CSS Law Papers

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FEDERAL PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION

COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION FOR RECRUITMENT TO POSTS IN BPS-17
UNDERTHE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT, 2010
LAW, PAPER-I
PART – I (MCQ)
Q.1. Select the best option and fill in the appropriate box on Answer Sheet. (20)
(i) A suit for the recovery of property may be instituted in the court:
(a) Where the defendant resides

(b) Where the plaintiff resides
(c) Where the property situates
(d) Where the cause of action arises
(ii) A decree may be executed by a court:
(a) in whose jurisdiction the defendant resides

(b) having criminal jurisdiction
(c) in whose jurisdiction the subject matter situates
(d) Which passed the decree
(iii) In the execution of a decree the court may attach and sell:
(a) all saleable, moveable or immoveable property

(b) necessary wearing apparel
(c) property surrendered by the judgment debtor
(d) Any of these
(iv) A revisional jurisdiction of a High Court may be invoked:
(a) where the judgment of the subordinate court is based on error

(b) if the subordinate court has acted without jurisdiction
(c) on merits of the case
(d) for permission to file, an appeal
(v) Amendments of pleadings may be allowed by the court:
(a) before framing the issues

(b) before close of the evidence
(c) at any stage of the proceedings
(d) None of these
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(vi) A minor can sue:
(a) Himself
(b) Through next friend
(c) Upon attaining the age of majority
(d) Any of these
(vii) A tender for the sale or purchase of goods is:
(a) proposal
(b) an invitation to make an offer
(c) acceptance
(d) None of these
(viii) The communication of an acceptance is complete:
(a) when it comes to the knowledge of the proposer

(b) when the proposee is informed by the proposer of its receipt
(c) when its transmission is out of the control of the proposee
(d) Any of these
(ix) An agreement made by a minor is:
(a) enforceable
(b) unenforceable
(c) enforceable upon minor’s attainment of age of majority
(d) enforceable if beneficial to minor
(x) An agreement in restraint of legal proceedings is:
(a) void
(b) voidable
(c) unlawful
(d) None of these
(xi) An agreement may be performed:
(a) by the parties

(b) by the legal representatives of the parties
(c) by the assignor and the assignee of the contract
(d) All of these
(xii) Novation of contract means:
(a) rescission
(b) breach
(c) modification
(d) None of these
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(xiii) A promise to be liable for a debt conditionally on the principal debtor making default is a
contract of:
(a) indemnity
(b) guarantee
(c) pledge
(d) None of these
(xiv) The term pawn is used in the contract of:
(a) indemnity
(b) guarantee
(c) agency
(d) None of these
(xv) A tort is an infringement of:
(a) a private civil right

(b) a public right
(c) both private and public rights
(d) None of these
(xvi) In order to establish tort, the victim must show the presence of:
(a) Legal damage

(b) actual damage
(c) pecuniary damage
(d) Any of these
(xvii) A battery is:
(a) an attempt to do a corporeal hurt to another

(b) a bodily harm whereby a man is deprived of the use of any member of his body or sense
(c) the actual striking of another person
(d) None of these
(xviii) In order to constitute false imprisonment the confinement of the person must be:
(a) actual i.e. physical

(b) constructive i.e. mere show of authority
(c) restraining the movement of the person against his will
(d) Any of these
(xix) Dismissal of a servant by the master is justifiable on:
(a) grave misconduct

(b) a proof of habitual negligence of serious character
(c) misconduct on one occasion only if sufficiently gross
(d) Any of these
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(xx) A person is guilty of public nuisance if he does acts leading to:
(a) wrongful disturbances of easement or servitude

(b) wrongful escape of deleterious substances into another’s property
(c) an illegal omission causing any common injury or annoyance to the people in general
(d) None of these
PART – II (Subjective)
(ii) Attempt ONLY FIVE questions from PART-II selecting at least ONE question from EACH SECTION. All
questions carry EQUAL marks.
SECTION – I (Civil Procedure Code)
Q.2. Explain the principle of resjudicate. How does it differ from the principle of res-subjudice? (16)
Q.3. State the grounds on which an appeal from a judgement, decree or final order of a High Court may
be made to the Supreme Court. Is there any bar on certain appeals? If so, explain. (16)
Q.4. What is meant by Temporary Injunctions? Discuss the law governing the grant of injunctions. (16)
SECTION – II (The Contract Act)
Q.5. Define proposal and distinguish it from an invitation to proposal. How is it revoked? (16)
Q.6. Explain the term damages. Discuss the rules governing the award of damages upon breach of
contract. (16)
Q.7. What is an act of ratification? State the conditions necessary for ratification. (16)
SECTION – III (Law of Torts)
Q.8. Write a detailed note on discharge of tort. (16)
Q.9. What is negligence? Discuss fully the essentials of negligence. (16)
Q.10.What judicial remedies are available in tort? Discuss fully. (16)

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COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION FOR RECRUITMENT TO POSTS IN BPS-17 UNDER THE FEDERAL
GOVERNMENT, 2010
LAW, PAPER-II
PART – I (MCQ)
(i) A police officer may arrest a person without warrant if the offence is:
(a) cognizable
(b) non-cognizable
(c) bailable
(d) None of these
(ii) Any offence defined under the Pakistan Penal Code may be tried by:
(a) The High Court

(b) The Court of session
(c) Magisterate of 1st Class
(d) Any of these
(iii) An order u/s 144 of Criminal Procedure Code to prevent nuisance or apprehended danger in
urgent cases may be made by:
(a) the High Court

(b) Court of session
(c) District Magistrate
(d) None of these
(iv) A statement by a witness to a police officer u/s 161 of the Criminal Procedure Code shall be made:
(a) On Oath
(b) Without Oath
(c) as directed by the police officer
(d) None of these
(v) Where a magistrate of the second or third class is of the opinion that the accused deserves more
severe punishment than he is empowered to inflict, he may forward the accused to:
(a) the court of session

(b) district magistrate
(c) magistrate of 1st class
(d) may try himself
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(vi) An appeal against the conviction passed by a magistrate of the second or third class may be made
to the:
(a) magistrate of the 1st class

(b) district magistrate
(c) court of session
(d) high court
(vii) The right of private defence of property extends to death in cases of:
(a) robbery
(b) house breaking by night
(c) mischief by fire committed on human dwelling place
(d) Any of these
(viii) A child is not criminally liable if he is:
(a) under 18 years of age

(b) under 7 years of age
(c) above 7 and under 12 years of age but has attained sufficient maturity
(d) None of these
(ix) An abettor is a person who:
(a) actively participates in the commission of an offence

(b) does not have any relation with the commission of the offence
(c) instigates another person to commit an offence
(d) None of these
(x) Diyat can be awarded in case of:
(a) Qatl Shibh

(b) Qatl Khata
(c) Qatl bis Sabah
(d) Any of these
(xi) The act of obstructing another person so as to prevent him from moving lawfully in a direction is
said to be:
(a) wrongful detention

(b) wrongful confinement
(c) wrongful restraint
(d) None of these
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(xii) Theft becomes robbery if during the commission of the offence the offender causes or attempts
to cause:
(a) death or fear of instant death

(b) hurt or fear of instant hurt
(c) wrongful restraint or fear of wrongful restraint
(d) Any of these
(xiii) The Quanun-e-Shahadat Order 1984 does not apply to proceedings before:
(a) a court martial

(b) a tribunal
(c) an arbitrator
(d) None of these
(xiv) Privileged communication means that the witness may be:
(a) compelled to give answers

(b) excused from giving answers
(c) exempted from attending the court
(d) None of these
(xv) An accomplice is:
(a) an incompetent witness

(b) a competent witness
(c) a competent witness of permitted by the court of law
(d) None of these
(xvi) A fact in issue is a fact:
(a) asserted by one and denied by the other party

(b) relevant to the proceedings
(c) necessary to explain or introduce a relevant fact
(d) None of these
(xvii) Hearsay evidence is:
(a) no evidence
(b) inadmissible
(c) admissible where provided by law
(d) None of these
(xviii) The contents of a document may be proved by:
(a) oral evidence

(b) secondary evidence
(c) primary evidence
(d) None of these
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(xix) A fact to which a judicial notice has been taken by the court:
(a) must be proved by evidence

(b) need not be proved
(c) may be proved with the permission of the court
(d) None of these
(xx) A leading question may be asked in:
(a) examination in chief

(b) cross-examination
(c) re-examination
(d) None of these
PART – II (Subjective)
(ii) Attempt ONLY FIVE questions from PART-II selecting at least ONE question from EACH SECTION.
All questions carry EQUAL marks.
SECTION – I (Qanun-e-Shahadat Order)
Q.2. Who is a competent witness? State the number of witness in a case fixed under the order if any.
(16)
Q.3. Define a confession stating its kinds. What are the conditions subject to which a confession may be
admissible or inadmissible? (16)
Q.4. Explain the doctrine of Estoppel: what are its various kinds? Discuss. (16)
SECTION – II (Criminal Procedure Code)
Q.5. Examine the powers vested in a magistrate or a police officer under Criminal Procedure Code for
the dispersion of Unlawful Assemblies in order to maintain public peace and security. (16)
Q.6. Define a Charge. What particulars it must contain? Discuss fully. (16)
Q.7. Explain the term Bail. When bail may be taken in case of un-bailable offences? (16)
SECTION – III (Pakistan Penal Code)
Q.8. What elements are necessary to constitute criminal liability? State some of the leading exceptions
from criminal liability provided under Pakistan Penal Code. (16)
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Q.9. Define criminal conspiracy. State the punishment provided for it Under Pakistan Penal Code. (16)
Q.10.Write notes on the following. (16)
(a) Qatl-i-amd
(b) Extortion
(c) Criminal Breach of Trust
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COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION FOR RECRUITMENT TO POSTS IN BPS – 17
UNDER THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT, 2009.
LAW PAPER - I
PART – I (MCQ)
Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the Answer Sheet. (20)
(i) “Mesne Profits” of property means the profits:
(a) received by a mortgagee from the mortgaged property

(b) received by the person in wrongful possession from the property wrongfully possessed by him
(c) received by a bailee during the period the property was in his possession under the contract of
bailment
(d) None of these
(ii) A suit for the recovery of an immovable property should be filed in the court within local limits of
whose jurisdiction the:
(a) plaintiff resides

(b) cause of action has arisen
(c) defendant resides
(d) None of these
(iii) A filed a suit against B for the recovery of price of the cow he sold to B. In reaction to such suit B
filed a suit against A for the recovery of the price of the cow he paid to A. The B’s suit can be termed
as:
(a) Interpleader suit

(b) Counter Claim
(c) Set-off
(d) None of these
(iv) A minor can sue through his:
(a) Guardian
(b) Next Friend
(c) Guardian ad litem
(d) None of these
(v) Which of the following modes of execution of a decree for restitution of conjugal rights is not
lawful:
(a) attachment of immovable property

(b) attachment movable property
(c) forcibly taking the wife to her husband’s house
(d) None of these
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(vi) A suit for compensation for wrongs to movable property should be filed in the court within the
local limits of whose jurisdiction:
(a) the wrong was done

(b) the defendant resides
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) None of these
(vii) A minor can be sued through his:
(a) Guardian
(b) Next Friend
(c) Guardian ad litem
(d) None of these
(viii) Jamal, a 17 years old millionaire and thus a minor under the law, agrees to buy Bilal’s house for
“a reasonable price.” They reduce the agreement to writing and both sign. Bilal and Jamal have:
(a) a valid contract

(b) a voidable contract
(c) no contract
(d) None of these
(ix) Salim, a 14 years old, offers to cut Shahid’s grass for Rs.400/-. Shahid replies “If you include some
hedge trimming I accept.” Salim walks away. Shahid then says, “never mind, I accept for Rs.400/-.”
Salim keeps walking. There is:
(a) an oral contract at Rs. 400/-

(b) a voidable contract
(c) an offer from Shahid
(d) None of these
(x) Salman states to Jamal who is only 16 years old “I would not sell my car for less than Rs.5,000/-.”
Jamal says, “I accept.” Under the Contract Act:
(a) there is an offer and acceptance and thus a valid contract

(b) the contract is voidable on the option of Jamal
(c) there is no contract
(d) None of these
(xi) Noman offers to sell his car to Sardar for Rs.200,000/-. Sardar says “Is that negotiable?” Noman
says “No.” Sardar then says, “Well, I’ll take it for Rs. 200,000/-.” What has happened?
(a) Sardar has accepted Noman’s offer

(b) Sardar has made a new offer
(c) Sardar has rejected Noman’s offer under the mirror image rule
(d) None of these
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(xii) A and B are negotiating over the price of a used car. A tells B that he can purchased the car for
Rs.400,000/-. B tells A that “I agree if you replace the tyres.” Which of the following statements is
correct?
(a) B’s acceptance is qualified and incomplete
(b) B has made a counter offer
(c) B has made A conditional acceptance
(d) None of these
(xiii) When an offer can only be accepted by the performance of the person to whom the offer is
made, is characteristic of:
(a) bilateral contracts

(b) quasi contracts
(c) implied contracts
(d) None of these
(xiv) Kala Khan offers to sell Baboo Bashir his motorcycle at some time in the future. Baboo Bashir
accepts. Is there a valid contract?
(a) probably not, the terms are not definite

(b) Probably so
(c) definitely not because the acceptance was invalid
(d) None of these
(xv) In a tort which is actionable per se the plaintiff has to prove:
(a) the commission of the tortous act as well as resulting damage

(b) the commission of the tortous act only
(c) the commission of the tortous act resulting damage and ill-well on the part of the defendant
(d) None of these
(xvi) Injuria Sine Damnum means:
(a) damage without infringement of a legal right

(b) Infringement of a legal right only
(c) Infringement of a legal right without any damage
(d) None of these
(xvii) Publication of a verbal defamatory statement necessitates that it should have been:
(a) repeated in a gathering of 10%

(b) published in a national news paper
(c) known to a third person
(d) None of these
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(xviii) Under the rule of Vicarious Liability:
(a) a company is liable for the wrongful acts of its directors

(b) only a master is liable for the wrongful acts of his servant
(c) both A & B
(d) None of these
(xix) Which of the following is not a remedy in an action for tort?
(a) Injunction
(b) fine
(c) damage
(d) None of these
(xx) A right in personum is the right which is?
(a) available against the world at large

(b) not available against a particular individual
(c) not the creation of a contract
(d) None of these
PART – II
SECTION – I (The Code of Civil Procedure)
Q.2. In which of the following circumstances a High Court cannot call for the record of a case for
Revision, which has been decided by a subordinate court? (16)
(a) Where the subordinate court has failed to exercise a jurisdiction vested in it?
(b) Where the subordinate court has exercised a jurisdiction not vested in it?
(c) Where the subordinate court has exercised a jurisdiction not vested in it and one of the parties to
that case who has a right of appeal has failed to prefer an appeal?
(d) Where the subordinate court has acted in the exercise of a jurisdiction vested in it illegally are with
material irregularity?
Which of the above statements is correct? Support your choice with arguments and state the relevant
principal of law.
Q.3. Discuss and differentiate between res judicata and unilateral res-subjudice by giving examples. (16)
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Q.4. Which of the following of a ground for appeal to the High Court from a decree passed in appeal by a
District Court? (16)
(a) the decision of the District Court being contrary to the procedure provided by the Civil Court
Ordinance (II of 1962);
(b) the District Court having exercised a jurisdiction not vested in it;
(c) the decision of the District Court being contrary to the procedure provided by the Code of Civil
Procedure (V of 1908);
(d) All of the above.
Which of the above statements is correct? Support your choice with arguments and state the relevant
principal of law.
SECTION – II (The Contract Act)
Q.5. One evening while shifting through your “junk mail”, you see an advertisement in a catalogue
distributed by the local computer store advertising a pocket PC that you wish to buy. The PC usually sells
for Rs.30,000/-, but the catalogue price is Rs.20,000/-. Next morning you go to the store with
Rs.20,000/- to buy the PC, where you are told that the price in the catalogue is wrong, but you can buy it
for Rs.30,000/-. Can not you insist to buy the PC for Rs.20,000/-? Why or why not? Discuss in detail by
referring to the relevant provisions of law. (16)
Q.6. Discuss and differentiate between bilateral and unilateral contract by giving examples. (16)
Q.7. At a meeting of coin collectors, Sulman offers his entire coin collection to Bilal for Rs.25,000/-. Bilal,
a more wise collector than Salman, knows that the collection is really worth about Rs.40,000/-. The next
day, Bilal posts a letter to Salman accepting the offer, enclosing a Bank cheque for Rs.25,000/-. That
evening, Bilal received a phone call from Sulman, saying that the offer to sell the collection for
Rs.25,000/- was withdrawn. Bilal replied “You cannot revoke your offer! I have already accepted it. I
posted you a Bank cheque Rs.25,000/- at 2 o’clock this afternoon.” Salman then told Bilal that he had
already sold the collection to another collector for Rs.30,000/-. Can Bilal sue Slaman? Why or why not?
Discuss in detail by referring to the relevant provisions of law. (16)
SECTION – III (Law of Torts)
Q.8. The “Sach Khabrain” is a programme of political comment and news produced by National Cables, a
private television company that broadcasts weekly. Last week’s programme included a feature on Raja
Farman an MPA of Lunda Mastan, a rural constituency in the west of Punjab. The feature
consisted of a short ‘news-item’ read by a presenter as follows:
“And now startling news of Raja Farman MPA! Lunda Mastan police have confirmed that they have
interviewed Raja Farman in connection with allegations of un-lawful stocking of wheat on his farm. Raja
Farman was last night unavailable for comment”
Global Cables have now received a letter from Raja Farman’s lawyer stating that he intends to bring an
action for defamation. The letter points out that while the police had indeed interviewed Raja Farman in
connection with an un-lawful stocking of wheat on his farm, the subject of the investigation had been
one of Raja Farman’s employees, not the MPA himself, and no charges had been brought. Advise those
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responsible for the broadcast. (16)
Q.9. Discuss and differentiate between torts actionable per se and torts which are not actionable per se
by giving examples? (16)
Q.10. Dildar is trying to sell mobile phones and offers a free gift for those who attend his presentations.
Shamshad and Noshad decide to go to attend the presentation. The invitation to the show states that
‘all guests are respectfully required to remain in the seminar room for the entire presentation’. Half way
through the show Shamshad tries to leave the room but is told that he cannot leave until the end.
Noshad is happy with the show but is offended when he later learns that he could not have left if he
had wanted to.
Meanwhile Dildar jokingly slaps Shamshad on the shoulder telling him that he really will enjoy himself if
he stays. Shamshad calls Dildar a corrupt cheat and laughs towards him. Dildar retaliates by hitting
Shamshad and then locking him in a storeroom until the end of the show.
On being released Shamshad grabs his free gift (which has his name on it) but Dildar grabs it back saying
that Shamshad cannot have it until he apologizes.
Discuss the liabilities of Dildar and Shamshad.
********************
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COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION FOR RECRUITMENT TO POSTS
IN BPS – 17 UNDER THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT, 2009.
LAW, PAPER - II
PART – I (MCQ)
(i) Non-Cognizable Offence is:
(a) an offence in which a police officer can arrest without warrant

(b) an offence in which a police officer cannot arrest without warrant
(c) an offence in which a police officer cannot arrest an accused person
(d) None of these
(ii) A Justice of Peace appointed under the Code of Criminal Procedure (V of 1898) for the purpose of
making an arrest has the power of:
(a) a Magistrate
(b) a Judicial Magistrate
(c) a Police Officer
(d) None of these
(iii) A Magistrate First Class can tray:
(a) all offences punishable with death

(b) all offences not punishable with death
(c) all offences punishable with imprisonment of 6 montths
(d) None of these
(iv) A police officer is bound to bring a person arrested by him before the court:
(a) within 24 hours

(b) within 36 hours
(c) as soon as possible
(d) None of these
(v) A person convicted on a trial held by an Additional Sessions Judge may appeal to:
(a) the Sessions Judge
(b) the High Court
(c) the Supreme Court
(d) None of these
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(vi) After a charge has been framed against an accused person, he may be:
(a) discharged
(b) acquitted
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) None of these
(vii) A Cognizable Offence is:
(a) an offence in which a police officer can arrest without warrant

(b) an offence in which a police officer cannot arrest without warrant
(c) an offence in which a police officer cannot arrest an accused person
(d) None of these
(viii) A was driving at a normal speed on a highway. Suddenly a child ran before his car to cross the
road. A could not stopped and, consequently, the boy was killed. He should be prosecuted for:
(a) Murder
(b) Negligence
(c) Culpable Homicide
(d) None of these
(ix) A saw an armed person entering his house in the mid-night who abruptly opened fire on A. A also
opened fire on him and killed him. He has committed:
(a) Murder
(b) Culpable Homicide
(c) Negligence
(d) None of these
(x) An anonymous person informed A, a very wealthy smuggler of wheat, on telephone that his minor
son was in his custody and if A does not donate Rs.500,000/- to the local “sateemkhana” he would
break his son’s legs. The caller committed which of the following offence:
(a) no offence
(b) Kidnap
(c) Extortion
(d) None of these
(xi) When five or more persons, by fighting in a football ground, disturb the public peace, they are said
to commit the following offence:
(a) Affray
(b) Rioting
(c) Unlawful Assembly
(d) None of these
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(xii) When five or more persons armed with deadly weapons, enter some ones house, they are said to
commit the following offence:
(a) Affray
(b) Rioting
(c) Criminal Trespass
(d) None of these
(xiii) A private person may arrest another person, who in his view has committed a:
(a) non-bailable offence

(b) cognizable offence
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these
(xiv) A warrant of arrest must be issued by:
(a) an A.S.P. of Police

(b) the Home Secretary
(c) the presiding judge of the court issuing the warrant
(d) None of these
(xv) A lunatic who is not prevented by his lunacy from understanding the questions put to him is:
(a) a competent witness

(b) is not a competent witness
(c) is not a competent witness if has not attained the age of majority
(d) None of these
(xvi) A person who has been convicted for perjury is:
(a) is not a competent if has not attained the age of majority

(b) a competent witness
(c) a competent witness provided the court is satisfied that he had repented and mended his ways
(d) None of these
(xvii) In which of the following an accomplice is not a competent witness:
(a) offences punishable with death

(b) offences punishable with hadd
(c) offences punishable with confiscation of property
(d) None of these
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(xviii) In criminal cases previous good character is:
(a) irrelevant
(b) relevant
(c) relevant if proved with oath
(d) None of these
(xix) In criminal cases previous bad character is:
(a) irrelevant
(b) relevant
(c) relevant only when accused provides evidence of his good character
(d) None of these
(xx) The contents of a document may be proved?
(a) only by primary evidence

(b) by primary as well as secondary evidence
(c) only by secondary evidence
(d) None of these
PART – II
SECTION – I (Qanun-e-Shahadat Order)
Q.2. Imam Bakhsh against whom a trial for theft was going on once went to the mosque of the local
Police line for reading zuhar prayer. The imam of the mosque, Rahmat Ullah Shah, was a very kind and
pious person. Imam Bakhsh while talking to the imam sahib confessed that he had committed the theft.
Is the confession relevant? Why or why not? Discuss in details: (16)
Q.3. Discuss and differentiate between Admission and unilateral confession by giving examples. (16)
Q.4. Briefly state the cases in which secondary evidence relating to documents may be given. (16)
SECTION – II (Code of Criminal Procedure)
Q.5. A, an accused of murder, was convicted to death sentence by a Session Judge. When the judgment
of the Session Judge was submitted to the High Court for confirmation the High Court annulled the
judgment of the Session Judge and sentenced the accused to 14 years rigorous imprisonment. Is the
High Court empowered to do so? Why or why not? Discuss in details by referring to the relevant
provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure. (16)
Q.6. Discuss and differentiate between F.I.R. and Complaint by giving examples. (16)
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Q.7. Suppose you are a Session Judge, who has sentenced an accused person to the death sentence. The
death sentenced has been got confirmed by the High Court and the warrant of the execution of the
sentence has properly been issued. One day before the execution of the sentence the family of the
accused as well as of the deceased person file an application in your court informing that they have
entered a compromise and they request that the death sentence should be annulled. Are you, as a
Session Judge empowered to annul the sentence? Why or why not? Discuss in detail byreferring to the
relevant provisions of Code of Criminal Procedure. (16)
SECTION – III (Pakistan Penal Code)
Q.8. Salamat Khan, who was invited by his close friend, Sharafat Khan to a dinner had about three
glasses of lasi. Just to play a joke with Salamat Khan his friend Sharafat Khan had secretly mixed in the
lasi some locally made wine. In result of drinking that lasi Salamat Khan was fully under the effect of that
intoxicant. While he was walking back to his locality late in night he severely needed some cigarettes but
unfortunately the shops were closed. In the way he found a super store and he expected to find some
cigarettes there. Since it was late in night and there was no body around, therefore, he smashed the
window and picked a box of Gold Leaf. But unfortunately while he was getting out of the store a police
patrol party arrested him. Salamat Khan has committed: (16)
(a) Trespass only.

(b) Theft plus Trespass
(c) Decoity only
(d) No offence
Which of the above statement is correct support your choice with arguments and state the relevant
principal of law.
Q.9. Discuss and differentiate between Wrongful Restraint and Wrongful Confinement and by giving
examples. (16)
Q.10.A, who was in a severe need of money, waited in an alley until another person, B walked by on the
street. Then, stepping out of the alley, he stuck his hand in his pocket with his finger thrust forward and
said, “I’ve got a gun in this pocket.” Snatching B’s purse with his other hand, he ran away because B
thought that he had a gun, he did not attempt to stop him. Select the offence of which A is most likely to
be properly convicted. (16)
(a) Cheating
(b) Decoity
(c) Robbery
(d) Extortion
Which of the above statement is correct support your choice with arguments and state the relevant
principal of law.
********************
21

UNDER THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT, 2008
LAW PAPER –1
PART –I (MCQ)
i. The concept of Res-judicata is available in:
(a) section 9
(b) section 11
(c) section12
(d) none of these
ii. In cases wherein the subject-matter is more than 30 lacs appeal against appellate decree lies
before:
(a) District court

(b) High court
(c) Supreme court
(d) Any of these
iii- review can be filed before:
(a) same court of original jurisdiction

(b) district court
(c) High court
(d) Supreme court
iv- defendant is the person who:
(a) files a suit

(b) delays a suit
(c) defends a suit
(d) none of these
v- Appeal against decree is available on the ground of:
(a) Questions of fact

(b) Questions of law
(c) Mixed questions of law and fact
(d) All of these
22
vi- A suit means:
(a) Any criminal proceeding in a court of law

(b) A cause of action
(c) Any civil proceeding, being part of a plaint
(d) None of these
vii- Revisional jurisdiction is available to:
(a) District court

(b) High court in its original jurisdiction
(c) Supreme court
(d) None of these
viii- Agency contract is created by:
(a) express agreement

(b) implied agreement
(c) ratification
(d) all of these
ix- Pledge is a:
(a) contract of bailment

(b) contract of indemnity
(c) contract of agency
(d) none of these
x- these are the contracts wherein there is ni need of consideration :
(a) agreement to compensate past voluntary services

(b) agreement to time barred debt
(c) none of these
(d) in both (a) & (b)
xi- all the agreements are contracts:
(a) if they are on stamp paper

(b) if they are made by the free consent of the parties
(c) if they are registered
(d) none of these
xii- under the effect of fraud the contract would be:
(a) voidable
(b) void
(c) unenforceable
(d) none of these
23
xiii- Tort(word) is derived from the:
(a) latin language

(b) greek language
(c) French language
(d) English language
xiv- how many constitutes of torts are stated by legal thinkers:
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) None of these
xv- Rylands vs. Fletcher case was about:
(a) negligence
(b) nuisance
(c) strict liability
(d) none of these
xvi- libel and slander are kinds of:
(a) damnum sine injuria

(b) defamation
(c) discharge of torts
(d) none of these
xvii- assault and battery are kinds of:
(a) trespass to person

(b) malicious prosecution
(c) force majeure
(d) none of these
xviii- any thing done to hurt or annoyance of the lands and not amounting to trespass is termed as:
(a) negligence
(b) Nuisance
(c) Malicious prosecution
(d) All of these
xix- incorporeal rights include:
(a) easements
(b) trade marks
(c) patent and copy right
(d) all of these
24
xx- when license and authority is given to hurt , doing the same it becomes:
(a) trespass ab intio

(b) injuria sine damnum
(c) Volenti non fit injuria
(d) None of these
PART-II
(ii) Attempt only FIVE questions from PART II selecting at least ONE question from each section, all
Section-I (civil procedure civil)
Q2. write an exhaustive summary on the particulars that should be contained in a plaint (O.7,R.1 CPC)
(16)
Q3. write a detailed note on concept of jurisdiction with reference to (Section 9): ( 16)
(a) subject matter jurisdiction

(b) pecuniary jurisdiction
(c) territorial jurisdiction
(d) inherent jurisdiction
(e) original jurisdiction
Q4. Explain the difference between first and second appeal against decree. State the distinguishing
features. (16)
Section II (the Contract Act)
Q5.critically evaluate the remedies available to a party who discovers that a Contract has been founded
on a misrepresentation. (16)
Q6.Explain and discuss the essentials of a valid contract? (16)
Q7. Explain any FOUR of the following terms: (16)
(a) novation
(b) severability
(c) force majeure
(d) waiver
(e) confidential information
(f) indemnity
25
Section III (Law of Torts)
Q8. what are the essentials of the Tort of negligence. Highlight the standard of care in the context of
duty of care? (16)
Q9. write short notes on: (16)
(a) defenses in torts

(b) ubi jus Ibi remedium
(c) injuria sine damnum (damno)
Q10. what do you understand by trespass to person? In line with the case law, discuss false
imprisonment.
26

UNDER THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT, 2008
LAW PAPER-1
PART –I (MCQ)
(i) judicial confession can be recorded by the following procedure available in:
(a)section 164 cr.pc

(b)section 364 cr.pc
(c ) both sections
(d) none of these
(ii) the procedure of identification parade is available in:
(a)Art. 22 of Q.S.O.
(b)Art. 24 of Q.S.O.
(c) Art. 27 of Q.S.O.
(d) Any of these
(iii) fact of judicial notice requires its proof by:
(a) oral evidence

(b) documentary evidence
(c) by both (a) & (b)
(d) Need not to prove
(iv) expert is a person who is specially skilled in the subject of:
(a) foreign law

(b) Art
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these
(v) hearsay evidence is generally:
(a) admissible evidence

(b) inadmissible evidence
(c) oral evidence
(d) none of these
27
(vi) Accomplice is a type of witness:
(a) who is partner in crime

(b) who don’t associate in crime
(c) who may be a planted person in a criminal gang
(d) none of these
(vii) section __________ deals with arrest without warrant:
(a) 46
(b) 48
(c) 54
(d) 59
(viii) Arrest without warrant can be made by a Police officer:
(a) of any rank

(b) officer in charge of a police station
(c) not below the rank of officer
(d) any of these
(ix) unlawful assembly is an assembly consisting at least _________ persons:
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) None of these
(x) after recording confession, the accused is:
(a) sent back to the police custody

(b) kept in judicial lock up
(c) set free
(d) none of these
(xi) confirmation of death sentence by the High court must be signed by:
(a) one judge

(b) two judge
(c) three judges
(d) any of these
(xii) bailable offences are offences punishable with:
(a) imprisonment for life

(b) imprisonment less than 10 years
(c) Death
(d) All of these
28
(xiii) FIR of a cognizable offences can be lodged by :
(a) the aggrieved person

(b) the relative of the aggrieved
(c) Any person having knowledge of the offence
(d) All of these
(xiv) statement recorded under section 342 shall be administered on Oath :
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Discretion of court to ask for Oath or not
(xv) The form of FIR contains:
(a) 4 columns
(b) 5 columns
(c) 6 columns
(d) 7 columns
(xvi) Pakistan Penal Code was passed in:
(a) 7th April 1860

(b) 6th October 1860
(c) 7th October 1860
(d) None of these
(xvii) right of private defence of body includes the defence of:
(a) his own body

(b) Any other person
(c) His own body and of his close relative
(d) His body and the body of any other person
(xviii) kidnapping includes:
(a) kidnapping from Pakistan

(b) kidnapping from lawful guardianship
(c) kidnapping from Pakistan and from lawful guardianship
(d) None of these
(xix) the word “injury” includes or denotes any harm whether illegally caused to person:
(a) in body
(b) reputation or property
(c) mind
(d) All of these
29
(xx) whoever commits theft shall be punished with imprisonment of the description for a term which
may extend to:
(a) 3 years
(b) 19 years
(c) 14 years
(d) 17 years
Section – 1 ( Qanuen-e-Shahadat Order)
Q2. Which communications are considered privileged communications? Discuss it with reference to the
privileges. (16)
Q3. What are the circumstances under which secondary evidence relating to a document can be given?
(16)
Q4. Write a note on: (16)

(a) Dying declaration
(b) Burden of proof
(c) Fact in issue
Section - II ( Criminal Procedure Code )
Q5. what is FIR? Discuss its importance in Criminal cases? (16)
Q6. what is meant by illegalities and irregularities? (16)
Q7. write a note on: (16)
(a) framing of charges

(b) bail
(c) tender of pardon
Section –III ( Pakistan Panel Code )
Q8. What is right of private defence? What are the limitations imposed on the use of force under this
right? Explain. (16)
Q9. Define defamation. What are the different exceptions to the charge of defamation? Discuss. (16)
Q10. Define and explain common intention and object. Is there any difference between the two? Explain
(16)
30

LAW, PAPER - I
NOTE: (i) Attempt FIVE questions in all including question No. 10 which is compulsory and carries 20
marks. All other questions carry 16 marks each. Attempt at least ONE question from each part.
PART – A (CIVIL PROCEDURE CODE)
1. State the law relating to the place of the institution of suits.
2. What do you understand by the term “Temporary Injunction”? When and on what grounds it may be
granted?
3. Write notes on:

(a) Precept
(b) Mesne Profits
PART – B (CONTRACT ACT)
4. Define proposal. State when and how is it revolved?
5. What is a contract of bailment? State the rights and duties of the bailer and the bailee.
6. Write notes:
(a) Undue Influence
(b) Consideration
(c) Ratification
PART – C (LAW OF TORTS)
7. Define Tort and explain its ingredients.
8. Discuss the general defences which may be pleaded in an action for tort.
9. Write notes on:

(a) Defamation
(b) Malice
(c) Contributory Negligence
31
COMPULSORY QUESTION
10. Write only the correct answer in the Answer Book. Do not reproduce the questions.
(1) Pleading includes:
(a) The plaint

(b) The written statement
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(2) The doctrine of res judicata is the result of:
(a) The act of the plaintiff

(b) The act of the defendant
(c) The decision of the court
(3) Where the court is without jurisdiction, the plaint presented to it shall be:
(a) Forwarded to the court having jurisdiction

(b) Returned for presentation to the proper court
(c) Rejected
(4) An issue of fact is a fact:
(a) Asserted by both the parties

(b) Asserted by one party and denied by the other
(c) Specifically declared so under law
(5) An application for review may be made where:
(a) No appeal lies against the decision

(b) Appeal preferred against the decision has been rejected
(c) An appeal is allowed but no appeal has been preferred against the decision
(6) Where a plaintiff withdraws his suit without permission of the court, he is entitled to:
(a) Restore the same suit

(b) Institute a fresh suit on the same subject matter
(c) None of these
(7) An ex-parte decree is a judgment based on:
(a) Merit of the case

(b) Compromise of the parties
(c) The non-appearance of the defendant
32
(8) The communication of an acceptance as against the proposer is complete when:
(a) It comes to the knowledge of the proposer

(b) It is put into the means of transmission and is out of the control of the proposee
(c) The proposer notifies the propose of its receipt
(9) A voidable agreement is:
(a) Enforceable
(b) Unenforceable
(c) Enforceable at the option of one of the parties
(10) A contract made as a result of mistake of law is:
(a) Valid or enforceable

(b) Void
(c) Voidable
(11) The rights and duties of the parties to a contingent contract:
(a) Arise at the time of its formation

(b) Do not rise as the contract is void
(c) Arise upon the happening or unhappening of the future uncertain event collateral to the contract.
(12) An agreement made by a minor is:
(a) Void
(b) Voidable
(c) Enforceable if its performance is beneficial to the minor.
(13) Where a contract of guarantee is performed by the surety upon default of the principal debtor,
the surety:
(a) Has a right to be indemnified by the principal debtor

(b) Does not have any such right to the indemnified
(c) Has right to be indemnified if provided under the contract
(14) Where under a contract of pledge, the pawner fails to perform his contract with in the stipulated
time, he:
(a) Cannot redeem his pledged goods

(b) Can redeem his pledged goods at any subsequent time
(c) Can redeem his pledged goods before actual sale
33
(15) Malfeasance means:
(a) The commission of an unlawful act

(b) The improper performance of a lawful act
(c) The failure to perform a lawful act
(16) Mayhem is:
(a) The unlawful lying of hands on another person

(b) Bodily harm whereby a man is deprived of the use of any member of his body
(c) The actual striking of another person
(17) A master of a servant is:
(a) Not liable for any of his wrongful acts

(b) Is liable for all of his wrongful acts
(c) Liable for his wrongful act committed in the course of his employment
(18) A slander is a false and defamatory statement made:
(a) In writing
(b) Verbally
(c) In writing and verbally
(19) Damn Sine Injuria means:
(a) Infringement of a legal right without any actual loss resulting a legal action.
(b) Actual loss without infringement of any legal right resulting no legal action.
(c) Infringement of a legal right with actual loss resulting legal action
(20) Trespass ab anitio means entrance on the land of another:
(a) With authority of law

(b) Without authority of law
(c) With authority of law but subsequently commission of a wrong of misfeasance.
34

LAW, PAPER – II
NOTE: (i) Attempt FIVE questions in all including question No. 10 which is compulsory and carries 20
marks. All other questions carry 16 marks each. Attempt at least ONE question from each part.
PART – A (QANUN-E-SHAHADAT ORDER)
1. An accomplice is unworthy of credit. Discuss.
2. Explain the laws relating to the extra-judicial confession.
3. Discuss the evidentiary value of identification parade.
PART – B (CRIMINAL PROCEDURE ORDER)
4. What is revisional jurisdiction of a Court? Explain.
5. When may a court order attachment of property of a person who has absconded?
6. Discuss the law of grant of bail in non-bailable offences.
PART – C (PAKSTAN PENAL CODE)
7. Briefly discuss crimes in which diyat can be awarded.
8. Define and differentiate between ‘theft’, ‘extortion’, ‘robbery’ and ‘decoity’.
9. Define ‘jurh’ and briefly discuss kinds of ‘jurh’.
COMPULSORY QUESTION
(1) Public nuisance is a tort:
(a) Only when it prejudicially affects the public

(b) Only when it damages property belonging to the public
(c) Only when it causes direct and substantial injury to an individual
(d) None of these
35
(2) Confession made under the promise of secrecy is:
(a) Admissible
(b) Inadmissible
(c) Objectionable
(d) None of these
(3) An irrebuttable presumption:
(a) Is inconclusive proof of a fact

(b) Is conclusive proof of a fact
(c) Can be contradicted
(d) None of these
(4) Evidence may be given of:
(a) Inadmissible facts

(b) Irrelevant facts
(c) Facts in issue
(d) None of these
(5) Doctrine of estoppel:
(a) Applies to a minor

(b) Does not apply to a minor
(c) Applies to a minor for acts and omissions of others
(d) None of these
(6) Admission on point of law:
(a) Has force

(b) Has no force
(c) May help in proof
(d) None of these
(7) Dying declaration made under expectation of death is:
(a) Irrelevant
(b) Inadmissible
(c) Admissible
(d) None of these
(8) For a crime of strict liability:
(a) ‘mens reas’ is esential

(b) ‘actus reas’ is esential
(c) Both ‘mens rea’ and ‘actus reas’ are esential
(d) None of these
36
(9) Section 411 PPC relates to:
(a) Extortion
(b) Dacoity
(c) Dishonestly receiving stolen property
(d) None of these
(10) A master is liable for the torts of his servant:
(a) When the servant commits an ultra vires act

(b) When the servant commits an intra vires act
(c) When the servant commits a wrong within the course of employment
(d) None of these
(11) Punishment for imputation of unchastity of woman is:
(a) 2 years
(b) 5 years
(c) 10 years
(d) None of these
(12) A magistrate can order a person who files a false, frivolous and vexatious criminal case against
somebody.
(a) To pay compensation to that somebody.

(b) To force him to deposit fine
(c) To ask him to apologize
(d) None of these
(13) Shujjah is divided into:
(a) 7 categories
(b) 8 categories
(c) 10 categories
(d) None of these
(14) Punishment for attempt to commit suicide is:
(a) 4 years
(b) 6 years
(c) 8 years
(d) None of these
(15) In pre-arrest bail
(a) Complaint is not essential

(b) FIR is essential
(c) FIR is not essential
37
(d) None of these
(16) A private complaint can be lodged:
(a) Before a Judge of High Court

(b) Before a Session judge
(c) Before a magistrate
(d) None of these
(17) Criminal Procedure is a Code of:
(a) Substantive law

(b) Adjective law
(c) Substantive as well as adjective law
(d) None of these
(18) Qanune Shahadat Order divides ‘fact’ into:
(a) 2 categories
(b) 3 categories
(c) 4 categories
(d) None of these
(19) Order for removal of obstruction and nuisance in urgent cases can be given by:
(a) A police officer

(b) A nazim
(c) A magistrate
(d) None of these
(20) Compensation:
(a) Is awarded in all crimes

(b) Is not awarded at all in some crimes
(c) Is awarded in some crimes
(d) None of these
38

LAW, PAPER - I
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
NOTE: Attempt ONLY SIX questions in all, including question No. 10 which is COMPULSORY and carries
20 marks. All other questions carry EQUAL marks i.e. 16 each. Attempt at least one question from each
of the parts.
PART – “A” (CIVIL PROCEDURE CODE)
1. What is ‘Constructive res judicata’? Elaborate.

2. What is ‘review’? Which court has the jurisdiction to entertain an application for review?
3. What do you understand by:
(a) Administrative Transfer
(b) Judicial Transfer of suits
PART – “B” (CONTACT ACT)
4. When the object of a contract is unlawful? Explain.

5. Write short notes on:
(a) Agency
(b) Principal debtor
(C) Effect of fraud on validity of contract.
6. Explain the rights of surety in a contract of guarantee?
PART – “C” (LAW OF TORT)
7. What do you understand by the law of negligence? What are the essentials of Negligence?
(a) Trespass ab initio
(b) Public Nuisance
(c) Vicarious Liability
9. In the context of Trespass to person discuss Battery and False imprisonment.

39
COMPULSORY QUESTION
(1) A statue is to be interpreted in accordance with:
(a) The rules of the business

(b) The intention of the legislature
(c) The body of statue
(d) None of these
(2) Where are the language of the enactment is not precise:
(a) Recourse can be had to external considerations

(b)Precise meanings will be probed.
(c) None of these
(3) Defendant is the person who:
(a) Files a suit

(b) Delays a suit
(c) Defends a suit
(d) None of these
(4) A suit means:
(a) Any criminal proceeding in a court of law

(b) A cause of action
(c) Any civil proceeding, being part of a plant
(d) None of these
(5) In civil suit, Oath is administered to:
(a) Lawyer
(b) Witnesses
(c) Plaintiff
(d) None of these
(6) Preliminary decrees are normally:
(a) Non determinative of issues

(b)Determinative of controversies of fundamental nature
(c) Neither
40
(7) The maxim “Ubi jus ibi remedium”:
(a) is a fundamental principle of law

(b) is obiter dicta
(c) is an obsolete principle of law
(d) None of these
(8) The general rule is that civil court have jurisdiction to try all civil suits:
(a) True
(b) False
(9) The court cannot treat a revision as an appeal or an appeal a revision:
(a) True
(b) False
(10) The term consideration does not necessarily mean payment of money/cash consideration only:
(a) True
(b) False
(11) In order to convert a proposal into a promise:
(a) The acceptance must be conditional

(b) The acceptance is not relevant
(c) The acceptance must be absolute
(12) The contract Act is:
(a) Act of 1908

(b) Act of 1912
(c) Act of 1872
(d) Act of 1868
(13) Duty is cast by the law upon a person whom an offer is made to reply to that offer:
(a) True
(b) False
(14) All agreements are contracts:
(a) If they are on stamp paper

(b) If they are made by the free consent of parties
(c) If they are registered
(d) None of these
41
(15) Law of Tort(s) is a:
(a) Part of law of Contract

(b) Dependant of Contract
(c) Civil wrong, independent of contract
(16) Libel is a defamatory statement published:
(a) In verbal form

(b) In permanent form
(c) None of these
(17) Legal duty of care, breach of duty and consequential damage/loss?
(a) are essential elements of negligence

(b) are useful elements in tort of negligence
(c) are not related to negligence
(18) Total restraint constitute false imprisonment:
(a) True
(b) False
(19) Injuria sine damno means:
(a) loss without violation of right

(b) Infringement of legal right with loss
(c) Infringement of legal right without loss
(20) Public Nuisance is exclusively a Tort:
(a) True
(b) False
42

LAW, PAPER - II
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
NOTE: Attempt SIX questions in all, including question No. 10 which is COMPULSORY and carries 20
marks. All other questions carry EQUAL marks i.e. 16 each. Attempt at least one question from each of
the PARTS A, B, and C.
PART – “A” (QANOON-E-SHAHADAT ORDER)
1. Discuss the safeguards given in Qanun-e-Shahadat ordinance 1984 for the confession of the accused
to become admissible in evidence.
2. What is “Burden of proof”, on whom it lies? Could this burden be shifted?
(a) Shahada ala al Shahada

(b) (b) Estoppel
PART – “B” (CRIMINAL PROCEDURE CODE)
4. Discuss the power of High Court regarding illegal and improper detention of a person under Criminal
Procedure Code?
5. What preventive measures can be taken by a Magistrate, when a dispute concerning immovable
property is likely to cause breach of peace?
(a) Investigation
(b) Non bailable offences
(c) Complaint
PART – “C” (PAKISTAN PENAL CODE)
7. What are three different kinds of punishments provided under PPC?
8. Define and distinguish between theft and criminal breach of trust.
(a) Form of charges

(b) Criminal conspiracy
(c) Document.
43
COMPULSORY QUESTION
(1) Whenever violence is used by an unlawful assembly, every member of such assembly is guilty of
the offence of rioting :
(a) True
(b) False
(2) Whoever drives any vehicle --- so rash or negligent as to endanger human life:
(a) he/she may be guilty of trespass to land

(b) he/she may be guilty of rash driving
(c) None of these
(3) The Pakistan Penal Code is as old as:
(a) 1890
(b) 1875
(c) 1860
(d) None of these
(4) For the offense of attempt to murder, punishment is:
(a) substantial fine

(b) Imprisonment for a term which may extend to ten years
(c) None of these
(5) In culpable homicide amounting to murder:
(a) Intention/knowledge is an essential ingredient

(b) intention/knowledge has no relevance at all
(c) None of these
(6) The offences of Rape and adultery are:
(a) Identical
(b) different
(c) None of these
(7) Extradition is a:
(a) crime
(b) civil wrong
(c) Law
(d) None of these
44
(8) Defamation mean:
(a) to honor and promote a person

(b) to hurt a person or to cause psychological injuries
(c) to harm the reputation of a person
(d) None of these
(9) The object of Code of Criminal Procedure is:
(a) to strengthen the economic foundations of the country

(b) is to ensure that the accused person gets a full and fail trial
(c) to elaborate the punishment
(d) None of these
(10) In matters of procedure the correct principle is:
(a) a particular procedure should be considered to be permitted if it is not prohibited.

(b) a particular procedure should be considered to be prohibited if it is not permitted.
(c) a particular procedure should be considered to be permitted even it is not prohibited
(11) The provisions of the Criminal Procedure Code do not apply to proceeding in the:
(a) Lower Courts

(b) High Courts
(c) Supreme Court
(d) Apply on all courts
(12) Trial is a judicial proceeding which ends in:
(a) Conviction/acquittal
(b) discharge
(c) both
(d) None of these
(13) Summary Trial is:
(a) Speedy trial

(b) No trial
(c) Neither
(d) None of these
(14) A criminal court is not competent to decide the civil rights of the parties, question like ownership
and title:
(a) True
(b) False
45
(15) Presumption is always that the law will be applicable retrospectively more s when the law is of a
penal nature:
(a) True
(b) False
(16) If a police officer investigates a non-cognizable case without an order from a Magistrate he
commits an illegality:
(a) True
(b) False
(17) An insane/lunatic is incompetent to give evidence:
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) A court may decide
(18) The Qanun-e-Shahadat order in its rigour is not intended to apply to proceedings before an
arbitrator:
(a) True
(b) False
(19) The word “evidence” signifies of being evident i.e., plain, apparent or notorious:
(a) True
(b) False
(20) The Qanun-e-Shahadat order 1984 repealed:
(a) The Evidence Act 1908

(b) The Evidence Act 1948
(c) The Evidence Act 1872
(d) None of these
46

COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION FOR RECRUITMENT TO POSTS
IN BPS – 17 UNDER THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT, 2005.
LAW, PAPER - I
the parts.
1.What is pleadings and what are the important rules relating to pleadings?
(a) Abatement
(b) Receiver
(c) Interpleader suit
3. Define ‘issues’. How are they framed and by whom?
4. Describe “Contract” and briefly explain its essentials.
(a) Tender
(b) Bailment
(C) Principle debtor
6. Discuss the normal remedy in all cases of breach of contract.
7. What is false imprisonment and what defences are available in an action for false imprisonment?
(a) Statutory Negligence

(b) Public Nuisance
(c) Absolute liability
9. In what circumstances may assault and battery be justified?

47
COMPULSORY QUESTION
(1) Cause of action means:
(a) Relief claimed in a suit

(b) Subject matter of a suit
(c) Nature of suit
(d) None of these
(2) For breach of a contract, a suit may be filed:
(a) Where the contract was made

(b)Where the breach was made
(c) Where money was payable
(d) At any of the above places
(3) There is distinction between res judicata and res sub judice:
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Same thing
(4) Plaintiff is the person who:
(a) Files a suit

(b) Defends a suit
(c) Delays a suit
(d) None of these
(5) Interrogators are administered to:
(a) Parties to a suit

(b) Witnesses
(c) Lawyers
(d) None of these
(6) Precept is issued by:
(a) Plaintiffs to defendants

(b) Oath commissioner to deponent
(c) A court to another court
(d) None of these
48
(7) Inherent power vests in:
(a) Court
(b) Parties
(c) Witnesses
(d) All of these
(8) Write jurisdiction is exercised by:
(a) Every Court in Pakistan

(b)The High Courts
(c) None of these
(9) Interlocutory order determines substantive rights in a suit:
(a) Correct
(b)Incorrect
(10) All agreements are contract:
(a) True
(b) False
(11) A constructive contract is created by the:
(a) Parties
(b) Legal heirs of the parties
(c) Witnesses to the contract
(d) None of these
(12) An agreement to do an impossible act is a:
(a) Void contract

(b) Voidable contract
(c) Void agreement
(d) All of these
(13) A contracts to pay B, Rs. 100,000/- if his house is burnt. It is a:
(a) Contingent contract

(b) Contract of guarantee
(c) Contract of indemnity
(d) None of these
49
(14) A person who employs another person to represent him in dealings with third persons is called:
(a) Master
(b) Creditor
(c) Principal
(d) None of these
(15) The Contract Act is of the year?
(a) 1972
(b) 1975
(c) 1895
(d) None of these
(16) Law of torts is based on:
(a) Stature law

(b) Common law
(c) Law of contract
(d) All of these
(17) Malice is a necessary ingredient in Tort:
(a) True
(b)False
(c) Neither ‘a’ and ‘b’
(18) Misfeasance means:
(a) Commission of an unlawful act

(b) Doing of a lawful act in an illegal manner
(c) Failure to perform a legal obligation
(d) None of these
(19) Libel is a defamatory statement made:
(a) Verbally
(b) In writing
(c) Both
(20) Mere touching of another in anger is:
(a) Assault
(b) Battery
(c) Both
50

LAW, PAPER - II
the parts.
PART – “A” (PAKISTAN PENAL CODE)
1.Briefly discuss the various punishments to which offenders are liable under P.P.C.
(a) Injury
(b) Robbery
(c) Shajjah
3. Write a summary of “General Exceptions” contained in P.P.C.
4. Under what circumstances, a police officer may arrest without a warrant in a non-cognizable case?
(a) Summons
(b) First information report
(c) Retracted confession
6. What is an appeal and what are powers of an Appellate Court in appeal from acquittal?
PART – “C” (QANOON-E-SHAHADAT)
7. What is “Burden of Proof” and on whom is it?
8. “The rules of evidence are generally the same in civil and criminal proceedings.” Comment and state if
there are any exceptions to this rule.
(a) Competent witness

(b) Hearsay evidence
(c) Estoppel
51
COMPULSORY QUESTION
(1) An affray is committed in a:
(a) Private place

(b) Public place
(c) Both
(d) None of these
(2) Sedition means exciting bad feelings against:
(a) Armed forces

(b)Government
(c) Political leaders
(d)All of these
(e) None of these
(3) In robbery there is:
(a) Theft
(b) Extortion
(c) Either of the above
(d) None of these
(4) The Pakistan Panel Code is as old as:
(a) 1890
(b) 1865
(c) 1860
(d) None of these
(5) Extradition is a:
(a) Punishment
(b) Offence
(c) Law
(d) None of these
(6) Standards of medical and legal sanity are:
(a) Identical
(b)Different
(c) None of these
52
(7) A person is liable for his own wrongful acts:
(a) Absolutely correct

(b) Generally correct
(c) Absurd
(d) None of these
(8) Homicide is the killing of:
(a) A human being

(b) A living creature
(c) Both
(d) None of these
(9) In the Code of Criminal Procedure, offences are divided into:
(a) Two categories

(b)Five categories
(c) Seven categories
(d) None of these
(10) Appeal is:
(a) A natural right

(b) A right given by law
(c) A right given by the trial Court
(d) None of these
(11) Appellate and revisional jurisdictions are:
(a) Same
(b) Inter-linked
(c) Separate
(d) None of these
(12) Trial is a judicial proceeding which ends in:
(a) Conviction/acquittal
(b) Discharge
(c) Both
(d) None of these
(13) The term offence has been defined in the Code of Criminal Procedure:
(a) Yes
(b)No
(c) None of these
53
(14) A complaint is made to a:
(a) Magistrate
(b) Police officer
(c) District Nazim
(d) None of these
(15) Summary trial is:
(a) No trial
(b) Speedy trial
(c) Both
(16) The Qanun-e-Shahadat Order, 1984 repealed:
(a) The Evidence Act, 1872

(b)The Ordinance of 1978
(c) None of these
(17) Who decides whether a person is competent to testify?
(a) Prosecutor
(b) Defence lawyer
(c) District attorney
(d) None of these
(18) A fact is said not to be proved when it is:
(a) No proved
(b) Disproved
(c) Both
(d) None of these
(19) A lunatic is incompetent to give evidence:
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) A court may decide
(20) The examination of a witness after his cross-examination is called:
(a) Examination-in-chief
(b) Leading examination
(c) Concluding examination
(d) None of these
54

LAW, PAPER – I
the parts.
1. “The Doctrine of Resjudicate is of Universal application and a fundamental concept in the organization
of every jural society.” Comment. Also quote the relevant provisions.
2. “The worries of the Decree Holder start after he obtains the decree.” Elucidate.
3. Write notes on:
(a) Principles of Natural justice

(b) Review as enshrined in the provision of C.P.C.
4. “Fraud vitiates most solemn proceedings.” Elucidate.
5. When time is of the essence of the Contract? Give examples.
(a) Doctrine of frustration

(b) Contingent Contract
7. Quote four pleas which may be taken as defence against an action for Torts.
8. Write notes on:
(a) Quasi judicial acts

(b) Joint tort feasors
55
COMPULSORY QUESTION
(1) Can a party file a fresh suit on the subject matter in respect of which earlier suit was withdrawn:
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Yes if the earlier suit was withdrawn with permission of the court.
(2) The provisions of law ousting jurisdiction of a court should be construed:
(a) Liberally
(b) Strictly
(c) According to facts of a case
(d) None of these
(3) Are the right to take out procession or the right of franchise of civil nature permissible/ accepted:
(a) Yes
(b) NO
(c) Yes, the right of franchise but not the right to take out procession
(d) Yes, not the right to take out procession but not the right of franchise
(4) A reside at Murree, B at Lahore and C at Karachi. They all get together at Bahawalpur. B and C
make a joint promissory note payable on demand and deliver it to A with leave of the court. A many
sue B and C at:
(a) Murree only

(b) Lahore only
(c) Karachi only
(d) Murree, Lahore and Karachi
(e) Bahawalpur or Lahore or Karachi
(5) The code of civil procedure is:
(a) Act V of 1908

(b) Act IV of 1908
(c) Act V of 1912
(d) Act I of 1930
(6) Are the following properties liable to attachment and sale in execution of a decree.
(a) Fully salary

(b) Cooking vessels
(c) Yes
(d) No
56
(7) An injunction in respect of collection of Public revenues ceases to have effect on the expiry of:
(a) Three months

(b) Six months
(c) One year
(8) The court may at any time before passing a decree amend the issue or frame additional issues:
(a) Correct
(b) Incorrect
(9) A premises to obtain for B an employment in the public service and B promises to pay ten
thousand rupees to A. is the agreement void?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(10) A delivers a rough diamond to B, a jeweler, to be cut and polished which is accordingly done. Is B
entitled to retain the Diamond?
(a) Yes till he is paid for the services he has rendered

(b) No he has to return the diamond and claim only remuneration.
(11) A promises to deliver goods at B’s Warehouse on the first July. On that day A brings the goods to
B’s warehouse but after the usual hour for closing it, and they are not received. Has A performed the
promise?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(12) Which of the statement is correct?
(a) A contract may be express only

(b) It may be express or implied or of mixed character
(13) Can a Minor enter into a lawful contract to which the other contracting party does not object?
(a) Yes
(b) No being void ab initio
(14) When consent to an agreement is caused by coercion, the agreement is a contract”
(a) Void ab-initio

(b) Voidable at the option of the other party
57
(15) The remedies available to a person for nuisance are:
(a) Abatement, damages and injunction

(b) Only damages
(c) Only injunctions
(16) During a cricket match in an open ground a batsman hits a ball which injured the plaintiff
standing on the Highway road. The plaintiff brought an action for damages. Is the cricket ball liable?
(a) Yes
(b) No, being a case of contributory negligence
(c) None of these
(17) Damnum Sine Inuria means:
(a) Damage without infringement of any legal right

(b) Damage and infringement of any legal right
(18) IS the employer liable for the negligent act of a contractor?
(a) Yes where there is an implied warranty by the employer

(b) No
(19) One of the distinguishing features between libel and Slander is that:
(a) Libel is written defamation while Slander is spoken defamation.

(b) Libel is spoken defamation and Slander is written defamation.
(20) Is it correct that a civil injury for which an action will not lie is not a tort?
(a) Yes
(b) No, infliction of all civil injury is tort.
58

LAW, PAPER - II
the parts.
PART – “A” (QANOON-E-SHAHADAT ORDER 1984)
1. Who are competent to testify and how the court shall determine the competence of a witness?
2. How can credit of a written be impeached? Quote instances,
3. Write notes on:
(a) Shahada ala al Shahada

(b) Burden of proof
4. What measures you suggest for speedy trial of a criminal case without compromising the principles of
Natural justice?
5. What irregularities vitiate proceedings? Quote some instances.
6. Write notes on:
(a) Importance of precedents of superior Courts

(b) Warrant trial
7. Define ‘document’. Give illustrations.
8. A picks up a cheque on a banker signed by B, payable to bearer but without a sum having been
inserted in the cheque. A fraudulently fill up the cheque by inserting the sum of ten thousand rupees
and attempts to withdraw it. What offence is it? Also give another illustration of this offence.
9. Write notes on:
(a) Offences by foreigner

(b) Form of charges
59
COMPULSORY QUESTION
(1) Civil court can review its order under Section 114 C.P.C Has a Criminal Court the similar power:
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Yes, in some areas
(2) To prove terms of a contract contained in six letters should:
(a) All the letters be produced

(b) More important among them be produced
(3) Can a court allow to be produced any evidence made available through recorded cassette talk
between accused and another person?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Yes, If the court considers appropriate
(4) Can Caricature and an inscription on a metal plate be categorized as a document?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(5) An accomplice is a competent witness against an accused:
(a) Yes but not in a Hadd Case

(b) No
(6) Can witness to character may be cross examined and reexamined?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Yes, may be cross examined but not reexamined.
(d) None of these
(7) Bailable offense means an offence shown as bailable.
(a) In the Second Schedule

(b) In the first schedule
(c) In the second schedule or any other law for the time being in force.
60
(8) Can a person be tried again for an offence for which he was acquitted by a court not competent to
try the case?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(9) Can a criminal court order disposal of property of a pending case if it consists of fruit and
vegetable?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(10) Is the offence of cheating (Sec 417):
(a) Non Bailable and Non Compoundable

(b) Non Bailable and Compoundable
(c) Bailable and Compoundable with permission of court
(11) Is the provincial legislature competent to amend, modify or repeal the code of criminal
procedure?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(12) Is a previously convicted woman accused entitled to Bail under Section 497 Cr.P.C:
(a) Yes
(b) No
(13) A is wounded within jurisdiction of court X, and dies within jurisdiction of court Z. The offence
may be tried by:
(a) Court X alone

(b) Court Z alone
(c) Court X or Z
(14) A and B mutually agree to fence with each other for amusement. A while playing fairly causes
grievour hurt to B. Has A committed offence?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(15) A enters into the house of B at midnight and is challenged by B and during ensuing scuffle causes
death of B. Which of the following offences have been committed by A?
(a) Section 452 and 302

(b) Section 460 and 302
(c) Section 448 and 302
61
(16) A, being executor to the will of the decreased person disobeys the law which directs him to divide
the effects according to the will and appropriates them to his own use. Which of the following
offences has A commited?
(a) Cheating
(b) Criminal breach of trust
(c) Forgery
(17) Can a judge of High court and an Arbitrator appointed by a court categorized as “Public Servant”.
(a) Yes
(b) No
(18) A, a surgeon, knowing that a particular operation is likely to cause death to Z but in good faith
and in Z’s benefit performs that operation on Z with his consent. Has he committed any offence?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(19) A, a public servant, induces Z, erroneously to believe that A’s influence with the government has
obtained a title for Z and thus induces Z to give A money as a reward for this service. A has committed
the offence of:
(a) Cheating
(b) Taking gratification other than legal remuneration
(20) Apprehending injury to him, A confined B in a house but escape is open through a door. Is A guilty
of the offence of:
(a) Wrongful confinement

(b) Wrongful restraint
(c) None of these
62

LAW, PAPER - I
the parts.
1.Write a detailed note on the following of restitution.
2. Explain the meaning and scope of “Inherent Powers” of the Court.
3. Write short notes on the following:
(a) Judgment debtor

(b) Ex parte decree
PART – “B” (CONRTACT ACT)
4. “Law does not countenance an agreement whereby it is sought to oust the jurisdiction of law courts.”
Discuss and state whether there are any exceptions to this rule.
(a) Consideration
(b) Contract of Guarantee
6. “No action lies for a wrong, which is authorized by the Legislature.” Comment.
7. Explain the maxim. “Actio Personalis Maritur cum Persona”.
(a) Abuse of legal process

(b) Vicarious liability
63
COMPULSORY QUESTION
(1) The Civil Procedure Code was enacted in:
(a) 1908
(b) 1809
(c) 1947
(d) None of these
(2) When a decision of a civil court is decree:
(a) No appeal lies therefrom

(b) An appeal invariably lies therefrom
(c) None of these
(3) Cause of action means:
(a) Subject matter of a suit

(b) Relief claimed in a suit
(c) Parties to a suit
(d) None of these
(4) Written statement is a statement of:
(a) Plaintiff
(b) Defendant
(c) Witness
(d) None of these
(5) A sum of money payable under a decree may be paid:
(a) Into the court which passed the decree

(b) To the decree holder out of the court
(c) Both of these
(d) None of these
(6) A commission is appointed under the civil procedure code by:
(a) The parties

(b) The provincial Government
(c) The court
(d) None of these
64
(7) A receiver is representative of:
(a) The court

(b) Plaintiff
(c) Defendant plaintiff
(d) None of these
(8) Issues in a civil suit are framed by:
(a) The parties

(b) Advocates of the parties
(c) Witness
(d) None of these
(9) In a contract of guarantee there are:
(a) Two parties

(b) Three parties
(c) Four parties
(d) None of these
(10) Remedy of injunction is:
(a) Negative
(b) Positive
(c) Mitigation of damages
(d) None of these
(11) Performance of a contract
(a) Cannot be avoided

(b) May be avoided in certain circumstances
(12) A proposal when accepted becomes:
(a) An agreement
(b) A contract
(c) None of these
(13) An agreement to do an impossible act is:
(a) Voidable
(b)Valid
(c) None of these
65
(14) The word tort is derived from:
(a) Latin
(b) Roman
(c) English
(d) None of these
(15) Malice is necessary ingredient in tort:
(a) True
(b) False
(16) Wrongfully setting the law in motion is:
(a) Defamation
(b) Fraud
(c) Nuisance
(d) None of these
(17) Where a person having right to enforce a claim abstains from enforcing it for a long time, it is
called:
(a) Release
(b) Acquiescence
(c) Negligence
(d) None of these
(18) Trespass to person without lawful justification involves:
(a) Assault
(b) Battery
(c) False imprisonment
(d) All of these
(e) None of these
66

LAW, PAPER – II
the parts.
1. Explain the different stages in which evidence of a witness is recorded in a case.
2. “All relevant facts are not admissible, but all admissible facts are relevant.” Discuss.
(a) Refreshing memory

(b) Privileged communication
4. Describe confession and state the procedure laid down in the Code for recording it.
5. Explain the appellate jurisdiction and revisional jurisdiction of a High Court indicating points of
difference between them.
(a) Approver
(b) Compoundable offences
7. Explain the principle of “mens rea”. How far this principle is recognized in P.P.C.?
(a) Harbouring on offender

(b) Criminal intimidation
67
COMPULSORY QUESTION
(1) An arbitrator is also a Court:
(a) Correct
(b) Incorrect
(2) An oral statement made by a person which suggest any inference as to any fact in issue under
certain circumstances is:
(a) Admission
(b) Confession
(c) None of these
(3) Oral evidence is:
(a) Best evidence

(b) No evidence
(c) Bad evidence
(d) None of these
(4) Generally documents are to be proved by:
(a) Primary evidence

(b) Secondary evidence
(c) None of these
(5) Irrelevant questions may be asked by the:
(a) Prosecution
(b) Defence
(c) Presiding judge
(d) None of these
(6) Ambiguities in documents are:
(a) Latent
(b) Patent
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
(d) None of these
(7) When a fact is neither proved nor disapproved, it is said to be:
(a) Not proved

(b) Proved
(c) None of these
68
(8) A cognizable offence is usually:
(a) No offence
(b) Serious offence
(c) Minor offence
(d) None of these
(9) There is no difference between a complaint and FIR:
(a) Correct
(b)Incorrect
(c) None of these
(10) An investigation is made by:
(a) A police officer

(b) A magistrate
(c) Both
(d) None of these
(11) After a charge has been framed against an accused, he may be:
(a) Discharged
(b) Acquitted
(c) Both of these
(d) None of these
(12) A person who has committed a serious offence may be arrested by:
(a) A private person

(b) Police officer
(c) Magistrate
(d) All of the above
(e) None of these
(13) Retracted confession is a confession made before:
(a) A Police officer

(b) A magistrate
(c) A private person
(d) None of these
(14) Where there is a conviction, there is an appeal.
(a) False
(b) True
(c) None of these
69
(15) A signs his own name to a bill of exchange, intending that it may be believed that the bill was
drawn by another person of the same name. A has committed:
(a) Forgery
(b) Fraud
(c) Mischief
(d) None of these
(16) Whoever does anything with the intention of causing wrongful again to one person or wrongful
loss to another person is said to do that thing:
(a) Fraudulently
(b) Gaining or losing wrongfully
(c) Dishonestly
(d) None of these
(17) Preparation to commit an offence is:
(a) Not punishable

(b) Punishable in certain cases
(c) None of these
(18) Bigamy means:
(a) Adultery
(b) Taking away with criminal intention a married woman
(c) Concealment of a marriage
(d) None of these
(19) Jurh is a hurt, its kinds are:
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) None of these
(20) Prosecution is bound to prove motive for the crime:
(a) Correct
(b) Incorrect
(c) None of these
70

LAW, PAPER - I
the parts.
1. Write brief notes on:
(a) Cause of Action

(b) Issues
(c) Suit of a civil nature
2. What is an APPEAL and what are the points of difference between the First Appeal and the Second
Appeal?
3. What remedies are available to a decree-holder, if the judgment-debtor dies before the decree has
been satisfied?
PART – “B” (CONTRACT ACT)
4. Explain quasi contracts and the reasons for which the law recognizes them.
(a) Contract
(b) Special damages
(c) Continuing guarantee
6. A woman lends some gold ornaments to her niece to be used in a marriage. What name is given to
this transaction in the Contract Act and what are the duties of the niece in this case?
7. “Battery includes assault”. Elaborate and point out the distinction, if any, between the two.
8. What is negligence and how the onus of proof in actions of negligence is discharged?
9. Define:
(a) Libel
(b) Slander
(c) Malicious prosecution
71
COMPULSORY QUESTION
10. Write only the correct answer in the Answer Book. Do not reproduce the questions..
(1) Mesne profits are those profits which:
(a) A person in wrongful possession of property actually receives.

(b) A person in wrongful possession of property receives due to improvements made in the property by
him.
(c) An owner of property actually receives
(d) None of these
(2) Exclusion of a member of a caste from ceremonies is violation of his:
(a) Legal right

(b) Social right
(c) None of these
(3) The rule of res sub judice relates to a matter which:
(a) Is pending adjudication

(b) Has already been adjudicated
(c) Has been admitted by the defendant
(d) None of these
(4) The rule of res judicata applies to:
(a) Suits
(b) Execution proceedings
(c) Appeals
(d) All of these
(5) A decree may not agree with judgment:
(a) Correct
(b) Incorrect
(c) None of these
(6) Issues are:
(a) Points of agreement in a suit

(b) Points of interrogatories in a suit
(c) Points of discovery in a suit
(d) None of these
72
(7) A garnishee is a:
(a) Judgment-debtor
(b) Judgment-debtors’ debtor
(c) Decree holder
(d) None of these
(8) An interpleader suit is between:
(a) Pleaders
(b) Defendants
(c) Judgment-debtors
(d) None of these
(9) An interlocutory order:
(a) Determines the substantive right

(b) Terminates a suit
(c) Protects the subject matter of the suit
(d) None of these
(10) A precept is issued by a court to:
(a) A witness of high status

(b) A party who by reason of illness is unable to appear
(c) Another court
(d) None of these
(11) Proposal and its acceptance create:
(a) Agreement
(b) Contract
(c) None of these
(12) All agreements are contracts:
(a) Correct
(b) Incorrect
(c) None of these
(13) Tender means:
(a) Rules for supply of articles.

(b) Refusal to perform
(c) Anticipatory breach
(d) None of these
73
(14) No consideration is necessary to create an Agency:
(a) Correct
(b) Incorrect
(c) None of these
(15) The Contract Act is:
(a) Exhaustive
(b) Incomplete
(c) Retrospective
(d) None of these
(16) The Law of Tort is based on:
(a) Common law

(b) Statutory law
(c) Procedural law
(d) None of these
(17) In tort motive is:
(a) Relevant
(b) Irrelevant
(c) None of these
(18) Damnum means loss of:
(a) Money
(b) Comfort and service
(c) Health
(d) All of the above
(e) None of these
(19) When anything authorized by law is done carelessly it is called:
(a) Constructive negligence

(b) Vicarious negligence
(c) Nuisance
(d) None of these
(20) Kinds of nuisance are:
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) None of these
74

COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION FOR RECRUITMENT TO POSTSIN BPS – 17
LAW, PAPER - II
the parts.
1.What a previous statement of a witness can be used?
2. “Dying Declaration is a weaker type of evidence.” Discuss.
3. Explain the following terms:
(a) Hearsay evidence

(b) Estoppels
(c) Document
4. Describe “First Information Report” and “Complaint” and state the differences between them.
5. Define the following terms:
(a) Summary Trial

(b) Composition of offences
(c) Revision
6. Under what circumstances can the accused be granted bail in bailable and non bailabe cases?
PART – “C” (PAKISTAN PANEL CODE)
7. Describe the different stages of the commission of an offence and state whether each of them is
punishable.
8. Generally, a person is liable for his own acts, but sometimes he is liable for the acts of others.
Comment.
9. Explain the following terms:
(a) Injury
(b) Illegal omission
(c) Joint offenders
75
COMPULSORY QUESTION
(1) A minister is a public servant:
(a) True
(b) False
(2) Arsh and daman are:
(a) Kind of hurt

(b)Kinds of qisas
(c) Commutation of sentence of imprisonment
(d) None of these
(3) Cowries are:
(a) Coins
(b) Medals
(c) Unstamped copper
(d) None of these
(4) Damiyah and hashimah are:
(a) Hurts
(b) Punishments
(c) Names of persons
(d) None of these
(5) Medical and legal standards of sanity are:
(a) Identical
(b) Different from each other
(c) None of these
(6) When five or more persons disturb the public peace by fighting on a public road they are said to
commit the offence of:
(a) Unlawful assembly

(b) Riot
(c) Affray
(d) None of these
(7) Isqat-i-janin is miscarriage:
(a) With consent

(b) In good faith
76
(c) None of these
(8) Punishment for qatl-i-khata is:
(a) Diyat
(b) Qisas
(c) Imprisonment
(d) None of these
(9) The Code of Criminal Procedure is:
(a) Substantive law

(b) Administrative law
(c) Special law
(d) None of these
(10) An accused person has been described as:
(a) Father of law

(b) Child of law
(c) Mother of law
(d) None of these
(11) Charge and offence are:
(a) Distinct from each other

(b) The same
(c) None of these
(12) An inquiry is conducted by:
(a) The police

(b) The prosecution
(c) The Court
(d) None of these
(13) An Additional Session Judge can pass:
(a) Any sentence of imprisonment

(b) Any sentence authorized by law including death sentence
(c) Any sentence authorized by law excluding death sentence
(d) None of these
77
(14) FIR means:
(a) Final Investigation Report

(b) First information report
(c) Actual information report
(d) None of these
(15) Approver is a person:
(a) Who approved the crime plan

(b) Who participated in the crime
(c) Who retracted confession
(d) None of these
(16) Refreshing of memory is allowed to:
(a) Plaintiffs
(b) Defendants
(c) Both
(d) None of these
(17) Irrelevant questions may be asked by:
(a) Defence counsel

(b) Prosecution
(c) The court
(d) None of these
(18) Hearsay evidence is:
(a) No evidence
(b) Good evidence
(c) None of these
(19) Leading questions are generally asked in:
(a) Examination-in-chief
(b) Cross examination
(c) Re-examination
(d) None of these
(20) The plea of alibi is raised by:
(a) Witnesses
(b) Complaints
(c) Accused persons
(d) All of these
78

LAW, PAPER - I
the parts.
1. Give essentials of the principle of Res-judicata. What is the distinction between the principles of Res-
judicata and Res-judice?
(a) Legal Representative

(b) Mesne Profits of property
(c) Constructive Res-judicata
3. What do you understand by the “Representative suit”?
PART – “B” (CONTRACT ACT)
4. Define “void contracts” and “voidable contracts”. Explain the difference between the two by
illustrating your answer.
5. On whom does the burden of proving undue influence lie? Discuss the subject with special reference
to “parda-nashin” ladies.
6. Explain and define the following by giving illustrations and stating their effect on contracts:
(a) Fraud
(b) Coercion
7. What is the difference between:
(a) A tort and a crime

(b) A tort and a breach of contract
8. How far a motive and malice are relevant in an action of tort? What are various kinds of malice?
Explain.
79
9. Explain the following:
(a) Malfeasance
(b) Misfeasance
(c) Non-feasance
COMPULSORY QUESTION
10. Write TRUE OR FALSE in the Answer Book. Do not reproduce the questions.
(1) Interpleader suit is a suit between pleaders. [True/False]
(2) All orders are appealable. [True/False]
(3) No appeal shall lie from an Original decree passed ex-parte. [True/False]
(4) Where the relief claimed by the plaintiff is under-valued, the Court can require the plaintiff to correct
the same and if not corrected can reject the plaint. [True/False]
(5) Additional evidence can be allowed to be produced by an appellate Court. [True/False]
(6) A civil Court can reconsider and revise its own order, judgment, and decree. [True/False]
(7) Only one appeal lies from the appealable orders. [True/False]
(8) A tort and a crime is one and the same thing and both can be tried by a civil court. [True/False]
(9) All persons are entitled to sue and liable to be sued in tort. [True/False]
(10) The greater the truth, the greater is libel. [True/False]
(11) A person cannot be liable in respect of wrongful acts or omissions of another under any
circumstances. [True/False]
(12) Entry on the land of another person without his consent is not justifiable even on the ground of
necessity. [True/False]
(13) A wife may, sue her husband for the protection and security of her own separate property but the
husband has no such corresponding right against her. [True/False]
(14) Legal damage is the same as actual damage. [True/False]
(15) An agreement has no legal status but a contract is enforceable at law. [True/False]
(16) A contract entered into on account of mis-representation is VOID/VOIDABLE. [True/False]
(17) All contracts are agreements but al agreements are not contracts. [True/False]
80
(18) Agreements by way of wager are VOID/VOIDABLE. [True/False]
(19) “A” lost his purse containing Rs. 10,000. He arranged publication of a reward of Rs. 1000 to the
finder on its return. “B” found the purse but when he went to return it to “A”, “A” refused to pay the
reward. Can “B” sue for the reward and retain the purse until he receives the reward? [Yes/No]
(20) “Recission” is the cancellation of a voidable contract. *True/False+

81

LAW, PAPER - II
the parts.
PART – “A” (PAKISTAN PENAL CODE)
1. When a person is accused of an offence the ‘burden of proof is on the prosecution’. What are the
exceptions to this rule?
2. When does culpable homicide not amount to murder?
3. What do you understand by the term “mens rea”? is it necessary element in criminal liability? How far
is the principle of “mens rea” recognized in the Pakistan Panel Code?
4. (a) Define offence.
(b) Distinguish between:
(i) Bailable and non-bailable offence

(ii) Cognizable and non-cognizable cases
5. How long can a police officer keep an offender in custody by his own power and with the order of a
Magistrate?
6. What preventive measures can a Magistrate take when a dispute concerning an immovable property
is likely to cause breach of peace?
PART – “C” (QANOON-E-SHAHADAT)
7. Define and explain the following:
(a) Original and Hearsay evidence

(b) Primary and Secondary evidence
(c) Oral and Documentary evidence
8. What is meant by “character”? Discuss the admissibility and relevancy of “character” in criminal
proceedings in Pakistan.
9. What do you understand by “Hostile Witness”? What is the advantage by the party by declaring its
Witness hostile?
82
COMPULSORY QUESTION
(1)An offender cannot, under any circumstances be kept in solitary confinement for more than:
(a) Three months

(b) Six months
(c) 12 months
(d) None of these
(2) What is the maximum duration of sentence of imprisonment in default of Payment of fine of Rs.
5000 for offences punishable with fine only:
(a) Three months

(b) Six months
(c) 12 months
(d) None of these
(3) Name the offence the commission of which is not punishable under Pakistan Penal Code, but the
attempt to commit is punishable.
(4)Fabricating false evidence and intentionally giving false evidence in any stage of judicial proceeding
or for the purpose of being used in any stage of judicial proceeding are:
(a) Synonymous
(b) Different
(5) Is giving a female in marriage a valid badl-i-sulh (qisas)? [Yes/No]
(6) Violation of an order by a Magistrate to a certain person to pay a certain amount of money for
maintenance of his wife and children is punishable under the law. [True/False]
(7) As a general rule, no complaint is required to be made in a cognizable case. [True/False]
(8) Under no circumstances, a police officer can arrest a person without a warrant of arrest issued by a
Magistrate. [True/False]
(9) A person alleged to have committed “forgery” can be arrested by a police officer without a warrant
of arrest. [True/False]
(10) Qatl-i-amd is a compoundable offence. [True/False]

83
(11) When an offender is absconding, the Court can record evidence in his absence. [True/False]
(12) A magistrate having passed an order of discharge cannot subsequently take fresh proceedings
against the accused in respect of the same offense. [True/False]
(13) “Conclusive Proof” is a fact which can be rebutted by the either party by producing strong evidence
to contradict it. [True/False]
(14) All confessions are admissions but al admissions are not confessions. [True/False]
(15) Two witnesses are required to prove a fact in a case. [True/False]
(16) Admissions are made in criminal cases while confessions are made in civil cases only. [True/False]
(17) An approver is an accomplice in a case. [True/False]
(18) A witness can be excused from answering a question on the ground that his answer to the question
will incriminate him. [True/False]
(19) A conviction can be based on the statement of the co-accused. [True/False]
(20) The opinion of expert is not binding upon the judge. [True/False]
84

Law Paper – I
NOTE: Attempt SEVEN questions in all, including question No.10 which is Compulsory. Attempt TWO
questions from each PART. Q.10 carries 20 marks and other questions carry 13 marks each.
PART-A
1. What are the characteristics of a Procedural Law? How is Civil Procedure Code different?
2. What are the limitations on the sett1ernètit~ of a suit by compromise?
3. What is the difference between a judgment and a decree? What purpose each serves in civil
litigation?
PART-B
4. Distinguish void from void able contracts. Illustrate.
5. What remedies are available to a contracting party on its breach?
6. What relations resemble contracts without being contracts? What are their consequences?
PART- C
7. When in Tort Malice is required to be established as a fact?
8. What are wrongs of absolute liability? Illustrate.
9. In what circumstances and to what extent contributory negligence plays a part.

85
COMPULSORY QUESTION
10. Write only the correct answer in the answer book. Don't reproduce the questions.
(1) Res judicata is:
(a) Bar- to-defense

(b) Bat- to- execution
(c) Bar to suits (d) None of these
(2) Commission is appointed for:
(a) deciding a case

(b) effecting a compromise
(c) executing a judgment
(d) none of these
(3) Discovery is for:
(a) Production of a document

(b) Production of suit property
(c) Production of a witness
(d) none of these
(4) A letter of request is for:
(a) local inspection

(b) avoidance of an order
(c) examination of witness not in Pakistan
(d) none of these
(5) Subjudice is:
(a) a case already decided

(b) a case pending in court
(c) a case yet to be filed in court
(d) none of these.
(6) Affidavit is:
(a) statement made in court

(b) statement made before a police officer
(c) statement in writing sworn an oath
(d) none of these.
86
(7) Pecuniary jurisdiction is:-
(a) territorial jurisdiction

(b) lacking in jurisdiction
(c) jurisdiction limited by amount or money.
(d) none of these.
(8) Ex-Parte judgment is: .
(a) against a party

(b) in the absence of a party
(c) in favour of a party
(d) none of these
(9) Good will in business is:
(a) fellow feeling

(b) good wishes
(c) property
(d) none of these
(10) Lien IS:
(a) right to acquire the property of another

(b) right to sell property
(c) right to retain property belonging to another
(d) none of these
(11) Novation of contract is:
(a) its repudiation

(b) its recognition
(c) its substitution
(d) none of these
(12) Restitution is:
(a) payment of compensation

(b) promise to do a thing
(c) restoration of position
(d) none of these
(13) Surety is a person:
(a) who commits default

(b) who makes a promise
(c) who gives a guarantee
(d) none of these
87
(14) Reciprocal promises are:
(a) undertaking by two or more persons

(b) commitment to do a thing
(c) a promise by one in consideration of a promise by another
(d) none of these.
(15) Tort is:
(a) breach of a promise

(b) crime committed
(c) trust betrayed
(d) none of these
(16) In Tort action:
(a) motive is decisive

(b) relevant
(c) irrelevant
(d) none of these
(17) Legal Damage means:
(a) damage to immovable property

(b) pecuniary loss
(c) violation of a right
(d) none of these.
(18) Act of state is:
(a) an individual’s act .

(b) a breach of promise
(c) a duty not discharged
(d) none of these.
(19) Joint tort feasors are:
(a) persons making promises jointly

(b) persons violating promises
(c) person joining in committing tort
(d) none of these.
(20) Libel is:
(a) a true allegation against someone

(b) a false allegation against someone
(c) oral accusation
(d) none of these.
88

Law Paper – II
NOTE: Attempt SEVEN questions in all, including question No.10 which is Compulsory. Attempt TWO
questions from each PART. Q.10 carries 20 marks and other questions carry 13 marks each.
PART - A (PAKISTAN PENAL CODE)
1. What are the restrictions on the exercise of right of private defense of person?
2. What are the various types of Oatle made punishable by law?
3. What is public nuisance? What forms of it have been made punishable?
PART - B (CRIMINAL PROCEDURE CODE)
4. What is an inquest? Who is empowered to conduct it and what are its requirements?
5. What are the duties of an investigating officer? To whom is he accountable?
6. For what purposes fine is imposed and compensation is ordered?
PART - C (QANOON-E-SHAHADAT)
7. What are leading questions? What is law governing them?:
8. When is the opinion of third persons relevant and admissible?
9. What is the difference between admission and-confession? What rules govern their use in a trial?
89
COMPULSORY QUESTION
10. Write only the correct answer in the Answer Book. Don’t reproduce the questions.
(1) Valuable security is:
(a) money in cash

(b) property
(c) document affecting a legal right
(d) none of these.
(2) Local law is applied to:
(a) a class of persons

(b) a class of property
(c) to a Part of Pakistan
(d) none of these.
(3) Fine is recoverable:
(a) within 12 years . .

(b) within 6 years
(c) within 3 years ...
(d) none of these.
(4) Fabrication of false evidence is:
(a) making oral statement which is false

(b) conveying to the authorities information which is false
(c) making a document containing a false statement
(d) none of these.
(5) Criminal intimidation by anonymous complaint amounts to:
(a) an offence
(b) does not amount to an offence
(c) none of these.
(6) Shortest of the longest prescribed term of imprisonment in Penal Code is:
(a) Ten days

(b) Five days
(c) Twenty four hours
(d) none of these.
90
(7) Arrest of a person is made by:
(a) oral command

(b) touching or confining the body
(c) putting handcuffs
(d) none of these.
(8) A warrant of arrest remains in force:
(a) indefinitely
(b) for a period of three years
(c) for a period of one year
(d) none of these-
(9) Cognizable offence is:
(a) offence punishable with imprisonment

(b) offence punishable with fine
(c) one in which arrest can be made without a warrant
(d) None of these.
(10) Apology tendered by convicts:
(a) in no case leads to his discharge

(b) in all cases leads to his discharge
(c) in some cases leads to his discharge
(d) none of these.
(11) Pardon to an accomplice:
(a) exonerates him from the offence

(b) does not exonerate him from the offence
(c) exonerates him conditionally
(d) none of these.
(12) Civil Armed Forces means:
(a) Police
(b) Army
(c) Pakistan Coast Guard
(d) none of these
(13) Accomplice is a competent witness:
(a) in all cases

(b) in no case
(c) Hadd cases
(d) none of these
91
(14) Refreshing memory is:
(a) reading a writing of someone else

(b) reading a writing made by himself
(c) being reminded of events
(d) none of these.
(15) Examination in chief is examination of a witness by:
(a) a police officer

(b) the opposing party
(c) the party who calls him
(d) none of these.
(16) Hearsay is:
(a) statement made on the basis of record

(b) statement made on the basis of personal knowledge
(c) statement made on the authority of another (d) none of these.
(17) Primary evidence is:
(a) direct oral evidence

(b) dying declaration
(c) the document itself
(d) none of these
(18) Court includes:
(a) arbitrators
(b) mediators
(c) conciliators
(d) none of these
(19) Private documents are:
(a) registered documents the execution whereof is not disputed

(b) record of judicial proceedings
(c) documents maintained by public servant under any law
(d) none of these.
(20) Estoppel:
(a) bars a suit

(b) bars a statement
(c) bars prosecution
(d) none of these

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1

FEDERAL PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION

(a) Where the defendant resides

(ii) A decree may be executed by a court:

(a) in whose jurisdiction the defendant resides

(a) all saleable, moveable or immoveable property

(iv) A revisional jurisdiction of a High Court may be invoked:

(a) where the judgment of the subordinate court is based on error

(v) Amendments of pleadings may be allowed by the court:

(a) before framing the issues

(vi) A minor can sue:

(vii) A tender for the sale or purchase of goods is:

(viii) The communication of an acceptance is complete:

(a) when it comes to the knowledge of the proposer

(ix) An agreement made by a minor is:

(x) An agreement in restraint of legal proceedings is:

(xi) An agreement may be performed:

(a) by the parties

(xii) Novation of contract means:

(xiv) The term pawn is used in the contract of:

(xv) A tort is an infringement of:

(a) a private civil right

(a) Legal damage

(xvii) A battery is:

(a) an attempt to do a corporeal hurt to another

(a) actual i.e. physical

(xix) Dismissal of a servant by the master is justifiable on:

(a) grave misconduct

(xx) A person is guilty of public nuisance if he does acts leading to:

(a) wrongful disturbances of easement or servitude

SECTION – I (Civil Procedure Code)

SECTION – II (The Contract Act)

SECTION – III (Law of Torts)

Q.8. Write a detailed note on discharge of tort. (16)

Q.9. What is negligence? Discuss fully the essentials of negligence. (16)

Q.10.What judicial remedies are available in tort? Discuss fully. (16)

FEDERAL PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION

(a) The High Court

(a) the High Court

(a) the court of session

(a) magistrate of the 1st class

(viii) A child is not criminally liable if he is:

(a) under 18 years of age

(ix) An abettor is a person who:

(a) actively participates in the commission of an offence

(x) Diyat can be awarded in case of:

(a) Qatl Shibh

(a) wrongful detention

(a) death or fear of instant death

(a) a court martial

(xiv) Privileged communication means that the witness may be:

(a) compelled to give answers

(xv) An accomplice is:

(a) an incompetent witness

(xvi) A fact in issue is a fact:

(a) asserted by one and denied by the other party

(xvii) Hearsay evidence is:

(xviii) The contents of a document may be proved by:

(a) oral evidence

(a) must be proved by evidence

(xx) A leading question may be asked in:

(a) examination in chief

SECTION – I (Qanun-e-Shahadat Order)

SECTION – II (Criminal Procedure Code)