
c) Full stop
d) Question mark
Answer: b
Explanation: The comma is used after a nominative absolute. For example, “ Once over, she returned home in compl
ete peace.”

5. Which of these is used to separate short co-ordinate clauses of a compound sentence?

a) Semicolon
b) Comma
c) Full stop
d) Colon
Answer: b
Explanation: The comma is used to separate short co-ordinate clauses of a compound sentence. For example, “ She c
ame, she stooped, she conquered.”
6. Which of these is used to separate a series of loosely related clauses?

a) Comma
b) Full stop
c) Semicolon
d) Colon
Answer: c
Explanation: The semicolon is used to separate a series of loosely related clauses. For example: Today we love what
tomorrow we hate; today we seek what tomorrow we shun.

7. Which of these is used between sentences which are grammatically independent?

a) Colon
b) Semicolon
c) Comma
d) Hyphen
Answer: a
Explanation: The colon is used between sentences which are grammatically independent but closely connected in se
nse. For example, “Truth is the greatest inspiration of all: nothing is of greater value.”

8. Which of these is used to convey proportions?

a) Semicolon
b) Colon
c) Comma
d) Hyphen
Answer: b
Explanation: The colon is used to convey certain conventional constructions as to convey proportions like 4 : 1.

9. Choose the correct statement:

a) My aunt who lives in Mumbai is a doctor.


b) My aunt, who lives in Mumbai, is a doctor.
c) My aunt, who lives in Mumbai is a doctor.
d) My aunt who lives in Mumbai, is a doctor.
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: My aunt, who lives in Mumbai, is a doctor. All the sentences are correct but t
he commas decide the meaning.

10. Choose the correct statement:

a) I met a beautiful , European woman.


b) I met a beautiful European woman.
c) I met a beautiful European, woman.
d) I met a beautiful , European, woman.
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: I met a beautiful European woman. Ungradable adjectives are hardly ever pre
ceded by commas.

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1. Which of these is used to indicate the omission of a word?


a) Colon
b) Semicolon
c) Comma
d) Apostrophe
Answer: c
Explanation: The comma is used to indicate the omission of a word, especially a verb; as, “Her first album sold only
2000 copies but her second 2,000,000”

2. Which of these is used before co-ordinative conjunctions?

a) Comma
b) Full stop
c) Colon
d) Dash
Answer: a
Explanation: The comma is used before certain co-ordinative conjunctions; as “To think thus is not intellectual, but s
tupidity.”

3. The comma is used before a participial phrase.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. The comma is used before and after a participial phrase. For example, “Alexande
r, having conquered India, wished to return home.”

4. Which of these is used to explain a preceding statement?

a) Comma
b) Hyphen
c) Semicolon
d) Colon
Answer: d
Explanation: The colon is used to explain a preceding statement; as “ A teacher has to perform a role: he must impar
t information.“

5. Which of these is used to indicate the end of a question tag?

a) Full stop
b) Question mark
c) Exclamatory mark
d) Colon
Answer: b
Explanation: The question mark is used to indicate the end of polite questions and question tags; as, “ He has won, h
asn’t he?”

6. Which of these is used to convey a sudden change or abrupt end of a thought?

a) Comma
b) Colon
c) Dash
d) Hyphen
Answer: c
Explanation: The dash is used to convey a sudden change or abrupt end of a thought. For example, “If he had worke
d hard – but why cry over spilt milk.” A dash shouldn’t be confused with a hyphen. A hyphen is slightly shorter than
a dash, and it is used to connect the parts of a compound word. For example: jack-of-all-trades.

7. The hyphen is a longer line than the dash.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. The hyphen is a shorter line than the dash. It is used to connect parts of a compo
und or complex work. For example: pro-active, lion-hearted.

8. Which of these is used in the case of titles of books?

a) Brackets
b) Capital Letters
c) Apostrophe
d) Parenthesis
Answer: b
Explanation: Capital letters are used in the case of titles of books, reports and articles. The first letter is capitalised. I
t is also used in the names of days and months.

9. Choose the correct statement:

a) The industrial age saw a rise in the use of machinery.


b) The Industrial age saw a rise in the use of machinery.
c) The Industrial Age saw a rise in the use of machinery.
d) The industrial Age saw a rise in the use of machinery.
Answer: c
Explanation: The correct statement is: The Industrial Age saw a rise in the use of machinery. We capitalise importan
t events and historic periods.

10. Choose the correct statement:

a) God, the supreme creator and the supreme being is our only hope.
b) God, the Supreme Creator and the Supreme Being is our only hope.
c) God, the Supreme creator and the Supreme being is our only hope.
d) God, the supreme Creator and the supreme Being is our only hope.
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: God, the Supreme Creator and the Supreme Being is our only hope. We use c
apital words referring to the Deity.

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1. The ‘e’ which is silent in any word, is dropped if a suffix beginning with a vowel is added to it.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. The ‘e’ which is silent in any word, is dropped if a suffix beginning with a vowel
is added to it. For example, “love” becomes “lovable”.

2. Courage becomes :
a) Courageous
b) Couragous
c) Courageable
d) Couragable
Answer: a
Explanation: “Courage” becomes “Courageous”. The silent e is retained in words ending with “ce” or “ge”. For exa
mple, “induce” become “inducive”.

3. Rot becomes _____ and pen becomes ______.

a) roted, pened
b) rotting, pened
c) rotting, penned
d) rotted, penned
Answer: c
Explanation: Rot becomes rotting and pen becomes penned. A monosyllabic word which ends with a consonant prec
eded by a single vowel letter has its consonant doubled if a suffix beginning with a vowel is added to it.

4. A monosyllabic word with one vowel cannot end in “c”.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Though most monosyllabic words with one vowel end with “k” (sack, rock, sock and so on), there are s
ome exceptions that end with just “c” (sac, zinc, talc).

5. A monosyllabic word containing two vowel letters ends with:

a) k
b) c
c) ck
d) kc
Answer: a
Explanation: A monosyllabic word containing two vowel letters ends with “k” and not “ck”. For example, book, cre
ak, etc..

6. A word which is monosyllabic and has one vowel must end with:

a) mm
b) ll
c) p
d) t
Answer: b
Explanation: A word which is monosyllabic and has one vowel must end with ll. For example, fill, ball, etc.. The onl
y exception to this is “pal”.

7. A word which is monosyllabic and has two vowels must end with:

a) ll
b) l
c) ck
d) c
Answer: b
Explanation: A word which is monosyllabic and has two vowels must end with l. For example, meal, fool, etc..

8. Which of these words is correct?

a) Allign
b) Align
c) Alignn
d) Alline
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct word is “Align”. It is often misspelt. Other such words are antenna, aperture, beginning, et
c..

9. Choose the correct statement:

a) I asked him if he was leaving.


b) I asked him whether he was leaving.
c) I asked him that if he was leaving.
d) I asked him weather he was leaving.
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: I asked him whether he was leaving. We use whether instead of if where or no
t is implied.

10. Choose the correct statement:

a) The boy gave his examination.


b) The boy took his examination.
c) The teacher took his examination.
d) The boy gave away the examination.
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: The boy took his examination. The teacher gives the examination and the boy
takes or sits for it.

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1. Which of these words is correct?

a) Bureau
b) Beaurau
c) Bereau
d) Bureu
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct word is “Bureau”. It is often misspelt. Other such words are benefitted, calibre, etc..

2. When a word ends with “y”, and the letter before “y” is a consonant; for the various other forms of the word, “y” i
s replaced with:

a) e
b) i
c) ie
d) eng
Answer: b
Explanation: When a word ends with “y”, and the letter before “y” is a consonant, then the “y” is replaced with an “i
” before all suffixes except “ing”. For example, “supply” becomes “supplier” or “supplying”.
3. The vowel u must always follow the consonant q.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. The vowel u must always follow the consonant q. For example: queer, quint, quo
tient, etc..

4. Choose the correct statement:

a) I should make more exercise.


b) I should take more exercise.
c) I should give more exercise.
d) I should have more exercise.
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: I should take more exercise. One can take an exercise, not make exercise.

5. Choose the correct statement:

a) I saw a strange dream last night.


b) I got a strange dream last night.
c) I had a strange dream last night.
d) I faced a strange dream last night.
Answer: c
Explanation: The correct statement is: I had a strange dream last night. We have a dream, we don’t see or get a drea
m.

6. Fill in the blank :

a) behind
b) before
c) slow
d) early
Answer: c
Explanation: The correct statement is: My watch is five minutes slow. A watch is slow or fast, not behind or in front
or not before or after.

7. Choose the correct statement:

a) It is dirty, throw it.


b) It is dirty, throw it away.
c) It is dirty, give it.
d) It is dirty, give it away.
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: It is dirty, throw it away. Throw it means to throw to someone. Throw it away
means get rid of something.

8. Fill in the blank:

a) lay
b) lie
c) lied
d) lye
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: I lie down for an hour every afternoon. Lie means to rest. It is an intransitive
verb and never has an object. Lay means to put. It is a transitive verb and always requires an object.

9. Choose the correct statement:

a) He tore the letter in anger.


b) He tore up the letter in anger.
c) He teared the letter in anger.
d) He teared up the letter in anger.
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: He tore up the letter in anger. To tear means to divide along a straight or irreg
ular line. To tear up means to destroy by tearing to pieces.

10. Fill in the blank:

a) robbed
b) taken
c) stolen
d) taken away
Answer: c
Explanation: The correct statement is: The thief has stolen all my belongings. The object of steal is the thing taken b
y the thief. The object of rob is the person or place from whom or which the thing is taken.

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1. Which of these words is correct?

a) Longevity
b) Longivity
c) Longevety
d) Longeviety
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct word is Longevity. It is often misspelt. Other such words are liquefy, liaison, mystique, pro
peller, etc..

2. Choose the correct statement:

a) Please open the light.


b) Please shut the light.
c) Please turn on the light.
d) Please shut down the light.
Answer: c
Explanation: The correct statement is: Please turn on the light. We turn on or off the light. We don’t open or shut the
light.

3. Choose the correct statement:

a) He comes always late for practice.


b) He always comes late for practice.
c) He comes late always for practice.
d) He comes late for practice always.
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: He always comes late for practice. Adverbs of indefinite time like, ever, never
, sometimes and the adverbs almost, hardly, nearby are placed before the principal verb.

4. Fill in the blank :

a) convince
b) persuade
c) push
d) force
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: I could not persuade him to come to the party. To convince is to make a perso
n believe in something that they initially didn’t believe in. To persuade means to get a person to do something.

5. Choose the correct statement:

a) Graham Bell discovered the telephone.


b) Graham Bell found the telephone.
c) Graham Bell invented the telephone.
d) Graham Bell did the telephone.
Answer: c
Explanation: The correct statement is: Graham Bell invented the telephone. To discover means to find that which alr
eady existed. To invent means to make that which did not exist.

6. The word “ultrasonic” is a noun.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. The word “ultrasonic” is an adjective whereas the word “ultra sound” is a noun.

7. Choose the correct statement:

a) I met him six years before.


b) I met him six years early.
c) I met him six years ago.
d) I met him six years behind.
Answer: c
Explanation: The correct statement is: I met him six years ago. We use ago in counting from the time of speaking to
a point in the past; we use before in counting from a distance to a nearer point in the past.

8. The word “cross-section” is a verb.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. The word “cross-section” is a verb whereas the word “cross section” is a noun. S
imilarly, the word “cut out” is a verb and “cutout” a noun.

9. Choose the correct statement:

a) I am presently working in Mumbai.


b) I am at present working in Mumbai.
c) I am at presently working in Mumbai.
d) I am present working in Mumbai.
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: I am at present working in Mumbai. At present means now and presently mea
ns soon.

10. Choose the correct statement:

a) This shop has many rich clients.


b) This shop has many rich customers.
c) This shop has many rich people.
d) This shop has many rich trespassers.
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: This shop has many rich customers. A person is a client to a lawyer, a bank, e
tc., but not to a shop.

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1. Which of the following word is correct?

a) Etiquette
b) Etiquete
c) Ettiquette
d) Ettiquete
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct word is “ Etiquette “. It is often misspelt. Other such words are eliminate, deferred, exagge
rate, etc..

2. Which of these words is an adjective?

a) Cutout
b) Output
c) Saccharin
d) Saccharine
Answer: d
Explanation: The word saccharine is an adjective. The words cutout, output and saccharin are nouns and not adjectiv
es.

3. Choose the correct statement:

a) The teacher told me to go to my house at once.


b) The teacher told me to go to my home at once.
c) The teacher told me to go to my building at once.
d) The teacher told me to go to my place at once.
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: The teacher told me to go to my home at once. A house is a building and a ho
me is a particular house in which one is living.

4. Choose the correct statement:

a) The ground was full of men.


b) The ground was full of people.
c) The ground was full of creatures.
d) The ground was full of beings.
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: The ground was full of people. We use the word people while referring to hu
man beings.

5. Fill in the blank :

a) a stupid
b) stupid
c) the stupid
d) a idiot
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: He called me stupid. Stupid, foolish, etc. are adjectives. They cannot be used
with the article after the verb to be.

6. Choose the correct statement:

a) His trouser is torn.


b) His trousers is torn.
c) His trousers are torn.
d) His trouser are torn.
Answer: c
Explanation: The correct statement is: His trousers are torn. Some nouns (as people, clothes, wages, scissors) are not
used in the singular.

7. Choose the correct statement:

a) The teacher complemented the class.


b) The teacher complimented the class.
c) The teacher complamented the class.
d) The teacher compliemented the class.
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: The teacher complimented the class. Complement means to compete whereas
compliment means to praise.

8. Choose the correct statement:

a) There were continuous interruptions during the match.


b) There were continually interruptions during the match.
c) There were continual interruptions during the match.
d) There were continued interruptions during the match.
Answer: c
Explanation: The correct statement is: There were continual interruptions during the match. Continual means recurri
ng often. Continuous means without a break.

9. Choose the correct statement:

a) Write down your ideas about playing cricket on a paper.


b) On a paper, write down your ideas about playing cricket.
c) About playing cricket on a paper, write down your ideas.
d) Write down about playing cricket on a paper, your ideas.
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: On a paper, write down your ideas about playing cricket. A word or phrase sh
ould stand as close as possible to any other word or phrase related to it in meaning or grammar.

10. Fill in the blank :


a) Maybe
b) May be
c) Might be
d) Could be
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct statement is: Maybe the rain will arrive today. Maybe means perhaps. May be means possi
bly is/ are ; as, He may be speaking the truth.

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1. Full stops must be omitted from abbreviations.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Full stops must be omitted from abbreviations, unless they are to be retained for
clarity.

2. No space must be added between abbreviations.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. No space must be added between abbreviations. The abbreviation of World Healt
h Organisation is WHO and not W.H.O.

3. Which of these months does not have an abbreviation?

a) January
b) December
c) May
d) August
Answer: c
Explanation: The abbreviations for January, December and August is Jan, Dec and Aug respectively. May, June and
July are not abbreviated.

4. What is the abbreviation for October?

a) Ocb
b) Oct
c) Octr
d) Ocr
Answer: b
Explanation: The abbreviation for October is Oct. Abbreviations for February is Feb, November is Nov and Decemb
er is Dec.

5. What is the abbreviation for Thursday?

a) Thu
b) Thur
c) Thurs
d) Thus
Answer: c
Explanation: The abbreviation for Thursday is Thurs and 6 is Tues. The abbreviation for Sunday is Sun, Monday is
Mon and Saturday is Sat.

6. Which of these measurements does not have an abbreviation?

a) Gram
b) Metre
c) Litre
d) Mile
Answer: d
Explanation: A word indicating measurement which has less than four letters is not abbreviated but there are excepti
ons like mile.

7. What is the abbreviation of Hectometre?

a) hm
b) hcm
c) hmt
d) htm
Answer: a
Explanation: The abbreviation of Hectometre is hm. The abbreviation of Dekametre is dkm and Decimetre is dm.

8. What is the abbreviation of Centilitre?

a) cl
b) ctl
c) dl
d) clt
Answer: a
Explanation: The abbreviation of Centilitre is cl. The abbreviation for Millilitre is m1l and kilolitre is kl. The abbrev
iation for Decilitre is dl.

9. What is the expansion of a/c?

a) Alternating current
b) Account
c) Association
d) Chartered Accountant
Answer: b
Explanation: The expansion for a/c is account. The abbreviation for alternating current is AC and association is asso
c.

10. What is the abbreviation for Centigrade?

a) cg
b) C
c) cgr
d) ctg
Answer: b
Explanation: The abbreviation for centigrade is C. The abbreviation for cubic centimetres is cc which is the same for
carbon copy.
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1. What is the expansion of AD?

a) Anno domini
b) Aide-de-camp
c) Appendix
d) Adverb
Answer: a
Explanation: The expansion for AD is Anno domini. It is a calendar term that was used in Julian and Gregorian cale
ndars. The abbreviations for Aide-de-camp, Appendix and Adverb are ADC, app and adv respectively.

2. What is the abbreviation for Pound?

a) P
b) Po
c) lb
d) llb
Answer: c
Explanation: The abbreviation for pound is lb. The abbreviation for microgram is mcg and for ounce is oz.

3. What is the expansion for PABX?

a) Private Automatic Branch Exchange


b) Public Automatic Branch Exchange
c) Private Annual Branch Exchange
d) Public Annual Branch Exchange
Answer: a
Explanation: The expansion for PABX is Private Automatic Branch Exchange. The expansion for PBX is Private A
utomatic Exchange.

4. Which of these means “from the beginning”?

a) ad hoc
b) ab intio
c) a priori
d) ad interim
Answer: b
Explanation: ad intio is a latin phrase which means “from the beginning”. Ad hoc means “made or done for a particu
lar purpose”.

5. Which of these is a French phrase?

a) Bona fide
b) De facto
c) Deja vu
d) Blitzkrieg
Answer: c
Explanation: Déjà vu is a French phrase which means “a sense of having experienced the present”. Bona fide is Lati
n word which means “real”. De facto is a Latin phrase. Blitzkrieg is a German term referring to a certain military tac
tic.

6. Which of these is an abbreviation for Bachelor of Laws?


a) BL
b) BLL
c) LB
d) LLB
Answer: d
Explanation: The abbreviation for Bachelor of Laws is LLB. The abbreviation for Doctor of Laws is LLD and Low
Frequency is LF.

7. Which of these means “a monument”?

a) Bulwark
b) Edifice
c) Facade
d) Portal
Answer: b
Explanation: Edifile (pronounced as ed-uh-fis) means a monument. Bulwark means a strong defensive wall structure
. Façade means the exterior face of a building. A portal is a door, or a gateway.

8. Which of these means “a tool for boring holes in wood”?

a) Auger
b) Banister
c) Conduit
d) Laminate
Answer: a
Explanation: The word “Auger” means a tool for boring holes in wood. Banister means a vertical member to support
a handrail. A conduit is a passageway for flow of fluids such as water. To laminate is to cover something with a lay
er of protective material, usually plastic.

9. Which of these is an abbreviation for Please Reply?

a) PR
b) RSVP
c) RP
d) RSP
Answer: b
Explanation: The abbreviation for Please Reply is RSVP (Répondez, S‘il Vous Plaît). The abbreviation for signed is
sgd.

10. Which of these means “to strain”?

a) Baste
b) Colander
c) Sieve
d) Confectionery
Answer: c
Explanation: The word sieve means to strain. The word baste means to moisten meat in its own juices during cookin
g.

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1. A verb must agree with its subject.


a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. A verb must agree with its subject in both number and person.

2. The use of possessive case should not be confined to which of these?

a) Name of living beings


b) Name of personified objects
c) A few stereotyped phrases
d) Nouns of space denoting a quality
Answer: d
Explanation: The use of possessive case should be confined to: Name of living beings and personified objects, few s
tereotyped phrases and nouns of space and time denoting an amount.

3. Possessive case is also known as?

a) Genitive case
b) Principal case
c) Qualifying case
d) Main case
Answer: a
Explanation: The possessive case is also known as genitive case. For example, “A day’s rest, a month’s duration”, et
c..

4. An article is used before which of these?

a) Common noun, plural number


b) Proper noun, singular number
c) Common noun, singular number
d) Proper noun, plural number
Answer: c
Explanation: As a general rule, an article is used before a common noun, singular number; as, “Behave like a man”.

5. The subject of a sentence can be left without a verb.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. The subject of a sentence should not be left without a verb. It is incorrect to say,
“He who has suffered most in the cause, let him speak.”

6. An ellipsis is a figure of _____

a) syntax
b) quality
c) amount
d) verb
Answer: a
Explanation: An ellipsis is a figure of syntax in which a word or words are left out but implied.

7. A participle should never be left without ______

a) proper reason
b) proper agreement
c) proper purpose
d) proper adverb
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: A participle should never be left without proper agreement. It is incorrect to s
ay, “ Sitting on the gate, a scorpion stung him”. It is correct to say, “ Sitting on the gate, he was stung by a scorpion”
.

8. Choose the correct statement.

a) One must keep one’s words.


b) One must keep one’s word.
c) One must keep ones words.
d) One must keep ones word.
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: One must keep one’s word. The word one’s should be followed by a singular
word.

9. Choose the correct statement.

a) Meena has lost a ten rupees note.


b) Meena has lost a ten rupees notes.
c) Meena has lost a ten rupee note.
d) Meena has lost a ten rupee notes.
Answer: c
Explanation: The correct statement is: Meena has lost a ten rupee note. Here, a ten rupee note is singular and we will
use rupee instead of rupees.

10. Fill in the blank.

a) except
b) accept
c) expect
d) acceppt
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct statement is: Everybody except Shyam were present. The word except means “ not includi
ng” or “other than”.

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1. Pronoun governing a Gerund should be put in possessive case.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Pronoun governing a Gerund should be put in possessive case. For example, “ Pl
ease forgive my being late.”

2. Adverbs must be placed next to the words they modify.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Adverbs must be placed next to the words they modify. For example, “ He had re
ached almost to the top when the rope broke.”

3. Which of these combinations destroy each other?

a) Positive + positive
b) Positive + negative
c) Negative + negative
d) Negative + positive
Answer: c
Explanation: Two negatives destroy each other. They must never be used together unless we wish to make an affirm
ation. For example: I didn’t do nothing. This is incorrect, as it has two negatives. The correct sentence is: I didn’t do
anything.

4. Which of these should not be used for adverbs?

a) Nouns
b) Adjectives
c) Prepositions
d) Verbs
Answer: b
Explanation: Adjectives can’t be used for adverbs. We should say, “ He came more quickly ( not quicker) than I exp
ected.”

5. In which of these ly is not added?

a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) Final
Answer: a
Explanation: In an enumeration say first, secondly, thirdly. First, being itself an adverb, does not need the ly that is f
requently added.

6. ______ must not be used with a Correlative.

a) Adjective
b) Noun
c) Adverb
d) Pronoun
Answer: c
Explanation: An adverb of degree must not be used with a correlative, unless the usage is colloquial. For example, “
He is very weak.”

7. _____ should not be used instead of so.

a) On the contrary
b) That
c) But
d) However
Answer: b
Explanation: That should not be used instead of so as an adverb. For example: I could reach only so (not that) far.

8. Choose the correct statement.


a) He bought two dozen mangoes.
b) He bought two dozens mangoes.
c) He bought two dozen mango.
d) He bought two dozens mango.
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct statement is: He bought two dozen mangoes. The word dozen is singular here as it is a coll
ective noun.

9. Choose the correct statement.

a) Who was it written by?


b) Who was it written?
c) By whom was it written?
d) By who was it written?
Answer: c
Explanation: The correct statement is: By whom was it written? Whom should be used to refer to the object of a ver
b or preposition.

10. Fill in the blank.

a) access
b) accesses
c) excess
d) excesses
Answer: d
Explanation: The correct statement is: The policemen have committed excesses on innocent students. Excess is used
as a noun or an adjective. When used as a noun, excess means something that is more than enough. Excesses shows
extremity of excess.

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1. On is used in speaking of things in motion.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. On is used in speaking of things at rest, and upon of things in motion. For exam
ple: The clock sat on the bedside table. This is an example of an object at rest. Whereas, in the sentence: She stumbl
ed upon a secret passage; movement is clearly being conveyed.

2. Fill in the blank.

a) on
b) upon
c) in
d) over
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is: The dog sprang upon him. On is used in speaking of things at rest, and upon of things
in motion.

3. Till is used for time.


a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Till is used of time and to is used of place. For example: I slept till 6 o’clock.

4. Which of these comes immediately after the noun?

a) Adverb phrase
b) Adjective phrase
c) Verb phrase
d) Pronoun phrase
Answer: b
Explanation: The adjective phrase comes immediately after the noun. For example: The top of the handle was broke
n.

5. Which of these statements is false?

a) The subject should usually follow the verb.


b) The object usually comes after the verb.
c) When there is an indirect object and a direct object, the indirect precedes the direct.
d) When the adjective is used attributively it comes before the noun which it qualifies.
Answer: a
Explanation: The subject should usually precede the verb. For example: The dog bit the boy. The object usually com
es after the verb.

6. Every statement must have a subject and a _____

a) noun
b) verb
c) predicate
d) phrase
Answer: c
Explanation: To be complete, every statement must have a subject and a predicate. In other words, once the subject
has been mentioned, there is necessity to say something about it.

7. Choose the correct statement.

a) Do not make friend with selfish people.


b) Do not make friendship with selfish people.
c) Do not make friends with selfish people.
d) Do not make friendly with selfish people.
Answer: c
Explanation: The correct statement is: Do not make friends with selfish people. The phrase ‘make friends’ is gramm
atically correct.

8. Choose the correct statement.

a) She doesn’t know the reason for his disappearance.


b) She doesn’t know the reason of his disappearance.
c) She doesn’t know the reason at his disappearance.
d) She doesn’t know the reason with his disappearance.
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct statement is: She doesn’t know the reason for his disappearance. The preposition should be
used according to the prepositional phrase.
9. Some students are ____ at copying.

a) adapt
b) adept
c) adopt
d) edept
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: Some students are adept at copying. Adept is an adjective meaning “proficient
or well trained.”

10. Father _____ me not to go out in the cold.

a) adviced
b) advised
c) advice
d) advise
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: Father advised me not to go out in the cold. Advise is a verb meaning “to cou
nsel”. Advice is a noun meaning “to give me opinion”.

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1. The present infinitive is the base form of a verb.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. The present infinitive is the base form of a verb. This is the form that we look up
in a dictionary as be, go, build, etc..

2. Which of these is used to refer to something that happened before the moment of speaking.

a) Present infinitive
b) Perfect infinitive
c) Bare infinitive
d) Continuous infinitive
Answer: b
Explanation: We must use perfect infinitive if we refer to something that happened or was expected to happen befor
e now (before the moment of speaking).

3. A modal verb is followed by a bare infinitive.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. A modal verb is followed by a bare infinitive ( not a to- infinitive). For example:
I felt that I could never go home again.

4. Fill in the blank.

a) don’t
b) not to
c) to not
d) to don’t
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is : I advised her not to drink it. We put not and never in front of the to of a to- in
finitive.

5. An infinitive clause may begin with a?

a) present infinitive
b) perfect infinitive
c) past infinitive
d) bare infinitive
Answer: d
Explanation: An infinitive clause may begin with a bare infinitive or a to- infinitive. The bare infinitive is more com
mon.

6. Choose the correct statement.

a) He obtained passing marks.


b) He obtained pass marks.
c) He obtained passed marks.
d) He obtained passing mark.
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: He obtained pass marks. Passing is the present participle form of pass which i
s to be used here.

7. Choose the correct statement.

a) Anil talks French well.


b) Anil chats French well.
c) Anil speaks French well.
d) Anil talk French well.
Answer: c
Explanation: The correct statement is: Anil speaks French well. Talk is usually a conversation and two-sided wherea
s speak is one- sided and more polite.

8. Choose the correct statement.

a) The ship was drowned.


b) The ship drowned.
c) The ship sank.
d) The ship had sank.
Answer: c
Explanation: The correct statement is: The ship sank. Drown is usually used for living creatures where sink is used f
or non- living objects.

9. Choose the correct statement.

a) It is they who has to leave this place.


b) It is they who have to leave this place.
c) It is them who has to leave this place.
d) It is them who have to leave this place.
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: It is they who have to leave this place. Has is used for singular (he or she) wh
ereas have is used for plural.

10. Fill in the blank.

a) altar
b) alter
c) alltar
d) allter
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct statement is: Offerings made upon the altar. Altar is a noun which means an elevated place
for religious rites. Alter is a verb meaning to make different.

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1. When we are trying to show what someone is like, we use compared to.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. When we are trying to show what someone or something is like, we use compar
ed with. While differentiating between two things, we use compared to.

2. When we draw attention to the similarities between two things, we use compared with.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. When we draw attention to the similarities or differences between two things, we
use compared with.

3. The committee members ______ to the proposal.

a) ascented
b) assented
c) accented
d) acsented
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: The committee members assented to the proposal. Assent means approval or a
greement.

4. Which of these means “bundle of cotton”?

a) Bail
b) Bael
c) Bale
d) Beal
Answer: c
Explanation: Bale means “bundle of cotton” whereas bail means the “temporary release of an accused person awaiti
ng trial”. Bael is a type of Indian fruit.

5. _____ were breached during the Hitler’s regime.

a) Canons
b) Canon
c) Cannon
d) Cannons
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct statement is: Canons were breached during the Hitler’s regime. Canon means a general law
, rule, principle, or criterion by which something is judged. Cannon is a kind of weapon.

6. Choose the correct statement.

a) Teacher cited many examples to prove his point.


b) Teacher sited many examples to prove his point.
c) Teacher citied many examples to prove his point.
d) Teacher citted many examples to prove his point.
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct statement is: Teacher cited many examples to prove his point. Cite means refer to (a passag
e, book, or author) as evidence for or justification of an argument or statement.

7. Personal assistant is a ______ of minister.

a) confidence
b) confident
c) confidential
d) confidant
Answer: d
Explanation: The correct statement is: Personal assistant is a confidant of minister. Confidant means a person with w
hom one shares a secret or private matter.

8. Choose the correct statement.

a) My friend has several dependents.


b) My friend has several dependants.
c) My friend has several dependaents.
d) My friend has several depandents.
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: My friend has several dependants. Dependant means a person who relies on a
nother, especially a family member, for financial support.

9. Choose the correct statement.

a) John and Mark fought a duel.


b) John and Mark fought a dual.
c) John and Mark fought a duet.
d) John and Mark fought a daul.
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct statement is: John and Mark fought a duel. Duel means a prearranged contest with deadly
weapons between two people in order to settle a point of honour.

10. Ambassadors have _____ manners.

a) urban
b) urbane
c) urben
d) urbaen
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: Ambassadors have urbane manners. Urbane is an adjective which means cour
teous and refined.

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1. Eponym is a word derived from the name of an object.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. Eponym is a word derived from the name of a person. It is a name of a person af
ter whom a discovery, invention, place etc. is named.

2. Alstroemeria is an eponym.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Alstroemeria is an eponym. It is a South American plant named after Swedish na
turalist Klas Von Alatroemer.

3. Which of these is not an eponym?

a) Bloomers
b) Boolean
c) Boycott
d) Basket
Answer: d
Explanation: Basket is not an eponym. Bloomers is a women’s loose fitting trousers gathered at the knee. It is name
d after American women’s rights advocate Amelia. J. Bloomer.

4. Cassegrain Telescope is named after?

a) A German astronomer
b) A French astronomer
c) A Russian astronomer
d) An American astronomer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cassegrain Telescope is a reflecting telescope named after the French astronomer N Cassegrain, who d
evised it. It is an eponym.

5. Which of these is an ornamental writing desk?

a) Derrick
b) Boronia
c) Davenport
d) Franciscan
Answer: c
Explanation: Davenport is an ornamental writing desk which was made for Captain Davenport. It is an eponym.

6. Which of these is named after an Irish land agent?

a) Boolean
b) Derrick
c) Boycott
d) Maxwell
Answer: c
Explanation: Boycott means to withdraw from social or commercial relations as a protest. It is an eponym named aft
er an Irish land agent Captain Charles C Boycott.

7. Which of these is not an eponym?

a) Chagas Disease
b) Alzheimer’s Disease
c) Marxism
d) Deployment
Answer: d
Explanation: Deployment is not an eponym. Chagas Disease is named after Brazilian physician Carlos Chagas and
Alzheimer’s Disease is named after German neurologist Alois Alzheimer.

8. Pennsylvania is named after whom?

a) William Penn
b) Jean Penn
c) Ralph Penn
d) George Penn
Answer: a
Explanation: Pennsylvania is an eponym. It is named after an English real estate entrepreneur and philosopher Willia
m Penn.

9. Which of these is named after a German physician?

a) Alzheimer’s Disease
b) Weil’s Disease
c) Chagas Disease
d) Reye’s Syndrome
Answer: b
Explanation: Weil’s Disease is a severe form of leptospirosis transmitted through rats. It is named after the German
physician H. Adolf Weil.

10. Which of these is a wine bottle?

a) Rehoboam
b) Nicotine
c) Roentgenium
d) Timothy
Answer: a
Explanation: Rehoboam is an eponym. It is wine bottle, six times bigger than standard size, named after king of anci
ent Israel. Nicotine is named after French ambassador Jean Nicot.

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1. Concord means an agreement.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Concord means an agreement or harmony between words. It governs the relation
ship of various parts of sentences to one another.

2. Between which of these words, there is no agreement in concord?

a) Gender
b) Number
c) Person
d) Flowers
Answer: d
Explanation: Grammatically, concord means agreement between words in gender, number, case or person. It govern
s the relationship of various parts of sentences to one another.

3. In the following statement, which of these are in agreement?

a) Noun and verb


b) Noun and pronoun
c) Verb and pronoun
d) Adverb and pronoun
Answer: b
Explanation: In the statement, “They nominated him chairman.”, the noun chairman and the pronoun they and him a
gree in case.

4. Apposition is a relationship between two or more words.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Apposition is a relationship between two or more words in which the units are gr
ammatically parallel and have the same referrant. For example: my sister.

5. In the following sentence, which two words are in apposition?

a) John and captain


b) John and ship
c) Captain and ship
d) John and port
Answer: a
Explanation: John, captain of the ship, was welcomed at the port. In the above sentence, Captain is in apposition to J
ohn.

6. Which of these can be used in apposition to a noun?

a) A verb clause
b) A noun clause
c) A adjective clause
d) A adverb clause
Answer: b
Explanation: A noun clause can also be in apposition to a noun or pronoun. For example: The General Manager issu
ed instructions that all incompetent executives should be fired.

7. Which pronoun is used as an introductory subject?


a) He
b) She
c) It
d) They
Answer: c
Explanation: The pronoun it is used as an introductory or provisional subject or object with an infinitive or noun cla
use in apposition. For example: It was a dark and stormy night…

8. In the following sentence, which two are in apposition?

a) difficult and Mathematics


b) difficult and understand
c) It and difficult
d) It and to understand
Answer: d
Explanation: It is difficult to understand Mathematics. Here, the infinitive to understand is in apposition to subject it.

9. In the following sentence, which two are in apposition?

a) presumed and unfair


b) it and to promote
c) presumed and it
d) it and unfair
Answer: b
Explanation: I presumed it unfair to promote such things. Here, the infinitive to promote is in apposition with the obj
ect it.

10. Which of these agree in number and person?

a) Noun
b) Relative pronoun
c) Verb
d) Adverb
Answer: b
Explanation: A relative pronoun agrees in number and person. For example: Penalise him who is miscreant.

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1. In the following sentence, which word is in accusative case?

a) person
b) whom
c) you
d) looking
Answer: b
Explanation: This is the person whom you are looking for. Here, in this sentence whom is third person singular and i
n accusative case.

2. Which of these is used in the following phrase?

a) Demonstrative adjectives
b) Descriptive adjectives
c) Possessive adjectives
d) Indefinite adjectives
Answer: a
Explanation: In the phrase, “ This machine “, demonstrative adjective “this” is used which agrees in number with the
noun it qualifies.

3. Verbs are in agreement with their subject only in number.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. Verbs are in agreement with their subjects in number and person. For example,
He and I are friends.

4. Verb takes a plural form in case of double subject.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Verb takes a plural form in case of double or multiple subject. For example : He
and I are inspectors.

5. Fill in the blank.

a) are
b) were
c) is
d) am
Answer: c
Explanation: The correct statement is: His aim and object is to pass the C.A. examination. Here, the double subject e
xpress the same plan, hence the verb is singular.

6. Fill in the blank.

a) are
b) was
c) were
d) there
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: Neither Ramesh nor his brother was present in the office. Here, the subject co
nsists of two singular words, hence, the verb takes singular form.

7. In case of double subject, when does verb takes plural form?

a) When both subjects represent same plan.


b) When both subjects are singular.
c) When one of the subjects is plural.
d) When the subject has multiple nouns.
Answer: c
Explanation: When one of the subjects is plural, the verb takes up plural form. For example: Neither Ram nor his br
others were present in the office.

8. Fill in the blank.


a) is
b) are
c) were
d) am
Answer: d
Explanation: The correct statement is: Neither Sona nor I am present in the office. If the subject consists of double o
r multiple nouns or pronouns separated by neither-nor, either-or then the verb agrees in person with the nearer noun
or pronoun.

9. A team of detectives ______ coming to inspect the crime scene.

a) are
b) were
c) is
d) may
Answer: c
Explanation: The correct statement is A team of detectives is coming to inspect the crime scene. Here, the collective
noun team is considered as a single unit, so the verb is singular.

10. Fill in the blank.

a) is
b) was
c) am
d) were
Answer: d
Explanation: The correct statement is: The council were not unanimous on certain economic issues. Here, the collect
ive nouns are considered as multiple units.

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1. Homophones are words that sound different but have same meanings.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. Homophones are words that sound the same but have different meanings and sp
ellings.

2. Which of these means to omit?

a) Accept
b) Except
c) Acept
d) Exccept
Answer: b
Explanation: Except is a preposition or verb which means to leave out or omit. Accept means to receive and is a ver
b. Both of these are homophones.

3. Which of these means to influence?

a) Affect
b) Efect
c) Effect
d) Affecct
Answer: a
Explanation: Affect and effect are homophones. Both these words are verbs. Affect means to influence while effect
means to bring about.

4. ______ is the most important city of a country.

a) Capitol
b) Capetol
c) Capital
d) Capitalisation
Answer: c
Explanation: Capital is a noun meaning the most important city or town of a country. Capitol is a noun meaning a bu
ilding, housing a legislative assembly.

5. Which of these is an adjective?

a) Course
b) Coaurse
c) Caorse
d) Coarse
Answer: d
Explanation: Coarse is an adjective meaning unrefined or harsh in texture. Course is a noun meaning the route or dir
ection followed by a river or ship.

6. Fill in the blank.

a) dairy
b) diary
c) deary
d) diery
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: She writes everyday in her diary. Dairy means a building or room for storage,
processing and distribution of milk and milk products. Diary means a book in which one keeps a daily record of eve
nts.

7. Which of these expresses distance?

a) Farther
b) Father
c) Further
d) Ferther
Answer: a
Explanation: Farther is an adverb and an adjective, used to express distance or space. Further means a greater expans
e of space or time, quality or degree.

8. _____ refers to the second-mentioned thing of two things.

a) Later
b) Latter
c) Latte
d) Late
Answer: b
Explanation: Later is an adjective. It is the comparative of late and means after some time. Latter refers to the secon
d or second-mentioned of two people or things.

9. Which of these is a conjunction?

a) Weather
b) Peace
c) Piece
d) Whether
Answer: d
Explanation: Weather is a noun meaning the state of the atmosphere at a place and time. Whether is a conjunction w
hich means expressing a doubt or choice between alternatives. For example: You’re going to school you’ve finished
your homework or not.

10. Which of these means a piece of wood?

a) Wage
b) Wadge
c) Wedge
d) Wedje
Answer: c
Explanation: Wage is a noun meaning a fixed regular payment for work. Wedge is a noun meaning a piece of wood
or metal.

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1. Social letters include ______ letters

a) friendly
b) business
c) formal
d) order
Answer: a
Explanation: Broadly, letters can be divided into two types. They are social letters and business letters. Social letters
include friendly letters and invitation letters.

2. Which of these is not a type of letter?

a) Friendly
b) Business
c) Application
d) Musical
Answer: d
Explanation: Specifically, letters can be divided into seven types. These include: friendly letters, business letters, ap
plication letters, letters of enquiry, adjustment letters, orders and complaint letters.

3. Which of these is not a part of a letter?

a) Date
b) Greeting
c) Photo
d) Signature
Answer: c
Explanation: Any letter must have seven parts: The writer’s address, the date, the courteous greeting or salutation, th
e main contents of the letter, the courteous leave-taking, the signature and the information on the envelope.

4. The writer’s address is placed at the top left corner.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. The writer’s address is placed at the top right hand corner of the first page. The
date should be placed just below it.

5. The salutation is placed at the extreme left hand of the first page.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. The salutation is placed at the extreme left hand of the first page, just below the d
ate.

6. Which of these is used as a form of greeting for business people?

a) Dear Nitin
b) Dear Father
c) Dear Sir
d) Dear Mr.Patel
Answer: c
Explanation: To address business people, we use Dear Sir, Dear Gentleman, etc. We use names when we address fri
ends or family members.

7. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

a) A letter must be written in one single paragraph.


b) A letter must be complete in all respects.
c) A letter must be written in legible handwriting.
d) A letter must be properly punctuated.
Answer: a
Explanation: The incorrect statement is: A letter must be written in one single paragraph. A letter must be divided in
to paragraphs. A letter must be complete in all respects.

8. Which of these is an example of courteous leave taking?

a) Yours Sincerely
b) Yours sincerely,
c) Yours sincerely
d) Sincerely
Answer: b
Explanation: Courteous leave taking is written below the last word of the letter, and to the right side of the page. It al
ways ends with a comma. And only the first letter must be in capital letter.

9. Where should the signature of the writer be placed?

a) Above the courteous leave taking


b) Below the courteous leave taking
c) Next to the courteous leave taking
d) On the envelope
Answer: b
Explanation: The signature or name of the writer must come below the courteous leave-taking. For example :

10. What is the information endorsed on the envelope?

a) Name
b) Address
c) Name and address
d) Name and date
Answer: c
Explanation: The information endorsed on the envelope is the name and address of the receiver. The writer’s address
is written inside, in the letter.

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1. Whom are friendly letters not written to?

a) Relatives
b) Close friends
c) Family members
d) Manufacturers
Answer: d
Explanation: Friendly letters are written to relatives and close friends. The language of these letters must be simple a
nd friendly.

2. Friendly letters can contain many subjects.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Friendly letters can contain many subjects. The order and choice of these subject
s would depend on the writer.

3. Which of these forms is not used to address people in friendly letters?

a) Dear
b) My dear
c) Respected
d) Dearest
Answer: c
Explanation: The forms of address used in friendly letters are Dear, My dear, Dearest, etc. For example: Dear father
or My dear Neha.

4. Which form of courteous leave-taking is not used in friendly letters?

a) Yours affectionately
b) Yours truly
c) Yours sincerely
d) Your loving son
Answer: b
Explanation: The forms of courteous leave-taking may be: Yours affectionately, Your loving son, Yours very sincer
ely, etc. Yours truly is used in formal letters.
5. Which of these is not prefixed with any form of courteous leave-taking in friendly letters?

a) With best wishes


b) With kind regards
c) With kindest regards
d) Your regards
Answer: d
Explanation: Courteous leave-taking may be prefixed with: With best wishes, With kind regards, With kindest regar
ds, etc..

6. Which of these phrases is used to start the main body of a friendly letter?

a) It was nice of you to…


b) All the best.
c) Please refer to your letter no…
d) We are pleased to place an order..
Answer: a
Explanation: In case of friendly letters the following phrases are normally used to start the main body of the letter: I
received your letter an hour ago, It was nice of you to.., I just learnt about.., etc.

7. Which of these phrases is used to end the main body?

a) Best wishes to all of you.


b) Thank you very much for your letter.
c) I received your letter today.
d) Thank you for your letter of 6th March.
Answer: a
Explanation: A friendly letter’s main body may end with: Please give your parents my respectful regards, Best wishe
s to all of you, All the best.

8. A formal invitation should be written in third person.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. A formal invitation should be written in third person. It should contain no headin
g or no salutation.

9. Where does the name of the writer come in a formal invitation?

a) Top right corner


b) Top left corner
c) Main body of the letter
d) Bottom right corner
Answer: c
Explanation: A formal invitation should be written in third person. The name of the writer comes in the main body o
f the letter.

10. Where should the date be written in a formal invitation?

a) Top left
b) Top right
c) Bottom left
d) Bottom right
Answer: c
Explanation: The address of the writer and the date should be written to the left, below the communication, that is, b
ottom left.

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1. Business letters should be concise.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Business letters should be precise and concise. Businessmen are extremely short
of time.

2. Which of these must be avoided in business letters?

a) Polite words
b) Formal words
c) Abbreviations
d) Clear details
Answer: c
Explanation: Words which are non-standard or usage of slang must be avoided. Abbreviations constitutes non- stand
ard usage. For example, use advertisement instead of advt.

3. The mode of payment must be stated in business letters.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. The mode of payment must be stated in business letters. Also, the way the goods
need to be transported has to be mentioned.

4. Which of these must not be mentioned in a business letter?

a) Information of the quality of the order


b) Name of the firm
c) The mode of payment
d) With regards
Answer: d
Explanation: A business letter must have clear details of articles required, giving precise information of the quality a
nd quantity you wish to order. Also, the mode of payment has to be mentioned.

5. Where should the name of the firm be mentioned?

a) Right of the page


b) Below the address of the writer
c) Above the address of the writer
d) On the last page of the letter
Answer: b
Explanation: The name of the firm or businessman to whom the letter is addressed should be written on the first pag
e of the letter to the left of the page, just below the address of the writer.
6. Which of these is not a mode of address for any letter?

a) To a tradesman
b) To a child
c) To a firm
d) To professional men
Answer: b
Explanation: The modes of address vary depending on the person to whom the letter has been addressed: to a trades
man, to a firm or to professional men.

7. Which of these is not used to conclude a business letter?

a) Yours faithfully
b) Yours truly
c) Yours sincerely
d) With kind regards
Answer: c
Explanation: Always begin a business letter with “Dear Sir” and conclude with “Yours faithfully”, “Yours truly”, et
c.. but not “Yours sincerely”.

8. Which of these should not be present in a business letter?

a) The name of firm or businessman


b) The date
c) Business jargon
d) Courteous leave-taking
Answer: c
Explanation: A business letter should be free of business or technical jargon or stereotyped expressions which conve
y nothing.

9. The space to be left from the top is ___

a) 5 cms
b) 2.5 cms
c) 4 cms
d) 2 cms
Answer: a
Explanation: There is a need to place the letter on the sheet as per accepted norms. The space left in a letter is 5 cms
at the top and at the bottom and 2.5 cms on the sides.

10. Where are the details of enclosures mentioned?

a) Beginning of the letter


b) Below the signature column
c) Right-hand side of the letter
d) Main body of the letter
Answer: b
Explanation: The detail of enclosures is placed below the signature column. They are aligned with the left-hand side
of the letter.

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1. A letter of application should have the same form as a business letter.


a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. A letter of application should have the same form as a business letter. They are o
f two types.

2. Which of these letters are in response to an advertisement?

a) Solicited letters
b) Unsolicited letters
c) Letters of enquiry
d) Letters of complaint
Answer: a
Explanation: Letters of application are of two types : Solicited and unsolicited. Solicited letters are in response to an
advertisement and unsolicited are written of one’s own accord.

3. Which of these letters of application must include a statement of the writer’s age?

a) For complain
b) For employment
c) For enquiry
d) For adjustment
Answer: b
Explanation: A letter of application for employment must include a statement of the writer’s age, education and expe
rience.

4. Solicited letters of application are written of one’s own accord.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. Unsolicited letters of application are written of one’s own accord. Solicited lette
rs of application are in response to an advertisement.

5. Resume is called curriculum vitae in ________

a) India
b) France
c) North America
d) South America
Answer: c
Explanation: Resume is called curriculum vitae in North America but the two have very different formats in the mod
ern day world of job applications.

6. Which of these must not be mentioned in your CV?

a) Out of turn promotions


b) Special recognitions
c) How you helped your previous employer
d) Salary you are looking for
Answer: d
Explanation: It is very unprofessional to mention the salary amount that you hope to earn. Also, you must never belit
tle your previous boss or company while writing to apply for a new job at another company.
7. Which of these details should not be mentioned in your resume?

a) Age
b) Telephone number
c) Health
d) Nationality
Answer: b
Explanation: A resume generally consists of details such as: Age, health, martial status, nationality, education, exper
ience and references.

8. Where is the name and address mentioned in a Job- Description CV?

a) Top right corner


b) Top left corner
c) Bottom right corner
d) Bottom left corner
Answer: b
Explanation: The name and address of the specimen along with the date is mentioned in the top left corner of the job
description CV. The date is mentioned below the name and address.

9. Which of these is not mentioned in a skills profile?

a) Career aim
b) Academic achievements
c) Interests
d) Employment
Answer: b
Explanation: A skills profile is different from a job description CV. You can highlight your skills here. You can men
tion details like career aim, employment, experience, sales, etc..

10. Which of these is mentioned in a bio- data?

a) Career aim
b) Interests
c) Telephone number
d) Date
Answer: c
Explanation: A bio-data consists of details like name, address, telephone number, marital status, academic achievem
ents, extracurricular activities, professional experience and reference.

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1. References are mentioned in a resume.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. References are mentioned in a resume. Resume has other details like age, health,
nationality, etc.

2. A skill profile is same as that of a job description CV.


a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. A skills profile is different from a job description CV. Here, the stress is less on
the jobs you have done and more on the skills you have acquired.

3. Which of these is not mentioned in a resume?

a) Address
b) Age
c) Nationality
d) Experience
Answer: a
Explanation: Address is not mentioned in a resume. Age, experience, nationality and health is mentioned along with
education.

4. How many references are usually given in a resume?

a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
Answer: b
Explanation: Generally, three references are to be mentioned in a resume. In some cases, more than three can also be
mentioned.

5. Which of these is not mentioned in a job description CV?

a) Date
b) Name
c) Nationality
d) Education
Answer: c
Explanation: Nationality is not usually mentioned in a job description CV. Name, address and date is mentioned in a
job description CV along with education.

6. Where is the name and address mentioned in a skills profile?

a) Top left corner


b) Top right corner
c) Bottom left corner
d) Bottom right corner
Answer: a
Explanation: The name and address is mentioned in the top left corner in a specimen skills profile. Along with this, c
areer aim, employment and experience is mentioned.

7. How many references are usually given in a bio-data?

a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
Answer: a
Explanation: Generally, two references are mentioned in a bio-data. In some cases, more than two can also be menti
oned.

8. Which of these is not mentioned in a bio-data?

a) Name
b) Address
c) Career aim
d) References
Answer: c
Explanation: Career aim is usually mentioned in a skills profile and not in a bio-data. Name, address, telephone num
ber and references are mentioned in a bio-data.

9. Resume is a _____ word.

a) French
b) German
c) Indian
d) American
Answer: a
Explanation: Resume is a French word which means summary. It is a document which is used in application for a jo
b.

10. Curriculum vitae is a ____ word.

a) French
b) German
c) Latin
d) Indian
Answer: c
Explanation: Curriculum vitae is a Latin word which means course of life. It is abbreviated as CV. It should have a f
airly standard layout.

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1. Which of these are the most common type of business letters?

a) Letters of application
b) Letters of enquiry
c) Letters of order
d) Letters of adjustment
Answer: b
Explanation: Letters of enquiry are the most common type of business letters. These should be written with due care.
They must create the right impression.

2. Which of these is not a type of letters of enquiry?

a) General enquiries
b) Personal enquiries
c) Sales related enquiries
d) Status enquiries
Answer: b
Explanation: Letters of enquiry can be of three types. They are : General enquiries, sales related enquiries and status
enquiries.
3. Which of these is not a letter of enquiry?

a) General enquiry
b) Status enquiry
c) Friendly enquiry
d) Sales related enquiry
Answer: c
Explanation: Letters of enquiry are of three types: General enquiries, status enquiries and sales related enquiries. Fri
endly enquiry doesn’t exist.

4. General enquiry letters do not result in any business return.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. General enquiry letters do not result in any business return. They are used to acc
umulate information for business or private research.

5. Sales related enquiries seek information regarding the business practice of enterprises.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. Status enquiries seek information regarding the business practice of enterprises.
Sales related enquiries seek information regarding purchase of a product.

6. Which of these seek information regarding purchase of a product?

a) General enquiry
b) Status enquiry
c) Sales related enquiry
d) Private enquiry
Answer: c
Explanation: Sales related enquiries seek information regarding purchase of a product or service. Status enquiries se
ek information regarding the business practices of enterprises.

7. What is the best way to seek information regarding finance?

a) Schools
b) Banks
c) Shops
d) Post office
Answer: b
Explanation: Status enquiries seek information regarding the financial viability and business practices of enterprises.
The best way to seek information on matters regarding finance is through banks or financial institutions.

8. Which of these details is not required in a letter of enquiry?

a) Mode of packing
b) Mode of payment
c) Mode of transport
d) Age of owner
Answer: d
Explanation: Only relevant details must be stated in a letter of enquiry, such as: the purpose for which the item is req
uired, the mode of payment, the mode of transport, the mode of packing, the expected delivery schedule, etc. The ow
ner’s age isn’t relevant as it won’t influence the business in any way.

9. Where should the name and address of the firm writing the letter be mentioned in a letter of enquiry?

a) Top left corner


b) Top right corner
c) Bottom left corner
d) Bottom right corner
Answer: b
Explanation: The name and address of the firm writing the letter of enquiry should be mentioned on the top right cor
ner along with the date below it.

10. Where should the courteous leave- taking be mentioned on a letter of enquiry?

a) Top left corner


b) Top right corner
c) Bottom left corner
d) Bottom right corner
Answer: d
Explanation: The courteous leave-taking is mentioned in the bottom right corner along with the signature and design
ation below it.

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1. Quotations are letters of enquiry.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Quotations are letters of enquiry in which an organisation or an individual asks a
nother organisation or individual to quote its or his rates and terms of payment for the goods intended to be purchase
d.

2. Where is the name of the company inviting mentioned in an invitation of quotation?

a) Top left corner


b) Bottom left corner
c) Top right corner
d) Bottom right corner
Answer: c
Explanation: The name of the company inviting is mentioned in the top right corner on an invitation of quotation alo
ng with the address and date.

3. Where is the name of the company which is invited mentioned?

a) Top left corner


b) Top right corner
c) Bottom left corner
d) Bottom right corner
Answer: a
Explanation: The name of the company which is invited is mentioned in the top left corner in an invitation of quotati
on below the address of the inviting party.

4. Where is the courteous leave-taking mentioned in an invitation of quotation?

a) Top left
b) Bottom right
c) Top right
d) Bottom left
Answer: b
Explanation: The courteous leave-taking is mentioned in the bottom right corner along with signature and designatio
n.

5. Quotations are friendly letters.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. Quotations are letters of enquiry and thus are business letters. It is normal to inv
ite quotations from a large number of sellers.

6. A tender is advertised in ______

a) newspapers
b) business environment
c) domestic markets
d) sellers
Answer: a
Explanation: There is a difference between quotations and tenders. A tender is advertised in newspapers, magazines,
etc..

7. Which of these is not mentioned in a tender?

a) Date
b) Notice number
c) Sign
d) Designation
Answer: c
Explanation: A tender does not have the sign of the authority mentioned in it. It only has the designation mentioned.

8. Where is the designation of the authority giving the tender mentioned?

a) Top center
b) Bottom left
c) Bottom right
d) Top left
Answer: c
Explanation: The name of the authority is mentioned in the bottom right corner along with the organization’s name a
nd branch.

9. Where is the name of the organization mentioned in the tender?

a) Top left
b) Top center
c) Top right
d) Bottom center
Answer: b
Explanation: The name of the organization along with tender notice number and date is mentioned in the top center i
n bold in the beginning.

10. Which of these is mentioned in a tender?

a) Notice number
b) Signature
c) Address of the tenderer
d) Courteous leave-taking
Answer: a
Explanation: In the top center, the name and address of the organisation is mentioned along with the tender notice nu
mber and the date.

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1. Orders for goods are placed on a seller after his quotation is accepted.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Orders for goods are placed on a seller after his quotation is accepted. The order
must be precise.

2. While placing an order, the quantity of the goods must be stated.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. While placing an order, the quantity of the goods must be stated. The cost at whi
ch it is required should also be mentioned.

3. Where is the name of the company placing the order mentioned?

a) Top left corner


b) Top right corner
c) Bottom left corner
d) Bottom right corner
Answer: b
Explanation: The name of the company placing the order is mentioned in the top right corner in the letter. The date i
s mentioned below that.

4. Where is the date mentioned in the letter when an order is placed?

a) With the address of the company placing the order


b) Below the address of the seller
c) After the salutation
d) Along with the leave-taking
Answer: a
Explanation: The date is mentioned along with the name of the address of the buyer in the top right corner in a letter
when an order is placed.
5. Which of these should not be mentioned in a letter while placing an order?

a) Date
b) Address of seller
c) Age of owner
d) Leave taking
Answer: c
Explanation: An order letter has the name of the buyer and the seller along with date and courteous leave-taking. Als
o the quantity and cost of the order is mentioned.

6. Which of these is mentioned in a letter when an order is placed?

a) Age of the owner


b) Nationality of the owner
c) Health of the owner
d) Mode of payment
Answer: d
Explanation: No personal details are to be mentioned in an order letter. The mode of payment along with the mode o
f transportation should be mentioned.

7. Where is the leave-taking mentioned in an order letter?

a) Top left
b) Top right
c) Bottom left
d) Bottom right
Answer: d
Explanation: The courteous leave-taking is mentioned in the bottom right corner after the main body of the letter alo
ng with signature and designation.

8. Which of these is not mentioned in a letter of complaint?

a) Problems in the supply of goods


b) Shortcomings in the supply of goods
c) Features in the supply of goods
d) Fault in the supply of goods
Answer: c
Explanation: A letter of complaint states the problems or shortcomings found in the supply of goods. We need to cle
arly state the faults found in the goods or services.

9. Where is the address of the company complaining mentioned?

a) Top left corner


b) Top right corner
c) Bottom left corner
d) Bottom right corner
Answer: b
Explanation: The name and address of the company writing the letter of complaint is mentioned in the top right corn
er of the letter.

10. Where is the leave-taking mentioned in a letter of complaint?

a) Top left
b) Top right
c) Bottom left
d) Bottom right
Answer: b
Explanation: The courteous leave-taking is mentioned in the bottom right corner in the letter of complaint along with
the designation and signature.

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1. An adjustment letter usually follows a letter of ____

a) enquiry
b) application
c) complaint
d) invitation
Answer: c
Explanation: An adjustment letter usually follows a letter of complaint. There is need to rationally assess a letter of c
omplaint to establish whether or not the complaint is justified.

2. If the letter of complaint is in order, it must be assessed whether the money can be refunded or not.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Once it is established that the letter of complaint is in order, it must be assessed
whether the money can be refunded or not.

3. If the letter of complaint is in order, it must be assessed whether substitute items can be supplied or not.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Once it is established that the letter of complaint is in order, it must be assessed
whether substitute items can be supplied or not.

4. Where is the name of the company writing the letter of adjustment mentioned?

a) Top left
b) Top right
c) Bottom left
d) Bottom right
Answer: b
Explanation: The name and address of the company writing the letter of adjustment is mentioned on the top right cor
ner along with the date.

5. Where is the date mentioned in the letter of adjustment?

a) With the name of the company which placed the complaint


b) With name of the company writing the letter
c) After the main body of the letter
d) After the leave-taking
Answer: b
Explanation: The date is mentioned below the name and address of the company writing the letter of adjustment on t
he top right corner.
6. Where is the name and address of the company that complained mentioned?

a) Top right
b) Bottom right
c) Top left
d) Bottom left
Answer: c
Explanation: The name and address of the company which has placed the company is mentioned in the top left belo
w the address of the company writing the letter of adjustment.

7. Where is the leave-taking mentioned in the letter?

a) Top left
b) Top right
c) Bottom left
d) Bottom right
Answer: d
Explanation: The courteous leave-taking is mentioned in the bottom right corner along with signature and designatio
n below the main body of the letter.

8. If the letter of complaint is in order, which of these need not be assessed?

a) If money can be refunded


b) If substitute items can be supplied
c) If the damage of the goods was the fault of the owner
d) If the loss can be claimed from the insurance company
Answer: c
Explanation: Once it is established that the letter of complaint is in order it must then be assessed whether the damag
e or loss of goods was the fault of transporters.

9. The fault in a letter of adjustment should be accepted with ____

a) grace
b) disgrace
c) disapproval
d) clumsiness
Answer: a
Explanation: Certain principles are to be observed in letters of adjustment. The fault in a letter of adjustment should
be accepted with utmost grace.

10. A letter of adjustment must explain ____

a) excuses
b) lies
c) facts
d) fakeness
Answer: c
Explanation: Certain principles are to be observed in letters of adjustment. It must explain facts, especially if the clai
m is unjustified.

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1. A paragraph gives expression to thoughts in any writing.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. A paragraph gives expression to thoughts in any writing. It has many features lik
e length, unity, etc..

2. Which of these is not an important feature of a paragraph?

a) Length
b) Breadth
c) Unity
d) Coherence
Answer: b
Explanation: A paragraph gives expression to thoughts in any writing. The important features of paragraph are its le
ngth, unity, coherence and emphasis.

3. A paragraph should contain short sentences.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. A paragraph should contain short sentences. These are preferred.

4. An average length of sentence in a paragraph should be _____

a) 15 to 20 words
b) 25 to 30 words
c) 2 to 5 words
d) 5 to 10 words
Answer: a
Explanation: An average length of sentence should be about 15 to 20 words. These should be a variety in sentence le
ngth. It is better to adopt a range from 3 to 30 words.

5. Which of these is not a feature of a paragraph?

a) Length
b) Unity
c) Incoherence
d) Correctness
Answer: c
Explanation: A paragraph has six features. They are: length, unity, coherence, emphasis, courtesy and correctness. O
ut of these the important ones are length, unity, coherence, emphasis.

6. Where should the main idea be put up in a paragraph?

a) In the beginning
b) In the middle
c) At the end
d) After the paragraph
Answer: a
Explanation: The main idea should be put up front within a sentence. A writer must decide the emphasis accordingly
. The writer should choose words precisely.
7. Which of these should be avoided in a paragraph?

a) Courtesy
b) Positive attitude
c) Discriminatory language
d) Politeness
Answer: c
Explanation: A paragraph writer should be sincerely tactful, thoughtful and nondiscriminatory. Courteous communic
ation wins hearts of the readers and the listeners.

8. Which of these is not a level of language?

a) Formal
b) Public
c) Informal
d) Substandard
Answer: b
Explanation: There are three levels of language. They are: formal, informal and substandard (or non standard).

9. Which of these is not a level of language?

a) Formal writing
b) Informal writing
c) Substandard language
d) Formal speaking
Answer: d
Explanation: The levels of language used are in writing. It is important to use the right level of language. The levels
of language are: formal, informal and substandard.

10. Which of these is associated with academic pursuits?

a) Informal writing
b) Formal writing
c) Personal writing
d) Substandard writing
Answer: b
Explanation: Formal writing is associated with academic pursuits and scholarly writings e.g: thesis, research papers
and articles, government agreements, legal documents.

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1. Which of these can be used to overcome stage fear?

a) A speech must be prepared with care.


b) A speech must be untimed.
c) Facts need not be checked.
d) There should be no pause.
Answer: a
Explanation: Every speaker has a natural stage of fear. This can be overcome by various means like : a speech must
be prepared with care and must be learnt properly.

2. Which of these is not advisable to make facts interesting?


a) By narrating them as a story
b) Through an anecdote
c) With the help of a personal incident
d) By stating them as points
Answer: d
Explanation: Facts should be presented in an interesting manner. Most speakers resort to narrating a story or an anec
dote to ensure the interest of the audience.

3. A speaker must have a confident attitude.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. A speaker must have a positive and confident attitude. This would ensure the em
pathy of the audience.

4. There are how many ways to start a presentation?

a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
Answer: a
Explanation: There are two ways in which a presentation can be started. They are: Hard sell approach and soft sell a
pproach.

5. In hard sell approach, the speaker begins with a question.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. In hard sell approach, the speaker begins with a question or a remark which estab
lishes the requirement of the customer.

6. In ______ approach, the speaker introduces the company and the product.

a) hard sell
b) soft sell
c) rough sell
d) smooth sell
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: In soft sell approach, the speaker introduces the company and the product.

7. In any meeting, the most worthwhile impact is made by _____

a) stories
b) incidents
c) facts
d) anecdotes
Answer: c
Explanation: In any meeting, the most worthwhile impact is made by facts. The more profound the facts the greater i
s the impact that a speaker would leave in a meeting.
8. Which of these can irritate the audience?

a) If facts are uttered coherently


b) If facts are uttered incoherently
c) Narrating incidents
d) Narrating anecdotes
Answer: b
Explanation: If facts are uttered incoherently or without cohesion, there is a likelihood that the audience would be irr
itated rather than be pleased.

9. Which of these represent defiance?

a) Clenched fist
b) Clinton thumb
c) Fig sign
d) Dap greeting
Answer: a
Explanation: Clenched fist is used as a gesture of defiance or solidarity. Facing the signer, it threatens physical viole
nce (i.e., “a thumping”).

10. Which of these does not mean stage fear?

a) aphonia
b) phonia
c) aphonia clericorum
d) aphonia paralytica
Answer: b
Explanation: There are many synonyms for stage fear like : aphonia, aphonia clericorum, aphonia paralytica,etc..

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1. A proposal is a plan.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. A proposal is a plan or suggestion. It is an offer of something.

2. A proposal is a medium aimed at ______

a) instruction
b) persuasion
c) prevention
d) advice
Answer: b
Explanation: A proposal is a medium or an instrument aimed at persuasion. A proposal may suggest internal improv
ement or it can be used to complete a task by others on payment.

3. Which of these are the largest requesters of proposals?

a) Teachers
b) Governments
c) Business institutions
d) Builders
Answer: b
Explanation: Governments undertake several projects; hence they are the largest requesters of proposals. There are c
ompanies having expertise in special tasks, proposals are sent to them.

4. Which of these is not an objective of proposal?

a) To construct buildings
b) To demolish new structures
c) To install telecommunications
d) To conduct research
Answer: b
Explanation: There are multiple objectives of proposals. Some of them are: To construct buildings, to demolish old s
tructures, to install telecommunications, to conduct research, etc..

5. The architecture used by Cloud workloads is:

a) Event-driver
b) Distributed
c) Data-centric
d) Component-based
Answer: b
Explanation: The Cloud workloads uses a distributed architecture. Failover and scaling are built into the application
and it can scale out by adding more instances to the meet the demand.

6. Proposals are made to undertake survey for ground water.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Proposals are made to undertake survey for ground water, minerals etc. They are
also made to provide training to staff and executives.

7. Which of these proposals are academic in nature?

a) Research proposals
b) Business proposals
c) Personal proposals
d) Musical proposals
Answer: a
Explanation: Proposals are presentations. They are of two types: research proposals and business proposals. Researc
h proposals are purely academic in nature.

8. When a potential customer is interested in a vendor’s product after casually speaking to the vendor about it, the cu
stomer makes a _______.

a) Personal proposal
b) Informally solicited proposal
c) Formally solicited proposal
d) Unsolicited proposal
Answer: b
Explanation: In such situation, the customers themselves come forward to the vendor and ask for a proposal; and the
y don’t look at proposals from other vendors who are offering similar products or services, because they are already
interested enough in one vendor. Such proposals are informally solicited proposals.
9. Which of these proposals are submitted by qualified individuals?

a) Research proposals
b) Business proposals
c) Private proposals
d) Personal proposals
Answer: b
Explanation: Business proposals are formal proposals submitted by qualified individuals and organisations to compa
nies who have solicited help solve any problem, supply goods and services.

10. Which of these proposals requires fewer parts of content?

a) Long proposals
b) Short proposals
c) Lengthy proposals
d) Research proposals
Answer: b
Explanation: With respect to length, there are two types of proposals. They are: short and long proposals. Short prop
osals require fewer parts of content than long proposals.

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1. Which of these is not a part of a proposal?

a) First page
b) Outline
c) Complaint
d) Contents
Answer: c
Explanation: The contents of proposals vary according to their length. There are twelve parts in a proposal like title
and first page, outline, proforma, contents, introduction, etc. The objective of a proposal is for there to be an agreem
ent between the customer and the vendor. Cordiality between the two parties is of utmost importance. So, a complai
nt shouldn’t be in a proposal at all.

2. Which of these does the title and first page not include?

a) Brief information of the proposal


b) Name of the institution
c) Nationality of the person submitting the proposal
d) Name of the person submitting the proposal
Answer: c
Explanation: The title and first page includes the title of the proposal, a brief information of the proposal, name of th
e institution, name of the person to whom the proposal is submitted and the name of the person submitting the propo
sal.

3. Main features of the proposal are outlined in an abstract form.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Outline is a brief sketch of the proposal. Main features of the proposal are outline
d in an abstract form.
4. Which of these is the most important part of the proposal?

a) Title and first page


b) Abstract
c) Contents
d) Experience
Answer: b
Explanation: The abstract is an executive summary seeking to gain a quick overview. It speaks for the entire proposa
l and is the most important part of the proposal.

5. Where is the proforma placed in a proposal?

a) After title
b) After contents
c) After introduction
d) After outline
Answer: d
Explanation: The proforma should be prepared carefully and inserted after the abstract. It is useful for both the partie
s.

6. Which of these is a must for long proposals?

a) Proforma
b) Contents
c) Outline
d) Personnel
Answer: b
Explanation: The content page outlines the contents of the proposal. It shows a list of matters, tables, figures and cha
rts. It is a must for long proposals.

7. Which of these mentions the objectives of the proposal?

a) Introduction
b) Contents
c) Purpose of the proposal
d) Scope of the proposal
Answer: c
Explanation: The purpose of the proposal mention clearly the objectives of the proposal. It should be made clear to t
he authorities that you understand the problem.

8. Which of these parts contains the background information?

a) Personnels
b) Introduction
c) Scope of the proposal
d) Experience
Answer: d
Explanation: The proposal should contain background information about the person or institution submitting the pro
posal. Experience counts.

9. Which of these is attached at the end of a proposal?

a) Infrastructure
b) Budget estimate
c) Appendices
d) Experience
Answer: c
Explanation: Additional bulk may be attached at the end. These are also known as appendices. Appendices are usual
ly in the form of charts or graphs.

10. Which part of a proposal talks about the facilities required?

a) Budget estimate
b) Infrastructure
c) Subsidiary matter
d) Scope of the personnel
Answer: b
Explanation: The equipments and facilities are needed for completion of projects. The institution should be equipped
with necessary infrastructure.

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1. The word communication is derived from _____

a) communicare
b) comunnicare
c) comunicare
d) communnicare
Answer: a
Explanation: The word communication is derived from the Latin word “communicare” which means “to share”. Ma
n communicates through a sophisticated system of symbols.

2. Communicare is a _____ word.

a) French
b) Latin
c) German
d) Indian
Answer: b
Explanation: The word communication is derived from the Latin word communicare which means to share. It must a
dvance information with affinity.

3. Which of these is the triangle of communication?

a) ABR
b) ARD
c) ARC
d) ARS
Answer: c
Explanation: A triangle of communication known as the ARC triangle can be formed. Here A stands for Affinity, R
for Reality and C for Communication.

4. Non-verbal communication includes all external stimuli apart from words uttered.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Non-verbal communication includes all external stimuli apart from words uttered
or written.

5. Which of these should communication not advance?

a) Information
b) Affinity
c) Reality
d) Personal desires
Answer: d
Explanation: A communication must advance information along with affinity. It must advance information which is
real- both in intellectual and moral sense.

6. Which of these is the greatest means of conveying information?

a) Writing
b) Words
c) Signs
d) Pictures
Answer: b
Explanation: Though a message can be conveyed by means other than words, man’s greatest means of conveying inf
ormation is through words. Thus very little information can be conveyed without uttering words.

7. There is a barrier to communication when words are uttered in a ______ sense.

a) negative
b) positive
c) polite
d) good
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct statement is: There is a barrier to communication when words are uttered in a negative sens
e. The words uttered must be real to the person who is hearing it.

8. Personal appearance is an element of non-verbal communication.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Personal appearance is an element of non-verbal communication. Some refer to n
on-verbal communication as body language.

9. Which of these is not an element of non- verbal communication?

a) Personal appearance
b) Posture
c) Eye contact
d) Name of the speaker
Answer: d
Explanation: The main elements of the non-verbal communication: personal appearance, posture, gestures, facial ex
pressions, eye contact, tone of the speaker, etc..

10. Which of these is a main element of non-verbal communication?


a) The volume of the speaker
b) Name of the speaker
c) Name of the listener
d) Age of the speaker
Answer: a
Explanation: The main elements of the non-verbal communication: personal appearance, posture, gestures, facial ex
pressions, eye contact, tone of the speaker, volume of the speaker, etc..

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1. Dyadic communication refers to an interaction between two people.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Dyadic communication refers to an interaction between two people. One of the
most used form of transaction is through speech.

2. Which of these is the most common form of dyadic communication?

a) Conversation
b) Texting
c) Blogging
d) Writing
Answer: a
Explanation: Conversation is the most common form of dyadic communication. In it the speaker and listener continu
ously change roles.

3. Never hold back information while conversing.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Never hold back information while conversing. There may be many reasons to h
old back information but deceit, fear or doubts cannot be among them.

4. Words must not be uttered with _____

a) rudeness
b) compassion
c) respect
d) politeness
Answer: a
Explanation: Words must not be uttered with rudeness. They must be uttered with respect and compassion.

5. When are disagreements in a conversation relevant?

a) When they advance a lie


b) When they advance with tact intentions
c) When they are done with bad intentions
d) When they are done with rude intentions
Answer: b
Explanation: Disagreements in a conversation are relevant provided they advance the truth and they are done with ta
ct and good intentions.

6. Which of these should be avoided in a conversation?

a) Disagreement
b) Compassion
c) Hogging
d) Discussion
Answer: c
Explanation: Avoid hogging the conversation, simply because conversation means exchange of views. Speak somet
hing relevant even in a social conversation.

7. When should the discussion in a conversation stop?

a) When it turns into an argument


b) When it is boring
c) When one person doesn’t like the other
d) When a third person joins in
Answer: a
Explanation: Always discuss a topic, but hold yourself back if a conversation relegates into an argument. Wise men
discuss while fools argue.

8. Which of these statements is correct?

a) Continue the topic no matter what the attitude of the other person is.
b) Respect other person’s time and interest.
c) Don’t utter the name of the opposite person frequently.
d) We can use words even if have a vague understanding of it.
Answer: b
Explanation: Respect other person’s time and interest. The words uttered must convey precise meaning. We shouldn
’t use words without knowing their meaning.

9. ____ should be avoided in a conversation.

a) Standard words
b) Slang
c) Name of the other person
d) Truth
Answer: b
Explanation: It is better not to use slang, jargon, non- standard words or pet words and phrases. It is also advisable n
ot to indulge in exaggeration even when your intention is to please others.

10. When should the topic be altered?

a) When the listener’s attitude is positive


b) When you don’t like the appearance of the other person
c) When the listener likes the topic
d) When the listener’s attitude is negative
Answer: d
Explanation: Understand the attitude of the person with whom you are conversing. Alter the topic in case his attitude
is negative.

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1. Which of these is not considered in a telephonic conversation?

a) The tone of the speaker


b) The volume of the speaker
c) Body language
d) The emotional content of the communication
Answer: c
Explanation: The two people involved in a telephonic conversation are unable to see each other. Hence, the body lan
guage of the speakers isn’t very important. However, the doesn’t take away from the fact that a telephonic conversat
ion is a full-fledged conversation for which most other parameters of a dyadic exchange hold true.

2. A telephone is not meant for gossiping.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. A telephonic conversation should be brief and to the point. A telephone is not me
ant for gossiping.

3. After about how many rings should the telephone be lifted?

a) 2
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
Answer: a
Explanation: There is a distinct rhythm about receiving telephone calls. The receiver must be lifted promptly, at best
after one or two rings.

4. What is the first thing you must utter when you pick up a call?

a) Your name and designation


b) Who is calling?
c) Why did you call?
d) What do you want?
Answer: a
Explanation: The first thing you must do is utter your full name and designation. After your own introduction, ask th
e caller to reveal his name and designation.

5. Which of these should be kept in mind while receiving a call?

a) Be rude, if the caller is rude.


b) If the information is not readily available, take his phone number and call back.
c) A message can be noted in hints
d) You can be rude to a person if it’s a wrong connection.
Answer: b
Explanation: In case the information is not readily available, take his phone number and call back. Be warm and frie
ndly even when the caller is rude.

6. While making a call, have all relevant information ready before hand.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. While making a call, have all relevant information ready before hand. It is rude a
nd silly to search for material in the files when somebody is already on the line.

7. Which of these should be kept in mind while giving instructions?

a) The pitch of the receiver


b) The tone of the receiver
c) His ability to grasp information
d) The physical condition of the receiver
Answer: c
Explanation: When giving instructions, keep in mind : the mental and emotional built up of the receiver, his ability t
o grasp information and act upon the instructions given to him.

8. Delegation of responsibility must be done with _____

a) empathy
b) rudeness
c) dominance
d) disrespect
Answer: a
Explanation: Delegation of responsibility or asking others to carry out a task must be done with compassion and em
pathy. It is best to entrust one job at a time to a person.

9. An instruction must be followed by ____

a) spoken reply
b) written reply
c) action
d) sign
Answer: c
Explanation: An instruction is different from a conversation, or even an interview, mainly because the response is di
fferent. An instruction must be followed by action whereas in the case of other two the response is verbal.

10. A person who meets the media must have greater _____

a) restraint
b) honesty
c) agitation
d) aggressiveness
Answer: a
Explanation: A person who meets the media must remember that whatever he tells the media would be published. A
He must have greater restraint than he would have in a normal conversation.

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1. A society is a voluntary organisation.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. A society is a voluntary organisation where human beings come together for con
venience.
2. The best way to live life is second hand.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. The best way to live life is first hand and to let others live their lives first hand a
s well. People who live first hand acknowledge truth from others and are rarely bothered with false criticism.

3. Which of these causes a problem?

a) Intellectual freedom
b) Moral bondage
c) First hand life
d) Cultural exchange
Answer: b
Explanation: There is no need to be critical of others, no matter how foolish it may appear to you. Two people may e
xist mutually in intellectual freedom. The problem arises when we seek moral bondage.

4. Communication must advance ______

a) moral bondage
b) intellectual fraud
c) emotional trap
d) inspiration
Answer: d
Explanation: The statement is: Communication must advance compassion and inspiration. Our social language must
never be so arranged as to emotionally trap others.

5. Language should never encroach on which of these?

a) intellectual fraud
b) intellectual privacy
c) intellectual bondage
d) moral bondage
Answer: b
Explanation: Language should never encroach on intellectual privacy. Those who talk of privacy rarely think of intel
lectual privacy as well. Everyone needs intellectual privacy.

6. Which of these is the most common form of condemnation?

a) Religion based
b) Caste based
c) Personal prejudices
d) Status based
Answer: c
Explanation: We must never condemn on the basis of religion, caste, colour, status or personal prejudices. The last f
orm of condemnation is the most common.

7. Language must advance _____

a) inspiration
b) truth
c) intellectual fraud
d) emotional trap
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: Language must advance truth and compassion. Truth can become a rare com
modity if we do not know the precise meaning of words.

8. Which of these should be invoked through words?

a) Compassion
b) hostility
c) spitefulness
d) rudeness
Answer: a
Explanation: Compassion and positive emotions should be invoked through words, otherwise there may be a need to
reassess their efficacy. It is better to err on the positive rather than the negative side.

9. Which of these is not a second hand emotion?

a) Honour
b) Prestige
c) Creativity
d) Reputation
Answer: c
Explanation: People who live life second hand do not know the path of truth. They are influence by such second han
d emotions as honour, prestige and reputation. They rarely talk about creativity and ability.

10. People who live life first hand, know the path of _____

a) truth
b) reputation
c) fame
d) money
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct statement is: People who live life first hand, know the path of truth. They acknowledge trut
h from others and are rarely bothered with false criticism.

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1. Culture is centered around the place of worship.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. Culture is a rather loose term. To a religious man, culture is centered entirely ar
ound the place of worship.

2. Around which of these is culture not centered for a modern man?

a) Organisation
b) Club
c) Temple
d) Society
Answer: c
Explanation: To a religious man, culture is centered entirely around the place of worship. To a modern man it may b
e centered around the club, organisation, society or group.

3. Any group must advance strength through _____

a) debate
b) unity
c) speech
d) dyadic communication
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: Any group must advance strength through unity and not have the ugliness of a
collective, where a vague illusion of a collective throttles individual freedom.

4. An organisation must give _____ to an individual.

a) freedom
b) work load
c) punishment
d) limitation
Answer: a
Explanation: An organisation must enhance individual joy and freedom; it must not reduce them. A collective must
have least possible amount of rules.

5. Clubs are recreational institutions.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Clubs are recreational institutions. Members must use them for recreation and let
others use them for their recreation.

6. Which of these should be avoided in a club?

a) Basic courtesies
b) Club timings
c) Dress code
d) Rude behavior
Answer: d
Explanation: Members must show basic courtesies while they are in the club. They must adhere to the club timings a
nd its dress code. Children must be left at home in case they are not allowed.

7. Language in the club must enhance ______

a) debates
b) fights
c) harmony
d) disagreement
Answer: c
Explanation: Language in the club must enhance harmony. In the case of clubs meant for cultural activities or games
, it is better to participate in them.

8. Which of these should be avoided in a cultural event?

a) Joy
b) Culture
c) Relaxation
d) Personal envy
Answer: d
Explanation: Our words and actions must spread harmony and joy. The intention should be one of accommodation a
nd genuine caring instead of personal envy and resentment.

9. Which of these must not be used while addressing a woman?

a) Mrs. Verma
b) Miss Sharma
c) Miss
d) Bhabhiji
Answer: d
Explanation: A man should make sure that a woman is comfortable. It is better to call her “Mrs. Verma” or “Miss Sh
arma” instead of “Bhabhiji” or “Bahenji”.

10. Which of these must be avoided when with a woman?

a) Non standard words


b) Offering to buy her a drink
c) Getting her a seat
d) Praising her
Answer: a
Explanation: When with a woman, only standard words must be used. Avoid slang, non standard words, jargon, abbr
eviations, words with vaguely understood meaning, etc..

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1. A cultural event is the same as office.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. A cultural event is different from office because participation in it is voluntary.
Yet, these events also have their rules which must be adhered to.

2. What is the dress code for a normal cultural event?

a) Formal wear
b) Party wear
c) Home wear
d) Beach wear
Answer: a
Explanation: The clothes at a cultural event should be formal and relaxed unless the occasion demands otherwise. It
would be foolish to arrive at a beach party in a suit.

3. Which of these should be avoided at a cultural event?

a) Relaxation
b) Arguing
c) Socialising
d) Organizing
Answer: b
Explanation: It is bad manners to enter into heated arguments in such events. These create a vitiated atmosphere and
ruins everyone’s mood. A healthy debate, on the other hand is a politer way to voice your views without offending a
nybody.

4. Which of these points need not be considered for a debate?

a) Availability of precise information


b) Age of opponent
c) Fluency in language
d) Body language
Answer: b
Explanation: Three points are to be considered before one goes for a debate. The first and foremost thing is the avail
ability of authentic and precise information regarding the subject on which the debate is to be held. The second point
is your fluency in language and third is your body language.

5. Which of these is not considered for a debate?

a) Availability of information
b) Fluency in language
c) Body language
d) Volume of the speaker
Answer: d
Explanation: Three things are to be considered in a debate : availability of authentic and precise information regardi
ng the subject, fluency in the language and the adequate use of body language.

6. Same rules apply for effective writing and oral presentation.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Same rules apply for effective writing and oral presentation. What holds good for
effective writing applies equally to oral presentation.

7. Which of these are to be avoided in a debate?

a) Fights
b) Listening
c) Taking notes
d) Using rhetoric
Answer: a
Explanation: Fights and arguments must be avoided in a debate. A few devices like rhetoric may be used to make th
e speech more forceful and effective.

8. Which of these debates is on-spot?

a) Extempore
b) In advance
c) Written
d) Personal
Answer: a
Explanation: A debate can be of two types : with a topic given in advance or extempore. In the case when the topic i
s given in advance, it is worthwhile to construct a message carefully.

9. Which of these is not a type of speech?


a) Informative
b) Personal
c) Persuasive
d) Special occasion
Answer: b
Explanation: There are three types of speeches. They are: informative, persuasive and special occasion. Informative
speech generally centers on talking about people, things, etc..

10. Which of these is not a quality of a good debater?

a) Taking notes
b) Listening
c) Interrupting their opponent’s speech
d) Answering cross questions with confidence
Answer: c
Explanation: Being a good speaker isn’t enough to be a good debater. One must also have the ability to treat one’s o
pponent with respect. This includes listening to their speech without speaking over them or interrupting them rudely.

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1. A ______ speaker looks into the eyes of the audience.

a) confident
b) impatient
c) rude
d) impolite
Answer: a
Explanation: It is best to look straight into the eyes of the audience. This would convince the audience that you are a
confident speaker.

2. Which of these may convey arrogance ?

a) Jointed finger tips


b) A shoulder shrug
c) A pointed finger
d) Hands swinging loosely
Answer: a
Explanation: Jointed finger tips convey surety and confidence, if done properly. They may convey arrogance, if don
e badly. A shoulder shrug may convey sincerity or callousness.

3. A pointed finger may be a gesture of accusation.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. A pointed finger may be deemed to be a gesture of accusation or forcefulness. W
hile approaching to the rostrum it is best to walk in a forceful manner with hands swinging loosely by the side.

4. The tone of the speaker should be _____

a) loud
b) clear
c) low
d) soft
Answer: b
Explanation: The tone of the speaker should be clear and precise. A good speaker always pauses on punctuation mar
ks and when he wishes to drive home a point.

5. During practice, by how much should the speech be lengthened?

a) 2 to 5 %
b) 6 to 10 %
c) 7 to 11 %
d) 9 to 13 %
Answer: a
Explanation: It is better to make a speech lengthier by 2 to 5 percent in practice, since when crunch time arrives the
best speaker tends to speak faster or forget some lines.

6. A speech must be prepared with _______ in mind.

a) the result
b) praise
c) an audience
d) admiration
Answer: c
Explanation: A speech must be prepared with an audience in mind. It must give facts and clearly mention in case opi
nions are made.

7. A speech must advance _____

a) dishonesty
b) truth
c) aggressiveness
d) negativity
Answer: b
Explanation: A speech must advance the truth and not convolute truth by irritating people. Wit and humour are an in
tegral part of any speech but they must not be biting.

8. Which of these is important in having mutual understanding with colleagues?

a) Effective listening
b) Speaking
c) Talking
d) Writing
Answer: a
Explanation: Effective listening is extremely important in having mutual understanding with colleagues, superiors a
nd subordinates. Listening is an important part of communication.

9. Which of these does not enhance listening skills?

a) Attention
b) Frankness
c) Clear perception
d) Ignoring
Answer: d
Explanation: The points that enhance the listening skills of the participant are : attention, frankness, clear perception,
analytical approach and taking notes.

10. Participant should listen to the opinions expressed by others with respect.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Participant should listen to the opinions expressed by others frankly and with res
pect. He/She should make such gestures to this effect.

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1. Which of these are vital for any organisation?

a) Debates
b) Group discussions
c) Speeches
d) Arguments
Answer: b
Explanation: Group discussions are vital for any organisation. They streamline stray thoughts in a potent proactive a
ction and generate information.

2. Which of these qualities are important in a group discussion?

a) Emotional stability
b) Hostility
c) Ignorance
d) Aggressiveness
Answer: a
Explanation: Emotional stability plays an important role in a group discussion. No organisation wants a person who
is not in control of his emotions.

3. In a group discussion, one must communicate with ______

a) Hostility
b) Ignorance
c) knowledge
d) long sentences
Answer: c
Explanation: In a group discussion, one must communicate with knowledge. He must be polite and compassionate a
nd must utter ideas which are real to those present and easily understood.

4. In a group discussion, the discussion must be directed to its logical conclusion.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. In a group discussion, the discussion must be directed to its logical conclusion. Y
ou must appear to neatly direct a discussion to its logical conclusion without appearing to be superior to the offendin
g person.

5. When is the worst time to break into a discussion?


a) When everyone is silent
b) When one person is talking
c) When two or three people are talking simultaneously
d) When there is less time left
Answer: c
Explanation: It is crucial to know when to break into a discussion. The worst time to break into a discussion is when
two or three people are discussing a topic and talking simultaneously.

6. A group discussion must advance _____

a) truth
b) dishonesty
c) Personal glory
d) arguments
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is: A group discussion must advance truth. A group discussion is not meant for personal
glory. It is meant to advance certain aspects to their logical conclusion.

7. Which of these must be avoided in a group discussion?

a) Speaking facts
b) Asking questions
c) Speaking fast
d) Speaking with clarity
Answer: c
Explanation: We must speak about facts and with clarity. We must never mumble, shout or speak very fast. It is bett
er to ask questions in case a point is not understood.

8. In a group discussion, we should be _____

a) assertive
b) dominating
c) subjective
d) ignorant
Answer: a
Explanation: In a group discussion we must be assertive. There is no room for dominating others. There is no place f
or subjectivity or personal prejudices.

9. A moderator is a monitor of a group discussion.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. A moderator is a monitor and observer of a group discussion. Group discussion t
akes place in his presence.

10. Which of these factors do not enhance listening skills?

a) Attention
b) Clear perception
c) Fakeness
d) Frankness
Answer: c
Explanation: There are five factors that enhance the listening skills of the participant. They are : attention, clear perc
eption, analytical approach, frankness and taking notes.

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1. Which of these is the most important tool of communication?

a) Body language
b) Gestures
c) Language
d) Posture
Answer: c
Explanation: Language is the most important tool of communication. The word communication is derived from the
Latin word “communicare”, which means to share. Body language, posture and gestures are also important tools of c
ommunication; but they are secondary to language.

2. Which of these must be avoided in any presentation?

a) Proper grammar
b) Complex words
c) Short sentences
d) Clear voice
Answer: b
Explanation: In any presentation, we should use proper grammar. We should use short sentences and simple and pro
per words. There should be used of clear good voice.

3. Oral presentations are an integral part of an engineer’s career.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Oral presentations are an integral part of an engineer’s career. He has to take part
in meetings, conferences and seminars.

4. Which of these is not important in an oral presentation?

a) Words
b) Body language
c) Gestures
d) The number of people as audience
Answer: d
Explanation: Words are crucial, but they are not the only thing which is important. Body language, which includes a
person’s demeanour, posture and gestures, is important as well.

5. Which of these is the best way to establish a proper rapport with audience?

a) Pointing a finger
b) Making eye contact
c) Waving your hands
d) Standing erect
Answer: b
Explanation: The best way to establish a proper rapport with the audience is by establishing eye contact. It is vital to
look at the audience straight in the eye with confidence.
6. In an oral presentation, the speaker should not _____

a) panic
b) pause
c) make eye contact
d) inspire
Answer: a
Explanation: There are times when you may forget your lines. There is no need to panic. Panic can result in further e
rrors. The idea is to gracefully pick up the loose ends from the script held in front of you.

7. Which of these is a sign of under confidence?

a) Speaking and naturally shifting your eyes around


b) Transfixed on one face
c) Pointing your finger
d) Using your hands
Answer: b
Explanation: While speaking, gently and naturally shifting your eyes all around so that it appears as if you are intere
sted in all those who are present. Please don’t be transfixed on one face. It is a sign of under- confidence.

8. Which of these is the best pace to utter a speech?

a) 50 words per minute


b) 150 words per minute
c) 200 words per minute
d) 250 words per minute
Answer: b
Explanation: The best pace to utter a speech is to convey about 150 words per minute. Please don’t make illogical so
unds like er or ah.

9. A speaker must know the kind of audience he is likely to have.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. A speaker must know the kind of audience he is likely to have. Even a brief idea
about the audience’s average age, interests and knowledge would help the speaker to make suitable changes in his sp
eech to cater to the audience, even for last-minute oral presentations.

10. Which of these can be used to break the monotony in a speech?

a) Humour
b) Constant tone
c) Low voice
d) Sad story
Answer: a
Explanation: There may be need to add humour to the speech in order to break the monotony, but the humour must n
ever be irrelevant.

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1. A speech must always present _____


a) facts
b) opinions
c) suggestions
d) perspectives
Answer: a
Explanation: A speech must always present facts, which are very different from opinions. The two must never be co
nfused.

2. Which of these must be avoided by the speaker?

a) He must convey precise information.


b) He must ensure that the information is understood by the audience.
c) He must inspire the audience to totally accept his point of view.
d) He must force the audience to totally accept his point of view.
Answer: d
Explanation: The main job of the speaker is three fold : He must convey precise information, he must ensure that the
information is understood by the audience and he must inspire the audience to totally accept his point of view.

3. Masquerading opinions as facts amounts to perpetrating an intellectual fraud.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Masquerading opinions as facts amounts to perpetrating an intellectual fraud. We
must present facts, or we must let the audience know that we are presenting our personal opinions.

4. One should have a very slow pace while giving a presentation.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. One should take one’s time while giving a presentation, but at the same time, th
ey shouldn’t be too slow. A slow pace tends to break the attention of the audience and bore them out. The pace shoul
dn’t be too fast either, otherwise the audience will not have the time to grasp the crux of the presentation. There shou
ld be used of a steady pace, which is neither too fast nor too slow.

5. Which of these is required to convey large information?

a) Voice
b) Tone
c) Body land
d) Preparation
Answer: d
Explanation: A good speech is rarely made extempore. No speaker can convey large amounts of information without
adequate preparation.

6. Which of these must be avoided by a speaker?

a) Abstract words
b) Short sentences
c) Good pronunciation
d) Steady pace
Answer: a
Explanation: Abstract words must be avoided in a speech. There must be used of familiar words. Also there must be
used of short sentence with a steady pace.

7. Which of these is a sign of rude manners?

a) Staring at the floor


b) Making eye contact
c) Steady pace
d) Simple words
Answer: a
Explanation: Please do not be transfixed on one face, or stare at the ceiling or floor. This is a sign, either of under co
nfidence or of rude manners.

8. Which of these should be avoided in a group discussion?

a) listening
b) shouting
c) speaking
d) writing
Answer: b
Explanation: In a group discussion, we must never mumble, shout or speak very fast. To enhance listening ability, o
ne should note down the vital points made by the speaker in his or her speech.

9. Which of these must be avoided in a speech?

a) Illogical sounds
b) Gestures
c) Eye contact
d) Interest
Answer: a
Explanation: Please do not make any Illogical sounds like er or ah. The speech must flow naturally and without any
ugly sounds.

10. A finger may be used to _____

a) show over confidence


b) inspire
c) show under confidence
d) appoint
Answer: b
Explanation: Hands must be used to create the right impact. A finger may be used to inspire. It may also be used to a
ccuse, if done badly.

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1. A seminar discusses in a small group on original research.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. A seminar discusses in a small group on original research or advanced study thro
ugh oral or written reports.

2. In a symposium, a small group of experts discuss a problem.


a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. In a symposium, a small group of experts discuss different aspects of a problem f
or the benefit of an audience.

3. In a ________ , each member speaks on a pre-planned subject.

a) seminar
b) conference
c) panel discussion
d) symposium
Answer: c
Explanation: The correct statement is: In a panel discussion, each member speaks on a pre-planned subject, which is
normally in the form of a question.

4. In which of these people with similar interests contribute with their knowledge?

a) seminar
b) conference
c) symposium
d) convention
Answer: b
Explanation: In a conference, people with similar interests contribute with their knowledge. It ends in a set of sugges
tions or recommendations which are based on the central theme of the conference.

5. A ______ is a fellowship meeting of a fraternal group.

a) conference
b) symposium
c) seminar
d) convention
Answer: d
Explanation: The correct statement is: A convention is a fellowship meeting of a fraternal group. Only matters of pro
fessional interest are discussed in it.

6. Which of these is not used to organise a seminar?

a) Oral reports
b) Written reports
c) Exchange of ideas
d) Recommendations
Answer: d
Explanation: A seminar discusses in a small group on original research or advanced study through oral or written rep
orts. It may also be organised through exchange of ideas.

7. A conference is not attended by ________

a) invited guests
b) common people
c) permitted observers
d) people with common interests
Answer: b
Explanation: In a conference, people with similar interests contribute with their knowledge. A conference is only att
ended by invited guests or permitted observers.

8. We learn maximum by _____.

a) hearing
b) seeing
c) speaking
d) feeling
Answer: b
Explanation: Hearing is not the most crucial learning sensory perception available to man. A mere 11% of the knowl
edge that we pick us is through hearing. The eyes account for nearly 83% of our learning.

9. Which of these must be avoided in a meeting?

a) Patience
b) Tact
c) Leadership
d) Criticism
Answer: d
Explanation: A successful meeting needs patience, tact and leadership. It is better not to criticise a remark which app
ears irrational or silly.

10. Before the meeting is concluded, there must be a ______

a) summary
b) question
c) discussion
d) agenda
Answer: a
Explanation: Before the meeting is concluded there must be a summary and analysis of the discussion and the decisi
ons taken. Members must feel that something concrete and substantial has been achieved.

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1. Which of these points need not be mentioned in a notice?

a) Name
b) Address of company
c) Age
d) Date
Answer: c
Explanation: There are seven points which are to be mentioned in a notice. They are : Name, address and contact det
ails of company, date, heading, notice details, name and designation, enclosure and to details.

2. Which of these is the first thing mentioned in a notice?

a) Name of the organization


b) Date
c) Notice
d) Notice details
Answer: a
Explanation: The first point mentioned in the notice is the name of the organization along with its address and conta
ct details like phone number, email id, website, etc..

3. Where is the date mentioned in a notice?

a) Top left
b) Top right
c) Bottom left
d) Bottom right
Answer: b
Explanation: The date is mentioned in the top right corner in a notice below the name and details of the organization
and above the heading “Notice”.

4. Where is the name and designation of the authority mentioned?

a) Top left
b) Top right
c) Bottom left
d) Bottom right
Answer: d
Explanation: The name and designation of the concerned authority is mentioned in the bottom right corner below the
notice details and above the enclosure details.

5. Which of these details is not mentioned in the main notice?

a) Time
b) Date
c) Venue
d) Name of the speakers
Answer: d
Explanation: The main notice includes the name and details of the event or meeting and other details like date, time,
venue and enclosures if any.

6. Where is the date mentioned in a minutes?

a) Top left
b) Top right
c) Bottom left
d) Bottom right
Answer: c
Explanation: In a minutes, the date is mentioned at the end in the bottom left corner below the signature and designat
ion.

7. Minutes must be self- sufficient.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Minutes must be self-sufficient records. They must have details like the name of
the organization, day, date and time of meeting, venue, etc..

8. Which of these details are not mentioned in minutes?

a) Venue of the meeting


b) Date of the meeting
c) Name of the chairman
d) Age of the chairman
Answer: d
Explanation: Minutes must have the following details: Name of organisation, day and date of the meeting, venue of t
he meeting, name of the chairman, etc..

9. The main points of a meeting must be reduced to writing.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. The main points of a meeting and decisions arrived at must be reduced to writing
and then filed where they can be readily located.

10. Where is the signature of the Secretary mentioned in minutes?

a) Top left
b) Top right
c) Bottom left
d) Bottom right
Answer: d
Explanation: The signature of the Secretary is mentioned in the bottom right corner above the date and alongside the
signature of the chairman.

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1. Which of these do not deal with precise information?

a) Engineer
b) Scientist
c) Technician
d) Fiction writer
Answer: d
Explanation: A scientist, engineer, technician or technologist deals with precise information. A fiction writer may in
dulge in charming nonsense, but a scientific man must develop a style of writing which conveys information with pr
ecision.

2. In an office, an employee communicates horizontally with his _______

a) superiors
b) subordinates
c) colleagues
d) assistant
Answer: c
Explanation: The correct statement is: In an office, an employee communicates horizontally with his colleagues. Hor
izontal communication happens between people who are on the same tier as each other in an office hierarchy. He co
mmunicates vertically with his subordinates and superiors. Vertical communication happens between people who ar
e on different levels in an office hierarchy.

3. Talking comes under which type of communication?

a) Verbal
b) Non- verbal
c) Written
d) Dramatic
Answer: a
Explanation: Communication can be of two types. They are: verbal communication and non-verbal communication.
Talking is an effective tool, but it has limited reach.

4. Which of these has maximum reach?

a) Writing
b) Listening
c) Speaking
d) Talking
Answer: a
Explanation: Writing has enormous reach. It has an inviolable quality about it, since what has been written cannot be
altered.

5. How is good technical writing achieved?

a) Naturally
b) By practice
c) Listening
d) Speaking
Answer: b
Explanation: Good technical writing does not come naturally. It is an end product of careful practice. It is obvious th
at a technical writer must have something substantial to say.

6. Which of these parameters are not required to define style?

a) Moral truth
b) Compassion
c) Gender
d) Information
Answer: c
Explanation: There are three parameters that are stated when defining style. They are: moral truth, compassion and i
nformation with precision.

7. Any style must convey moral truth.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Any style must convey intellectual and moral truth. Most writers tend to hide trut
h. Their language becomes a vehicle of ambiguity.

8. Any writer must convey truth with warmth.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Any writer must convey truth with warmth and compassion. Any good writing m
ust create a bond of oneness between writer and reader.

9. A writer must not convey information with _____


a) precision
b) clarity
c) randomness
d) truth
Answer: c
Explanation: Any writer must convey truth in his writing. Also, it must convey information simply with precision an
d clarity. It must be such that it is easily understood by every reader.

10. Which of these are to be avoided in any style of writing?

a) Truth
b) Clarity
c) Compassion
d) Dishonesty
Answer: d
Explanation: Any style must convey intellectual and moral truth. Most writers tend to hide truth. The first thing a wr
iter must do is ensure that he is being truly honest to himself.

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1. Technical writing is same as general writing.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. Technical writing is different from general writing. It deals with pure or applied
sciences. It is not the same as general writing, which involves putting down one’s thoughts and opinions on any rele
vant topic in the form of meaningful, coherent writing.

2. Technical writing demands ______ use of language.

a) figurative
b) poetic
c) factual
d) dramatic
Answer: c
Explanation: Technical writing needs accuracy of expression and a restraint in style. It demands factual use of langu
age. It does not care for figurative or poetic impressions.

3. Which of these must be avoided in technical writing?

a) Facts
b) Grammar
c) Punctuation
d) Personal feelings
Answer: d
Explanation: Technical writing must be as objective as possible. There is no place for personal feelings in technical
writing.

4. Which of these words is used in technical writing?

a) Apex
b) Top
c) Slanting
d) Bottom
Answer: a
Explanation: Technical writing uses many special words. Thus a science book may use the word apex instead of top,
base instead of bottom, etc..

5. Which of these is a technical word for slanting ?

a) Lateral
b) Sloping
c) Tilting
d) Bent
Answer: a
Explanation: Technical writing uses special words instead of general words. Therefore , lateral is used instead of sla
nting, apex instead of top, base instead of bottom, etc..

6. Familiar words must be used in technical writing.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. We should use the familiar words instead of the abstract word in technical writin
g. In technical writing, the facts conveyed take priority over the level of vocabulary used. For instance, it is better to
use to get instead of to acquire.

7. A scientist gets his special words from ____ language.

a) Latin
b) English
c) French
d) Italian
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct statement is: A scientist gets his special words from Greek and Latin languages. These lang
uages provide huge opportunities to scientists to create new words.

8. Trigonometry is a ____ word.

a) French
b) German
c) Indian
d) Greek
Answer: d
Explanation: Trigonometry is a Greek word. It means : tri = three, gon = angle, metre = measure. Thus Trigonometr
y is a study of the relationships between the three angles of the triangle.

9. Which of these means bioscope?

a) Math
b) Science
c) Cinema
d) Binoculars
Answer: c
Explanation: Cinema may be a familiar words today but it was called bioscope when motion pictures first came into
being.
10. Electricity is derived from _____ language.

a) Indian
b) Greek
c) French
d) Italian
Answer: b
Explanation: Electricity is derived from the Greek language. Electro means amber in Greek.

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1. Which of these is not a medium for e-mail?

a) Intranet
b) Internet
c) Extranet
d) Paper
Answer: d
Explanation: E-mail and websites are transmitted through Intranet, Internet and extranet. Everything has gone electr
onic way.

2. Which of these defined the internet?

a) The Federal Networking Council


b) The Federal Network Council
c) The Federal Networking Committee
d) The Federal Network Committee
Answer: a
Explanation: The Federal Networking Council in 1995 passes a unanimous resolution to define internet. Internet refe
rs to a global information system.

3. Intranet is a company’s internal web.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Intranet is a company’s internal web and uses TCP/IP, HTTP and other internet p
rotocols. It’s main object is to share company information among employees.

4. Extranet is a web within a web.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Extranet is a web within a web. Extranet is a collaborative network which uses in
ternet protocols for business purposes.

5. Which of these is not used by intranet?

a) TCP
b) BSNL
c) IP
d) HTTP
Answer: b
Explanation: Intranet is a company’s internal web and uses TCP/IP, HTTP and other internet protocols. It’s main obj
ect is to share company information among employees.

6. Which of these is the easiest way of communication?

a) E-mail
b) Telephone
c) Fax
d) Letter
Answer: a
Explanation: Billions of E-mail messages are sent throughout the world today. It is the cheapest and convenient than
any other forms of communication like telephone or fax.

7. What does the following emotion display?

a) Confused face
b) Happy face
c) Shocked face
d) Amazed face
Answer: b
Explanation: In an email we use smileys or emotion symbols known as “emoticons” or “emojis” for display of attitu
des. For instance, represents a happy face.

8. What does the following emotion display?

a) Confused face
b) Laughing face
c) Amazed face
d) Sad face
Answer: b
Explanation: In an email we use smileys or emotion symbols known as “emoticons” or “emojis” for display of attitu
des. For instance, represents a laughing face.

9. Which of these do not provide free E-mail?

a) Hotmail
b) Rediff
c) WhatsApp
d) Yahoo
Answer: c
Explanation: Many companies worldwide provide free E-mail through internet. Hotmail, Rediff, BSNL, Yahoo are t
he companies to name a few. Whatsapp is a social media app which doesn’t provide E-mail feature.

10. Which of these should be avoided in an E-mail?

a) Wrong E-mail address


b) Subject line
c) Smileys
d) Re-reading
Answer: a
Explanation: For writing successful E-mail messages, precautions should be taken. There should be use of correct E-
mail address.
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1. Information is required to describe an object.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Information is required to describe an object. It is also needed to explain process
es involved in technical operations.

2. Which of these terms do not need a definition?

a) Principles
b) Concepts
c) Processes
d) Names
Answer: d
Explanation: Terms which involve principles, concepts or processes need to be defined. It is done so that ambiguitie
s can be removed and information can be made available to others.

3. A definition usually consists of ___ statement(s).

a) three
b) one
c) four
d) five
Answer: b
Explanation: A definition usually consists of one statement, though more than one statement might sometimes be ne
cessary.

4. A definition consists of how many parts?

a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
Answer: a
Explanation: A definition must contain: The class to which the term belongs and the thing which separates it from ot
her members of the same class.

5. A definition excludes everything which is unimportant.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. A definition excludes everything which is unimportant, but without taking away
anything from the main information that needs to be conveyed.

6. Which of these must be eliminated by a writer while defining?

a) Facts
b) Knowledge
c) Prejudices
d) Information
Answer: c
Explanation: While defining something a writer must eliminate his prejudices and limitations of knowledge in that fi
eld. He must give an objective and complete definition of a term.

7. Which of these is a representation of an object drawn by lines?

a) Drawing
b) Picture
c) Illustration
d) Photo
Answer: a
Explanation: A drawing is a representation of an object drawn by lines, shade, etc..A picture is different from a draw
ing and an illustration.

8. A _____ is a representation of an object on another surface.

a) drawing
b) image
c) illustration
d) picture
Answer: d
Explanation: The correct statement is: A picture is a representation of an object on another surface. A drawing is a re
presentation of an object drawn by lines, shade, etc.

9. What does LASER stand for?

a) Light Amplification of Stimulated Emission of Radiation


b) Light Amplification of Stimulated Emission by Radiation
c) Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation
d) Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission by Radiation
Answer: c
Explanation: LASER stands for Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation. It is a device which prod
uces an intense, high direction beam of light of a very pure colour.

10. Thermostat is a combination of ___ and ___

a) therm, ostat
b) thermo, stat
c) therm, stat
d) therms, tat
Answer: b
Explanation: The word thermostat is a combination of thermo = heat and stat = regulation. Thus thermostat is an aut
omatic device for regulating temperatures.

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1. A technical description is used to describe an object.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. A technical description is used to describe an object or a process. Science and tec
hnology must convey facts.

2. Which of these is not used in technical writing?

a) Equations
b) Abbreviations
c) Poetic devices
d) References
Answer: c
Explanation: Any technical writing must have a distinct look. Technical writing may use equations, abbreviations, n
umerals, references, tables, illustrations etc..

3. While writing technical descriptions, the object must be defined first.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. While writing technical descriptions of objects , the object must be defined first.
Next, the manner in which the object works must be described.

4. Which of these is not a step in the technical description of an object?

a) Definition of object
b) General description of object
c) Age of writer
d) Description of components of objects
Answer: c
Explanation: There are four steps in the technical description of an object : Definition of the object, manner in which
the object works, general description of the object and a description of the important components of the object.

5. Telex is known as _________

a) Teleprinter Exchange Service


b) Telephone Exchange Service
c) Teleprinter Engine Service
d) Telephone Engine Service
Answer: a
Explanation: Telex is a Teleprinter Exchange Service furnished to subscribers locally and internationally. It is simila
r to a type writer but it functions over electric wires.

6. In which step is the general description of the object given?

a) Two
b) Three
c) One
d) Four
Answer: b
Explanation: There are four steps in the technical description of an object: Definition of the object, manner in which
the object works, general description of the object and a description of the important components of the object.

7. _____ helps a reader to arrive at a conclusion whether the method of performing is efficient.

a) A process
b) An object
c) A trick
d) A description
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct statement is: A process helps a reader to arrive at a conclusion whether the method of perfo
rming is efficient and reliable or not.

8. Which of these is not a step in the technical description of a process?

a) Introduction
b) Conclusion
c) Complaining
d) Listing of main steps
Answer: c
Explanation: There are four steps in the technical description of a process. They are: Introduction, listing of main ste
ps, explanation of each step and conclusion.

9. Which of these is not listed in the introduction of technical description of a process?

a) Statement of process
b) Reason to perform the process
c) Main steps
d) List of tools
Answer: c
Explanation: Begin the description of a process with an introduction. This must state the process and also state why t
he process must be performed. A list of tools required to perform the process may also be given.

10. In which step are the main steps of a process explained?

a) One
b) Three
c) Two
d) Four
Answer: b
Explanation: After listing the main steps, each step must be clearly explained. There may be a necessity to define ea
ch step and to explain the nature of the apparatus and the device used for the step.

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1. Which of these is a set of instructions?

a) Report
b) Letter
c) Notice
d) Operating manual
Answer: d
Explanation: A machine carries an operating manual. This is a list of instructions to a person who wishes to operate t
he machine.

2. Which of these does not have an operating manual?

a) Televisions
b) Telephones
c) Pens
d) Washing machines
Answer: c
Explanation: An operating manual is a list of step-by-step instructions to assist a person in operating a particular ma
chine. Operating manuals exist for household goods like washing machines, televisions, air-conditioners and so on.
One doesn’t need a manual to know how to use a pen.

3. An operating manual is the same as repairing manual.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. An operating manual is different from a repairing manual. A technical instructio
n must fulfill the purpose for which it is written.

4. Which of these must be avoided in an instruction?

a) Ambiguity
b) Less words
c) Precision
d) Clarity
Answer: a
Explanation: An instruction must state facts precisely and in as few words as is possible. It must be free from ambig
uity and it must be imperative.

5. A technical instruction must begin with _______

a) an introduction
b) a figure
c) a drawing
d) a warning
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct statement is: A technical instruction must begin with an introduction which must tell the re
ader about the process and what needs to be done.

6. Which of these can be used for better understanding of an instruction?

a) Longer sentences
b) Figures
c) Ambiguity
d) Complex words
Answer: b
Explanation: A technical instruction must be free from ambiguity and it must be imperative. Figures, drawings and p
hotographs may be used to achieve better understanding.

7. Warnings against misuse should be included.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Warnings against misuse or wrong use should be included to prevent damage or l
oss.

8. Which of these is advisable for instructions?


a) Long sentences
b) Detailed information
c) Imperative sentences
d) Complex sentences
Answer: c
Explanation: It is advisable to use imperative sentences. Instead of saying “The apparatus should be washed.”, it is b
etter to say “Wash the apparatus.“

9. Which is the last step in a technical instruction?

a) Introduction
b) Steps
c) Drawing
d) Conclusion
Answer: d
Explanation: The sentences in an instruction should be short and simple. A conclusion may be included as a summar
y to what has been stated earlier.

10. Which of these words can be used for omission?

a) Normally
b) er
c) etc
d) Generally
Answer: b
Explanation: Words like etc., normally, generally may be used to avoid possible omission of an essential feature.

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1. Which of these reports are used in business?

a) Formal technical reports


b) Informal reports
c) Personal reports
d) Musical reports
Answer: a
Explanation: Technical reports are of two types. They are: formal and non- formal technical reports. They must pres
ent a complete picture of all the necessary and relevant facts.

2. Which of these forms is not used to write a non-formal report?

a) Filling in a blank form


b) App
c) Form of a letter
d) Memorandum
Answer: b
Explanation: Technical reports may be formal or non- formal. Non- formal reports may be written in one of the three
forms: By filling in a blank form, form of a letter or form of a memorandum.

3. A non- formal report may be written by filling in a blank form.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. A non- formal technical report may be written by filling in a blank form, printed
for a particular purpose.

4. Which of the following is NOT a method of writing a non-formal letter?

a) Filling in a blank form


b) Form of a letter
c) Form of a memorandum
d) Formal of a notice
Answer: d
Explanation: A non- formal technical report may be written in three forms. They are: by filling in a blank form, print
ed for a particular purpose.

5. A non- formal report written in the form of a letter is similar to a _______

a) friendly letter
b) business letter
c) complaint letter
d) notice
Answer: b
Explanation: A non- formal technical report written in the form of a letter is similar to a normal business letter. In th
e case of report a subject heading is added before salutation.

6. A memorandum is almost like a letter.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. A memorandum is almost like a letter. It must be used when information is to be
passes within a particular organisation.

7. Which of these forms does a formal report not take?

a) Essay
b) Pamphlet
c) Friendly letter
d) Book
Answer: c
Explanation: A formal report is long. It takes the form of an essay, pamphlet or book. It is always written in an impe
rsonal tone.

8. Which of these is not a type of a report?

a) Periodic
b) Progress
c) Trouble
d) Fancy
Answer: d
Explanation: There are five types of reports. They are: periodic report, progress report, laboratory report, feasibility r
eport and trouble report.

9. Which of these reports contains information of a routine nature?


a) Periodic report
b) Progress report
c) Trouble report
d) Laboratory report
Answer: a
Explanation: Periodic report contains information of a routine nature. It is usually made by filling in the blanks on a
printed form.

10. ______ report includes breakdown of machinery.

a) Feasibility
b) Periodic
c) Trouble
d) Progress
Answer: c
Explanation: Trouble report includes breakdown of machinery, accidents, deaths, fires, violation of rules, etc.. These
reports must pinpoint the reasons for the occurrence.

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1. A report is a systematic description of an event.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. A report is a systematic description of an event for someone who was not present
on the scene.

2. Which of these does not come under reports?

a) News items
b) Memorandums
c) Notice
d) Report cards
Answer: c
Explanation: A report is a systematic description of an event for someone who was not present on the scene. Most m
emorandums and news items thus come in the category of reports. A notice doesn’t fall under this category as it is us
ually very briefly worded.

3. Which of these is not a parameter of a formal report?

a) Presentation
b) Complaint
c) Information
d) Request
Answer: b
Explanation: There are three parameters for a formal report. They are: presentation, information and request from an
authorised person.

4. A formal report must contain rational information.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. A formal report must contain rational information. It should be presented in an or
ganised manner.

5. Which of these people submit business-like reports?

a) Business administrators
b) Teachers
c) Engineers
d) Scientists
Answer: b
Explanation: Reports which business administrators, engineers and scientists write in course of their routine work ar
e end products of diligent analysis, profound mental activity and rational conclusion.

6. A ______ report provides information on scientific tests carried out by engineers or scientists.

a) progress
b) periodic
c) laboratory
d) trouble
Answer: c
Explanation: The correct statement is: A laboratory report provides information on tests carried out in a laboratory.
They are submitted by engineers or scientists.

7. Which of these reports is written before starting a new project?

a) Feasibility report
b) Periodic report
c) Trouble report
d) Progress report
Answer: a
Explanation: A feasibility report is written before starting a new project. It is done to give an overview of the targets
that the project hopes to meet, and addresses how effectively these targets can be met. This type of report is valid bot
h for government and private organizations.

8. Which of these reports lists down precautions?

a) Progress report
b) Periodic report
c) Trouble report
d) Feasibility report
Answer: c
Explanation: Trouble report includes breakdown of machinery, accidents, deaths, fires, etc. It lists down precautions
to be taken in future in order to prevent a reoccurrence.

9. In which of these cases is the letter form of report not used?

a) When reader is a close associate


b) When subject matter is brief
c) When there is breakdown of machinery
d) When subject matter pertains to a few topics
Answer: c
Explanation: A letter form of report is used when: The subject matter is brief, reader is a close associate, subject mat
ter pertains to a few topics, etc..

10. Where is the signature mentioned in a memorandum?

a) Top left
b) Top right
c) Bottom left
d) Bottom right
Answer: d
Explanation: A memorandum is also a form of a report which is almost like a letter. The signature of the person who
se sign is required must be mentioned in the bottom right corner.

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1. A written report is more formal than an oral report.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. A written report is more formal in nature than an oral report and it removes almo
st every flaw inherent in an oral report.

2. Which of these is usually written in a form of a memorandum?

a) Informal reports
b) Formal reports
c) Professional reports
d) Business reports
Answer: a
Explanation: Written reports can be of two types. They are: formal reports and informal reports. Informal reports are
normally written in the form of a memorandum or a letter.

3. Which of these is not a formal report?

a) Informational
b) Informal
c) Interpretative
d) Routine
Answer: b
Explanation: Formal reports can be classified into three different types. They are : informational, interpretative and r
outine.

4. Into which of these types are formal reports not classified?

a) Informational
b) Interpretative
c) Oral
d) Routine
Answer: c
Explanation: Formal reports are written reports. They can be classified into three types : informational, interpretative
and routine.

5. Which of these reports provide information without any evaluation?


a) Informational
b) Interpretative
c) Routine
d) Progress
Answer: a
Explanation: Informational reports accumulate and provide information without any assessment or evaluation. They
do not make any recommendations they do not give any findings.

6. _______ report provides rational findings.

a) Informative
b) Interpretative
c) Routine
d) Progress
Answer: b
Explanation: Interpretative reports do not merely provide data. They assess this data and provide rational findings an
d worthwhile recommendations.

7. Interpretative reports are also known as ________

a) recommendation reports
b) routine reports
c) progress reports
d) informal reports
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct statement is: Interpretative reports are also known as recommendation reports. They assess
the data and provide rational findings and worthwhile recommendations.

8. Which of these reports are written for recording information?

a) Informational
b) Interpretative
c) Routine
d) Recommendation
Answer: c
Explanation: Routine reports are normally written for recording information which is required at periodic intervals. I
n most cases there may be printed forms where relevant gaps have to be filled with acquired data.

9. Which of these is not mentioned in a progress report?

a) Name of project
b) Right choice of instruments
c) Nature of work
d) Amount of work left
Answer: b
Explanation: A progress report should contain information like: Name of project, nature of project, extent of work to
be completed, amount of work left, etc..

10. Which of these reports involves the checking of a piece of equipment to see if it’s still in working condition?

a) Progress report
b) Laboratory report
c) Inspection report
d) Inventory report
Answer: c
Explanation: An inspection report is made when: An equipment is inspected to establish whether or not it is in worki
ng condition.

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1. A technical report reduces to writing the facts of a particular situation.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. A technical report reduces to writing the facts of a particular situation, project, pr
ocess or test.

2. A technical report establishes a _______

a) illogical conclusion
b) logical conclusion
c) personal prejudice
d) misplaced learning
Answer: b
Explanation: A technical report establishes a logical conclusion on the basis of the facts laid down and the purpose f
or which these facts are required.

3. Which of these must never be a basis for a technical report?

a) Facts
b) Tests
c) Personal prejudices
d) Experiments
Answer: c
Explanation: A report must never be based on personal prejudices and misplaced learning. It must be objective. It hi
ghlights the significance of the facts.

4. Which of these must be avoided in a technical report?

a) Facts
b) Logical conclusion
c) Objective evaluation
d) Subjective evaluation
Answer: d
Explanation: A technical report must always be objective. There is very little place for subjective evaluation in a rep
ort. A technical report establishes a logical conclusion.

5. A report may be used for reading or hearing.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. A report may be used for reading or hearing. The language would change in both
cases because spoken language is different from written language.
6. Which of these is not a parameter in a report?

a) Extent of information
b) Quality of information
c) Age of writer
d) Ability to acquire information
Answer: c
Explanation: There are eight basic parameters in a report: extent and quality of information, ability to acquire additio
nal information, etc..

7. Which of these is not a parameter of a report?

a) Ability to acquire additional information


b) Quality of additional information acquired
c) Ability to arrive at subjective evaluation
d) Ability to provide worthwhile recommendations
Answer: c
Explanation: There are many basic parameters of a report: Ability to acquire additional information, quality of additi
onal information acquired, ability to arrive at objective evaluation, etc..

8. To which of these people is the report not very crucial?

a) Engineers
b) Scientists
c) Teachers
d) Business executives
Answer: c
Explanation: Reports are of crucial importance to engineers, scientists, business executives and public administrators
.

9. Which of these reports is raised annually?

a) Inventory reports
b) Confidential reports
c) Laboratory reports
d) Inspection reports
Answer: b
Explanation: Confidential reports or Annual confidential reports are raised annually. They are raised to evaluate the
performance of a particular employee.

10. Which of these is not a part of a report?

a) Front matter
b) Gender
c) Front cover
d) Title page
Answer: b
Explanation: A report can be divided into three parts: front matter, front cover and title page.

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1. Which of these is written like a business letter?


a) Introductory letter
b) Covering letter
c) Informal letter
d) Personal letter
Answer: a
Explanation: Forwarding letter can be of two types. They are: Covering letter and introductory letter. Both of them a
re meant for the primary recipient of the report.

2. Covering letter is only a record of transmission of the report.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Covering letter: This type of letter is only a record of transmission of the report.

3. Introductory letter serves the purpose of a ______

a) summary
b) preface
c) main part
d) conclusion
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is: Introductory letter serves the purpose of a preface or introduction. It is written like an
y other business letter.

4. Where is introductory letter placed?

a) At the beginning
b) At the end
c) After the title page
d) Just before the last page
Answer: c
Explanation: An introductory letter aims to introduce the scope and purpose of the report. It must be placed immedia
tely after the title page; which means that it must be bound with the report.

5. Which of these introduces the report to the reader?

a) Acknowledgement
b) Preface
c) Summary
d) Abstract
Answer: b
Explanation: A preface is anything said or written by way of introduction or preliminary explanation. Thus a preface
to a report introduces the report to the reader.

6. Which of these tells us what the report is about?

a) Abstract
b) Summary
c) Acknowledgements
d) Table of contents
Answer: a
Explanation: A distinction must be made between an abstract and a summary. An abstract tells us in brief what the r
eport is about.
7. ______ gives the substance of the report.

a) Abstract
b) Summary
c) Preface
d) Table of contents
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is: Summary gives the substance of the report. An abstract only gives the matter covered
in the report.

8. An abstract is _____ of the original report.

a) 2-5 percent
b) 5-10 percent
c) 6-12 percent
d) 7-13 percent
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct statement is: An abstract is 2-5 percent of the original report. An abstract tells us in brief w
hat the report is about.

9. A summary is _____ of the original report.

a) 2-5 percent
b) 5-10 percent
c) 12-15 percent
d) 15-20 percent
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: A summary is 5-10 percent of the original report. A summary becomes crucia
l when the report is long and gives the substance of the report.

10. Which of these is not a part of the main body?

a) Introduction
b) Conclusion
c) Complaint
d) Recommendation
Answer: c
Explanation: The main body is the heart and soul of the report. It has four distinct parts: Introduction, description, co
nclusion and recommendations.

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1. Which aspect of a product is a customer not required to know?

a) About the product


b) Age of seller
c) Advantages of the product
d) Value for money
Answer: b
Explanation: Customers need to know three points about a product. They are: about the product, advantages of the p
roduct over other similar products and the value for money that the product provides.
2. Which of these is not a characteristic of an advertisement?

a) Inspire a customer
b) Arouse a desire
c) Discourage the buyer
d) Convince the buyer
Answer: c
Explanation: Any advertisement has these four characteristics : An advertisement must inspire a customer, must aro
use a desire, must convince the buyer about the quality and it must motivate the customer to actually go and buy the
product.

3. Which of these media is not used for advertisement?

a) Newspapers
b) Magazines
c) Billboards
d) Notebooks
Answer: d
Explanation: Seven types of media are used for advertisement. They are: newspapers, magazines, billboards, direct
mail, radio, TV and cinema and Internet.

4. The choice of medium of advertisement depends on the contents of the message.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. The choice of medium of advertisement depends on the contents of the message,
customer whom the advertisement wishes to attract and the money available for the advertisement.

5. Basic principles of advertisement remains the same for different mediums.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Basic principles of advertisement remains the same for different mediums. An ad
vertisement in a newspaper would be different from that in a magazine.

6. Which of these is cheap and informative?

a) Television
b) Newspapers
c) Magazine
d) Cinema
Answer: b
Explanation: A newspaper is an intellectual way of reporting events and providing information. It is a cheap device a
nd reach is huge.

7. Which of these contain no illustrations or logos?

a) TV
b) Magazine
c) Classified advertisements
d) Cinema
Answer: c
Explanation: Classified advertisements are small and one column wide. These advertisements contain no illustration
s or logos.

8. When a newspaper advertisement looks like a new story, it is called _______

a) classified notice
b) reading notice
c) writing notice
d) spoken notice
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is: When a newspaper advertisement looks like a new story, it is called reading notice. T
hey are the most expensive kind of newspaper advertisement.

9. Which of these media needs a script for an advertisement?

a) Newspaper advertisements
b) Classified advertisements
c) Radio
d) Magazine
Answer: c
Explanation: The radio is a powerful medium for broadcasting news and for advertisements. An advertisement on ra
dio needs a script, which should be written like a screenplay.

10. Which of these is the best medium for advertisement?

a) Television
b) Newspapers
c) Magazines
d) Radio
Answer: a
Explanation: Magazines, Radio and Newspapers are examples of “audio only” or “visual only” forms of advertising.
Television is both, that is, it’s audio-visual. Hence, it conveys the most information, making it the best medium for
advertising.

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1. Which of these cannot be a billboard?

a) Wall
b) Static panel
c) Banner
d) Paper
Answer: d
Explanation: A billboard could be a wall, a static panel or a banner. It is essentially an outdoor form of advertisemen
t. In case of billboards, consumers come to it.

2. Graphic techniques help to understand ________

a) business reports
b) friendly letters
c) notices
d) classified advertisements
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct statement is: Graphic techniques help to understand business reports. Graphic techniques in
clude headings, tables, charts, graphs, etc.

3. Graphic aids provide large data in a short place.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Graphic aids provide large data in a short place. It helps to communicate better.

4. Which of these can be dependent or independent?

a) Tables
b) Graphs
c) Figures
d) Charts
Answer: a
Explanation: Graphic aids are of two types. They are: tables and figures. Tables can be dependent or independent.

5. Which of these does a figure not include?

a) Graphs
b) Tables
c) Charts
d) Drawings
Answer: b
Explanation: Graphic aids are of two types. They are: tables and figures. Tables can be dependent or independent. Fi
gures include graphs, charts, drawings, photos and maps.

6. An independent table is complete in itself.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. An independent table is complete in itself. It is placed separately from the text. It
must be given a number and a title.

7. What is the first column of a table called?

a) Head
b) Subhead
c) Heading
d) Boxhead
Answer: b
Explanation: A table has rows which run horizontally and columns which run vertically. Its first column is called su
bhead.

8. Which of these is used to give additional information?

a) Subhead
b) Boxhead
c) Footnote
d) Dash
Answer: c
Explanation: A dash shows that no data exists for that column. A footnote may be used to give additional informatio
n while preparing a table.

9. Which of the following shows a trend of progress over a known period?

a) Rectilinear graph
b) Tables
c) Multiline graphs
d) Bar graphs
Answer: a
Explanation: Rectilinear graphs show trend of progress over a known period. They are useful to indicate change ove
r a period of time.

10. Which of these presents data of related units?

a) Rectilinear graph
b) Tables
c) Multiline graphs
d) Bar graphs
Answer: c
Explanation: Multiline line graphs present data of related units. They have more than one index line.

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1. Precis writing is the art of presenting certain information.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Precis writing is the art of presenting certain information in a condensed form.

2. The Chambers Everyday Dictionary describes precis as _______

a) a summary
b) a presentation
c) a story
d) an incident
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct statement is: The Chambers Everyday Dictionary describes precis as an abstract or a summ
ary.

3. A precis saves time.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. The biggest advantage of a precis, however, is that it saves time. Most modern ex
ecutives are constantly working against time.

4. A precis must use the ______ tense of verbs.

a) present
b) past
c) future
d) present continuous
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: A precis must use the past tense of verbs. A precis of crucial importance. It en
ables a person to compress large information without losing anything worthwhile.

5. A precis must always have a ______

a) subheading
b) heading
c) story
d) incident
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: A precis must always have a heading. The title must be the shortest possible a
nd it must reflect the central idea of the passage.

6. A precis must be how long?

a) One-third of original passage


b) Two-third of original passage
c) Same as of original passage
d) One-fifth of original passage
Answer: a
Explanation: A precis must be one-third the length of the original passage. It may sometimes be less than one-third i
f the original passage has indulged in too much circumlocution.

7. Which of these are not allowed in a precis?

a) Semicolon
b) Verbs
c) Heading
d) Abbreviations
Answer: d
Explanation: Abbreviations are not allowed in a precis nor can the parameters of grammar be compromised. Adverb
s and adjectives can be eliminated.

8. In a precis, conjunctions can be replaced by _______

a) Full stop
b) Semicolon
c) Apostrophe
d) Dash
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: In a precis, conjunctions can be replaced by semicolon. Adverbs and adjective
s can be eliminated in order to reduce the length of the passage.

9. Which of these is called a percentage graph?

a) Bar graph
b) Table
c) Pie graph
d) Precis
Answer: c
Explanation: A pie graph is also called a circle or percentage graph. It is hundred percent graph. It is used to display
data in terms of relative percentage.

10. Which of these contains symbols?

a) Pie graph
b) Pictorial graph
c) Precis
d) Bar graph
Answer: b
Explanation: Pictorial graphs contain symbols. These symbols represent a single unit. These symbols should have so
me resemblance to the objects they denote.

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1. Which of these is not a type of precis?

a) Precis of speech
b) Precis of correspondence
c) Tables
d) Telegraphese
Answer: c
Explanation: Precis can be of four types. They are: precis of speech, precis of continuous matter, precis of correspon
dence and telegraphese.

2. Which of the following is NOT a rule of precis writing?

a) Always have a heading


b) Use as extensive vocabulary as possible
c) Remove any irrelevant information present in the original passage
d) Do not use any short forms or abbreviations
Answer: b
Explanation: The objective of a precis is to summarize a longer, wordier piece of writing. So, it should be short and
crisp, such that the crux of the original passage is adequately conveyed in as less words as possible.

3. A precis should be written in third person.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. A precis should be written in third person and in the past tense. All pronouns mu
st be in third person.

4. Which of these should be avoided in a precis?

a) Imagery
b) Verbs
c) Pronouns
d) Indirect speech
Answer: a
Explanation: Figurative language and imagery should not be used. Language which is needlessly poetic should be av
oided at all costs.

5. _______ in a speech must be avoided in a summary.


a) Facts
b) Ideas
c) Repetitions
d) Verbs
Answer: c
Explanation: Repetitions in a speech must be avoided in a summary. Ideas which have similar meanings must be clu
bbed together and produced as one central idea.

6. Which of these is not included in precis of continuous matter?

a) Parliamentary reports
b) Correspondence
c) Reports of evidence
d) Articles
Answer: b
Explanation: Continuous matter includes every kind of matter other than correspondence. It includes question and an
swer form (parliamentary reports, reports of evidence, etc.) or articles.

7. The date of the passage must not be given in precis of continuous matter.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. The date and time of the passage must be given in precis of continuous matter.

8. Which of these is also known as abstract?

a) Index precis
b) Narrative precis
c) Precis of speech
d) Telegraphese
Answer: a
Explanation: Precis of correspondence may be of two types. They are: Index- precis and narrative- precis.

9. Index precis is also known as _____

a) docket
b) telegraphese
c) narrative precis
d) precis of speech
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct statement is: Index precis is also known as docket. They can also be known as abstract or a
schedule. It is presented in the form of a table.

10. How must the date be written in an index precis?

a) November 15, 2004


b) 15 November, 2004
c) 2004, November 15
d) November 2004, 15
Answer: b
Explanation: The date should ideally be written as 15 November, 2004, instead of any other form like November 15,
2004.
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1. An essay could be short or long.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. An essay could be short or long. It could give personal opinions or information o
n a subject.

2. Which of these is not a characteristic of a good essay?

a) Brevity
b) Dignified style
c) Fakeness
d) Personal touch
Answer: c
Explanation: A good essay must have five characteristics. They are: unity, order in line of thought, Brevity, dignifie
d and literary style and the personal touch.

3. Which of these should be avoided in a good essay?

a) Slang
b) Dignified words
c) Brevity
d) Unity
Answer: a
Explanation: A good essay must have a dignified and literary style. It cannot have slang, colloquial terms and free co
nstructions.

4. Which of these is not a type of essay?

a) Narrative essay
b) Descriptive essay
c) Argumentative essay
d) Personal essay
Answer: d
Explanation: Essays are of five types. They are: Narrative essays, descriptive essays, argumentative essays, reflectiv
e essays and expository essays.

5. Which of these essays tells a story?

a) Narrative essays
b) Descriptive essays
c) Reflective essays
d) Argumentative essays
Answer: a
Explanation: Narrative essays narrate a story or an event. The story or event could be real or imaginary, like an accid
ent, a festival and so on.

6. Descriptive essays describe a place or a person.


a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Descriptive essays describe a place, person or a thing which may be real or imagi
nary.

7. In which of these essays, the writer arrives at a conclusion by logical reasoning?

a) Narrative essays
b) Descriptive essays
c) Reflective essays
d) Argumentative essays
Answer: d
Explanation: Argumentative essays are argumentative in nature. The writer arrives at a conclusion by logical reasoni
ng.

8. ________ essays are a collection of one’s thoughts.

a) Narrative
b) Expository
c) Argumentative
d) Reflective
Answer: d
Explanation: The correct statement is: Reflective essays consist of reflection of thoughts on topics of abstract nature.
These include habits, qualities, etc..

9. Which of these explains a subject?

a) Narrative essays
b) Expository essays
c) Argumentative essays
d) Reflective essays
Answer: b
Explanation: Expository essays explain a subject. These subjects include institutions, industries, scientific topics, lite
rary topics, etc.

10. Which kind of essay uses the five senses (touch, smell, taste, sound, sight) to enhance the imagery of the setting?

a) Narrative essays
b) Descriptive essays
c) Expository essays
d) Argumentative essays
Answer: b
Explanation: The five senses are an important aspect of descriptive essays. They enable the reader of the essay to vis
ualize the setting better.

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1. Interviews are conversations with _______

a) fun
b) purpose
c) friendliness
d) informality
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: Interviews are conversations with purpose. For the employer the purpose is to
determine the most suitable person for the job.

2. A job interview is a formal meeting between a job seeker and an employer.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Interview is a formal face-to-face meeting. A job interview is a formal meeting b
etween a job seeker and an employer.

3. All job interviews have the same objective.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. All job interviews have the same objective, but employers reach that objective in
a variety of ways.

4. Which of these is not a type of interview?

a) Screening interview
b) Stress interview
c) Music interview
d) Lunch interview
Answer: c
Explanation: Interviews can be of nine types: They are Screening interview, stress interview, behavioural interview,
the audition, group interview, telephone, lunch interview, video interview and sequential interview.

5. Which kind of interview includes a process in which the employability of the job applicant is evaluated?

a) Stress interview
b) Screening interview
c) Group interview
d) Behavioural interview
Answer: b
Explanation: In the screening interview, companies use screening tools to ensure that candidates meet minimum qua
lification requirements.

6. How many styles are used in a screening interview?

a) Two
b) Five
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: a
Explanation: There are two styles used in a screening interview. They are: the directive style and the meandering sty
le.

7. In which of these interviews, insults are common?

a) Screening interview
b) Stress interview
c) Behavioural interview
d) Group interview
Answer: b
Explanation: In stress interview, insults and miscommunication is common. All this is designed to see whether you
have the mettle to withstand the company culture or other potential stress.

8. Which of these interviews is adapted for computer programmers?

a) The stress interview


b) The group interview
c) The screening interview
d) The audition
Answer: d
Explanation: For some positions such as computer programmers or trainers, companies want to see you in action bef
ore they make their decision. Here, the audition type is adapted.

9. In which of these, more than one candidate is interviewed?

a) The behavioural interview


b) The stress interview
c) The group interview
d) The audition
Answer: c
Explanation: In group interview, more than one candidate is interviewed. Interviewing simultaneously with other ca
ndidates can be disconcerting, but it provides the company with a sense of your leadership potential and style.

10. Which of these interviews is taken for a candidate far away?

a) Lunch interview
b) Telephone
c) Stress interview
d) Group interview
Answer: b
Explanation: Many organizations will conduct jnterviews by telephone to narrow a field of candidates. Telephone in
terviews may also be used as a preliminary interview for candidates who live far away.

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1. A job interview is usually how long?

a) 30 minutes
b) 60 minutes
c) 90 minutes
d) 100 minutes
Answer: a
Explanation: A job interview is usually 30 minutes long. In this time, the candidate must establish a relationship wit
h the interviewer, impress and convince him.

2. Which of these is not a step in the preparation of an interview?

a) Analyzing yourself
b) Identifying your skills
c) Being negative
d) Revising your subject
Answer: c
Explanation: There are five steps in the preparation of an interview. They are: analyzing yourself, identifying your s
kills, researching the job position, revising your subject knowledge and developing your interview file.

3. In the preparation of an interview, which step is to research your job position?

a) Second
b) Third
c) Fourth
d) First
Answer: b
Explanation: In the preparation of an interview, researching your job position in the third step. The first step is to an
alyze yourself followed by identifying your skills.

4. Developing the interview file is the last step in the preparation of an interview.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Developing the interview file is the last step in the preparation of an interview pr
eceded by revising your subject knowledge.

5. Self analysis is the first step in planning for any interview.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Self- analysis is the first step in planning for any interview. We cannot project ou
rselves successfully unless we know our strengths and weaknesses properly.

6. Which of these is not a step in self – analysis?

a) Analyzing background
b) Identifying accomplishments
c) Identifying achievements
d) Complaining
Answer: d
Explanation: Self- analysis includes five steps for efficiency preparation. They are: analyzing our background, identi
fying accomplishments, achievements, special interests and hobbies and analyzing career goals. Complaining will in
no way enable us to evaluate our merits and shortcomings.

7. Which of these is the third aspect of self analysis?

a) Identifying achievements
b) Identifying special interests
c) Analyzing career goals
d) Identifying accomplishments
Answer: b
Explanation: The third aspect of self analysis is identifying special interests and hobbies. A list of such activities sho
uld be made.

8. ______ skills are assessed in an interview.


a) Listening
b) Blabbering
c) Singing
d) Dancing
Answer: a
Explanation: There are two types of skills that might be assessed during an interview. They are: listening and skills a
nd intuitive skills.

9. Which of these documents need not be in your interview file?

a) Interview letter
b) Original degrees
c) Family photo
d) Certificates
Answer: c
Explanation: Your interview file should contain eight documents. They are: interview letter, original degrees, certifi
cates, experience certificates, etc..

10. Which of these ways can’t be used to research about the company?

a) Visiting website
b) Refer books
c) School books
d) Refer annual report
Answer: c
Explanation: There are mainly five ways in which you can research about the company: visit the website, refer book
s, refer company directories, refer annual report and talk to people in company.

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1. Which of these is not a type of interview question?

a) Open
b) Closed
c) Probing
d) Musical
Answer: d
Explanation: There are seven different types of interview questions. They are: open, closed, probing, reflective, load
ed, hypothetical and leading questions.

2. Which of these questions asks the candidate to talk about something?

a) Open questions
b) Closed questions
c) Probing questions
d) Loaded questions
Answer: a
Explanation: An open question asks the candidate to talk about something. Its main purpose is to encourage the cand
idates to talk broadly about a topic or subject.

3. Which of these is an open question?


a) What are the advantages of a mixed economy?
b) When did you complete your graduation?
c) Do you know data processing?
d) What was your major subject in college?
Answer: a
Explanation: An open question asks the candidate to talk about something. Its main purpose is to encourage the cand
idates to talk broadly about a topic or subject. For example: What are the advantages of a mixed economy?

4. Which of these questions expect specific information?

a) Open questions
b) Closed questions
c) Probing questions
d) Reflective questions
Answer: b
Explanation: Unlike open questions, closed questions limit the scope of the response by asking the candidates to pro
vide specific information or facts.

5. Probing questions encourage the candidate to talk in greater depth.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Probing questions encourage the candidate to talk in greater depth about a topic o
r subject.

6. Which of these questions are asked for confirmation?

a) Open questions
b) Closed questions
c) Reflective questions
d) Probing questions
Answer: c
Explanation: Reflective questions are asked to confirm the statements given by the candidate. The purpose is to chec
k that the interviewer understands what the candidate has said.

7. ______ questions assess the candidate’s response to a sensitive issue.

a) Closed
b) Probing
c) Loaded
d) Leading
Answer: c
Explanation: The correct statement is: Loaded questions assess the candidate’s response to a sensitive issue, subject
or point.

8. A leading question is asked to obtain a desired response.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. A leading question is asked to obtain a desired response. It leads the candidate to
a particular answer.
9. Which of these is not an answering strategy?

a) Accuracy
b) Focus
c) Illogical thinking
d) Brevity
Answer: c
Explanation: There are seven answering strategies. They are: attentiveness, accuracy, brevity, focus, clarity, positive
attitude and logical thinking.

10. Which of these should be avoided in an interview?

a) Attentiveness
b) Accuracy
c) Negative attitudes
d) Clarity
Answer: c
Explanation: The candidates’ answer should reflect a positive attitude. It is important to remain positive and answer
even negative questions positively.

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1. Which of these should be avoided in an interview?

a) Clarity
b) Smile
c) Confusion
d) Confidence
Answer: c
Explanation: The interviewee should speak clearly and effectively. He/she should not be confused while he/she spea
ks and instead should speak confidently and with a smile.

2. Which of these is not a characteristic of a group personality?

a) Spirit of conformity
b) Respect for group values
c) Collective power
d) Disrespect
Answer: d
Explanation: A group personality must have five characteristics. They are: spirit of conformity, respect for group val
ues, respect to change, group prejudice and collective power.

3. The word discuss is derived from _______

a) discutere
b) discuter
c) discutera
d) discutare
Answer: a
Explanation: The word discuss is derived from the latin word discutere that means to shake or strike. The word discu
ssion is a noun.

4. Which of these is not an ingredient of a discussion?


a) Purpose
b) Planning
c) Rudeness
d) Leadership
Answer: c
Explanation: A discussion has five ingredients. They are: purpose, planning, participation, informality and leadershi
p.

5. Which of these is the first ingredient in a group discussion?

a) Planning
b) Purpose
c) Informality
d) Leadership
Answer: b
Explanation: The first ingredient of an effective discussion is purpose. Unless there is a clear purpose there will not
be any discussion.

6. Planning is the _______ ingredient of discussion.

a) first
b) second
c) third
d) fifth
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: Planning is the second ingredient of discussion. We can’t rely on any random
or on the sop expression of feelings or ideas.

7. Participation is the third ingredient of a group discussion.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Participation is the third ingredient of a group discussion. Participation is the ver
y life of a meaningful discussion.

8. Which of these is the fourth ingredient in a group discussion?

a) Participation
b) Informality
c) Leadership
d) Planning
Answer: b
Explanation: Informality is the fourth ingredient in a group discussion. Informality and cordiality are essential to enc
ourage the fullest possible participation.

9. Which of these is the final ingredient in a group discussion?

a) Purpose
b) Planning
c) Participation
d) Leadership
Answer: d
Explanation: Leadership is the final ingredient in a group discussion. Every group discussion has to be piloted by a l
eader.

10. In a group discussion, a leader is assisted by a secretary.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. A leader is indispensable for a group discussion. It is to be pointed out that a lead
er has to be assisted by a secretary.

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1. Which of these is not an information based system?

a) MIS
b) DSS
c) SIS
d) SDS
Answer: d
Explanation: In today’s dynamic environment, information is the lifeblood of business. Information based systems s
uch as MIS, DSS and SIS all rest on the communication.

2. Which of these factors is not required for communication growth?

a) Growth in size of organisations


b) Negative atmosphere
c) Globalisation
d) Public relations
Answer: b
Explanation: Communication growth requires eight factors. They are: growth in size of organisations, globalization,
growth of trade unions, public relations, and so on. A negative atmosphere isn’t conducive to communication growt
h.

3. Globalization, growth of trade unions, public relations and a positive atmosphere are some of the factors that enab
le ____________.

a) Good friendships
b) Happiness
c) Isolation from society
d) Communication growth
Answer: d
Explanation: Communication growth requires eight factors. They are: growth in size of organisations, globalization,
growth of trade unions, public relations, and so on.

4. Every organization has a social responsibility.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Every organization has a social responsibility, specially towards the customers, g
overnment, suppliers and the public at large.
5. Which of these does not come under behavioural sciences?

a) Globalization
b) Psychology
c) Sociology
d) Transactional Analysis
Answer: a
Explanation: Modern management is deeply influenced by exciting discoveries made in behavioural sciences like Ps
ychology, Sociology, Transactional Analysis, etc.

6. Which of these element is not involved in the process of communication?

a) Pipe
b) Sender
c) Message
d) Channel
Answer: a
Explanation: There are four elements in the process of communication. They are: sender, message , channel, receive
r.

7. A sender is the person who transmits a message.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. A sender is the person who transmits a message. A message could be verbal or n
on- verbal as appearance, body language, etc..

8. Which of these is the third element of communication?

a) Sender
b) Channel
c) Message
d) Receiver
Answer: b
Explanation: Channel is the third element in the process of communication. A message may be sent via an electronic
word processing system or through the printed work or other media.

9. For effective communication, which of these commandments should one not follow?

a) Objective of communication
b) Inadequate medium
c) Clarity
d) Adequate medium
Answer: b
Explanation: In order to ensure effective communication, one must take care of the ten commandments. They are: ob
jective of communication, clarity in the use of language, adequate medium, etc.

10. To make our communication effective, we should follow _____ C’s and _____ S’s.

a) seven, four
b) seven, three
c) six, four
d) six, three
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct statement is: To make our communication effective, we should follow seven C’s and four
S’s.

11. Which of these does not come under the four S’s?

a) Simplicity
b) Strength
c) Sincerity
d) Shock
Answer: d
Explanation: To make our communication effective, we should follow seven C’s and four S ’s. The four S’s are: Sho
rtness, simplicity, strength and sincerity.

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1. Which of these is the external sounds present in the channels of communication?

a) Noise
b) Semantic problems
c) Cultural barriers
d) Over communication
Answer: a
Explanation: Noise is the external sounds present in the channels of communication, which results in the reduction o
f the audibility or omission of some words from the message.

2. Which of these should not be avoided for effective communication?

a) Noise
b) Planning
c) Semantic problems
d) Wrong assumptions
Answer: b
Explanation: Lack of planning must be avoided for effects communication. There are innumerable examples of peop
le who would give an ill planned, long winding lecture while a short presentation with tables or graphs would be suf
ficient.

3. __________ are problems arising from expression.

a) Cultural barriers
b) Semantic problems
c) Wrong assumptions
d) Selecting perception
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: Semantic problems are problems arising from expression or transmission of m
eaning in communication.

4. Both encoding and decoding of message are influenced by our emotions.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Both encoding and decoding of message are influenced by our emotions. Emotio
ns play a very important role in our lives.

5. In which of these problems, is the actual message lost in the abundance of transmitted information?

a) Selecting perception
b) Over communication
c) Under communication
d) Filtering
Answer: b
Explanation: In the case of over communication, the actual message is lost in the jungle of information whereas in u
nder communication the sender is blamed for sharing less information.

6. Communication should serve as a conflict- reduction exercise.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Communication should serve as a conflict- reduction exercise. When people start
competing for the fulfillment of their narrow interests communication suffers.

7. _______ means to impart understanding of the message.

a) Encoding
b) Receiver
c) Decoding
d) Feedback
Answer: c
Explanation: The correct statement is: Decoding means to impart understanding of the message. Receiver has to iden
tify the person, words symbols, etc..

8. When is the communication process complete?

a) When the sender transmits the message


b) When the message enters the channel
c) When the message leaves the channel
d) When the receiver understands the message.
Answer: d
Explanation: Communication is complete only when the receiver understands the message. Many communication pr
oblems arise because of misunderstandings.

9. ______ is the first enemy of communication.

a) Noise
b) Clarity
c) Politeness
d) Completeness
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct statement is: Noise is the first and foremost enemy of communication. Every possible effor
t must be made to eliminate the element of noise that distorts communication.

10. Which of these must be avoided for effective communication?

a) Sharing of activity
b) Listening
c) Ambiguity
d) Politeness
Answer: c
Explanation: Ambiguity must be avoided. Clarity and crispness of the message is very important. The sender of the
message should be careful to see that the receiver does not have to go beyond the text of the message.

11. Which of these is not a commandment of effective communication?

a) Clarity in language
b) Listen poorly
c) Home communication skills
d) Adequate medium
Answer: b
Explanation: In order to ensure an effective communication one must take care of ten commandments: Clarity in lan
guage, home communication skills, listen attentively, etc..

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1. On the basis of mutual participation, communication is of how many types?

a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
Answer: a
Explanation: On the basis of mutual participation of the sender and receiver, communication is of two types. They ar
e: one-way communication and two-way communication.

2. On the basis of nature, communicating can be of two types.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. On the basis of nature, communicating can be of two types. They are: formal and
informal communication.

3. In an organization, which of these is not a type of communication?

a) Downward
b) Upward
c) Curve
d) Horizontal
Answer: c
Explanation: In pyramidal hierarchy system in the organization communication can be identified as: downward, upw
ard, horizontal and diagonal.

4. One-way communication is the most democratic way of communication.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. Two-way communication is the most democratic way of communication. One-
way communication is a dictator type communication.
5. _______ communication is a dictator type communication.

a) Two-way
b) Three- way
c) Four- way
d) One- way
Answer: d
Explanation: The correct statement is: One-way communication is a dictator type communication where ordering or
instructing takes place.

6. Any business house is concerned with _______ communication.

a) external
b) dumb
c) deaf
d) blind
Answer: a
Explanation: Any business house is concerned with two types of communication. They are: external communication
and internal communication.

7. _______ communication flows from a superior to a subordinate.

a) Upward
b) Downward
c) Diagonal
d) Lateral
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: Downward communication flows from a superior to a subordinate. Orders, ins
tructions, job-sheets, etc. fall under downward communication.

8. Which of these is not a limitations of downward communication?

a) Under communication
b) Over communication
c) Car communication
d) Distortion
Answer: c
Explanation: Downward communication has five major limitations. They are: under and over communication, delay,
loss of information, distortion and built-in resistance.

9. Which of these moves from the grass root level?

a) Downward communication
b) Diagonal communication
c) Upward communication
d) Lateral communication
Answer: c
Explanation: Upward communication moves from the grass root level to the higher levels in an organization. Its mai
n objectives are: providing feedback, constructive suggestions, etc.

10. Which of these is not a method for upward communication?

a) Open-door policy
b) Complaints
c) Suggestion boxes
d) Scolding
Answer: d
Explanation: There are six methods for upward communication. They are: open-door policy, complaints and suggest
ions boxes, social gatherings, direct correspondence, reports and counselling.

11. Which of these is the most frequently used channel of communication?

a) Horizontal communication
b) Diagonal communication
c) Downward communication
d) Upward communication
Answer: a
Explanation: Horizontal communication is the most frequently used channel of communication. It is communication
between departments or people of the same level.

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1. Which of these is a type of informal communication?

a) Reports
b) Orders
c) Instructions
d) Grapevine
Answer: d
Explanation: There exists in every organization an informal channel, often called the grapevine, that does not arise o
ut of the organizational needs but is an integral part of the communication system.

2. Rumors spreading in any organization follow the grapevine.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Rumors that are all time spreading in any organization follow the grapevine. It fo
llows no setlines, nor any definite rules, etc.

3. Which of these is not a type of grapevine?

a) Gossip
b) Probability
c) Rope
d) Cluster
Answer: c
Explanation: Grapevine is classified into four types. They are: single strand, gossip, probability and cluster.

4. Which of these is not a type of grapevine?

a) Double strand
b) Single strand
c) Gossip
d) Cluster
Answer: a
Explanation: Grapevine is classified into four types. They are: single strand, gossip, probability and cluster. There is
no such type as double strand.

5. Which of these involves the passing of information through a long line of people?

a) Cluster
b) Single strand
c) Gossip
d) Probability
Answer: b
Explanation: The single strand involves the passing of information through a long line of people to the ultimate recip
ient.

6. Which of these grapevine chains is random?

a) Single strand
b) Cluster
c) Probability
d) Gossip
Answer: c
Explanation: The probability chain is a random process in which one transmits the information to others in accordan
ce with the laws of probability and it goes on.

7. Which of these is the most common type of grapevine?

a) Gossip chain
b) Single strand chain
c) Probability chain
d) Cluster chain
Answer: d
Explanation: In the cluster chain, one tells selected people who may in turn relay the information to other selected in
dividuals. This the most common type of informal communication.

8. The grapevine provides feedback to the management.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. The grapevine provides feedback to the management. It enables them to know w
hat the subordinates think about the organization.

9. Which of these is not a limitation of grapevine?

a) Distortion
b) Slow process
c) Incomplete information
d) Damaging swiftness
Answer: b
Explanation: The grapevine has three major limitations: distortion, incomplete information and damaging swiftness.
A grapevine spreads baseless or distorted news and the information is usually incomplete. The swiftness with which
the grapevine transmits may even be damaging.

10. Which of these is not a type of effective listening?


a) Discriminative listening
b) Evaluative listening
c) Irritated listening
d) Appreciative listening
Answer: c
Explanation: Effective listening is of four types. They are: discriminative listening, evaluative listening, appreciative
listening and empathetic listening.

11. Which of these should be avoided for effective listening?

a) Patience
b) Politeness
c) Talking
d) Attentiveness
Answer: c
Explanation: For effective listening, stop talking. Listen attentively and patiently. Put the speaker at ease and be poli
te.

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1. Public speaking is addressing a gathering.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Public speaking means addressing a group or a large gathering of people. It is iss
uing instructions.

2. Public speaking is only verbal activity.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. Public speaking is not only a verbal activity, it includes non- verbal means also.

3. Which of these should be avoided for an effective speech?

a) Determination of the purpose


b) Selection of message
c) Lack of interest
d) Selection of theme
Answer: c
Explanation: Four principles must be followed for an effective speech. They are: analysis of audience and occasion,
determine the purpose, selection of message or theme and speech delivery.

4. Which of these factors is not required to determine the purpose of speech?

a) Providing information
b) Discouragement
c) Accepting ideas
d) Entertainment
Answer: b
Explanation: Three main factors are required to determination the purpose of speech. They are: providing informatio
n, to make acceptance of ideas and entertainment.

5. Which of these ingredients is not required for selection of theme?

a) Planning
b) Disorganisation
c) Preparation
d) Organisation
Answer: b
Explanation: Three main ingredients are required for selection of message or theme. They are: planning, preparation
and organisation.

6. Which of these should be avoided for an effective speech?

a) Planning of speech
b) Preparation of speech
c) Long sentences
d) Organisation
Answer: c
Explanation: It is worthwhile to prepare the matter carefully. Use short sentences. Information should be conveyed i
n least possible words without leaving out anything important.

7. Which of these should be avoided during the delivery of a speech?

a) Confidence
b) Clarity
c) Pauses
d) Rudeness
Answer: d
Explanation: Presentation or speech should be delivered with confidence. Delivery must be with clarity and precisio
n. A good speaker always pauses on punctuation marks.

8. Which of these is not a type of public speech?

a) Short speech
b) Informal speech
c) Written speech
d) Professional speech
Answer: c
Explanation: Public speeches can be of four types. They are: short speech, long speech, informal speech and professi
onal speech.

9. What is the maximum time for a short speech?

a) Ten minutes
b) Thirty minutes
c) Forty- five minutes
d) One hour
Answer: a
Explanation: A short speech is short in length and ranges from one to ten minutes. A long speech varies from ten mi
nutes to one hour.

10. Which of these does not come under short speech?


a) Introducing dignitaries
b) Presenting reports
c) Giving a briefing
d) Presenting an award
Answer: b
Explanation: A short speech is short in length and ranges from one to ten minutes. Short speeches are meant for intr
oducing dignitaries, giving a briefing and presenting an award. Reports are extensively detailed documents. Hence, t
hey can’t be presented in the form of a short speech.

11. Which of these is not a type of means of speech delivery?

a) Reading
b) Memorization
c) Scolding
d) Impromptu
Answer: c
Explanation: There are four major means of speech delivery. They are: extemporaneous, reading, memorization and
impromptu.

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1. We write more than we speak.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. Speaking is an important mode of expression which is used frequently. We spea
k more than we write.

2. Speaking is a combination of verbal and non-verbal means.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Speaking is a combination of verbal and non-verbal means. People listen to those
who impress them, who impart knowledge, who give something new, who relate things and ideas.

3. Which of these is not an ingredient of the speech process?

a) Message
b) Audience
c) Feedback
d) Reading comprehension
Answer: d
Explanation: A speech process has five ingredients. They are: message, audience, speech style, feedback and conver
sation and oral skills.

4. Which of these should be avoided in the message of a speech?

a) Clarity
b) Confusion
c) Voice Modulation
d) Politeness
Answer: b
Explanation: Confusing words should be avoided while speaking. Such words will hamper the clarity in communicat
ing the message. A good speech is one that is delivered with a clear tone, and one that isn’t too loud and jarring to he
ar. The speaker should be calm and polite, and exercise proper voice modulation.

5. Which of these is the most important element of the speech process?

a) Message
b) Audience
c) Feedback
d) Speech style
Answer: b
Explanation: Audience is the most important element of the speech process. Speech is meant for the audience and pl
ay a great role in determining the material to be used.

6. Which of these factors need not be considered while preparing speech for the audience?

a) Number of people
b) Age of audience
c) Appearance of audience
d) Nature of purpose
Answer: c
Explanation: Many factors should be considered while preparing speech for the audience, like: nature of purpose, nu
mber of people, age and sex of audience, educational qualification of audience, interest and expectation from speake
r, etc.

7. Which of these factors distinguish one speaker from the other speakers?

a) Audience
b) Message
c) Speech style
d) Feedback
Answer: c
Explanation: Speech style distinguishes a speaker from the other speakers. Style is a pattern of speaking adopted by
a speaker.

8. Which of these is used as a basis for improvement?

a) Speech style
b) Feedback
c) Oral skills
d) Conversation skills
Answer: b
Explanation: Feedback means the responses from the audience to the speech. The feedback is used as a basis for imp
rovement.

9. Which of these factors is not used for feedback by an audience that is listening to a speech?

a) Pronunciation
b) Content
c) Hairstyle
d) Speech delivery
Answer: c
Explanation: Seven factors are used for feedback by audience. They are: pronunciation, speech delivery, content, au
dience awareness, body language, use of audio visual aids and quality of interaction.

10. Which of these factors do not make the oral discourse effective?

a) Dullness
b) Fluency
c) Self expression
d) Phonetics
Answer: a
Explanation: The following three factors make the oral discourse effective. They are: fluency and self expression, bo
dy language and phonetics and spoken English.

11. Which of these should be avoided while speaking?

a) Fluency
b) Jargon
c) Clear voice
d) Abstract words
Answer: b
Explanation: There should be fluency in speech. The speech must flow naturally without any odd sounds. Avoid imp
roper words or jargon.

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1. Body language can make or break a speech.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Body language can make or break a speech. Audience receives as much informat
ion from our body as from words.

2. Which of these is the study and classification of speech sounds?

a) Gestures
b) Speech style
c) Phonetics
d) Spoof
Answer: c
Explanation: Phonetics is the study and classification of speech sounds. Knowledge of phonetics helps in correct pro
nunciation of English language.

3. Which of these is not an element of the speaking technique?

a) Voice quality
b) Word stress
c) Appearance
d) Correct tones
Answer: c
Explanation: Speaking technique has four main elements. They are: word stress, voice quality, correct tones and typ
es of tones.

4. Which of these means giving emphasis to a syllable?


a) Voice quality
b) Word stress
c) Tone
d) Message
Answer: b
Explanation: Word stress means giving emphasis to a word or a syllable when pronouncing while speaking. Speaker
presents facts, ideas through his speech.

5. Which of these factors is not involved in the determination of correct tone?

a) Pitch
b) Dressing style
c) Quality
d) Strength
Answer: b
Explanation: Three factors are involved in the determination of correct tone. They are: pitch, quality and strength.

6. Which of these is not a type of tone?

a) Urgent tone
b) Serious tone
c) Restrained tone
d) Jumping tone
Answer: d
Explanation: There are seven types of tones. They are : serious tone, urgent tone, restrained tone, outraged tone, hum
orous tone, reflective tone and happy tone.

7. Which of these tones represent thoughtfulness?

a) Serious tone
b) Urgent tone
c) Happy tone
d) Outraged tone
Answer: a
Explanation: A serious tone expresses careful consideration, solemn or thoughtfulness. It exhibits that the speaker is
sincere and earnestly putting his point of view.

8. Which of these tones is an unemotional tone?

a) Happy tone
b) Outraged tone
c) Restrained tone
d) Humorous tone
Answer: c
Explanation: Restrained tone is reserved as an unemotional tone. It is subtle and not orante. It is prohibitive in chara
cter. It favours self control.

9. ______ tone is used when speaker wants to bring about a good impression of her life.

a) Outraged
b) Reflective
c) Restrained
d) Urgent
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: Reflective tone is used when speaker wants to bring about a good impression
of her life.

10. Which of these tones is used to express contentment?

a) Serious tone
b) Happy tone
c) Outraged tone
d) Urgent tone
Answer: b
Explanation: The speaker uses happy tone to express his pleasure or contentment at something.

11. Formal speaking has casual approach to something.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. Formal speaking is official in nature. Formal speaking has specific purpose and
objective.

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1. Listening means to respond to advice or request.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Listening means to give one’s attention to what others say. It also means to respo
nd to advice or request.

2. Which of these is not a step in the listening process?

a) To stop talking
b) Receiving
c) Misinterpreting
d) Responding
Answer: c
Explanation: Listening consists of four main steps. They are: To stop talking, receiving, interpreting and responding.
Hearing is different from listening.

3. Which of these is the first step in the listening process?

a) Stop talking
b) Receiving
c) Interpreting
d) Responding
Answer: a
Explanation: Being a good speaker isn’t everything. Being a good listener is also important. For that, one has to kno
w when to stop talking. Not only is it respectful towards the speaker, it also enables the listener to gather more from
the speech. One must keep quiet when speaker has begun his speech.

4. Which of these is the third step in the listening process?


a) Stop talking
b) Interpreting
c) Responding
d) Receiving
Answer: b
Explanation: Interpreting is the third step in the listening process. After listening to the talk seriously and noting imp
ortant points, interpret the contents of the speech.

5. _______ is the last step of the listening process.

a) Receiving
b) Interpreting
c) Responding
d) Stop talking
Answer: c
Explanation: The correct statement is: Responding is the last step of the listening process. One way to respond is to a
sk questions to the speaker.

6. Hearing means perceiving with ears.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Hearing means perceiving with ears. It is the effort to decipher the phonetic soun
d from the speaker. It is a physical act.

7. Which of these is not a type of listening?

a) Appreciative listening
b) Superficial listening
c) Focused listening
d) Musical listening
Answer: d
Explanation: Listening can be of six types. They are: superficial listening, appreciative listening, focused listening, e
valuative listening, attentive listening and empathetic listening.

8. Which of these types of listening lacks depth?

a) Appreciative listening
b) Superficial listening
c) Focused listening
d) Evaluative listening
Answer: b
Explanation: Superficial listening is apparent listening lacking depth or understanding. It is not thorough listening, it
is cursory listening.

9. In which of these types of listening, does the listener feel grateful?

a) Superficial listening
b) Attentive listening
c) Appreciative listening
d) Evaluative listening
Answer: c
Explanation: When the listener expresses gratitude or pleasure for the speech, it is called appreciative listening. Liste
ners applaud the speaker.

10. Which of these types of listening is followed by skilled listeners?

a) Focused listening
b) Evaluative listening
c) Attentive listening
d) Empathetic listening
Answer: b
Explanation: In evaluative listening, the listener evaluates the contents in terms of accuracy, objectivity and adequac
y of the message.

11. In which of these, the listener puts himself in place of the speaker?

a) Focused listening
b) Evaluative listening
c) Attentive listening
d) Empathetic listening
Answer: d
Explanation: Empathise means to understand and share the feelings of another. During empathetic listening the liste
ner puts himself in the position of the speaker.

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1. A successful manager should be a trained listener.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. A successful manager or businessman should be a trained listener. He/she should
adopt certain strategies for success.

2. Which of these should be avoided for effective listening?

a) Pre-listening analysis
b) Listening to structured talks
c) Team listening
d) Predicting
Answer: d
Explanation: One should follow seven strategies for effective listening. They are: listening in conversational interact
ion, listening to structured talks, pre-listening analysis, not predicting, links between parts of the speech, team listeni
ng and listening and note taking.

3. In which of these does the listener pick up special features of the speech?

a) Listening in conversational interaction


b) Listening to structured talks
c) Predicting
d) Team listening
Answer: a
Explanation: Listening in conversational interaction is an important listening strategy. One has to listen to the conver
sation and pick up the special features of the speaker’s presentation.
4. A well organised talk is a _______ talk.

a) short
b) long
c) random
d) structured
Answer: d
Explanation: The correct statement is: A well organised talk is a structured talk. It is an effectively prepared talk for
a special purpose.

5. Which of these should be avoided in pre-listening analysis?

a) Mental discipline
b) Concentration
c) Prejudices
d) Patience
Answer: c
Explanation: For pre-listening analysis, exercise mental discipline and concentrate seriously. Avoid prejudices again
st the speaker.

6. Predicting is the technique to forecast what the speaker will say.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Predicting is the technique to forecast what the speaker will say or place the idea
before the audience.

7. In which of these, should the listener be able to make connections between different segments of the speech?

a) Listening to structured talks


b) Links between parts of the speech
c) Team listening
d) Predicting
Answer: b
Explanation: A good listener must be able to establish relation between different parts of the speech. This is possible
if listener is attentive and keeps his mind open.

8. Which of these is based of effective listening?

a) Note taking
b) Notice writing
c) Letter writing
d) Predicting
Answer: a
Explanation: Note taking is based on effective listening. While note taking, listener has to concentrate on contents of
the speech.

9. Which of these should be avoided while note taking?

a) Concentration
b) Evaluation
c) Listening
d) Using phrases
Answer: b
Explanation: At the time of noting, the listener should try to understand the speech instead of evaluating. Also don’t
try to anticipate what the speaker will say.

10. Which of these is not a type of text for reading?

a) Reference material
b) Chats
c) Scientific text
d) Technical text
Answer: b
Explanation: There are three different types of texts. They are: reference material, scientific text and technical text.

11. Which of these is not a deterrent to the listening process?

a) Lack of interest
b) Ego
c) Confidence
d) Fear
Answer: c
Explanation: There are six deterrents to the listening process. They are: lack of interest, ego, preconception ideas, pr
eoccupation, fear and the familiarity trap.

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1. Which of these is not a barrier to listening?

a) Physical barrier
b) Cultural barrier
c) Linguistic barrier
d) Written barrier
Answer: d
Explanation: There are six barriers to listening. They are: physical, physiological, linguistic, cultural barriers, speech
decoding and oral discourse analysis.

2. Which is the main barrier to listening?

a) Physical barrier
b) Linguistic barrier
c) Cultural barrier
d) Physiological barrier
Answer: a
Explanation: Physical barrier is the main barrier to listening. These are caused by noise, physical distractions. Noise
is the biggest physical hurdle in listening.

3. Which of these is not a physiological barrier?

a) Fear
b) Different perception
c) Gel effect
d) Halo effect
Answer: c
Explanation: There are nine physiological barriers. They are: fear, different perception, misunderstanding, halo effec
t, inattentiveness, emotions, abstracting, drawing hasty conclusions and polarisation.

4. Which of these is based on faith?

a) Fear
b) Halo effect
c) Emotions
d) Different perception
Answer: b
Explanation: Halo effect is based on faith, i.e., trust or distrust of the listener on the speaker. If the listener feels the s
peaker tells truth whatever he says is correct.

5. When people take extreme positions what is it called?

a) Fear
b) Halo effect
c) Emotions
d) Polarisation
Answer: d
Explanation: Some people take extreme position or stand on some issues and do not want to compromise or understa
nd the other side. This is called polarization.

6. Which of these occur because of difference in language?

a) Physical barriers
b) Linguistic barriers
c) Cultural barriers
d) Speech decoding
Answer: b
Explanation: Linguistic barriers occur when the people speak different languages. They have different mother tongu
es. This creates problems.

7. Barriers which are caused because of different meanings of a word to different people is called ________

a) different perception
b) semantic distortions
c) physical barriers
d) cultural barriers
Answer: b
Explanation: Semantic distortions is one of the barriers in listening. The words often means different things to differ
ent people which is a distortion of non deliberate nature.

8. Which of these barriers occur when people belong to different religious backgrounds?

a) Physical barriers
b) Linguistic barriers
c) Cultural barriers
d) Speech decoding
Answer: c
Explanation: Cultural barriers occur when the speaker and listener are from different cultural background or religiou
s background.

9. Who among these bow down to greet?


a) Japanese
b) Americans
c) Indians
d) French
Answer: a
Explanation: The Japanese bow down to greet, Westerners and Americans have gentle kiss on the cheeks of each oth
er. One should avoid offending the people from other cultures.

10. Which of these is not a step in speech decoding?

a) Listening
b) Writing
c) Translating
d) Understanding
Answer: b
Explanation: There are three steps in speech decoding. They are: listening of speech, translation and understanding b
y the listener.

11. Oral discourse means to speak authoritatively about a topic.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Oral discourse means to speak authoritatively about a topic. A listener has to ma
ke analysis of the spoken communication.

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