JUDICIARY CHAMPIONSHIP

Delhi
1. 'A' prosecutes 'B' for adultery with 'C', wife of 'A' 'B' contested by denying the
allegation. 'B' was found guilty and convicted in said case. Subsequently, 'C'
was prosecuted on charge of bigamy on allegations that she had married 'B'
during subsistence of her marriage with 'A'. 'C' contested by denying that she
was ever married to 'A'. In the case against 'C', the judgement in the first case
against 'B' is
(a) relevant
(b) irrelevant
(c) binding
(d) None of these

2. Court can take judicial notice

(a) that Amitabh Bachchan is a famous actor
(b)that M.F. Hussain is a veteran painter
(c) that Bentham was a renowned jurist
(d)none of the above

3. In which of the following secondary evidence relating to a document cannot be

given?
(a) When the original document shown to be a possession of the person against
whom the document is sought to be proved.
(b) When the original document is in possession of the person who wants to prove
it.
(c) When the original document is lost without any default or negligence on the
part of the person who wants to prove it
(d) When the original document is of such nature which cannot be easily moved.

4. Where no sum is expressed to which a fine may extend there the amount of
fine to which the offender may be liable will be
(a) Not exceeding rupees fifty thousand
(b) Not exceeding rupees twenty-five thousand
(c) Not exceeding rupees ten lakh
(d) Unlimited but not excessive
 5. The punishment for the offence of forgery of a will is prescribed under Section
(a) 463 of the Indian Penal Code
(b)468 of the Indian Penal Code
(c) 467 of the Indian Penal Code
(d)471 of the Indian Penal Code

6. Under the Indian Penal Code, which of the following acts will constitute
"homicide"?
(a) Termination of pregnancy before the twelfth week of pregnancy.
(b)Termination of pregnancy before the twentieth week of pregnancy.
(c) Termination of pregnancy before the thirty sixth week of pregnancy.
(d)Causing death of the living child after a part of the child's body has been
brought forth of the mother's body.

7. Mark the incorrect proposition:

I. Set-off is a statutory defence to a plaintiff's action, whereas a counter-claim is
a cross-action.
II. Set-off and counter-claim arises out of the same transaction.
III. Set-off should not be barred on the date of the suit while counter-claim should
not be barred on the date of filing of written statement.
IV. Claim for set-off cannot exceed plaintiff's claim, whereas counter-claim can
exceed the plaintiffs claim.
V. Both set-off and counter-claim cannot exceed the pecuniary jurisdiction of the
court.
Codes:
(a) I only
(b)II only
(c) III and V
(d)IV only

8. In a suit for recovery of money, when it is established that money has been
received by the defendant in an account maintained in a branch located within
the territorial jurisdiction of the Court, then within the said jurisdiction
(a) a part of the cause of action has arisen.
(b)entire cause of action has arisen there
(c) no part of the cause of action has arisen there.
(d)The cause of action does not arise there but if the parties agree to the cause of
action shall be deemed to have arisen.
9. 'A' supplies goods from Delhi to ‘B’ at Mumbai under a contract which
provides "Courts in Mumbai would have jurisdiction to deal with disputes
arising out of this agreement". "A' sues 'B' in a Court at Delhi for the
outstanding balance.

(a) The Court would not admit the plaint owing to the jurisdiction clause in the
contract.
(b)The suit would be admitted and only if 'B' raises an objection to jurisdiction at
Delhi would the Court determine the same.
(c) 'B' can prefer an appeal against the order of ad mission of the suit in the court
at Delhi.
(d)'B' can approach the Delhi High Court for transfer under Section 24 CPC.

10.Which of the following facts can be proved under section 92 of the Indian
Evidence Act?
(a) The policy of insurance is affected on goods in ships from Kolkata to London.
The goods are shipped in a particular ship which is lost. A party says that the
particular ship was orally excepted from the policy.
(b)A agrees in writing to pay Rs. 1000 on the first of March, 2002. A party says
that at the same time an oral agreement was made that money should not be
paid till the 31st of March, 2002.
(c) An estate called the Rampur Tea Estate is sold by a deed which contains a map
of the property sold. One party says that land not included in the map had
always been regarded as part of the estate and was meant to pass by the deed.
(d)A enters into a written contract with B to work in certain mines, the property
of B, on certain terms A says that he was induced to do so by a
misrepresentation of B as to their value.

11.A was allotted a plot of land by the Union of India. The allotment was cancelled
and the said cancellation was upheld in a writ petition, till the Supreme Court.
A was however given liberty to file a civil suit and seek compensation. A files a
suit for compensation. In the suit,
(a) the findings in the final judgment in the writ petition would not operate as res
judicata.
(b)the findings in the final judgment in the writ petition would operate as res
judicata.
(c) the findings in the final judgment in the writ petition would operate as res
judicata qua the issue decided.
(d)the findings in the final judgment in the writ petition would operate as res
judicata qua all issues.

12.Mesne profits as defined under section 2(12) Code of Civil Procedure means
those profits which the in wrongful possession of person
(a) such property actually received or might have received together with interest.
(b)property actually received including profits due to improvements made by
such person.
(c) such property actually received or might have received but without any
interest on such profits.
(d)such property actually received.

13.In a case an application for bail is filed by the accused who is alleged to have
committed an offence under section 376 AB of the Indian Penal Code, in such a
case it is
(a) mandatory to give a notice of such bail application, before granting bail, to the
public prosecutor within a period of fifteen days from the date of receipt of
notice of such application
(b)mandatory to give a notice of such bail application, before granting bail, to the
public prosecutor within a period of seven days from the date of receipt of
notice of such application
(c) not mandatory to give notice to the public prosecutor if the
complainant/informant is represented through a private counsel
(d)not mandatory to give notice to the public prosecutor if the court considers
that it is not practicable to give such notice

14.'A' is the victim in a gang rape case. At the conclusion of the trial, the accused
persons are convicted and sentenced to imprisonment and fine. The Court
orders the fine amount to be paid to 'A' as compensation. 'A' has also filed an
application for compensation under Section 357 A of the Code of Criminal
Procedure which is pending consideration before the competent authority. In
such a situation
(a) The fine amount cannot be paid to 'A' as compensation since she has already
filed an application for compensation under Section 357A of the Code of
Criminal Procedure
(b)the State Government can pay compensation under Section 357A of the Code
of Criminal Procedure in addition to the payment of fine as compensation to
'A' under Section 376 D of the Indian Penal Code
(c) The State Government cannot pay compensation under Section 357A of the
Code of Criminal Procedure as the fine amount has already been ordered to be
paid to 'A' as compensation
(d)The State Government shall pay compensation under Section 357A of the Code
of Criminal Procedure in addition to the payment of fine as compensation to
'A' under Section 376 D of the Indian Penal Code only if the Court mentions in
the order on sentence that the amount of fine is inadequate

15.In the case of an accused facing inquiry or trial though not of unsound mind
but not capable of understanding the proceedings:
(a) the court shall proceed with the inquiry or trial;
(b)the court shall not proceed with the inquiry or trial;
(c) the court may proceed with the inquiry or trial after obtaining necessary
orders from the High Court;
(d)the court may proceed with inquiry or trial and in the case the same results in
conviction, forward the proceeding to the High Court along with a report on
which High Court shall pass such orders as deemed fit.

16.A salient feature of plea bargaining

(a) is the statement of fact stated by the accused in his application for plea
bargaining can be used against the accused for any other purposes.
(b)is the judgment delivered by court in case of plea bargaining is not final and
can be challenged in appeal.
(c) is applicable in respect of offences punishable with imprisonment up to a
period of 7 years.
(d)applies to offences committed against a woman or a child below the age of 14
years.

17.Any Metropolitan Magistrate, may, if he thinks fit, try in a summary way the
following offence under Section 260 of the Code of Criminal Procedure
(a) theft, under Section 379, Section 380 or Section 381 of the Indian Penal Code,
where the value of the property stolen does not exceed two thou sand rupees.
(b)offences under Section 454 and 456 of the Indian Penal Code.
(c) receiving or retaining stolen property, under Section 411 of the Indian Penal
Code where the value of the property does not exceed two thousand rupees.
(d)All these

18.If a series of acts are so connected together as to form the same transaction,
and more than one offence is committed by the same person:
(a) He shall be charged and tried separately for every such offence
(b)He shall be charged with every such offence and tired at one trial for all the
offences.
(c) Some of the offences may be clubbed and tried at one trial.
(d)All of the above

19.Statement of a person recorded by a Magistrate under Section 164 (5A) (a) of

the Code of Criminal Procedure can be taken as a statement in lieu of
examination-in-chief, where the person is a victim in a case
(a) punishable for the offence of kidnapping and the victim is mentally disabled
(b)punishable for the offence of grievous hurt and the victim is physically
disabled
(c) punishable for the offence of stalking and the victim is temporarily physically
disabled
(d)punishable for the offence of Voyeurism

20.Which of the following facts can be proved under section 92 of the Indian
Evidence Act?
(a) The policy of insurance is affected on goods in ships from Kolkata to London.
The goods are shipped in a particular ship which is lost. A party says that the
particular ship was orally excepted from the policy.
(b)A agrees in writing to pay Rs. 1000 on the first of March, 2002. A party says
that at the same time an oral agreement was made that money should not be
paid till the 31st of March, 2002.
(c) An estate called the Rampur Tea Estate is sold by a deed which contains a map
of the property sold. One party says that land not included in the map had
always been regarded as part of the estate and was meant to pass by the deed.
(d)A enters into a written contract with B to work in certain mines, the property
of B, on certain terms A says that he was induced to do so by a
misrepresentation of B as to their value.
21.A entered into a contract with B regarding the construction of a classroom at
[H] Institute, Hyderabad. According to the agreement, the contract was to be
completed within nine months of the contract. However, B could not complete
the contract within the stipulated time and demanded an extension of another
nine months. Finally, the extension was granted and the contract was
completed after 18 months. A clause in the contract provided that in case of
any failure or delay in the completion of the contract the said failure or delay
shall not vitiate the contract nor entitle the contractor to damages or
compensation thereof. It was agreed that only a reasonable extension may be
granted for completion of the contract.
A dispute arose between the parties which was referred to Arbitration wherein B
demanded compensation/damages. In light of the above mentioned facts
which of the following statements is true?
(a) The contractor is entitled to damages/ compensation.
(b)The contractor shall not be entitled to damages/ compensation.
(c) The contractor shall not be entitled to damages/ compensation because the
contract only provided for reasonable extension of time and no compensation
in case of any delay or failure in the completion of the contract.
(d)The contractor shall be entitled to damages/ compensation because the right
to damages cannot be restricted despite absence of a clause for monetary
relief in the contract.

22.The mother owes Rs. 10,000 to her daughter. But the Limitation Act has
barred this debt. The mother signs a written promise to pay Rs. 3,000 on
account of the debt. In this case which one of the following is correct?
(a) There is no contract as the debt is already barred by limitation and so it
cannot be revived by a subsequent promise.
(b)There is no contract because the mother has promised to give only a part of
the debt.
(c) This is a contract because there is a natural love and affection relation and the
promise is in writing and signed.
(d)This is enforceable against the mother because such a promise is valid and
binding under the Indian Contract Act.

23.The following agreement is 'lawful':

(a) An agreement to kill 'Z' between 'A' and 'B'.
(b)An agreement between 'X', the husband and Y, the wife that 'X' shall marry five
times
(c) An agreement for sale of future goods
(d)An agreement to divide proceeds of crime equally

24.A member of the civil service of a State:

(a) can be dismissed or removed from service at the will of the Minister
(b)can be dismissed or removed from service at any time without inquiry after
prior approval from the High Court of the State
(c) can be dismissed or removed without inquiry where he is guilty of gross
misconduct of demanding bribe
(d)can be dismissed or removed without any inquiry where the authority having
power to dismiss or remove the civil servant is satisfied for reasons to be
recorded in writing that it is not reasonably practicable to hold such inquiry.

25.Which one of the following statements is correct? The power of judicial review
means the power of the Supreme Court to:
(a) Set aside any executive decision if it is against statutory law
(b)Set aside any provision of law if it is contrary to the Fundamental Rights.
(c) Examine Constitutional validity of any administrative action as well as
legislative action, provision and strike it down if not found in accordance with
the Constitutional provision
(d)Review its own decision or decision of any court or tribunal within the
territory of India.
Madhya Pradesh
1. The statement “What cannot be done directly cannot be done indirectly”
relates to the doctrine of-
(a) Doctrine of pith and substance
(b) Doctrine of implied power
(c) Doctrine of severability
(d) Doctrine of colorable legislation

2. An Appeal under Order XLIII of Code of Civil Procedure shall fie from which of
the following order(s)-
(a) Rufe-11 of Order VII, rejecting the plaint
(b)Rule-9 of Order XXII, refusing to set aside the abatement or dismissal of suit
(c) Rule-1 of Order VIII, not permitting the defendant to present the written
statement
 (d)Rule-5 of Order XIV, refusing to strike out the issue at the instances of either
of the parties

3. Under Specific Retief Act, in which of the following cases, the Court cannot
order rectification of instrument-
(a) Where the instrument through fraud does not express the real intention of the
parties.
(b)Where the instrument through mutual mistake does not express the real
intention of the parties.
(c) Where the instrument is the articles of association of a company.
(d)Where the rectification of the instrument can be done without prejudice to
rights acquired by third persons in good faith and for value

4. Which section will be attracted if a public servant commits rape on a woman

in his custody?
(a) Sec. 376(2)(a) of IPC
(b)Sec. 376(2)(d)
(c) Sec. 376(2)(g)
(d)Sec. 376(2)(b)

5. “If the succeeding Judicial magistrate is of opinion that further examination of

any of the witnesses whose evidence has already been recorded, is necessary
in the interests of justice, he may re-summon any such witness, and after such
further examination, cross-examination and re-examination, if any, as he may
permit, the witness shall be discharged.” This provision is mentioned under
section..............of Criminal Procedure Code.
(a) 326
(b) 325
(c) 311
(d) 319

6. Statements recorded during investigation under section 161 Criminal

Procedure Code by the police-
(a) Cannot be used for any purpose during the trial
(b) Can only be used for corroborating a witness
(c) Can only be used for contradicting a witness
(d) None of these
7. Suit was filed on 20.11.2012 and it has been specifically pleaded that cause of
action arose on 06.10.2012. Defendant appeared and without filing written
statement he filed an application under Order 7 Rule 11 C.B.C. on the ground
that suit is barred by limitation. State what is the correct legal position?
(a) Application under O-7 R-11 C.P.C. is not maintainable because written
statement should be filed firstly
(b)Plaint shall be rejected because suit is barred by Law of Limitation.
(c) Dismissal of application will be proper. Objection could not be decided
without recording evidence of parties
(d)Application should be allowed because plaint does not disclose correct cause
of action.

8. Under Section 313 of Criminal Procedure Code the statement of the accused-
(a) Is recorded on oath
(b)Is recorded without oath
(c) Either on oath or without oath as per the discretion of the court
(d)Court can exempt from oath

9. Which section of the Code of Criminal Procedure mandates that no court,

when it has signed its judgment or final order disposing of a case shall alter or
review the same except to correct a clerical or arithmetical error?
(a) Sec. 463
(b)Sec. 361
(c) Sec. 362
(d)Sec. 363

10.Magistrate of the first class passes a sentence of fine of 100 Rupees only
appeal can be made to-
(a) Sessions Court
(b)High Court
(c) Chief Judicial Magistrate Court
(d)No appeal can be made
11.An agreement to ‘sale of goodwill’ for a specific area, to which the purchaser
agreed, is-
(a) Void
(b)Voidable
(c) Valid
(d)None of the above
12.In which section it is provided that, in computing the period of limitation for
appeal, review or revision, the time requisite for obtaining copy of the decree
or order appealed shall be excluded under-
(a) Sec. 12(1)
(b)Sec. 12(2)
(c) Sec. 13(3)
(d)Sec. 14(4)

13.The provision which provides for Compensation for loss or damage caused by
breach of contract is provided in-
(a) Sec. 51 of Contract Act
(b)Sec. 63 of Contract Act
(c) Sec. 73 of Contract Act
(d)Sec. 125 of Contract Act

14.A gift comprising both the existing and future properties is:
(a) Void as to the first part only.
(b)Void as to the second part only
(c) Void as to both the parts
(d)Not void at all

15.Provision of Section 53A of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 the rights of
following transferee for consideration, shall not be affected
(a) Who is a gratuitous transferee
(b)Who has notice of the contract
(c) Who has no notice of the contract
(d)Whether he has notice of the contract or no notice of the contract

16.An Injunction granted during the pendency of a suit, under section 37 of

Specific Relief Act 1963 is known as a
(a) Permanent Injunction
(b)Mandatory Injunction
(c) Temporary Injunction
(d)Perpetual Injunction
17.Under Limitation Act, period of limitation for setting aside an ex-parte decree
is.............
(a) 1 month
(b)30 days
(c) 60 days
(d)90 days

18.Which of the following is true and correct regarding Art 14 of the Constitution
of India?
(a) It forbids class legislation
(b)It allows reasonable classification
(c) Both, it forbids class legislation and allows reasonable classification
(d)None of these

19.The provision in respect of Summary procedure has been laid down under:
(a) Order 32A of CPC
(b)Order 29 of CPC
(c) Order 34 of CPC
(d)Order 37 of CPC

20.Principle of res judicata does not apply-

(a) To Writ of Habeas Corpus
(b)To Interlocutory Orders
(c) To dismissal under Order 17, Rule 3
(d)To ex parte judgment

21.An injunction cannot be granted-

(a) To restrain any person from prosecuting a judicial proceeding pending at the
institution of the suit in which injunction is sought, unless such restraint is
necessary to prevent a multiplicity of proceedings
(b)To restrain any person from instituting or prosecuting any proceeding in a
court not subordinate to that from which the injunction is sought
(c) To restrain any person from applying to any legislative body
(d)All of these

22.Under Indian Penal Code, which of the following amounts to defamation?

(a) To convey a caution intended for good of person, to whom conveyed or for
public good
(b)To make an imputation concerning a company or an association or collection
of persons as such
(c) Censure passed in good faith by person having lawful authority over others
(d)Publication of reports of proceedings of court

23.Whoever kidnaps or abducts any child with intention of taking dishonestly

any movable Property from the person of such child, shall be punished under
Section 369 of LP.C. if the child is under-
(a) Ten Years
(b)Twelve Years
(c) Fourteen Years
(d)Sixteen Years

24.Inadequacy of consideration is relevant in determining the question of-

(a) Fraud
(b)Misrepresentation
(c) Undue Influence
(d)Free consent

25.Which one of the following is not a Directive Principle of State Policy?

(a) Organization of Village Panchayats
(b)Uniform Civil Code for citizens and non-citizens
(c) Right to work, to education and to public assistance in certain cases
(d)Separation of Judiciary from executive
UTTAR PRADESH
1. The documents on which the plaintiff relies upon in support of his claim shall
be filed by him in the court
(a) along with the plaint
(b)within seven days from the date of order by the court for issue of summons.
(c) on the date fixed for framing of issues by the court.
(d)at the time or before the hearing of the suit.

2. Dasti summons for service on the defendant can be given to the plaintiff
under:
(a) Order V Rule 9A, C.P.C.
(b)Order V Rule 9, C.P.C.
(c) Order V Rule 7, C.P.C.
(d)Order VI Rule 6, C.P.C.
3. In which one of the following cases, it is held that "Inherent powers has not
been conferred on a court, it is a power inherent in a court"?
(a) Rajni Bai v. Kamla Devi
(b)Satyabrat Biswas v. Kalyan Kumar Kisku
(c) P.C. Jairath v. Amrit Jairath
(d)Manohar Lal v. Seth Hiralal

4. 'A' deposits a box of jewels with 'B' as his agent. 'C' alleges that the jewels were
wrongfully obtained by 'A' from him and claims them from 'B'. There 'B'
(a) can institute inter-pleader suit against 'A'.
(b)can institute Inter-pleader suit against 'C'.
(c) can institute Inter-pleaser suit against 'A' and 'C' both.
(d)cannot institute an Inter-pleader suit against 'A' and 'C'.

5. The term "prescribed" under Section 2(16) of Civil Procedure Code, 1908
means
(a) prescribed by court
(b)prescribed by society bumagbot
(c) prescribed by rules
(d)none of the above

6. Point out the incorrect statement:

(a) If a contract is contained in several letters, all the letters in which it is
contained, must be proved.
(b)If a contract is contained in a bill of exchange, the bill of exchange must be
proved.
(c) If a bill of exchange is drawn in a set of three, one only need be proved.
(d)If 'A' gives 'B' receipt for money paid by 'B', oral evidence is offered of the
payment, the evidence is not admissible.

7. Which of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with the
relevancy of statements as to any law contained in law books?
(a) Section 37
(b)Section 38.
(c) Section 36
(d)Section 39
8. A confession by accused can be used against a co accused under Section 30 of
Evidence Act
(a) As hearsay evidence
(b)Only as corroborative evidence
(c) As substantive evidence
(d)None of the above

9. Which one of the following is not included within the definition of the term
Court under Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
(a) All Judges
(b)All Magistrates
(c) All Consumer Forums
(d)All persons legally authorised to take evidence

10.Irregularities which do not vitiate trial have been stated in

(a) Section 460 of Cr.P.C.
(b)Section 461 of Cr.P.C.
(c) Section 462 of Cr.P.C.
(d)Section 466 of Cr.P.C.

11.A Criminal Proceeding which is not compoundable can be quashed by

(a) The Judicial Magistrate First Class
(b)The District and Session Judge
(c) The High Courts
(d)The Supreme Court

12.After enactment of the Muslim Woman (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act,

1986, the jurisdiction under section 125 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973
to grant maintenance to Muslim women:
(a) retained
(b)ceased
(c) limited
(d)None of the above
13.In which of the following cases, it was held that provisions of chapter VIII of
Cr.P.C. being in public interest are not violative of Article 19 of the
Constitution of India.
(a) Ram Charan v. State
(b)Shiv Narain v. Ban Mali
(c) Madhu Limaye v. S.D.M., Monghyr
(d)Ram Prasad v. Emperor

14.Under which section of Cr.P.C. an arrested person is to be examined by the

Government Medical Officer immediately after such arrest?
(a) Section 55A
(b)Section 60A
(c) Section 54
(d)Section 55

15.Which of the following statements is not correct under the Code of Criminal
Procedure?
(a) Where a private person or an authorised person has a right to arrest a person
and hand him over to the custody of police; such private person can also make
search of such arrested person
(b)Inquiry and trial, both are included in 'judicial proceedings'
(c) Complaint may be made by any person and it is not necessary that the injured
or the affected only should complain
(d)Charges are framed only in warrant cases there is no need to frame charge in
petty summons cases

RAJASTHAN & HARYANA

1. 'A' and 'B' contract that 'A' shall build a house for 'B' at a fixed price. The order
in which reciprocal promises are to be performed was not fixed. What shall be
the order of performance?
(a) A's promise to build the house must be performed before B's promise to pay
for the house.
(b)B's promise to pay for the house must be per formed before A's promise to
build the house.
(c) A & B should perform their promise simultaneously.
(d)None of the above.
2. Consider the following statements:
The Supreme Court of India tenders’ advice to the President of India on matters
of law or fact
1. on its own initiative (or any matter of larger public interest)
2. if he seeks such an advice
3. only if the matters relate to the Fundamental Right of the citizens
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b)2 only
(c) both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

3. A witness is asked whether he was not dismissed from a post for dishonesty.
He denies it. Evidence is offered to show that he was dismissed for dishonesty.
(a) None of these
(b)The evidence is admissible
(c) The evidence is not admissible.
(d)The evidence is circumstantial.

4. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court held that legal and valid
marriage is not a necessary ingredient to attract Section 498A of the Indian
Penal Code?
(a) Reema Agarwal v. Anupam and others
(b)Sushil Kumar Sharma v. Union of India and others
(c) Arun Vyas v. Anita Vyas
(d)None of the above

5. "An act committed or omitted in violation of a public law forbidding or

commanding it is crime." It has been said by:
(a) Stephen
(b)Henry Maine
(c) William Blackstone
(d)Kenny
 Static General Knowledge
1. According to W.H.O ______ was first discovered in 1976, that spread among the
human population via direct contract with blood or bodily fluids from infected
person –
a) Ebola virus
b) HIV virus
c) Dengue virus
d) Swine Flu

2. The largest number of Tiger reserves are located in –

a) Karnataka
b) Andhra Pradesh
c) Madhya Pradesh
d) West Bengal

3. Madhubani a style of folk painting is popular in which of the following states in

India
a) Uttar Pradesh
b) Rajasthan
c) Madhya Pradesh
d) Bihar

4. Who is the governor of RBI?

a) Raghuram Rajan
b) Y.V Reddy
c) D. Subbarao
d) Shaktikant Das

5. United Nations announces “International Day of Yoga” on –

a) 19th June
b) 21st June
c) 23rd June
d) 27th June

6. How many languages are there in the eighth schedule of the Constitution of
India
a) 16
b) 18
c) 20
d) 22

7. Davis Cup is related to which sport –

a) Hockey
b) Tennis
c) Football
d) Cricket

8. Who built the Sanchi Stupa

a) Chandra gupta
b) Kautilya
c) Gautam Budha
d) Ashoka

9. AB blood group is also known as universal acceptor group because –

a) it consists both antibodies
b) in consists neither antigen nor antibody
c) it does not consist both antigen
d) it does not consist both antibodies

10. Venus is considered as “Earth’s Twin” because –

a) its period of revolution is same as that of earth
b) it has abundant amount of water
c) it has approximately same size, mass and density as that of earth
d) it completes one rotation on its axis in 24 hours

Current Affairs
1. Which is the largest exported items among all fresh fruit category from India?
(a) Fresh Grapes
(b)Guava
(c) Fresh Mangoes
(d)Betel Leaves & Nuts

2. When is the ‘World NGO Day’ observed across the world?

(a) February 25
(b)February 27
(c) February 28
(d)March 2

3. Sadia Tariq, who was seen in the news, is associated with which sports?
(a) Hockey
(b)Wushu
(c) Gymnastics
(d)Weight-Lifting

4. Madhabi Puri Buch has been appointed as the first woman chairperson of
which regulatory body?
(a) SEBI
(b)NABARD
(c) PFRDA
(d)IRDAI

5. Bhagat Singh Koshyari, who was seen in the news, is the Governor of which
state?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b)West Bengal
(c) Maharashtra
(d)Karnataka

English
1. Find the correct spelt word –
(a) Assasination
(b)Assinashton
(c) Assacination
(d)Assassination

2. Word ______ expresses the opposite meaning of “SUSCEPTIBLE”-

(a) incredible
(b)immune
(c) Predictable
(d)Unpredictable

3. Find out the correct antonym for the word- “Veracity”

(a) Falsehood
(b)Heinous
(c) Ruined
(d)Composed

4. Choose the word opposite in meaning to “CORDIAL”-

(a) fast
(b)heartfelt
(c) friendly
(d)hostile

5. Select the word which is most nearly opposite in meaning as the word
“FORBID”-
(a) forgive
(b)allow
(c) refuse
(d)depriv