Punjab Judicial Service (Pre.

) Examination, 2017

PUNJAB STATE JUDICIAL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM 2017

S.No Common subjects Question number

1. Constitution 2-3, 32-33, 62, 90-92, 98-99
2. CPC 6-7, 35-36, 69-70, 73, 82-83, 86-87, 93-94, 121
3. CRPC 1, 29-31, 59-60, 88-89, 96-97, 107-108, 113, 125
4. Indian Evidence Act 10-11, 39-40, 78, 79-81, 100-101, 109-110, 116
5. Indian Contract Act 4-5, 34, 75, 120
6. Limitation Act 19-20, 48, 104, 106
7. Specific Relief Act 24-25, 52-53, 72, 123
8. TP Act 27-28, 51, 55,111, 115
9. IPC 16, 18, 45-47, 56-57, 65-66, 102-103, 114, 117
10. Registration Act 23, 50-51
11. Partnership Act 22, 122, 124
12. Sale of Goods Act 26, 54
13. Hindu Law 12-15, 17, 41-44, 61, 71, 118
14. Muslim Law 58
15. Punjab Court Act 49
16. Haryana Urban (Control of rent &
eviction) 1973
17. Customary Law
18. East Punjab urban rent
restriction act
Punjab Judicial Service (Pre.) Examination, 2017
1. In computing the period of (b) remains valid
limitation under Code of Criminal (c) becomes voidable at the instance
Procedure, 1973, in relation to an of the promise
offence, the day from which such (d) becomes unenforceable
period is to be computed: (e) None of these [c]
(a) shall be included 5. 'A' contracts to pay 'B' a sum of Rs.
(b) shall be excluded 10,000 when 'B' marries 'C'. This is
(c) shall either be excluded or a type of ....................... under
included as per discretion of Indian Contract Act, 1872.
prosecution (a) Contingent contract
(d) shall either be excluded or (b) Vested contract
included as per discretion of defence (c) Illegal contract
(e) None of these [b] (d) Voidable contract
2. A Money bill passed by the Lok (e) None of these [a]
Sabha is deemed to have been 6. An Executing Court cannot
passed by the Rajya Sabha when no determine the questions relating
action is taken by the Rajya Sabha to which of the following?
within: (a) Execution of decree
(a) 10 days (b) Discharge of decree
(b) 14 days (c) Satisfaction of decree
(c) 20 days (d) Modification of decree
(d) 30 days (e) None of these [d]
(e) None of these [b] 7. Which one of the following
3. As per the Constitution of India, properties is liable to attachment
the legislative Assembly of a state or sale in the execution of a decree
shall consist of more than 500 and under Code of Civil Procedure?
not less than 60 members, but (a) Mere right to sue for damages
which one of the following states (b) A promissory note
has got only 32 members? (c) Books of account
(a) Delhi (d) A right of personal service
(b) Sikkim (e) None of these [b]
(c) Goa 8. P.V. Sindhu won silver medal in Rio
(d) Puducherry Olympics. To whom did she lose in
(e) None of these [b] final match?
4. Under Indian Contract Act, 1872, if (a) Wang Yihan
the time is essence of a contract (b) Carolina Marin
and the promisor fails to perform (c) Nozomi Okuhara
the contract by the specified time, (d) SUN Yu
the contract: (e) None of these [b]
(a) becomes void
Punjab Judicial Service (Pre.) Examination, 2017
9. Which one among the following is (c) Section 16
not a Tiger Reserve in India? (d) Section 17
(a) Ranthabhor National Park (e) None of these [a]
(b) Sariska National Park 13. Maintenance pendente-lite has
(c) Jim Corbett National Park been discussed under section
(d) Gir National Park ............. of Hindu Marriage Act,
(e) None of these [d] 1955.
10. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872, a (a) 23
court has no discretion regarding (b) 24
proof a fact in context of: (c) 25
(a) ‘May presume' (d) 26
(b) 'Shall presume' (e) None of these [b]
(c) 'Conclusive proof' 14. A person is said to be a 'cognate' of
(d) ‘Judicial Notice' another if:
(e) None of these [c] (a) two are related to each other by
11. A prosecutes B for adultery with C, blood or adoption wholly through
A's wife. B denies that C is A's wife, males
but the Court convicts B of (b) two are related to each other by
adultery. Afterwards, C is blood or adoption but not wholly
prosecuted for bigamy in marrying through males
B during 'A's lifetime. C says that (c) both (a) and (b)
she never was A's wife. Which (d) either (a) or (b)
statement is correct as per Indian (e) None of these [b]
Evidence Act, 1872? 15. Presumption that the younger
(a) The judgment against B is not survived the elder under section 21
relevant as against C of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 is
(b) The judgment against B is a ...................
relevant as against C (a) Presumption of fact
(c) The judgment against B may be (b) Irrebutable presumption of fact
admitted against C if thirty years old and law
(d) The judgment against B is (c) Rebuttable presumption of law
relevant as against A (d) Irrebuttable presumption of law
(e) None of these [a] (e) None of these [c]
12. The constitutional validity of which 16. Y inserts his hand into the pocket
section of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 of Z with malafide intention to
was upheld by Supreme Court in take away his money. But the
Saroj Rani v. Sudarshan (AIR 1984 pocket was empty. What offence, if
SC 1562)? any Y committed under Indian
(a) Section 9 Penal Code, 1860?
(b) Section 13
Punjab Judicial Service (Pre.) Examination, 2017
(a) No offence as the offence was not (a) cannot be condoned under
completed Limitation Act, 1963
(b) Theft (b) can be condoned under Section 3,
(c) Mischief Limitation Act, 1963
(d) Extortion (c) can be condoned under Article
(e) None of these [e] 137, Limitation Act, 1963
17. Under Hindu Adoption and (d) can be condoned under Section 5,
Maintenance Act, 1956, consent of Limitation Act, 1963
wife for adopting a child is not (e) None of these [a]
necessary when: 21. "In pari delicto” means:
(a) Wife ceased to be Hindu (a) where parents are at fault
(b) Wife declared by court to be of (b) in case of equal fault or guilt
unsound mind (c) a person with guilty mind
(c) Wife renounced the world (d) a delinquent criminal
(d) All of the above (e) None of these [b]
(e) None of these [d] 22. The Propositions are:
18. In which of the following the right (I) Where a partner of a
of private defence of property professional business partnership
under Indian Penal Code, 1860, borrows money in the usual and
does not extend to causing death? regular course of business stating
(a) Robbery that the money is to be used for
(b) House breaking by night partnership business but
(c) Mischief giving apprehension of misappropriates it, the other
death or grievous hurt partners shall be liable.
(d) Mischief by fire (II) Where money has been
(e) None of these [e] borrowed by a partner without
19. Under which section of the authority, but has been applied to
Limitation Act, 1963 the time the legitimate business needs of
requisite for obtaining a copy of the firm, the firm is liable.
the decree or order appealed shall (III) Where the act is within the
be excluded in computing the scope of the implied authority of a
period of limitation for appeal, partner, but it has been done by
review or revision? him, to the knowledge of the third
(a) Section 12(2) party, not for the firm but for his
(b) Section 12(1) own purposes, the firm is liable.
(c) Section 12(3) Which of the following is true in
(d) Section 12(4) accordance with Indian
(e) None of these [a] Partnership Act, 1932 as to the
20. Delay in filing the suit: aforesaid propositions?
Punjab Judicial Service (Pre.) Examination, 2017
(a) (I) is correct, (II) and (III) are (a) question of law
incorrect (b) question of fact
(b) (I) & (II) are correct, (III) is (c) mixed question of law and fact
incorrect (d) either (a) or (c)
(c) (I), (II) & (III), all are correct (e) None of these [b]
(d) (II) & (III) are correct, (I) is 27. Which amongst the following is
incorrect immovable property as per Section
(e) None of these [e] 3 of Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
23. A will can be presented for (a) Standing Timber
registration (Under Registration (b) Grass
Act, 1908) within (c) Fruit Trees
(a) 2 months from execution (d) Growing Crops
(b) 4 months from execution (e) None of these [*]
(c) 6 months from execution Deleted
(d) At any time 28. Doctrine which required that the
(e) None of these [d] transferor must deliver the
24. What is the meaning of principle of subsequently acquired property to
quia timet in the context of law of the transferee who acted upon his
injunction? false 'representation and did harm
(a) Some future probable injury to to himself by paying money for
the right or interests of a person what he could not get, is called.
(b) Some past injury to the right or (a) Rule against unjust enrichment
interest of a person (b) Implied consent
(c) Some injury incapable of being (c) Feeding the grant by estoppel
estimated in money (d) Doctrine of substantial
(d) Some injury capable of being compliance
estimated in money (e) None of these [c]
(e) None of these [a] 29. Who is given protection from
25. The jurisdiction of the Court to arrest under Section 45 of Code of
decree specific performance under Criminal Procedure, 1973?
Specific Relief Act, 1963, is: (a) President of India
(a) Discretionary (b) Judicial Officers
(b) Mandatory (c) Members of Armed Forces
(c) Arbitrary (d) Members of Parliament
(d) Discretionary but should not be (e) None of these [c]
arbitrary 30. In case of cognizable offence,
(e) None of these [d] police has power to:
26. Under Section 63 of Sale of Goods (a) Arrest only with warrants but to
Act, 1930 'Reasonable time' is a investigate without court order
...................
Punjab Judicial Service (Pre.) Examination, 2017
(b) Arrest without warrants and to 33. Principle of stare decisis is
investigate without court order incorporated in .................... of
(c) Arrest without warrants but to Constitution of India.
investigate only after court order (a) Article 139
(d) Arrest only with warrants and to (b) Article 140
Investigate after court order (c) Article 141
(e) None of these [b] (d) Article 142
31. If an accused at one trial is (e) None of these [c]
convicted of and punished with 34. Which one of the following
imprisonment in two offences, statements is true under Indian
under section 31 of the Code of Contract Act, 1872?
Criminal Procedure, 1973; the (a) Intimation of minimum price is
imprisonments in the absence of proposal.
any specific direction of the court, (b) An agreement against public
will run: policy is voidable
(a) Consecutively (c) An agreement, the meaning of
(b) Concurrently which is not certain is void
(c) Consecutively as per direction of (d) Wager contracts are Illegal
Jail Authorities (e) None of these [c]
(d) Concurrently as per direction of 35. What will be the nature of an order
Jail Authorities passed by Court rejecting the
(e) None of these [a] plaint for non payment of a Court
32. Which answer shows correct fee?
match? (a) Decree
(A) Ajay Hasia v. Khalid Mujib (b) Preliminary decree
(B) P.K. Ramachandra Iyer v. UOI (c) Interlocutory Order
(C) Sabhajit Tewary v. UOI (d) Final Order
(D) Tekraj v.UOI (e) None of these [a]
(1) CSIR as State 36. A sues B on a bill of exchange for
(2) Institute of Constitutional and Rs. 500.B holds a judgment against
Parliamentary Studies as non State A for Rs. 1000. The two claims being
(3) Regional Engineering College both definite pecuniary demands
run by society as state may be set off. The illustration is
(4) ICAR as State given in:
A B C D (a) Order VIII, Rule 5 of Code of Civil
(a) 2 1 4 3 Procedure
(b) 3 2 1 4 (b) Order VIII, Rule 6 of Code of Civil
(c) 3 4 1 2 Procedure
(d) 2 1 3 4 (c) Order VIII, Rule 7 of Code of Civil
(e) None of these [c] Procedure
Punjab Judicial Service (Pre.) Examination, 2017
(d) Order VIII, Rule 9 of Code of Civil 40. Under section 30 of Indian
Procedure Evidence Act, 1872, confession of
(e) None of these [b] one accused is admissible evidence
37. Which international convention is against co-accused if:
ratified by India on 2nd October (a) They are tried jointly for the same
2016? offences
(a) Madrid agreement on (b) They are tried jointly for different
Environment offences
(b) Paris agreement on Climate (c) They are tried separately for the
Change same offences
(c) Geneva Convention on Climate (d) They are tried separately for the
Change cognate offences
(d) Chicago Convention on (e) None of these [a]
Environment 41. Kanyadaan is an important
(e) None of these [b] ceremony in Hindu marriages. It is
38. Which one of the following movies, mandatory for a marriage to be
won the Best Film Award at 63rd held valid:
National Film Awards? (a) True
(a) Bahubali (b) False
(b) Tanu weds Manu Returns (c) True, only if kanyadaan is done by
(c) Bajirao Mastani biological father
(d) Piku (d) True, only if kanyadaan is done by
(e) None of these [a] any blood relative
39. By which of the following ways (e) None of these [b]
under Indian Evidence Act, 1872, 42. If a girl becomes pregnant by some
the credit of a witness may be person before marriage, and
impeached by adverse party? subsequently maries some third
(a) By the evidence of persons who person: What is the position under
testify that they, from their Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
knowledge of the witness, believe (a) Marriage is void
him to be unworthy of credit (b) Marriage is valid
(b) By proof that the witness has (c) Marriage is voidable at the option
been bribed, or has accepted the of the groom
offer of bribe. (d) Marriage is voidable at the option
(c) By proof of former statements of the bride
inconsistent with any part of his (e) None of these [c]
evidence which is liable to be 43. A is a Hindu male. He dies intestate
contradicted. leaving a son B, two grand sons M
(d) All of the above and N of deceased son C and three
(e) None of these [d] great grandsons X, Y and Z of
Punjab Judicial Service (Pre.) Examination, 2017
deceased grandson P of deceased
son D. What will be share of M and
X?
(a) 1/3, 1/6
(b) 1/6, 1/9
(c) 1/3, 1/9
(d) 1/9, 1/9
(e) None of these [b]
44. Who among the following is not
Class I heir under Hindu Succession
Act, 1956?
(a) Mother
(b) Father
(c) Son
(d) Daughter
(e) None of these [b]
45. Which of the following match is
wrong?
(a) Wrongful gain-Section 23 IPC
(b) Dishonestly-Section 24 IPC
(c) Fraudulently-Section 26 IPC
(d) Valuable Security-Section 30 IPC
(e) None of these [c]
46. X, a jailor, has the charge of Z, a
prisoner. X, intending to cause Z's
death, illegally omits to supply Z
with food; in consequence of which
Z is much reduced in strength, but
the starvation is not sufficient to
cause his death. X is dismissed
from his office, and Y succeeds
him. Y, without collusion or co
operation with X, illegally omits to
supply Z with food, knowing that
he is likely thereby to cause Z's
death. Z dies of hunger. What will
be position under Indian Penal
Code, 1860?
(a) X and Yare guilty of Murder
(b) X is guilty of an attempt to commit
Murder
(c) Y is guilty of an attempt to commit
Murder
(d) Y is guilty of an attempt to commit
culpable homicide
(e) None of these [b]
47. Section 22 of the Limitation Act,
1963 refers to which of following
case(s) of:
(a) Continuing breach of contract
(b) Successive breach of contract
(c) Both continuing & successive
breaches
(d) Special damages
(e) None of these [a]
48. The plaintiff is entitled to get the
benefit of Section 14 of the
Limitation Act, 1963 provided:
(a) That the suit must not have been
entertained by the former court for
want of jurisdiction
(b) That the plaintiff must be
prosecuting his suit with due
diligence and in good faith
(c) Either (a) or (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b)
(e) None of these [d]
49. Section 26 of Punjab Courts Act,
1918 deals with:
(a) Pecuniary limits of jurisdiction of
District Judges
(b) Pecuniary limits of jurisdiction of
subordinate Judges
(c) Subject matter jurisdiction of
Subordinate Judges
(d) Subject matter jurisdiction of
District Judges
(e) None of these [b]
Punjab Judicial Service (Pre.) Examination, 2017
50. When a document is executed by (b) If the damages can be easily
several persons at different times ascertained
then it may be presented for (c) If the article is held by the person
registration under Section 24 of as agent or trustee of the claimant
Registration Act, 1908, within (d) All of above
.................. (e) None of the above [c]
(a) Four months from the date of 54. Section 57 of the Sale of Goods Act,
each execution 1932 deals with:
(b) Four months from the date of (a) Suit for price
execution by first person (b) Suit for damages for non-delivery
(c) Four months from the date of (c) Suit for damages for non-
execution by last person acceptance
(d) Four months from the date of (d) Suit for return of goods
execution by 50% of executors (e) None of the above [b]
(e) None of these [a] 55. Which of the following statement
51. A document required to be is incorrect in the light of Transfer
registered under Section 17(1A) of of Property Act, 1882?
Registration Act, 1908 is not (a) Right of Redemption belongs to
registered; the document will have mortgagor
no effect for the purposes of (b) Right of Foreclosure belongs to
............... of Transfer of Property mortgagor
Act, 1882. (c) Right of Redemption can be
(a) Section 114A abrogated by parties
(b) Section 53A (d) Right of Foreclosure cannot be
(c) Section 130A abrogated by parties
(d) Section 63A (e) None of these [*]
(e) None of these [b] Deleted
52. Declaratory decree can be granted 56. Under Indian Penal Code, 1860 any
under ........... of Specific Relief Act, assembly of five or more persons is
1963. not an unlawful assembly if there
(a) Section 34 common object is:
(b) Section 35 (a) To compel any person to do what
(c) Section 36 he is legally bound to do
(d) Section 37 (b) To commit mischief
(e) None of these [a] (c) To commit criminal trespass
53. Section 8 of Specific Relief Act, 1963 (d) To obtain property forcefully
can be invoked: (e) None of these [a]
(a) If compensation in money is an 57. Minimum punishment as
adequate relief imprisonment provided under
Indian Penal Code, 1860 is:
Punjab Judicial Service (Pre.) Examination, 2017
(a) One week (b) Common ancestress but by the
(b) 24 hours same husband
(c) 12 hours (c) Different ancestress but by
(d) 08 hours different husbands
(e) None of these [b] (d) Different ancestress but by same
58. What is 'iddat' period prescribed husband
for a widow under Muslim law? (e) None of these [a]
(a) Four lunar months and ten days 62. Which of the following
(b) Four lunar months statement(s) is/are incorrect about
(c) Three lunar months and ten days Fundamental Rights?
(d) Three lunar months (i) All fundamental rights are
(e) None of these [e] justiciable
59. Under which section of Code of (ii) Based on Lockean philosophy
Criminal Procedure, 1973, it is (ii) International Human Rights
mandatory to produce an arrested Laws played important role in
person before the Magistrate broadening the concept of
within 24 hours of his arrest? fundamental rights in India
(a) 59 (iv) Violation of fundamental right
(b) 58 is violation of rule of law
(c) 57 (v) All human rights are
(d) 56 fundamental rights
(e) None of these [c] (vi) All fundamental rights are
60. What is the total period for which a human rights
Magistrate under section 167(2) of (a) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, (b) (ii) and (v)
can authorize the detention of a (c) (i) and (v)
person accused of offence (d) Only (v)
punishable under section 304B IPC? (e) None of these [d]
(a) 15 days 63. What is the shape of Bharat Ratna
(b) 60 days Award?
(c) 90 days (a) Peepal Leaf
(d) 180 days (b) Banyan Leaf
(e) None of these [c] (c) Neem Leaf
61. As per Hindu Succession Act, 1956, (d) Betel Leaf
two persons are said to be related (e) None of these [a]
to each other by uterine blood 64. Who among the following invented
when they are descended from: World Wide Web (WWW)?
(a) Common ancestress but by (a) Steve Jobs
different husbands (b) Alam Turing
(c) Tim Berners Lee
Punjab Judicial Service (Pre.) Examination, 2017
(d) Vint Cerf plaintiff nor defendant appears on
(e) None of these [c] fixed day of hearing?
65. According to Section 52 of Indian (a) Simple adjournment
Penal Code, 1860, nothing is said to (b) Dismissal of suit
be done or believed in good faith (c) Imposition of costs
which is done or believed without (d) Adjournment sine-die
(a) due care or diligence (e) None of these [b]
(b) due attention or bonafide 70. Which of the following statements
(c) due care or attention are correct in the context of
(d) due diligence or bonafide Section 5 of Code of Civil
(e) None of these [e] Procedure?
66. A obstructs a path along which B (i) Revenue Court is a part of Civil
has a right to pass, not believing in Court
good faith that he has a right to (ii) Civil Court means courts having
stop the path. B is thereby original jurisdiction under C.P.C.
prevented from passing. A has but not Revenue Court
committed the offence of ........... (iii) Civil Court means courts
(a) Wrongful confinement having original jurisdiction under
(b) Wrongful restraint C.P.C. including Revenue Court
(c) Intimidation (iv) Revenue Court is not a part of
(d) Criminal force Civil Court
(e) None of the above [b] (a) (i) and (ii)
67. In which of the following states (b) (i) and (iii)
'Kathakali' a dance form (c) (ii) and (iv)
originated? (d) (iii) and (iv)
(a) Uttar Pradesh (e) None of these [c]
(b) Andhra Pradesh 71. Non-registration of marriage
(c) Kerala under section 8 of Hindu Marriage
(d) Tamil Nadu Act, 1955:
(e) None of these [c] (a) invalidates the marriage and calls
68. Who started the Sarvodaya for imposition of penalty
Movement? (b) does not invalidate the marriage
(a) Mahatma Gandhi but calls for imposition of penalty
(b) J.P. Narayan (c) neither invalidates the marriage
(c) Vinoba Bhave nor calls for imposition of penalty
(d) Bhagat Singh (d) makes the marriage voidable
(e) None of these [c] (e) None of these [b]
69. Which of the following order a 72. What is/are case(s) in which
court may pass under Order IX, specific performance of contract is
Rule 3 CPC in a suit where neither enforceable:
Punjab Judicial Service (Pre.) Examination, 2017
(a) When there exists no standard for (i) Parties to contract should have
ascertaining the actual damage capacity to contract.
caused by the non-performance (ii) Parties to contract should have
(b) When the act agreed to be done is legal mind.
such that compensation in money, (iii) Parties to contract should be
for its non performance would not intelligent.
afford adequate relief (iv) Invitation to offer should be
(c) When prima facie case is in favour accepted.
of plaintiff Find correct answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b) (a) Only (i) and (iv) are correct
(e) None of these [d] (b) Only (i) is correct
73. Under Section 16 of Code of Civil (c) All of above are correct
Procedure, a suit relating to (d) Only (ii) is correct
movable property can be filed in a (e) None of these [b]
court within whose local 76. When, for the first time, did the
jurisdiction: Prime Minister of India announce
(a) The property in situate the 20-point Economic
(b) The defendant voluntarily resides Programme?
or personally works for gain (a) 1973
(c) The defendant voluntarily resides (b) 1974
or carries on business (c) 1975
(d) Either (a) or (b) or (c) (d) 1976
(e) None of these [a] (e) None of these [c]
74. A lets a house to B at a yearly rent 77. Which one of the following is a
of Rs. 10,000. The rent for the whole Kharif crop?
of the years 2006 to 2008 is due and (a) Bajra
unpaid. A sues B in 2009 only for (b) Wheat
the rent due for 2007. (c) Mustard
(a) A can afterwards sue B for the (d) Barley
rent due for 2006 only (e) None of these [a]
(b) A can afterwards sue B for the 78. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872, in
rent due for 2008 only a trial, the burden of proving the
(c) A can afterwards sue B for the plea of insanity of accused lies on:
rent due both for 2006 and 2008 (a) Prosecution
(d) A cannot afterwards sue B for the (b) Accused
rent due for 2006 or 2008 (c) Civil Surgeon to whom the
(e) None of these [d] accused was referred for
75. Following is/are essential(s) of examination
valid contract as per Indian (d) First on Prosecution then in reply
Contract Act, 1872. upon accused
Punjab Judicial Service (Pre.) Examination, 2017
(e) None of these [b] (b) Void
79. Match the following and select (c) Voidable against all the parties
correct answer: other than the minor
(A) Suits by or against partnership (d) Voidable against all the parties
firms including the minor
(B) Suits by or against minors (e) None of these [c]
(C) Suits by indigent persons 83. According to Section 58 of Code of
(D) Mortgage Suits Civil Procedure no detention in civil
(1) Order 32 CPC imprisonment can be ordered if
(2) Order 30 CPC the decree is for a payment of
(3) Order 34 CPC amount:
(4) Order 33 CPC (a) Not exceeding Rs. 500
A B C D (b) Not exceeding Rs. 1000
(a) 2 1 4 3 (c) Not exceeding Rs. 1,500
(b) 1 2 3 4 (d) Not exceeding Rs. 2,000
(c) 2 4 1 3 (e) None of these [d]
(d) 1 3 2 4 84. On which river in India the Bhakra
(e) None of these [a] Nangal Dam is built?
80. Which section of Indian Evidence (a) Ghaggar
Act, 1872 is reflection of "Doctrine (b) Beas
of Confirmation by subsequent (c) Sutlej
facts"? (d) Ravi
(a) Section 27 (e) None of these [c]
(b) Section 115 85. Who is selected for the Rashtriya
(c) Section 102 Kalidas Samman for year 2016-
(d) Section 165 2017?
(e) None of these [a] (a) Raj Bisaria
81. Law of Evidence is a: (b) Banshi Kaul
(a) A substantive law (c) Rajam
(b) A procedural law (d) Anupam Kher
(c) A penal law (e) None of these [b]
(d) Both (a) and (c) 86. Under Section 148A of Code of Civil
(e) None of these [b] Procedure, a caveat shall not
82. An agreement or compromise is remain in force after the expiry of
entered into on behalf of a minor ............... days.
without the leave of the Court. (a) 30
Such agreement or compromise, (b) 60
under Order 32, Rule 7 of Code of (c) 90
Civil Procedure is: (d) 120
(a) Valid (e) None of these [*]
Punjab Judicial Service (Pre.) Examination, 2017
Deleted
87. Examination de bene esse, under
Order 18, Rule 16 Code of Civil
Procedure means: 90.
(a) Examination of a witness before
the hearing
(b) Examination of a witness after the
hearing
(c) The court may at any stage of a
suit make local inspection and make
a memorandum of any relevant fact 91.
(d) Witness disabled by any reasons
authorizes other person acquainted
with facts to depose on his behalf
(e) None of these [a]
88. When a person who would
otherwise be competent to
compound an offence under Code
of Criminal Procedure 1973, is dead,
then:
(a) Offence cannot be compounded
at all.
(b) Offence can be compounded by
Public Prosecutor with consent of the 92.
Court
(c) Offence can be compounded by
legal representative of deceased with
consent of the Court
(d) Offence can be compounded by
District Legal Services Authority with
consent of the Court
(e) None of these [c]
89. Who among the following can issue 93.
search warrant under Code of
Criminal Procedure, 1973, if there is
a reason to believe that any person
is confined and such confinement
amounts to an offence?
(a) High Court
(b) Sessions Court
(c) District Magistrate
(d) All of above
(e) None of these [c]
Who among the following, in India,
does not take oath of his office:
(a) Vice-President
(b) Speaker
(c) Parliamentary Affairs Minister
(d) M.L.A
(e) None of these [b]
Choose the correct chronological
order (Latest first) of following
cases.
(I) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
(II) A.D.M. Jabalpur v. S. Shukla
(III) Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain
(IV) Kesavananda Bharati v. State
of Kerala Answers
(a) (IV), (II), (III), (I)
(b) (IV), (I), (II), (III)
(c) (III), (II), (IV),(I)
(d) (IV),(III), (II), (I)
(e) None of these [e]
Under which Article of the
Constitution of India, power of
review of judgment or orders made
by it, lies with the Supreme Court
(a) Article 142
(b) Article 137
(c) Article 143
(d) Article 141
(e) None of these [b]
Interrogatories shall be answered
under Code of Civil Procedure by
way of affidavit to be filed within
.............. days or within such other
time as the Court may allow.
(a) 30
(b) 20
(c) 10
Punjab Judicial Service (Pre.) Examination, 2017
(d) 45
(e) None of these [c]
94. For determination of an objection
under section 9 of Code of Civil
Procedure as to the exclusion of
jurisdiction of Civil Court, the Court
is to primarily see the averments
made in:
(a) Plaint only
(b) Plaint and written statement only
(c) Plaint, written statement and
replication only
(d) Averment made in application for
return of plaint
(e) None of these [a]
95. Who is known as "Father of Indian
Renaissance"?
(a) Lala Lajpat Rai
(b) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(c) Shaheed Bhagat Singh
(d) B.G. Tilak
(e) None of these [b]
96. Which of the following cannot be a
ground for refusal by Magistrate to
grant 'Maintenance' under Section
125 of Code of Criminal Procedure.
1973. to a wife:
(a) She is living separately by mutual
consent.
(b) She is living in adultery.
(c) She is living separately without
sufficient reason
(d) She is supported by her parents
(e) None of these [d]
97. Section 236 of Code of Criminal
Procedure, 1973, lays down a
special form of procedure as to the
issue of liability to enhanced
punishment in consequence of
previous conviction. The section is
applicable to trials before:
(a) Court of Session only
(b) Court of Judicial Magistrate only
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Juvenile Justice Board only
(e) None of these [a]
98. Which one of the following
statements is incorrect?
(a) No title, not being a military or
academic distinction, shall be
conferred by the State.
(b) No Foreigner residing in India
shall accept any title from any foreign
State without consent of President of
India.
(c) No person who is not a citizen of
India shall, while he holds any office
of profit or trust under the State,
accept without the consent of the
President any title from any foreign
State
(d) No person holding any office of
profit or trust under the State shall,
without the consent of the President,
accept any present, emolument, or
office of any kind from or under any
foreign State
(e) None of these [b]
99. In which case, the Supreme Court
of India propounded 'Doctrine of
Prospective Overruling'?
(a) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India
(b) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
(c) Golak Nath v. State of Punjab
(d) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of
Kerala
(e) None of these [c]
100. Under Section 54 of Indian
Evidence Act, 1872 previous bad
Punjab Judicial Service (Pre.) Examination, 2017
character is irrelevant, but (d) Preparation, Motive, Attempt and
becomes relevant if: Accomplishment
(a) the bad character of a person is (e) None of these [b]
itself a fact 104. Which section of the Limitation
(b) the bad character of a person is Act, 1963 provides that on lapse of
itself a fact-in-issue time not only the remedy is barred
(c) the bad character is evidence to a but the right to property is also
previous conviction extinguished?
(d) Both (b) and (c) (a) Section 27
(e) None of these [d] (b) Section 26
101. If the attested witness denies or (c) Section 23
does not recollect the execution of (d) Section 24
the document, its execution may (e) None of these [a]
be proved by other evidence under 105. The easement rights over the
........... of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 property belonging to the
(a) Section 68 Government are acquired by
(b) Section 69 continuous & uninterrupted user:
(c) Section 70 (a) for 12 years
(d) Section 71 (b) for 20 years
(e) None of these [d] (c) for 30 years
102. Read the following: (d) for 60 years
(1) The maxim "Actus me invito (e) None of these [c]
factus non est meus actus" finds 106. Any suit for filing of which no
application in Section 94 IPC. period of limitation is provided in
(2) The maxim "de minimis non the Limitation Act, 1963, then
curat lex" has been incorporated in limitation period will be:
Section 95 of I.P.C. Of the above: (a) 1 year
(a) (1) is true but (2) is false (b) 2 years
(b) (1) is false but (2) is true (c) 3 years
(c) Both (1) and (2) are true (d) 5 years
(d) Both (1) and (2) are false (e) None of these [c]
(e) None of these [c] 107. An Investigating officer during the
103. Which of the following is correct investigation records the
sequence of stages in a crime? statement of a witness under
(a) Intention, Attempt, Section .............. of Code of Criminal
Accomplishment, Preparation Procedure, 1973.
(b) Intention, Preparation, Attempt, (a) 164
Accomplishment (b) 162
(c) Preparation, Intention Attempt, (c) 161
Accomplishment (d) 160
Punjab Judicial Service (Pre.) Examination, 2017
(e) None of these [c]
108. Under which section of Code of
Criminal Procedure, 1973, a Court
can order (when fine is not part of
sentence) any amount to be paid
by accused as compensation.
(a) 357(1)
(b) 357(2)
(c) 357(3)
(d) 357(4)
(e) None of these [c]
109. Fact in issue means:
(a) Fact, existence or non-existence of
which is admitted by the parties
(b) Fact, existence or non-existence of
which is disputed by the parties
(c) Fact, which is attached with other
facts alleged by of Plaintiff
(d) Fact, which is attached with other
facts alleged of defendant
(e) None of these [b]
110. The question is whether A
committed a crime at Calcutta on a
certain day, fact that on that day A
was at Lahore is relevant
(a) As introductory to fact in issue
(b) As preparation of fact in issue
(c) As it makes existence of fact in
issue highly improbable
(d) As a motive for fact in issue
(e) None of these [c]
111. Which of the following gift is not
governed by the Transfer of
Property Act, 1882?
(a) Onerous gift
(b) Mortis causa gift
(c) Universal gift
(d) Gift to disqualified person
(e) None of these [b]
112. Under which Constitutional
Amendment Act a new
Fundamental Duty was
incorporated in the Constitution of
India, which states 'who is a parent
or guardian to provide
opportunities for education to his
child or, as the case may be, ward
between the age of six and
fourteen years'?
(a) 84th Amendment Act
(b) 85th Amendment Act
(c) 86th Amendment Act
(d) 87th Amendment Act
(e) None of these [c]
113. Which of the following act done by
a Magistrate, not being authorized
by law in this behalf, does not
vitiate criminal proceedings (as per
Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973)?
(a) Trying an offender summarily
(b) Attaching and selling property
under Section 83 Cr.P.C.
(c) Taking cognizance of an offence
under Section 109(1)(c) Cr.P.C.
(d) Recalling a case and trying it
himself under section 410 Cr.P.C.
(e) None of these [d]
114. Whoever by force compels, or by
any deceitful means induces, any
person to go from any place, is said
to have committed under Indian
Penal Code, 1860, the offence(s) of:
(a) Kidnapping
(b) Kidnapping and Abduction
(c) Abduction
(d) Threat
(e) None of these [c]
Punjab Judicial Service (Pre.) Examination, 2017
115. Which of the following doctrine
finds application in Section 41 of
Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
(a) Doctrine of Holding Out
(b) Doctrine of Feeding the Grant by
Estoppel
(c) Doctrine of Lis pendens
(d) Doctrine of Acquiescence
(e) None of these [a]
116. Which of the following statement
is incorrect in the context of
"Estoppel" as dealt in Section 115
of Indian Evidence Act, 1872:
(a) There must be a representation
by a person to another
(b) The representation must be in
writing
(c) The other person must have acted
upon such representation taking it as
true
(d) The other person should have
suffered some prejudice, detriment
or disadvantage by acting upon or by
reason of such representation.
(e) None of these [b]
117. X' puts gold coins into a box
belonging to Z, with intention that
they may found in that box, and
that this circumstance may cause Z
to be convicted of theft. What
offence X committed under Indian
Penal Code, 1860?
(a) Fabricating false evidence
(b) Giving false evidence
(c) Committing abetment of theft
(d) Committing cheating
(e) None of the above [a]
118. As a rule, a petition for dissolution
of marriage under Hindu Marriage
Act, 1955 cannot be presented
before the expiry of ............ from
the date of marriage.
(a) 6 months
(b) 9 months
(c) 1 year
(d) 2 years
(e) None of these [c]
119. An agreement with minor is void,
hence:
(a) Minor is never allowed to enforce
such agreement
(b) Minor is allowed to enforce such
agreement, if it was made for his
benefit
(c) Minor is always allowed to enforce
such agreement
(d) Minor is allowed to enforce such
contract when other party makes no
objection
(e) None of these [b]
120. Under Indian Contract Act, 1872,
destruction of subject matter of
contract leads to:
(a) Performance of contract
(b) Discharge by impossibility
(c) Breach of Contract
(d) Renovation of Contract
(e) None of the above [b]
121. The principle of res judicata is also
applicable between co-defendants.
Which one of the following is not
an essential condition to bind the
co-defendants?
(a) The Co-defendants must have
filed joint written statement
(b) There must be a conflict of
interest between the defendants
concerned
Punjab Judicial Service (Pre.) Examination, 2017
(c) It must be necessary to decide this (e) None of these [e]
conflict in order to give the plaintiff 124. Under Indian Partnership Act, 1932,
the relief he claims a partnership does not work under
(d) The question between the the principle of
defendants must have been finally (a) Greatest Common Advantage
decided (b) Good Faith
(e) None of these [a] (c) Due Diligence
122. If an innocent partner seeks (d) Limited liability
dissolution of a firm under section (e) None of these [d]
44(c) of the Indian Partnership Act, 125. Which of the following statement
1932, he has to satisfy the court of law is incorrect in the context of
that ............. decision of Supreme Court in Sakiri
(a) the conduct of the other partner is Vasu v. State of U.P. (AIR 2008 SC
calculated to prejudice the carrying 907).
on of the partnership business (a) Magistrate has power to direct
(b) the partnership firm is not in a police to register FIR
position to repay the loan borrowed (b) Magistrate can monitor
from a Nationalized Bank investigation
(c) the partnership firm has not (c) Magistrate can order
gained profit in past three years reinvestigation and re-opening of
(d) there are no future prospects to investigation on submission of final
the business of the firm report by Police if investigation not
(e) None of these [a] done satisfactorily.
123. Which of the following statement (d) Magistrate cannot direct C.B.I. to
is incorrect in the context of investigate
Section 41 of Specific Relief Act, (e) None of these [e]
1963:
(a) The Court cannot grant injunction
to restrain any person from applying
to any legislative body
(b) The Court cannot grant injunction
to prevent a continuing breach in
which plaintiff acquiesced
(c) The Court cannot grant injunction
to restrain any person from
instituting or prosecuting any
proceeding in a criminal matter
(d) The Court cannot grant injunction
when the plaintiff has got no
personal interest in the matter