TVIEDICAL

PHYSTGS ! CHEMTSTBY !
BllIANY z00r0EY
(FllB AIIUANGED !.EUEI. PBTP. llF CllMPEIIIIUE EXAMSI

(Level-lll)

Study Package-2
(Glass l(ll

)
l:

E
5
Aakash
Medicall llT-IEE I Foundations
(Dh/isions of Aakash Educaliooal SeNices Limited)

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Edition:2019-20

@ aafasn Educational Services Limited [AESL]

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 \

ntents
CHAPTER TOPIC PAGE NO.
NO.

CHEMISTRY
3. Classification of Elements and periodicity in properties........... 15 - '18

4. Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure '19

- 26

BOTANY
4 Biological Classifi cation ...... .27 -32
t Morphology of Flowering Plants .33 - 34

ZOOLOGY
4. Breathing and Exchange of Gases................. .............35 _ 40
5. Body Fluids and Circulation .......... ...41 - 46
6. Excretory Products and their Elimination........ .............47 - 50

Botany .81 - 84
.8s - 94

:
/
 - I

PHYSICS
a

I I

I
 n
Chopter 4 -

Motion in o Plone
SECT]ON . A 3. A particle is moving on a spiral path as shown in
fgure. The speed of the particle remains constant
Objective Type Questions
1 A rod can slide between two perpendicular wall as
shown in figure. lf the end A moves to the right with
speed y, then llnd the speed of the centre of the
rod in terms of e

v
I Select conect alternative
, y)
(1) The acceleration of the particle is zero
T ,'z)
v (2) The acceleration of the particle is constant
A
(3) The magnitude of the acceleration of the
x----+t particle is increasing

(1) v cote (4) The magnitude of the acceleration of the

Pt l*te particle is decreasing

4 A ball is pro.iected in horizontal direction from top

("' 2sino 6) *k of inclined plane of inclination 0. Time afler which
it strikes the inclined plane is f. The maximum
2 A particle moves along the straight line y = p.
distance of the ball from the inclined surface is
The speed of the particle is y m/s towards right
clo
then find
7
v

-tl
D

x
rr) Jor'
(2) gltinao
(1)
Dtar'o
g f,cos'e
te1 Jecoser'?

v
c) ; (4)
secr o
(a)
|or'sin'o
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 (Level-lll)
2 Motion in a Plane

5 The velocity vector of a particle moving in xy plane I A cable car starts accelerating along the inclined
cable as shown. A particle is thrown horizontally
is given by i = ti + xj.lt initially the particle was
at the same time with velocity 10 m/s relative to
at origin then the equation of trajectory of the cable car from point P. After 5 s, it strikes at point
projectile is Q (as shown). The acceleration of cable car along
(l u2-9y=0 ( 4 sin37'= 3)
the cable is l cos37'=
r -.
5 l5) I

(2\ -
9x2 zYs = 0
(3) U3 -syz=0 J/
(4) 9x3-zyz=0
6 Consller particle A moving on tle path in he fgure
shown. Magnitude of position vector of the particle

lrl (in m) is siven by lll = 2s 1+9t2. Angle

made by the position vector with positive x-axis P -----.+ 10 rds
is given by 0 (in radians) = tan-t3t. Choose the
inconect stiatement regarding motion of the particle
(t is time in s)

v o
(1) 5 m/s2 (2) 10 nvs2
A
(3) 4 nr/s2 (4) 3 m/s2
X 10. A projectile is aimed at a mark on a horizontal
plane through the point of projection and falls 6 m
(1) lnitial speed of the particle is 2 m/s short when its elevation is 30o but overshoot the
mark by 9 m when its elevation is 45o. The angle
(2) lnitial rate of speeding up of the particle is zero
of elevation of projectile to hit the target on the
(3) Maximum value of radius of curvature of the horizontal plane
1
path of the particle is
5m (1) .i"-,llflE * 2ll
(4) Path followed by the particle is parabolic lst z ))
7 Particle X and particle y are initially positioned at
(-a, 0) and (0, -D) respectively. At t = 0, the
(2) cos-,lrfqE - rll
particles x and y start moving with ui and v'1
L5l zll
respectively. Maximum angular speed of the line
joining the particles is

*u:. v2 +u2
1s1
]cos-'1[;[+.,)]
(1r (2\
"
VA+ UD lr" ,kl

,r, v2 +u2
\''
v2 +u2
r+1
lsn-,1;[*.,J]
" vb+ua lvD - ual
11. Two skaight lines /1 and i2 cross each other at point
8 A particle moves along the positive branch of the P. The line /1 is moving at a speed vr perpendicular
12
to itself and line 12 is moving with speed v2 in a
y2 = 2x where
curve '2 x =:. What is the similar way. The speed of point of intersection P, is

acceleration of the particle al t = 2 s?

(1) i (2) j (I
v2

(3) (, -i) 14) 2i l2

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 (Level-lll)

r-:________:-
Motion in a Plane 3 I
(1) Jvi +v; +2v12@so.
----_...---
stnc (1)
E
1; (2)
6
tlz,
vl + vl tZv.,vrcrrsa
(2) 1
@s(r Ei I
vl ,vl + 2vrvrcosa
(3)
1; (4) (2)i
a )'
(3)
y2 stn0 15. A rectangular box is slidding on a smooth inclined
plane of inclination s as shown in figure. At , = 0,
vz vl -vl + 2v.,v rcnso.
(4) the box starts to move on the inclined plane. A
v1stn0 bolt starts to fall from point A. Find the time after
12. Starting tom rest, a body moves along a circular which bolt strikes the bottom surface of the box

path wih constant angular accelerati:n a = raOsr.

| A
Afrer homuch time, he angle between i and i of
the body becomes 45'?

.. .l-ti s
(1) /B
(2) ./: s
Y[ Y,T

(3) as (4) 8s (1)

'13. A block I
is floating in the river, at time t = 0, the
g coso
position of the block is as shown in figure. River is
flowing with speed 2 rTVs. A stone is thrown with a
velocity v = (v,i + v, i +ZOil nts such that the (2)
I Srn0
stone hits the block. The value of v, is
v
2l
(3)
--) 2 rds gcos0
m

2t
x (4) ------
(1) 10 rn/s (21 2nls gsrn0
(3) a n/s (a) 20 rn/s '16. A small bead slides from rest along a wire that is
14. ln the given figure, a smooth parabolic wire track shaped like a vertical uniform helix (spring). Which
lies in the vertical plane (x-y plane). The shape of graph below shows the magnitude of the
acceleration a as a function of time?
x2
kack is defined by the equation y = (where
a

a is constant). A ring of mass m which can slide .9

freely on the wire track, is placed at the position
I 4 (a, a). The track is rotated with constanl angular E -9

l speed o such that there is no relative slipping I) (z) 8

between the ring and the track then o is equal to
a time t o time I
v
X,
Y =-T
?
f,
z
A m ,9
!
l -g -g
i (3 4

o (0,0) o tirne t o tirne I

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9
 4 Motion in a Plane (Level-lll)

17. A small point-like obiect is thrown horizontally ftom 22. A bead is free to slide down on a smooth straight
a 50 m high building with an initial speed of wire AB on a vertical circle of radius 10 m
10 m/s. At any point along the traiectory there is (see figure). The time taken by bead to reach
an acceleration component tangential to the point B if it is released from rest from point A, is
tra.iectory and an acceleration component (g = 10 m/s'?)
perpendicular to the trajectory. How many seconds A
after the oblect is thrown is the tangential
component of the acceleration of the obiect equal
to twice the perpendicular component of the
acceleration of the object? lgnore air resistance. (g
= 10 m/s2)
(1) 2 s (2) 1.5 s
(3) 1 s (4) 0.5 s (t) (2) 2s
J3 s
18. An airplane ffies a straight path from town A to town
B, 500 km away. Town B is due east of town cli
A and a strong wind blows from north to south at (3) Ys 141 !)ig
4 2
300 km/hr. lf the plane's airspeed is 900 km/hr,
which of the following statements is true? 23. A uniform rod of mass M and length L slides down
as shown in figure. Friction is absent everywhere.
5 The angular velocity of rod at the given instant is
(1) Trip time is hr
3{6
(2) Plane's ground speed is 600 km/hr
(3) Plane's heading is 30" North of East
(4) None of the these
'19. Two particles are moving along x and Y axes
towards the origin with constant speed u and v
respectively. At time f = 0, their respective distance (1) r
sine-
from the origin are x and y. The time insbnt at which
the particles will be closest to each other is v
(2)
Lcose
(,,\E (2)
vx+uy
lJ2 + v2 (3)
v sin0
L

(3)
ux+vy
(4)
2$ +v'
(4)vms0
u2 +v2 u+v L
20. A projectile is projected at angle 0 with the 24 A car is driven on a flat surface in a circle so that
horizontal. R is its range and H is its maximum its wheel A is moving on a circular path of radius
height attained. lf maximum range for the same 50. Find the ratio ofthe angular speed ofthe wheel
R2 I to that of the wheel 8. (Assume that wheels roll
speed of projection is --::- +2H , then value of without slipping)
nis
02 (2\4 B
(3) 8 (4) 5
b
21. A vector d is inclined at 120" to the vector ,4 of
magnitude 6.,6. The minimum possible magnitude

of li+ ti will be
() 12 (2) 15 (1) 1:1 (2)4 5

(3) e (4) 6 (3) 6:5 (4) 3:5

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(Level-lll)
Motion in a Plane 5
25. An obiect moves on a circular path such that its 30. A particle moves along the plane hajectory y(x) with
distance covered is given as s = (F + t) m, where constant speed y. The acceleration of the particle
t is in seconds. The acceleration of object at t = at the point x = 0 if the tralectory has the form of
2 s is 4 n s2. The radius of the circle is
an ellipse (x/a)2 + Mb)2 = 1; a and b are constants
25 here, is
(1) 5J5 m (2)
iTs ^ .. av2 av2
(1) e)
(3) 8 m 1t1 tJi m d b3

26. A boat moves relative to water with a velocjty which

(3)bv2" ,,2
(4\
is p = f times less than the river flow velocity. At a' -a
what angle to the stream direction must the boat
SECTION - B
move to minimize drifting?
Previous Years Questions
(1) 60" (2) 1m"
1 A boat crossing a river moves with a velocity y
(3) 45" (4) 135" relative to still water The river is flowing with a
27. Poinl A moves uniformly with velocity v so that the velocity vl2 with respect to the bank. The angle
vector y is continually "aimed' at point which inI with respect to the flow direction with which the
its turn moves rectilinearly and uniformly with boat should move to minimize the drift is
velocity u < y. At the initial moment of time y 1 u
and the points are separated by a distance t. How IKVPY SA 2012I
soon will the points converge? (1) 30" (2) 6e

vl I (3) 15tr (q 2e
(1) (21
v, _u, 17 -7 2 A person walks 25.00 north of east for 3.18 km_
How far would she have to walk due north and

(3) -- Jit (4) L then due east to arrive at the same location?

IKVPY SA 20161
28. A cannon fires successively two shells with velocity (1) Towards north 2.88 km and towards east
vo = 250 m/s; the first at the angle 0r = 60' and 1 .34 km
the second at the angle 0z = 45'to the horizontal,
(2) Towards north 2.11 km and towards east
the azimuth being the same. Neglecting the air 2.11 km
drag, the time interval between firings leading to the
collision of the shells. is
(3) Towards north 1.25 km and lowards east
1.93 km
(1) 18 s (2) 11 s
(4) Towards north 1.34 km and towards east
(3) 6s (4) 1s s 2.88 km
29. A point moves with deceleration along the circle of A car goes around uniform circular kack of radius
radius R so that at any moment of time its tangential R at a uniform speed y once in every f seconds.
and normal accelerations are equal in magnitude. The magnitude of the centripetal acceleration is a,.
At the initial moment t = 0 the velocity of the point lf the clr now goes uniformly around a large"r
equals v0. The velocity of the point as a function of circular track of radius 2R and experiences a
time is centripetal acceleration of magnitude 8a., then its
time period is
(1) vo 1+2vot
R IKVPY SA 2016I

(2\ vo
..vot 0) 2T
D
(2) J'

(3) &R (3)

T
,
(4) ,6[ t*4 .,?
R (4)
,'
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 Levellll)
6 Motion in a Plane

4. Two cars S, and S, are moving in coplanar 7. A particle at a distance of 1 m, ftom the origin
concentric circular lracks in lhe opposite sense starts moving such that dld 0 = r, where (l 0)
with the periods of revolution 3 min and 24 min, are polar coordinates. Then the angle between
respectively. At time t = 0, the cars are farthest resultant velocity and tangential velocity
apart. Then, the two cars will be component is
IKVPY SA 2014 IKVPY SB,SX 20161
(1) Closest to each other at f = 12 min and (l) 30 degrees
farthest at I = 18 min. (2) 45 degrees
(2) Closest to each other at f = 3 min and
(3) 60 degrees
farthest at t = 24 min
t = 6 min and (4) Dependent on where the particle is
(3) Closest to each other at
farthest at t = 12 min 8 A particle moves in a plane wilh a constant speed
(4) Closest to each other at t = 12 min and along a path y = 2x2 + 3x - 4. When the particle
farthest at t = 24 min is at (0, -4) the direc{ion along which it is moving
is inclined to the X axis at an angle
5. Two parallel discs are connected by a rigid rod of
length L = 0.5 m centrally. Each disc has a slit tNsEP 201q
oppositely placed as shown in the figure. A beam 0) 63" (2\ 72
of neutral atoms are incident on one of the disc
(31 27" (4) tr
axially at difierent velocities v, while the system
is rotated at angular speed of 600 rev/second so I Two particles A and B are moving in XY plane.
that atoms only with a specific velocity emerge Particle A moves along a line with equation y = x
at the other end. Calculate the two largest speeds while B moves along X axis such that their X
(in meter/second) of the atoms that will emerge coordinates are always equal. lf I moves with a
at the other end. uniform speed 3 m/s, the speed of A is
IKVPY SA 2014 INSEP 201q

(1) 3 nvs (2\ lmls

0r-{- (3) g.,E mls (4)

J
o m/s

(11 75,25 (2) 100,50

10. A body released from a height H hits elastically
(3) 300, 100 (4) 600,200 an inclined plane at a point P. Afrer the impact
6 A particle moves in a plane along an elliptic path the body starts moving horizontally and hits the
ground. The height at which point P should be
siven by At point (0, b), the situated so as to have the total time of travel
5.#=,.
velocity is u. The y-component of maximum is
x-component of
acceleration at this Point is INSEP 20161
IKVPY SB'SX 20111 (1) H (2) 2H
(1) -bdtd (2) -Gtb
H H
4la (3) (4)
(3'1 -afltr (41 4 2

o D D

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 \

-
Chopter 5

Lows of Motion

SECTION - A 50N
Objective Type Questions
A 20.0 kg box is originally at rest on a horizontal
surface where [s and pk represent the coeffrcient of
static and krnetic friction (p, = 0.90 U"). An external 4kg 2 kg
horizontal force F is then applied to the box. Which
of the following is a graph of the acceleration of the ('l) 6 msr (2) 5 ms-'?
box versus the external force F?
(3) 2.5 msr (4) 3 ms-'?

4 ln the given arrangement, the block mj is released

(! from rest from the position where string AEC is
1
o
(2) t horizontal. Pulleys and string are ideal. The angle
t IBC when speed of blocks rn1 and mz becomes

-,F --+ F n2
equal is m1
?
I I
a a A
(3) (4)
t t
-+F +F m2
B
2 lf in the given figure acceleration of mass M is
m1
ao = 2 ms-2 then acceleralion of mass m would be

r----
a. (1) 60" (2\ 120"

m2
)
m1
(3) cos-1
2mz
,0, -t'1 2fit.,
M
5 A car is moving on a circular track of radius R with
m
dv
2 speed increasing at constant rate = o. lf
(1) 6ms2 (2) 2 df
ams coefficient of friction is [, then the speed at which
(3) 2 ms-2 1+1 zrli o ms' the car will skid is

3 Two blocks of mass 4 kg and 2 kg are mnnected by

Itl ,/rrgr (2) ((pg)' + a)'z]r
a string as shown. When a force of 50 N is applied
on massless pulley in upward direction, acceleration
(3) (4)
of2 kg mass would be lfake g = l0 m/s2l [(r,'c'-"')r']i l(sfg'+a'z]ir'z!
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8 Laws of Motion (Level-lll)

6 A monkey of mass 20 kg is balanced by a weight
of equal mass as shown in figure. He starts to climb
the rope with acceleration 2 m/s2 with respect to
rope. The time after which he reaches the pulley is
4m
I The following figure illustrate a pulley system with
masses m1 and mr, and is supported by a block
(mass M) on a horizontal ground. All friction and
inertia of the pulley are negligible, and the rope in
the pulley system is massless. Find the horizontal
force on block M such that there is no relative
motion between m1, m2 and M.
m1
M m2

20 kg m1(M+m.t+m2)g
(1)
m2

(1) 2s Ql zJis (2)

m2(M + m1+ m2lg
m1
(3) lnfinity $ 4\D s
7 A chain of mass M and length I is suspended with
m1(M-ry+m)g
(3)
both ends attached to ceiling. Then one end is set m2

free and chain starts falling as shown in figure. The

force on the ceiling as the function of x is
m2(M - m1+ m2lg
(4)
m1

10. Consider the following 3 planar circles with identical

mass density per unit area of o. One of the circles
is put between and above the other 2 identical
circles (radius R). The radii of contact points
between the upper circle and the lower circles make
an angle 0 with the horizontal. lgnoring all the
frictions, what is the minimum horizontal force F,
(L+5x)
(11 Ms on each side of the lower circle in order to keep
2
them stationary?

et +t:?
pt w(+) F
-----f
F

(4) _i
Mox

8 A crate of toys remains al rest on a sleigh as the

o:rR2 (1- sino)2
sleigh is pulled up a hill with an increasing speed. (1)
The crate is not lastened down to the sleigh. What 2sin0coso "
force is responsible for the cIate's increase in speed
up the hill? orR2 ('l - coso)2
(21
('l) The force of static friction of the sleigh on the 2 sinOcos0
crate -o
(2) The contact force (normal force)of the ground onR2 (1 - sin o)2
(3) o
on the sleigh ,** tr*
(3) The gravitational force acting on the sleigh -o
(4) The contact force (normal force) of the sleigh orR2 (1- cose)2
(4)
on the crate z*re t ne s
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(LeveLlll
Laws of Motion I
11. A point mass is hanged by 2 massless ropes, 14. A triangular plate of mass m is tied at the three
which make angles o and g lo the vertical. The vertices by threads keeping the plate in equilibrium
ropes are further connected to two masses m1 and & such that the plane of plate is kept horizontal.
m2 through frictionless and massless pulleys. Find ll Tr T2, T3 represent the tensions in the three
the ratio rn1lrn2 such that the point mass hangs in threads and lr
12 and 13 represent the side
equilibrium. lengths as shown, then

T1

l3
T2

T3
l1

u,+=z=+
T, T3
(2)
lzl" =T,
ltlz l/z
sin0
('l ) sin(a + B) Q\-
' stn(I (3) Ir = fz =Tr=
sln0
+
(3) sin(o) , c6s1g1 (4) coso (4) None of these
15. ln the system shown, the mass m = 2 kg oscillates
12. Two blocks of masses 0.2 kg and 0.5 kg, are placed
in a circular arc of amplitude6e, the minimum value
d distance apart on a rough horizontal surface
(tr = 0.5) anO are acted upon by two forces of
of meffcient of friction between mass = I kg and
surface of table to avoid slipping is
magnitude 3 N each as shown in figure at time t= 0.
They collide each other at I = 2 s. The value of d is

0.2 kg 0.5 k9 F
p=0.5
I
3N 3N
60"
r__ d -___________{

(1) sm (2) 22 n
(3) 17 m (4\ 12m
13. Three blocks A, B and C of masses 2 kg, 3 kg and 2kg
4 kg are placed as shown. Coefficient of friction
between A and I is 0.5 and that between Sand C is (1) 0.25 (2) 0.50
0.1. The surface is frictionless. The maximum force
F that can be applied horizontally onto A such that (3) 0.40 (4) None of these
the three blocks move together is 16. A flexible chain of mass rn hangs between two
fixed points A and B at the same level.
F -----> The inclination of the chain with the hoizontal at
A Po. = 0.5
the two points of support is 0. The tension at the
B Pgc=01 mid point of the chain is
c lrc=0 A B
Frictionless

(1) 1?.22 N P
(2) 13 N ,,,
(
mg
Q)ffi
',| Gne
(3) 11.25 N

(4) None of these

(3) ZerD r+l ,c({-@
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't0 Laws of Motion (Level-lll)

'17. A chain of mass per unit length l, and length 20. ln the figure shown, the system of the wedge and
1.5 m rests on a fixed smooth sphere of radius block is sliding down the smooth inclined surface.
.) The block just do not slide with respect to wedge
n= i , such that A end of chain is at the top of mass M2. lf the mass of block is M1, the
of sphere while the other end is hanging freely. frictional force acting on block is equal to
Chain is held stationary by a horizontal thread PA.
The tension in the thread is rough
smooth
A M,

0=45'

(1) Zem
II B (21 M$

('t )'sl:.?) et ^n(I-1) Q\ry

3M,o
(3) isl;] (4) None or these
(4t
i
18 ln the anangement shown, frictional force acting 21. A cylinder and a wedge each of mass m are
bet\ueen the blocks is (S'tring and pulley are ideal) touching each other. Both are free to move on
smooth inclined surfaces of two fixed inclined
planes. The normal reaction exerted by wedge on
0r) F cylinder will be

Srnooth
Fixed Fixed
(1) Zso (21 pnlg

(0ry (4);
r1mo
11) 2tng tanrr (2) ,,r,9 tan,
(3) 2rnEt cos0 (4) mg coso
19. ln the anangement shown, neglect the mass of the
22. ln the arrangement shown, the motor at'A'is
ropes and pulley. What must be the value of m to
keep the system in equilibrium? There is no friction
drawing $e string with speed v The velocity of M is
anMere

II
I
m
(r) o
(2t
\
(1) M (21 2M

M M (3) (4\
(3) (41 s 1
2 4
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(Level-lll) Laws of Molion 11

23. A force F is applied to the initially stationary cart. 26. A particle of mass m is connected to another very
The variation of force with time is shown in the heavy particle by means of a light inextensible
figure. The speed of cart at f = 5 s is string that passes over a smooth pulley. The
reading of the spring balance is
't0 kg F
smooth

F(N) t5

Parabolic
(Symmetric
5a y-axis)
t(s)
(1) 4ms e) 2nA
(l) 10 n/s (3) >> rng (41 Zfi'o
(2) 8.33 m/s 27. Following Rgure shows a cubical block with a slot
(3) 2 n/s in it. There is a small block held in the slot
against a spring. The value of acceleration of the
(41 Zso
cubical block for which there is no extension/
24. A cubical block of mass rn slides down an indined compression in the spring is
right angled trough as shown in figure. lf the
coefficient of kinetic friction between block and
trough is p,( then acceleration of the block is + a
s

(1) s
(2) g cot e
0 (3) g tan 0
(1) g(sin0 - pk cose)
(') ,
(2) g(sin0 -rf p* coso) "".
28. A wedge is pushed to move on a horizontal floor
(3) g(sin0-2pkcos0) by the help of a rod which is restricted to move in
(4) g(cose a slot as shown. lf the acceleration of the rod is a,
- 1rk sine)
the acceleration of the wedge is
25. A uniform rope of mass m and length L is pulled
by applying force at one of the ends, along a
frictionless inclined plane of inclination 0 with
horizontal such that it moves with acceleration a.
a
The tension in the rope at a distance x from the
free end is

(r)
fssine
(2) sin 0 + a)
?(9 ('l) a sin 0
(2) a cosec 0
(3) mgsin.i'rr(,-i) (3) a tan 0
l4l Zso (4) a cot 0

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12 Laws of Motion (Level-lll)

29. A small ball of mass rn is suspended from a string

that passes over a smooth pulley. A rod of mass
? and lenoth / is susoended from the other end
2'
of the string. The system is released from rest
fiom the position shown. The time taken by the ball
to cross the rod is
SECTION .B
Previous Yea6 Questions
1 A block of mass M rests on a rough horizontal
table. A steadily increasing horizontal force is
applied such that the block starts to slide on the
table without toppling. The force is continued even
after sliding has started. Assume the coefficients
of static end kinetic friction between the table and
block to be equal. The conect representation of the
variation of the frictional force f exerted by the
table on the block with time I is given by

IKVPY SA 2010I
m

nn2
tr trt
(1) (2)

(1)
ia e) i, (0,0)
t
(0,0)
t

l-
lbo @
(3)
]i t
(o)
i,
30. Four identical balls of mass m each arc placed as (3) (4)
shown. The three balls that lie on the ground t
are prevented from moving by applying horizontal
(0,0) (0,0)

forces (not shown). The reaction force between the 2. A soldier with a machine gun, falling from an
fourth ball (placed above) and any of the other airplane gets detached from his parachute. He is
three ball is able to resist the downward acceleration if he
shoots 40 bullets a second at the speed of
500 m/s. lf the weight of a bullet is 49 g, what is
the weight of the man with the gun? lgnore
resistance due to air and assume the acceleration
due to gravity g = 9.8 msr [KVPY SA 20101
(1) 50 kg (2) 75 ks
(3) 100 ks (4) 125 ks

(1)
ng (2)
2mg
3. A small child tries to move a large rubber toy
i6 3 placed on the ground. The toy does not move but
gets deformed under pushing force ( F ) which is
mg obliquely upward as shown. Then
(3) (41 ms
t-

31. On a rough circular track, the coefflcient of friction

varies with radial distance rfrom the centre of track Push F

I .\
Il -
as U = po . Here. [0 and R are constants. At
h,J
what distance from the centre, the safe speed for a
vehicle is maximum? IKVPY SA 20111
('l) The resultant of the pushing force (F ). weight
R
(1) R (21 of the toy, normal force by the ground on the
2 toy and rhe frictional force is zero
R R (2) The normal force by the ground is equal and
(3)
T t4) i opposite to the weight of the toy

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(Level-lll Laws of Motion 13
(3) The pushing force ( F ) of the child is batanced 7 A small box resting on one edge of the table is
by the equal and opposite ftictional force struck in such a way thal it slides off the other
edge, 1 m away, after 2 seconds. The coefficient
(4) The pushing force (F )of the chitd is balanced
of kinetic friction between the box and the iable
by the total intemal force in the toy generated
due to deformation IKVPY SB/SX 20151
4 A girl holds a book of mass m against a vertical (1) Must be less than 0.05
wall with a horizontal force F using her finger so
(2) Must be exactly zero
that the book does not move. The frictional force
on the book by the wall is (3) Must be more than 0.05
IKVPY SA 20121 (4) Must be exactly 0.05
(1) F and along the finger but pointing towards
8 A rope of mass 5 kg is hanging between two
the gid
supports as shown. The tension at the lowest
(2) prF upwards where p is the coefficient of static point of the rope is close to (take g = 10 m/sr)
friction
[KVPY SB/SX 201il
(3) m9 and upwards
(4) Equal and opposile to the resultant of F and
nls
5 A box, when hung from a spring balance shows a
reading of 50 k9. lf the same box is hung from the
same spring balance inside an evacuated
chambet the reading on the scale will be

IKVPY SA 20141
(1) 50 kg because the mass of the box remains
unchanged. ('t) 22N
(2) 50 kg because the effect of the absence of (2) 44 N
the atmosphere will be identical on the box
and the spring balance. (3) 28 N

(3) Less than 50 kg because the weight of the (4) 14 N

column of air on the box will be absent. 9.
(4) More than 50 kg because the almosphere
buoyancy force will be absent.
6 Consider the system shown below
A uniform rope of total length / is at rest on a table
with fraction f of its length hanging (see figure). lf
the coefficient of friciion belween he table and the
rope is g then [tgPY SBrSX 2014

A horizontal force F is applied to a block X of

mass I kg such that the block Y of mass 2 kg
adiacent lo it does not slip downwards under
gravity. There is no friction between the horizontal
(1) f=$
plane and the base of the block X The coeffcient (21 f =1t(1 + tt)
of friction between the surfaces of blocks X and y
is 0.5. Take acceleration due to gravity to be 10
ms 2. The minimum value of F is (3) t =-L-
IKVPY SB/SX 20141 [,.;)
0) N200 (2) 160 N
(3) 40 N (4) 240 N
(4) f= (F + 1/p)

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 (Level- Ir)
14 Laws of Motion

10. Two identical bodies M2 and M. each of 4.0 kg are
tied to a massless inextensible string which is made
to pass around pulleys P1 and P2 as shown in
figure. Angle ABC = 37". The coefficient of kinetic
ficton between the bodies and the surface on which
they slide is 0.25. lf the body M1 moves down with
uniform speed, neglecting the masses and friction
14. A pulley of negligible mass is suspended from a
spring balance. Blocks weighing 5.0 kg and 3.0 kg
are attached to the two ends of a string passing over
the pulley. The reading on the spring balance will
be INSEP 2016]
0) 8.0 kg (2) 7.5 ks

of pulleys, M1 = INSEP 20141

(3) 2.0 kg (4) 4.0 ks
D 15. Two identical strings with llxed ends separated by
height h have their other ends tied to a body P of
mass m as shown in figure. When the body rotates
c
P2
with unitorm angular spA Z,{ZgG in a horizontal
M1 M3 plane about the vertical axis the ratio of tensions

AB
I (T1l T2\ in the string is INSEP 20141
A
(1) 36.8 ks (2) 9.8 ks S1

(3) 4.2 ks
-(4) 2.1 ks T,

11. When lwo ends ol a spring are pulled apart

increasing its length it produces force equal to kx h
at its ends. At a point 1/4 of ih length from one end
the forceis [NSEP 20,141
(1) 0.25 kx (2) 0.75 kx
T,
(3) 1.0 kx (4) 0.5 lx JZ
B
12. Two bodies A and B hanging in air are tied to the
(1) 3/5 (2) s/3
ends of a string which passes over a frictionless
pulley. The masses of the string and the pulley are (3) 215 (4\ 52
negligible and the masses of two bodies are 2 kg
16. A curved road with radius of curvature 200 m is
and 3 kg respectively. (Assume g = 10 m/s2). Body
banked wih an angle of banking equal to tani (0.2).
A moves upwards under a force equal to
Now, if the traflic is at double the speed for which
INSEP 20141 the road is designed, the minimum value of the
(1) 30N (21 24N frictional coefficient needed is (g = 10 m/s2)
(3) 10N (4) 4N INSEP 201sI
'13. Masses m1 and mz are connected to a string (1) 0.52 (2) 0.3s
passing over a pulley as shown. Mass m1 starts
from rest and falls through a distance d in time t.
(3) 0.e4 (4) 0.80
NoW by interchanging the masses the time required 17. Two blocks of masses m and 2rn are placed on a
for m2 to fall through the same distance is 2 t. smooth horizontal surface as shown. ln the first
Therefore, the ratio of masses m1 . m2is c€se only a force f1 is applied from left. Later on
only a force f2 is applied from right. lf the force
INSEP 20161
acting at the inlerface of the two blocks in the two
m, cases is the same, then fi : f2 is
[NSEP 2014

f1
f2

m1
(1) 1:1
2 3
(2\ 1 :2
(1) ; (2\
, (3) 2:1
5 4
(3) (4) (4) 1:3
, a
trtrtr
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 !

CHEMISTRY

,
 T)

Chopter 3

Clossificotion of Elements ond

Periodicity in Properties
(1) Reddish-brown volatile liquid
SECTION -A
(2) A pale yellow green gas
Objective Type Questions
Which of the following statements is not conect? (3) A colourless crystal
(1) The first ionizalion energy generally decreases (4) A grey-silvery metal
from top to bottom within a group
5 Which gas-phase atom has the largest radius?
(2) The atomic radius generally increases from top
(1) Na
to bottom wilhin a group
(3) The first ionization energy generally decreases (21 K
from left to right across a period (3) Ms
(4) The second ionization energy of an atom is (4) ca
always greater than the first ionization energy
6 ln which list are atoms of the elements Be, B, Mg
2 What is the general trend observed for the lirst
and Al ananged from smallest to largest atomic
ionization energies of the elements in groups
radius?
13 lo 17?
(1) lonization energres tend to increase from left to (1) Be<B<Mg<Al
right in a period and are approximately constant (2) Mg < Be <Al < B
in a group
(3) B<Be<Al .Mg
(2) lonization energies tend to increase from bn to
right in a period and decrease from top to (4) Al <Mg<B<Be
bottom in a grolrp 7 What property of the oxygen atom is represented
(3) lonization energies tend to decrease from left by the equation : O(9) + e- -----+ O1g)?
to right in a period and increase from top to (1) Electronegativity
bottom in a group
(2) First electron affinity
(4) lonization energies tend to decrease from left
to right in a per od and decrease from top to (3) First ionization energy
bottom in a grolrp (4) Lattice energy
3 Which of the following pairs of substances are
allokopes?
I Which of the following iso€lectronic species has
the largest radius?
(1) CH,CHTOH and CH3OCH3
(2) Fe(NO3)2 and Fe(NO3)3
(1) K. (21 caz'

(3) NaCl and KCI (3) P3- (4) s'z-

(4) 02 and 03 I Which group best illustrates the transition from
non-metallic to metallic behaviour with increasing
4 Element 114 would be placed directly below lead.
atomic numb€r?
At the present time, nuclear scientists have
managed to synthesize only a few aloms of element (1) Be, Mg, Ca, Sr
114 al any one time and thus, the physical (2) N, P, As, Sb
appearance of a larger sample is not yet known.
(3) E cl, Br, I
Based on its position in the periodic table, element
'114 is most likely to be a (4) Fe, Ru, Os, Hs
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16 classification of Elements and Periodicity in Prope(ies (Level-lll)

10. properties of the alkaline earth metals that 17. Which element exhibits lhe successive ionization
increase from Be to Ba include which of the energies given in the table?
following?
lonjzation Energy kJ mol-1
l. Atomic radius
1st 738
ll. lonization energy
znd 1451
lll. Nuclear charge 3rd 7733
('l) I and ll only 4th 10540
(2) I and lll only 5th 13628

(3) ll and lll only (1) M

(4) l, ll and lll (2) Ms
11. ln which list are the ions arranged in order of (3) Al
decreasing size? (4) Si
(1) s2-,8., K-, ca2- 18. which element has the highest first ionization
(2) Ba, S2-, K., Ca2- energf
(3) Kt, Ca2', S2-, Br (1) At
(4) ca2', K', s2, Ba (2) si
'12. ln which series are the species listed in order of (3) P
increasingsize? (4) s
(1) N' o' F
19. which of the following is actinoid?
(2) Na, Mg, K (1) cu (z = 29)
(3) cr, crr.,CF. e) ad e= aB)
(4) cl, cl-, Sr- (3) ce (z = ss)
't3. Which atom is least likely to viotate the octet rule (a) Th (Z = 90)
by expanding octet in its compounds?
(1) S (2) P 20' Which of the following is strongest acid?

(3) o (4) Br (1) HzO (2) NH3

'14. Which pair of elements has the most similar (3) CH4 (4) HF

electronegativities? 21. Which of the following ion is not isoelectronic of

(1) Bandc (2) BandAl F1
(3) B and Si (4) Al and C (1) M.

15. Rank the elements Si, q Ge and As in increasing (2) MS'

order of their first ionization energies (3) N3-
(1) Si <P<Ge<As (4) cP-
(2) As < Ge < P < Si 22. Which of the following is correct?
(3) Ge Si As P
< < <
(1) Elements with high value of ionisation energy
(4) Ge < As < Si < P act as strong reducing agent
16. Which oxide produces an acidic solution when (2) Elementswith high valueof electron affinity act
mixed with water?
as strong oxidising agents
0) Al2O3 (3) Etements with high vatue of ionisation energy
(2) CaO form basic oxides
(3) CO (4) Elementswith high value of electron aftnity form
(4) SO, basic oxides

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 (Level-lll) Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties 17

23. Consirer f€ ebctronic corfigurath of tle fidlorirE 31 . Whi$ of the follo,ving b an amphobric oxk e?
elements:
(1) B2o3 (2) lqo,
A: lf 2* 2f 3sl
(3) Ttzoo (4 AzOs
B:1*2d2d3*3ps
c:1*2*2f3*3i
D :1* 2* 2f Pr€vlor6 Yeal1s que8 ons
The element having maximum difierence between 1. The atomic radii of the elements across th€
the first and second ionisation energy is second period of the periodic table
(1) A (2) c [(vPY SA 20101
(3) B (4) D (1) Decreaso due to incroase in atomic number
24. Modem periodic law states that the properties of (2) Decreaso drre to increaso in efiec{ive nudear
elemenls are periodic functions of their dla gts
(1) Atomic number (3) Doq€aso due b inctease in abmic wsights
(2) Atomic mass (4) lncr€aso due to increase in the effective
(3) Atomic radius nudear cfiargE
(4) Reactivity of elements 2. The number of vden@ elec{rons in an atom with
25. The element having maximum negative eleclron electonic configuratim 1 s'? 2* &6 3d 3p3 is
gain enthalpy is 0orPY sA 20131
(1) F (2) Br (11 2 (2) 3
(3) | (4) o (3) 5 (4) 11

26. F- is isoelectronic to E*, where E is an element. 3. Ttle radii of the first Bohr orbit of H(r), He' (r*.)
The atomic number of the element E is and Lf(ru&) are in he order I(VPY SA 20131
(11 12 (2) 16
(1) rtr.l = fLh2 (2) qi < rHe+ < rLi2+
fH =
(3) 10 (4) 11

27. Whid of the folloring property first increases and (3) rH > rH"* > rLE* (4) rHe+ <rH <ru2+
then decreases on moving from left to right in the
Modem Periodic table?
4. Among the following, the sot of isoelectsonic ions
is
(1) lonisation eneEy
r(vPY SB6X ml3l
(2) Valency
(1) Na., Mgl., F-, cr
(3) Efieclive nudear dtarge
(4) Metallic character
(2) Na', cd., F-, o
(3) Na'' tlgz'' P-' 92-
28. The element which is most nonmetallic in group
13 is (4) Na', K', $-, cl-
(1) Ga (2) h 5. The isoelectonic pair is ll$PY SA m14l
(3) 1r (4) B (1) co, N, e) q, No

29. Which of the given elements will have the largest (3) q, HF (4) F,, HCI
E atomic radii? 6. The first ionization enthalpies for three elemenb
(1) Be (2) N are 1314, 1680, and 2080 kJ mofi resp€dively.
(3) o (4) r\b
The cored sequence of elements is

30. Find the inconect match.

[(vPY SA 20141
6 (1) O, F and Ne
(1) ArO, - Amphoteric oxide
i (2) SO3 - Acidic oxide (2) F, O and Ne
(3) No - Neutral oxide (3) Ne, F and O
(4) NrO - Acidic oxide (4) F, Ne and O

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o
,
18 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties (Level-lll)

7. Mendeleev's periodic law states that the properties 14. The atomic radii of Li, F, Na and Si follow he order
of elements are periodic function of their
IKVPY SA 2014
IKVPY SA 201sI (1) Si >Li >Na>F (2) Li >F>Si >Na
(1) Reactivity of elements
(3) Na>Si >F>Li (4) Na>Li >Si >F
(2) Atomic size
15. The frst ionisation potential of Na, Mg, Al and Si
(3) Atomic mass are in the order INSEC 20131
(4) Electronic configuration ('l) Na<Mg>Al <Si (2) Na>Mg>Al>Si
8. O'?- is isoelectronic with [KVPY SB/SX 20151 (3) Na<Mg<Al >Si (4) Na>Mg>Al<Si
(1\ znz. (2) Ms" 16. The trst four ionizatnn energy values of a rnetal are
(3) K. (4) NP-
'191, 587, 872
and 5962 kcal/mol respectively. The
numb€r of valence electrons in the element is
9. The eleclronic configuration of an elemenl with the
largest difference b€tween the 1d and 2d ionization lNsEc 20131
energies is [KVPY SBrSX 20151 0) 1 (21 2
(11 1*2*2f (2) 1$2*2f3sl (3) 3 (4) 5
(3) 1d2d21 3s (4\ 1e2ezp1 17. The outermost electonic configuration of the most
10. Among the elements Li, N, C and Be, one with electronegative element is INSEC 20131
the largest atomic radius is [KVPY SA 20161 (1) nd, np3 (21 n*, nf (n-1\ 6
(1) Li (2) N (3) nd, np5 (4) nd, np6
(3) c (4) Be '18. Of the following, the ion with the largest size is
11. The first ionisation energy of Na, B, N and O
INSEC 201q
atoms follows the order [KVPY SA 2014
(1) B<Na<O<N (2) NacB<O<N
(1) cP- (2) r\la-
(3) F- (4) AF'
(3) Na<O<B<N (4) O<Na<N<B
'19. From the following the species that are isoelectronic
12. Among P2O5, As2O3, SbrO3 and BirO3, the most
acidic oxide is IKVPY SA 2014
are INSEC 201q

(1) P,q (2) As,O3 0) NHs, (lD fr0.

(lll) NHt (V) NH4'
(3) Sb,q (4) Bi,O3

13. The metal ion with total number of electrons same

(1) (r),0r), (r)
is
as 52- IKVPY SA 2014 (2) (r), (ilt), (tv)
(1) Na' (21 Caz- (3) O, (il), (tv)
(3) MS'. (4) Sr,- (4) (r),0lr), (rv)

tr Dtr

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 I
il

ChoPter 4

Bonding ond
Ch emicol
Mole culor St ructure >l>lv
(1) tll > ll
-A lll>ll=l>lV
SECTION @)

Obiective TYPe
Ouestions
o) >l>ll>lv
lll
(chetation) > ll
n'orogen uonding (4) lv > lll > I
1 t"u"."i"l'n' .-^-t. but in contrast
increases
(1) Boiling Foint and
entropy
.. ';5-9)-;f .i:il;i'fJ:i:H'"
and viscoslty electron distibution
tA ncidic strengtn tf l U*Vrnrn"Oiof
tenslon
fa) Sot,UititY "nO "urface (2) LoW bond energy rn
of electrons
1i ,"*u' o'"o""::i:::::'^ * r. rhe dipore ; ;;*""" of greater number

2 bonding orbitals
*",':H:,TIil'""1':1H1"".'"
{4\ Absence ot bond
Polarity
(1) 0.0 D o{ boron triharide
t"-'' acid streneth
6 :l;";;";
e) 036D is in the order
(3) 0.62 D > BF3
(1) BBr3 > Bcl3
(4\ 0.92 D dipole BBr3
hav(r non-zero (2) BCl3 > BF3>
ot the following
,. *nttn
e) BF3 > Bcl3
> BBr3
momeN
' ,.' oq > BBr. > BCl3
(1) c6clo bonds with

czOu 1
P) d**"*'*u**fr;T.[:ll'"
p) cGoJo
dipole (1) P, As
order ol
is correct (2) N' As
the rollowins
4 $.:::
moment? H, Q) N,P
(4) N
) molecule
I g. ln Paflemhedral
to {our P
P is ioined
1. CI (1) E ach P
to three
P is ioined
(2) Each
to two P
P is ioined
(3) Each
eilst
t
(4) does not
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 20 Chemical Bond ing and Molecular Structure
(LeYe\\
s The coJIect, $der 0i hybr\d\sa\on
ol centa\ a\qI\\n
the to\owrng speires,
rs respecti\e\y NH., \RC\ 12.-' PC\,
* and BC\, t\
(1) dsf, dsp3, sd 16. The dipote moment
and sp. of is 1.5 D. The dipo,e
(2) asf, sp3d and sl
sp3,
UI
(3) dsf , sf sp3
, and dsp3 moment of ct
(4) dsp?, spt, sd ts:
and dsD3
10. CI
Molecular shapes
of SF,, CF, : (1) oD CI

e) rco
D
(3) 2'86
1',i:m:l;;#',ifll,fi;3[,",,. 17
@) 2.2s D

'' l,::,ffJ;"[:1,1"i,, ,,r 1 ,one pairs

or
;*1'il$:,'3:Tg^.;ilf y*. and se,ect

o, o' I and 2 bne pairs F

,.:'Jffil;;' orere*ons F

,
,:,Iffir# 1, 0 and 2lone
pairs of etecbons
.,, .!i." FI
'\l
(i') FJ-,so
F
11. Conect regarding
edges and fa
cesin lF7 resPectively and c are 's
(1) ,5, 10 .- - r,
12) 10' 10 ,ll'::: :
oonoFrength)
(3) t. ts

'' ;i;"":,il",; 1i:, Lg.f,l

:ll*J*,:.,, 1,il1"1
,,
'" ,l1l,r r "'o
,fli'r",1#;ffff:nest
;i ;,::j
bond anere (X
- s - x) in
(1) 7s.s% (1) OSBr2

,. fl";*:.",,,". ,rf]".iii:

(1) No- > No >

,. _" No_ ro,,ow the s l,*;
No-
''
?9.

;?,x.,::;l 'Hi:;:',i",',3,4TJ,1;1" (x = cenfta,

(a PoF3 < cFo

. g6^p-
"
,+ordecreasinsN-o
,f#":;i#l;, No,
(1) /vot .;;, rTi .re.".?
> Noj >
20. tr
*"'0"
lu
*, ' ,o., ,o"r' ul,*l ^''tt'"
nesrtu" charse
is on
fr) ,oj , roi
, ,o, @ N

,' J,i".lh,J:,:^i* ,fl)

eorrcanorv

"
,j-#,,,,;|*-li"* "" i''#t'^*,1i,:*h **,."
;'fffi.tlixf#:,,,:J#
I- RW. once
: A,,ka,,t
r*J;
ii *!=,i;**,
nd
..--,
# Rqid,,,,yr*D$f.r,0OOS
Fh. 0rr{76&{68
Chopter 4

Chemicol Bonding ond

Moleculor Structure
F+rrc Objective Type Qu6tlons
(1) l >lt >t>tv
(2) lll > ll = l> lV
1 lntramolocular hydrogen bonding (chelation) (3) t >t>I>tv
incr€ases
(4) tv> >t>I
(1) &rling point and enropy
5 Both CN- and N2 are isoelectronic but in contrast
(2) Acidic strength and viscosity to CN-, N2 is chemically inert due to
(3) Solutrility and surfaoe tension (l ) Unsymmetrical electron distribution
(4) Vapour pressurs and entopy
(2) Lo bond energy
2 The di@ moment of bh!€ne b 0.36 D. The dipole
mornent of orylene would be (3) Presence of greater number of electrons in
bonding orbitals
(1) 0.0 D
(4) Absence of bond polarity
(2) 0.36 D
(3) 0.62 D 6 The relative Lewis acid strength of boron trihalide
is in the order
(4) 0.s2 D
(1) BBr3 > BCl3 > BF3
3 Which of the following have non-zero dipole
moment? (2) BCl3 > BF3 > BBr3

(1) C6Cr6 (3) BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3

(2) CrCr6
(4) BF3 > BBr. > BCl.
(3) QCOe)r
7 Which element lorm pn-pn multiple bonds rvith
(c) :ccl, itself and with carbon and orygen?
4 Whicfr of the following is conect order of dipole (1) P, As
rnomen?
(2) N, As
(3) N, P
L (4) N

8. ln Pffefahedral) noleole
(1) Each P is joined to four P
H.
(2) Eacfi P is joined to three P
r. (3) Each P is joined to two P
cH, ct (4) P4 does not exist

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20 Chemical Bonding and l\.4olecular Structure (Level-lll)

9. The conect order of hybridisation of central atom in

th€ following species, NH., [PtCl.,f-, PCls and BCl3
isrespectively 16. The dipole moment of is 1.5 D. The dipole
(1) dsl, dsp3, sl and sy' ct
(2) sp3, dsl, sp3d and sd cl i"
moment of
(3) dsd, sf, sp3 and dsp3
CI CI
(\ dsf, sp3, sf and dsp3 0) D o (2) 1.5 D
10. Molecular shapes ofSF4, CFa and XeFa are (3) 2.86D (4) 2.25 O
(1) same with 2, 0 and 1 lone pairs of electrons 17. consider the following
compounds and select
respectively conect order of S - F bond length
(2) The same with 1, 1 and 1 lone pairs of
electrons respectively F F
t>. l"
(3) Different with 0, 1 and 2 lone pairs of electrons
respectively
(4) Different with '1,
(il r/ S=O
I
F
., i>i'F
0 and 2 lone pairs of electrons
respectively (where a, b and c are ,S - F'bond length)
1'1. Conect regarding edges and faces in lF7 respectively (1) a>b=c a>b>c (2)
(1) 15, 10 (2) 10, 10 (3) a>c>b (4) b>c>a
(3) 7' 15 (41 15,7 iB. Which has the sma est bond angte (X - S - x) in
'12. Electronegativity of A and B is 1 and 4 the given molecules?
respectively. The percentage of covalenl charccter (i) OSB;2
of AB is
(2) oscl,
(1) ls.s% (z) Bo/o
(3) osF,
(3) 2o.so/o (4) zio/o
'13. The bond p) OSMe,
energies in No, No. and Nq follow the
order 19. correct order of FiF bond angle (x = central
(1) NOt > NO > NO- atom) in CFa, POF3 and SO2F2 is
(2) NO > NO. > NO- (1) SO2F2 < pOF3 < CF4
(3) NO- > NO > NO* (2) poF3 < cFl < so2F2
(4) NO- > NO > NO (3) CF4 < SO2F2 < POF3
14. Anange the following in order of deqeasing N - O (4) pOF3<SO2F2<CF4
bond length: Noi, Nor, Noj 20. ln the cyanide ion, the negative charge is on
(1) Not > No' > No, (1) C

(2) N
(2) NOt > NO'
NO' >
(3) Both C and N
(3) Noi > No, > No:
(4) Resonate between c and N
(4) NO, > NO3 > NOi 2.1. tn which of the dimerisation process, the
15. Strong reducing behaviour of H3pO2 is dueto achievement of the octet is not the driving force.

(1) Presence of one -OH group in its structures (1) 2AlCl. -----; AlrCIu
(2) Presence of two P - H bonds in its structures (2) BeCl, -----+ BeCl, (solid)

(3) Presence of two -OH groups in its structures (3) 2lCl, ------r lrClu
(4) Presence ofone P-H bond in its structures (4) 2NOr- + NrOo
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(Level-lll) Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 21

22. Anhydrous AlCl3 is covalent. lf he lattice energy for 27. What is the best description of the geomery of the
AlCl. = 5137 kJ mof1, 4"d,,ro,, for Al3* = - 4665 nitogen atoms in dimethylnitrosamine, (CH3)2NNO?
kJ mol-l and \rdla,,o" foi Ct- = - 381 kJ moF1,
Wll it remain covalent or become ionic in aqueous
groups
N bounded to CH3 N bonded to O

solution? (1) Trigonalplanar Linear

(1) lt will remain covalent (2) Trigonal planar Bent
(2) lt will become ionic
(3) Trigonal pyramidal Linear
(3) lt may or may not become ionic
(4) Tripnal pyramidal Bent
(4) Being ionic or covalenl of any molecule is
independent of ionisation energy 28. The following diagram is sometimes used to
illustrate the structure of benzene CuHu.
23. The melting point of AlF3 is 104"C and that of SiFl
is -77' C (it sublimes) because: HH H

(1) There is a very large difference in the ionic \-./

character of the Al - F and Si - F bonds
Fi- c
/\ C_H .r.......} H_C c-H
(2) ln AlFr, Al3' interacts very strongly with the
neighbouring F- ions to give a three
dimensional structure but in SiFl no such
tr(
H H H
/
H

interaction is possible Which of the statements conceming the structure

(3) The silicon ion in the tetrahedral SiFl is not of benzene is false?
shielded effectively from the fluoride ions (1) Th€ double bonds o6cillate rapidly back and forttr
whereas in AlF3, the Al*3 ion is shielded on all
between adjacent pairs of carbon atoms
sides
(2) The H - C - C angles are 120'
(4) The attractive forces between the SiFl
molecules are sbong whereas those between (3) The carbon atoms frorm a flat hexagonal ring
he AlF. molecules are weak (4) Above structures are resonance stuctures
24. ln the series ethane, ethylene and acetylene, the
29. Consider the Lewis structure given below for the
C - H bond energy is
CH3CCH molecule
(1) The same in all the three compounds
H
(2) Greatest in ethane
(3) Greatest in ethylene
H I
I
(4) Greatest in acetylene H

25. A simplified application of MO theory to the What is the maximum number of atoms that can
lie in the same plane?
hypothetical 'molecule' OF would give its bond
order as (1) ltIee (2) Four
11)2 (2) 1.s (3) Fi\e (4) Six
(3) 1.0 (4) 0.s 30. Removing an electon from molecular orygen, O2,to
form the dioxygenyl cation, o2*, causes what
26. The bond order depends on the number of
changes in the bond length and in the number of
electrons in the bonding and antibonding orbitals.
unpaired electrons?
Which of the following statements is/are corect
abotn bond ordef Bond length Number of unpaired
eloc,trons
(1) Bond order cannot have a negative value.
(2) lt always has an integral value.
(l) lncrease lncrease
(2) lncrease Des€ase
(3) lt is a nonzero quantity
(3) Decrease lncrease
(4) lt can assume any value-positive or integral or
fractional, including zero upto four. (4) Decrease Decrease

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22 Chemical Bonding and N,lolecular Structure (Level-lll)

31. Ho\.v many carboGcarbon double bonds ate present 37. Allene has the structure HrC = C = CHz. What is
in linolenic acid, o4,rHr.COOH? the best description of the geometry of allene?
(1) 1 (2) 2 at
Geometry Positions of
(3) 3 (4) 4 carbon
central hydrogen atoms
(1) Linear All in the same plane
32. The formulae and boiling points of three
compounds are given in this table. (2) Linear ln two perpendicular
planes
Formula cH3cHzcH3 cH3ocH3 cH3cHo (3) Bent All in the same plane
BP, K 231 250 294 (4) Bent ln two perpendicular
planes
The trend in boiling points is best attributed to
variations in
38. How many types of distind rc
bond lengths are
present in the oxalate ion, CrOo2-?
(1) Covalent bonding (2) Dipole forces
(3) Oispersion forces (4) Hydrogen bonding
0) 1 (21 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
33. Three monosulfur fluorides are known : SFr, SFo
39. Which property or properties of metals can be
and SF6. Of these, polar species include
accounted for by the electron sea model?
(l) SF2 Only (2) SF4 Only
l. Electricalconductivity
(3) SF, and SFo Only (4) SF2, SF4 and SF6
ll. Malleability
34. Which ionic compound has the largest lattice
('t) I only (2) ll only
energy?
(1) LiF (2) BeO
(3) Both land ll (4) Neiher lnor ll
40. What is the principal energetic factor in the lack of
(3) KBr (4) cas
miscibility between CuH,o(l) and HrO(l)?
35. The boiling points of CH3COCH3, CH3COC2Hs and (1) The strength of intermolecular forces of
CH3COCaHT are 56"C, 80"C, and 102"C, attraction between C6Hr1(l) molecules
respectively. This increase is best attributed to an
(2) The strength of intermolecular forces of
increase in which of the following?
attraction between H2O(l) molecules
l. Dipole{ipoleinteractions.
(3) The difference between the molecular weights
ll. Dispersion forces. of the molecules
lll. Hydrogen bonding. (4) The difference in electronegativity between
carbon and hydrogen
(1) lonly
41. The value of 'x'in (NH1), Fe (SO1),.6HrO is
(2) ll only
(1) 1 (21 2
(3) lll only
(3) 3 (41 4
(4) ll and lll only
42. The correct structure of ClF3 is
36. The lattice energy (energy required to separate the
F
ions in an ionic solid) of MgO is much larger than
that of LiE
c
What mntributes the most to this difference? (1) (2)

(1) Mg2- is a smaller ion than Li'and 02- is a

F
smaller ion than F- F

(2) F is more electronegative than O, and Li is

more electropositive than Mg '\g-
(3) MgO contains doubly charged ions, while LiF (3)
i C|--J-F (4)
F

contains singly charged ions /u-"

(4) MgO contains more electrons than LiF F F

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(Levellll) Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 23
43. S€ledtle coned staEnent r€gadang Xeo2F2anrong 3. Two elements, X and Y have atomic numbers 33
the following. and 17 respectively. The molecular formula of a
stable compound formed between them is
a. Xe is qy'd hybridised.

b. 4bondpaisand t hnetrirar€pr€ssitarcundXo. IKVPY SB/SX 20141

c. Shape ofXeOrF2 is square pyramidal. 0) xr Ql N"

d. Contains f,rdn bonds.
(3) XY. (4) )C/.

(1) a and b 4. The element which readily forms an ionic bond has
the electronic configuration IKVPY SA 2015I
(2) a, b and d
(3) a and d
o 1d2e2f
(4) b, c and d
el 1d2e2p1
zl4. Consiler the given box
pl B2e2t
LiCl, BeF., BCl3, lF,, CH,,
(4) ld2d2l3s1
sF", PCr, 5. The order of electronegativity of carbon in sp, sl
The total number of compounds having expanded and qp3 hybridized states follows
oclet around the central atom is
IKVPY SB/SX 201q
(1) 1 (2) 4
) sP'ql t sP'
('l
(31 2 (4) 3
(2) sp't ql , qp
45. Which of the following atomic orbitals will show
zero overlap? (consider x-axis as the molecular (3) sp > sp3 > sl
axis) (4) sl>qp>sd
(1) p,, p, l2l py, py
6. Among the following atomic orbital overlaps, the
(3) py, p, (4) p,, s non+onding overlap is
z16. ln which of the following pairs of compounds, the
lKr/PY SA 20161
dipole moment of first compound is higher than
that of second one?
(1) NH3
BeF2, (2) BF., BeF,
(3) NH3, NF3 (4) BF3, NF3 (1)

Previous Years Questions

'1. Among NH3, BCl3, Cl, and NI the compound that
(2)
does NOT satisfy the octet rule is

IKVPY SA 20101
(1) NH3 (2) BCl3

(3) Cr, (4) N,

(3)
2. The value of 'x' in KAI(SO.),.12H,O is

IKVPY SB/SX 20111

(1) I
(21 2

(3) 3 (4)

(4) 4
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ffi Chemical Bonding and Molecular Struclure (Level'lll)

7. The bond order in O,'- is [lryPY SB/SX Zl10l 15. The shape of SCl. is best described as a

(1) 2 (21 3 IKVPY SB/SX 20161

(3) 1.5 (4) 1 (1) Square planar (2) Tet-ahedon
8. The shape of the molecule ClF3 is (3) Square pyramid (4) See-saw
IKVPY SB/SX 20101 16. The molecule with the highest dipole moment
(1) planar
Trigonal (2) Pyramidal among the following is [(\rPY SB/SX 20161

(3) T-sha@ (4) Y-shaped () NH, (2) NF3

9. The correct structure of PC|3F2 is (3) Co (4) HF

'17. The compounds containing sp hybridized carbon
IKVPY SB/SX 20101
atom are

I.s"' t CI
H,c.l HO
(r) cr-\cr (2)
F_ P..tt\
F
ct _
CI
I CI (i) I
H
(ii)
O
l..s' c,,^ F (iii) H3C - CN (iv) H,C = C = CHCHr

rsl
cr-[\r (4) IKVPY SB'SX 201q
ct c cl (1) (i) and (ii)
'10. Among the following, the species with the highest (2) (iii) and (iv)
bond order is [KVPY SB,SX 20121
(3) (ii) and (iii)
(1) O, (2\ F,
(4) (i) and (iv)
(3) O,' (41 F,
18 The hybridization of the central atom and the
11. The molecule with non-zero dipole moment is shape of flOrFJ? ion, respectively, are
IKVPY SB'SX 20121 IKVPY SB'SX 20161
(1) BCl3 (2) BeCl, (1) sdd (2\ #d
(3) CCtl (4) NCt3
-l'
't2. The C-O bond length in CO, CO,, and CO.l
follows the order [KVPY SB/SX 2014
o
, f'' F
o

(1) CO < CO2 < CO32

(2) CO > CO2 > CO3'- F F

(3) CO, < CO3r- < CO

(3) sfo| (4) sdd

(4) CO3' < CO' > CO

13. The diamagnetic species is IKVPY SA 20141

F
o l'- o
,1'-
(1) r,lo (2) No,
(3) q (4) co, F F

14. The H-C-H, H-N-H, and HO-H bond angles (in 19. Among the following molecules, the one with the
degrees) in methane, ammonia and water are largest bond angle at the central atom is
respeclively, closest to IKVPY SBrSX mlq [KVPY SA m14
(1) 109.s, 104.5, 107.1 (1) ClF.

(2) 109.5, 107.1, 104.5 (2) POC|3

(3) 104.5, 107.1, 109.5 (3) BCl3

(41 107.1,104.s, 109.5 (4) so3

 and Molecular Structure 25
Chenical
il) moment is
the highest dipote
29 Themotecule having
and RbCl 20151
energies of NaCl' NaF. KCI INSEC
20. The lattice tKvPY sA
20171
tollow the order (2) cH4
< NaF (1) co,
(1) KCI < RbCl < NaCl (4) NF3
< < RbCl (3) NH3
(2) NaF < NaCl KCI r"lit"1"""L"rl?,
has triansula,
< NaCl < NaF 30. The species which
G) RbCl Kcl
<
is
< NaF < KCI (2) No;
(4) NaCl < RbCl
ti,""'r*rt
t'at has ma<imum
covdi'fi#nti (1) NF3
(4) sbH3
zr. (3) BFt
of stabilirv for
th" t"""il!:;Tilt
(2) Na'S The conect
order
nr r,lal'l 31
is
(4) SnCl4

centra'"'?[,8";r'r{, (1) u, < Her* 'oi 'c.-

,, ll"t*"I"" rs in wnich tne
(2) C, ' Or. < Li' He'.
<
hybrid orbitrls C2< o2'
(2) NH: (3) He2t ' Liz<
0) PH. ," aon. C2 < Li2
< He2*
6) O; ' ,n" *'"!,i5E3'JfB
structures'
From the given
x;sl xu"-; "'
""
" [*ti,,*=*1n1;;'r":nl of PF.CI, is/are
cl
oi.
F
(2) oz
('t)
(3) oz'- 1+) oi
configuratlon
(l)
CI\ P- F
cr/ I
., i)\-, cl
ies with 15e-
24 rhe bond orde'1":""f:il' F
;; r*rrt
olaz orlgz 62s2
ot2s' oP
"tt cl
1

(1) 1
(2) ; (-D:>!-F
t t'' ont., u
(1) onlY I (4,) l, 1 and lll
-tff*ruiv*TJ,Hil^s:q:i]:{*1
moteolEs? e) Hrl0ll 33.
'#stl**'t"*"*ls'1 ".* *j[iit*
(1) Nq 6) cu.F
61 NF.andBF'
*i]nll, ..io.**'"ffif.oif ir Ntti
*. ***'.n (2) BFi and
26 ' moment? BrCl'
(2) NF3 (3) Bd.and
(1) NH3 $) cHo' tffi h"
fi[[t ildf,Jr
o tll;;"'"r",."'"'-"..,:i;, NsEc2o{41
i#*'"''"'"nt"
,
34

(1)1 $)3
tll"',I*, th" rdro*i|.f,lc

$L"".*
D
u*ons zoro
q
,r. """u'"
(2) No2
=6
9
(1) Coz (4) c\o z
l Aakash
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 ttt[lI
35. Which ot the folowing has
the shortest bond length?
,, \ln, Lews s\ructure ol ozone
(0,) the tormal
(i) q
INSEC2018] *' abmisii'Iffi,'i
(2) o, " "nt'a
oxvsen
il,'T
o;
(3)
(4) o;z (2) -1
^^
'u ffffin"n"tn, for an ionic compound is carcurated (3) o

(1) Kirchhoffs [NsEc 20131 (4) -2

equa ton (2r t *Siiilt
ro,r;r;;;" i'i lffif.r" jli,T?i?ii:1,,"".?,ffi
", ll,
f"il.,ybridizarion
;;f;ffi ;[],;:::*lJTii.Ti ;:il; (1) Square plan6r,
asl
fr{sEc 201sJ
(1) l, orp6"nn",,i t.\ , INsEc2o14
(2) Tetrahedr2t,
t1t z, ,. l<i r' Paramagnetic sp:
lr/ ^ dtamagnefic (3) Seesaw,
t+,/ z. paramagnetic eps4
(4) Square pyrarn16,
sp:4
ooo

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26 Chemical Bondino and lvlolpnrrrer Rrrrrnr'ra
Chopter 4

Biologicol Clossificotion
The steps involved in this process are shown in the
SECTION . A diagram belo,v.
Oblective Type Questions DNA
All of the following statements are conect, except
'1. The genome of a virus is composed of both
DNA and RtlA.
B
Animal cell
2. All viruses have a protein coat sunounding their
genetic material.
3. Phages are vituses that specifically infect
bacteria.
@ Bacterial cell 2

4. Bacteriophages are only able to attach to their

hosts ifthe bacieria possess features or receptors 'l
DNA
Bacterial cell
on its surface to which the virus can bind.
2 ldentify the organism on the basis of following
4. Structure A is probably a/an

information. (1) Single nucleotide (2) DNA polynucleotide

o Heterofophic (3) RNA polynucleotide (4) lnterbon polypeptide
. Commonlysaprotrophic 5. Structure B is probably
. Myceliummultinucleate,aseptate (1) A ribosome
o Motile cells are absent (2) A folded interferon protein
(1) Asperg,Tus (21 Puccinia
(3) Recombinant DNA
(3\ Aftemaia (41 Rhizopus
(4) Messenger RNA
3 Consider the following types of organisms.
a. Slime moulds b. Dinoflagellates
6. Tobacm mosaic virus (IMV) infecG tobacco plants
and oher planb of the Solanaceae family. Rosalind
c. Cyanobacleria d. Diatoms Franklin (who provided the X ray crystallography
e. My@plasna evidence for Watson and Crick about the structure
Which of the following anangements for grouping of DNA) speculated that the RNA was single
these organisms is conect on the basis of R.H. stranded and this was later confirmed after her
Whittake/s classifi cation system? death. ln an expeiment, the RNA from TMV was
mixed with proteins from a DNA virus to produce a
Group I Group ll
mixed virus. This mixed virus then infected cells.
('l) b and d a, c and e What would you expect the resulting mixed virus
(2) a,bandd cande to most closely resemble?
(3) aandb c,dande ('l ) Tobacco Mosaic Mrus
(4) b,dande aandc (2) A DNAvirus
(Directions for Q.4 to Q.5) : Using special (3) A hybrid between TMV RNA and protein ftom
enzymes, scientists have been able to isolate the
the DNA virus
gene for the anti-viral animal protein interferon, and
insert it into the DNA of certain bacteria. These (4) A hybrid between TMV protein and DNA from
bacteria can now produ@ interferon. the DNA virus

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28 Biological Classification (Level-lll)

7. The metabolism of living prokaryotes provides 12. Mesokaryon like organisation of nudeus is present
important insights into the chemical processes in
used by early organisms because ('ll Euglena (2) Diatoms
(1) Many prokaryotes are obligate aerobes (31 Paramecium (4) Dinoflagellates
(2) Many prokaryotes use oxygen as their 13. Which of the following virus shows reverse
oxidising agents transcription?
(3) Many prokaryotes live in environments similar (1) llvlv (2) Hlv
to those in which life first evolved (3) E.coli (4) Lambda phage
(4) Prokaryotes are simpler to study and hence 14. Which statement is/are wrong with respect to
are known lhan are eukaryotes Mycoplasma
8. How many among the following organisms, belong (al Mymplasma are the smallest living cells known
to cyanobacteria? (b) These can survive without oxygen
Nostoc, Rhizobium, Anabaena, IMV, Amoeba, (c) They are organisms that completely lack a cell
U loth i x, Rhodospiill um wall
(1) Four (d) They cannot pass through bacteria proof filters
(2) r',rc (1) (b) and (c) (2) (c) and (d)
(3) T'ree (3) only (d) (a) only (b)
(4) Se\€n 15. The blue{reen algae also referred to as (i}
9. Consider the following statements. _ have chlorophyll similar to green plants. Some
of these organisms can fix atmospheric nitrogen in
A. Viruses are excluded from five kingdom
classification of Whittaker
specialised cell called _(ii) _eg. Nostoc and

B. Kingdom Protista of Whittake/s classilication

Anabaena. _(iii)_ bacteria oxidis€ various
inorganic substance such as nitrates, nitdtes and
seems to be unnatural. ammonia and use the released energy for theirATP
C. ln live kingdom classification, Archaebacteria production.
are included under Monera. ln above statements (i), (ii) and (iii)are respec.tively.
D. ln five kingdom classification, Eugle,a is (1) (i) Cyanobacteria (ii) Chromatophores
included under Protista. (iii) Heterotrophic bacteria
E. ln five kingdom dassification, four kingdoms are (2) (i) Cyanobacteria (ii) Chromatophores
eukaryotic. (iii) Chemosynthetic autotrophic
Of the above statements (3) (i) Eubacteria (ii)Heterocysts (iii) Heterotrophic
(1) A and B are correcl (2) C and D are correct bacteria

(3) B and E are conecl (4) All are conect (4) (i) Cyanobacteria (ii) Heterocysts (iii)
Chemoautotrophic bacteria
'10. Which of the following is true w.r.t. heterocyst?
16. Siructurally a complete malure virus partide oubide
a. Known as site of nitrogen fixation. the host is called
b. Asso-ciated with organism that started (1) Viroid (2) Virus
orygenic photosynthesis during evolution. (3) Vinon (4) Virusoid
c. Nitrogenase enzyme convert environment N2 17. Decomposers belong to kingdom
inlo ammonia.
(1) Monera and Protista
d. Photosystem ll is absent
(2) Protista and Fungi
(1) only (a) and (b) (2) only (a), (b) and (c)
(3) Monera, Protista and Fungi
(3) All (a), (b), (c), (d) (4) only (a) and (c)
(4) Protista, Fungi and Plantae
1'1. Envelope of viruses is made up of 18. Six kingom classmcaton suggested by Carl Woose
(1) Lipids and carbohydrab (fiom virus) and protein (1990) further divided six kingdoms into three
(from host) domains on the basis of sequence of
(2) Only proteins (from virus) (1) r-RNA genes
(3) Protein (from virus), and lipid and carbohydrate (2) m-RNA genes
(from host) (3) Nitrogen bases in DNA
(4) Lipid, carbohydrate and proleins (all from host) (4) Amino acids in protein

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(Level-lll) BiologicalClassification 29

19. Prokaryotic genetic material is (M) All protista are eukaryotic, achlorophyllous,
(1) Linear DNA with histones heterotrophic, nonvascular organism.
(2) Circular DNA with histones (1) only (ii)
(3) Linear DNA without histone (2) Only (iii)
(4) Circular DNA without histones (3) only (iv)
20. Which statement is/are wrong with respect to (4) Only (iii)and (iv)
archaebacteria. 26. What is meant by holocarpic thallus
(a) Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria in (1) Reproductive structure present on whole multi
having a different cell wall struclure. cellular thallus
(b) Feature of cell membrane is responsible for (2) Thallus unicellular and reproductive structure
their survival in extreme conditions. absent
(c) Melhanogens are present in the guts of several (3) Thallus unicellular and reproductive structure
ruminant animals such as cow and buffalo. multicellular
(d) These are oldest of the living fossils. (4) Unicellular thallus converted to reproductive
(e) Peptidoglycan and muramic acid are present structure at the time of reproduction
in cell wall 27. Frcm which fungus a toxin called atfotoxin is
(1) Only (a) and (e) (2) Only (b) and (e) formed
(3) Only (a), (b) and (c) (4) Only (e) (11 Mu@r
21. The diatomaceous eadh is used for insulating (2) Aspergi us
boilers and steam pipes bacause (3) Agarcus
('l ) The diatomaceous earth is very cheap (4) Fusaium
(2) lt is a good mnductor of heat 28. Lysergic acid is found in
(3) lt is a bad mnductor of heat (1) Conidia of C/ayicaps
(4) lt is composed of calcium carbonate (2) Sclerotia of Claviceps
22. Diatoms do not decay readily as most other protist (3) Penici ium
because (4) Perithicium of Claviceps
(1) They are non living cells 29. Which of these is called heteroecious fungus
(2) They have waterproof cell walls (1\ Puccinia (2) Ustilago
(3) They have siliceous cell walls (3) Aganbus (4) Claviceps
(4) They have mucilaginous cell walls 30. Which fungus and destruction of which crop
23. Paramylum granules are made of caused the severe famine of lreland
('l) P1-3 glucan (2) 01-3 glucan (1) Aftemaia solani-Eady blight of potato
(3) 014 glucan (4) d1-4 glucan (2) Phytophthora infostans-Late blight of potato
24. Eye spot of Euglena is a (3) Helminthospoium orlza+Brown leaf spotof rice
(1) Nonplastid structure found near the reservoir (4) Puccinia gnminis tritici-black rust of wheat
(2) Nonplastid structure found on the side near the 31. W@plasma differs from viruses in
middle ('l ) Lacking cell wall
(3) Plastid struclure present near the reservoir (2) Being pathogenic in nature
(4) Plastid structure found near the middle (3) Filterable through chamberland's bacleria proof
25. Which slatement is/are wrong with respect to filters
kingdom protista. (4) Being having both DNA and RNA
(i) All single celled eukaryotes are placed under 32. An enzyme found at the tip of tail of bacleriophages
protista. is
(ii) The boundaries of this kingdom are nol well (1) Protease
defined.
(2) Lysozyme
(iii) Chrysophytes, dinoflagellates, Euglenoids,
(3) Replicase
slimemoulds and protozoans are included
under protista. (4) Reverse transcriptase

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30 BiologicalClassiflcation (Level-lll)

33. A retrovirus on injecting its RNA into host cell starts 8. Presence of plastids in P/asmodrum suggests
synthesing a single (-)ve strand of DNA which is
IKVPY SB/SX 20131
called
(1) lt is a plant species
(1) CDNA (copy DNA)
(2) lt is a parasite with a cyanobacterium as an
(2) SDNA (synthetic DNA) endosymbiont
(3) r-DNA (reverse ONA) (3) lt is a parasite wilh an archaebacterium as an
(4) Reverse RNA endosymbiont
(4) lt is a plant species with an archaebacterium
stcTtot{ . B as an endosymbiont
Previous Years Questions 9. A bacterial colony is produced from
Which of the following biological phenomenon IKVPY SB/SX 20141
involves a bacteriophage? [KVPY SA 2012] (1) A single bacterium by its repetitive division
(1) Transformation (2) Conjugation (2) Multiple bacterium without replication
(3) Translocation (4) Transduction (3) Clumping of two to three bacteria
2 The roots ofsome higher plants get associated with
(4) A single bacterium without cell division
a fungal partner. The roots provide food to he fungus 10. Rhinoviruses are the causative agents of
while the fungus supplies water to lhe roots. The IKVPY SB/SX 20141
struclure so formed is known as [KVPY SA 20121 (1) Dianhoea (2) AIDS
(1) Lichen (2\ Anabaena (3) Dengue (4) Common cold
(3) Mycorrhiza (4) Rhizobium
11. What is the genetic material of Ebolavirus?

3 A pathogen which cannot be cultured in an artilicial IKVPY SB/SX 20141

mediumis IKVPY SA 20131
(1) Single-stranded DNA
(1) Protozoan (2) Virus (2) Double-skanded RNA
(3) Bacterium (4) Fungus (3) Single-stranded RNA
4 Which one of the following is not a mode of (4) Double-strandedDNA
asexual reproduction? [KVPY SA 20131 12. Study the tree of life given INSEB 20131
(1) Binary fission (2) Multiple fission bacteria
(3) Budding (4) Conjugation 4
5 Which one of the following statements is conect i eukarya
about the tobacco mosaic virus? IKVPY SA 2014 archaea
(1) lt affects all monocotyledonous plants The numbers indicating symbiosis of chloroplast
and mitochondrial ancestors respeclively are
(2) lt affects photosynthetic tissue of the infected
plant (1) 3and 1 (21 2and3
(3) lt does not infect other species belonging to (3) 3 and 4 (4) 4 and I
the Solanaceae 13. A few statemenb regarding viruses are given below.
(4) lt infects gymnosperms INSEB 201q
6 Bacteriochlorophylls are photosynthetic pigments i. They are the simplest unicellular organisms.
found in phototrophic bacteria. Their function is ii. They contain ribose or deoxyribose nucleic
distinct from the plant chlorophylls in that they acid enclosed in a protein coat.
IKVPY SB/SX 20101 iii. They are the most primitive organisms.
(1 ) Are not related with production of oxygen iv. They exhibit inheritance of characlers and can
(2) Do not conduct photosynthesis undergo mutations.
(3)Absorb only blue light Which of the slatements are corect?
(4) Function without a light source (1) i, iii and iv
7 Fission yeasts are [KVPY SB/SX 20131 (2) Only i and iii
(1) Archaebacteria (2) Eubacteria (3) Only ii and iv
(3) Prokaryotes (4) Eukaryotes (4) Only i, ii and iii

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(Levellll) BiologicalClassiflcation 31
14. A student inoculated a drop of pond water into a 17. A protist Gonyaulax polyhedra follow circadian
liquid culture medium which mainly contained rhythm for two different aclivibes; ,.e. Photosynthesis
extract of dry leaves. She incubated the culture and Bioluminescence. Which of the following graph
bottle and microscopically observed a drop from conectly explains this phenomena? [NSEB 20131
the culture on the 2nd, 3'd and 4b day after the Night Day
cornmencernenl of the experiment. The organisms
that she observed on each of these days were (1)
On 2d day ---r mainly bacteria
On 3d day 1 mainly Paramecia Night Day
On 4h day r mainly Rotifers
(2)
The domains that these organisms belong to
respectively are INSEB 201q
(1) Eubacteria, Eubacteria, Eukaryota Night Day

(2) Archaebacteria, Eubacteria, Eukaryota

(3)
(3) Eubacteria, Eukaryota, Eubacteria
(4) Eubacteria, Eukaryota, Eukaryota Night Day
15. lf a bacteriophage with a lytic life cycle infects

zummll
bacieria in a arlture rnedium containing radioisotope (4)
of sulphur, the subsequent generation of the phage
will have INSEB 201q 8d ummescenc€
('l ) Radioac'tive core
(2) Radioactive coat 18. Ectomyconhiza - .r.o,oo"
(3) Radioactive core and coat "
plant roots and fungi "".*,*,t#m"
is important in obtaining
(4) No radioactivity phosphorus and other nutrients for the plant. Which
16. The lhree-domain phylogenetjc classirication of life
ofhe follo ing points characterize the relationship?
is based on differences in 165 rRNA genes. lt is [NBO 20141
conectly depicted in INSEB 20161 a. Penetration of host cell by fungal hyphae.
Melhanococcus b. Creation of a vast network of hyphae to absorb
nutrients-

Entamoaba
c. Change in soil pH.
(1)
d. Movement of organic c€rbon to fungi.
Cyanoba (1) a, b, c and d (2) Only a, b and c
Cyenobeleria (3) Only b and c (4) Only b, c and d
'19. ln the following scheme, three domain classific€tion
key wih onerepresentative example on eadl domain
(2)
Eitanoeba is shown. A, B and C respectively are:

B
t.,--. c
Cyanob€ctena
Cyanobactb \, Halophil

(3) iliates

Enlanoeba

Eubactena
lrNBo 2014I
(1) Plantae, Eubacteria, Animalia
Entanoeba (2) Planiae, Archaebacteria, Eukaryota
(4)
(3) Eubacteria, Archaebacteria, Eukaryota
Cyanobacleria (4) Plantae, Prokaryota, Eukaryota.

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32 BiologicalClassification (Level-H)

20. The table below lists the major Fungal groups and (C) Hyphae of ectomycorrhizae can penetrate the
their characteristics: cortical cells of the roots, and form hyphal
Groups Gharacteristics
Fungal sheaths around the roots
A. Ascomycota (i) Hyphae aseptate, (D) Myconhizae have similar functions as root hair
coenocytic; asexual of plants, and therefore, plants with
reproduction by myconhizae have lessdeveloped root hairs
sporangiophores (E) Each mycoffhiza forms symbiotic associations
B. Chytrids (ii) Hyphae aseptate, with the roots of speciflc plants
coenocytic, asexual
reproduction by B C D E

zoospores
C. Glomeromycetes (iii) Hyphae aseptate, 22. The following photograph shows flarnentous groMh
coenocytic; no of a kind of cyanobacteria, Nostoc sp. The
sexual spores bacteria form heterocysts (thick-walled cells), when
D. Zygomycetes (iv) Hyphae septate or nitrogen sources such as ammonia or nilrates are
unicellular; asexual deficient in lhe environment.
reproduction by Which of the following statements describing these
conidia heterocysts is/are true?
Which one of the following options represents the
appropriate match between the fungal group and
.o )
their characteristics? I
)
(1) A- (ii), B (iii), c (i), D - (iv)
- -
(2) A-
(3) A-
(4) A-
(iv), B - (ii), C - (iii), D - (i)
(i), B - (iv), c - (iii), D - (ii)
(ii), B - (iv), c - (iii), D - (i)
2'1. Some fungi form symbiotic associations with the
roots of vascular plants, which are called
l.
I )
Nitrogen is fixed in the heterocyst.
ll. Photosystem I does not function in the
mycontlizae- ln such association, myconhizae help heterocyst.
plants to absorb water, phosphate salt and other
mineral nutrients. Depending on whelher tire fungus lll. Photosystem ll does not function in the
heterocyst.
colonizes the roots extracellularly or intracellularly,
mycorrhizae can be grouped into ectomycorrhizae A. Only I

or arbuscular mycontizae. Which of the following B. Only ll

descriptions of mycofthizae arc correcl?
C. Only I and ll
(A) Seedlings with mycolrhizae grow more rapidly
than seedling without mycorrhizae in low-
D. Only I and lll
phosphorus soils E. Only ll and lll
(B) Hyphae of arbuscular mycorrhizae can Mark (,,) for the correct option
penetrate the cortical cells of the roots and cell

IIIII
B C D E
membranes to form symbiolic associations
intracellularly

J o U

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Chopter 5

Morphology of Flowering Plonts

SECTION.A
Objective Type Questions 5 Which of the following part of grasses modify and
form an excellent ground cover for preventing
1. Root hairs are tiny cellular projections that grow
erosion and help in vegetative reproduction?
from the epidermal layer of roots. What is their
primary function? ('l) Root cap
(1) Anchoring the rest of the root into the soil. (2) Sheathing leaf base
(2) Displacing soil particles so the root can grow (3) Stem as stolons
fuither
(4) Fibrous roots
(3) Capturing soil nematodes for use as a carbon
source.
sEcTtor{ - B
(4) lncreasing the root's surface area to absorb
more nufuients. Previous Years Questions
2. Having one cotyledon distinguishes monocot seeds Which one of the following is a modified leaf?
from dicot seeds. What other feature is unique to IKVPY SA 2015I
monocots?
('l) potato
Sweet (2) Ginger
(1 ) The nutrients required for germination are stored
(3) Onion (4) Canot
in the endosperm
(2) The shoot apical meristem is present at the time
2 A botany student encountered a palm like, short
of germination tree with pinnately compound leaves with sessile
leaflets bearing midrib but no lateral veins. The
(3) The embryonic root is the first organ to penetrate
stem has persistent, woody, leaf bases. Bfanched,
the seed coat
blunt finger-like structures could be noticed on
(4) The root apical meristem is protected by a root ground around the base of trunk. The plant has to
cap
be [NSEB 20131
3. Which of the following statements about seeds is
nut
(1) Areca (21 Cycas
FALSE?
(1) Coleorhizae are found in monocotyledonous (3) Thefem (4) Coconut palm
seeds 3 Leaves of Eucalyptus hang vertically on weak
(2) Both monocotyledonous and dicotyledonous branches that themselves hang down. The
s€eds have radicles advantages of it are INSEB 20131
(3) Both monocotyledonous and dicotyledonous i. Availability of light is assured lo all leaves
seeds are covered ii. Leaf lamina is not presented directly to mid-
(4) The aleurone layer is found only in day sun
dicotyledonous seeds
iii. Heating as well as water loss is kept under
4. Find the odd one. control
(1) Stolon, rhizome, corm M Trunk and major branches get shielded from
(2) Thorn, bract, stipules intense light
(3) Contractile root, pneumatophore, haustoria (1) i, ii and iii (2) i, iii and iv
(4) Stamen tapetum, microspore (3) Only ii and iii (4) Only i and iii

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$4 Morphology of Flowering Plants

4 Which of the following statements is correct with L According to 'evo-devo' hypothesis of evolution of
reference to the accompanying floral diagram? flowering plants proposed by Michael Frohlich,
o microsporophylls, through mutation, developed

r- ovules and formed carpels. The evidence in support

of this is that
i. Flower{evelopment genes of angiosperms are
homologous to the microsporophyll
) development genes of gymnosperms
ii. ln tomato, fasciated (ff) mutation leads to
development of extra floral organs

\ iii. ln ABC model of development of flower,

activation ot B and C genes result in
L I
differentiation of stamens while that of only C
gene leads to differentiation of c€rpels
INSEB 20161
NSEBmlq
(1) There is adhesion between corolla and (1) ii and iii (2) i & ii

androecium (3) i & iii (a) Only i

(2) Calyx as well as corolla have imbricate 9. Floral diagrams are used lo graphically represent a
aestivation flower. Given below is a floral diagram of a flower :
(3) The flower is bracteate
(4) Placentation is parietal
o
5 A polycarpellary apocarpous flower normally gives
rise to [NSEB 20161
(1) Composite fruit (2) Aggregate ftuit
(3) Simple fleshy fruit (4) Simple dry fruit
6 ln a polycarpellary and syncarpous pistil, ovary
can be unilocular or multilocular, and placentation
can be: [NSEB 20181
(1) Free-central or parietal
(2) Parietal or marginal
(3) Marginal or free central
(4) Parietal or axile
which of the following properties does it convey?
7 Which of the following is a mismatchod pain
i. Presence of three sepals
INSEB m18l ii. Having a ticarpellary sycarpous ovary
(1) Ladys fingerCapsule iii. Presence of three fertile stamens
(2) Banana-Berry iv. Presen@ of a bract INBO 20111
(3) Date-Drupe (1) Only i, iii and iv (2) Only i, ii and iv
(4) Maize-Caryopsis (3) Only ii and iii (a) Only ii

D D tr

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 I
T

ZOOLOGY
T

T
Chopter 4

Breothing ond Exchonge of Goses

sEcnol{ -A 6. Functional residual capacity (FRC) includes

Obiective Typ€ Questions a. ry .b. IRV

1. ln mature mammalian erythrocytes, respiration c. RV d. ERV

is (1) a+c
(1) Aerobic (2) b+d
(2) Anaerobic (3) c+d
(3) Sometimes aerobic and sometimes anaerobic (4) a+b+d
(4) Absent
7. lfthe tidal volume is 500 ml and the breathing rate is
2. ln birds exchange of gases occurs 12 per minute, then the alveolar ventilation is
(1) Fi.st in the lungs and then in air sacs (1) 500 ml x 12

(2) First in the air sacs and then in lungs

(2) 500
a nt
(3) Simultaneously in lungs and air sacs
(4) (3) 350 ml x 12
ln the lungs only and not in air sacs
3. A child was killed through asphyxiation. (a)
't2
Postrnortem mnfirmed it because when a piece of * ml

lung was put in water it 8. Which statement is wrong?

(1) Settled down (1) Partial pressure of CO. (pCO2) is higher in the
(2) Kept floatng atmospheric air than inside the lungs

(3) Had blood spots el Panial pressure of O2(pO2) is higher in the

atmospheric air than inside the lungs
(4) None of these
4. Clara cells in the respiratory system are present in
(3) Partial pressure of O2(pOr) is lower in the
venous blood than in the air in the lungs
(1) Trachea, release mucus
(4) Partial pressure of COr(pCO2) is higher in the
(2) Trachea, release lecithin venous blood than in the air
(3) Respiratory bronchioles, release mucus 9. lf oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curyes are drawn
(4) Respiratory bronchioles, release tecithin for matemal and foetal haemoglobin, which of the
following is kuo?
5. Chest movements are inconspicuous during
(1) Normal breathing
('l) Matemal curve will be on the right side

(2) Abdominalbreathing (2) Foetal curve will be on the right side

(3) Thoracic breathing (3) Both win overlap each other

(a) Both (1)& (2) (4) lt will depend upon only pCO2 level

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36 Breathing and Exchange of Gases
10. Which of the following statement is wrong?
('l) The inspiratory centre influences the strength
of contraction of rib muscles
(2) Weak signal from pneumotaxic centre increase
the depth of breathing
(3) Breathing movements are caused by dlange
concentration of CO2 in the blood
(4) Expiratory centre lies in pons and inspiratory
centre lies in medulla
11. Which of the following is not possible when
pneumotaxic centre is sending a strong signal?
(1) Rate of breathing increases
(2) Complete filling of lungs
(3) Decreased duration of inspiration
(4) Decreased duration of expiration
12. Severe Acute Respiratory syndrome (SARS)
(1) ls caused by a variant ol Pneumococcus
WWpniae
(2) ls caused by a variant of the common cold
virus (Corona Virus)
(3) ls an acute form of asthma
(4) AffecG the non-veg€tarian much hster han the
vegetarians
13. Disorder/disease related with bubbling of N2 in the
blood resulting in pain or severe problem is
(1) Caisson's disease
(2) Cheyn+stokes respiration
(3) Hypopnoea
(4) Asthma
14. Hemoglobin, an iron-containing protein in
erythrocytes, binds oxygen molecules. Myoglobin,
a protein in muscle cells, is used for oxygen
storage.
What can be deduced about the relative oxygen
affnities of hemoglobin and myoglobin?
(1) Myoglobin has greater oxygen affinity than
hemoglobin
(2) Hemoglobin has greater oxygen affinity than
myoglobin
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(Level.lll)
(3) Both have roughly the same oxygen affinity
(4) Neither has a significant orygen affnity
15. Which two brain centers control mammalian
respiration?
(1) Medulla oblongata and substanlia nigra
(2) Medulla oblongata and pons
in
(3) Medulla oblongata and red nucleus
(4) Substantia nigra and red nucleus
16. An animal experiences an acid-base imbalance in
the arterial blood that results in acidosis. To
increase pH toward normal, which direction would
the ventilation rate be changed and what would be
the conesponding change in arterial PCO2?
(1) Ventilation rate increases, arterial PCO2
increases
(2) Ventilation rate increases, arterial PCO2
decreases
(3) Ventilation rate decreases, arterial PCO,
increases
(4) Ventilation rale decreases, arterial PCO2
decreases
17. Which one or combination of the following explains
why patients with sickle cell anemia have diffcully
breathing at high altitudes?
l. Elongation of the red blood cells reduces
surface to volume ratios
ll. Self-associated hemoglobin proteins have
altered cooperative binding aftnities
Itl. Soluble oxygen is unable to diftlse through the
membrane of red blood cells in sickle cell
patients
(1) i only
(2) I and ll only
(3) I and lll only
(4) ll and lll only
18. The inspiratory phase of mammal respiration is
characterized by
(1) Expansion of the rib cage and contraction of
the diaphragm
(2) Expansion of the rib cage and relaxation of the
diaphragm
(3) Collapse of the rib cage and relaxation of the
diaphragm
(4) Contraction and relaxation of lhe diaphragm
 (Level-lll) Breathing and Exchange of Gases 37
'19. Emphysema is a condition in which the small (3) A high pCO2 causes blood pH to drop;
aiMays of the lung become nanow and the alveoli specialized centers detect the pH change and
are degraded and begin to form larger spaces. stimulate an increase in breathing rate to
Which of the following is not likely to occur in a increase CO2 removal from the blood
patient with emphysema? (4) A low pO2 causes blood pH to drop;
specialized centers detect the pH change and
('l ) An increase in carbon dioxide levels in the blood
stimulate an increase in breathing rate to
(2) A decrease in oxygen levels in the blood increase CO, removal from the blood
(3) A decrease in breathing rate 23 Which statement about breathing in a fish and a
(4) A decrease in respiratory surface area mammal is corect?

20. Consider the following processes: (1) Unlike mammalian lungs, the surface of fish
gills is not extensively folded for efficient gas
l. Contraction of diaphragm
exchange
ll. Relaxation of diaphragm
(2) Both fish and mammals have a diaphragm that
lll. Lung volume increases functions to ventilate lheir respiratory surfaces
lV Air flows into lungs (3) Oxygen availability in the environment is much
higher for a mammal than a lish
ln what order do these processes occur when a
person breathes air into the lungs? (4) Fish gills are not as efficient as mammalian
(1) l-+lll --.>lV (2) lV-+lll --.ll lungs at obtaining oxygen from their
environment
(3) ll -+ lll -+ lV (4) ll -+ lV-+ lll
SECTION . B
21. You will have observed that many athletes
participating rn the Olympics appear to be rather
Previous Years Ouestions
'out of breath' on completion of their events. This is
true for non-athletes afler a short bout of exercise 1. The maximum number of oxygen molecules that
- running for a bus, for example. At the end of a can bind to one molecule of haemoglobin is
normal inhalation the breath can be held from
IKVPY SB/SX 2014
between 30 to 50 seconds. The breatrFholding time
immediately after exercise is shorter. The least (1) 8 (2) 6
likely cause of this would be:
(3) 4 (4) 2
(1) An increase in the CO2 concentration in the
blood. 2. Given that tidal volume is 600 ml, inspiratory
reserve volume is 2500 ml, and expiratory reserve
(2) A decrease in pH ofthe blood.
volume is 800 ml, what is the value of vital
(3) An increase in the lactic acid concentration of capacity of lung? [KVPY SB/SX 2014
the blood.
(1) 3900 ml
(4) Fatigue ofthe intercostal muscles
(2) 3300 ml
22. The human body responds quickly to a decrease
in the partial pressure of oxygen (O2) in the blood (3) 3100 ml
or an increase in the partial pressure of carbon
dioxide (pCOr) in the blood. Which statement (4) 1400 ml
about how homeostasis regulates levels of 02 and 3. The atmospheric pressure is 760 mm Hg at the
CO2 in the blood is correct? sea level. Which of the following ranges in nearest
(1) A low pO2 is detected by the pituitary gland to the partial pressure of CO, in mm Hg?
,s
which then releases hormones that stimulate IKVPY SA 20161
e
o an inclease in breathing rate to restore blood
(1) 0.3H.31
=
in
02 to normal levels
(2) A low pO2 is detected by nerves within alveoli el 0.6H.61
that stimalate increased diffusion of oxygen (3) 3.0-3.1
from the lungs into the blood (4) 6.H.1
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o
38 Breathing and Exchange of Gases (Level-lll)

4. Absence of cartilage, absence of ciliated 8 Following graph represents oxyhaemoglobin

epithelium, presence of minimal smooth muscles dissociation curve. Point E and G represent
and presence of thin flattened squamous venous 02 pressure during exercises and resting
epithelium are the features of which of the following state respectively. How much total percentage of
parts of the respiratory system? [KVPY 2015] oxygen is unloaded in tissue during exercise?
(1) Tradea (2) Bronchi
IKVPY 20131
(3) Alveolar duct (4) Alveoli
5 Oxygen dissociation curves for two types of IL
haemoglobin molecules P and Q are shown below. 9z
:m 80
P

Select the correct interprelation. [KVPY 20151 YO

60
EB o
cc t> 40
oo
o);
<uJ
AT
>o s 20
-oO
20 40 60 80 100
0 0 5 EG pq(mm Hs)
Parlial pressure of orygen (1) R
(mm of Hg)
(1) (2) o
Haemoglobin P is more effcient as an oxygen
store (3) P+O
(2) At elevated temperatures, curve for P will shin (4) P+Q+R
towards curve for Q. o The accompanying graph depicts the % saturation
(3) P is more effective in unloading oxygen at of vertebrate haemoglobin with orygen. What does
very low partial pressures X and Y indicates? [KVPY 2012]
(4) Haemoglobin P is likely to be present in
actively metabolising tissues.
6 Carbonic anhydrase is an enzyme that accelerates
Saluration
the formation of carbon dioxide from carbonic acid
of
(H2CO3) is found in high concentrations inside the Hb
red blood cells. lndicate which of the following
would be true for the activity levels of this enzyme
in the following animals. [(VPY 20141 pO, (mm of Hg)

('l) Elephant > Man > Rat (l ) X - orygenated blood, Y - deorygenated blood
(2) Rat > Elephant > Man (2) X - deorygenated blood, y - orygenated blood
(3) Man > Elephant > Rabbit (3) X - blood of haemophilic person, Y - blood of
(4) Rat > Man > Elephant normal person

7 Athletes are often trained at high altitude because (4) X - blood of foetus, Y - blood of adult

IKVPY SA 20141 10. Oxygen saturation curve of haemoglobin molecule

(1) Training at high altitude increases

is shown in the graph. [KVPY 20121
muscle
mass b tr'l oo-
(2) Training at high altitude increases the number e6 oi
of red blood cells EE so -----i--.---,
(3) There is less chance of an injury at high o(D
(')(E
altitude \o .c ,/,
5
(4) Athletes sweat less at high attitude pq (kPa)

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(Level-lll) Breathing and Exchange of Gases 39

The correct representation of haemoglobin (3) .>

molecule at points P and Q is respectively. o.--0
0rq o
[](VPY 20131 b.9 -or
6E 9
(1) HbO2 and HbOa oll 0)
-oOG
o\ (,).C
(2) HbCO and HbCO2
po,
(3) HbO2 and HbO8

(4) HbOa and HbO6 (4) c -.s ......-t

o --oo
o)c
1'1. At rest the volume of air that moves in and out per
breath is called IKVPY SA 20111
oin!
ulE ol (! oE
-o
('l ) Resting volume o\ l,.C
(2) Vital capacity pq
(3) Lung capacity 15. Gaseous exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide
between alveolar air and capillaries takes place by
(4) Tidal volurne
IKVPY SB/SX 2014
12. The CO2 in the blood is mostly canied
(1) Active transport
IKVPY SB'SX 20111
(2) Difrtsion
('l) By hemoglobin in RBCS
(3) Canierfied iated transport
(2) ln the cytoplasm of WBCS
(4) lmbibition
(3) ln the plasma as bicarbonate ions
16. Choose the combination of conditions in a tissue
(4) By plasma proteins that would influence the most rapid dissociation of
13. Human fetal haemoglobin differs from the adult oryhemoglobin. [NSEB 20121
haemoglobin in that it has
KEY
IKVPY SB'SX 20131 pH temp = Pco,
(1)
N
Higher affinity for oxygen
(1)
(2) Lower affinity for orygen
Levels
(3) Two subunits onlY

(4) ls glycosylated N=
Factors
14. Which of the following graphs best desffibes the (2\
oxygen dissociation curve where pO2 is the partial
pressure of orygen 0(VPY SB/SX 20161 Levels

(1) c.E il
o.- a
orq o
>.s E Factors
o(ry
e=tr (3)
ol0)
-o(!(I
o\ d-C Levels
po.

t2\
' Factors
c c.!
o'--o
o)c o (4)
>.9 E
6E 9
e=tr Levels
OJ C)
-oOO
o\ l,-C
* il
po, Factors

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 40 Breathing and Exchange of Gases (Levellll)

17. The graph below represents the countercurrent

exchange mechanism that takes place in fish gilts 00%

to maximize gas exchange. TNSEB 20141 !g

(3) i: 5M
100%
10%

,E sffk
_ vlhter
e ----- Blood
ii
10% @%
Dislance atong the gils I
What would happen if concurrent mechanism (4) 50.i6

replaces counter current exchange mechanism?

1Vh
00%

ig 18. Nitrogen bend is avoided by diving mammals like

(1) 50%
whales because TNSEB 20la
l0% (1) Their blood has low partial pressure of Nitrogen
at all time
00%
(2) Their lungs are filled with nitrogenous air before
iE dMrE
(21 ;E 50%

10%
(3) Peripheral circulation is minimal while diving
(4) They have very low metabotic rate white diving

:l tre

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I,
Chopter 5

Body Fluids ond Circu otion

(3) Blood flows from the right ventricle to the right
SECTION . A
atrium
Objective Type Questions (4) Oxygenated blood from the lungs enters the left
atrium
The first organ to re@ive blood from heart is
Which line in the graph given below represents the
(1) Brain
most likely changes in mean arterial blood pressure
(2) Heart if a release of epinephrine (adrenaline) is stimulated

(3) Kidney at the 3-minute mark?

(4) Gaskointestinal tract o) 14

I 12
2 You accidentally cut yoursef with a knife. You start E
E 10
to bleed and after some time the bleeding has not
stopped. What is the most likely explanation forthis?
o .B
= 8
(1) Your blood plasma contains a low @ncentration E 6
o-
ofglobulns 40. D
E
(2) Your blood has a deficiency in red blood cells o E
6 20,
(3) Your blood pH is lowerthan normal
(4) Your blood has a low con@nhation fbrinogen
0 012345678910
of T1ne (ninutes)
3. Which statement about an open circulatory system (1) LineA
is correct? (2) Line B
(1) Molecules being exchanged (e.9., O, or COr) (3) LineC
do not have to diffuse across the wall of a blood
(4) Line D
vesser
(2) open sysrems senerate a hisher now rare than
t y,:'*jffi[T jr",ffitilhf,|#f brood cerrs

closed systems
('l) They don't contain DNA
(3) open systems do not mntain a heart:T:]^r,",, (2) They have reached tul maturity
solely on body movements to circulate blood
(3) They do not need to replicate
(4) Hemotymph does not contain oxygen-binding
molecules (4) TheY are bimncave

4. T The receive(s) blood ftom the

which statementabout blood circulation throuqh
" the and the
mammalian heart is correct?
('l) Liver: hepatic arteries: hepatic portal vein
(1) A arteries carry onry oxygenated blood away
from heart (2) Liver; hepatic arteries, hepatic veins -
-
(3) Kidneys; renal arteries' renal veins
(2) De-oxygenated blood from the body enters the
heartthrough the right ventricle (4) Lungs: pulmonary arteries; pulmonary veins
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42 Body Fluids and Circulation (Level-lll)
i
8. Why is maintaining a high body temperature (e.9., 14. As blood flowsthrough the heart, the semilunarvalves
37" C) more challenging for smaller endothermic open and close atthe conect moments. These valves
animals than for larger endothermic animals? are forced to open by :

(1) Smaller animals have a lower metabolic rate (per (1) The contraction of the powerful muscles of the
gram of body mass) relative to larger animais ventricles

(2) smaller animals have a higher surface area to (2) small muscles in the valves themselves
volume ratio and therefore lose greateramounts (3) Strings attached to them called chordae
of heat to the environment tendineae

(3) Smaller animals have lower surface area to (4) only the pressure of the blood itself
volume ratio and therefore lose greater amounts 15. Hemopoietic organs are
ofheatto the environment 1. Manorar
(4) Smaller animals are unable to shiver at a rate 2. Thymus
that is fast enough to produce heat in their 3. lslets of Langerhans
muscles 4. spreen
9. Which of the following is not a function of blood? 5. Lymph nodes
(1) Repair of damaged tissues 6. Core of the adrenal glands.
(2) Defence against infectious disease The codes of the answers
(3) Transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide l1l 1,2,3and4 (2\ 1,2,4and6
(4) Production of hormones such as insulin and (3) 1, 2, 5 and 6 (4) No mnect answer
glucagon 16. To reach the right hand in humans blood from the
10. A cricket fan sitting outside in the Melbourne stomach and intestine
Cricket Ground on a cold, windy day may use 1. Must pass through the hearl (once)
vrhich of the following processes to keep warm? 2. Must pass through the heart (twice)
('1) Vasodilation (2) Vasoconstriction 3. Does not pass through the heart
(3) Radiation (4) Conveciion 4. Must pass through the lungs
'11. lf a foreign body is travelling in the human 5 Must pass through the liver
bloodstream in a large vein of the left leg, where is 6. Must pass through the brain
it most likely to block blood-flow eventually?
The codes of the answers:
(1) Capillaries of lung (1) Only 2 (Z) 1 and 4
(2) Small veins ofthe lung (3) 2,4and6 (4) 2,4ands
(3) Capillaries of the left leg 17. Match all possible animal groups in column (B)
(4) Capillaries of the brain with each description in column (A)
(column A) (column B)
12. Materials are exchanged between the blood and the
surrounding tissues in the l No circulatory system 'l lnsecl
(1)Arteries(2)Veinsll.opencirculatorySystem2.Bird
(3) capi aries (4) Lymphatic system
lll closed circulatory 3 shark
system without hearl
13. ln the London olympics, a large number of athletes
chambers
will be measured and tested before and after their
events. Which types of variation are shown by lV. Heart with single-circuit 4. Planaia
blood gloup and breathing rate? circulation
Blood group Breathing rate V. Heart with 2 atria and 5. Crocodile
(1) Continuous Continuous 2 ventricles
(2) continuous Discontinuous 6 sea horse
(3) Discontinuous continuous
T Annelids
(gene€l)
(4) Discontinuous Discontinuous g. Hydn
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 (Level-lll) Body Fluids and Circulation 4il
The codes of the answers 22. Bombay blood group is characterised by
(114,1,7,3,5 (2) 4, 1,7,8,5 (a) Presence of H gene
(3) , 4, 7, 3, 5
1 (4) 5, 4,3,2, 1 (b) Absence of H gene
18. The semilunar valves separate (c) Absence of A-antigen
(1) The chambers of the heart from the arteries (d) Absence of B-antigen
(2) The lefl ventricb fom the right atrium (e) Presence of D-antibody
(3) The right venbicle from the lefi atrium (1) (b), (c) & (d)
(4) Hollow veins ftom he right atrium (2) (a), (b) & (c)
(3) (b), (c), (d) and (e)
19. Clotting factor not synthesized in human body is
(4) All of these
(1) Thrombin
23. Read the following statements
(2) Fibrinogen
(3) Ca'z.
a. Lymph is a colourless fluid containing
specialised lymphocytes which are responsible
(4) Tlrombokinase for the immune response of the body.
20. A person suffering from hypertension, high blood b. An elaborate network of vessels called the
cholesterol and other cardiovascular disease are lymphatic system collects lymph and drains it
recommended by physicians to have edible oils like back to major arteries.
sunflower oil instead of having saturated oils c. Fats are absorbed in lymph present in the
because lacteals of intestinal villi.
(1) Saturated oils decrease he cholesterol level in d. Lymph has same composition like that of
blood plasma but has fewer blood proteins, less
calcium and phosphorous and high glucose
(2) Polyunsaturated oils increase the cholesterol
@ncentration.
level in blood
How many statements is/are cofrecl?
(3) Polyunsaturated fatty acids lower blood
cholesterol level
(1) One (2) Tuo
(4) Polyunsaturated fatty acids decrease the (3) Three (4) Four
1 lumen of blood vessel 24. Read the following paragraph having four blanks A,
B, C and D.
21. The given figure describes the diagrammatic
representation of standard ECG. During a cardiac cycle, each ventricle pumps out

R approximately A of blood which is called

B . The first heart sound (Lubb) is
T
associated with the closure of C , whereas,
o the second heart sound'dup'is associated with
S
Column I Column ll
the closure of D

a. Pralaue choose the option which fills two of the given

(i) ventir:ular depolarizatirn
i"nirrcurrr bhnks corEc{y
toltoweJ uy
contradion (1) A- 70 ml
b. QRS complex (ii) Atrial depolarization B - Cadiac ouqnrt
followed by systole of (2) B _ S[oke votume
both atria
c - semirunar varves
c Trmve (iii) ventricular repolarization
(3) c - s€mirunar varves
followed by ventricular
relaxation D- AV vafues
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii) (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i) (4) A- 70 ml
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iii) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i) D- Semilunar valves
rxsnr**b r*rffeffs&afiu
44 Body Fluids and Circulataon (Level-lll)

25. The cardiac impulse is initiated and conducted 4. A regular check on the unborn baby of a lady
further upto ventricle by which of the following towards the end of her pregnancy showed a heart
pathway? rate of 80 beats per minute. What would the doclor
infer about the baby's heart condition from this?
(1) S A Node - A V Node - Purkinje fiber - Bundle
of His IKVPY SA 20131
(2) S A Node - Purkinje fiber - A V Node - Bundle (1) Normal heart rate
of His (2) Faster heart rate
(3) S A Node - AV Node - Bundle of His - Purkinje (3) Slower heart rate
fiber
(4) Defective brain tunction
(4) S A Node - Purkinje fiber - Bundle of His -AV
5. Athletes are often trained at high altitude because
Node
IKVPY SA 2014I
26. Among the following organs, which one receives (1) Training at high altitude increases muscle
maximum percentage of cardiac output during resting mass
conditions?
(2) Training at high attitude inseases the number
(1) Heart (2) Kidney of red blood cells
(3) Skin (4) Brain (3) There is less chance of an injury at high
altitude

SECTION - B (4) Athletes sweat less at high altitude

Previous Years Questions

6. The pulmonary artery caries IKVPY SA 2014]
('l) Deoxygenated blood to the lungs
1. Blood clotting involves the conversion of
(2) Oxygenated blood to the brain
IKVPY SA 2011I
(1) Prothrombin to thromboplastin
(3) Oxygenated blood to the lungs
(4) Deoxygenated blood to the kidney
(2) Thromboplastin to prothrombin
(3) Fibrinogen to fibrin
7. Human mature red blood cells (RBCs) do not
@ntain IKVPY SA 20141
(4) Fibrin to fibrinogen (1) lron (2) Cytoplasm
2. A smear of blood from a healthy individual is (3) Mitochondria (4) Haemoglobin
stained with a nuclear stain called hematoxylin
and ttren observed under a light microsmpe. Which
8. A person with blood group AB has
IKVPY SA 20151
of the following cell type would be highest in
number? (1) Antigen A and B on RBCS and both anti-A
[KVPY SA 20121
and anti-B antibodies in plasma
(1) Neutrophils (2) Lymphocytes
(2) Antigen A and B on RBCS, but neither
(3) Eosinophils (4) Monocytes anti-A nor anti-B antibodies in plasma
3. A person with blood group "A" can (a) donate (3) No antigen on RBCS but both anti-A and
blood to, and (b) receive blood from antiB antibodies in plasma
IKVPY SA 20131 (4) Antigen A on RBCs and antFB antibodies in
plasma
('l) (a) persons with blood group "A8", and (b)
persons with any blood group 9. Deficiency of which one of the following vitamins
can cause impaired blood clotting?
(2) (a) person with blood group "A" or "48", and
(b) "A" or "O" blood groups IKVPY SA 201q

(3) (a) person with blood group "8" or "A8", and

(1) Vitamin B
(b) "8" or "O" blood groups (2) Vitamin C
(4) (a) person with any blood group, and (b) "O" (3) Vitamin D
blood group only (4) Vitamin K

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 (Level-lll Body Fluids and Circulation 45
'10. Match the different types of heart given in column
15. Arrange the following animals in the order of
A with organisms given in the column B. Choose
the correct combination.
increasing rate of heart beats. [NSE&2014

Column A Column B
i. Sh€ep

a. Neurogenic heart (i) Human

ii. Mouse

b. heart
Branchial (ii) King crab iii. Rabbit

c. Pulmonary heart (iii) Shark M Horse

IKVPY SA 20161 v Elephant
(1) a(ii). b(iii),c(i) (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i)
(1) v
ii, i, iii, iv, (2) v, iv. ii. iii, i
(3) a(i), b(iii), c(ii) (a) a(ii), b(i), c(iii)
(3) v, iv i, iii, ii (4) i, iii, iv, v, ii
11. The heart of an amphibian is usually
16. ln the accompanying diagrammatic representalion
IKVPY SA 20161 of blood vascular system, organs represented by l,
(1) Two chambered ll, lll and lV respec-tively are:
[NSEB-20131
(2) Three chambered
head
(3) Four chambered
(4) Three and hatf chambered I

12. The fluid part of blood flows in and out of

capillaries in tissue to exchange nutrients and lr
waste materials. Under which of the following
conditions will fluid flow out from the capillaries t

into the surounding tissue? [KVpy SB/SX 2010]

(1) When arterial blood pressure exceeds blood
osmotic pressure
(2) When arterial blood pressure is less than
blood osmotic pressure
(3) When arterial blood pressure is equal to blood @
osmotic pressure
tail
(4) Arterial blood pressure and blood osmotic
pressure have nothing to do with the outflow (1) Heart, gills, trunk, liver
of fluid from capilleries (2) Trunk, liver, gills, heart
13. Although blood flows through large arteries at high (3) Heart, tiver, gi s, trunk
pressure.whenthebloodreachesSmallcaoillaries
the pressure decreases because @ Gills' heart, liver, trunk

[Kvpy SB/SX 20111

17 Hlman red blood cellswhen suspended in solutions

(1) rhe varves in the arreries-resurate the rate

blood flow into the capillaries
or :l,L?^[:,:ffi,fllii];ililflillTf";Jffi:il
ot ttre'toltowing statements are true? [NsEB_20i4]
(2) The volume of blood in the capillaries is much
arteries
lesser than that in the
i. They will shrink in plasma while swefl in tap
*r,",
(3) The total cross-sectional area of capillaries
arising from an artery is much greater than
ii. They will shrink in sea water but swe in tap
that of the artery
*r,"a
(4) Elastin Iibers in the capillaries help to reduce iii They will remain unchanged in plasma but
the arterial pressure shrink in tap water

14. Stroke could be prevented/treated with M They will remain unchanged in plasma but
IKVPY SB/SX 2013] shrink in sea water
(1) Balanced diet (2) Ctofting factors (.1) i, ii, and iy (2) ii, iii and iv
(3) lnsulin (4) Btood thinners (3) ii and iv (4) i and iii
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 (Level-lll)
46 Body Fluids and Circulation

18. Sportsmen who require sustained muscular effo(s iii. The blood flow velocity is the highest in the
for long periods of time normally undergo training to capillaries.
controltheir heartfunctions. The changes that occur M The total cross-sectional area of the blood
as a result oflhis training would be [NSEB-2014] capillaries is the highest.
(1) Decreased stroke volume (1) ii and iii only
(2) lncreased heart rate and increased stroke (2) ii and iv only
volume (3) ii only
(3) Decreased heart rate and increased stroke (4) i, ii, iii and iv
vdurne
22. Which of the following would be the effects of
(4) Decreased stroke volume and increased rate increase in the body temperature of a mammal?
of breathing
lNsE&fiq
19. A patient received his medical report showing that
he has higher percentage of high density lipoproteins
i. Vasodilation of arterioles in the skin.

(HDLs) and lower levels of low density lipoproteins ii. Flattening of body hair
(LDls). This kind of lipid profile indicates that iii. Decreased blood flow to skin.
INsEB-m14I M Evaporation from body surface.
(1) He may be at high risk of developing v Decreased activity of sebaceous glands.
atherosclerotic heart disease.
(1) iand ii only
(2) There could be higher probability of blockages
(2) i, iii and v
occuning in his arteries.
(3) iii and iv only
(3) He may stay fit and healthy.
(4) i, ii and iv
(4) There could be deposition of abdominal fats.
23. lf one compares physiology of an elephant and cat,
20. What is true about the hepatic portal system? then [NSEB-2fi q
[NSEB-ml41 (1) The heart beats per minute of a cat will be
i. lt regulates nitrogen metabolism in the body. higher than an elephant.

ii. lt drains blood from all parts of the body into (2) The total heart beats in the lifetime of an
the liver. elephant will be many times that of a cat.

iii. lt helps in removing the toxins from the food. (3) Both cat and elephant will show heart rate
greater than a chicken.
iv. lt helps in regulating composition of blood.
(4) Elephant will show greater surface to volume
(1) i, ii, iii, and iv
ratio as compared to a cat.
(2) Only i, iii and iv
24. Which of the following animals has blood as
(3) Only iii and iv medium?
circulating [NSEB'2018]
(4) Only i and iii (l) Cockroach (2) Mussel
21. A few statements regarding blood circulation are (3) Leech (41 Planaia
made. Which of the statments is/are true?
25. Despite the lack of pressure, blood moves towards
INSE&20141 the heart in veins due to the [NSEB'm18]
i. Blood flow velocity increases markedly as (1) Wider bore
blood flows from arteries to arterioles. (2) Suction created due to pumping by heart
ii. ln large land animals such as giraffe, additional (3) Nanow bores of efferent capillaries
pressure is required to push blood above the
(4) Presence of valves preventing back flor'/
level of the heart.

tr Dtr
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Chopter 6

Excretory Products ond

their Eliminotion
SECTION -A 4. The kidneys function to filter the blood to produce
urine for excretion. This process occurs in millions
Obiective Type Questions of tiny structures called nephrons within the kidney.
Maximum water reabsorption in presence of The substance exiting the blood and entering the
nephron is called filkate (F). This fltrate is modifed
vasopressin occurs in
by the nephron via two mechanisms; secretion (S)
(1) PCT of nephron of substances into and reabsorption (R) of
(2) Loop of Henle substances out of the filtrate. The final product is
excreted (E). Which equation conectly summarises
(3) DCT of nephron this process?
(4) Collecting duct (1) F-(RxS) =E
2 Which statement(s) about excretion of nitrogenous (2) F-(R+S) =E
waste in animals is conect? (3) F+R+S=E
i. Fish excrete ammonia by diftrsion across the (4) F-R+S=E
gills 5. Blood hydrostatic pressure powers the process of
ii. Animals under greater osmotic stress tend to (1) Filtration across the glomerulus
excrete nitrogenous waste as uric acid (2) Reabsorption of waterand dissolved substances
iii. Mammals convert urea to ammonia to prevent at the venule end of capillary
toxicity to cells (3) Sodium gradient maintenance in the kidney
(1) i only tubules
(4) Salt and glucose reabsorption in the kidney
(2) ii only
tubules
(3) iii only
6. lf one-celled animal (Amoeba proteus) and an
(4) i and ii eMhrocyte are put into distilled water
3 Alcohol reduces the secretion of anti-diuretic (1) Both cells would be destroyed
hormone (ADH, also known as vasopressin). What (21 Amoeba will be die and the eMhrocyte would
happens when ADH levels are lorrered? go on living

('l ) There will be an increased volume of dilute urine (3) Amoeba would go on living and the erythrocyte
prcduced would die

(2) There will be an increased volurne of @ncenhated

(4) Both cells would go on living

urine produced 7. Reabsorption of H2O does not occur in

(3) There will be a decreased volume of dilute urine

(1) PCT of nephron

prcduced (2) Descending limb of loop of Henle

(4) There will be a decreased volume of concentrated (3) Ascending limb of loop of Henle
urine produced (4) DCT and collecting duct

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48 Excretory Products and their Elimination (Level-lll)

8. On an average, lhe amount of urea excreted out in 13. Which of the following statemets is inconect about
grams per day is excreted nitrogenous waste products?

_ (1) 25-30 gm (2) 3G35 gm (1) Elasmobranchs store a lot of urea in their body
fluids as an osmolyte for making them nearly
(3) 20-25 gm (4) 3il0 sm isotonic with sea water
9. lf Henle's loop were absent from mammalian (2) Lung fish, bony fish, larvae of amphibians and
nephron, which of the following is to be expected? tailed amphibians are ammonotelic in nature
(1) There will be no urine formation (3) Spiders and scorpions are guanotelic in nature
(2) The urine will have more con@ntration (4) Mammals like camel and kangaroo rat show
(3) The urine will be more diluted uricotelism as desert adaptation

(4) There will be hardly any change in the quality

and quantity of urine formed.
sEcTloll - B
10. Given statements are related to regulation of Previous Years Questions
kidney function. All of the following statemenb are 1. The Bowman's capsule, a part of the kidney is the
correct, except site of IKVPY SA 20131
(1) Renin - Released from JG cells due to fall in (1) Filkation of blood constituents
glomerular blood pressure (2) Re-absorption of water and glucose
(2) Renin-Angiotensin mechanism -
Leads to an (3) Formation of ammonia
increase in blood pre*sure and GFR
(4) Formation of urea
(3) Atrial natriuretic factor - Released from atria of
2. The major nitrogenous excretory product in
the heart due to increase in blood flow mammals is [KVPY SA 20131
(4) Osmoreceptors in the body -
Deactivated by (1) Amino acids
changes in blood volume and osmolarity
(2) Ammonia
1'1. Which of the following is not an intermediate (3) Urea
product in the biosynthesis of urea?
(4) Uric acid
(1) Citrulline
3. Both gout and kidney stone formation is caused
n
(2) Arginine by IKVPY SA 2014]
(3) Arginosuccinate (1) Calcium oxalate
(4) Oxaloacetate (2) Uric acid
12. h the diagram ofa human nephron, the functional (3) Creatinine
parts are labelled with numbers I -5. Active (4) Potassium chloride
secretion of protons into the lumen is a funclion of
4. Podocyte layer that provides outer lining to the
surface of glomerular capillaries are found in
r IKVPY SA 20161
2 v
1
(1) Bowman's capsule
t (2) Loop of Henle
(3) Renal artery
F (4) Ureter
5. The ma.ior excretory product of birds is
[](VPY SA 2014
(1) 2,4 and 5 (1) Urea

(21 Only 2 and 4 (2) Uric acid

(3) Only 4 (3) Nitrates

(4) Only 5 (4) Ammonia

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(Levellll) Excretory Products and their Elimination 49

6 Water from the two tanks shown in the diagram 10. Counter (xinent mechanism has no role to play in
was tested 3 hours after they were stocked with
INSE&20141
indicated animals. The predominanl nilrogenous
waste detected in Tank I and Tank ll respectively (1) Fish gills
rrvould be [NSEB-2014 (2) Whale fin
(3) Human lungs
Tank I Tank ll
(4) Penguin leg
Tadpoles Frogs
11. Vvhen Hyas araneus, a sea dab, is placed in dilute
sea wate( for some lime it swells and gains weight.
Thereafler it slowly starts losing weight. mile losing
(1) Urea in both weight, if it is transfened back to normal sea water,
(2) Ammonia in both itwill [NSEB-m1q
(3) Amrnonia and wea (1) Further lose weight

(4) Urea and uric acid (2) Swell again

7 Antidiuretic hormone has ths most abundant (3) Die as it is a non-conformer

receptors in the kidneys of: [NSEB-2014 (4) Remain iso-osmotic to external medium by
(1) Frogs in tropical pond losing salts

(2) Rabbits in a grass land 12. lnulin is a plant polysaccharide. lt can pass in

(3) Spotted deer in moist evergreen fo{€st
(4) Kangaroo rats in deserts
8 Glucose is a high threshold substance and geb
reabsorH from ulra filtrate during urine fomaton.
After consuming a lot of sweets, urine of the
ultafilrate but is neither secreted nor re.absorbed
by tubules. Hence, ratio of its concenfation in urine/
blood is 1. Mark the conect statemenus.
lNsE&201q
i . Substance that is filtered as well as secreted by

otheMise healthy person also shows presence of tubules will shorv urine/blood ratio lower than that

glucose. This poves that reabsoption of glumse for inulin.

1NSE&2013t
ii. lnulin can be used to study activity oftubules.

(1) Varies from time to time. iii. Glucose will show lower urine/blood ratio than
inulin.
(2) ls time indepndent
(3) ls concentation dependent
M lnulin can be used to study rate of ultrafltration.

(1) i and ii
(4) ls energy intensive
(2) ii and iv
9 ln an experimant, when Arroeba was transfened
from container A to container B, the activity of (3) iii and iv
contradile vaqlole increased. Hoieve( the vaorole (4) Only iii
activity decreased when the Amoeba was
transfened back to container A. The containers A
13. The least percentage ofwater is encountered in the

and B respectively contain [NSE&Zl14l [NSE&2014

(1) Fresh and marine waler (1) Fluid in convoluted tubule
(2) Marine and fresh water (2) Filtrate in Bowman's capsule
(3) Oilute HCI and distilled water (3) Blood plasma in glomerulus
(4) Distilled water and dilute HCI (4) Fittrate in renal capsule

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50 Excretory Products and their Eliminataon (Level-lll)

'14. ln principle, longest Henle's loop should be found in The net filtration pressure will be
the nephrons of desert dwelling mammal feeding (1) I + ll + lll (2) l- (ll + lll)
mainly on: [NSEB-20181 (3) (r +ilr)-il (4) il-(r +ilt)
(1) Succulent cactus
17. A few transporters present in cell's proximal
(2) Fleshy fruits convoluted tubules of nephron are shown. Mark the
option that correctly depicts the subslances
(3) Leathery leaves
transported. [NSEB-20181
(4) Seeds
15. Mark the conec{ option that shows highest to lowest
o/o
resorption ofsubstances from nephron: X P Na'

INSEB.fi8l KI o
(1) Water > Sodium > Urea
(2) Glucose > Water > Urea Lumen Blood

(3) Water > Urea > Glucose

(4) Urea > Glucose > Sodium
Na'R

16. Filtration rate through kidneys is dependent on the SH'

filtration pressure. This is turn depends on the
following threefactors: [NSEB-20181
Apical Basolateral
Membrane Membrane
L Glomerular blood hydrostatic pressure

ll. Capsular hydrostatic pressure (1) X:glucose, Y: H- (2) R:Na', S:H'

lll. Blood colloid osmotic pressure (3) P: Na', Q: HCO; (4) P: K., Q: H2O

f DD

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SOLUTIONS
of
PHYSIGS, GHEMISTBY,
BI|IANY E Zlllll.llGY
([euel-lll]
i
I
I

t
I
PHYSICS
(Level - m)
I

Chapter 4 : Motion in a Plane

Objsclive Typ6 Ou.stions

Answer (3)
-
1

Let the length of the rod is L, then

L2=*+f
+ o=zxff+2r dy
dt

dy _ x (dx.l
' dt y\dt )
dx
Given
dt-
=Y

dy
Then = - (cot 0)y ..(i)
dt

.'. Velocity of centre ot roO will be V = Ii - It*t o)i

2'
,2 /

,l .l - Icote)
2

2)
.'6"do v
=
2 2sin0
2. Answer (2)
From the figure

tan o = 1
D
= x = D(tan0)

dx llsec'8-
- .c0
=
-dt dt

... Y=-l-l
D fde\
cos'o\dtl
clo v ,-
= -dtD
= -COS'o
52 Motion in a Plane Solutions (Level-lll)

3. Answer (3)
\
v2

as r decreases a increases.
4. Answer (3)
ycomponents of the velocity at A
ur=0 ay = -gtcose
v
o
, 2,
H = u..t +1a..12

H=o+locose^(r
2" \2 I
H= Bgcosor'
5. Answer (3)
Since, v, = 1

- dx = tdt

t2
X =-+C
2

using initial condition c = 0

t2
Here.
2

So,
f x3
t6
2 8

t2 t3 f6
y2
v
v
2 '6 36

dy x3-ig
-t2
dt2 or
,z
t3
Ol Y=-+C
o
again C = 0
6. Answer (3)

i=rcosei+rsinoi
=zti +2t(3t)i
=Zti +6t'zj

>i =zi +tztj

_a =12j
Also,x=2tandy=6f
=v=1.5f

0
I

i Solutions (Level-lll) Motion in a Plane

Path is parabola
=
Minimum value of radius of curvature (at vertex)
r 22 1
I
123
7 Answer (2)
I

41 $ms 1, , = ----.]E:g!]--
(D-vt)'+(a-ut)'

For o to be maximu, =o
#
ua+vb

u2 +v2
= @.- =
lva
_ ubl

8. Answer (1)

t2 t2
2
y2 =2xl2
v,= t Y= t
ar= 1 ar= 0
9. Answer (1)
w.r.t. elevator
I= 5 s
2.Y'
-. a cos37'
acos37'
o---'rx P 0 n/s
2x10x5 -
a\4
s

=a=5m/s2
10. Anstver (4)
Let the target be at a distance R.
Let 0 be required angle.

Then, - u2 sin20
H=
9

Now, R-6= u'z?60" .(1)

R*g=rr tito' ...(z)

c
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54 Molion in a Plane Solutions (Level-lll)

9Ji +12
From (1) & (2) R = -r-l5-
"2
and:=R+9
u'? sln 2e
Nofl, R = (where 0 is the required angte ot pqection)
I
...' sin2e=4=-i-
u2 R+9
n
solvirp sin2o=18j1

e= 16n-'f 36*ll
2 [ 10 .,
11. Ans\rcr(1)
Let point P moves with velocity v and ib direclion makes angb e wfft ,r.
Noiv,ysin0=yt (D

and v sin(c - 0) = v, ...(ii)

SolvirE (i) and (ii), $€ g8t

+vl+Zvrvrcosa
stn c
'12. Ans,wer (2)

tan 45" = a
+
:+ at= ar

= a.r= Gr
+ a = (crtf

? l=-l-=-/-s n/8
Yc Ir
13. Answer (1)

i" =1zti +nojy

i" = v.,i +v"j + (zot -1ot\ft

\ 2')
Condition for stone to hit the block is
2t = vl,
40m=vrt

20t-lot'?=O
2-
Yz = 10 m/s
Solutions (Level-lll) Motion in a Plane 55
14. Answer (3)
._2
Normal reaction is perpendicular to tangent at A. Given y = L, slope at any point on the wire track is
a
0)
ane=L
dx

tane = ?I
a
At point (a, a), slope tano = 2 0

Nou/ From Nelvton's Law to$/ards centre,

Nsin0 = mrr:Fa .... (0
and in vertfurl directlon.
Ncose = ,r,g (i0
divije equation (i) by equation (ii)
.
uln8 =
a2a
0
g
- o'a
6 acc. =

mg
{;
15. AnswBr (3)
16. Ans €r (4)
The acceleration tangent to the indine of the helix is given by

ar=gsin0,
where 0 is the angle of incline of the helix. As it accelerates, it moves faster, according to v = 4t
a? ,z
Since this is motion in a circle, th6n there is a radial acceleration given by a, =4=

The magnitude of the acceleration ;5 16en

"
= .ff * q' = a, a,'? - +t.
17. Ans-wer (1)
18. Answer (1)

ip =ip.+i"

lvo
9oo2 3oo2
(e
V"i

= 300J8 km I trr A

.5005 r-
500 km
300J8 3J8
19. Answer (3)
Use

. _!i,,,i,"
'm. - -'i:-i-
lv'zl
20. Answer (2)
By using formula ot R and H
Aakah Educsuonal
56 Motion in a Plane Solutions (Level-lll)

21. Answer (3)

22. Answer (2)
t
. E;12*, E-2,10 =2s
l= l-
! s I 10 I
I
23. Answer ('l )
I
o=- I
L sin0
24. Answer (3)

ol,5b=to,6b

o1 q
62 5

25. Answer (2) I

v=2t+ 1,
I
E2
v = 5 m/s, at= 2, ac=
R

25 25
R I +22 =4 =R= 2J3
26. Answer (4)
27. Answer (1)
28. Answer (2)
29. Answer (2)
30. Answer (3)

Previous Years Ouestions

1. Answer (4)

To minimize the drifring

Y, 1
s1n6 =
Yb*= 2 g
vl2
0=30o

900+0 = l20o

2. Answor (4)
Towards north,4 = 3.18 sin 25o ='1.34 km

and, to ards east, d2 = 3.18 cos25o = 2.88 km

3. An$,er (3)
(a"), _atrx2R
(""), q'rR
lllZx2
8=
,?
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Solutions (Level-lll Motion in a Plane 57
az
q -n
T,
=1
Tr2
r -T
4. Ansvver (4)

Ir=3min Tz = 24 min
2n (2rt
or=TQ - lza) _t_t

or =8(r5 = oo (Say)
for dosest
Soot-(oot=/Vrr

=ot(fi),=,"
2
=l 7
t = 12 is the tim€ of dos€st distance
fur brtrest
Sorof-obt=(2r)l/
,=(4\,
' \71
I = 24 in time of farthest distanco
5. Ansrer (4)
For max spe€d

L ( 1\(2n\
_=t_ll_t
v,*, (z/lo./

=,,*=(ff=(#)tr',,u*y
vnr. = 600 m/s
Also

L (3\2n
;=lzJ; +Y=2oory's

6. Ansrver (1)

x2 y2
_+
a2 b'
u,=uat(0,b)
ur= o

2xdx 2ydy ^
a' dt b2 dt

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58 Motion in a Plane Solutions (Level-lll)

Again differenciate

2xd2x 2 (dx12 .zydzy .2(dy\

7 dF'?ldt ) 'FE-FlA )-"^
acceleration at (0, D) is

a__
-b u 2
a-
7 Answer (2)

dr
d0
(dt\l=rlfdo)
-,1-
td,./ (dr,
-l
Vr=lxa (i)

and Vt= ar . (ii)

... tane=[=1
vl

;0=45o
8. An$ver (2)
The direction along which the particle moves is the direciion of velocity which is tum, is the sloP€ of he traieclory.

rhis is lEl
Ldx J(0,_<)
= En(o) = 3 .

9. Answer (3)

lf the particle A is at(x, y), particle Ewillbe at (x, O). The speed of B is given to be which isalso
ff=r,=lm/s

he x component of the velocity of A. Since for partide a he equation of haieclo ryis v v =

E - dx - v, = 3 m/s .

Therefore, speed ofA is ,2 +v 12 = 3J2

10. Answer (4)

2(H - hl Ei
lf h is the required height, the time required to cover (H - h) is
g
and that to mver h is
\it lf sum of

-
these two tim6s is ( use the condition = O to g"t tt'" ,n.rn"r.
#

tr B o

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Solutions (Level-lll) Laws of Motion 59

Ghapter 5 : Laws of Motion

I Objeclive Type Questlons

1. Answer (1)

F
Box does not move unless F >psmg when force crosses the limiting friction, a=--lt$. There is

transition of fric-tional force.

2. An$er (4)
r-;-'--=
a=J22 +62 =J4[=2J-1[ 6sz
3. Answer (3)
r=25N
T-20=2a

a=5=2.5ms-2
2

4. An$r,er (2)

By constraint relation, Yl cos

=r 0 = '120'

5. Answer (3)
2

+ rl2
r)
Skiding occurs when 4et ) pg

. +c'>pg

) v1 =10j292 -d2lt2l

- v =l0ig2 - u-2\r2lr,,

6. Answer (2)
As tension and masses are same, hence in ground frame

4nonreY = 4556, =a(saY)

23 = 4nont"y..p"

.'. 2a=2(given)
= a=1m/s2

... t=
P-=211s
 Laws of Motion Solutions (Level-lll)

7. Anwer (2)

- M( L+
f=-l-lo+-v'
x\ M "
L\2T L

Ms (t + 3x)
L\ 2 ) (,=.8)
8. Answer (1)
9. Answer (2)

F-mrg=(M+m1la
m-o
a= --!:'
m1

10. Answer (2)

'I l. Answer (2)
m, g sinu = m, gsinp
m.| _ sinp
mz sinc
12. Ansrver (2)

=F
-l =F
-w',9
= 1o m/s,
^'ml mi

-F
= 'wrg = -a
^' tn, ^,",
... =flro-CrtlY =1vnv4 =22 61 ,
" t
13. Ansiler(3) I
When they mo\re togethe r, , =J
=
2+3+4=F-I
Now, this 'a should be less han or equal to maximum possiblo @leralion of the blocks.

For 4 kg, .^4

an", =9Jt!?tJ)t1i =1.25rnls2

For (3 + 4) kg block "n* =!513119=1.4rv5'

F
-<125
I
+ F<11.25N
14. Ans,ver (3)
T2

T,
I,
2
A

t,
2

mg
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Solutions (Level-lll) Layrs of Motion 61

The C.G of the triangle will lie on the median. The resultant of T2 and T3 must pass though ,A.

mg
J

15. Answer (2)

The maximum tension (at bottom) is

mv2
-l=mo+-
I

By energy conservation

1-
:myz
2
= mgl(1- cos60)

=+T=2ntg.2x2x10=40N
For no slipping, f < B,Vb
40<PxBx10
p > 0.50
16 Answer (2)
At mid point, tension is horizontal. Consider the FBD of half part,
Isine
T
0
Icose

T,
g_
2
m9
rsino =
2

Icose = Io -Tr=#
nnsver (1)
Consider the FBD of cirwlar pan
T, T+dT
For the element do, df = dmg @
T,l T
dzrgt cos0
= i"nscosem
Jar
TL

Tr= Tr+ )fig T,

lg
2

- -).o-2
H =;+Lgx-
t

18. Answer (1)

Ft2
(r) m
F
@
Force acting on each block is in the ratio of masses. No slipping tendency. So, no frictional force will act.

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62 Laws of Motion Solutions (Levellll)

19. Answer (3)

I
By drawing F.B.D of both block it can be seen.
Mg sin30' = mg

*=zM
20. Answer (3) t
ln frame of reference ofwedge Mg sino

f = M.,9 - M,g sin'9

MtQ
= Mtg
22-
-Mt! s
21. Answer (2)

N cosd
N cos0

a1

mg mg sino
m9 sin(I N sina
gn(x mg mg m9 @s0

mgsino- Ncosc= rna1 ..(i)

N cosa - mg sinn = ma, ..(iD

(By constraint) a1 = a, ..(iii)

N = rng tano
22. Answer (4)

\
6Yo
I
I

Let the block rises with speed yo. so, the three pulleys connecled with the block move up with sp€ed vo.

The velocity of reeling is 6vo + v0 = v

vo=
1
23. Answer (2)
Equation of parabola ; * = 4aY

Here la = 4aF where 1sf = t1s61 + a=

]
F=2P 1..,r-F)
\ 2)

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Solutions (Level-lll) Laws of Motion 63

Acceterarion
Ffdv
"=i=i=A
v 5,2
lav =
o
Lot
o"

=' ,={4.]'=125
513lo 15 =a.aam/s

24. Answer (2)

d
The block will b€ experiencing ftidional force iom the 2 adiacent walls of the trough

:. f =2p*N*rd ry.P = mgcose

25. Ans\rrer (2)

The FBD of x length is shown in figurc

x (mx\ a .,1a
r_ rr,9 sine
L=( LI X

mx
f=-[9sino+a] sne
ffs
26. Answer (1)

( zum \
T = lM -;9 (This is tension the sting connecling the masses)

4Mm
Reading = 2f =
W+mlg
=4 r,9 (when M>>m,M+m-lA
Ansr'ref (3)

lf there is no extension, only forcos on the block is the normal rBaclion and weight.

mg
Ncos0=rng
N sino = ma

= a=gtan0

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64 Laws of Motion Solutions (Level-lll)

28. Anwer (2)

ao coso

ao

aosin0

The components of acceleration along @mmon normal should be same

So,aosin0=a
29. An$!,er (2)
mo
mo- L
s (downwards)
Acceleration olm= m' 3
m+
2

= Acceleration of ^23
=g (upwards)

29
a
3

- ,=n*
- 7(23\p
2\ 3 )'
1'
30.
,=
Anslver (3)
it
The FBD of fourth ball is shoxn

B Rsec 30"
*o=n=
F

n =E
1
F
F

d sino=rtr=rE 2R

Now 3F sino = rng

2R
-mgmg
3sine Je R
2R
31. An$,er (2)

6A=
",(,-3"
For v to be ,*' ,,, (, - lJ is maximum
"
=# ["t-;)"]='
1- 2rH- =0
R
2
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 Solutions (Level-lll) Laws of l\.4otion 6s

I Prcvious Years Quostions

1. Answer (1)
lnitially when the block does not move the friction is static in nature and it will be equal (& opposite) to the
magnitude of applied force so initially friction will increase. But once the body starts the motion, the kinetic
friction will act and it does not change with applied force
2. Answer (3)

To nullify the downward acceleration

(M.+ Ms) 9.8 = 40 x 500 t 49 r 10r
+ (M, + Mr) = 100 kg
3. Answer (1)

t' IF",, =o
''' drrr,"" = 0

4. Answer (3)

4:.t=W
5. Ansriler (4)
ln an evacuated cfiamb€r, in absenca of air, buoyancy force due to air on box is absent.
6. Ansrrer (1)
Acco.ding to free body diagram
J -+a -+a
f = p/V

29
89
F- 8a rV = ... (D
N=2a ...(iD
t=29=n ... (iii)
'+ tJV = 20

_ __
=p=2!=!=rc
p 0.5 ...(tv)

+ N=2a

=r={={=zorw.'
22 ...(v)
F = ,V + 8a = 10 a tfrom eqmoon (i)t
F = 10 20 = 200 narton
'
 -l
66 Laws of Motion Solutaons (Level-lll)

7 Answer (1 )

pmg+-
va

a=pg d= 1 m
Velocity after time t
v = vo- Itgt
y>0+yo>pg, (i) I
Displacement in time 'f

tX = v^t " -!uot2 I

2''
1
t=zv"-)voe)"
2v, =(1+2yg)

1
t's (ii)
,*
1
-+ pg trst (t=2s)
2
'l
-+
2
p9 zpg

p9 ., 1

1
tl<-
'29
p < 0.05

8. Answer (4)
T, T.

2f, cos30' = 50

r, liru
'= .j'3

I sin30' = f
r =4=MN
9. Answer (3)

P(t - fl\g = ftg

p(l - f) -f
f(1+ p1 = p1

.1
1-tt
I t+
\ [.r
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Sotutions (Levellll) Laws of Motion 67

10. Answer (3)

M1 moves down with uniform speed i.e. system is in equilibrium Hence
M.g = T., (i)

r,=M,sl+r,-ry,t (ii)

-M$
'4
L M3
He nce Mr=6Mr+
4

lt,5
=19r1=42 ko

11. Answer (3)

Spring constrant k is proportional to tr- = renstn of spring)

f
spring then force at each end is
lf x is elongation of the spring and k is spring constant for entire length L of the
F=kx.
1
At;tl, of spring length, spring constant for that segment will be 4 k and elongation will
be
| .

1
Force at point lensth. will be
;th of spring
F =F =t4kt( L)=rr
' '\ 41
12. Answer (4)
Acceleration in the string
F
m
m^g
;. g=ma9 -
mB+mA

Body A moves upwatds wih a force = m^,

lN
=2yet9:
nlg )r n1
=41

13' Ansrcr (2)

en\- m)s
writa the equations using ususl free body diag|ams b g6t fie acceleration of m ., ." iG *ij and similarly

for m2. Using the relatbn b€tvvsen the distance tavelled and the time required we get the required ratio.
14. Answer (2)
is the
Using the free body diagrams for the t ro rtass€s and no0{ng that tho magnitud€ of acceleration of the trvo

sam€, the tension in the sfing com€s out O Ue Afso nof that the reading on the spring balance must be
f .

twk e the tension in the string.

15. Answer (2)
Let o be lhe angle made by eacfi string with vertide diroction
I, cosu = [ coe<r + rB so that (( - I) coo o = ng
 68 Laws of Motion Solutions (Level-lll)

11 sina + I, sina + mr 0f so that (I1 + Iz) sin c = mr of

This gives tan 0 =

(T'' -T, ra2
(I *r,)s
Alsotan a= r =2r
nlz h
T, -T,
T.,+7.
=29
ha2

. 2o T,-7" 1
but ttt = -g so that
lii = 4
rnissivesf=3
'16. Answer ( 1)

As per road design, the rated speed is zo nvs. Now the speed is to be 40 m/s which wil b€ herped
.,@tano =

v2coso-gRsino ..
by rriction. with the hetp of free bod
y diagram, we can get lr" = .
. using tano = 0.2, we get
,6cosei, sine

tr" = 0.517 = 0.52 approximately.

'17. Answer (3)

Case-l: q=-I
N, = m1,t = \
3
f,
Case - ll : a2=
3m

N. = zma, =2tz
3

... . =M -L=2lrf, =?
3 3f2 1

otr o

d
=
9

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 CHEMISTRY
(Level - III)

Ghapter 3 : Classification of Elements and

Periodicity in Properties

f Objective Type Questions

1. Answer (3)

2. Answer (2)

3. Answer (4)

4. Answer (4)

5. Answer (2)

6. Answer (3)
Mg and Al belong to third period so larger than B and Be.

7. Answer (2)

8. Answer (3)

P3- > 52- > K* > Ca'z lsoelectronic ions

9. Answer (2)
(1) = All metals, (3) = All nonmetals,

(4) = All metats

10. Answer (2)

Down the group ionisation energy decreases.

'1'1. Answer (2)

12. Answer (4)

'13. Answer (3)

14. Answer (3)

15. Answer (3)

16. Answer (4)

17. Answer (2)

'18. Answer (3)

19. Answer (4)

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70 Classitication of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Solutions (Level-lll)

20. Answer (4)

21. Answer (2)

22. Answer (2)

High lE Non metals

=
Non metals are generally oxidising and form acidic oxides.

23. Answer (1)

A is sodium and second ionisation energy will be very high as the elecfon has to be removed from completely
flled 2p subshell.
24. Answer (1)

Modem periodic law states that the prop€rties of elemenls are periodic func{ion of their atomic number.

25. Ansrver (4)

The electron gain enthalpy of F is less negative than that of Cl due to small size which increases the
intereleclronic repulsion.

26. Ans,wer (4)

Et is isoelectronic to F- i.e. it has 10 eleclrons. So element E should have 11e-.

27. Answer (2)

Valency first increases and then decreases on moving from lefr to right in the Modem Periodic Table.

28. An$.ver (4)

29. Answer (4)

Weak van der Waals forces of attsaclion are present in noble gases. van der Waals radii is always larger lhan
the covalent radius.

30. Answer (4)

CO, NO and N2O are neulral oxides.

31. Answer (4)

B2O3 is acidic and ln2o3 and Tl2O3 are basic.

Previous Year Questions

1. Answer (2)

Atomic radii of the elements across the period of the periodic table decreases due to increase in effective
nuclear charge.

2. Answer (3)

3. Answer (3)

Radius * -1
z

Conect order is r" > rr"* > r.,*2

4. Answer (3)

Na., Mg-'?, F , Or all have 10e .

Solutions (Level-lll) Classilication of Elements and Periodicity in Properties 71

5. Answer (1)

CO and N, are isoelectonic because both have 14 electrons.

6. Answer ('l)

First ionisation enhalpbs for thre€ el€rnents are 1314, 1680, 2080. These ars in increasing order so el€m€nb
should be O, F, Ne

7. Answer (3)

Mendeleev's periodic table state the property of elements are periodic function of their atomic mass.

8. Answer (2)

Oa is isoelectonic with Mg.z

O-2-;8+2=10e-

Mg'2-+12-2=10e-
9. tuswer (2)
Na = 1s'? 2s2 2pt 3st
lla.=ls'z2szpr=lNel
[Nel is ino.t g6s, so, el€cfon romoval is wry diffcult 8o l.P. iE t ery high

Na*2 -+ 1s22d2ps

10. Ansrver (1)

ln a pedod, atofliic radi6 decl€s€s as efiec1iv6 nudear cfiaeE increas€s.

Li >Bo>C>N
11. Answor (2)

l.E.:Na<B<O<N
12. AnsrrBr (1)

Down th6 group, addic sfength of oxide decreasB.

13. AnsYUor (2)

l,lo. of 6bctrom in S{ = 18
No. of elecfrom in Ce*2 = '18

14. Ans\,t'q (4)

Atomic radii : Na > Li > Si > F

15. Answer(1)
1.E., : Na <Al < Mg < Si
16. Ansvvor (3)

Thee is a hrge difierence in valu€s of lEs and lE .

.'. The ol€mont has 3 valenco elecfrons.

17. Answsr(3)
Floudne is th€ rno6t €lecton€gative oloment. El€.fionic confrguralion of F = 1 s? 2s, 2p5.
72 Classilication of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Solutions (Level-lll)

18. Answer (1)

ln isoelectronic species, ionic radius follows the order

02>F->Na*>A1.3
19. Answer (4)

No. ofe- in NH3= 10

in CH,- = g

in NH; = 19

in NHot = 19

o tr tr

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Solutions (Level-ll Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Chapter 4 : Chemical Bonding and

Molecular Structure

I Objective Type Questions

1. Answer (4)
2. Answer (3)

d)",.
R= 2
+ pf + 2p,p, cos60o

0.36)2 + (0.36)2 +2(0.3612 x)

= O.36xf
= 0.36 t 1.732

= 0.62 D
3. An$ver (4)
The dipole moment of :CClz is non-zero due to bent shaPe.
4. Answer(l)
5. Answer(4)
Nifogen is chemically inert due to absence of bond polarity.
6. Answer(1)
Due to back bonding BF3 is weaker acid, among these given lewis acids back bonding is stronger in B - F.

7. Answer(4)
ln N2 th€re are pfl - prs bonding ibef and in CN- there is pa - p,r bonding between C and N.

8. Answer (2)

li\
P+P

9.
V
Answer (2)

NH3 hybridisation is Sf, ,l =+ oo'

=
f
N 5+5= c- ''
PCI.
2= z sq"o'

BCt3
|=f =s--,"n'
ln [Ptcla]2 hybridisation is dsf.
 74 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure Solutions (Level-lll)

'10. Answer(4)

*., |=T= u, ronepairs= 5-4 = 1

--
cte.
N 4+4
,= , =4. lonepairs=4-4=0

*"t, )=T=u, tonepairs= 6-4 =2

11. Answer (1)

The gsometry of lF? is pentagonalbipyramidal.

12. Answer (3)

% ionic characler = 161(\-XB)l + 3.51(X^- X")1'?. Here, X^and XB are the electronegativities ofAand B atom
13. Answer(1)
Bond energy - 66n6 srdgl
14. Answer(2)
15. Ans\iler(2)
16. Anwer(2)
'17. Answer(3)
18. Answ8r (3)

19. Ans\ sr (1)

20. Answer(1)
21. Ansl,er(3)
22. Ans-Yver(2)
23. Answer(2)
24. Answer(4)
25. Ans\ er(2)
26. Ansler (4)
27. Answer (4)

CH3-N-N=O
Ir.
28. Answer (1)
29. Answer (3)
30. Answer (4)
Bond order O, = 2, Oz. = 2.5
As bond order increases, bond length decreases
02 has two unpaired electrons.
02* has one unpaired electron.
Solutions (Level-, il) Chemical Bondinq and Molecular Structure 75

31. Answer (3)

32. Answer (2)
Dipole forces CH3CHO > CH3OCH3
So acetaldehyde has higher boiling point.
33. Answer (3)
SF6 is symmetrical with zero dipole moment.
34. Answer (2)
Smaller is size more is lattice energy.
35. Answer (2)
36. Answer (3)
37. Answer (2)
Central carbon is sP hybridised.
38. Answer (l)
Due to resonance.
39. Answer (3)
40. Answer (2)
41. Answer (2)
Moh/s salt = (NH4)2 Fe(SO4)2.6H2O
42. Answer (1)
The lone pair of electrons of central atom are present at equatorial position'
43. Answer (3)

Fo
t//
Df( see-sa',, snape
Fv
sp3d hybridised
44. Answer (4)
lF7, SF6 and PCl5 have more lhan eight electrons around the @ntral atom'

45. Answer (3)

p, p.

,16. Ans,wer (3)

01
7,ll\
H+I
H
O
H rt\ Qt

F
tL = 1.47 [r = 0.23 D
p for BeF, and BF3 is 0
 76 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Slructure Solutions (Level-lll)

Previous Years Questions

1 Answer (2)

BCl3 is electron deficient

:Cl :B: Cl:, Cleady B has only 6 e , Octel is not complete.

2. Answer (2)

KA|(SQ),.12H,O, x = 2

3. Answer (3)

Atomic no 33 and 17 belongs to 15b & 17,' group respectively therefore co-vatent bond

,x
is formed between
both elements.

Atomic no. 33 = As
-----+AsCl3
Atomic no. 17 = Cl

4. Answer (4)

Alkali Metals has highest tendency to form ionic bond.

1s2 2s2 2pa 3sl [Na metal]

5. Answer (1)

Electronegativity * % s character

cHr < CH2=CH2 < CH=CH

sp3 spz sp
25% s charader 33.3% s character 50% s character

6. Answer (1)

7. Answer (4)

Bond order of O.l

Total eleclron = 18

Configuration = o(lsf o*(1sFo(2sF o* (2sFo (2p.F rlQp,f n(2prf tt*(2p,1r*(2prf

Nu - N" ,1.g
3qn6 s16g1 = =
2

8. Answer (3)

Three bond pair and two lone pair present in ClF3 molecule

\1
:ar -F
,/[
T- shape

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Solutions (Level-lll) Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure TI
o Answer (1)

The correct slructure of PC|3F, is

ct
Trigonal bipyramidal
ct

10. Answer (3)

(A) O, B'O =2

(B) F,. B.O = I

(C) O,- B.O = 2.5
(D) F; B.o = 0.s
11. Answer (4)

ii

",/j,\,
p+0
'I 2. Answer (1 )

Bond Lenoth
- Bond order

CO, B.O. = 3

o=c=o,B.o.=2
o-
o:c ( B.O.=1.33
o-
'13. Answer (4)

Species having unpaired electron are paramagnelic and without unpaired are diamagnetic :N = O .l unpaired
electron O, 2 unpaired e- (MOT) ,N = O
j unpaired electron CO, no unpaired electron
d
14. Answer (2)
H-C-H H-N-H H-o-H
@@@
B.P =4B.P=3 B.P.=2
L,P =0 L.P=1 L.P=1
Hybridizataon E sp' "p'
Bond angle 1090,28', 1070.',1 1M.50

15. Answer(4)
16. Answer (4)

Oipole moment * difierence in electonegativity

Aakash Educational
78 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure Solutions (Level-lll)

17. Answer (2)

18. Answer (4)

F
I 2-

'19. Answer (1)

F
+< F

T€haped

20. Answer (3)

r-"tti"" -
"n"rsv l9&l
since charges are same.

I
Lattice energy * -.
r

Smaller the cation and anion, greater is the lattice energy.

NaF>NaCl >KCl > RbCl.

21. Answer(4)

Metals that belong to Fblock are less metallic than s-block elements.

... SnCl. has maximum covalent character.

22. Answer (3)

Hybridisation of central atom in CH! is sp'?.

23. Answer (1)

Fact

24. Answer (2)

No. ol bonding e -No. ofAntibonding e-

Bond order =
2

'l
2

25. Answer (4)

ln H-bonding, hydrogen atom should be attached to more electronegative atom.

I
Solutions (Level-lll) Chemical Bondinq and Molecular Structure 79

26. Answer (3)

F +-- p=0

27. Answer (4)

Bond order of NO' = 3
28. Answer (1)

O=C=O
Linear
t)x /t\
ooo'o /\o
Benl Bent Bent

29. Answer (3)

Oipole moment: NH. > NF, > (CO, = CH.)
30. Answer(2)
-o\
N-+O
./
Trigonal planar

31. Answer (3)

Stability of molecule/ion depends on bond order.
32. Answer (1)
According to bent rule more E.N. atom should be placed at axial position
33. Conect option is (2)

f BF; and NH;

34. Answer (3)

a

0 o
\H
"'l H
Direc,tions of Bond Directions of Eond
dipole end I p. dipole dipole ard l. p. dipole
are salrle are opposite

Hence H2O > NH3 > NF3

35. Answer(3)
q. (BO = 2.5; maximum in available options)

So, itwill have shortest bond length.

36. An$ver (3)
Fact

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 \
80 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure Solutions (Level-lll)

37. Answer (1)

38. Answer (1)

+1

-,0/\
39. Answer (3)
SF. + sp3d

1,,,
see saw
it.
F

trDD

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 BOTANY
(Level - III)

Chapter 4 : Biological Classification

SECTION -A
Obiective Type Questions
1. Answer (1)
Viruses have either DNA or RNA.
2. Answer (4)
3. Answer (2)
Slime moulds, dianoflagellates and diatoms belong to kingdom protista.
Mycoplasma and cyanobacteria belong to kingdom monera.
4. Answer (2)
Structure A represents DNA polynucleotide (gene).
5. Answer (3)
Structure B represents recombinant DNA which has interferon gene and plasmid vector.
6. Answer (1)
The mixed virus have RNA of TMV which infects only plants of Solanaceae family. Protein cannot infect the
plant.

7. Answer (3)
I Answer (2)
Nostoc and Anabaena.
9. Answer (4)
10 Answer (3)

Certain species of cyanobacteria possess some special cells called heterocyst. These cells are devoid of
photosystem ll. Nitrogenase enzyme convert atmospheric N2 into ammonia. Nitrogenase enzyme can only work
in the absence of 02. Therefore, these cells are modified in such a way that they lack photosystem ll, which is
responsible for 02 production by breaking down H2O.
'11. Answer (3)
12. Answer (4)
ln Dinoflagellates, nuclear membrane persist during cell division and chromosome lacks histone protein.
13. Answer (2)
HIV is a retrovirus. Replicates via DNA

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82 Biological Classification Solutions (Level-lll)

14. Answer (3)

Mycaplasma @n pass through bacterial fitters.

15. Answer (4)
16. Answer (3)
'17. Answer (3)
18. Answer (1)
16SFRNA genes

19. Answer (4)

Prokaryotes lack histones.

20. Answer (4)

Archaebacteria lack peptidoglycan.

21. Answer (3)

Silica is poor conductor of heat.

22. Answer (3)

23. Answer (1)

24. Answer (l )
Stigma contains proteinaceous photoreceptors.

25. Answer (3)

26. Answer (4)

27. Answ6r (2)

Aspergillus flavus.

28. Answer (2)

29. Answer (1)

Puccinia is heterocious as it requires two host.

30. Answer (2)

31. Answer (4)
Viruses have either DNA or RNA

32. Answer (2)

33. Answer (1)

Prevlous Years Questions

1. Answer (4)

Genetic recombination through a virus or bacteriophage is termed as transduction

2. Answer (3)

3. Answer (2)

As viruses are non-living outside the host.

4. Answer (4)

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 Solutions (Level-ll r) Biological Classification 8:l

5. Answer (2)
not all
TMV affects the photosynthetic tissues of the plants belong to Solanaceae as well as other dicots bul
the monocots and gymnosperms.

6. Answer (1)

7. Answer (4)

8. Answer (2)

9. Answer (1)

A bacterial colony on culture media is formed on repetitive division of bacterium'

10. Answer (4)

Rhinovirus are the primary cause of common cold.

11. Answer (3)

Ebola virus consist of ss RNA.

'12. Answer (3)

13. Answer (3)

Rotifers - minute aquatic animals.

14. Answer (4)

Eukarya includes protista, animalia, fungi and plantae. Bacteria have similarity with chloroplast and
mitochondria.
'15. Answer (2)

As radioactive sulphur is present in the culture medium, so the newly formed bacteria phage will have
radioactive protein coat as sulphur incorporate in protein.

16. Answer (1)

17. Answer (3)

Photosynthesis is high during day time.

Bioluminescene occurs during night time.

18. Answer (4)
'19. Answer (3)

20. Answer (2)

21. Answer

B C D E

T T T T

22. Answer

III I
B D E

o DD

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84 Morphology of Floweri ng Plants Solutions (Level-lll)

Chapter 5 : Morphology of Flowering Plants

SECTION - A
Objective Type Questions
Answer (4)
The primary function of root hair is to increase the roots surface area to absorb more nutrient and waler.
2 Answer (1)
Most of the dicots lack endosperm. t

3 Answer (4)
Coleorhizae are the covering present around radicle in monocot seeds. Radicle and plumule are present in both
monocot as well as dicot seeds. Aleurone layer is found in endosperm of monocot seeds e.g., Maize. Aleurone
layer is proteinaceous and triploid in nature.
4 Answer (4)
Stamen, tapetum and microspore are part of reproductive structure.
5 Answer (3)

SECTION. B
Previous Y-ears Questions
'1. Answer (3)
ln onion modified leaves are present for food storage.
2. Answer (2)
Branched, blunt, linger like structures are coralloid roots.
3. Answer (3)
4. Answer (1)
This floral diagram is of Solanaceae family.
5. Answer (2)
Aggregate fruits are also known as etaerio of fruitlets.
6. Answer (4)
ln polycarpellary, Syncarpous and unilocular ovary, placentation is perietal.
ln polycarpellary syncarpous and multilocular ovary, placentation is axile.
7. Answer (3)
Date-Berry
L Answer (3) q

Evolutionary developmental (evo-devo) hypothesis refers the study of developmental programs & pattems from
an evolutionary perspective.
g
9. Answer (2) e
o
Stamens are not shown in floral diagram.
6

! D D
!

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 ZOOLOGY
(Level - III)

Chapter 4 : Breathing and Exchange of Gases

sEcnoN -A
Objective Type Questions

1. Answer (2)

Respiration is anaerobic due to lack of mitochondria.

2. Answer (4)

Air sacs in birds store air and are not meant for exchange of gases.

3. Answer (2)

Residual volume is retjained in lungs after asphyxiation as the infant (newly bom) is strangled to death and lungs
float due to air retained. (RV)

4. Answer (4)

Clara cells are pneumocytes that secrete lung surfactant lecithin.

5. Answer (4)

Chest movements are conspicuous during thoracic breathing.

6. Answer (3)

Functional residual capacity (FRC) is the volume of air that remains in lungs after a normal expiralion.

7. Answer (3)

Tidal volume = alveolar ventilation + dead space volume

500 ml = 350 ml + 150 ml

lf breathing rate is 12 times/min ; then alveolar ventilation is 350 x 12 = 4200 ml.

8. Answer (1)
pCO2 in lungs is 40 mm Hg while it is 0.3 mm Hg in atmospheric air.

9. Answer (1)

Matemal oxygen dissociation curve will be on right side as compared to that of foetus due to lesser affinity for
oxygen. pso of maternal Hb is 30 mmHg while it is 20 mmHg for foetal Hb.
'10. Answer (4)

Normal respiratory rhythm centre in humans lies in medulla.

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86 Breathing and Exchange of Gases Solutions (Level-lll)

't 1. Answer (2)

Srong signals from pneumotaxic centre results in incomplete filling of lungs due to rapid, shallow breathing.
12. Ans er (2)
SARS is caused by varianl of common cold virus, (Corona virus).

13. Answer (1)

Decompression sickness is also called Caisson's diseas€.

14. Answer (1)

Myoglobin has low pro value than hemoglobin. Affnity is inversely related to pso.

15. Answ€r (2)

Medulla oblongata maintains normal rhythm of respiration. Pons is called switch 'off point of inspiration.
'16. Answer (2)
lncrease in pH implies increse in alkalinity. lncrease in ventllation increases pO2.

17. Answer (2)

Solubility of 02, in plasma is not affected in sickle cell anemia.

18. Answer (1)

Contraction of diaphragm increases volume of pulmonary cavity in cephalocaudal axis.

19. Ansrcr (3)

Tachycardia r.e., increase in breathing rate is seen in patienb with emphysema.

20. Ans,wer (1)

Air moves from region of high pressure to low pressure. By contraction of diaphragm, low pressure is related
in thoracic cavity.

21. Answer (4)

lntercostal muscles are involved in thoracic breathing.

22. Answer (3)

po, levels are not detected by central and chemoreceptors in a significant manner

23. Answer (3)

21o/o ot O, is present in air while lvater has much less dissolved oxygen.

SECTION .B
Previous Years Questions
1. Answer (3)

One haemoglobin molecule possesses four binding sites for oxygen.

2. Answer ('l )

Vital capacity = Tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume + expiratory reserve volume
a

= 600 + 2500 + 800 = 3900 ml 1

l
3. Answer (1)

Percentage of CO2 in air is 0.04olo and 0.04% of 760 = 0.3 mmHg.

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Solutions (Level-lll) Breathing and Exchange of Gases 87

4 Answer (4)

Squamous epitheluim lines alveoli as it is thin and facilitates diffusion of gases.

5 Answer (2)

Bohds effect is observed at elevated temperature at tissue level.

6 Answer (4)

BMR * Bo;srze

7. Answer (2)

At high altitude less dense air i.e. po2decreases. This promotes eMhropoeisis and RBC count increases.
8. Answer (3)

Under strenous mnditions 75% of total oxygen canied by arterial blood is delivered to actively metabolizing
tissue.

9. Answer (1)

Saturation of hemoglobin increases with increase in poz.

10. Answer (3)

A single molecule of human hemoglobin can bind with four O, molecules at 'Q' that is maximally, hence HbO8.
'11
. Answer (4)

The amount of air inhaled or exhaled per breath with out effort is called tidal volume - 500 ml.
12. Answer (3)
Nearly 707o of CO2 is transported as sodium bicarbonate in plasma.
13. Answer (1)

Afijnity - =L. r"t"t hemoglobin has higher affinity 02 when compared with adult haemoglobin. P50 of fetal
,50

haemoglobin is 20 mm Hg while that of adult hemoglobin is 30 mm Hg.

14. Answer (4)

Oxygen dissociation curve is a sigmoid curve.

15. Answer (2)
Gaseous exchange occurs by simple diffusion based on the pressure gradient from higher to lower partial
pressure across respiratory membrane.
'16. Answer (1)
Low pH, high temperature and pCO2 facilitate oxygen dissociation.
17. Answer (3)
Ditfusion of 02 stops from water to blood since both attain similar percentage of 02.
18. Answer (3)
While diving, aquatic mammals like whales minimizes their peripheral blood circulation to avoid nitrogen bend.

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 88 Body Fluids and Circulation Solutions (LeveLlll)

Chapter 5 : Body Fluids and Circulation

SECTION . A

Obiective Type Questions

1. Answer (2)
Head supplies blood to itself through coronary arteries.
2. Answer (4)
Fibrinogen is a clotting factor required for clot formation.
3. Answer (1)
Leech, an annelid has oxygen binding pigment dissolved in plasma.
4. Answer (4)
Arteries carry deoxygenated blood towards heart. Blood flows from right atrium to right ventricle.
5. Answer (1)
Adrenaline increases blood pressure.
6. Answer (1)
Mature red blood cells are incapable of carrying out mitosis because they do not have nucleus.
7. Answer ('l )
Enterohepatic circulation.
8. Answer(2)
Basal metabolic rate is higher in small sized animals than large sized animals.
9. Answer(4)
Blood helps in transport of insulin and glucagon but not its production.
10. Answer (2)
Vasoconstriction decreases the blood flow to surface (skin) and prevents the loss of heat from body.
1'l . Answer (1)
Small capillaries of leg lead to venules which ultimately joint to form a large vein.
'12. Answer (3)
Capillaries are thin walled structures where its walls are composed of one layer of squamous epithelium.
'13. Answer (2)
Blood group will remain unchanged while breathing rate can vary
'14. Answer (1)
Elasticity of muscles helps in emptying of ventricles.
'15. Answer(4)
Hemopoietic organs are bone manow, spleen, thymus and lymph nodes. Haematopoeisis involves production of
all types of blood cells.
'16. Answer (4)
Blood from stomach and intestine first enters hepatic portal circulation b€fore going to heart.
17. Answer (1)
Hydra lacks blood based circulatory system and a hearl.

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Solutiors (Level-lll) Body Fluids and Circulation 89

'18. Answer (1)

Semilunar valves are present at the beginning of pulmonary and systemic aorta.

19. Answer (3)

Calcium is supplied in diet.

20. Answer (3)

PUFA prevent occurence of atherosclerosis.

21. Answer (3)

The waves show the depolarisation or repolarisation of cardiac muscles.

22. Answer (3)

Bombay phenotype occurs in individuals who have inherited two recessive alleles of the H gene.

23. Answer (3)

Lymph vessels collect lymph and drain it two major lymphatic vessels i.e., Thoracic duct and right lymphatic duct.
Further these two ducts drain the lymph into left and right subclavian vein respectively.

24. Answer (4)

B -r Stroke volume and C +AV valves.

25. Answer (3)

Flow of impulse in conduction system of human heart is SA node JAV node -)Bundle of His and J
Purkinle,lbres.

26. Answer (2)

Kid neys receive a bo ut (21 -24'/,1 ot @tdiac output.

SECTION - B
Previous Years Questions

1. Answer (3)

Fibrins are formed by conversion of inactive fibrinogens in plasma by thrombin.

2. Answer ('l ,

Neutrophils the polymorphonuclear neukophils (PMNs) are the most abundant white biood cells (granulocytes)
in humans They account for approximately 50-70o/o oI WBCs and stain neutral pink with hematoxylin and
eosin.

3. Answer (2)

Blood group'O'is considered 'universal donor'since their RBC'S do not display any type of antigens while
blood group'AB'is considered 'universal acceptor'as they do not generate any antibody in plasma.
4. Answer (3)

lnfants have higher heart rate which can range from '120 to 160 beats/min.

5. Answer (2)

At high altitude less dense [O, deficient] air is present. So RBC count increases by action of erythropoietin.
6. Answer (1)

Pulmonary artery arises from right ventricle and carries deoxygenated blood to the lungs.

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90
7.
eoOy Fluids and Circulation

Answer (3)
Mature RBCS lacks :
Solutions (Level-lll)
I
i. Nudeus
ii. Mitoctondria
iii. Endoplasmic reticulum
8. An*er (2)

Blood group Antlgen on RBCs surface Antibody in plasma

AA Anti-B
BB Anti-A
AB Aand B Absent
O Absent Anti-A and Anti-B
9. Answer (4)
Vitamin K helps in synthesis of blood clotting factor in liver.
10. Answer (1)
Myogenic heart is present in chordates and cephalopods.
'l'1. Answer (2)

Amphibians possess a three chambered heart. Two auricles and one ventricle. Right auricle receives
deorygenated blood while lefi auricle receives orygenated blood. Single ventricle receives both deoxygenated
and oxygenated blood. Mixed blood is supplied by the ventricle.
12. Answer (1)
The colloid osmotic pressure due to the plasma mlloids is called the oncotic pressure. Filtration across the
capillary membrane as a result of the hydrostatic pressure in the vascular system is opposed by the oncotic
pressure.
'13. Answer (3)
Blood velocity declines with increase in total cross-sectional area.
14. Answer (4)
Strokes can resull due to clofting. Antiplatelet drugs such as aspirin prevent blood cells (platelets) from
clumping together to form a clot. Anticoagulants such as heparin lengthen the time of blood clotting.
15. Answer (3)
Heart rate has inverse relation with body size.
16. Answer (4)
Deoxygenated blood laden with nutrients flows from gut to liver. This describes hepatic portal circulation.
17. Answer(3)
Tap water is hypotonic to plasma and RBCS shrink in sea water.

18. Answer (3)

ln trained sportsmen, end systolic volume decreases.
19. Answer (3)
lncrease in LDLS suggest a high risk of CAD.
20. Answer(2)
Liver is the centre for detoxification, urea formation and ext a nutrients are stored here.

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Solutions (Level-lll) Body Fluids and Circulafion

21. Answer(2)
flow decreases.
As the total cfoss sectional area of the blood vessels increases, the velocity of blood
22. Answer(4)
with increase in body temPrature blood flow to skin increases to promote loss of heat by vasodilation'
23. Answer ('l )
>
Heart rate is inversely related to body size. Chicken > cat elephant'
24. Answer (3)
pigment'
Leech has open circulatory system but plasma contains dissoved hemoglobin like
25. Answer (2)
A narv model explains that heart wods as a suc,tion pump. lt sug€ests t]at sorne energiy from eadl
contraclion
(negative pressure created) that aids filling
is stored within the muscles and provides the power for the suction
of heart.

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 -l
92 Excretory Products and their Elimination Solutions (Level-lll)

Chapter 6 : Excretory Products and

their Elimination

SECTION.A
Objective Type euestions

1. Answer (1)
Maximum reabsorption of nutrienls and water occurs in PcT inespective of presence
or absence of hormone
vasopressin.
2. Answer (4)

Mammals convert ammonia to urea.

3. Answer (1)

ADH helps in retention ofwater.

4. Answer (4)

After reabsorption ofsubstances from the filtrate; whatever is remaining in filtrate along
with the secreted substances
are excreted from the body.
5. Answer (1)

It is the glomerular liltration pressure,.e., GFp = 60 mmHg in humans.

6. Answer (3)
when Amoeba is placed in distilled water, water enters into cell through endosmosis and
its contractile
vacuole will become more active and eliminate excess water so it will remain live while
erythrocyte will first
increase in volume and burst eventually as it does not have a contraclile vacuole.
7. Answer (3)
Ascending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water but permeable to salts.
8. Answer ('1 )
ln humans, 25-30 gm of urea is eliminated each day.

9. Answer (3)
Loop of Henle helps to concentrate urine in kidney.
10. Answer (4)
osmoreceptors in the body come into action or gets activated when they detect any change
in blood volume
and osmolarity so that rest of activties mentioned in options (l (2) and (3) happen.
),
1'1. Answer (4)
ln urea synthesis arginosuccinic acid breaks down into arginine and fumarate. This fumaric
acid which enters
the Kreb's cycle forms malonic acid and then oxaloacetate.
'12. Answer (1)
Tubular secretion of H'takes place in the proximal convoluted lubule, DCT and
also in collecting duct. lt is
an important slep in urine formation as it helps in maintenance of the ionic and acid-base
balarice of body
fluids. o

13. Answer (4) =

n

Camel and kangaroo rat release highly concentrated urine containing urea, due i
to very long loops of Henle
in their nephrons.

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Solutions (Levellll) Excretory Products and their Elimination 93

SECTION - B
Previous Years Questions

1. Answer (1)
Net filtration pressure = Glomerular filtration pressure - (Blood colloid osmotic pressure
+ Capsular hydrostatic pressure).

Reabsorption of nutrients occurs in PCT.

2. Answer (3)
Urea is major nitrogenous excretory product in mammals.
3. Answer (2)
Gout is caused by deposition of uric acid in joints.
=
composition of kidney stone + calcium oxalate, calcium phosphate, uric acid and xanthine etc
=
4. Answer (1)
The epithelial cells of Bowman's capsule called podocytes are arranged in a manner so as to leave some
spaces called filtration slits or slit pores.
5. Answer (2)
Reptiles, birds and insects excrete nitrogenous wasles in the form of pelleupaste with
minimum loss of water.
which is mainly uric acid.
6. Answer (3)
Tadpolesareaquaticandammonotelic.Frogsinhabitlandtoo,henceareureotelic'
7. Answer (4)
Kangaroo rats are mammals and show xeric adaptations'

8. Answer (3)
Glucose is eliminated in urine if its blood ievels exceed threshold value'
9. Answer (2)
contractile acliyity ol Amoeba increases in hypotonic water i.e., fresh water and decreases in marine waler.
'10. Answer (3)
Direction of blood and air llow are not in opposite directions in a human lung'
'11. Answer ('1)

Osmoregulators can maintain homeostasis

'12. Answer (3)
lnulin cannot be used to study activity of tubules as it is neither absorbed or secreted
or metabolised'

13. Answer (1)

Nearly 70% water is reabsorbed in PCT.

14. Answer (4)

to desert dwellers'
seeds can store lipids. oxidation of fats can yield metabolic water which can be useful
15. Answer (2)
GlucoseisabsorbedcompletelyinPCT'Nearly70%ofwalerisabsorbedinPCTwhileremainingwateris
absorbed in other parts of renal tubule.
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 94 Excretory Products and therr Elimination Solutions (Level-lll)

16. An$ver (2)

Net finration pressure = Gtomerular hydrostatic pressure - lBlood cOlloid osrn0tic pressure
+ colloidal hydrostatic pressurBl
NFP = GHP-[BCOP + c11p1
NFP = 10 mmHg
17. Answer (2)
Tubular secretion, acidification of urine and bicarbonate excretion occur in cells
of renal tubule.

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