Focus Academy for Career Enhancement 1

Infosys Mock 01
Instructions

Before the Test:

(1) Keep only the identity card, pencil, eraser and sharpener with you. DO NOT KEEP with you books,
rulers, slide rules, drawing instruments, calculators, cellular phones, stop watches or any other devices
or loose paper.

(2) Use only HB pencil to fill in the Answer Sheet.

(3) Ensure that your name and roll number have been entered in the space provided correctly.

(4) Directions for answering the questions are given before each group of questions. Read these directions
carefully and answer the questions by darkening the appropriate circles on the Answer Sheet. Each
question has only one correct answer.

(5) All questions carry one mark each. Questions.

(6) Do your rough work only on the test booklet and NOT on the Answer Sheets.

At the start of the Test:

(1) As soon as the signal to start is given, open the test booklet.

How to Answer:

(1) This test contains two sections with 70 questions. You have 70 minutes to complete the test.

(2) Candidates found violating the instructions will be disqualified.

After the Test:

(1) At the end of the test remain seated. The invigilator will collect the Answer Sheet from your seat.

(2) You may retain this test booklet with you.

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Infosys Mock 01

SECTION I (QUANTS & LOGICAL)

DIRECTIONS: Read the given information and answer the question asked below.

Each of these questions are based on the information given below :

1. 8 persons E, F, G, H, I, J, K and L are seated around a square table - two on each side.
2. There are 3 ladies who are not seated next to each other.
3. J is between L and F.
4. G is between I and F.
5. H, a lady member is second to the left of J.
6. F, a male member is seated opposite to E, a lady member.
7. There is a lady member between F and I.

1. Who among the following is to the immediate left of F ?

(a)G (b)I (c)J (d)H
2. What is true about J and K ?
(a) J is male, K is female (b) J is female, K is male
(c) Both are female (d) Both are male
3. How many persons are seated between K and F ?
(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4
4. Who among the following are three lady members ?
(a) E, H and J (b) E, F and G (c) E, H and G (d) C, H and J
5. Who among the following is seated between E and H ?
(a)F (b)I (c)K (d) Cannot be determined

DIRECTIONS: View the four pictures given in the first line and choose the next picture in the sequence.

6.

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7.

8.

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9.

10.

DIRECTIONS: Choose the best option.

11. The ratio of Rita's age to her mother's age is 3:8. The difference of their ages is 35 years. The ratio of their ages after 4
years will be:
(a) 7:12 (b) 5:12 (c) 38:43 (d) 42:47
12. Gold is 19 times as heavy as water and copper is 9 times as heavy as water. In what ratio should these be mixed to get an
alloy 15 times as heavy as water?
(a) 1:1 (b) 2:3 (c) 1:2 (d) 3:2
13. What is 333 times 131?
(a) 46,323 (b) 43,623 (c) 43,290 (d) 42,957

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14. Ms Suchi deposits an amount of Rs 24,000 to obtain a simple interest at the rate of 14 p.c.p.a. for 8 years. What total
amount will Ms Suchi get at the end of 8 years?
(a) Rs 52,080 (b) Rs 28,000 (c) Rs 50,880 (d) Rs 26,880
15. Pinku, Rinku and Tinku divide an amount of Rs 4,200 amongst themselves in the ratio of 7 : 8 : 6 respectively. If an
amount of Rs 200 is added to each of their shares, what will be the new respective ratio of their shares of amount?
(a) 8 : 9 : 6 (b) 7 : 9 : 5 (c) 7 : 8 : 6 (d) 8 : 9 : 7

DIRECTIONS: Answer the data interpretation questions based on the following table.
Following table shows the scores of a student in 8 MOCK CAT (section wise). Assume all MOCK CAT contain 3 sections,
each section have 50 questions. The total of the scores in 3 sections is compared with “cut off” and if his total score is higher
than the “cut off”, it is said that he has cleared the “cut off”.

English Quant D.I. Cut-off

MOCK 1 23 12 19 56

MOCK 2 24 17 18 62

MOCK 3 29 11 23 60

MOCK 4 21 14 21 57

MOCK 5 19 13 25 59

MOCK 6 26 17 21 60

MOCK 7 25 19 23 58

MOCK 8 27 20 21 65

16. In how many MOCK CATs did he clear the cut off?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
17. In which MOCK CAT did he score the maximum total marks?
(a) 3rd (b) 6th (c) 7th (d) 8th
18. What is his improvement, if improvement is defined as = (maximum score – minimum score)?
(a) 10 (b) 14 (c) 16 (d) 18
19. In which section has he shown the maximum improvement, among these 8 MOCK CATs, if improvement is defined as =
(maximum score – minimum score)?
(a) English (b) Quant (c) DI (d) equal in Quant and English.
20. If the section-wise cut-off in all MOCK CATs is 15 for Quant and 20 each for English and DI, then in how many MOCK
CATs did he clear all the cut-offs?
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
DIRECTIONS: Answer the questions based on the data given below.
An employee has been assigned the task of allotting offices to six of the staff members. The offices are numbered 1 - 6.
The offices are arranged in a row and they are separated from each other by six foot high dividers. Hence voices, sounds and
cigarette smoke flow easily from one office to another.

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Miss Robert needs to use the telephone quite often throughout the day. Mr. Mike and Mr. Brown need adjacent offices as
they need to consult each other often while working. Miss. Hardy, is a senior employee and has to be allotted the office number
5, having the biggest window. .
Mr. Donald requires silence in the offices next to his. Mr. Tim, Mr. Mike and Mr. Donald are all smokers. Miss Hardy
finds tobacco smoke allergic and consecutively the offices next to hers to be occupied by non-smokers.
Unless specifically stated all the employees maintain an atmosphere of silence during office hours.

21. The ideal candidate to occupy the office furthest from Mr. Brown would be
(a) Miss Hardy (b) Mr. Mike (c) Mr. Tim (d) Mr. Donald
22. The three employees who are smokers should be seated in the offices.
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 6 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
23. The ideal office for Mr. Mike would be.
(a) 2 (b) 6 (c) 1 (d) 3
24. In the event of what occurrence, within a period of one month since the assignment of the offices, would a request for a
change in office be put forth by one or more employees ?
(a) Mr. Donald quitting smoking.
(b) The installation of a noisy teletype machine by Miss Hardy in her office.
(c) Miss. Robert needing silence in the office (s) next to her own. .
(d) Mr. Tim taking over the duties formerly taken care of by Miss. Robert.

DIRECTIONS: Answer the question based on the data given below.

Three men (Tom, Peter and Jack) and three women (Eliza, Anne and Karen) are spending a few months at a hillside. They
are to stay in a row of nine cottages, each one living in his or her own cottage. There are no others staying in the same row of
cottages.
1. Anne, Tom and Jack do not want to stay in any cottage, which is at the end of the row.
2. Eliza and Anne are unwilling to stay beside any occupied cottage.
3. Karen is next to Peter and Jack.
4. Between Anne and Jack's cottage there is just one vacant cottage.
5. None of the girls occupy adjacent cottages.
6. The cottage occupied by Tom is next to an end cottage.

25. How many of them occupy cottages next to a vacant cottage ?

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

DIRECTIONS : In each of the following questions there are three statements. Which are followed by three or four
conclusions. Choose the conclusions which logically follow from the given statements.

26. Statements: All the locks are keys.

All the keys are bats.
Some watches are bats.
Conclusions: 1.Some bats are locks.
2.Some watches are keys.
3.All the keys are locks.
(a) Only (1) and (2) (b) Only (1) (c) Only (2) (d) Only (1) and (3)

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27. Statements: Some questions are answers.

Some answers are writers.
All the writers are poets.
Conclusions: 1.Some writers are answers.
2.Some poets are questions.
3.All the questions are poets.
4.Some poets are answers.
(a) Only (1) and (2) (b) Only (1) and (4) (c) Only (1) and (3) (d) Only (2) and (4)
28. Statements: Some envelops are gums.
Some gums are seals.
Some seals are adhesives.
Conclusions: 1.Some envelopes are seals.
2.Some gums are adhesives.
3.Some adhesives are seals.
4.Some adhesives are gums.
(a) Only (3) (b) Only (1) (c) Only (2) (d) Only (4)
29. Statements: All the papers are books.
All the bags are books.
Some purses are bags.
Conclusions: 1.Some papers are bags.
2.Some books are papers.
3.Some books are purses.
(a) Only (1) (b) Only (2) and (3) (c) Only (1) and (2) (d) Only (1) and (3)
30. Statements: Some cups are pots.
All the pots are tubes.
All the cups are bottles.
Conclusions: 1.Some bottles are tubes.
2.Some pots are bottles.
3.Some tubes are cups.
(a) Only (1) (b) Only (2) (c) Only (3) (d) none of these

SECTION II (VERBAL)
DIRECTIONS: Read the given passage and answer the Questions that follow.
INTELLIGENCE AUGMENTATION
The terms “intelligence augmentation” and “intelligence amplification” evoke images of human beings with computer
chips embedded in their skulls or bizarre accoutrements attached to their heads. However, according to an article entitled Get
Smart by Jamais Cascio, human beings’ ability to augment their intelligence is precisely the prowess which has empowered us
to survive “a series of convulsive glacial events” evinced by the last ice age.
Neurophysiologist William Calvin asserts that the human species continues to evolve cognitively and to create its own
cognitive evolution in two basic ways: external and internal.
Cascio states that humans have been externally augmenting their intelligence for millennia. By developing written
language, we boosted our capacity to share information over space and time. Other advancements, such as agricultural and
industrial technologies, reduced the exigencies of manual labour. Current external digital systems augment human intelligence
by allowing us to perform tasks that would be unfeasible with recourse only to the rational skills of a singular human brain.
Cascio cites as examples the “powerful simulations and massive data sets (which) allow physicists to visualize, understand, and
debate models of an 11–dimension universe, real–time data from satellites, global environmental databases, and high–
resolution models (which) allow geophysicists to recognize the subtle signs of long–term changes to the planet,” and similar
man–made interactions which have the functional effect of augmenting human intelligence. Conceivable potential software

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could incorporate individual “attention filters” or “focus assistants” which would discern and highlight your individual
preferences in a computer display, permitting you to focus and direct your computer searches more efficiently than you do
now. It could incorporate individualized planning and foresight systems which could allow people to play “what–if” with their
life choices. Such systems could co–evolve with people to produce intimate technologies which would become “something akin
to collaborative intuition,” through web–based information systems with personalized components, according to Cascio.
Somewhat more problematic in social terms might be pharmacological intelligence augmentation, evoking Brave New
World nightmares – pharmaceutically placated people tranquilized to zombie–like subservience to the collective and a central
bureaucracy dedicated to its own continued survival. However, as with external cognitive augmentation, the future has arrived –
– in the form of, for example, ADD drugs, pharmaceutical agents which mitigate sleep disorders, and antidepressants, all of
which enhance human problem–solving ability and cognitive efficiency. According to Cascio, “people who don’t know about
(such drugs) or don’t want to use them will face stiffer competition from people who do. From the perspective of a culture
immersed in athletic doping wars, the use of such drugs may seem like cheating. From the perspective of those who find they’re
much more productive using this form of enhancement, it’s no more cheating than getting a faster computer or a better
education.” Cognitive amplification, whether by external or internal means, may constitute evolution, if Calvin’s assertion is
correct. Some societies may readily embrace it, while others may shy away. As science fiction writer William Gibson observes,
“The future is already here; it’s just unevenly distributed.”

31. The author is mainly concerned about

(a) various dangers of intelligence augmentation.
(b) the advantages of intelligence augmentation.
(c) the basic methods of intelligence augmentation.
(d) some scientists who are working on intelligence augmentation.
32. The author’s use of the phrase “somewhat more problematic in social terms” refers to
(a) the difficulty of making cognitive enhancement widely available.
(b) the difficulty of making pharmacological enhancement socially acceptable.
(c) equalizing cognitive competitive advantages among social groups.
(d) bureaucracies which hamper cognitive enhancement activities.
33. The word placated most closely means
(a) deprived. (b) enhanced. (c) cured. (d) quieted.
34. In the context of the passage, which of the following best articulates the author’s opinion?
(a) Intelligence amplification by external means might be more difficult to achieve than by internal means.
(b) Cognitive augmentation does not really constitute evolution.
(c) Some people consider intelligence enhancement to be a form of cheating.
(d) External and internal intelligence enhancement might constitute evolution in cultures that accept them.
35. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(a) describe different kinds of intelligence enhancement.
(b) discuss society’s reactions to pharmacological cognitive augmentation.
(c) examine the differences between external and internal intelligence enhancement.
(d) dispel misgivings about humanity’s attempts at creating its own evolution.

DIRECTIONS: Read the given passage and answer the Questions that follow.

COLUMBIAN EXCHANGE
The Columbian Exchange was the “exchange of plants, animals, foods, human populations (including slaves)
communicable diseases, and ideas between the Eastern and Western hemispheres that occurred after 1492,” according to
Wikipedia. The term “Columbian Exchange,” coined in 1972 by historian Alfred Crosby, took hold and became not only
standard shorthand for the phenomenon which it exemplified, but also a perspective for witnessing societal and ecological
events.When Christopher Columbus made landfall with his crew in the Bahamas in October 1492, two worlds with separate
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evolutionary histories met. When Europeans began to settle America’s east coast, they brought with them and cultivated
familiar crops – wheat and apples – as well as familiar weeds, such as dandelion and chickweed. In the 1600s, they introduced
cattle and horses, which flourished in the New World climate.
Devastating diseases were introduced to the American population which had noresistance to them. John R. McNeill,
professor of history at Georgetown University, points out that “when the first inhabitants of the Americas arrived across the
Bering land bridge between 20,000 and 12,000 years ago, they brought few diseases with them … they had no domesticated
animals, the original source of human diseases such as smallpox and measles. In addition, as they passed from Siberia to North
America, the first Americans had spent many years in extreme cold, which eliminated many of the disease-causing agents that
might have traveled with them.”
Consequently, between 1492 and 1650, over 90% of the Native American population died in epidemic after epidemic of
smallpox, measles, mumps, whooping cough, influenza, chicken pox, and typhus. The loss of labor caused by pathogens
indirectly led to the establishment of African slavery among European immigrants in the Americas, resulting in the importation
of malaria and yellow fever from Africa, causing even more destruction of the Native American population.
The export of American flora and fauna did not revolutionize the Old World as the influx of European agriculture altered the
New World ecosystem. According to Crosby, “the New World’s great contribution to the Old is in crop plants. … Maize, white
potatoes, sweet potatoes, various squashes, chiles, and manioc” augmented and invigorated the European cuisine. Very few
New World creatures traversed the ocean –– the muskrat, the gray squirrel, and a few others, but they did not precipitate large
scale changes in Old World ecosystems.
Although some diseases made the ocean voyage from New World to Old, they did not have appreciable effects on the
European population. Crosby stated that, although some deaths were attributed to ailments from America, “the total is
insignificant compared to Native American losses to smallpox alone.”
In Crosby’s original work, he eschewed ideological statements. He reminded his readers that neither the Old nor New
World was inferior or superior to the other; the encounter between two worlds was fundamentally an exchange. By 1988, he
summarized his long view of the encounter in this way: “My point is … that the impact of the Encounter is so massive that we
should consider it with the same sense of scale as we do events connected with the endings and beginnings of the geological
periods and eras and their influence on the direction of evolution on the planet.”

36. It can be inferred from the passage that

(a) Slaves brought to American from Africa had more resistance to European diseases than Native Americans did.
(b) New World creatures were unable to thrive in the climate of the Old World.
(c) New World pathogens had no effect on the people of the Old World.
(d) Most human diseases were introduced to humans by animal populations.
37. The word eschewed most closely means
(a) espoused (b) avoided (c) employed (d) created

DIRECTIONS: Read the given passage and answer the Questions that follow.

THE GREAT DEBATES

The first of the Great Debates, between Senator John F. Kennedy of Massachusetts and the incumbent Vice President
Richard Nixon on September 26, 1960, centered around domestic issues. The topic of the next debate, on October 7, was a
clash over U.S. policy regarding two small islands off the Chinese coast, and on October 13, this controversy continued. On
October 21, the final debate, the candidates focused on American/Cuban relations. Few of the 70 million viewers could have
fathomed what this first–ever televised presidential debate augured, not only for this specific series of debates, but more
importantly for the preeminent role the fledgling medium would play in the future of the political arena.
A pallid Nixon arrived at the Chicago CBS studios after a grueling day of campaigning. The previous August a knee
infection had sidelined him. He was still twenty pounds underweight, and he perspired profusely in an ill–fitting shirt.
Moreover, he declined makeup to burnish his hospital pallor. The freshly–painted studio backdrop had dried to an ashen hue
that obscured his matching suit.

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The Democratic contender by contrast exuded a robust glow after a month of campaigning in California. He had spent his day
rehearsing potential questions and relaxing. An aide later admitted that he supplemented his natural glow with a smidge of
makeup. He was fit, trim, and confident.
Despite the remarkably similar agendas and arguments of the Republican and the Democrat, TV viewers unequivocally
believed Kennedy to be the victor – whereas people who had followed the debates on the radio held the opposite opinion. The
age of TV had arrived, and the subsequent party shuffle proved the undeniable potency of television.
38. The author is mainly concerned about
(a) the debating styles of John Kennedy and Richard Nixon during the 1960 Great Debates
(b) the domestic issues which affected the result of 1960 Great Debates
(c) the health of Richard Nixon at the time of the 1960 Great Debates
(d) the effect of television on the results of the 1960 Great Debates
39. It can be inferred from the passage that
(a) Kennedy was a better debater than Nixon
(b) Nixon was the unequivocal winner of the 1960 debates
(c) The Democrat beat the Republican in the 1960 election
(d) Nixon was more prepared for the first debate than Kennedy
40. According to the passage, which of the following was true of Richard Nixon?
(a) He had a five o’clock shadow during the first debate.
(b) He wore a brown suit during the first debate.
(c) He warned of the impending Cuban crisis.
(d) He lost his job after the election.

DIRECTIONS: Identify the part of a sentence that has an error in it.

41. Mr George Wilton/ a schoolmaster of Epping England / has been / got in trouble
A B C D
42. Another note / said that ,/ “We have captured / the board of school directors
A B C D
43. The notes / were pinned / up to / the classroom wall.”
A B C D

DIRECTIONS: Choose the option that is the best alternative for the underlined phrase in the sentence.

44. In spite of continuing national trends toward increased consumption of specialty foods, agronomists in the Midwest foresee
a gradual reversion to the raising of agricultural staples: feed corn and hard red wheat.
(a) A gradual reversion to the raising of agricultural staples
(b) That a gradual reversion back will feature the raising of agricultural staples
(c) A gradual reversion back to the raising of agricultural staples again
(d) A gradual reversion to raise agricultural staples
45. In reference to the current hostility toward smoking, smokers frequently expressed anxiety that their prospects for being
hired and promoted are being stunted by their habit.
(a) In reference to the current hostility toward smoking, smokers frequently expressed anxiety that
(b) When referring to the current hostility toward smoking, smokers frequently express anxiety about
(c) Referring to the current hostility toward smoking, smokers frequently expressed anxiety about
(d) Referring to the current hostility toward smoking, smokers frequently express anxiety that
46. Without a large amount of rain water to keep it wet, flowering plants will not grow in the soil this season.
(a) flowering plants will not grow in the soil this season.
(b) the soil will not sustain the growth of flowering plants this season.
(c) the soil will not be sustaining the growth of flowering plants this season.
(d)this season's flowering plants will not be growing in the soil.
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47. In ancient times, Nubia was the principal corridor where there were cultural influences transmitted between Black Africa
and the Mediterranean basin.
(a) where there were cultural influences transmitted
(b) through which cultural influences were transmitted
(c) where there was a transmission of cultural influences
(d) for the transmitting of cultural influences
48. It is a special feature of cell aggregation in the developing nervous system that in most regions of the brain the cells not
only adhere to one another and also adopt some preferential orientation.
(a) to one another and also adopt (b) one to the other, and also they adopt
(c) one to the other, but also adopting (d) to one another but also adopt
49. Among the reasons for the decline of New England agriculture in the last three decades were the high cost of land, the
pressure of housing and commercial development, and basing a marketing and distribution system on importing produce
from Florida and California.
(a) basing a marketing and distribution system on importing produce from Florida and California
(b) basing a marketing and distribution system on the imported produce of Florida and California
(c) basing a system of marketing and distribution on the import of produce from Florida and California
(d) a marketing and distribution system based on importing produce from Florida and California
50. Like Byron at Missolonghi, Jack London was slowly killed by the mistakes of the medical men who treated him.
(a) Like Byron (b) Like Byron's death
(c) Just as Byron died (d) Similar to Byron

DIRECTIONS: Fill in the blanks with the best alternative.

51. A businessman must widen his horizons; a ____ attitude will get you nowhere in this age of global communications.
(a) moderate (b) petrified (c) parochial (d) diversified

52. Our bookshelves at home display a range of books on wide-ranging subjects and in many languages, reflecting the ____
tastes of our family members.
(a) anomalous (b) limited (c) arcane (d) eclectic

53. Plastic bags are ____ symbols of consumer society; they are found wherever you travel.
(a) rare (b) ephemeral (c) ubiquitous (d) fleeting

54. Dr. Stuart needs to ____ his argument with more experimental data; as it stands his thesis is
(a) support – profound (b) bolster - acceptable
(c) refine – satisfactory (d) buttress – inadequate

55. After an initially warm reception by most reviewers and continued ____ by conservative thinkers, Bloom's work came
under heavy fire.
(a) criticism (b) endorsement (c) denigration (d) counterattack

56. Through the 19th Century, the classics of Western Civilization were considered to be the ____ of wisdom and culture, and
an ____ person - by definition- knew them well.
(a) foundation – average (b) epitome - uneducated
(c) cornerstone – obtuse (d) repository – educated

57. In this biography we are given a glimpse of the young man ____ pursuing the path of the poet despite ____ and rejection
slips.
(a) doggedly – disappointment (b) tirelessly - encouragement
(c) sporadically – awards (d) successfully – acclaim

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58. All European countries are seeking to diminish the check upon individual ____ which state examinations with their ____
growth have bought in their train.
(a) rights – liberating (b) liberties - empowering
(c) spontaneity – tyrannous (d) foibles – inevitable

59. In keeping with his own ____ in international diplomacy, Churchill proposed a personal meeting of heads of government,
but the effort was doomed to failure, as the temper of the times was ____ .
(a) ideas – pluralistic (b) predilections - inimical
(c) aversions – hostile (d) impulses – amicable

60. The wall and floor decorations created by Indian housewives are usually ____ , remaining hours, days, or at most, weeks
before being worn off by human activity or weather and replaced by new ____ .
(a) perennial – drawings (b) ephemeral - designs
(c) trivial - purchases (d) impermanent - furnishings

DIRECTIONS:Read the paragraphs given and choose the best option that suits the question asked.

61. Although most of the fastest growing jobs in today's economy will require a college degree, many of the new jobs being
created-from home health aide to desktop publisher-require knowledge other than that gained from earning a degree. For
workers in those jobs, good basic skills in reading, communication, and mathematics play an important role in getting a job
and developing a career.
From the information given above it can be validly concluded that, in today's economy,
(a) skills in reading, communication, and mathematics play an important role in developing a career as a desktop publisher
(b) the majority of the new jobs being created require knowledge other than that gained from earning a college degree
(c) a job as a home health aide will rely more on communication skills than on basic skills in reading and mathematics
(d) if a job is one of the fastest growing jobs, it will require a college degree
62. According to the National Agricultural Aviation Society (NAAS), without the use of crop protection products to control
insects, weeds, and diseases, crop yields per acre will drop by more than 50 percent. The first aerial application of
insecticide occurred in 1921, and it was a huge success. By contrast, in today's economy all aircraft that are classified as
aerial applicators do more than just apply insecticide; today, they also spread seed and apply fertilizer.
From the information given above it CANNOT be validly concluded that
(a) in today's economy, if an aerial applicator is used, then it will be able to spread seed and to apply fertilizer
(b) according to the NAAS, if crop yields per acre never drop by more than 50 percent, then crop protection products have
been used to control insects, weeds, and diseases
(c) in today's economy, any aircraft that cannot be used to apply fertilizer cannot be classified as an aerial applicator
(d) according to the NAAS, if crop yields per acre drop by more than 50 percent, then crop protection products have not
been used to control insects, weeds, and diseases.
63. No national productivity measures are available for underground industries that may exist but remain unreported. On the
other hand, at least some industries that are run entirely by self-employed industrialists are included in national
productivity measures.
From the information given above, it can be validly concluded that
(a) there are at least some industries run entirely by self-employed industrialists that are underground industries
(b) no industries that are run entirely by self-employed industrialists operate underground
(c) there are at least some industries other than those run entirely by self-employed industrialists that are underground
industries
(d) there are at least some industries run entirely by self-employed industrialists that are not underground industries

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64. Lou observes that if flight 409 is canceled, then the manager could not possibly arrive in time for the meeting. But the
flight was not canceled. Therefore, Lou concludes, the manager will certainly be on time. Evelyn replies that even if Lou's
premises are true, his argument is fallacious. And therefore, she adds, the manager will not arrive on time after all.
Which of the following is the strongest thing that we can properly say about this discussion?
(a) Evelyn is mistaken in thinking Lou's argument to be fallacious, and so her own conclusion is unwarranted.
(b) Evelyn is right about Lou's argument, but nevertheless her own conclusion is unwarranted.
(c) Since Evelyn is right about Lou's argument, her own conclusion is well supported.
(d) Since Evelyn is mistaken about Lou's argument, her own conclusion must be false.
65. Sally has never received a violation from the Federal Aviation Administration during her 16-year flying career. Sally must
be a great pilot.
Which of the following can be said about the reasoning above?
(a) The definitions of the terms create ambiguity.
(b) The argument uses circular reasoning.
(c) The argument works by analogy.
(d) The argument is built upon hidden assumptions.
66. The Japanese economic model created strong domestic industries through subsidies from its Ministry of Trade and by
closing off competitive foreign firms to its domestic market. This strategy promised to help economic growth by
incubating domestic industries. New Japanese industries could count on a known local demand and would be protected
from competition by tariffs and other barriers. The program could reduce the amount of imports and therefore improve the
nation's balance of trade.
Which of the following, based on the passage above, is a weakness in this economic strategy?
(a) A protectionist policy will create animosity among other nations.
(b) Fast growth of small industries will create a class of millionaires and increase the inequality of income.
(c) Subsidies and import constraints keep domestic prices high and impose a burden on consumers.
(d) Quotas are more regressive than tariffs.
67. Historically, famines have generally been followed by periods of rising wages, because when a labor force is diminished,
workers are more valuable in accordance with the law of supply and demand. The Irish potato famine of the 1840s is an
exception; it resulted in the death or emigration of half of Ireland's population, but there was no significant rise in the
average wages in Ireland in the following decade.
Which one of the following, if true, would LEAST contribute to an explanation of the exception to the generalization?
(a) Improved medical care reduced the mortality rate among able-bodied adults in the decade following the famine to
below prefamine levels.
(b) Eviction policies of the landowners in Ireland were designed to force emigration of the elderly and infirm, who could
not work, and to retain a high percentage of able-bodied workers.
(c) Advances in technology increased the efficiency of industry and agriculture, and so allowed maintenance of economic
output with less demand for labor.
(d) The birth rate increased during the decade following the famine, and this compensated for much of the loss of
population that was due to the famine.
68. Cars are safer than planes. Fifty percent of plane accidents result in death, while only one percent of car accidents result in
death.
Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the argument above?
(a) Planes are inspected more often than cars.
(b) The number of car accidents is several hundred thousand times higher than the number of plane accidents.
(c) Pilots never fly under the influence of alcohol, while car drivers often do.
(d) Plane accidents are usually the fault of air traffic controllers, not pilots.

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 Focus Academy for Career Enhancement 14

69. The body of anyone infected by virus X will, after a week, produce antibodies to fight the virus; the antibodies will
increase in number for the next year or so. There is now a test that reliably indicates how many antibodies are present in a
person's body. If positive, this test can be used during the first year of infection to estimate to within a month how long that
person has had the virus.
Which one of the following conclusions is best supported by the statements above?
(a) Antibodies increase in number only until they have defeated the virus.
(b) Antibodies are produced only for viral infections that cannot be fought by any other body defenses.
(c) If a person remains infected by virus X indefinitely, there is no limit to the number of antibodies that can be present in
the person's body.
(d) Anyone infected by virus X will for a time fail to exhibit infection if tested by the antibody test.
70. Ever since I arrived at the college last week, I've been shocked by the poor behavior of the students. The student population
is completely lacking in proper social skills.
Which of the following, if true, would weaken the above conclusion?
(a) Students who are away from their parents often exhibit rude behavior.
(b) The college numbers over 50,000 students.
(c) The narrator is a student and has not interacted with many students.
(d) Social skills should not be expected of college students.

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