Mock test 1 Adv Parduman Garg & Gopal Academy

Chandigarh
1. Which of the following deals with the time for inspection when notice given in the
Test 1of Civil Procedure?
Code Total Time - 2 hours
Total questions - 120
A. Order 16, Rule 12
Instructions
B. Order 4, Rule 13
C. Order
1) Each
6, Rule
question
10 for 4 marks
D. Order
2) Negative
11, Rule
marking
17 of 1/3 for every wrong Ans

2. Which of the following deals with the statement and production of evidence in the
Code of Civil Procedure?

A. Order 12, Rule 5

B. Order 14, Rule 20
C. Order 18, Rule 2
D. Order 11, Rule 7

3. Which of the following deals with the right to challenge non-appealable orders in
appeal against decrees in the Code of Civil Procedure?

A. Order 43, Rule 1A

B. Order 31, Rule 9
C. Order 22, Rule 18
D. Order 9, Rule 10

4. In order for that a decision in a former suit may operate as res judicata, the court
which may decide that suit must have been?
I. A civil court of competent jurisdiction
II. A court of exclusive jurisdiction
III. A court of concurrent jurisdiction ‘competent to try the subsequent suit’
IV A court of limited jurisdiction competent to try the issue raised in the subsequent
suit

A. Either I or III B. Either II or III C. Either III or IV D. All of these

Punjab Assistant District Attorney Exam

5. Under which Section/Order of the Civil Procedure Code a Provision is made to

provide “Free Legal Service to Indigent Person”?

(a) Section 151

(b) Section 115

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(c) Order XXXIII, Rule 18.

(d) Order XXXIX, Rule 2

6. Rejection of an application for permission to sue as a pauper -

(a) Bars a fresh application on the same cause of action.

(b) Does not bar a fresh application on the same cause of action if moved along with
amended schedule of property

(c) Does not bar a fresh application on the same cause of action with the leave of the
Court

(d) Does not bar a fresh application at all

7. Attachment before judgment, in a suit dismissed in default:

(a) Review automatically on the restoration of the suit

(b) Does not revive automatically on the restoration of the suit.

(c) May or may not revive depending on the facts and circumstances of the case

(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

8. Under Order 43 of Civil Procedure Code, against which order an appeal shall not lie
-

(a) An order to set aside or refusing to set aside a sale

(b) An order rejecting an application for permission to sue as an indigent person

(c) An order on an objection to the draft of a document

(d) When the subordinate court has exercised it jurisdiction illegally or with material
irregularity.

9. In an appeal from a decision by the trial court, the appellate court finds that certain
necessary evidence was not taken by the trial court. The appellate court:

(a) Can only remand the matter to the trial court for taking additional evidence

(b) Shall decide the matter only on the basis of the evidence before it

(c) Shall presume that the missing evidence would have adversely impacted the case
of the party who should have brought that evidence

(d) May take additional evidence itself.

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10. Which is the case of which notice to all the person interested in a representative
suit need not be given?

(a) Abandonment of the suit

(b) Withdrawal of the suit

(c) Recording of compromise in a suit

(d) Addition of new defendant in a suit.

11. Under the Code of Civil Procedure where a person who is necessary party to a suit
has not been joined as party, it is case of -

(a) Misjoinder

(b) Non-joinder.

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) None of these

12. Mark the incorrect statement in context of a representative suit:

(a) If the person suing or defending does not proceed with due diligence, the Court can
substitute in his place, any person having the same interest in the suit

(b) The suit can be withdrawn, compromised or abandoned by the plaintiff after
giving notice to all person interested

(c) Any decree passed in such a suit is binding on all the persons interested

(d) Res Judicata is not applicable to such a suit.

13. Which of the following is not a ground for the court to order separate trials
underOrder 2 Rule 6 CPC:

(a) Delay in the trial

(b) Embarrassment of the trial

(c) Insolvencies

(d) None of the above.

14. The court may also permit service of summons by the plaintiff in addition to
service of summons by the court by Order 5, and ________ of CPC.

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(a) Rule 9

(b) Rule 9A.

(c) Rule 10

(d) Rule 11

15. Under Order V Rule 9(3) of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908, the expenses for the
service of summons to the defendant have to be borne by :-

(a) The plaintiff.

(b) The defendant

(c) The court

(d) Partly by plaintiff and partly by defendant

16. Where a defendant was avoiding service deliberately, the court ordered service by
advertisement in a newspaper, but it did not order to affix the summons in the court
house or at the defendant’s house also. The procedure adopted by the court is:

(a) Regular.

(b) Irregular

(c) Improper

(d) Unjustified

17. No evidence is required to be pleaded in:

(a) Written statement

(b) Writ petition

(c) Counter affidavit

(d) All of the above.

18. Whether the appeal or revisional court can return the plaint under Order 7 Rule 10
CPC after setting aside the decree:

(a) No

(b) On technical ground

(c) With the consent of parties

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(d) Yes.

19. “The ‘plaint’ should be filed in duplicate”. This rule was inserted by:

(a) Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Act, 1976

(b) Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2002.

(c) Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2000

(d) None of the above

20. In a suit for recovery of Rs. 25 lakh, the Defendant files its written statement and
pleads that is does not owe any money of the Plaintiff but in fact, he is entitled to
recover the sum of Rs. 40 lakh from the Plaintiff. The Defendant, however, does not
file a counter claim. Can the Defendant file the counter claim at a subsequent stage in
the suit or file a fresh suit seeking recovery ofRs. 40 lakhs?

(a) The counter claim and suit would be barred

(b) Only the counter claim would be barred

(c) The Defendant can file both either a counter claim or a suit.

(d) The Defendant’s claim stands abandoned

21. Which of the following is true?

(a) Section 29A defines “Electronic record”.

(b) The words “electronic record” shall have the meaning assigned to them in clause
(t) of sub-section (1) of section 2 of the Information Technology Act, 2000.

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

22. Which of the following is true?

(a) Affray is when two or more persons, by fighting in a public place, disturb the
public peace.

(b) Whoever, by words either spoken or written or by signs or by visible

representations or otherwise makes or publishes any imputation that any class of
persons cannot, by reason of their being members of any religious, racial, language
or regional group or caste or community, bear true faith and allegiance to the
Constitution of India as by law established or uphold the sovereignty and integrity of

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India shall be punished with imprisonment which may extend to three years, or with
fine, or with both.

(c) Section 153A provides for the punishment for the offence of Promoting enmity
between different groups on grounds of religion, race, place of birth, residence,
language, etc., and doing acts prejudicial to maintenance of harmony.

(d) All of the above

23. Which of the following punishment cannot be awarded under the Indian Penal
Code?

a. Forfeiture of property

b. Rigorous imprisonment

c. Transportation for life

d. Death

24. Which of the following is true?

(a) The words "Court of Justice" denote a Judge who is empowered by law to act
judicially alone, or a body of Judges which is empowered by law to act judicially as a
body, when such Judge or body of Judges is acting judicially.

(b) A panchayat acting under Regulation VII, 1816, of the Madras Code, having
power to try and determine suits, is a Court of Justice

(c) The word "public" includes any class of the public or any community.

(d) All of the above

25. Which of the following is true?

(a) Punishment for the offence of personating a public servant as provided in the Code
is imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years, or
with fine, or with both.

(b) The punishment for the offence of personating a public servant is provided in
section 169 of the Indian Penal Code

(c) Whoever pretends to hold any particular office as a public servant, knowing that he
does not hold such office or falsely personates any other person holding such office,
and in such assumed character does or attempts to do any act under colour of such
office is said to commit an offence under section 170 of the Penal Code.

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(d) Both (a) and (c)

26. Whenever any person, who is absent would be liable to be punished as an abettor,
is present when the act or offence for which he would be punished in consequence of
the abetment is committed -

(a) he shall be deemed to have committed such act or offence

(b) he shall not be deemed to have committed such act or offence

(c)he shall be subject to same punishment as for the offence committed

(d) Both (a) and (c)

27. Section 117 punished abetment of commission of offence -

(a) by the public generally

(b) by any number or class of persons exceeding ten

(c) Either (a) or (b)

(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

28. The punishment for concealing design to commit offence punishable with death
or imprisonment for life -

(a) shall, if that offence be committed, be imprisonment of either description for a

term which may extend to seven years

(b) shall, if the offence be not committed, be imprisonment of either description , for
a term which may extend to three years

(c) in either case shall also be liable to fine

(d) All of the above

29. No agreement except an agreement to commit an offence shall amount to a

criminal conspiracy-

(a) unless some act besides the agreement is done by one or more parties to such
agreement in pursuance thereof

(b) such act is an illegal act

(c) It is immaterial whether the illegal act is the ultimate object of such agreement, or
is merely incidental to that object

(d) All of the above

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30. Which of the following would constitute the offence of Sedition under section
124A?

(a) Comments expressing disapprobation of the measures of the Government with a

view to obtain their alteration by lawful means , without exciting or attempting to
excite hatred, contempt or disaffection

(b) Comments expressing disapprobation of the administrative or other action of

attempting to excite haltered, contempt or disaffection

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d)Neither (a) nor (b)

31.Which of the following would constitute “common object” as defined under

section 141 of IPC?

(a) To overawe by criminal force, or show of criminal force, the Central or any
State Government or Parliament or the Legislature of any State, or any public servant
in the exercise of the lawful power of such public servant

(b) To resist the execution of any law, or of any legal process

(c) To commit any mischief or criminal trespass or other offence

(d) All of the above

32. Which of the following is true?

(a) A person who cause bodily injury to another who is laboring under a disorder,
disease or bodily infirmity, and thereby accelerates the death of that other, shall be
deemed to have caused his death.

(b) Where death is caused by bodily injury, the person who causes such bodily injury
shall be deemed to have caused the death, although by resorting to proper remedies
and skilful treatment the death might have been prevented.

(c) The causing of the death of child in the mother’s womb is not homicide. ग t may
amount to culpable homicide to cause the death of a living child, if any part of that
child has been brought forth, though the child may not have breathed or been
completely born.

(d) All of the above

33. Which of the following is true?

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(a) Culpable homicide is not murder when the person whose death is caused, being
above the age of sixteen years, suffers death or takes the risk of death with his own
consent.

(b) A, by instigation, voluntarily cause, Z, a person under eighteen years of age to

commit suicide. Here, on account of Z’s youth, he was incapable of giving consent to
his own death; A has therefore abetted murder.

(c)Both (a) and (b)

(d)Neither (a) and (b)

34. The essentials of causing death by negligence are as follows -

(a) Causing the death of any person during any rash or negligent act

(b) The act should not be amounting to Culpable Homicide

(c)Both (a) and (b)

(d)Neither (a) and (b)

35. Which of the following is punishment for culpable homicide not amounting to
murder?

(a) imprisonment for life

(b) imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to ten years, and
shall also be liable to fine, if the act by which the death is caused is done with the
intention of causing death, or of causing such bodily injury as is likely to cause death

(c) with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to ten years,
or with fine, or with both, if the act is done with the knowledge that it is likely to
cause death, but without any intention to cause death, or to cause such bodily injury
as is likely to cause death

(d) All of the above

36. Under section 304B of IPC, “dowry” shall have the same meaning as in -

(a) section 2 of the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961

(b) section 3 of the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961

(c) section 5 of the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961

(d) section 7 of the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961

9
37. The Indian Penal Code provides for the punishment for abetment of suicide of
which of the following persons –

(a) person under eighteen years of age

(b) insane person

(c) person in a state of intoxication

(d) All of the above

38. When any person offending under section 307 is under sentence of imprisonment
for life, he may, if hurt is caused, be punished with

(a) rigorous imprisonment

(b) imprisonment for a term of fourteen years

(c) death

(d) None of the above

39. A, on grave and sudden provocation, fires a pistol at Z, under such circumstances
that if he thereby caused death he would be guilty of culpable homicide not
amounting to murder. A has committed the offence of -

(a) Murder

(b) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder

(c) Grievous Hurt

(d) Attempt to commit culpable homicide

40. Which of the following would be the offence of Thug under Indian Penal Code?

(a)Habitual Association with others for committing robbery

(b)Habitual Association with others for the purpose of child stealing by means of or
accompanied with murder

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) Neither (a) nor (b) (change the question)

41. A witness was asked whether he was not dismissed from a post for dishonesty. He
denies it.
The evidence is offered to show that he was dismissed for dishonesty-
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 a. The evidence is admissible if it comes from plaintiff side
b. The evidence is admissible if it comes from defendant side
c. The evidence is admissible
d. The evidence is inadmissible

42. When a party refuses to produce a document which he had noticed to produce-
a. He cannot use the document as evidence without the consent of opposite
party or the order of the court.
b. Objection of opposite party is worthless
c. Order of court not necessary
d. Document will be deemed to be an admitted document

43. In which of the following cases, dying declaration is inadmissible in evidence?

a. Survival of the declarant

b. The Dying Declaration being made after considerable delay

c. The Dying Declaration not made in a lighted place

d. All the above

44. Match List-I with List- II and select correct answer using the codes given below
the lists-
List- I
(Section)
A. Section 159
B. Section 154
C. Section 60
D. Section 141

List-II

(Provision)

1. Leading question
2. Oral evidence
3. Refreshing memory
4. Hostile witness

Codes:

A B C D
a. 3 4 1 2

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 b. 3 4 2 1
c. 1 2 3 4
d. 2 1 4 3

45. A confession is inadmissible if it is made by the accused-

a. To a Magistrate whilst he is in the custody of a police officer.
b. To his friend whilst is not in the custody of a police officer
c. To a doctor whilst he in the custody of a police officer
d. To a spiritual adviser under the inducement for the good of his soul

46. Leading question may be asked in-

a. Examination-in chief
b. Cross-examination
c. Re-examination
d. All the above

47. Extra-judicial confession means a confession made-

a. Before the Magistrate in the court
b. To the police officer
c. To the doctor
d. None of the above.

48. Who amongst the following is not a competent witness?

a. A child
b. An idiot person
c. A lunatic person
d. A dumb person
49. Assertion (A): An accomplice shall be a competent witness against an accused
person.
Reason (R): An accomplice is unworthy of credit, unless he is corroborated in
material particulars.
Codes:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
50. A confession is admissible if it is made by the accused to-
a. A police officer

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 b. A doctor whilst he is in the custody of a police officer
c. His friend whilst he is in the custody of a police officer
d. None of the above
51. Which one of the following is primary evidence?
a. Copies made from the original
b. Document produced for the inspection of the court
c. Certified copies of a document
d. Photostat copies of a document
52. Character of a person for purposes of the law of evidence is not relevant in one
of the following situations-
a. Previous good character of the accused in criminal cases
b. Previous bad character in reply to evidence of good character in criminal cases
c. Character as affecting the amount of damages in civil cases
d. Character to prove conduct imputed in civil cases
53. Assertion (A): Extra-judicial confession, if voluntary, can be relied upon with
other evidence.
Reason (R): Extra-Judicial confession is a weak piece of evidence.
Codes:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
54. An admission under Section 17 of the Indian Evident Act is-
a. Only an oral statement
b. Only a documentary statement
c. An oral, documentary statement contained in electronic form
d. An oral or documentary statement
55. ‘Document’ produced for the inspection of the court includes-
1. A written document
2. A caricature
3. An electronic document

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 4. An inscription on stone

Select the correct answer using the codes given below-

a. 1 and 4
b. 1, 2 and 4
c. 1, 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 3.
56. Assertion (A): A dying declaration is admissible in evidence.
Reason (R): Its admissibility is founded upon the principle of necessity.
Codes:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
57. Which of the following is inadmissible under section 32(2) of Indian Evidence
Act?

a. Entries in register prepared by Amin who is dead

b. Post mortem report of a civil surgeon who died before his examination by
trial Court

c. Statements regarding marriage, birth, adoption or other ceremonies recorded

by religious priest in their professional registers.

d. Entry of birth or death in diary of a deceased illiterate chowkidar

58. Which one of the following is a correct statement relating to cross-examination?

a. Witnesses to character may be cross examined
b. Leading proof of the matters admitted
c. A person summoned to produce a document can be cross-examined
d. A witness may not be cross-examined as to previous statements made by him
in writing.
59. The question between ‘A’ and ‘B’ is, whether a certain deed is or is not forged.
‘A’ affirms that it is genuine, ‘B’ that it is forged.

14
 a. ‘A’ may prove a statement by ‘B’ that the deed is genuine, and ‘B’ may prove a
statement by ‘A’ that the deed is forged.
b. ‘A’ may prove a statement by ‘B’ that the deed is forged, and ‘B’ may prove a
statement by ‘A’ that the deed is genuine.
c. ‘A’ may prove a statement by himself that the deed is genuine.
d. ‘B’ may prove a statement by himself that the deed is forged.
60. Which one of the following sections of the Evidence Act defines admission?
a. Section 16
b. Section 17
c. Section 20
d. None of these

61. Decision on questions as to disqualifications of membership of either House of

Parliament rests with the__________.

(a) Chief Justice of India

(b) House of Parliament Concerned

(c) Election Commission on the recommendations of the Speaker/Chairman

(d) President after consultation with the Election Commission

62. What is the maximum possible strength of the Legislative Assembly of a State?

(a) 545 members (b) 400 members

(c) 500 members (d) 425 members

63. Disqualification on the ground of defection for a Member of Parliament will not
apply________.

(a) If he abstains from voting in the House contrary to the direction of the political
party

(b) If he has voluntarily given up his membership of a political party

(c) If a nominated member of a House joins a political party after six months

15
(d) In case of split in the original political party to which concerned member is elected

64. The Rajya Sabha has exclusive jurisdiction in___________.

(a) Approving a proclamation of Emergency

(b) The election of Vice-President

(c) Creation and abolition of States

(d) Authorizing Parliament to legislate on a subject in the State List

65. Which one of the following is directly related to the Appellate jurisdiction of the
Supreme Court?

(a) Appeals made in Civil, Criminal and Constitutional Cases

(b) Appeals made in disputes between the Union and a State on one side and other
States on the other side

(c) Adjudication of disputes between the States

(d) Adjudication of disputes between the Union and the States

66. Which one of the following statements regarding the judicial review in India is
NOT correct?

(a) Legislative enactments and executive orders may be struck down by the Supreme
Court

(b) Unanimous opinion of all the judges is necessary for declaring a law null and void

(c) This power is implicit in the provisions of Article 13 of the Constitution

(d) A case must be brought before the Supreme Court regarding the validity of a law

67. Which one of the following items comes under the Concurrent List of the Indian
Constitution?

(a) Inter-State rivers

16
(b) Local Government

(c) Trade Unions

(d) Citizenship

68. Which one of the following is NOT the concern of local government?

(a) Public Utility Services

(b) Sanitation

(c) Public Health

(d) Maintenance of Public Order

69. Which one of the following statements regarding the status of the relationship
between Fundamental rights and Directive Principles of State Policy is Correct?

(a) Directive Principles cannot get priority over Fundamental Rights in any case

(b) Directive Principles always get Priority over Fundamental Rights

(c) Fundamental Rights always get Priority over Directive Principles

(d) In some cases, Directive Principles may get priority over Fundamental Rights

70. It is mandatory for the Governor to reserve a bill for the consideration by the
President if such a Bill affects

(a) The rate of land revenue

(b) Powers of High Court

(c) The powers of the Advocate General of the State

(d) The amount of salary paid to the Members of Legislative Assembly

71. Which of the following directive principles of States Policy were added by 42nd
Amendment?

1. Participation of workers in the management of industry

17
2. Minimizing inequality of income and status

3. Protection of environment

4. Free legal aid to poor

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4

72. Which one of the following are the exclusive powers of the Lok Sabha?

1. To introduce Money bills

2. To ratify the declaration of emergency

3. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers

4. To impeach the President

Choose the correct answer from the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4

73. Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?

(a) First Schedule—List of State and Union Territories of Union

(b) Second Schedule—Functions and powers of Election Commission

(c) Seventh Schedule—Division of powers between the Union and the States

(d) Tenth Schedule—Anti defection Law

74. The Planning Commission was established by __________.

(a) An act of Parliament

(b) An Ordinance issued by the President

18
(c) A resolution of Union Council of Ministers

(d) The provisions of the Constitution

75. How many subjects have been included in the 11th Schedule of Constitution,
under the jurisdiction of Panchayati Raj institution?

(a) 19 (b) 29

(c) 39 (d) 49

76. If offices of both the President and the Vice- President become vacant at any time,
who will discharge the functions of the President?

(a) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha

(b) The Chief Election Commissioner

(c) Prime Minster

(d) Chief Justice of India

77. Who among the following can be removed by the same procedure?

1. Judge of the Supreme Court

2. Comptroller and Auditor General of India

3. Chairman of Union Public Service Commission

4. Chairman of Finance Commission

5. Chief Election Commissioner

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2,3 and 4

(c) 3,4 and 5 (d) 1,2 and 5

78. Which statement is not correct regarding the 73rd amendment (Panchayati Raj)?

19
(a) M.L.As. M.L.Cs and M.Ps. have been excluded from the membership of
Panchayat bodies at all levels

(b) Provision has been made for a Finance Commission in every state

(c) One-third seats have been reserved for women at all levels

(d) The Panchayat bodies have been given a fixed term of five years

79. Article 21 of the Constitution is violated if there is ______.

(a) Inordinate delay by the State in bringing an accused to trial

(b) Imprisonment of a declared insane

(c) Impounding of a citizen’s passport for an indefinite period of time

(d) All the above

80. In which part/parts of the Indian Constitution, has economic justice been declared
as the goal of the Constitution?

(a) Preamble and Fundamental Rights

(b) Preamble and Directive Principles

(c) Fundamental Rights and Directive principles

(d) Preamble, Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles

20
81. According to section 41A(1) of Cr.P.C. as inserted by the Code of Criminal
Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2008 (5 of 2009) and amended in August 2010 the
Police Officer shall issue a notice directing the alleged accused though he has
committed a cognizable offence, to appear before him or at such other place as
specified in notice in all the cases where the arrest of a person is not required under
the

(a) provisions of sub-section (1)(a) of section 41

(b) provisions of sub-section (1)(b) of section 41
(c) provisions of sub-section (1)(c) of section 41
(d) provisions of sub—section (1) of section 41A

82. Within the meaning of provisions under section 41C(1) of the Criminal Procedure
Code which was inserted by the Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2008
(5 of 2009) every State Government shall establish a Police Control Room (PCR) in

(a) every district

(b) State level only
(c) both district and at State level
(d) State Secretariat only

83. In which of the following cases a police officer may arrest without warrant?

(a) where a person arrested is a proclaimed offender

(b) where a person is reasonably suspected to be a deserter from any Armed Forces of
the Union

(c) where a person obstructs the police officer in the execution of his duty

(d) All of the above

21
88. A case which includes cognizable offences and non-cognizable offences is
84. In a cognizable case under IPC, the police will have all the powers to
(a) ainvestigate
cognizableexcept
ease but
the requires
power tosanction
arrest without
of the Magistrate
warrant for investigation into the
(b) investigate
non cognizableincluding
part underthesection
power155(2)
to arrest
of without
Cr PC warrant
(c) investigate
(b) a cognizableand case
arrest
andwithout
as such warrant
the investigation
only afterofseeking
the case
permission
does not require
from the
any
Magistrate
sanction of the Magistrate under section 155(2) of Cr ‘PC
(d) ainvestigate
(c) non-cognizable
and arrest
casewithout
and as such
warrant
the investigation
only after informing
of the case
the Magistrate
requires sanction
havingof
jurisdiction
the Magistrate to inquire
under section
into or 155(2)
try the of
offence.
Cr PC
(d) a non-cognizable case but does not require sanction of the Magistrate under
85. A Magistrate
section 155(2) of hasCr PC
the power to direct the police to investigate into an offence in
IPC under
89. In a non-cognizable case, the accused -
(a) section 156(1) of Cr PC
(b) can
(a) section
object
156(2)
to theofgrant
Cr PCof permission under section 155(2) of Cr PC as a matter of
(c) section 156(3) of Cr PC
right
(d) can
(b) all ofobject
the above.
to the grant of permission under section 155(2) of Cr PC with the leave
of the Magistrate
86. can
(c) A Magistrate
object to thehasgrant
the power
of permission
under Cr.under
P.C. section
to direct155(2)
the police
of_ Cr
to investigate
PC with theinto
leave
of the High Court
(a) ahas
(d) non-cognizable
no right to participate
offence in the proceedings and cannot object to the grant of
(b) a cognizable
permission underoffence
section 155(2) of Cr PC
(c) only a non~cognizable offence, as in a cognizable offence the police is under a
duty to investigate
(d) both (a) and (b).

87. In a non-cognizable case under IPC, the police has the authority

(a) to investigate into the offence without order given by the Magistrate but cannot
arrest the accused without warrant
(b) to investigate and even arrest the accused without warrant
(c) neither to investigate without order of the Magistrate nor can arrest the accused
without warrant
(d) cannot investigate without orders of the Magistrate but can arrest without warrant.

90. In a summons case, instituted on a complaint, the accused having been summoned
is liable to be acquitted under section 256 of Cr PC:

(a) on account of death of the complainant

(b) on account of non-appearance of the complainant

(c) both (a) & (b)

(d) only (b) & not (a).

22
92. In a bailable offence
91. Leave to investigate into the non-cognizable offence can be granted by a
(a) conditions can be imposed while granting bail by the police officer
(a) Magistrate
(b) conditions can
in any
be part
imposed
of India
while granting bail by the court
(b) no
(c) Magistrate
conditionincan
anybe
part
imposed
of the State
while granting bail by the police officer or by the
(c) Magistrate having jurisdiction to try the case
court
(d) only
eithermild
(a) or
conditions
(b) or (c).can be imposed by the court only.

93. Hearing on sentence by a Magistrate is required, on conviction:

(a) in a summons trial case under section 255(2) of Cr PC

(b) in a warrant trial case under section 248(2) of Cr PC

(c) both (a) & (b)

(d) only (b) & not (a).

23
94. The word Magistrate mentioned in section 156(3) of Cr PC means

(a) a Judicial Magistrate

(b) a Special Executive Magistrate
(c) an Executive Magistrate
(d) either (a) or (b) or (c).

95. A Metropolitan Magistrate, has the power to pass sentence, as provided under
section 29 of Cr PC

(a) any sentence authorized by law except a sentence of death

(b) imprisonment for life or of imprisonment for a term exceeding seven years
(c) imprisonment for a term not exceeding three years and fine not exceeding Rs.
10,000
(d) imprisonment for a term not exceeding one year and fine not exceeding Rs. 1,000.

96. A Metropolitan Magistrate can award sentence of imprisonment -in default of

payment of fine

(a) equal to the term of imprisonment which he is competent to inflict as substantive

punishment
(b) not exceeding half of the term of imprisonment which he is competent to inflict as
substantive sentence
(c) not exceeding one-third of the term of imprisonment which he is competent to
inflict as substantive sentence
(d) not exceeding one-fourth of the term of imprisonment which he is competent to
inflict as substantive sentence.

97. The imprisonment in default of fine

(a) shall be in addition to a substantive sentence maximum awardable under section 29

without any specific order
(b) shall be in addition to a substantive sentence only when a specific order to that
effect is passed.
(c) shall not be in addition to the substantive sentence awardable by the Magistrate
(d) shall be in addition to the substantive sentence awardable but subject (to the upper
limit for substantive sentence prescribed under section 29.

98. In cases of consecutive sentence on conviction of several offences at one trial by a

Metropolitan Magistrate the aggregate punishment

(a) shall not exceed twice the amount of punishment which the Magistrate is
competent to inflict for a single offence
(b) shall not exceed the amount of punishment which the Magistrate is competent to
inflict for a single offence as prescribed under section 29 of Cr PC
(c) shall not exceed three times the amount of punishment which the Magistrate .is
competent to inflict for a single offence
(d) Shall not exceed 14 years.

99 A warrant of arrest is a command

24
(a) must be a Written order
(b) signed, sealed & issued by a Magistrate
(c) addressed to a police officer
105. A mother is 20years older than her daughter, 4 years before she was 5 times of
her daughter‟s age at that time. How old is the daughter now?

(A) 9
(B) 12
(C) 18
(D) 16

25
106. A father said to his son, “Your age now is the same as my age at the time of your
birth”. If the father’s age is 38 years now, the son’s age five years back was

(A) 14
(B) 19
(C) 24
(D) 38

107. A person’s age is two fifth of the age of his mother. After 8 years, he will be one
half of the age of his mother. How old is the mother at present?

(A) 42
(B) 40
(C) 45
(D) 48

In a college there are 1400 students who are doing graduation in any one of the
subjects, out of the five different subjects viz. zoology, Botany, Mathematics, Physics
and Statistics. The ratio of the number of boys and girls among them is 6:8.30% of the
total girls are doing graduation in Zoology and 20% of the total girls are doing
graduation in Statistics. The total number of students doing graduation in Botany is
220. 250 students are doing graduation in Mathematics. The ratio of the number of
girls and the number of boys doing graduation in Statistics is 2:1.20% of the total
number of boys are doing graduation in Botany. The ratio of the number of girls and
that of boys doing graduation in Mathematics is 2:3. There are an equal number of
boys and girls doing graduation in Physics. 290 students are doing graduation in
Zoology.

108. What is the total number of students doing graduation in physics and Statistics
together?

A. 510
B. 540
C. 640
D. 620

109. What is the ratio of the number of boys doing graduation in Mathematics and to a
number of girls doing graduation in Botany?

A 1:2
B. 3:1
C. 3:4
D. 3:2

110. What is the difference between the number of boys doing graduations in Zoology
and the number of girls doing graduation in Mathematics?

A. 50
B. 75
C. 60
D. 45
26

111. In which of the following graduation courses, the number of the girls the highest
and in which course is the number of boys is second lowest respectively?
114. Who
115. Whenbecame
is celebrated
the Prime
World
Minister
Brain Day?
of Kuwait in 2022? 2022

(A) Sheikh
12th September
Ahmad Nawaf Al Ahmed Al-Sabah
(B) Jaber
22nd July
Al-Mubarak Al-Hamad Al-Sabah
(C) Sabah
9th May
Al-Khalid Al-Sabah
(D) Nasser
16th July
Al-Mohammed Al-Sabah

116. .Maharaja Ranjit Singh was born at

(a) Gujranwala
(b) Peshawar
(c) Rawalpindi
(d) Lahore

117. What was the name of Maharaja Ranjit Singh’s government

(a) Sarkar-i-Khalsa
(b) Dal Khalsa
(c) Sarkar-e-Punjab
(d) Sarkar-e-Lahore

118.Dhusi Band is on which river

(a) Ravi
(b) Beas
(c) Satluj
(d) Ghaggar

119..Which of the following cities are situated on the banks of river beas

(a) Dasuya and Mukerian

(b) Dhilwan and Kapurthala
(c) Goindwal Sahib and Sultanpur Lodi
(d) Sri Hargobindpur and Taran tarn

120..The Confluence of Satluj and Beas is at

(a) Nangal
(b) Harika Patan
(c) Roopnagar
(d) Sirhind

27