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UTTAR PRADESH JUDICIAL SERVICES MOCK EXAMINATION - 2023

TEST –XI
(COMBINED TEST–VII)
Paper – II
LAW
Negative Marking: 0.33 marks per question
Total Questions: 150
Maximum Marks: 150
Duration: 2:00 Hours
Date: 04/02/2023
1. The employer has told the employee in the morning that when the employee
leaves the office in the evening to go to his house, he should pick up Rs.
50,000/- lying in the drawer of the employer and deliver the same to X', to
whom the employer owes Rs. 50,000/-. At 12.00 noon, in the absence of the
employer, the employee picks up the money and absconds. The employee is
liable to be charged for:
(a) Criminal breach of trust
(b) Cheating
(c) Theft
(d) Criminal misappropriation
2. A, house owner tortures his tenant B in order to compel him to pay his rent
and realises his dues without causing any hurt to "B". Here:
(a) "A" is liable for criminal intimidation under Section 503 of Indian Penal
Code
(b) "A" is liable for using criminal force under Section 350 of Indian Penal
Code
(c) "A" is liable for extortion under Section 383 of Indian Penal Code
(d) "A" is liable for assault under Section 351 of Indian Penal Code
3. The termination of pregnancy will attract penal provisions of Section 312
I.P.C. if it is done-
(a) to prevent injury to the physical or mental health of the pregnant
woman
(b) in view of the substantial risk that if the child is born it would suffer from
such physical or mental abnormalities as to be seriously handicapped
(c) as the pregnancy alleged by pregnant woman to have been caused by
rape
(d) None of the above

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4. 'A' picked up a revolver and believing it to be loaded, pulled the trigger with
the criminal intention of shooting 'B' dead. Fortunately the revolver was not
loaded and 'B' escaped unhurt. 'A' has committed the offence of:
(a) Murder
(b) Attempt to murder
(c) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(d) 'A' has committed no offence.
5. A, Band C conspired to commit an offence. Later A and B abandon the plan,
but C commits the same offence. When C was arrested, he also named A and
B. In their defence A and B said that they have abandoned the idea and they
did not take part in the crime. In this, who will be punished?
(a) No one could be punished for criminal conspiracy
(b) Only C could be punished
(c) A, B and C could be punished for criminal conspiracy
(d) None of the above
6. What is the minimum imprisonment prescribed for use of deadly weapons in
dacoity under Indian Penal Code?
(a) 10 years
(b) 7 years
(c) 5 years
(d) 14 years
7. Under which section of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 preparation to commit
dacoity is punishable?
(a) Section 396
(b) Section 391
(c) Section 399
(d) Section 402
8. 'A' has sufficient food, but he does not give some of it to another person who
is hungry and because of hunger that another person dies. 'A' is guilty of
(a) None of the offences
(b) Attempt to commit murder
(c) Murder
(d) Committing murder due to neglect
9. The period of Life Imprisonment is
(a) 14 years
(b) 20 years
(c) till death
(d) none of the above

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10. A male teacher during examination, while conducting search, put his hands in
the pocket of the pant of a girl candidate thinking her to be a boy. Here the
teacher, under the Penal Code, has committed the offence under:
(a) Section 354
(b) Section 323
(c) Section 509
(d) No offence
11. The term for which the court directs the offender to be imprisoned in default of
payment of a fine shall not exceed _____________ of the term of
imprisonment which is the maximum fixed for the offence, if the offence be
punishable with imprisonment as well as fine-
(a) one-third
(b) Half
(c) one-fourth
(d) two-third
12. R. v. Dudley and Stephen is relevant to the general exception to criminal
liability on the ground of:
(a) accident
(b) mistake of fact
(c) right of private defence
(d) necessity
13. An act is not an offence if it is committed by a person, who is a
(a) 6 year old boy
(b) 18 year old girl
(c) 21 year old boy
(d) 11 year old girl
14. During the scuffle between A and B, A gave a blow on the face of 'B' and
consequently two teeth of 'B' were broken. In these circumstances 'A' has
committed an offence of causing:
(a) Simple injury
(b) Attempt to cause culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(c) Grievous hurt
(d) No offence at all

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15. A drew a loaded revolver completely from his pocket but his arm was seized
by B before 'A' could take any aim at 'B'. While struggling 'A' said several
times to 'B', “I will kill you" , but he could not press the trigger of revolver-
(a) 'A' is not liable for any offence
(b) 'A' is liable for committing attempt to murder
(c) 'A' is liable for committing assault
(d) 'A' has used criminal force to 'B'
16. With a view to taking some jewels, 'A' opens a box by breaking it and finds
that there is no jewel in it. In this case 'A' is guilty of
(a) Abetment of theft
(b) Extortion
(c) Attempt to commit theft
(d) No offence because he could not find any jewel in it
17. "A' by falsely pretending to be in the civil service, intentionally deceives 'Z', and
thus dishonestly induces 'Z' to let him have on credit goods for which he does
not mean to pay. 'A' has committed
(a) Cheating by personation
(b) Cheating
(c) Extortion
(d) None of the above
18. Defence under Section 84 of the Indian Penal Code will be available to the
accused, if it is proved that:
(a) He was medically insane at the time he committed the offence
(b) He was medically insane when he was captured
(c) He was unable to control his impulses at the time he committed the
offence
(d) At the time when he committed the offence he was incapable of
knowing the nature of the act due to the disease of the mind
19. Which Section of I.P.C. provide for "imprisonment for non-payment of fine,
when offence punishable with fine only"?
(a) Section 63
(b) Section 64
(c) Section 67
(d) None of the above

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20. 'A' a carrier, is entrusted by "Z with property to be carried by water. A
dishonestly misappropriates the property. 'A' has committed which one of the
following?
(a) Criminal breach of trust
(b) Criminal misappropriation of property
(c) Habitually dealing in stolen property
(d) Cheating
21. Which of the following "Law" considered as the basis of Indian Evidence Act,
1872
(a) law of place where act was done or offence was committed
(b) law of the place where investigation or enquiry was conducted
(c) law of the place where solution was found by the parties
(d) law of the place where proceedings have to be initiated in a case
22. Which of the following is/are correct statement(s)?
(a) Evidence excluded by the Evidence Act is inadmissible even if it seems
essential for ascertainment of truth
(b) Parties cannot contract themselves out of the provisions of the
Evidence Act
(c) Both (1) and (2)
(d) Neither (1) nor (2)
23. The Court may presume that
(a) When a document creating an obligation is in the hands of the obligor,
the obligation has been discharged
(b) judicial and official acts have not been regularly performed
(c) a bill of exchange, accepted Or endorsed, was accepted or endorsed
for deficient consideration
(d) All these are incorrect
24. Relevancy and admissibility under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 are
(a) synonymous
(b) co-extensive
(c) neither synonymous nor co-extensive
(d) synonymous and co-extensive, both
25. Which one of the following statements is not true? According to Section 5 of
the Evidence Act, evidence may be given in any suit or proceeding of the
(a) existence of every fact in issue
(b) non existence of every fact in issue
(c) those facts declared relevant under the various provisions of the
Evidence Act
(d) those facts which the parties think are relevant

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26. Photofit, i.e., superimposed photograph of the deceased over the skeleton of
a human body (skull) recovered from a tank to prove the fact that the skeleton
was that of the deceased was held to be admissible by the Supreme Court of
India in the case of:
(a) Ram Lochan v. State of West Bengal
(b) State of Haryana v. Hari Ram Yadav
(c) Hiralal v. State (NCT) of Delhi
(d) Mehraj Singh v. State of Ultar Pradesh
27 Under Indian Evidence Act, the fact of Identification Parade is relevant in
(a) Section 6
(b) Section 8
(c) Section 9
(d) Section 11
28 The case Dudhnath Pandey v. State of U.P. is related to
(a) Res Gestae
(b) Plea of alibi
(c) Admission
(d) Accomplice
29. The question is whether the murder of X was committed by Y. The fact that Y
produces an admission slip of hospital indicating dislocation of his hip bone
during the period of alleged murder. Which one among the following is the
correct provision of The Indian Evidence Act under which it is relevant?
(a) Section 6
(b) Section 9
(c) Section 10
(d) Section 11
30. In which of the following illustrations, the fact is irrelevant as evidence?
(a) 'A' is tried for the murder of 'B' by intentionally shooting him dead. The
fact that 'A' on other occasions shot at "B”
(b) 'A' is tried for the murder of 'B' by intentionally shooting him dead. The
fact that "A' was in the habit of shooting at people with intent to murder
them
(c) "A' is charged with shooting at 'B' with intent to kill him. The fact that 'A'
has previously shot at 'B'
(d) 'A' sues "B' for damage done by B's dog, which 'B' knew to be
dangerous. The facts that the dog had previously bitter who had made
complaints to "B'

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31. Assertion (A): A confession made to police officer is not admissible.
Reason (R): The intention of the legislature is to put stop to the extortion of
confessions from accused persons.
Code:
(a) Both A ad R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation
of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
32. Section 27 of the Evidence Act applies:
(a) when the person giving information is an accused but not in police
custody
(b) when the person giving information is an accused and is in police
custody
(c) when the person is in police custody but not an accused
(d) when the person is neither in police custody nor an accused
33. Assertion (A): A dying declaration admissible in evidence.
Reason (R): Its admissibility is founded upon the principle of necessity.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
34. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
The Court takes the assistance of experts when it has to form an opinion on
(a) a point of foreign law
(b) identity of handwriting
(c) identity of finger impression
(d) either a or b or c
35. Under Evidence Act, value of medical evidence
(a) is only corroborative
(b) is conclusive
(c) is of no assistance
(d) is conclusive even if contrary to credible and trustwrothy evidence of
eye-witness

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36. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) In cívil cases character to prove conduct is irrelevant
(b) In criminal cases previous good character is irrelevant
(c) In civil cases character as affecting damages is relevant
(d) In criminal cases previous bad character is irrelevant unless evidence
has been given of good character
37. A informs B that he had heard from X that Z has committed murder of C few
days ago. Evidence of B when examined as a witness in Court, would be
considered as
(a) direct evidence
(b) hearsay evidence
(c) circumstantial evidence
(d) expert evidence
38. Which one among the following statements is not correct according to the
provisions of the Indian Evidence Act?
(a) Where a document is executed in several parts, each part is primary
evidence of the document
(b) Where a document is executed in counterpart, each counterpart is
primary evidence as against the parties executing it
(c) Where a document is executed in counterpart, each counterpart is
primary evidence for the parties executing it
(d) Where the document itself is produced before the court for its
inspection, it is primary evidence of the document
39. Under which of the following situations secondary evidence of a document
under Section 65 of the Evidence Act is not permissible?
(a) The original is destroyed or lost
(b) The original is of such à nature as not to be easily movable
(c) The original is a public document within the meaning of Section 74
(d) When the existence of the original has been proved to be admitted
orally by the person against whom it is proved
40. Under Indian Evidence Act, the provision of proof relating to digital signatures
is contained in-
(a) Section 67-A
(b) Section 67-B
(c) Section 68-A
(d) Section 68-B

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41. A gives a recognizance binding him in a penalty of Rs.500 to appear in the
court on a certain day. A fails to appear in the court.
(a) A is liable to pay the whole penalty.
(b) A is liable to pay such compensation not exceeding Rs.500 as the
court considers reasonable.
(c) A is liable to pay such compensation as the court considers
reasonable.
(d) None of the above.
42. A, who owes money to B, a money-lender, undertakes to repay him by
delivering to him 10 mounds of grain on a certain day, and stipulates that, in
the event of default, he shall be liable to deliver 20 mounds.
(a) B can recover from A such compensation, not exceeding 20 mounds,
as the court considers reasonable.
(b) B can recover from A such compensation, exceeding 20 mounds, as
the court considers reasonable.
(c) B is only entitled to reasonable compensation, as this is stipulation by
way of penalty.
(d) None of the above.
43. A party to a contract can be discharged from performing it, if it has become
(a) expensive.
(b) onerous.
(c) commercially unviable.
(d) impossible.
44. Ordinarily a contract can be performed by the representatives of the parties
concerned. But under certain circumstances, it can be strictly asked to be
performed by the party personally. This can be done
(a) when it is reflected by the contract deed itself.
(b) in no case.
(c) by the offeree's demand.
(d) none of the above.
45. A enters into a contract with B to buy the house of B, if B survives his wife C.
It is a
(a) contingent contract.
(b) wagering agreement.
(c) void contract.
(d) voidable contract.

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46. An agreement by a debtor not to raise the plea of limitation is
(a) valid and binding,
(b) void.
(c) illegal.
(d) voidable at the option of the creditor.
47. Where a corporation enters into a contract beyond the scope of the object,
such a contract is said to be
(a) intra vires.
(b) ultra vires.
(c) ultimo vires.
(d) infra vires.
48. The principle Restitution stops where repayment begins', can be applied
against
(a) an alien enemy only.
(b) minors only.
(c) lunatics and idiots only.
(d) any incapable person.
49. "A' out of natural love and affection promises to give his newly wedded
daughter-in-law a golden necklace worth Rs.20,000. *A' made the promise in
writing and signed it and delivered the same to the daughter-in-law. The
promise is
(a) with consideration.
(b) valid.
(c) voidable.
(d) unenforceable.
50. The communication of acceptance through telephone is regarded as complete
when
(a) acceptance is spoken on phone.
(b) acceptance comes to the knowledge of party proposing.
(c) acceptance is put in course of transmission.
(d) acceptor has done whatever is required to be done by him.
51. The person making the proposal is called the and the person accepting the
proposal is called:
(a) Proposor/ Proposee
(b) Promisee/ Promisor
(c) Promisor/Promisee
(d) Proposee/ Proposor

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52. When an acceptance may be revoked:
(a) An acceptance may be revoked at any time before the communication
of the acceptance is complete as against the proposer, but not
afterwards.
(b) An acceptance may be revoked at any time before the communication
of the acceptance is complete as against the acceptor, but not
afterwards.
(c) An acceptance may be revoked at any time before the communication
of the acceptance is incomplete as against the acceptor, but not
afterwards.
(d) An acceptance may be revoked at any time after the communication of
the acceptance is complete as against the acceptor, but not afterwards.
53. Consent is defined as:
(a) Two or more persons are said to consent when they agree.
(b) Two or more persons are said to consent when they agree upon the
same thing in the same sense.
(c) Two or more persons are said to consent when they understand the
same thing.
(d) Two or more persons are said to consent when they agree upon the
same thing.
54. If the consent was caused by misrepresentation or by silence, fraudulent
within the meaning of section 17, the contract, nevertheless, if the party
whose consent was so caused had the means of discovering the truth with
ordinary diligence:
(a) may be voidable
(b) may not be not voidable
(c) is voidable
(d) is not voidable
55. What is a sound mind for the purposes of contracting:
(a) A person is said to be of sound mind for the purposes of making a
contract, if, at the time when he makes it, he is capable of
understanding it and of forming a rational judgement as to its effect
upon his interest.
(b) A person is said to be of sound mind for the purposes of making a
contract, if, at the time when he makes it, he is capable of
understanding it.
(c) A person is said to be of sound mind for the purposes of making a
contract, if, he is capable of understanding it and of forming a rational
judgement as to its effect upon his interest.
(d) None of the Above

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56. What agreements are contracts:
(a) All agreements are contracts if they are made by the free consent of
parties competent to contract, for a lawful consideration and with a
lawful object, and are not hereby expressly declared to be void.
(b) All agreements are contracts if they are made by the free consent of
parties competent to contract, for a lawful consideration and with a
lawful object, and may or may not be expressly declared to be void.
(c) All agreements are contracts if they are made by the consent of parties
competent to contract, for a lawful consideration and with a lawful
object, and are not hereby expressly declared to be void.
(d) All agreements are contracts if they are made by the free consent of
parties competent to contract, for any object, and are not hereby
expressly declared to be void.
57. The agreements which are in restraint of trade are;
(a) Valid
(b) Illegal
(c) Void
(d) Voidable
58. An erroneous opinion as to the value of the things which forms the subject-
matter of the agreement, is not to be deemed:
(a) A mistake as to a matter of law
(b) A mistake as to a matter of fact.
(c) A mistake of circumstances
(d) A mistake of nature of transactions
59. Where there are several amounts due to recover from the debtor then how a
creditor can appropriate the money deposited by the debtor towards the time
barred debts:
(a) Where there are no other circumstances indicating to which debt the
payment is to be applied.
(b) Where the debtor has omitted to intimate.
(c) The creditor can’t appropriate the amount so credited towards the time
barred debts.
(d) Option A and B both are correct.
60. When an agreement is discovered to be void, or when a contract becomes
void, any person who has received any advantage under such agreement or
contract is:
(a) To make compensation for it, to the person from whom he received it.
(b) Bound to restore it.
(c) Need not to do anything in this regard.
(d) Options A and B are correct.

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61. “Preamble of our Constitution is of extreme importance and the Constitution
should be read and interpreted in the light of the grand and noble vision
exressed in the Preamble”. Justice Sikri expressed the above opinion in the
case of:-
(a) In re: Beruberi Union
(b) Keshavananda Bharti v. State of Kerala
(c) A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
(d) In re: Kereala Education Bill
62. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with Official Language?
(a) XVII
(b) XVI
(c) X
(d) XV
63. Which Article of the Indian Constitution directs the State to take steps to
separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State?
(a) Article 58
(b) Article 44
(c) Article 52
(d) Article 50
64. The foundation of the Finance commission is laid down under which of the
given articles?
(a) Article 202
(b) Article 280
(c) Article 263
(d) Article 231
65. Which of the given Article of the Indian Constitution prescribes for the
submission of an annual report of the work done by the State Public Service
Commission?
(a) Article 320
(b) Article 323
(c) Article 326
(d) Article 330
66. What does the 10th Schedule of the Indian Constitution contain?
(a) Provisions relating to disqualification on the ground of defection
(b) Administration and control of Tribal Areas of Northeastern states
(c) Powers, authority, and responsibilities of municipalities
(d) Administration and control Schedule areas and Schedule Tribes

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67. Which Article of the Indian Constitution states the directive principles of state
policy on 'Promotion of international peace and security?
(a) Article 57
(b) Article 51
(c) Article 59
(d) Article 49
68. Which Article of the Indian Constitution describes the Taxes are levied and
collected by the center but distributed between the Centre and the states?
(a) Article 322
(b) Article 270
(c) Article 318
(d) Article 251
69. Which of the given Articles of the Indian Constitution is regarding the duties of
the Chief Minister with respect to the furnishing of information to the
Governor?
(a) Article 167
(b) Article 195
(c) Article 187
(d) Article 165
70. An inter-state council may be established by
(a) The Prime Minister
(b) The Chief Justice of India
(c) The President
(d) The National Development Council
71. Which of the following Constitutional Amendment reduced the voting age from
21 years to 18 years for the Lok Sabha and state legislative assembly
elections?
(a) 57th
(b) 48th
(c) 61st
(d) 49th
72. Which of the given amendment in the Indian Constitution led to the beginning
of Panchayat Raj in India?
(a) 73rd
(b) 64th
(c) 62nd
(d) 69th

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73. Which of the given article of the Indian Constitution mentions the provision of
Council of Minister for aid and advice of the President of India?
(a) Article 63
(b) Article 74
(c) Article 77
(d) Article 66
74. The Rajya Sabha can delay the Money Bill sent for its consideration by the
Lok Sabha for a maximum period of
(a) 16 days
(b) 14 days
(c) 10 days
(d) 7 days
75. Which of the given article of the Indian Constitution deals with National
Commission for Scheduled Castes?
(a) Article 343
(b) Article 355
(c) Article 338
(d) Article 333
76. As per the Indian Constitution, the retirement age of the Chief Justice of the
Supreme Court of India is?
(a) 52 years
(b) 55 years
(c) 60 Years
(d) 65 years
77. Which Part of the Indian Constitution deals with the Government in the
states?
(a) Part IV
(b) Part VI
(c) Part V
(d) Part IX
78. Custom is to society, what the law is to State", says:
(a) Austin.
(b) Salmond.
(c) Allen.
(d) J. Brown.

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79. "Law as such is found and not made. It is to be found in popular faith,
common convictions, customs, traits, habits, traditions which in course of time
grow into legal rules." This concept of law was propounded by:
(a) Thibaut.
(b) Henry Maine.
(c) Savigny.
(d) Salmond.
80. Rawl's theory of justice is connected with:
(a) Empowerment of the poor.
(b) Equal distribution of wealth.
(c) Equal justice to all under law.
(d) Equal pay for equal work.
81. The application of physical force of the State for the enforcement of law is:
(a) Punishment.
(b) Liability.
(c) Sanction.
(d) Indiction.
82. Match List I with List II:
List I List II
I. John Austin. A. Social Engineering.
II. Duguit. B. Social solidarity.
III. Hart. C. Rules as foundations of a legal system
IV. Roscoe Pound D. Command theory
Codes:
(a) I-B, II-D, III-C, IV-A.
(b) I-, II-B, III-C, IV-A.
(c) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D.
(d) I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D.
83. Who said: "Punishment is before all things deterrent and the chief aim of law
of crime is to make the evil-doer an example and a warning to all that are like
minded with him"?
(a) Salmond.
(b) Paton.
(c) Bentham.
(d) Savigny.

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84. In modern times, which rule has been given wider application in
interpretation?
(a) Golden rule.
(b) Litera legis.
(c) Mischief rule.
(d) All of the above.
85. Who described Declaratory Theory (or the view that judges declare law) as "a
childish fiction employed by our judges that common law is not made by them;
but is a miraculous something made by nobody, existing, I suppose, from
eternity and merely declared from time to time by the judges"?
(a) Bentham.
(b) Austin.
(c) Paton.
(d) Gray.
86. Where the judge decides the cases according to the law laid down in the
Code and not according to previous cases, it is known as:
(a) Functional method.
(b) Organic method.
(c) Inductive method.
(d) Deductive method.
87. Every legal right has a title, that is to say, certain facts or events by reason of
which the right has become vested in its owner." This view is attributed to;
(a) Salmond.
(b) Gray.
(c) Bentham.
(d) Dias.
88. Which one of the following statements denotes right in rem?
(a) Right to receive rent from the tenant of the farm.
(b) Right to the peaceable enjoyment of the farm.
(c) Right to recover damages for breach of contract
(d) Landlord’s right of re-entry
89. Mark the incorrect statement:
(a) Possession is the de facto exercise of a claim; ownership is the de jure
recognition of the facts.
(b) A claim to possession may be maintained by one's self-asserting will
but a claim to ownership is legally protected by the will of the State.
(c) Ownership strives to realize itself in possession and possession
endeavours to justify itself as ownership.
(d) Possession and ownership do not differ in their mode of acquisition.

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90. The ownership in which two persons own property at the same time but the
relation between them is such that one of them is under an obligation to use
his ownership for the benefit of the other is called:
(a) Trust ownership.
(b) Beneficial ownership.
(c) Duplicate ownership.
(d) All of the above.
91. Assertion (A): The rule of constructive res judicata is applicable to writ
petitions.
Reason (R): Public policy considerations underlying res-judicata also hold true
in relation to writ proceedings.
Code:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
92. A foreign judgment is conclusive as to any matter thereby directly adjudicated
upon between the same parties
(a) where it has been pronounced by an eminent judge
(b) where it has been given on the merits of the case
(c) where it is written in English
(d) where it has been approved by the United Nations Organisation
93. Mark the incorrect statement:
(a) A civil Court has jurisdiction to try all suits of suits of civil nature unless
barred expressly or impliedly
(b) Consent can confer or take away jurisdiction of a Court
(c) A decree passed by a Court without jurisdiction is a nullity
(d) Burden of proof of exclusion of jurisdiction of a Court is on the party
who asserts it
94. As per the Civil Procedure Code as applicable to Delhi, a suit for specific
performance of a contract of sale of immovable property can be filed:
(a) Only in the Court within whose jurisdiction the property is situated
(b) Either in the Court where the immovable property is situated or also in
the Court where he defendant resides
(c) Besides the Courts mentioned in (2) above, also in the Court within
those jurisdiction the Contract was entered into
(d) Only in the High Court of Delhi

18
95. The application for execution of decree may be transferred from one court to
another court:
(a) if the party feels that there is a possibility of delay in justice on the part
of court
(b) if the defendant lives or does business in the jurisdiction of that court
where the application for execution of decree have to transfer
(c) if the plaintiff has gone from the jurisdiction of the court which has
passed the decree
(d) not included in these
96. Section 56 of Civil Procedure Code specifically prohibits the arrest or
detention in civil prison, in execution of a decree, of:
(a) a sick person
(b) a minor person
(c) a woman
(d) all of these
97. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) No suit, not involving urgent or immediate relief, may be instituted
against the Central Government except after serving a notice of two
months
(b) A decree against the Union of India may not be executed unless it
remains unsatisfied for a period of three months
(c) both (1) and (2) are correct
(d) both (1) and (2) are incorrect
98. Under Section 104 of the Code of Civil Procedure an appeal can be preferred
against
(a) an order under Section 91 to refuse permission to institute suit
(b) an order under Section 95 for compensation
(c) an order under Section 92
(d) all of the above
99. No second appeal shall lie under Section 102, C.P.C. from any decree, when
the subject matter of original suit is for recovery of money not exceeding
(a) Rs. three thousand
(b) Rs. five thousand
(c) Rs. twenty thousand
(d) Rs, twenty-five thousand

19
100. All orders and notices served on or given to any person under the provisions
of C.P.C. shall be in writing is provided under:
(a) Section-141
(b) Section-142
(c) Section-143
(d) Section-144
101. In which one of the following cases it was held that "inherent power has not
been conferred on a court, it is a power inherent in a court"?
(a) Manoharlal v. Seth Hiralal
(b) Cotton Corporation of India v. United Industrial Bank
(c) Satyabrath Biswas o. Kalyan Kumar Kisku
(d) Rajani Bai v. Kamla Devi.
102. A caveat lodged under Section 148-A (1) shall not remain in force after the
expiry of:
(a) 30 days
(b) 45 days
(c) 60 days
(d) 90 days
103. Warrant case has been defined under Section 2 (x) of Cr.P.C. as a case
relating to an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life or
imprisonment for a term:
(a) Exceeding three years
(b) Exceeding two years
(c) Exceeding one year
(d) Exceeding one year but less than two years
104. Section 25A was inserted in Cr. P.C. by which of the following Amendment
Act?
(a) Cr. P.C. Amendment Act, 2008
(b) Cr. P.C. Amendment Act, 2005
(c) Cr. P.C. Amendment Act, 2009
(d) Cr. P.C. Amendment Act, 1978
105. Under which section of Cr. P.C. a police officer can arrest a person without an
order from a Magistrate and without warrant?
(a) Section 42
(b) Section 40
(c) Section 51
(d) Section 41

20
106. Point out the incorrect statement:
(a) In cognizable offence any police officer may, without an order from
Magistrate and without a warrant, arrest any person
(b) A private person may arrest or cause to be arrested any person
committing a cognizable offence
(c) An executive Magistrate may arrest the offender when any offence is
committed in his presence and within his jurisdiction
(d) None of the above
107. Where the person summoned is in the active service of the Government, the
Court issuing the summons shall ordinarily send it in duplicate to the Head of
the Office in which such person is employed. This is provided by
(a) Section 63 of the Cr. P.C.
(b) Section 64 of the Cr. P.C.
(c) Section 65 of the Cr. P.C.
(d) Section 66 of the Cr. P.C.
108. under Section 77 of Cr. P.C., a warrant of arrest may be executed
(a) within the local jurisdiction of Court issuing warrant
(b) at any place within the State
(c) at any place in India
(d) within the jurisdiction of District Court
109. Who can issue a search warrant to search a Post Office?
(a) District Magistrate
(b) Civil Court
(c) Revenue Court
(d) High Court
110. To set aside the forfeiture under Section 95 of the Criminal Procedure Code,
application may be given to the:
(a) Session Court
(b) High Court
(c) Supreme Court
(d) Any of these
111. On the non-completion of investigation, i.e., failure of the prosecution to file
charge- sheet within the prescribed period of 90 or 60 days, as given in
Section 167 of Code ofCriminal Procedure, the
(a) accused person is to be discharged unconditionally
(b) accused person shall be released on bail if he is prepared to and does
furnish bail
(c) right of the accused person to be released on bail could be defeated by
the subsequent filing of the charge sheet under any circumstance
(d) none of these

21
112. The period of limitation for an application to set aside the declaration of
forfeiture as provided under Section 96 of Cr. P.C. is
(a) 2 months from the date of declaration
(b) 2 months from the date of publication of such declaration in the official
Gazette
(c) 30 days from the date of declaration
(d) six months from the date of declaration
113. The power to determine the language of a subordinate Court is with ;
(a) High Court
(b) State Government
(c) Central Government
(d) State Government with the concurrence of the High Court
114. 'A' a witness is examined as a prosecution witness. Later on an accused
wishes to cite him as a defence witness and submit an application for his
summons. The trial Court
(a) cannot allow the application
(b) must allow the application
(c) has a discretionary power
(d) may call the witness under Section 311 Cr. P.C.
115. For the purpose of enquiring or trying offences, a criminal Court shall be
deemed to open Court. But even a Court in criminal cases are not treated as
an open Court under which of the following section of the Code of Criminal
Procedure, 1973
(a) Secton 327
(b) Section 326
(c) Section 320
(d) Section 329
116. A proceeding is vitiated if the presiding magistrate who is not empowered by
law to do so
(a) issues search warrant erroneously but in good faith
(b) holds inquest under Section 176 of Code of Criminal Procedure
erroneously but in good faith
(c) tries an offender summarily
(d) all these

22
117. In reference of information relating to the commission of a cognizable offence,
which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) It may be given orally to an officer incharge of a police station
(b) It is reduced to writing by or under the direction of the officer incharge
of the police-station
(c) Information reduced to writing is to be signed by the person giving it
(d) Copy of information cannot be given, free of cost, to the informant
118. "Attested" in relation to an instrument means and shall be deemed always to
have mean attested by at least
(a) One witness
(b) Two witnesses
(c) Three witnesses
(d) Four witnesses
119. A right of future maintenance in whatsoever manner arising, secured or
determined
(a) can be transferred
(b) cannot be transferred
(c) can be sold
(d) can be vested
120. Rule against perpetuity is not applicable to a case where:
(a) interest in property is created "generation after generation"
(b) property is transferred for the benefit of the public
(c) contingent interest has been created by transfer
(d) transfer of property purports to be effective beyond minority of ultimate
transferee who
121. X transfers Rs. 5,000 to Y on condition that he shall marry with the consent of
A, B and C. Y married without the consent of A, B and C but obtains their
consent after the marriage. Y has:
(a) fulfilled the condition
(b) not fulfilled the condition
(c) substantially complied with
(d) none of the above
122. The doctrine of Lis Pendens applies, where:
(a) the suit is collusive
(b) the transfer is made after the decree of the trial court but before filing of
an appeal
(c) right to movable property is in question
(d) property is situated outside the territorial jurisdiction of the Court

23
123. The doctrine of part performance as given in Section 53-A of Transfer of
Property Act is
1. a statutory right
2. an equitable right
3. available in defence
Code:
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1,2 and 3
(d) None of the above
124. Where the principal money secured is one hundred rupees or upwards, a
mortgage other than a mortgage by deposit of the deed can be effected only
by
(a) registered instrument
(b) signed by the mortgagor
(c) attested by at least two witnesses
(d) all of the above
125. For the lease of immovable property, the tenure for more than one year or
year to year:
(a) The attestation of notary is sufficient.
(b) It is valid if the execution of it is made before the Magistrate only
(c) It is sufficient, if the parties made an agreement.
(d) Only registration is sufficient
126. India was elected as a President of General Assembly of the United Nations
in 1953. Who occupied this office on behalf of India?
(a) S. Radha Krishnan
(b) Gopalswamy Iyyengar
(c) V.K. Krishna Menon
(d) Vijayalakshmi Pandit
127. Which organ of the United Nations has ceased to be operational?
(a) Economic and Social Council
(b) International Court of Justice
(c) Trusteeship Council Secretariat

24
128. Which of the following country is not a member of G-7?
(a) Japan
(b) Russia
(c) France
(d) Italy
129. Where was the first ever security Council Summit meeting held in early 1992?
(a) New York
(b) Paris
(c) Geneva
(d) London
130. The UNO was founded at
(a) Moscow
(b) London
(c) Paris
(d) San Francisco
131. The first General Secretary of UNO was
(a) Dag Hamarskjoeld
(b) U Thant
(c) Trygve Lie
(d) Kurt Waldheim
132. The headquarters of UNHCR is located at
(a) New York
(b) Rome
(c) Geneva
(d) London
133. The working language(s) of the UNESCO is/are
(a) French only
(b) English only
(c) English and French
(d) English, French and Russian
134. Amnesty International has its headquarters at
(a) Berlin
(b) New York
(c) Washington
(d) London

25
135. First Indian to make a speech in Hindi before the UN General Assembly is
(a) Moraji Desai
(b) A.B. Vajpayee
(c) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(d) Lal Krishna Advani
136. The headquarters of International Atomic Energy Agency is located in
(a) Vienna
(b) London
(c) Geneva
(d) Washington
137. When was the South Asian Association for Regional Co-operation (SAARC)
formed?
(a) 1985
(b) 1982
(c) 1986
(d) 1987
138. The five permanent members of UN security council are
(a) Japan, West Germany, USSR, UK and USA
(b) Canada, China, France, USSR and USA
(c) Germany, China, USSR, UK and USA
(d) China, France, USSR, UK and USA
139. The chairmanship/presidency of the UN Security Council rotates among the
Council Members
(a) every 6 months
(b) every 3 months
(c) every year
(d) every month
140. Which UN agency supports the celebration of World Food Safety Day on June
7?
(a) FAO
(b) WHO
(c) UNICEF
(d) Both a and b

26
141. Which UN agency supports the celebration of the International Day of
Education on Jan 24?
(a) UNICEF
(b) UNESCO
(c) UNDP
(d) UNEP
142. Which country successfully tested ‘Iron Beam’, world’s first energy-based
weapons system that uses a laser beam to shoot down incoming enemy flying
objects?
(a) Iran
(b) USA
(c) China
(d) Israel
143. Who is the current President of New Development Bank?
(a) Antonio Gueterres
(b) Gita Gopinath
(c) Audrey Azoulay
(d) Marcos Troyjo
144. National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA) signed MoU with which institution to
collaborate on ‘Sustainable Cities India program’?
(a) World Bank
(b) IMF
(c) World Economic Forum
(d) New Development Bank
145. Which Indian state has been selected for World No Tobacco Day Award-2022
by WHO?
(a) Bihar
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Jharkhand
(d) Chattisgarh
146. With which country India launched the joint logo for the celebration of 50
Years of its Diplomatic Relations, on June 18?
(a) Afghanistan
(b) Tibet
(c) South Korea
(d) Vietnam

27
147. The International Maritime Organisation celebrates June 25 as the Day of the
Seafarer. Headquarters of IMO are in which city?
(a) Jamaica
(b) London
(c) Auckland
(d) Geneva
148. The foundation stone of ‘Indo-Israel Center of Excellence for Vegetables’ was
laid in which state/UT?
(a) Gujrat
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Delhi
(d) Uttar Pradesh
149. Which Indian-origin has been nominated by US President Joe Biden to serve
as the country’s representative on the Executive Board of the World Health
Organisation?
(a) Dr. Vivek Murthy
(b) Gita Gopinath
(c) Subramaniam Swamy
(d) Shashi Tharoor
150. Which country has partnered with India Meteorological Department to fast-
track climate change in India?
(a) South Korea
(b) Japan
(c) Oman
(d) Saudi Arabia

28
 Rahul’s a blue print of success

UTTAR PRADESH JUDICIAL SERVICES MOCK EXAMINATION - 2023

TEST –XI
(COMBINED TEST–VII)
Paper – II
LAW
Answer and Explanations
Total Questions: 150
Maximum Marks: 150
Duration: 2:00 Hours
Date: 04/02/2023

Q. No. Ans. Explanations

1. C
2. B
3. A
4. B
5. C
6. D
7. C
8. A
9. C
10. D
11. C
12. D
13. A
14. C
15. B
16. C
17. B
18. D
19. C
20. A
21. D

29
22. D
23. A
24. C
25. D
26. A
27. C
28. B
29. D
30. B
31. A
32. B
33. A
34. D
35. A
36. B
37. B
38. C
39. D
40. A
41. A
42. C
43. D
44. A
45. A
46. B
47. B
48. B
49. B
50. B
51. C
52. B
53. B
54. D
55. A
56. A
57. C

30
58. B
59. D
60. D
61. B
62. A
63. D Article 50 of the Indian Constitution includes the Separation of Judiciary
from the executive.
64. B The foundation of the Finance commission is laid down under Article 280
of the Indian Constitution. Articles 264 - 300 relate to Finance property,
contracts, and suits. The tenure of the Finance Commission is five years.
65. B Article 323 Article of Indian Constitution prescribes for the submission of
annual report of the work done by the State Public Service Commission to
the Governor of the State.
66. A The 10th Schedule of the Indian Constitution contain Provisions relating to
disqualification on the ground of defection. It was included under the 52nd
Constitution Amendment Act, also called Anti Defection Act (1985).
Previously Indian Constitution had 22 parts, 8 Schedules, and 395 Articles,
but presently, the Constitution had 12 Schedules, 448 Articles, and 25
Parts.
The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution describes the Administration
and control of Tribal Areas of Northeastern states.
The Twelfth Schedule of the Indian Constitution describes the Powers,
authority, and responsibilities of municipalities.
The fifth Schedule of the Indian Constitution describes the Administration
and control Schedule areas and Schedule Tribes.
67. B Article 51 of the Indian Constitution states the directive principles of state
policy on 'Promotion of international peace and security
Directive principle of the state policy
Directive Principles of State Policy prescribe the fundamental obligations of
the states to its citizens and the duties and the rights of the citizens to the
State.
In other words, we can say that the Directive Principles of State Policy are
aimed at creating social and economic conditions under which the citizens
can lead a good life. The idea of the Directive principle of the state policy
was adopted from the Constitution of Ireland.
68. B Article 270 of the Indian Constitution describes the Taxes are levied and
collected by the Centre but distributed between the Centre and the states.
Sharing of proceeds of all Union taxes between the Centre and the states
come under Article 270.

31
69. A Article 167 of the Indian Constitution is regarding the duties of the Chief
Minister with respect to the furnishing of information to the Governor.
70. C An inter-state council may be established by the President.
71. C 61st Constitutional Amendment reduced the voting age from 21 years to
18 years for the Lok Sabha and state legislative assembly elections.
72. A 73rd amendment in the Indian Constitution led to the beginning of
Panchayat Raj in India. The Panchayati Raj system was giving
Constitutional status by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment act of 1992.
73. B Article 74 of the Indian Constitution mentions the provision of the Council
of Minister for aid and advice of the President of India. Article 77 of the
Indian Constitution conducts the functions of the government of India.
74. B The Rajya Sabha can delay the Money Bill sent for its consideration by the
Lok Sabha for a maximum period of 14 days. The money bill is transmitted
to the Rajya Sabha for consideration after it is first passed in the Lok
Sabha. The Rajya Sabha has limited powers in reference to a money bill,
like it cannot amend a money bill but can only make the recommendations
and return the bill to the Lok Sabha within 14 days.
75. C Article 338 article of the Indian Constitution deals with National
Commission for Scheduled Castes. Hence, it is a Constitutional body. The
65th Amendment of the Constitution replaced the one-member system of
Special Officer with a multi-member National Commission for Scheduled
Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
76. D As per the Indian Constitution, the retirement age of the Chief Justice of
the Supreme Court of India is 65 years. As per Article 124(4) of the Indian
Constitution, Supreme Court judges can be removed by the President of
India only on the basis of a resolution passed by the Parliament.
77. B Part VI of the Indian Constitution deals with the Government in the states.
Part VI of the Constitution of India, Containing Article 153 - 167, deals with
the Government in the States. It includes the Governor, Chief Ministers,
Council of Ministers, Advocate General of the State. Article 153 - 162
Governor, Article 163 - 164 Council of Ministers, Article 165 Advocate
General of the State. Article 166 - 167 Conduct of Government Business
and Duties of Chief Minister.
78. B
79. C
80. C
81. A
82. B

32
83. A
84. A
85. B
86. D
87. A
88. B
89. D
90. B
91. A
92. B
93. B
94. A
95. B
96. C
97. C
98. D
99. D
100. B
101. A
102. D
103. B
104. B
105. D
106. D
107. D
108. C
109. A
110. B
111. B
112. B
113. B
114. D
115. A
116. C
117. D

33
118. B
119. B
120. B
121. A
122. B
123. A
124. D
125. D
126. D In 1953, the chief delegate of India at the time, Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit
was elected the first woman President of the UN General Assembly.
127. C The Trusteeship Council suspended its operations on 1 November 1994,
a month after the independence of Palau, the last remaining United
Nations trust territory.
128. B The G7 is an informal grouping of seven of the world's advanced
economies, including Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the United
Kingdom, and the United States, as well as the European Union.
129. A Held at Headquarters, New York, on Friday, 31 January 1992, at 10.30
a.m.
130. D As World War II was about to end in 1945, nations were in ruins, and the
world wanted peace. Representatives of 50 countries gathered at the
United Nations Conference on International Organization in San
Francisco, California from 25 April to 26 June 1945.
131. C On 1 February 1946, Mr. Trygvie Lie was elected the first Secretary-
General of the United Nations. He was formally installed by the General
Assembly at its 22nd meeting on 2 February 1946.
132. C UNHCR is one of the world's principal humanitarian organizations with
6,100 staff of whom 900 are based at headquarters in Geneva and 5,200
in field locations, in 121 countries around the world.
133. D The United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization is a
specialized agency of the United Nations based in Paris. Arabic, Chinese,
English, French, Hindi, Italian, Portuguese, Russian and Spanish are the
working language of UNESCO.
134. D Headquarters are in London.
135. B During his tenure as the External Affairs Minister in 1977, former PM Atal
Bihari Vajpayee became the first person to deliver a speech in Hindi at
the United Nations General Assembly.

34
136. A The IAEA headquarters is at the Vienna International Centre in Vienna,
Austria. Operational liaison and regional offices are located in Geneva,
Switzerland; New York, USA; Toronto, Canada; and Tokyo, Japan.
137. A The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) was
established on 8 December 1985. The Secretariat of the Association was
set up in Kathmandu, Nepal, on 17 January 1987. SAARC has eight
member countries (Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives,
Nepal, Pakistan and Sri-Lanka).
138. D The Council is composed of 15 Members: Five permanent members:
China, France, Russian Federation, the United Kingdom, and the
United States, and ten non-permanent members elected for two-year
terms by the General Assembly (with end of term year): Albania (2023)
139. D The chairmanship/presidency of the UN Security Council rotates among
the Council Members every month.
140. D The World Health Organization (WHO) and the Food and Agriculture
Organization of the United Nations (FAO) jointly facilitate the
observance of World Food Safety Day, in collaboration with Member
States and other relevant organizations
141. B UNESCO, as the specialized United Nations agency for education,
facilitates the annual observance of the Day in close collaboration with
main education actors.
142. D Israel recently announced the successful test of its Iron Beam laser
weapon system that reportedly has the capability of intercepting rockets,
mortars and anti-tank missiles.
143. D Option D is correct
144. C The World Economic Forum and the National Institute of Urban Affairs
(NIUA) today signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) to
collaborate on a jointly designed 'Sustainable Cities India program' which
will aim to create an enabling environment for cities to generate
decarbonization solutions across the energy.
145. C Recognizing its efforts to control tobacco consumption, the World Health
Organization (WHO) has selected Jharkhand for the World No Tobacco
Day (WNTD) Award-2022.
146. D India, Vietnam launch joint logo commemorating 50years of the diplomatic
relations. on June 18, 2022.

35
147. B The IMO was established following agreement at a UN conference held in
Geneva in 1948 and the IMO came into existence ten years later, meeting
for the first time in 1959. Headquartered in London, United Kingdom,
IMO currently has 175 Member States and three Associate Members.
148. D The Union Minister of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, Shri Narendra
Singh Tomar, laid the foundation stone of the Indo-Israel Center of
Excellence for Vegetables in Chandauli (Uttar Pradesh) through video
conferencing.
149. A Vivek Murthy was confirmed by the US Senate in March 2021 to serve as
the 21st Surgeon General of the country. President Joe Biden nominated
Vivek Murthy to serve as America's representative on the executive board
of the World Health Organization.
150. B The India Meteorological Department (IMD) has partnered with
Government of Japan, and United Nations Development Programme
(UNDP) on Climate Change. They have launched an initiative to hasten
climate action across 10 states and Union Territories in India

36