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PRELIMS
DELHI
JUDICIAL
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PREVIOUS YEAR PAPER
2015
[SOLVED]
DELHI JUDICIARY
PRELIMS MOCK TEST SERIES 2023
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(a) 5 more AIIMS in Jammu and Kashmir, Punjab, Tamil Nadu, Himachal Pradesh, Bihar
and Assam
(b) University of Disability Studies will be established in Kerala
(c) 150 crores allotted for Atal Innovation Mission
(d) Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) will further be expanded to 2.3 crore from 1 crore.
3. Which recent judgment of the Supreme Court deals with the duty of the police to register
a First Information Report? Choose the correct answer from the following:
4. Which tribe has the largest population in India according to the 2011 census?
(a) Garos
(b) Bhils
(c) Todas
(d) Santhals.
5. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court held that 'Right to Sleep' is a
fundamental right?
(a) Article 21
(b) Article 41
(c) Article 21A
(d) Article 31.
(a) Prohibitory
(b) Mandatory
(c) Discretionary
(d) None of the above.
14. Which Section of CPC declares that the Court shall presume, upon the production of
any document purporting to be a certified copy of a foreign judgment that such judgment
was pronounced by a court of competent jurisdiction, unless the contrary appears on the
record, or is proved?
(a) Section 13
(b) Section 14
(c) Section 19
(d) Section 20.
15. In a suit for recovery instituted by A against B, despite the summons of suit having been
duly served upon B, he did not appear on the date fixed in the summons on 1/3/1993. The
Court consequently on 1/3/1993 passed an ex parte order against B and listed the case for
3/4/1993 for ex parte evidence of A.
16. Mark the correct statement in relation to Order XXIII of Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
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(a) At any time after the institution of a suit, the plaintiff may withdraw his suit or
abandon part of his claim
(b) If a plaintiff withdraws from a suit without the Court's permission, he is precluded
from instituting a fresh suit against the same defendant in respect of the same subject
matter
(c) If the Court is satisfied that a suit must fail by reason of some formal defect or there
are other sufficient grounds, it may allow the withdrawal from suit
(d) Where there are several plaintiffs, the court can allow one of them to withdraw, even
if the other co-plaintiffs do not consent to such withdrawal.
19. Which Section of the Code of Criminal Procedure provides protection to the members
of Armed Forces from arrest?
(a) Section 41
(b) Section 45
(c) Section 46
(d) Section 50.
20. In a suit for partition, three defendants were set ex parte. A preliminary decree was
passed. On the application of one of the three defendants, the Court set aside the decree as
against all the defendants. The order of the court is:
(a) Legal
(b) Irregular
(c) Unjustified
(d) Illegal.
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21. After the trial of the suit, the Court found that the suit was barred by the principle of
res judicata and did not discuss and answer the other issues. The procedure adopted by the
court is:
(a) Legal
(b) Justified
(c) Proper
(d) Illegal.
22. When a court desires that its decree shall be executed by another court, it shall send to
the other court:
23. A court to which decree has been transferred for execution cannot while executing:
24. Under Civil Procedure Code, in which of the following cases the court cannot reject the
plaint?
(a) Where the relief claimed is undervalued, and the plaintiff, on being required by the
court to correct the valuation within a time to be fixed by the Court, fails to do so
(b) Where the suit appears from the statement in the plaint to be barred by any law
(c) When the plaint is insufficiently stamped and the plaintiff on being required by the
Court to supply the requisite stamp-paper within a time to be fixed by the court, fails
to do so
(d) Where the plaint discloses a cause of action.
25. Under Civil Procedure Code, when application for review is dismissed:
26. The object of oral examination under Order X Rule 2 of CPC is:
28. In which year was the first amendment to the Constitution effected?
(a) 1950
(b) 1952
(c) 1951
(d) 1953.
29. Which part of the Constitution of India deals with the Fundamental Rights?
(a) Part I
(b) Part II
(c) Part III
(d) Part IV.
30. The Seven Judge Bench of the Supreme Court of India in Pradeep Kumar Biswas v.
Indian Institute of Chemical Biology 2002 (5) SCC 111 overruled its judgments in the case
of:
31. Which Article in the Constitution of India outlaws untouchability and makes it a
punishable offence?
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(a) Article 12
(b) Article 13
(c) Article 17
(d) Article 18.
32. Which Article of the Constitution of India guarantees citizens the right to settle in any
part of the territory of India?
35. Article 39(4) of the Constitution of India obliges the State to secure:
36. Which Article of the Constitution of India obliges the State to organise Village
Panchayats?
(a) Article 40
(b) Article 41
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(c) Article 42
(d) Article 43.
37. Which Article in the Constitution of India relates to the power of the President to grant
pardons etc. and to suspend, remit or commute sentences in certain cases?
(a) Article 71
(b) Article 72
(c) Article 162
(d) Article 77.
38. The Right to move to Supreme Court of India for the enforcement of the Fundamental
Rights is guaranteed under:
39. The Supreme Court of India has been established under Article:
(a) 124
(b) 125
(c) 126
(d) 127.
40. Which Article in the Constitution of India relates to the control of the High Court over
subordinate Courts in matters of posting, promotion, leave etc.?
42. Which Constitution Amendment Act relating to appointments of judges came for
consideration of the Supreme Court and was struck down, being in violation of the basic
feature doctrine of the Constitution of India?
43. In which case the Supreme Court of India propound the basic feature doctrine for the
first time?
44. Which Article in the Constitution of India relates to the subject matter of laws made by
Parliament to give effect to treaties and international agreements?
45. The "Arbitral Award" as defined in the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 includes:
(C) an exchange of submissions in which the existence of the agreement is alleged by one party
and not denied by the other.
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47. A party seeking appointment of an Arbitrator through the High Court or its designate
shall make a request under:
48. The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 was enacted taking into consideration:
49. A party seeking interim measures from a Court would file an application under:
(A) an individual who is a national of or habitually resident in any country other than India.
(B) a body corporate which is incorporated in any country other than India.
(C) an association or a body of individuals whose central management and control is exercised
in any country other than India.
Code:
51. In the absence of an agreement between the parties, the arbitration proceedings are said
to have commenced on:
(a) The date on which the first party dispatches a notice of request to the second party for
referring the dispute to arbitration
(b) The date on which a request to refer the dispute to arbitration is received by the second
party
(c) When one of the parties submit the claim petition before the arbitrator
(d) None of the above.
52. An application for setting aside the Arbitral Award is filed under:
54. An arbitral award given on 21st August, 1996 can be challenged under:
55. Which of the statements is not in accordance with the provisions of the Arbitration and
Conciliation Act, 1996?
(a) An arbitral award shall be made in writing and shall be signed by the members of the
arbitral tribunal
(b) In the absence of an agreement between the parties, the arbitral award shall state the
reasons upon which it is based
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(c) After the arbitral award is made, a signed copy shall be delivered to each party
(d) The arbitral tribunal shall not, during the arbitral proceedings, make an interim award.
56. An appeal under Section 37 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 read with
Ordinance of 2015 shall lie:
57. Part II of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 relates to:
58. Which cricketer was given the Arjuna Award in the year 2014?
59. Who is the cabinet minister for Road, Transport, and Highways, Shipping, Government
of India?
61. Who was the first and last Indian Governor General of free India?
64. Which Indian American who recently sworn in as the US Surgeon General?
68. Who won the Indira Gandhi Award for National Integration?
(a) Anthropology
(b) Apiology
(c) Etymology
(d) Horticulture.
(b) Kerala
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Odisha.
(a) Aspheosis
(b) Nicolaus Copernicus
(c) Caroline Mikkelsen
(d) Toni Morrison.
(a) Kosi
(b) Gandak
(c) Mahanadi
(d) Krishna.
(a) CaO
(b) Ca(OH)
(c) CH₄
(d) CH₃OH.
78. Who won the Nobel Prize for Literature in the 2014?
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79. Which country won the FIFA Women's World Cup, 2015?
(a) Brazil
(b) Argentina
(c) USA
(d) Germany.
(a) India
(b) Indonesia
(c) Malaysia
(d) Thailand.
(a) Argentina
(b) USA
(c) Hungary
(d) South Africa.
(a) Egypt
(b) Greece
(c) Sweden
(d) Norway.
83. Part II of the Limitation Act, 1963 deals with limitation of:
(a) Suits
(b) Appeals
(c) Applications
(d) All of the above.
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(i) in an ordinary case, when the plaint is presented to the proper officer.\
(ii) in the case of a pauper when his application for leave to sue as a pauper is made.
(iii) in the case of a claim against a company which is being wound-up by the Court when the
claimant first sends in the claim to the official liquidator.
85. Where the prescribed period for any suit, appeal or application expires on a day when
the Court is closed, the suit, appeal or application may be instituted, preferred or made:
(a) Suit
(b) Appeal
(c) Application
(d) All of the above.
87. Which Section of the Limitation Act prescribes that in computing the period of
limitation for any suit, appeal or application, for leave to appeal or for revision or for review
of a judgment, the day on which the judgment complained of was pronounced and the time
requisite for obtaining a copy of the decree, sentence or order appealed from or sought to
be revised or reviewed shall be excluded?
(a) Section 11
(b) Section 12
(c) Section 13
(d) Section 14.
88. Exclusion of time of proceeding bona fide in court without jurisdiction is stipulated in:
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(a) Section 13
(b) Section 14
(c) Section 15
(d) Section 16.
89. In computing the period of limitation for an application to set aside an award, the time
requisite for obtaining a copy of the award shall be excluded under:
90. Where once the time has begun to run, no subsequent disability or inability to institute
a suit or make an application stops it under:
(a) Section 9
(b) Section 10
(c) Section 11
(d) Section 6.
92. Directions (Questions 92-96): Pick out the most effective word from the given word to
fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
(a) Foster
(b) Forsake
(c) Forgive
(d) Forward.
93. Indications are that the Government is .............. to the prospect of granting bonus to the
striking employees.
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(a) Relieved
(b) Aligned
(c) Obliged
(d) Reconciled.
94. The .............. study on import of natural gas from Iran through pipeline would be
completed shortly.
(a) Natural
(b) Economic
(c) Feasibility
(d) Calculated.
95. Man is .............., however, he is more in need of mental companionship than of physical
companionship.
(a) Biological
(b) Egoistic
(c) Gregarious
(d) Democratic.
96. We still have not given our .............. to conduct the survey of natural resources in our
state.
(a) Consent
(b) Request
(c) Provision
(d) Projection.
97. Directions (Questions 97-101): In each of these questions, out of the four given
alternatives choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.
APLOMB:
(a) Adventure
(b) Assurance
(c) A powerful bomb
(d) Fear.
98. RISQUE:
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99. ILLICIT:
100. COMPLEMENT:
(a) To complete
(b) Words to praise
(c) A grammatical category
(d) A geographical category.
101. OCULIST:
104. Which one of the following statements is correct? The power of judicial review means
the power of the Supreme Court to:
(a) Withdraw
(b) Charge
(c) Childish
(d) Framework of ship.
106. The group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word 'Vanished' is:
(a) Relinquish
(b) Illuminant
(c) Exodes
(d) Dependency.
108. The word which is most opposite in meaning to the word 'Random' is:
(a) Accidental
(b) Haphazard
(c) Incidental
(d) Deliberate.
(a) Hypocrite
(b) Imposter
(c) Somnambulist
(d) Sarcastic.
(a) Awful
(b) Contentious
(c) Fictitious
(d) Malicious.
(a) Evil
(b) Attraction
(c) Blot
(d) Virtue.
112. Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of 'veracity'.
(a) Truth
(b) Freedom
(c) Wisdom
(d) Loyalty.
(a) Hasty
(b) Agile
(c) Prompt
(d) Rapid.
114. .......... most important event in India's history was the revolution of 1857.
(a) The
(b) It was the
(c) That the
(d) There was.
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115. In the case of an accused facing inquiry or trial though not of unsound mind but not
capable of understanding the proceedings:
116. A contract, which is formed without the free consent of the parties is:
118. Estoppel:
119. A notice under section 111 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 can be waived:
120. On the death of a sole proprietor, his/her heirs automatically become the partners of
old firm. The statement is:
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(a) True
(b) Partly true
(c) False
(d) None of the above.
(a) Prohibiting the judgment debtor's debtor from making any payment to the judgment
debtor
(b) Directing the decree holder to take the payment from the judgment debtor's debtor
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of the above.
(a) Impotency
(b) Mental Disorder
(c) Fraud
(d) None of the above.
124. "In a usufructuary mortgage, the mortgagee is placed in possession of the property and
has right to receive rents and profits from it till:
125. In terms of Section 3 of the Limitation Act, the court is required to consider the
question of Limitation:
126. Both husband and wife are competent for and against each other:
(a) It falls within the class of cases which require utmost good faith.
130. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the
list:
List I
(b) House-breaking
(c) Assault
List II
Codes:
132. Section 76 of IPC provides that nothing is an offence, which is done by a person who
is or who by reason of:
133. 'X' and 'Y' go to murder 'Z', 'X' stood on guard with a spear in hand but did not hit 'Z'
at all. 'Y' killed 'Z'.
134. Under which provision of the Indian Evidence Act is expert opinion relevant?
(a) Section 41
(b) Section 43
(c) Section 44
(d) Section 45.
(a) Oath may be administered to an accused before her examination under Section 313
Cr.P.C.
(b) Accused can refuse to answer any question when he is examined under Section 313
Cr.P.C.
(c) Accused can be put any question by the court at any stage of the trial
(d) Evidence which incriminates the accused has to be put to him or her by the court.
(a) A death sentence imposed by a Sessions Court is subject to confirmation by the High
Court
(b) A death sentence imposed by a Sessions Court can be confirmed by the High Court
only when a Bench consisting of two judges or more hears the case
(c) No confirmation of a death sentence imposed by the Sessions Court can be made
before the expiry of the period for preferring the appeal
(d) The High Court cannot acquit the convict while considering the case for confirmation
unless he prefers an appeal.
137. In a summons case, at the time of appearance of the accused before the Magistrate, it
is unnecessary to:
138. When does a trial commence in warrant cases instituted on police report?
139. Which Supreme Court case discusses the law relating to narco-analysis, from amongst
the following decided cases?
140. If the person who is competent to compound offence is dead, the compounding:
141. Under Section 216 of Cr.P.C., the Court has the power to:
143. 'A', with the intention to kill, shoots aiming at 'B', instead 'C' gets killed. The principle
for holding 'A' liable is known as:
144. The difference between Section 34 and Section 149 of Indian Penal Code is:
(a) That whereas in Section 34 there must at least be five persons, Section 149 requires
only two persons
(b) That Section 149 is only a rule of evidence whereas Section 34 creates a specific offence
and provides for its punishment
(c) That Section 34 requires active participation in action whereas Section 149 requires
mere passive membership of the unlawful assembly
(d) That Section 34 need not be joined with the principle offence, whereas Section 149 must
be combined with the principle offence.
145. The Constitution of India vests residuary legislative powers and executive functions
in:
146. Which of the following countries has the highest population density?
(a) Pakistan
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Bangladesh
(d) India.
147. The only State to have a sex ratio of above 1000 is:
150. Who won the Women's Single title in Wimbledon Championship 2015?
151. Which country won the ICC Cricket World Cup Championship held in 2015?
152. Which of the following decisions of the Supreme Court did not propound or apply the
basic structure doctrine, in respect of amendment to the Constitution?
(a) Manila
(b) Tokyo
(c) New Delhi
(d) Jakarta.
154. Gol Gumbaz, the largest dome, is located in the State of:
(a) Bihar
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Madhya Pradesh
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(d) Karnataka.
155. How many members of Rajya Sabha can be nominated by the President of India from
amongst persons who have distinguished themselves in art, literature, social service, etc?
(a) 2
(b) 10
(c) 12
(d) 6.
156. Which of the following Fundamental Rights cannot be suspended during the period
of proclamation of emergency?
157. A State in India has one of the largest human development indicators, has the lowest
infant mortality as well as the lowest birth rate and also has the highest rate of rural and
urban unemployment as per the 66th round of National Sample Survey. Which is that
State?
(a) Mizoram
(b) Kerala
(c) Punjab
(d) Rajasthan.
158. Which wildlife reserve is known for the Great Indian One Horned Rhino?
(a) Corbett
(b) Dudhwa
(c) Kaziranga
(d) Gir.
159. Why did Muhammad Bin Tughlaq shift his capital from Delhi to Devagiri?
160. Which of the following atmospheric gases constitute "Green House Gases"?
(b) Nitrogen
161. Which Convention adopted the International Treaty for Elimination or Restriction of
Production and Distribution of Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) that pose a threat to
human health?
(a) Bacterium
(b) Bread mold
(c) Microplasma
(d) Virus.
163. Insider trading is an offence under Indian laws. Who among the following in the
normal circumstances, will not be accused of insider trading?
(a) Singer
(b) Musician
(c) Writer
(d) Cartoonist.
166. The Freedom of Speech under the Indian Constitution is subject to reasonable
restrictions on the ground of protection of:
169. A criminal court shall not take cognizance of an offence after the expiry of:
(a) Six months, if the punishment does not exceed one year imprisonment
(b) One year, if the punishment does not exceed one year imprisonment
(c) Three years, if the punishment does not exceed one year imprisonment
(d) Three months, if the punishment does not exceed one year imprisonment.
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(a) The person should have been tried by court of competent jurisdiction
(b) He should have been convicted
(c) He should have been acquitted
(d) None of the above.
174. "Anticipatory bail under Section 438 Cr.P.C. can be granted by:
175. A is working in a field with a spade. The iron head of the spade flies off and hits a
person who dies.
177. The right of private defence of the body can extend to causing death:
180. If a child under 12 years of age is abandoned by his parents and the child dies, the
parents can be prosecuted for:
(a) Murder
(b) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(c) For offence under section 317 of the IPC
(d) For all of the above.
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181. A makes an attempt to steal some jewels by breaking open a box, but finds none. A is
guilty of:
(a) Theft
(b) Burglary
(c) Dacoity
(d) None of the above.
182. A finds Rs. 1,000/- note on the road. He has no idea as to whom the Rs. 1,000/- note
belongs. He picks up the note. A has committed:
(a) Theft
(b) Misappropriation of property
(c) Attempt to theft
(d) Has not committed any offence.
184. A statement made by any person to a police officer in the course of investigation:
(a) If duly proved can be used as substantive evidence by the accused and the prosecution
(b) If duly proved can be used by the accused and the prosecution to contradict such
witness
(c) If duly proved can be used by the accused and the prosecution to corroborate such
witness
(d) None of the above.
185. In case the offence is punishable with both imprisonment and fine, maximum sentence
that can be awarded by the Court in default of payment of fine is:
(a) Equal to the term of imprisonment which is the maximum fixed for the offence
(b) Half of the term of imprisonment which is the maximum fixed for the offence
(c) One-third of the term of imprisonment which is the maximum fixed for the offences
(d) One-fourth of the term of imprisonment which is the maximum fixed for the offence.
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186. Provisions of Chapter-XXI-A Cr.P.C. are not applicable to cases where the final report
discloses:
187. When six men and women extort Rs. 1,000/-from a teenager putting him to fear of
instant hurt by showing a knife, the offence(s) committed by them would be:
(a) Extortion
(b) Robbery
(c) Dacoity
(d) All of the above.
188. Which of the following Acts does not relate to offences affecting the socio-economic
condition of the country as notified under sub-section (2) of Section 265A Cr.P.C.?
190. The report of which of the following experts is not admissible per se?
191. A, with six others, commits the offences of rioting, grievous hurt and assaulting a
public servant endeavoring in the discharge of his duty as such to suppress the riot. A may
be separately charged with, and convicted of, offences under sections:
193. The period for limitation for taking cognizance for an offence punishable under
Section 379 IPC is:
195. Who amongst the following unable to maintain herself due to physical abnormality
cannot claim maintenance under Section 125 Cr.P.C.?
200. To ensure fairness and accuracy in a Test Identification Parade, the requirement is:
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