SSC CHSL Tier-I MOCK TEST 202135

Time Allowed: 60 Minutes Maximum Marks: 200

SSC CHSL Tier-I 202135

Read the following instructions carefully before you begin to answer the questions.

INSTRUCTION TO CANDIDATE

1. This booklet contains 100 questions in all comprising the following 4 parts:
Part - (I): REASONING ABILITY (25 Question)
Part – (II): GENERAL AWARENESS (25 Question)
Part – (III): QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE (25 Question)
Part – (IV): ENGLISH LANGUAGE (25 Question)
2. All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks.
3. Before you start to answer the question you must check up this booklet and ensure that it
contains all the pages and see that no page is missing or replaced. If you find any defect in this
booklet, you must get it replaced immediately.
4. The paper carries negative marking. 0.5 marks will be deducted for each wrong answer.
5. You will be supplied the Answer-sheet separately by the invigilator. You must complete the
details of Name, Roll number, Test Id and name of the examination on the Answer-Sheet
carefully before you actually start answering the questions. You must also put your signature
on the Answer-Sheet at the prescribed place. These instructions must be fully complied with,
failing which, your Answer-Sheet will not be evaluated and you will be awarded ‘ZERO’ mark.
6. Answer must be shown by completely blackening the corresponding circles on the Answer-
Sheet against the relevant question number by HB pencil or Black/ blue ball pen only.
7. A machine will read the coded information in the OMR Answer-Sheet. In case the information is
incompletely /different from the information given in the application form, the candidature of
such candidate will be treated as cancelled.
8. The Answer-Sheet must be handed over to the Invigilator before you leave the Examination
Hall.
9. Failure to comply with any of the above Instructions will render a candidate liable to such
action/penalty as may be deemed fit.
10. Answer the questions as quickly and as carefully as you can. Some questions may be difficult
and others easy. Do not spend too much time on any question.
11. Mobile phones and wireless communication device are completely banned in the examination
halls/rooms. Candidates are advised not to keep mobile phones/any other wireless
communication devices with them even switching it off, in their own interest.
Failing to comply with this provision will be considered as using unfair means in the
examination and action will be taken against them including cancellation of their candidature.
12. No rough work is to be done on the Answer-Sheet.

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 GENERAL INTELLIGENCE AND REASONING
1. Select the related figure from the given alternatives: 6. A piece of paper is folded cut and punched as show in
the question figure , From the options indicate how
will it appear when it is opened ?

Answer Figure
(a) (b)

(a) (b)
(c) (d)
(c) (d)

2. Find the odd one out from the given alternatives

(a) (b) 7. The following equation is incorrect. Which two signs
should be interchanged to correct the equation?
18 – 2 ÷ 20 + 5 x 16 = 69
(c) (d) (a) ÷ and - (b) + and x
(c) + and ÷ (d) – and +
8. An agriculture executive goes on his field work and
3. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones walks 2 km North, then he turns West and walks 6
that will complete the series. km, then he turns North and walks 7 km, and then he
turns to his right and walks 6 km. Where is he now
with respect to his starting position?
(a) 5 km North (b) 9 km North
(c) 9 km South (d) 5 km South
(a) (b) 9. If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the
answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

(c) (d)

4. Select the missing number from the given responses. (a) (b)

(c) (d)

10. Which of the following cube in the answer figure

cannot be made based on the unfolded cube in the
question figure?
(a) 2 (b) 52
(c) 28 (d) 66
5. Identify the figure that best expresses the relationship
among the classes given below:
Mammal, dog , bat
(a) (b) (a) (b)

(c) (d) (c) (d)

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11. Two statements are given, followed by three 16. Arrange the following words in a logical and
conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the meaningful order.
statements to be true, even if they seem to be at 1. Lustrum 2. Century
variance with commonly known facts, decide which of 3. Year 4. Millennium
the conclusions logically follow(s) from the 5. Decade
statements. (a) 2, 1, 5, 3, 4 (b) 5, 1, 3, 2, 4
Statements: (c) 3, 1, 5, 2, 4 (d) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
All teachers are researchers.
No researcher is unemployed. 17. Which two signs should be interchanged to make the
Conclusions: following equation correct?
I. Some unemployed are teachers. 10 – 15 × 9 + 6 ÷ 3 = 9
II. No teacher is unemployed. (a) – and ÷ (b) ÷ and +
III. Some teachers are unemployed. (c) + and – (d) × and –
(a) Only conclusion II follows. 18. Which number will replace the question mark (?) in
(b) Only conclusion I follows. the following series?
(c) Only conclusions II and III follow. 1, 2, 6, 12, ?, 72, 216
(d) Only conclusions I and III follow. (a) 24 (b) 32
12. In the following diagram. the triangle represents (c) 36 (d) 48
'rich', the circle represents 'doctor' and the rectangle 19. Three of the following four number -pairs are alike in
represents 'happy' persons. The numbers in different a certain way and one is different. Find the odd one
segments show the number of persons. out
(a) 56 : 75 (b) 36 : 63
(c) 24 :42 (d) 48 : 84
20. Three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in
a certain way and one is different. Find the odd one
out.
(a) DFIM (b) FHKM
How many rich doctors are not happy? (c) MORV (d) QSVZ
(a) 15 (b) 26 21. If MOUSE = 2.5, RAJESH = 3 then, DEEPIKA is equal
(c) 9 (d) 17 to?
13. Choose the Venn diagram from the given options that (a) 3 (b) 4.5
best represents the relationship amongst the (c) 2 (d) 3.5
following classes: 22. BOHMF is Codded as ANGLE, then what will be the
Mothers. Doctors. Homo Sapiens third alphabet in the code for the word QBOLBK.
(a) (b) (a) P (b) A
(c) K (d) N

(c) (d) 23. How many triangles are there in the following figure?

14. T is sister of D.D is married to P.P is the son of M.T is

the mother of J.Y is the father of U.Y has only one son (a) 35 (b) 36
and only one daughter. U is the daughter of T.Q is the (c) 34 (d) 30
son of D. If M is the wife of W, then how is Q related to
Directions (24-25): Select the related word / letter /
W?
numbers from the given alternatives:
(a) Son-in-law (b) Son
(c) Grandson (d) Nephew 24. Summer : Aestivation : : Winter : ?
15. Three of the following four words are alike in a (a) Cache (b) Hibernation
certain way and one is different. Pick the odd word (c) Survival (d) Activation
out. 25. BFJ : NRV : : DHL : ?
(a) Germany (b) Singapore (a) PTA (b) PTX
(c) Austria (d) Italy (c) KQS (d) MQV

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 GENERAL AWARENESS
26. Convert 5 N to Dynes 37. In whose viceroyalty, the white mutiny took place?
(a) 500000 Dynes (b) 500 Dynes (a) Lord Curzon (b) Lord Minto
(c) 5 Dynes (d) 0.5 Dynes (c) Lord Hardinge (d) Lord Ripon
27. What is the unit of measurement of solid angles? 38. Who of the following Prime Ministers sent Cripps
(a) Steradians (b) Degrees Mission to India?
(c) Radians (d) Grades (a) James Ramsay MacDonald
(b) Stanley Baldwin
28. A body can have energy without momentum.
(c) Neville Chamberlain
(a) True (d) Winston Churchill
(b) False
(c) maybe or may not be true 39. Africa’s highest mountain peak Mt. Kilimanjaro lies in
(d) none of the above (a) Kenya (b) Malawi
(c) Tanzania (d) Zambia
29. What is the wavelength range for UV spectrum of
light? 40. Fundamental Duties were included in the Constitution
(a) 10 nm to 400 nm (b) 0.01 nm to 10 nm of India on the recommendation of
(c) 700 nm to 1 mm (d) 400 nm – 700 nm (a) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(b) Lyngen Committee
30. The disease rickets is caused by the deficiency of: (c) Swarn Singh Committee
(a) Vitamin–D (b) Vitamin–C (d) Thakkar Committee
(c) Vitamin–A (d) All of these
41. Zonal Councils were provided under
31. Who has been appointed as the new chief economic (a)the original Constitution
advisor (CEA) to the Government of India? (b)the State Reorganisation Act, 1956
(a) VK Ramaswamy (c)the 42nd Amendment
(b) V Anantha Nageswaran (d)44th Amendment
(c) Kaushik Basu
42. MUDRA Bank has been launched to help
(d) Shankar Acharya
(a) Small business (b) Marginal farmers
32. India’s largest electric vehicle (EV) charging station (c) Poor women (d) Rural sector
has been inaugurated at which place?
43. Which of the following has the lowest frequency?
(a) Gandhinagar (b) Hyderabad
(a) Visible light (b) Gamma rays
(c) Gurugram (d) Mumbai
(c) X-rays (d) Ultra violet rays
33. What is the name of the official mobile app of the
44. Who is credited for the construction of the Red Fort of
Parliament of India, recently launched by Lok Sabha
Delhi?
Speaker Om Birla?
(a) Sikandar Lodi (b) Akbar
(a) Digital Parliament App (b) Digital House App
(c) Jahangir (d) Shah Jahan
(c) Digital Diet App (d) Digital Sansad App
45. Who among the following British persons admitted
34. The India-Central Asia Summit 2022 coincided with the Revolt of 1857 as a national revolt?
which anniversary of establishment of diplomatic (a) Lord Dalhousie (b) Lord Canning
relations between India and Central Asian countries? (c) Lord Ellenborough (d) Disraelli
(a) 30th (b) 25th
(c) 50th (d) 45th 46. Eravikulam National Park, also known as Rajamalai
National Park, is situated in the state of
35. Who is the author of the new book titled “A Little (a) Kerala (b) Tamil Nadu
Book of India: Celebrating 75 years of Independence”? (c) Karnataka (d) Assam
(a) Roald Dahl (b) Ruskin Bond
(c) Khushwant Singh (d) JK Rowling 47. 'Norwesters' are thunder storms which are prominent
in _____.
36. Which ruler of Vijayanagar allowed the Portuguese to (a) India and Bhutan
build a church in his empire? (b) Bhutan and Nepal
(a) Venkat II (b) Achyut Rai (c) India and Bangladesh
(c) Thirumal (d) Krishna Deva Rai (d) Bangladesh and Myanmar

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48. Who won the record-breaking 21st Grand Slam title (c) New Zealand
on January 30, 2022? (d) The Netherlands
(a) Rafael Nadal (b) Daniil Medvedev
50. The World Leprosy Day is marked every year on
(c) Novak Djokovic (d) Roger Federer
which of these days?
49. The world’s largest canal lock has recently been (a) Last Monday of January
unveiled in which country? (b) Last Sunday of January
(a) Switzerland (c) January 30
(b) Germany (d) January 29

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
Directions (51-54): The graph shows the production of 58. If a = 500, b = 502 and c = 504 then the value of a³ +
food grains of a country in different years. Study the b³ + c³ – 3abc ?
graph and answer the following questions. (a) 15060 (b) 12048
(c) 18072 (d) 17040
59. Two chards AB and CD of a circle intersect each other
at P integrally If AP = 3.5 cm , PC = 5cm and DP = 7cm,
then what is the measure of PB ?
(a) 8 cm (b) 12 cm
(c) 10 cm (d) 10.5 cm
60. ∆ABC is similar to ∆DEF the area of ∆ABC is 100cm²
and the area of ∆DEF is 49cm². If the altitude of ∆ABC
= 5cm, then the corresponding altitude of ∆DEF is.
51. The sum of Production of food grains in the year 1982 (a) 7cm (b) 4.5cm
and 1984 is equal to that in the year: (c) 6cm (d) 3.5 cm
(a) 1980 (b) 1981
(c) 1983 (d) 1985 61. In ∆ABC D is point on AC such that AB = BD = DC. If
∠BAD = 70° then the measure of ∠B is .
52. The difference of the production of food grains for the (a) 75° (b) 80°
year 1981 and 1985 is: (c) 82° (d) 70°
(a) 500 tonnes (b) 1000 tonnes
(c) 5000 tonnes (d) 10000 tonnes 62. A sum of rupees was distributed between four
1 1 2 1
partners A, B, C and D in the ratio ∶ ∶ and . If
53. The percentage increase in production from 1984 to 9 6 27 18
1985 was. the sum of share of A and C is Rs.1200. Then find the
(a) 150 (b) 120 total amount.
(c) 95 (d) 100 (a) Rs.2640 (b) Rs.2600
(c) Rs.2840 (d) Rs.2550
54. The two consecutive years in which rate of change of
production of food grains is minimum are: 63. Solve this:
(a) 1980 and 1981 (b) 1982 and 1983
(c) 1984 and 1985 (d) 1983 and 1984 (a) -4 (b) -5
55. If secθ + tanθ = 2+√5 then the value of sinθ + cosθ = ? (c) -3 (d) -6
(a) 2/√5 (b) 3/√5 64. Expand: (4a – 3b – 5c)² and find the sum of co-
(c) 3√5 (d) √(3/5) efficient of a², bc and ac
(a) 7 (b) 8
56. If
(c) 6 (d) 10
then (2A+√6 B-C) is equal to?
(a) 10 (b) 14 65. Rohit invests Rs. 30000 in a bank for 2years and get
(c) 6 (d) 8 6000 as simple interest. Find the Principal amount
which is invested by Rohit’s friend Payal for 4 yrs at
57. same rate and get Rs.5000 as simple interest
(a) 2 ⅓ (b) 2 ¼ (a) Rs.12500 (b) Rs.11500
(c) 4 ½ (d) 3 ½ (c) Rs.10500 (d) Rs.13500

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66. The sum of the speed of boat in upstream and 71. A and B are travelling towards each other from the
downstream is 80km/hr and the distance covered by points P and Q respectively. After crossing each other,
1
boat in upstream and downstream is 150km .Find the A and B take hour 6 and 8 hours, respectively, to
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difference between the time taken by boat to travel in reach their destination Q and P. If the speed of B is
upstream and downstream if the speed of stream is 16.8 km/h then the speed of A is.
10km/hr. (a) 20.8 km/h (b) 19.8 km/h
(a) 1hr (b) 3hr (c) 19.2 km/h (d) 20.4 km/h
(c) 2hr (d) 6hr 72. In a school 60% of the number of students are boys
and the rest are girl. If 20% of the number of boys
67. Rohit can do 4/9 part of work in 20days. Parul can do
failed and 65% of the number of girls passed the
2/9 part of work in 8days, and Rahul can do rest work examination, then the percentage of the total number
in 20days. In how many days all three can complete of students who passed is.
the whole work together. (a) 78 (b) 68
(a) 12days (b) 13days (c) 72 (d) 74
(c) 15days (d) 16days
73. A cuboidal tank contains 25000 litres of water. If the
68. I purchase 100kg of tea and sell it for a profit to the depth of the tank is 1/5 times its length and its breath
extent of what I would have paid for 40kg. What is my is 1/8 times its length, then what is the length of the
profit percentage? tank?
(a) 8m (b) 12m
(a) 40% (b) 25%
(c) 10m (d) 15m
(c) 30% (d) 20%
74. HCF and LCM of two numbers is 8 and 48
69. The ratio of the ages of A and B, four years ago was 4 : respectively. If the ratio of two numbers is 2 : 3, then
5. Eight year from now, the ratio of the ages of A and B the larger of the two numbers is?
will be 11 : 13. What is the sum of their present ages? (a) 16 (b) 48
(a) 80 years (b) 96 years (c) 18 (d) 24
(c) 72 years (d) 76 years 75. From the top of a 12m height building the angle of
70. If the Eight digit number 2074x4y2 is divisible by 88, elevation of the top of a tower is 60° and the angle of
(y < 6), then the value of (4x + 3y) is. depression of the foot of the tower is θ, such that
tanθ= ¾ what is the height of the tower?
(a) 49 (b) 36
(a) 37.95m (b) 39.68m
(c) 42 (d) 45 (c) 41.41m (d) 36.22m

ENGLISH COMPREHENSION
76. Select the correctly spelt word. Directions (80-84): In the following passage some words
(a) Reveerberate (b) Reverbarate have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the
(c) Reverrberate (d) Reverberate alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for
each blank.
77. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given
word. We ___________ (1) this planet with millions of other living
Derail beings, starting from microorganisms and bacteria,
(a) Settle (b) Agitate lichens to banyan trees, elephants and blue whales. This
(c) Bother (d) Discomfort entire habitat that we live in has ______________ (2)
biodiversity.
78. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank
We humans, along with all living organisms, form a
in the given sentence.
complex web of ecological systems in which we are only a
Earlier or in an ancient time, knowledge was
part and very much ____________ (3) on this system for our
considered _____________and no fee was charged.
own existence. For example, the plants, animals and
(a) Sacred (b) Defiant
micro-organisms re-create the quality of the air we
(c) Voguish (d) Medieval
breathe, the water we drink and the soil that ___________ (4)
79. Select the synonym of the given word. our food without which we cannot survive.
Vernacular Forests play a key role in the ecological ___________ (5) as
(a) Bookish (b) Formal these are also the primary producers on which all other
(c) Learned (d) Conversational living beings depend.

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80. Select the most appropriate option for blank no. 1 90. Identify the segment in the given sentence which
(a) Begin (b) Share contains the grammatical error.
(c) Choose (d) Find The students helped one another.
(a) The students (b) helped
81. Select the most appropriate option for blank no. 2
(c) one another. (d) No Error
(a) Irascible (b) Cautious
(c) Immense (d) Unambiguous 91. Given below are four jumbled sentences. Select the
option that gives the correct order.
82. Select the most appropriate option for blank no. 3
A. There is a role of time in this.
(a) Dependent (b) Defeated
B. All living things are identified and categorised on
(c) Determined (d) Delightful
the basis of their body design in form and
83. Select the most appropriate option for blank no. 4 function.
(a) Draws (b) Produces C. Some characteristics are likely to make more
(c) Forecasts (d) Handles wide-ranging changes in body design than others.
D. There is a role of time in this. So, once a certain
84. Select the most appropriate option for blank no. 5
body design comes into existence, it will shape the
(a) System (b) Pyramid
effects of all other subsequent design changes,
(c) Niche (d) Footprint simply because it already exists.
85. Select the option that is the indirect form of the given (a) DABC (b) BCAD
sentence. (c) ADBC (d) CABD
Mr. Raina told me, “You should avoid wastage of 92. Select the option that is the passive form of the given
food”. sentence.
(a) Mr. Raina told me that I can avoid wastage of food. Sharmila does not cook food.
(b) Mr. Raina told me that I should avoid wastage of (a) Food was not cooked by Sharmila.
food. (b) Food might not be cooked by Sharmila.
(c) Mr. Raina told me that I could avoid wastage of (c) Food is not cooked by Sharmila.
food. (d) Food could not be cooked by Sharmila.
(d) Mr. Raina told me that I must avoid wastage of
food. 93. Select the word which means the same as the group of
words given.
86. Select the most appropriate meaning of the idiom. Study of religion
A bite of the cherry (a) Theology (b) Pathology
(a) To not hold someone responsible for something (c) Calligraphy (d) Acoustics
(b) A good thing that seemed bad at first
(c) A good opportunity that isn't available to everyone 94. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank
(d) An ideal situation in the given sentence.
Electrical appliances ease the burden of household
87. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given chores, which usually ____________ on women.
word. (a) Fail (b) Fall
Odious (c) Fallen (d) Fell
(a) Appealing (b) Disgusting
(c) Horrible (d) Distasteful 95. Select the most appropriate meaning of the idiom
given in bold in the given sentence.
88. Select the word which means the same as the group of Attempts at classifying living things into groups have
words given. been made since time
One who demands strict conformity to rules. immemorial.
(a) Egoist (b) Martinet (a) At all times
(c) Teetotaler (d) Iconoclast (b) Likely to occur in the near future
(c) Very quickly
89. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given
(d) For a very long time
word.
Skewed 96. Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.
(a) Accurate (b) Perfect (a) Independence (b) Genuine
(c) Specific (d) Inexact (c) Complesion (d) Coincidence

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97. Identify the segment in the given sentence which
contains the grammatical error.
You must have heard that, travellers from various
regions having different climates and culture began to
visit parts of India from early times.
(a) You must have heard
(b) travellers from various
(c) culture began to
(d) No Error
98. Select the option that will improve the segment in
bold of the given sentence. In case no improvement is
needed, select ‘No improvement.’
You, he and I have created a problem.
(a) I, you and he (b) You, I and He
(c) No improvement (d) He, you and I
99. Select the option that will improve the segment in
bold of the given sentence. In case no improvement is
needed, select ‘No improvement.’
Takshashila became famous as a place of learning due
to its teachers' expertise.
(a) It’s teachers' expertise (b) Its teachers expertise
(c) Its teacher’s expertise (d) No improvement
100.Given below are four jumbled sentences. Select the
option that gives the correct order.
A. In his bundle he carried a shirt, a towel and a
comb.
B. For two days he had eaten nothing but some
peanuts and a piece of jaggery.
C. Velu, an eleven-year-old boy, ran away from his
village two days ago.
D. He had walked for most of the first day to Kannur
and then got on the train to Chennai.
(a) CBAD (b) ADBC
(c) DABC (d) BDCA