Set 4

Delhi Judicial Service Exam, 2023
Mock Test Paper 4
1. If offices of both the President and the Vice- President become vacant at any time, who
will discharge the functions of the President?
(a) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(b) The Chief Election Commissioner
(c) Prime Minster
(d) Chief Justice of India
2. Who among the following can be removed by the same procedure?
1. Judge of the Supreme Court
2. Comptroller and Auditor General of India
3. Chairman of Union Public Service Commission
4. Chairman of Finance Commission
5. Chief Election Commissioner
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2,3 and 4
(c) 3,4 and 5 (d) 1,2 and 5
3. Which statement is not correct regarding the 73rd amendment (Panchayati Raj)?
(a) M.L.As. M.L.Cs and M.Ps. have been excluded from the membership of Panchayat
bodies at all levels
(b) Provision has been made for a Finance Commission in every state
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(c) One-third seats have been reserved for women at all levels
(d) The Panchayat bodies have been given a fixed term of five years
4. Article 21 of the Constitution is violated if there is ______.
(a) Inordinate delay by the State in bringing an accused to trial
(b) Imprisonment of a declared insane
(c) Impounding of a citizen’s passport for an indefinite period of time
(d) All the above
5. In which part/parts of the Indian Constitution, has economic justice been declared as
the goal of the Constitution?
(a) Preamble and Fundamental Rights
(b) Preamble and Directive Principles
(c) Fundamental Rights and Directive principles
(d) Preamble, Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles
6. Give the correct response – Article 15(1) prohibits that the state shall not discriminate
against any citizen on ground only of –
(a) Religion, race, sex and place of birth
(b) Religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth and descent
(c) Religion, race, caste, creed, sex or place of birth
(d) Religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them
7. Which one of the following does not fall within the meaning of ‘State’ under Article
12 of the Indian Constitution?
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(a)Barkathullah Vishwavidyalaya, Bhopal
(b) Government of India and the Parliament
(c) British Airways Corporation
(d) Bhopal Barkathullah Vishwavidyalaya, Bhopal Municipal Corporation
8. Fundamental Freedoms given under Article 19 of the Constitution are available only to
–
(a) Citizen of India
(b) Citizen of India and Foreigners
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Foreigners living in India
9. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court held that secularism is the basic
structure of the Constitution?
(a) S.P. Mittal v/s Union of India
(b) Sri Jagannath Temple Puri Management Committee v/s Chintamani Khuntia
(c) Aruna Roy v/s Union of India
(d) None of the above
10. Which of the following are included in the list of fundamental duties in the
Constitution?
(1) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions
(2) To safeguard Public property and to abjure violence
(3) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
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(4) To uphold and protect secularism
Select the correct answer using the code given below:-
Code:
(a) 1, 3, 4
(b) 1, 2, 4
(c) 2, 3, 4
(d) 1, 2, 3
11. Match List-I with List-II and select correct answer using the code given below the
lists List-
I (Right)
(a) Freedom of assembly
(b) Freedom of profession, trade and occupation
(c) Freedom of speech
(d) Freedom of association
List-II (Restriction)
1. Article 19(2)
2. Article 19(4)
3. Article 19(3)
4. Article 19(6)
Code
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ABCD
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 3 2 1 4
(d) 2 4 1 3
12. Disputes between States in India come to Supreme Court under –
(a) Appellate jurisdiction
(b) Original jurisdiction
(c)Advistory jurisdiction
(d) Review jurisdiction
13. “Article 21-A Right to education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years”
has been inserted in the Constitution by:
(a) The Constitution (43rd Amendment) Act, 1977
(b) The Constitution (86th Amendment) Act, 2002
(c) The Constitution (70th Amendment) Act, 1992
(d) The Constitution (74th Amendment) Act, 1992
14. In which Article of the Constitution, the eligibility for re-election of the President is
given?
(a) Article-57
(b) Article-58
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(c) Article-59
(d) Article-60
15. The quorum for meetings of the House of People constitutes:
(a) 1/10th of the total members
(b) 1/10th of the total members or 100 members whichever is less
(c) 1/3rd of the total number
(d) 100 members
16. An ex parte decree can be set aside on the ground that:
a. Summons were not duly served
b. Non-appearance of defendant as copies of documents filed with plaint were not

provided to defendant
c. Defendant refused to receive the summons and thereafter no fresh summons were
issued to him
d. An ex parte decree cannot be set aside under any circumstances
17. Documents which are meant for cross-examination of a witness of the other party
or meant for refreshing the memory of the witness may be produced:
a. At or before the settlement of issues
b. After the settlement of issues
c. At any time when they are required
d. Along with pleading
18. Pleadings can be amended:

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a. Before the trial court only
b. Before the first appellate court only
c. Before either the trial court or first appellate court or second appellate court
d. Before second appellate court only
19. Period of detention in civil imprisonment, as a consequence of disobedience or

breach of any injunction shall not exceed:
a. One month
b. Three months
c. Six months
d. One year
20. A judgment passed by a court can be reviewed by:
a. The court passing the judgment
b. The court of District Judge
c. The High Court
d. The Supreme Court
21. Which Order under Code of Civil Procedure provides detailed rules regarding
judgments and decree?
a. Order XIX
b. Order XX
c. Order XXI
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d. Order XXIII
22. Which of the provision of the Code of Civil Procedure deals with consequence of
disobedience of an injunction granted by Court?
a. Order 39 Rule 1
b. Order 39 Rule 2
c. Order 39 Rule 2-A
d. Order 39 Rule 3
23. Order 21 of the Code of Civil Procedure dealing with execution of decrees and
orders contains:
a. 100 Rules
b. 102 Rules
c. 103 Rules
d. 106 Rules
24. Which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure deals with enforcement of a
decree against legal representative?
a. Section 50
b. Section 51
c. Section 55
d. None of the above
25. Which of the following provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure provides for
adjudication of claims and objections to attachment of property?
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a. Order 21 Rule 59
b. Order 21 Rule 58
c. Order 21 Rule 57
26. Match the following lists and tick the correct code:
List I List II
(Order of CPC) (Subjects)
A. Order XVII 1. Execution
B. Order XXI 2. Suit by or against Corporation
C. Order XXIX 3. Suit by Indigent
D. Order XXXIII 4. Adjournment
Code:
A B C D
A. 1 2 3 4
B. 4 3 2 1
C. 4 1 2 3
D. 3 2 4 1
27. Which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure provides that one person may sue
or defend on behalf of all in same interest?
a. Order 1 Rule 1
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b. Order 2 Rule 2
c. Order 1 Rule 8
d. Order 1 Rule 9
28. Which one of the following Section has been newly added by Civil Procedure
Code (Amendment) Act, 1999?
a. Section 87
b. Section 88
c. Section 89
d. Section 90
29. Under which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, the collector may be
appointed as a Receiver?
a. Order 40 Rule 1
b. Order 40 Rule 2
c. Order 40 Rule 3
d. Order 40 Rule 5
30. ‘Objections as to local or pecuniary jurisdiction shall be raised at the first

opportunity’. It is provided under -
a. Section 21
b. Section 22
c. Section 24
d. Section 25
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31. ‘Wrongful gain’ under Indian Penal Code means
(a) gain by lawful means of property which the person gaining is not entitled
(b) gain by unlawful means of property which the person gaining is not entitled
(c) gain by unlawful means of property which the person gaining is entitled
(d) none of the above
32. ‘Local Law’ as defined in Section 42 of IPC means:
(a) A law applicable to a particular subject

(b) A law applicable to a particular part of India
(c) The municipal law.
(d) No offence
33. To establish section 34 of IPC
(a) common intention is to be proved but not overt act be proved

(b) common intention and overt act both have to be proved
(c) common intention need not be proved but overt act be proved
(d) all the above
34. Section 511, IPC is not related to the offence for which punishment is:
(a) Death sentence

(b) Life-imprisonment
(c) Imprisonment
(d) Both (b) and (c)
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35. Under section 45 of IPC, life denotes
(a) life of human being

(b) life of an animal
(c) life of human being of an animal both
(d) life of either human being or animal
36. Illegal signifies
(a) everything which is an offence

(b) everything which is prohibited by law
(c) everything which furnishes ground for civil action
(d) all the above
37. Under section 60 of IPC, in certain cases of imprisonment, the sentence of

imprisonment
(a) has to be wholly rigorous

(b) has to be wholly simple
(c) can be partly rigorous and rest simple
(d) all of the above
38. The imprisonment imposed in default of payment of fine by the Court shall be –
(a) imprisonment of any description to which the offender might have been sentenced
for the offence
(b) simple imprisonment
(c) rigorous imprisonment
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(d) solitary confinement
39. What is the maximum punishment for cheating?
(a) One year

(b) Fine only
(c) One year or with fine or both
(d) Seven years and with fine
40. A instigates his six-years-old daughter B to take away from C, a purse containing
Rs. 1,500. In this case which of the following statements is correct?
(a) B commits theft and A abets theft

(b) A commits no offence but B commits theft
(c) Both A and B commit no offence
(d) B does not commit any offence but A commits abetment of theft
41. The abetment of offence is completed as soon as -
(a) the offence abetted has been committed

(b) the abettor has incited another person to commit an offence
(c) the person abetted has done some overt act towards the commission of the
offence
(d) the abettor has done something at the time of commission of the offence itself
to help its commission
42. Sedition means -
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(a) expressing disapprobation of the measures of the government with a view to
obtain the alteration
(b) advocacy of boycott of foreign goods as a means of helping Indian industries
(c) exciting or attempting to excite hatred towards the government through a
writing which remains with the author unpublished
(d) bringing or attempting to bring the government into hatred through words, signs
or visible representation
43. Under Section 279 of IPC a person who is guilty of rash and negligent driving can
get punishment up to -
(a) six months and fine

(b) six months imprisonment or fine or both
(c) life imprisonment, if there is a death
(d) seven years
44. Which of the following constitute offences by a public servant disobeying direction
under law?
(a) Intentional disobedience of any direction of law prohibiting him from requiring the
attendance at any place of any person for the purpose of investigation into any offence or
any matter
(b) Intentional disobedience of any other direction of law to the regulating the manner in
which investigation is to be conducted to the prejudice of any person
(c)Failure to record First Information Report with respect to offence of rape
(d) All of the above
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45. Who among the following is liable for punishment for non treatment of victims under
section 166B of the Indian Penal Code?
(a) Public Hospitals
(b)Private Hospitals
(c) Local Bodies
46. The victim may be permitted to engage an advocate of his choice to assist –
(a) A Public Prosecutor
(b) An Additional Public Prosecutor
(c) Special Public Prosecutor
(d) Assistant Public Prosecutor
47. Which of the following is true?
i. No police officer shall in any case be eligible to be appointed as an Assistant

Public Prosecutor
ii. The District Magistrate may appoint any other person to be the Assistant Public
Prosecutor in charge of any case
iii. The District Magistrate may appoint a Public Officer as an Assistant Public
Prosecutor
iv. A Public Officer shall not be so appointed if he has investigated the offence with
respect to which the accused is being prosecuted; or if he is below the rank of
inspector.
Choose the correct code
(a) i, ii and iv
(b) ii, iii and iv
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(c) i, ii and iii
(d) i, iii and iv
48. The Director of Prosecution in a State shall function under –
(a) Head of Home Department in the State
(b) Head of Home Department at the Centre
(c) Central Government
(d) State Government
49. The offences under section 376, 376A, 376B, 376C, 376D or 376E of I.P.C. shall be
tried by –
(a) High Court
(b) Court of Session
(c) Metropolitan Magistrate
(d) Court presided over by a woman
50. In case of offences committed by juveniles, the age of sixteen years is to be computed
–
(a) At the date when appears or is brought before the Court
(b) At the time when the offence was committed by him
(c) At the time when the juvenile turns sixteen
(d) None of these
51. Which Court has jurisdiction to try offences with respect to juveniles?
(a) Court of Chief Judicial Magistrate
(b) Any Court specially empowered under the Children Act, 1960
(c) Any Court specially empowered under any other law for the time being in force
providing for the treatment, training and rehabilitation of youthful offenders.
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(d) Either (a) or (b) or (c)
52. An additional session’s judge –
(a) Can pass any sentence authorized by law
(b) Cannot pass any sentence authorized by law
(c) Can pass sentence subject to confirmation by High Court
(d) May pass any sentence authorized by law but any sentence of death shall be subject to
confirmation by the High Court
53. The imprisonment awarded in default of fine under section 30 of the Code of
Criminal Procedure -
(a) May be in substitution to a substantive sentence of imprisonment for the maximum

term awardable by the magistrate under section 29.
(b) May be in addition to a substantive sentence of imprisonment for the maximum term
awardable by the magistrate under section 29.
(c) Will be in substitution to a substantive sentence of imprisonment for the maximum

term awardable by the magistrate under section 29.
(d) May be more than the substantive sentence of imprisonment for the maximum term
awardable by the magistrate under section 29.
54. Consider the following statements –
(i) In case of conviction of accused at one trial of two or more offences, the Court may
direct the punishments awarded for the offences to run concurrently
(ii) In case of conviction of accused at one trial of two or more offences, the punishments
shall be undertaken one after another unless the Court directs that such punishment shall
run concurrently
(iii) For the purpose of appeal by a convicted person in case of consecutive sentences,
each sentence shall be taken as single sentence and not the aggregate will be counted
(iv)When the aggregate punishment for several offences in case of consecutive sentences
exceeds the punishment which the Court is competent to inflict on conviction of a single
sentence, the Court shall send the offender for trial before a higher Court
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Which is correct?
(a) i, ii, and iii (b) i and ii
(c) Only ii (d) all of these
55. Who amongst the following may withdraw all or any of the powers conferred by it
on any person or on any officer subordinate to it?
(a) High Court or State Government
(b) Chief Judicial Magistrate or District Magistrate
(d) State Government or Central Government
(a) There is a provision in the code for aid of any other person in execution of warrant to
arrest an accused
(b) Public may at their discretion assist the Magistrate or police
(c) Every person who is aware of the commission of an offence is not bound to forthwith
give information to the nearest magistrate or police officer of such commission.
(d) The term “offence” as defined in section 39 does not include any act committed at any
place out of India
57. The officers in charge of the affairs of the village shall communicate any information
with respect to commission of offences in the village to –
(a) Nearest magistrate
(b) Officer in charge of the nearest police station
(c) Either (a) or (b)
(d) Both (a) or (b)
58. In which of the following cases ‘No exclusion of time’ shall be allowed to a person
prosecuting another case against the same offender?
(a) When the prosecution relates to different facts

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(b) When the prosecution initiated is malafide
(c) Neither (a) nor (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b)
59. When an offence is tried by the High Court otherwise than under section 407 of the
Code of Criminal Procedure, the procedure adopted by the Court in the trial of such
offence shall be that of –
(a) Procedure adopted by Court of Session
(b) Procedure adopted by Metropolitan Magistrate
(c) Procedure adopted by Chief Judicial Magistrate
(d) Procedure adopted by the High Court in ordinary cases
60. Which Court has jurisdiction to try offences?
(a) Court within whose local jurisdiction offence was committed
(b) Where the accused resides
(c) Where the complainant or victim resides
(d) Either (a) or (b)
61. Which of the following is NOT true?
(a) A signed copy of the award shall be given to the parties after making of the award
(b) The award shall state the reasons of the decision made by the tribunal
(c) In case of a tribunal of more than one arbitrators, the signatures of all the arbitrators is
necessary
62. Section 31 permits making of –
(a) interim award on any matter on which a final award shall be made
(b) additional award
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(c) final award
63. Which of the following can be granted by the Tribunal in the award?
(a) Sum along with interest to be specified in the award
(b) Costs of arbitration
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
64. The arbitral proceedings shall not terminate –
(a) by the final arbitral award
(b) by an order of arbitral tribunal
(c) by the termination of the mandate of the arbitrator
(d)None of the above
65. Which of the following can be done by the tribunal under section 33 of the
Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996?
(a) Correction of award
(b) Interpretation of award
(c) making of additional award
66. Correction can be made in the award –
(a) by the tribunal on it’s own initiative
(b) by the tribunal on request made by a party
(d) Only (b)
67. An additional award can be made –

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(a) upon request of a party within thirty days from receipt of the award
(b) as to the claims presented in the arbitral proceedings but omitted from the award
(c) by the tribunal within sixty days from the receipt of the request from the party
68 Which of the following is a ground for setting aside of the award under section 34?
(a) Default in service of notice to the other party
(b) Improper constitution of the tribunal
(c) The award passed was induced by fraud
(d)All of the above
69. The Court dealing with the application for setting aside the award is empowered to –
(a) give the tribunal an opportunity to resume the proceedings
(b) adjourn the proceedings before it to enable the tribunal to take such action as in the
opinion of the tribunal will eliminate the grounds for setting aside the award
(a) The award in matters other than international commercial arbitration shall be made by
the arbitral tribunal within a period of twelve months from the date of completion of
pleadings under sub-section (4) of section 23
(b) The award in the matter of international commercial arbitration may be made as
expeditiously as possible and endeavor may be made to dispose of the matter within a
period of twelve months from the date of completion of pleadings under sub-section (4)
of section 23
71. An arbitral award shall be final and binding–

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(a) On the parties
(b) On the beneficiaries
(c) On the legal representatives
72. When can an award be enforced?
(a) When the time for making an application to set aside the award under section 34 has
expired
(b) When the application made under section 34 has been allowed
73. Which of the following orders of the tribunal is appealable?
(a) Order accepting the plea under section 16
(b) Order granting or refusing to grant an interim measure under section 17
(c) Both (a) & (b)
74. In case of computation of period of limitation for the commencement of arbitration

proceedings:
(a) the period between the commencement of arbitration and the date of the order of the
Court setting aside the award shall be excluded
(b) the period between the commencement of arbitration and the date of the order of the
Court setting aside the award shall not be excluded
(c) the period during the arbitral proceedings shall not be considered
75. Section 5 of the Limitation Act is –
(a) inapplicable to the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996

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(b) applicable to the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
(c) excluded in matters governed by Section 34 (3)
(d) excluded in matters governed by Section 37
76. Novation of a contract means –
(a) The renewal of original contract
(b) Alteration of the contract
(c) Substitution of a new contract in place of original contract
(d) Cancellation of contract
77. A proposal as defined under Section 2(a) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, is:
(a) Communication from one person to another
(b) Suggestion by one person to another
(c) Willingness to do something
(d) Willingness to do or abstain from doing an act in order to obtain the assent of other
thereto
78. A, B and C jointly promise to pay ‘D’ a sum of Rs. 3,000. A and B are untraceable.
What is the liability of C?
(a) ‘C’ is liable to pay ‘D’ in full
(b) ‘C’ is liable to pay ‘D’ in part
(c) Liability of ‘C’ does not arise
(d) None of these
79 . Which statement is true regarding “agency” under the Indian law of contract?
(a) Principal should be competent to contract
(b) The authority of agent may be expressed and not implied

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(c) Consideration is necessary to create an agency
(d) Any person can become an agent
80. Which one of the following combinations is correctly matched?
1. Responsibility of finder of goods - Sec. 71
2. Surety’s liability - Sec. 128
3. Sub-agent - Sec. 191
4. Bailee’s particular lien - Sec. 171
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 3, 4 and 1
81. The Plaintiff on the oral request of an officer of the State of Bihar made certain
constructions which were voluntarily enjoyed by the State. The State, however, refused
payment on the ground that there was no valid contract in accordance with law. Which of
the following is true?
(a) The plaintiff is entitled to nominal damages
(b) The plaintiff is not entitled to payment as the contract was made orally and not in
accordance with law
(c) The Plaintiff is entitled to exemplary damages
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82. A contract is not voidable merely because it was caused by one of the parties to it
being under a mistake as to -
(a) a matter of fact
(b) a matter of law
(c) both a matter of fact and law
(d) neither a matter of fact nor a matter of law
83. An invitation by the Company to the public to subscribe for its shares is-
(a) an offer
(b) an invitation to offer
(c) a promise
84. Which of the following would not amount to coercion under the Indian Contract Act,
1872?
(a) Compulsion of law
(b) To threaten a criminal prosecution
85. A owes B, under a contract, a sum of money the amount of which has not been
ascertained. A without ascertaining the amount, gives to B, and B, in satisfaction thereof,
accepts, the sum of Rs. 2,000. Which of the following is true?
(a) This is a valid discharge of the whole debt
(b) This is not a valid discharge of the debt
(c) This is a partial discharge of the debt

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(a) Fraud is an unintentional representation made to another person
(b) Fraud does not exist when a material fact is made with reckless indifference as to
whether
it is true or false, with the intention of causing the other party to enter into a contract
relying upon the same
87. Which of the following is true with respect to an agreement made with inadequate
consideration?
(a) An agreement to which the consent of the promisor is freely given is not void merely
because the consideration is inadequate;
(b) The inadequacy of the consideration may be taken into account by the Court in
determining the question whether the consent of the promisor was freely given.
(a) Under a contract, the parties must either perform, or offer to perform, their respective
Promises
(b) The parties can dispense with the performance of their respective promises
89. When a party to a contract has refused to perform, or disabled himself from
performing, his promise in its entirety –
(a) the promisee may put an end to the contract

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(b) the promise need not put an end to the contract if he has signified, by words or
conduct, his acquiescence in its continuance
(c) the promise is not entitled to put an end to the contract
(d) Both (a) and (b)
90. When a promisee accepts performance of the promise from a third person –
(a) he cannot afterwards enforce it against the promisor
(b) he can afterwards enforce it against the promisor
(c) he may afterwards enforce it against the promisor
91. Which of the following is incorrect with respect to conduct under section 8 of Indian
Evidence Act?
(a) The conduct must be in reference to the facts in issue or the facts relevant to them.
(b) It need to be contemporaneous
(c) A conduct if relevant if it influences or is influenced by a fact
(d) Only those statements which accompany and explain acts other than statements can
be regarded as conduct.
92. A is running out besmeared with blood and crying helplessly to the people of vicinity
to save his life from B who had wounded him and is about to beat more. The cries of A is
–
(a) a statement under section 8
(b) a complaint under section 8
93. ‘A’ leisurely walks down from a place with injuries on his person and when
intervened and asked by a bystander he says that ‘B’ has assaulted him. This would
amount to –
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(a) A complaint under section 8
(b) A statement under section 8 which is inadmissible
(c) oral statement
94. Identification of which of the following is allowed under section 9?
(a) Identification of accused
(b) Identification of victim
(c) Identification of arms and bullets
95. What is the evidentiary value of the identification of the accused by witness for the
first time in Court without being tested by a prior identification parade?
(a) Identification of accused in Court for the first time is reliable
(b) Identification is a substantive piece of evidence
(c) Without prior test identification parade, Identification of accused for the first time
in Court is valueless
96. In which of the following cases, the Court held that failure to hold Test Identification
Parade was not fatal to the prosecution case?
(a) Pammi vs. State of M.P.
(b) Lakshmi Raj Shetty vs. State of Tamil Nadu
(c) Dana Yadav vs. State of Bihar
(a) In case the eye witness account if found to be credible and trustworthy, the
medical opinion suggesting an alternative possibility is not conclusive
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(b) In case of conflict between ocular evidence and the medical evidence, ocular
evidence shall be preferred to the medical evidence in case ocular evidence is acceptable,
trustworthy and reliable.
(c) Both (a) & (b)
98. Which of the following cases held that Court identification is a good identification in
the eyes of law and no straight jacket formula can be adopted?
(a) Ravi Kapur v. State of Rajasthan (2012) 9 SCC 284.
(b) R. Shaji vs. State of Kerala AIR 2013 SC 651
(c) Daya Singh vs. State of Haryana, AIR 2001 SC 1188
99. Which of the following is correct regarding Test Identification Parade?
(a) There is no fixed time of TIP and there is no rule of number of identifying
witnesses
(b) It is for Court to decide in facts and circumstances of the case and evidence on
record whether to accept or reject evidence of the identification
(c) TIP doesn’t constitute evidence but can be used only for corroboration of
statement in the Court
100. Which of the following is an essential of conspiracy?
(a) Conspiracy is an agreement to do an unlawful act or lawful act by unlawful means.
(b) It is a crime as well as a tort.
(c) The basis of this rule is agency
101. The words “in reference to their common intention” U/s 10 means –
(a) In reference to what at the time of statement was intended in the future
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(b) In reference to what was intended at that time
(c) In reference to the context
102. Burden of proving the plea of alibi lies on –
(a) The prosecution
(b) The defence
(c) The person who sets it up
103. What is the evidentiary value of alibi witness?
(a) Reliable and trustworthy evidence
(b) Cogent evidence
(c) Alibi evidence has a greater evidentiary value but very often a witness may not be
in a position to offer such cogent alibi evidence
104. Where the question is whether A committed the murder of B by administering the
poison, the fact that B committed a suicide by consuming poison
(a) Is relevant u/s 9
(b) Is relevant u/s 8
(c) Is relevant u/s 7
(d) Is relevant u/s 11
105. Which of the following is true about section 11 of the Indian Evidence Act?
(a) The section is too wide in it’s import
(b) It does not place any restriction upon the range of facts that can be admitted as
showing inconsistencies or probabilities
29
(c) No finding of plea of alibi can be recorded by the High Court for the first time in a
quotation u/s 482 of Cr. PC
106. Which section provides that a declaratory decree is not binding on third parties?
a. Section 31
b. Section 34
c. Section 35
d. Section 33
107. Section 37 of the Specific Relief Act,1963 provides that a temporary injunctioncan
be granted
a. at the earliest stage
b. before cross examination
c. at any stage of the suit
d. at the time of filing arguments
108. Section 12 of the Specific Relief Act,1963 provides:
a. the general rule that thecourt shall not grant specific performanceof a part of a contract
b. contingencies in which court may grant specific performance of part of contract.
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
30
a. Specific performance of a contract means actual execution of the contract according to
its stipulations and terms
b. The Specific Relief Act, 1963 is based on the maxim: Ubi Jus IbiRemedium
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
110. Which is NOT true?
a. The Specific Relief Act, 1963 does not providefor a cause of action, but provides for a
relief based on a cause of action occurring in someother statute, say for example, the
Indian Contract Act, 1872.
b. The Specific Relief Act, 1963 is based on theprinciples of equity and justice
c. The Specific Relief Act, 1963 does provides for a cause of action
111. Which of the following is true regarding the nature of the Specific Relief Act?
a. According to Pollock and Mulla, the SpecificRelief Act, 1963, is essentially a

procedural law.
b. The Specific Relief Act, 1963 is retrospective in nature
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
112. The important principles on which the Specific Relief Act, 1963 is based are:
a. One who seeks equity must do equity and the one whoseeks equity must come to the
court with cleanhands
31
b. One who seeks equity must do equity
c. One who seeks equity must come to the court with clean hands.
d. AssentioMentium
113. The preamble of the Specific Relief Act, 1963,states:“An Act to define and amend
the law relating to -
a. kinds of specific relief
b. certain kinds of specific relief
c. various reliefs
d. various specific reliefs
114. Which of the following is true about the definition of Obligation under the Act?
a. Section 2(a) of the Specific Relief Act, 1963,states as follows: “obligation” includes
everyduty enforceable by law.
b. The word “obligation”under Section 2(a) refers to a legal obligation andnot a merely a
moral or social obligation
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
115. Which statute cannot be allowed to be violated by the Specific Relief Act, 1963?
a. Indian Contract Act
b. Indian Registration Act
c. General Clauses Act
32
d. Civil Procedure Act
116. Which Chapter provides for contracts which cannot be specifically performed?
a. Chapter II
b. Chapter IV
c. Chapter VI
d. Chapter V
117. Which section provides for rights of purchaser or lessee against person with no title
or imperfect title?
a. Section 12
b. Section 13
c. Section 14
d. Section 11
118. Which provision is in the nature of proviso to sections 6 and 7?
a. Section 9
b. Section 8
c. Section 10
d. Section 11
119. Where time has begun to run owing to the right to sue having accrued to a person
not laboring under any legal disability, the subsequent disability of himself or his son or
33
other representative is not a ground of exemption from the operation of the ordinary rule.
This is provided in
a. Section 9
b. Section 8
c. Section 10
d. Section 11
120. Where letters of administration to the estate of a creditor have beengranted to his
debtor, the running of the period of limitation for a suit to recover the debt
a. shall continue without further effect
b. shall be suspended while the administration continues.
c. Either a or b
d. Neither a nor b
121. In computing the period of limitation in a suit for specific performance of agreement
a. the date of performance mentioned in the agreement will be excluded for computing
the period of limitation of two years
b. the date of performance mentioned in the agreement will be the date for reckoning the
period of limitation of three years
c. the date of performancementioned in the agreement will be the date for reckoning the
period of limitation of threeyears and that date has to be excluded for computing the
period of limitation for three yearswhich is the period of limitation for filing such a suit
34
d. the date of performance mentioned in the agreement will be the date for reckoning the
period of limitation of one year and that date has to be excluded for computing the period
of limitation for one year which is the period of limitation for filing such a suit
122. In computing the period of limitation for any suit, appeal or application, the dayfrom
which such period is to be reckoned
a. may be excluded
b. shall be excluded
c. shall not be excluded
d. shall be excluded only on some considerations
123. In computing the period of limitation for an appeal or an application for leave to
appeal or for revision or for review of a judgment
a. the day on which the judgment complained of was pronounced shall be excluded
b. the time requisite for obtaining a copy of the decree, sentence or order appealed from
or sought to be revised or reviewed shall be excluded.
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
a. Where a decree or order is appealed from or sought to be revised or reviewed, orwhen

an application is made for leave to appeal from a decree or order the timerequisite for
obtaining a copy of the judgment on which the decree or order isfounded shall also be
excluded.
35
b. In computing the period of limitation for an application to set aside an award, thetime
requisite for obtaining a copy of the award shall be excluded.
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
125. In computing the period of limitation prescribed for any suit or appeal in any case
where an application for leave to sue or appeal as a pauper has been made and rejected
a. the time during which the applicant has been prosecuting in good faith his application
for such leave shall be excluded
b. the court may, on payment of the court-fees prescribed for such suit or appeal, treat the
suit or appeal as having the same force and effect as if the court-fees had been paid in the
first instance
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
126. Which of the following is true regarding exclusion of time of proceeding bona fide
in court without jurisdiction?
a. In computing the period of limitation for any suit the time during which theplaintiff has
been prosecuting with due diligence another civil proceeding,whether in a court of first
instance or of the appeal or revision, against thedefendant shall be excluded, where the
proceeding relates to the same matterin issue and is prosecuted in good faith in a court
which, from defect ofjurisdiction or other cause of a like nature, is unable to entertain it.
b. In computing the period of limitation for any application, the time duringwhich the
applicant has been prosecuting with due diligence another civilproceeding, whether in a
court of first instance or of appeal or revision,against the same party for the same relief
shall be excluded, where suchproceeding is prosecuted in good faith in a count of first
36
instance or of appeal or revision, against the same party for the same relief shall be
excluded, where such proceeding is prosecuted in good faith in a court which, from
defect of jurisdiction or other cause of a like nature, is unable to entertain it.
c.Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
127. Explanation to section 14 of the Limitation Act provides that
a. in excluding the time during which a former civil proceeding was pending, theday on
which that proceeding was instituted and the day on which it ended shall both be counted
b. a plaintiff or an applicant resisting an appeal shall be deemed to be prosecutinga

proceeding
c. misjoinder of parties or of causes of action shall be deemed to be a cause of alike

nature with defect of jurisdiction.
d. All of the above
128. The following condition must be satisfied for the application of section 14 of the
Limitation Act--
a. Both the prior and subsequent proceedings are civil proceeding prosecuted by the
sameparty
b. The prior proceeding had been prosecuted with due diligence
c. The failure of the prior proceeding was on account of jurisdiction or subjects of like
nature
d. All of the above
129. Benefit under Section 14 of the Limitation Act is not available in a
37
a. Civil Proceeding
b. Criminal Proceeding
c. Civil as well as Criminal Proceeding
d. Civil, Criminal and Appellate Proceedings
130. Who is empowered under the Act to appoint a special public prosecutor for every
special court under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012?
(a) State Government
(b) Central Government
131. Under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012, an order made by
the Special Court -
(a) shall be invalid merely by subsequent proof that the age of the person so determined
by it was not the correct age
(b) shall not be deemed to be invalid merely by subsequent proof that the age of the
person so determined by it was not the correct age
(c) shall be subject to appeal
132. Under the Act, the evidence of the child shall be recorded within a period of -
(a) 60 days from the date of taking cognizance of the offence
(b) 45 days from the date of taking cognizance of the offence
(c) 15 days from the date of taking cognizance of the offence
38
133. Who among the following shall monitor the implementation of the provisions of the
Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012?
(a) The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights
(b) Magistrate of First Class
(c) State Government
134. Under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012, every report of
the offence -
(a) shall be ascribed an entry number and recorded in writing
(b) be read over to the informant
(c) shall be entered in a book to be kept by the police unit
(a) A person who, by wilful misrepresentation, or by wilful concealment of a material

fact, which he is bound to disclose, voluntarily causes or procures, or attempts to cause or
procure a thing to be done, is said to instigate the doing of that offence.
(b) Whoever, either prior to or at the time of commission of an act, does anything in order
to facilitate the commission of that act, and thereby facilitates the commission thereof, is
said to aid the doing of that act.
(c) Whoever employ, harbours, receives or transports a child, by means of threat or use of
force or other forms of coercion, abduction, fraud, deception, abuse of power or of a
position, vulnerability or the giving or receiving of payments or benefits to achieve the
consent of a person having control over another person, for the purpose of any offence
under this Act, is said to aid the doing of that act
136. Whoever attempts to commit any offence punishable under the Protection of
Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 or to cause such an offence to be committed,
39
and in such attempt, does any act towards the commission of the offence, shall be
punished with -
(a) imprisonment of any description provided for the offence, for a term which may
extend to one-half of the imprisonment for life
(b) imprisonment of any description provided for the offence, for a term which may
extend to one-half of the longest term of imprisonment provided for that offence
137. Where the Special Juvenile Police Unit or local police is satisfied that the child
against whom an offence has been committed is in need of care and protection, then, it
shall
(a) make immediate arrangement to give him such care and protection (including
admitting the child into shelter home or to the nearest hospital) within twenty-four hours
of the report, as may be prescribed
(b) report the matter to the Child Welfare Committee and the Special Court within a
period of twenty-four hours or where no Special Court has been designated, to the Court
of Session, including need of the child for care and protection and steps taken in this
regard
(a) Where a false complaint has been made or false information has been provided by a
child, he shall be subjected to simple imprisonment
(b) Whoever, not being a child, makes a false complaint or provides false information
against a child, knowing it to be false, thereby victimising such child in any of the
offences under this Act, shall be punished with imprisonment which may extend to one
year or with fine or with both.
40
(a) No child shall be detained in the police station in the night for any reason.
(b) The Magistrate or the police officer, as the case may be, shall record the statement as
spoken by the child in the presence of the police officer
(c) The Magistrate or the police officer, as the case may be, shall record the statement as
spoken by the child in the presence of the parents
(d) Both (a) and (c)
140. Under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 , a fact is said to
be proved only when the Special Court believes it to exist -
(a) beyond reasonable doubt and not merely when its existence is established by a
preponderance of probability
(b) on preponderance of probability only
(c) on presumption of law
141. What is the fee for obtaining certified copy?

a. Rs. 3 per page or fractional part thereof
b. Rs. 5 per page or fractional part thereof
c. Rs. 2 per page or fractional part thereof
d. Rs. 1 per page or fractional part thereof
142. What is the fee for filing, registering or recording notice of appointment, cessation,
change in name, address, designation of a partner or designated partner, intimation of
Designated Partner Identification Number and consent to become a partner or designated
partner in Form 4?
a. Rs 50
b. Rs 100
c. Rs. 150
d. Rs. 200
41
143. Where an auditor is unwilling to be re• appointed, he shall give a notice in writing to
that effect at the LLP’s registered office before the end of the time allowed for appointing
the new auditor, along with the statement of circumstances connected with his ceasing to
hold office:
a. not less than 28 days
b. not less than 21 days
c. not less than 14 days
d. not less than 07 days
144. Who can remove the auditors from his office?
a. The partners of the LLP may remove an auditor form office at any time by
following the procedure as laid down in the LLP Agreement.
b. Where the LLP Agreement does not provide for the removal of an auditor, consent
of all the partners shall be required for removal of the auditor form his office
c. The Registrar.
d. Both A and B are correct
145. The designated partners may appoint auditor(s), but if the designated partners fails to
appoint the auditor(s), then who will make the appointment of the auditor(s):
a. The Registrar of Co-operative Societies
b. The other partners of the LLP
c. The Registrar of Firms
d. The Registrar
146. What is the fee to paid to the Registrar for filing of the Statement of Account and
Solvency, where the contribution exceeds Rs 1 lakh but does not exceed Rs 5 lakh:
a. Rs. 200.
b. Rs. 150.
c. Rs. 100.
d. Rs 50.
147. An auditor or auditors of an LLP shall hold office in accordance with the terms of his
or their appointment and shall continue to hold such office till the period:
a. They are re-appointed
b. Only for one financial year
c. The new auditors are appointed
d. Options A and C are correct.
148. The audit of accounts of every LLP is not compulsory if its:
42
a. Turnover does not exceed in any financial year, Rs 40 lakh or whose contribution
does not exceed Rs 25 lakh
b. Turnover does not exceed, in any financial year, Rs 30 lakh, or whose contribution
c. Turnover does not exceed, in any financial year, Rs 20 lakh, or whose contribution
d. Turnover does not exceed, in any financial year, Rs 10 lakh, or whose contribution
149. What are the penal provisions for the LLP, if any LLP fails to comply with the
provisions of Section 35 which deals with the filing of the Annual Return with the
Registrar?
a. The LLP shall be punishable with fine which shall not be less than Rs 10000 but
which may extend to Rs 5 lakh.
b. The LLP shall be punishable with fine which shall not be less than Rs 15000 but
c. The LLP shall be punishable with fine which shall not be less than Rs 20000 but
d. The LLP shall be punishable with fine which shall not be less than Rs 25000 but
150. What is the periodicity of preparing the Statement of Account and Solvency by the
LLP?
a. Within a period of three months from the end of each financial year.
b. Within a period of nine months from the end of each financial year.
c. Within a period of twelve months from the end of each financial year.
d. Within a period of six months from the end of each financial year.
151. Which Landmark constitutional case is known as the Mandal Case?

(a) Indra Sawhney v. union of India
(b) Ahmed Khan v. Shah Bano Begum
(c) Hussainara khatoon v. Home Secretary, State of Bihar
(d) Mithu v. State of Punjab
43
152. In which Landmark Legal Case, the Supreme court held the Right to Legal aid as a
Fundamental Right?
(a) Sheela Barse v. Union of India
(b) Keshavnanada Bharti v. State of Kerala
(c)S.R Bommai v. Union of India
(d)T.M.A Pai v. Union of India
153. In which Landmark legal case the Supreme Court held that Parliament has the right
to amend the Fundamental Rights enshrined in the Constitution?
(a) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
(b) Minera Mills v. Union Of India
(c) Bacchan Singh v. State of Punjab
(d) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India
154. In which landmark case the Supreme Court of India held that held that the power of
judicial review vested in the High court under Article 226 and right to move the Supreme
Court under Article 32 is an integral and essential feature of the Constitution?
(a) L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India
(b) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan,
(c) Keshavnanada Bharti vs. Union Of India
(d) Sheela barse v. Union of India
155. In which landmark case the former chief of Police of a state was held guilty of
Assault or criminal force to woman with intent to outrage her modesty?
44
(a) Shri Vijay Sharma vs. Seema Mehrotra
(b)Shri K.P.S Gill vs. Rupan Deol Bajaj
(c) Shri Arvind Sharma vs Mala Sinha
(d) Shri Manu singh vs Mridula Sharma
156. Within the meaning of Copyright Act, 1957, the performer’s right shall subsist until
(a) 60 years
(b) 55 years
(c) 50 years
(d) 70 years
157. The Committee on Prevention of Corruption in India was headed by
(a) K. Santhanam
(b) M. S. Phukan
(c) A. S. Anand
(d) J. S. Verma
158. The Right to Property ceased to be a fundamental Right from
(a) 1975
(b) 1976
(c) 1978
(d) 1979
159. Which country among the following is the first country in Europe to guarantee
animal rights in its Constitution?
(a) Germany
(b) Switzerland
45
(c) Belgium
(d) Belgrade
160. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court direct the compulsory
registration of all marriages in India?
(a) Danial Latifi vs Union of India
(b) Ashok Kumar vs Union of India
(c) Seema vs Ashwini Kumar
(d) Sharda vs Dharampal
161. Who among the following was the first person to be directly appointed as the Judge
of Supreme Court?
(a) N Santosh Hegde
(b) Ghulam E Vanhavati
(c) Kuldeep Singh
(d) V.R. Krishna Iyer
162. Sharda Act deals with
(a) Widow Remarriage
(b) Child Marriage
(c) Inter-caste Marriage
(d) Polygamy
163. Which High Court has recently quashed Tamil Nadu’s law banning online
games?
(a) Bombay High Court
(b) Allahabad High Court
(c) Delhi High Court
46
(d) Madras High Court
164. Which state government recently decided that no Gorkha citizen will be
prosecuted under the Citizenship Amendment Act 1955?
(a) Manipur
(b) Sikkim
(c) Assam
(d) Nagaland
165.Under which Article of the Constitution, Post Devolution Revenue Deficit is

provided to the states of India?
(a) Article 270
(b) Article 275
(c) Article 244
(d) Article 324
166. What is the revised compensation to the kin of hit-and-run victims in case of
death?
(a) Rs 50000
(b) Rs 1 lakh
(c) Rs 2 lakh
(d) Rs 3 lakh
167.Madhabi Puri Buch has been appointed as the first woman chairperson of which
regulatory body?
(a) SEBI
(b) NABARD
(c) PFRDA
(d) IRDAI
47
168. Which of the following is correctly matched?
(a) Surajmani Stella Kujur vs. Durga Charan Hansdah – Who is a Hindu under Hindu
Marriage Act?
(b)Chanmuniya vs. Virender Kumar Singh Kushwaha – Ceremonies of Marriage under

section 7 of Hindu Marriage Act
(c) Kailash Wati vs. Ajodhia Prakash – Concept of a weekend marriage
169.In which of the following was constitutionality of Section 9 challenged?
(a) Swaraj Garg vs. K.M. Garg
(b)Saroj Rani vs. Sudarshan Kumar
(c)Asha Qureshi vs. Afaq Qureshi
(d)Balveer Singh vs. Harjeet Kaur
170. Mere plea of a Talaq would not validate the same. Talaq has to be pronounced in the
Quranic Injunction. This was laid down by the Supreme Court in -
(a)Daniel Latifi and Anr vs. U.O.I
(b)Shamim Ara vs. State of U.P.
(c)Shayara Bano vs. U.O.I.
(d)Sushil Kumar Dang vs. Prem Kumar
171. As per the Commercial Courts Act, the State Government may designate Commercial
Appellate Courts -
(a) at district judge level
(b) over the territories over which the High courts have ordinary original civil jurisdiction
48
172. Which section of the Commercial Courts Act, 2015 provides for Constitution of
Commercial Division of High Court?
(a) Section 5
(b) Section 4
(c) Section 6
(d) Section 7
(a) In all High Courts, having ordinary original civil jurisdiction, the Chief Justice of the
High Court may, by order, constitute Commercial Division having one or more Benches
consisting of a single Judge for the purpose of exercising the jurisdiction and powers
conferred on it under this Act.
(b) The Chief Justice of the High Court shall nominate such Judges of the High Court who
have experience in dealing with commercial disputes to be Judges of the Commercial
Division.
174. Which section of the Commercial Courts Act, 2015 provides for Constitution of
Commercial Appellate Division?
(a) Section 5
(b) Section 4
(c) Section 6
(d) Section 7
(a) The Chief Justice of the concerned High Court shall, by order, constitute Commercial
Appellate Division having one or more Division Benches for the purpose of exercising the
jurisdiction and powers conferred on it by the Act.
(b) The Chief Justice of the concerned High Court shall, by order nominate the judges of the
Commercial Appellate Division.
176. Who shall be nominated to be the judges of the Commercial Appellate Division?
(a) Judges of the High Court who have experience in dealing with commercial disputes
49
(b) Judges of the High Court who have experience in dealing with commercial and family
disputes
(c) Judges of the High Court
(d) Judges of the District Court
177. Which section of the Commercial Courts Act, 2015 provides for Jurisdiction of
Commercial Court?
(a) Section 5
(b) Section 4
(c) Section 6
(d) Section 7
(a) The Commercial Court shall have jurisdiction to try all suits and applications relating to
a commercial dispute of a Specified Value arising out of the entire territory of the State over
which it has been vested territorial jurisdiction.
(b) A commercial dispute shall be considered to arise out of the entire territory of the State
over which a Commercial Court has been vested jurisdiction, if the suit or application
relating to such commercial dispute has been instituted as per the provisions of sections 16
to 20 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (5 of 1908).
179. Which section of the Commercial Courts Act, 2015 provides for Jurisdiction of
Commercial Divisions of High Court?
(a) Section 5
(b) Section 4
(c) Section 6
(d) Section 7
180. Which of the following suits will be heard and disposed of by the Commercial Division
of the High Court?
(a) All suits and applications relating to commercial disputes of a Specified Value filed in a
High Court having ordinary original civil jurisdiction
(b) All suits and applications relating to commercial disputes, stipulated by an Act to lie in a
court not inferior to a District Court, and filed or pending on the original side of the High
Court
50
(c) All suits and applications transferred to the High Court by virtue of sub-section (4) of
section 22 of the Designs Act, 2000 (16 of 2000) or section 104 of the Patents Act, 1970 (39
of 1970)
DIRECTIONS: Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in
it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the
answer. If there is no error, the answer is (e) i.e. ‘No Error”, (Ignore the errors of
punctuation, if any).
181. The blast from (a)/ the explosion (b)/ knocked the factory worker (c)/ to
unconsciousness. (d)/ No Error (e)
182. Raju found it difficult (a)/ to explain (b)/ his final exam marks (c)/ to his parents.
(d)/ No Error (e)
183. My friend become (a)/terribly upset (b)/ after losing her purse (c)/ at the
supermarket. (d)/ No Error (e)
DIRECTIONS: In the following questions four words are given in each question, out of
which only one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word
184. (a) garulous (b) garrulous
(c) garullous (d) garrullous
185. (a) marquee (b) markue
(c) marquei (d) marquie
186. (a) puissant (b) puiscant
(c) puiscent (d) puissent
187. (a) disconncerting (b) disconserting
(c) discuncerting (d) disconcerting

51
188. (a) exilarate (b) exhilerate
(c) exsilarate (d) exhilarate
DIRECTIONS: In the following questions, in the given sentences, a part of the sentence
is underlined. Beneath each sentence, four different ways of phrasing the underlined part
are indicated. Choose the best alternative.
189. Although he was the most friendly of all present and different from the others, he
hadn’t hardly any friends except me.
(a) different from the others, he hardly had any friends except I
(b) different than the others, he hardly had any friends except me
(c) different than the others, he hardly had any friends except I
(d) different from the others, he hardly had any friends except me
190. Since we are living in Bombay for five years, we are reluctant to move to another
city.
(a) Being that we living
(b) Since we were living
(c) Since we have been living
(d) Being that we have been living
191. As a child, my parents took me to Jammu to visit my grandmother.
(a) When I was a child, my parents took me to Jammu to visit my grandmother
(b) My parents took me, as a child, to Jammu to visit my grandmother
(c) My parents took me to Jammu to visit my grandmother as a child.

52
(d) A child, my parents took me to Jammu to visit my grandmother
192. Anyone interested in the use of computer can learn much if you have access to a
state-of-the-art microcomputer.
(a) if he has access to
(b) if access is available to
(c) by access to
(d) from access to
193. Start the motor, and then you should remove the blocks.
(a) Start the motor, then removing the blocks
(b) Starting the motor, the blocks should then be removed
(c) Start the motor and then remove the blocks
(d) Starting the motor remove the blocks
194. Eaten in Portugal only, the Indians viewed the potato with suspicion for they
assumed it had poisonous properties since only the white skinned people consumed it.
(a) Indians viewed the potato with suspicion for they
(b) Indians were suspicious of the potato and they
(c) potato was viewed with suspicion by Indians who
(d) potato was suspicious to Indians, and it was
195. Though he was more faster than his opponent on the field, his chances of winning
the race was low as he lacked the killer instinct.
(a) Though he was more faster than his opponent on the field
53
(b) As he was more faster than his opponent on the field
(c) Though he was more fast from his opponent on the field
(d) Though he was faster than his opponent on the field
DIRECTIONS: In the following questions, each word in capital letters is followed by

four words or phrases. Choose the one which is similar in meaning to the word given in
the, capital letters.
196. ACCOUTREMENTS
(a) Relatives
(b) Companions
(c) Blemishes
(d) Belongings
197. APOLITICAL
(a) Antipolitical (b) Terrorist
(c) Not interested in politics (d) Subversive
198. AZURE
(a) Blue (b) Green
(c) Brown (d) Round and big
199. BONHOMIE
(a) Friendliness (b) Wrath
(c) Very (d) Greed
54
200. CANDOUR
(a) Enthusiasm
(b) Openness
(c) Freedom
(d) Intimacy
55

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Delhi Judicial Service Exam, 2023

Mock Test Paper 4

(a) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha

(b) The Chief Election Commissioner

(c) Prime Minster

(d) Chief Justice of India

2. Who among the following can be removed by the same procedure?

1. Judge of the Supreme Court

2. Comptroller and Auditor General of India

3. Chairman of Union Public Service Commission

4. Chairman of Finance Commission

5. Chief Election Commissioner

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2,3 and 4

(c) 3,4 and 5 (d) 1,2 and 5

4. Article 21 of the Constitution is violated if there is ______.

(a) Inordinate delay by the State in bringing an accused to trial

(b) Imprisonment of a declared insane

(c) Impounding of a citizen’s passport for an indefinite period of time

(d) All the above

(a) Preamble and Fundamental Rights

(b) Preamble and Directive Principles

(c) Fundamental Rights and Directive principles

(d) Preamble, Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles

(a) Religion, race, sex and place of birth

(b) Religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth and descent

(c) Religion, race, caste, creed, sex or place of birth

(d) Religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them

(b) Government of India and the Parliament

(c) British Airways Corporation

(d) Bhopal Barkathullah Vishwavidyalaya, Bhopal Municipal Corporation

(a) Citizen of India

(b) Citizen of India and Foreigners

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) Foreigners living in India

(a) S.P. Mittal v/s Union of India

(c) Aruna Roy v/s Union of India

(d) None of the above

(2) To safeguard Public property and to abjure violence

Select the correct answer using the code given below:-

(a) Freedom of assembly

(b) Freedom of profession, trade and occupation

(c) Freedom of speech

(d) Freedom of association

12. Disputes between States in India come to Supreme Court under –

(a) Appellate jurisdiction

(b) Original jurisdiction

(d) Review jurisdiction

(a) The Constitution (43rd Amendment) Act, 1977

(b) The Constitution (86th Amendment) Act, 2002

(c) The Constitution (70th Amendment) Act, 1992

(d) The Constitution (74th Amendment) Act, 1992

15. The quorum for meetings of the House of People constitutes:

(a) 1/10th of the total members

(b) 1/10th of the total members or 100 members whichever is less

(c) 1/3rd of the total number

(d) 100 members

16. An ex parte decree can be set aside on the ground that:

a. Summons were not duly served

b. Non-appearance of defendant as copies of documents filed with plaint were not

d. An ex parte decree cannot be set aside under any circumstances

a. At or before the settlement of issues

b. After the settlement of issues

c. At any time when they are required