Mock Test Paper 1 Final

Rajasthan Judicial Service Exam
Mock Test Paper 1
DIRECTIONS: In the following questions, the sentences have been given in Active /Passive
Voice. From the given alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the given sentence in
Passive / Active Voice.
1. They first sun-dried the garbage for one to three days to bring down the moisture level.
(a) The moisture level was brought down by sun-drying the garbage for one to three days
(b) One to three days of sun-drying brought down the moisture level of the garbage.
(c) The moisture level of the garbage came down when it was sun-dried for one to three days.
(d) The garbage was first sundried for one to three days to bring down the moisture level.
2. Women like men to flatter them.
(a) Men are liked by women to flatter them.
(b) Women like to be flattered by men.
(c) Women like that men should flatter them.
(d) Women are liked to be flattered by men.
3. What one must do, one must do properly.
(a) What must be done, must be done properly.
(b) It must be done properly what one must do.
(c) It must be done what one must do properly.
(d) One must do properly what has to be done.
4. Look at the poll results-do they inspire hope?
(a) Let the poll results be looked-is hope inspired by them?
(b) Let the poll results be looked at-has hope been inspired by them?
(c) Let the poll results be looked at-is hope being inspired by them?
(d) Let the poll results be looked at-is hope inspired by them?
5. It is your duty to make tea at eleven O’clock.
(a) You are asked to make tea at eleven O’clock.
(b) Your are required to make tea at eleven O’clock.
(c) You are supposed to make tea at eleven O’clock.
(d) Tea is to be made by you at eleven O’clock.
6. He was congratulated by his teacher on his brilliant success in the recent examination.
(a) His teacher congratulated him on his brilliant success in the recent examination.
(b) His teacher congratulated him for his success in the examination.
(c) His teacher congratulated him on his success.
(d) His teacher congratulated him.
7. People speak English all over the word.
(a) English is spoken all over the world.
(b) English was spoken all over the world.
(c) English was spoken by people.
(d) English is spoken by people.
8. Who gave you permission to enter?
(a) By whom were you given permission to enter?
(b) By whom was you given permission to enter?
(c) By whom you were given permission to enter?
(d) By whom given you permission to enter?
9. The Principal has granted him a scholarship.
(a) A scholarship has granted to him by the Principal.
(b) He has been granted a scholarship by the Principal.
(c) He has granted a scholarship by the Principal.
(d) A scholarship was granted to him by the Principal.
10. Before festivals the shops are thronged with men, women and children making various
purchases.
(a) During festivals people throng the shops
(b) Men, women and children throng the shops before festivals making various purchases.
(c) Men, women and children make purchases during festivals.
(d) The shops are thronged by people making purchases.
11. We all know that there is only one God.
(a) We are all known that there is only one God.
(b) It is known to us all that there is only one God.
(c) We have all known that there is only one God.
(d) Only one God is known by us all.
12. The people elected him Mayor.
(a) Him was elected Mayor the people.
(b) He was elected Mayor by the people.
(c) Mayor is elected by the people.
(d) He is elected by the people Mayor.
13. Don’t laugh at me.
(a) Let me be laughed at.
(b) Let me be not laughed at.
(c) I am laughed at.
(d) Let me be not laughed.
14. I saw him leaving the house.
(a) Leaving the house he was seen by me.
(b) He was seen leaving the house by me.
(c) He had been seen leaving the house.
(d) He was seen to be leaving the house.
15. Someone pulled the bull violently.
(a) The bull had been pulled violently by someone.
(b) The bull was to be pulled violently by someone.
(c) The bull had been pulled violently.
(d) The bull was pulled violently
16. The dishonour of cheque is a punishable offence under section _____ of the Negotiable
Instruments Act 1881.
(a) 140
(b) 139
(c) 138
(d) 141
17. Which of these is not an element of document?
a. Matter
b. Record
c. Object
d. Substance
18. Contract of indemnity is defined under which section?
a. Sec 125
b. Sec 124
c. Sec 127
d. Sec 126
19. Contract of indemnity is a ___________contract.
a. Conditional
b. Contingent
c. Both a and b
d. Unconditional
20. To recover the sums paid under compromise, it shall not be prudent and authorized by the
indemnifier.
a. True
b. Partly true
c. False
d. Partly False
21. The death of the surety operates, in the absence of any contract to the contrary, as a
revocation of the continuing guarantee, so far as regards -
(a) Present transactions
(b) Future transactions
(c) Past transactions
(d) All of the above
22. Which of the following are the requirements for application of section 25(2)?
(a) The promise must be in writing and signed by the debtor or his authorised agent
(b) A mere acknowledgment of debt is sufficient
(c) The promise must be given by the person to be charged therewith and not by any third
party.
(d) Both (a) and (c)
23. A wagering agreement -

(a) is void and unenforceable
(b) is not forbidden by law
(c) the object of a collateral agreement of a wagering transaction is not unlawful
24. Section 29 of the Indian Contract Act provides for -

(a) Agreements, the meaning of which is not certain are void
(b) Agreements, the meaning of which is not certain, or capable of being made certain, are
void
(c) Agreements, the meaning of which are uncertain, are voidable
(d) Agreements the meaning of which is not capable of being made certain, are void
25. Doctrine of Marshalling has been provided in which of the following sections of the T.P.
Act?
(a) Section 56 and 81

(b) Section 56 and 82
(c) Section 56, 81, 82
(d) Section 81 and 82
26. Within the meaning of provisions of Section 67 of the Transfer of Property Act, the
mortgagee’s remedies by suit are:
(a) For foreclosure

(b) For attachment
(c) For appointment of receiver
(d) All are relevant
27. A doctrine, which requires that the transferor must deliver the subsequently acquired
property to the transferee who acted upon his false representation and did harm to himself by
paying money for what he could not get it, is called:
(a) Rule against unjust enrichment

(b) Implied consent
(c) Feeding the grant by estoppel
(d) Doctrine of substantial compliance
28. Which provisions of the Specific Relief Act have not been amended by Amendment Act
of 2018?
(a) Section 10
(b) Section 16
(c) Section 20
(d) Section 26
29. Injunctions cannot be granted in a suit -
(a) in which the specific performance cannot be enforced
(b) for breach of negative contract to enforce specific performance
(c) for declaration where the plaintiff is in possession
(d) neither (a) nor (b) nor (c)
30. What is true of temporary injunction?
(a) continues until a certain specific time
(b) is permanent between the parties
(c) concludes the right

(d) cannot be granted ex-parte
31. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with examination-in-chief,
cross-examination, re-examination?
a. Section 149
b. Section 130
c. Section 137
d. Section 122
32. Provisions have been made under certain Sections of the Indian Evidence Act regarding
relevancy of certain facts.
Match the entries of List-I and List-II below and write the correct answer using the codes:
List- I
(Facts)
A. Opinion of Handwriting Expert
B. State of relevant fact by person who is dead or cannot be found
C. Previous good character in criminal cases
D. Oral admissions as to contents of documents
List-II
(Sections)
1. 22
2. 47
3. 32
4. 53
Codes:
A B C D
a. 2 3 4 1
b. 3 1 2 4
c. 1 2 4 3
d. 4 1 3 2
33. A person is seen with same bank note immediately after a theft in bank. The presumption is
a. He has stolen the money

b. He has received the stole money with required knowledge
c. Either a or b
d. None of the above.
34. “A barrister is instructed by an Attorney or Vakil that an important witness is a dacoit. This is
a reasonable ground for asking the witness whether he is a dacoit.”
This illustration is based on which Section of the Indian Evidence Act?

a. Section – 149
b. Section - 153
c. Section – 147
d. Section – 145
35. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
a. Matrimonial Communication- Section 122

b. Official communication- Section 124
c. Professional Communication – Section 126
d. Confidential Communication with legal advisers – Section 127
36. The object of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 as set out in the Preamble is
a. To define and amend the law of evidence.

b. To consolidate, define and amend the law of evidence.
c. To highlight, define and consolidate the law of evidence
d. To highlight, consolidate, define and amend the law of evidence.
37. When a number of documents are all made by one uniform process, as in the case of
printing, lithography or photography, each is -
a. Secondary evidence of the contents of the rest.

b. Primary evidence of the contents of the rest
c. Direct evidence of the contents of the rest.
d. Documentary evidence of the contents of the rest.
38. Secondary evidence includes -
a. Certified copy of a court’s judgment

b. Oral account by any person of a document who has seen it.
c. Copies prepared or compared with originals.
d. All of the above.

39. The theory of Fundamental Right implies
a. sovereignty of the people

b. equality of opportunity for all
c. limited government
d. equality of all before law
40. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion is a fundamental right classifiable

under -
a. the Right to freedom of religion

b. the Right against Exploitation
c. the Cultural and Educational Rights
d. the Right to Equality
41. Any dispute regarding the violation of Fundamental Rights can be presented
a. in the Supreme Court only

b. in the High Court only
c. either in the Supreme Court or in the High Court
d. first in the Supreme Court and then in the High Court
42. Which of the following is/are included in the Directive Principles of State Policy?
1. Prohibition of Traffic in Human beings and forced labour
2. Prohibition of consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of

other drugs which are injurious to health
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
43. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court stated that Right to freedom of
speech and expression cannot be restricted by fear of mob violence and public officials are
subject to the rule of law.
a. BK Pavitra and others v. Union of India 2019
b. Indibility Creative Pvt. Ltd and others v. Government of West Bengal and others 2019
c. D.A.V. College Trust and Management Society v. Director of Public Instructions 2019
d. Anuradha Bhasin v. Union of India 2020
44. Which judgment upheld the constitutional validity of Karnataka Extension of

Consequential Seniority to Government Servants promoted on the basis of The Reservation
Act 2018 as per Article 16(4A) of the Constitution?
a. BK Pavitra and others v. Union of India 2019
b. Indibility Creative Pvt. Ltd and others v. Government of West Bengal and others 2019
c. D.A.V. College Trust and Management Society v. Director of Public Instructions 2019
d. Anuradha Bhasin v. Union of India 2020
45. Which of the following was held in the case of Anuradha Bhasin v. Union of India 2020?
a. Supreme Court in this case held that Right to internet forms a part of freedom of speech
and expression under Article 19(1) (a) and ban of internet in the State of Jammu and Kashmir
is violative of it
b. The court also stated that an order suspending internet services indefinitely is
impermissible under the Temporary Suspension of Telecom Services (Public Emergency or
Public Service) Rules, 2017
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
46. In the case of D.A.V. College Trust and Management Society v. Director of Public
Instructions 2019, Supreme Court held that
a. non-governmental organizations substantially financed by the government whether directly
or indirectly will fall within the ambit of ‘public authority’ under section 2(h) of the Right to
Information Act, 2005
b. also schools and colleges which are substantially financed by the Government fall within
the Right to Information Act, 2005
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
47. Which of the following is true?
a. M Siddiq (d) through LRs v. Mahant Suresh Das and others 2019 case is famously known
as ‘Ayodhya case’.
b. In this case, the five judge bench of Supreme Court decided to hand over the disputed land
of 2.77 acres in Ayodhya to a trust for the construction of Ram Mandir and also under Article
142 of the Constitution ordered to give an alternate five acre tract of land to the Sunni Waqf
board to build the mosque.
c. It was held by the Court that the act of placing idols beneath the central dome of the
mosque in 1949 was declared to be an act of desecration i.e. acts of religious impurity.
d. All of the above
48. As per section 106 of Juvenile Justice Act, every State Government shall constitute a
a. Child Protection Society for the State
b. Child Protection Unit for every District
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
49. Under the Juvenile Justice Act, “Court” means
a. civil court, which has jurisdiction in matters of adoption and guardianship and may include
the District Court, Family Court and City Civil Courts
b. the Civil court
c. the District Court, Family Court and City Civil Courts
d. the Family Court
50. A, B and C, a gang of thieves compel D at gun point to steal some valuables from a
house. In doing so, D kills Z, who is the owner of the house. In this case –
(a)D is liable for murder of Z
(b) D is not liable for murder and he can avail of the defence under section 94
(c)No defence under section 94 is available to D
(d) Both (a) and (c).
51. The doctrine of transferred malice –

(a) Implies that even if the act of a person is not intended or aimed at any particular person, it
would still amount to culpable homicide or murder
(b) Is provided in section 229, section 300(4) and section 301
(c) Either (a) or (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b)
52. Which of the following would not constitute a rash and negligent act under section 304A?
(a) Doctor administering poisonous medicine to his patient without studying the effects of such
medicine
(b) A person driving the car and causing an accident of a pedestrian who suddenly crosses the
road
(c) Putting up an electrically charged copper wire around the latrine to prevent intruders
leading to death of a person
(d) None of the above
53. A and B, a married couple had a fight and husband of A gave her grievous injuries due to
which the she died. In this case, B is guilty of –
(a) Matrimonial cruelty under section 498A
(b) Dowry death
(c) Culpable homicide amounting to murder
54. Dowry under section 304B would not include –

(a) Any property given by one party at the time of marriage to another
(b) Any valuable security which is agreed to be given directly or indirectly
(c) Dower or mahar
55. The harassment of a woman to attract liability under section 498A should be –
(a)To coerce her or any other relative to meet any unlawful demand for property or valuable
security
(b) In respect of failure on part of woman or any person related to her to meet such demand
(c)Either (a) or (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b)
56. If hurt is caused to a person by a life convict offending under section 307, he may be
punished with –
(a) Imprisonment for a period of ten years
(b) Imprisonment for a period of fourteen years
(c) Death
(d) No punishment
57. A shot B from very closed quarters causing injuries on the abdomen and the left arm. A
would be held liable for the offence of –
(a)Attempt to murder under section 307
(b) Murder
(c)Culpable homicide
(d) Grievous hurt
58. Abetment of suicide is punishable with –

(a) Imprisonment for ten years or fine or both
(b) Imprisonment for ten years and fine
(c) Imprisonment for three years
(d) Imprisonment for one year
59.When any person who is or was a Judge or Magistrate or a public servant not
removable from his office save by or with the sanction of the Government is accused of
any offence alleged to have been committed by him while acting or purporting to act in the
discharge of his official duty, no Court shall take cognizance of such offence except with
the previous sanction-
(a) in the case of a person who is employed or, as the case may be,was at the time of
commission of the alleged offence employed, in connection with the affairs of the Union, of
the Central Government
(b)in the case of a person who is employed or, as the case may be, was at the time of
commission of the alleged offence employed, in connection with the affairs of a State, of
the State Government
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
60. No Court shall take cognizance of an offence punishable under Chapter XX of the
Indian Penal Code except -
(a) upon a complaint made by some person aggrieved by the offence
(b) upon a complaint made by any person
(c) upon a complaint made by the accused
(d) upon the complaint made by the husband
61.Which of the following is true?
(a) A Court shall not take cognizance of an Offence punishable section 498A of the
Indian Penal Code except upon a police report of facts which constitute such offence or
upon a complaint made by the person aggrieved by the offence or by her father, mother,
brother, sister or by her father's or mother's brother or sister or, with the leave of the Court,
by any other person related to her by blood, marriage or adoption
(b) A Court shall take cognizance of any offence punishable under section 376B of the Indian
Penal Code where the persons are in a martial relationship suomotu
62. The complaint for defamation under section 199 of the Code of Criminal Procedure shall
be made -
(a) within six months from the date on which the offence is alleged to have been committed.
(b)within three months from the date on which the offence is alleged to have been
committed
(c)within two months from the date on which the offence is alleged to have been committed
(d)within four months from the date on which the offence is alleged to have been committed
63. When an offence is tried by the High Court otherwise than under section 407, the
procedure adopted by the Court in the trial of such offence shall be that of – (a) Procedure
adopted by Metropolitan Magistrate (b) Procedure adopted by Chief Judicial Magistrate (c)
Procedure adopted by the High Court in ordinary cases (d) None of the above
64. Where two or more Courts have taken cognizance of the same offence and a question
arises as to which of them ought to inquire into or try that offence, the question shall be
decided-
(a) if the Courts are subordinate to the same High Court, by that High Court;
(b) if the Courts are not subordinate to the same High Court, by the High Court within the
local limits of whose appellate criminal jurisdiction the proceedings were first commenced
and thereupon all other proceedings in respect of that offence shall be discontinued
65. Which of the following is true about the power of the Magistrate to stop the proceedings?
(a) Proceedings can be stopped by a Magistrate of the first class or, with the previous
sanction of the Chief Judicial Magistrate, any other Judicial Magistrate
(b) The proceedings can be stopped at any stage without pronouncing any judgment
(c) Where such stoppage of proceedings is made after the evidence of the principal witnesses
has been recorded, pronounce a judgment of acquittal, and in any other case, release the
accused, and such release shall have the effect of discharge
66. When in the course of the trial of a summons-case relating to an offence punishable
with imprisonment for a term exceeding six months it appears to the Magistrate that in the
interests of justice the offence should be tried in accordance with the procedure for the
trial of warrant-cases
(a) Such Magistrate may proceed to re-hear the case in the manner provided by this Code
for the trial of warrant-cases
(b) Such Magistrate may recall an witness who may have been examined
67. A "decree" means the formal expression of an adjudication which conclusively

determines -
(a) the rights of the parties with regard to all of the matters in controversy in the suit
(b) the rights of the parties with regard to all or any of the matters in controversy in the
suit
(c) the rights of the parties with regard to any of the matters in controversy in the suit
(a) "foreign Court" means a Court situate outside India and not established or continued by
the authority of the Central Government
(b) "foreign judgment" means the judgment of a foreign Court
(d)Neither (a) nor (b)
(a) "Judge" means the presiding officer of a Civil Court
(b) "Judgment" means the statement given by the judge of the grounds of a decree or
order
(c) "Judgment-debtor" means any person against whom a decree has been passed or an
order capable of execution has been made
(a) "legal representative" means a person who in law represents the estate of a deceased
person, and includes any person who intermeddles with the estate of the deceased and
where a party sues or is sued in a representative character the person on whom the
estate devolves on the death of the party so suing or sued
(b) "movable property" includes growing crops
(c) "order" means the formal expression of any decision of a Civil Court which is not a
decree
71. "Mesne profits" of property shall not include-
(a) profits due to improvements made by the person in wrongful possession
(b) profits wrongfully received
(c) profits received from other source
(d) profits received from interests
(a) Every Court of Small Causes is subordinate to the High Court and District Court
(b) A suit in which the right to property or to an office is contested is a suit of a civil
nature
73. In order to be able to exercise the power under section 10 of the Code of Civil Procedure,
the suit may be pending in -
(a) in the same Court
(b) any other Court in India having jurisdiction to grant the relief claimed
(c) in any Court beyond the limits of India established or continued by the Central
Government and having like jurisdiction, or before the Supreme Court
74. Under section 11 of CPC, the expression "former suit" shall denote a suit
(a) which has been decided prior to the suit in question whether or not it was instituted
prior thereto.
(b) which has been decided prior to the suit in question and where it was instituted prior
thereto.
(c) which has been decided prior to the suit in question but was not instituted prior
thereto.
75. All instruments for the purpose of Limitation Act, 1963 shall be deemed to be made with
reference to
(a) Gregorian Calendar
(b) English Calendar
(c) Roman Calendar
(d) Swiss Calendar.
76. Section 30 of the Limitation Act provides for –

(a) Suits and any appeal or application for which the period of limitation is longer than that
prescribed by the Indian Limitation Act, 1908
(b) The period of limitation for suits is ninety days while that of an appeal or application
preferred or made is seven years after the commencement of the Act of 1963 or within the
period prescribed for such suits and appeal or application by the Indian Limitation Act, 1908
whichever period expires earlier

(a) The receipt of the rent or produce of such land in case where mortgaged land is in the
possession of the mortgagee, shall not be deemed to be payment under section 19
(b) Debt under section 19 includes money payable under a decree or order of a Court
78. Section 16 provides for period of limitation in respect of suits by –
(a) pauper
(b) purchaser of property at a sale
(c) insolvents
a. Revision of rent in respect of existing tenancies is provided in section 7 of the Rajasthan

Rent Control Act, 2001
b. Revision of rent in respect of new tenancies is provided in section 6 Rajasthan Rent

Control Act, 2001
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
80. Under the Sexual Harassment of women at workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and
Redressal) Act, 2013, the appropriate Government, on being satisfied that it is necessary in
the public interest or in the interest of women employees at a workplace to do so, by order in
writing,—
(a) call upon any employer or District Officer to furnish in writing such information relating
to sexual harassment as it may require
(b) authorise any officer to make inspection of the records and workplace in relation to sexual
harassment, who shall submit a report of such inspection to it within such period as may be
specified in the order
81. Which of the following is true about Custody Orders under the Protection of Women
from Domestic Violence Act, 2005?
a. The Magistrate may, grant custody order at any stage of hearing of the application
b. The Magistrate may for protection order or for any other relief under this Act grant custody
order temporary custody of any child or children to the aggrieved person or the person
making an application on her behalf
c. The Magistrate may specify, if necessary, the arrangements for visit of such child or
children by the respondent
d. All of the above
82. Under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, in addition to other
reliefs as may be granted under this Act, the Magistrate may on an application being made by
the aggrieved person, pass an order directing the respondent to pay
a. compensation and damages for the injuries
b. compensation and damages including mental torture and emotional distress, caused by the
acts of domestic violence committed by that respondent
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
83. Under section 11 of the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958, the Courts shall
a. not inflict a greater punishment than might have been inflicted by the court by which the
offender was found guilty
b. inflict a greater punishment than might have been inflicted by the court by which the
offender was found guilty
c. inflict an aggregate amount of punishment
d. None of the above
84. The Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act, 1986 has been enforced on -
(a) 2nd October, 1987
(b) 25th September, 1987
(c) 23rd December, 1986
(d) 26th September 1987
85. Under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012, which section provides
for the medical examination of the child?
(a) Section 30
(b) Section 27
(c) Section 28
(d) Section 12
86. दयानन्द में प्रयु क्त सं धि का नाम है -

(A)गु ण सं धि
(B)दीर्घ सं धि
(C)व्यं जन सं धि
(D)यण सन्धि
87. निम्नलिखित क्रियाओं में से कौन-सी क्रिया अनु करणात्मक नहीं है ?

(A)फड़फड़ाना
(B)मिमियाना
(C)झुठलाना
(D)हिनहिनाना
88. निम्नलिखित शब्दों में से कौन-सा शब्द क्रिया-विशे षण है ?

(A)सूर्योदय
(B)नीला
(C)विगत
(D)धीरे -धीरे
89. किस वाक्य में क्रिया का भाववाच्य प्रयोग है ?

(A)लड़कियों ने माँ को दे खा
(B)उससे फल नहीं खाये गये
(C) घोड़ा हिनहिनाता है
(D)यह काम तु मसे ही सं भव है
90. तु म यह काम मत करो।

(A)आज्ञावाचक
(B)निषे धवाचक
(C) प्रश्नवाचक
(D)विस्मयवाचक
91. हो सकता है राम का काम बन जाय।

(A)निषे धवाचक
(B)प्रश्नवाचक
(C) सन्दे हवाचक
(D)आज्ञावाचक
92. वाक्य के अशु द्ध भाग का चयन कीजिए:

(A) अपराधी और
(B)निरपराधी का
(C)अन्तर करना
(D)कठिन है
93. अं तर के पट खोलना का अर्थ है -

(A)प्रशं सा करना
(B)भे द खोलना
(C)विवे क से काम ले ना
(D) अपमानित करना
94. नवल सु न्दर श्याम शरीर में कौन-सा अलं कार है ?

(A)उल्ले ख
(B)उपमा
(C)रूपक
(D)अतिशयोक्ति
95. तीन बे र खाती थी वे तीन बे र खाती है में कौन-सा अलं कार है ?

(A)अनु पर् ास
(B)श्ले ष
(C)यमक
(D)अन्योक्ति
96. अब अलि रही गु लाब में , अपत कटीली डार में कौन-सा अलं कार है ?
(A)उपमा
(B)उत्प्रेक्षा
(C)अन्योक्ति
97. कबिरा सोई पीर है , जे जाने पर पीर।

जे पर पीर न जानई, सो काफिर बे पीर।।
प्रस्तु त पं क्तियों में कौन-सा अलं कार है ?
(A)यमक
(B)रूपक
(C)पु नरुक्ति
(D)श्ले ष
98. सं देसनि मधु वन-कू प भरे में कौन-सा अलं कार है ?

(A)रूपक
(B)वक् रोक्ति
(C)अन्योक्ति
99. पट-पीत मानहुं तड़ित रूचि, सु चि नौमि जनक सु तावरं में कौन-सा अलं कार है ?
(A)उपमा
(B)रूपक
(C)उत्प्रेक्षा
(D)उदाहरण
100. रहिमन जो गति दीप की, कुल कपूत गति सोय।

बारे उजियारै लगै , बढै अं धेरो होय।।
प्रस्तु त पं क्तियों में कौन-सा अलं कार है ?

(A)उपमा
(B)रूपक
(C)यमक
(D)श्ले ष
Answer Key with explanations

1. (d) The garbage was first sundried for one to three days to bring down the moisture level.
2. (b) Women like to be flattered by men.
3. (a) What must be done, must be done properly.
4. (d) Let the poll results be looked at-is hope inspired by them?
5. (c) You are supposed to make tea at eleven O’clock.
6. (a) In Voice change, one can transform the sentence from Active to Passive or Vice versa,
but can’t change the sense. That is, one can’t remove the information conveyed through the
sentence or add any additional information. That is the transformation must be done keeping
the information intact. That is the reason behind selecting (a) as the answer.
7. (a) “People speak English” can be transformed into Passive form thus-
“English is spoken by the people”
So, in Passive from, the sentence stands thus-
“English is spoken by the people all over the world.
In this type of sentence, we need not use “by the people”.
For example
People call him Mahatma. (Active)
He is called Mahatma. (Passive)
So the answer is (a).
8. (a) The Auxiliary Verb that should be used with you is were and not was. Again, as the
given sentence is an Interrogative sentence, in Passive form also, the sentence will be
Interrogative, that is inn Verb + Subject form. Keeping these two conditions in mind, if we
judge the given options we find option (a) correct.
9. (b) The transformation follows the simple rules related to the transformation of an
Assertive Sentence.
10. (b) The given sentence is in Passive form. Here subject is “the shops” and object is
“Men, women and children”.
So, a sentence where “the shops” is used as the object and “men, women and children” is
used as the Subject should be chosen as the answer. Here also, we should not miss any
information supplied in the original sentence.
11. (b) It is known to us all that there is only one God.
12. (b) He was elected Mayor by the people.
13. (b) Let me be not laughed at.
14. (b) He was seen leaving the house by me.
15. (d) The bull was pulled violently.
16. c. Section 138 of Negotiable Instrument Act –
138. Dishonour of cheque for insufficiency, etc, of funds in the account. Where any cheque
drawn by a person on an account maintained by him with a banker for payment of any
amount of money to another person from out of that account for the discharge, in whole or in
part, of any debt or other liability, is returned by the bank unpaid, either because of the
amount of money standing to the credit of that account is insufficient to honour the cheque or
that it exceeds the amount arranged to be paid from that account by an agreement made with
that bank, such person shall be deemed to have committed an offence and shall, without
prejudice to any other provisions of this Act, be punished with imprisonment for a term
which may be extended to two years , or with fine which may extend to twice the amount of
the cheque, or with both: Provided that nothing contained in this section shall apply unless-
(a) the cheque has been presented to the bank within a period of six months from the date on
which it is drawn or within the period of its validity, whichever is earlier; (b) the payee or the
holder in due course of the cheque, as the case may be, makes a demand for the payment of
the said amount of money by giving a notice in writing, to the drawer of the cheque, within
thirty days of the receipt of information by him from the bank regarding the return of the
cheque as unpaid; and (c) the drawer of such cheque fails to make the payment of the said
amount of money to the payee or, as the case may be, to the holder in due course of the
cheque, within fifteen days of the receipt of the said notice. ExplanationFor the purposes of
this section, “debt or other liability” means a legally enforceable debt or other liability.
17. c Generally, documents comprises of the following elements –
Matter, Record, Substance and Means. It does not include object.
18. b Section 124 of Contract Act –
124. "Contract of indemnity" defined. A contract by which one party promises to save the
other from loss caused to him by the contract of the promisor himself, or by the conduct of
any other person, is called a "contract of indemnity".
19. b It can be said that a contract of indemnity is a contingent contract as contingent means
conditional, something which is dependent or subject to the happening a particular event. As
from the definition it is clear that it refers to contract by which one party promises to save the
other party from loss caused to him by the conduct of the promisor himself or any other
person. As, the contract is based on the happening of a particular conduct which may be
expressed or implied thus it can be said that a contract of indemnity is a contingent contract.
That is it provides for a back up in case of happening of a particular event.
20. c RIGHT TO RECOVER SUMS PAID UNDER COMPROMISE [SECTION 125(3)]:

An indemnity-holder also has the right to recover from the indemnifier all sums which he
may have paid under the terms of any compromise of any such suit, if the compromise was
not contrary to the orders of the promisor, and was one which it would have been prudent for
the promisee to make in the absence of any contract of indemnity, or if the promisor
authorized him to compromise the suit.
21. b Section 131 of Indian Contract Act- Revocation of continuing guarantee by surety’
death.
The death of the surety operates, in the absence of any contract to the contrary, as a
revocation of ma continuing guarantee, so far as regards future transactions
22. (d) Section 25(2) of the Indian Contract Act –

25. Agreement without consideration, void, unless it is in writing and registered or is a
promise to compensate for something done or is a promise to pay a debt barred by limitation
law. An agreement made without consideration is void, unless- (1) It is expressed in writing
and registered under the law for the time being in force for the registration of documents, and
is made on account of natural love and affection between parties standing in a near relation to
each other; or unless.
(2) It is a promise to compensate, wholly or in part, a person who has already voluntarily
done something for the promisor, or something which the promisor was legally compellable
to do; or unless. (3) It is a promise, made in writing and signed by the person to be charged
therewith or by his agent generally or specially authorised in that behalf, to pay wholly or in
part debt of which the creditor might have enforced payment but for the law for the limitation
of suits. In any of these cases, such an agreement is a contract.
Explanation 1- Nothing in this section shall affect the validity, as between the donor and
donee, of any gift actually made.
Explanation 2- An agreement to which the consent of the promisor is freely given is not void
merely because the consideration is inadequate; but the inadequacy of the consideration may
be taken into account by the Court in determining the question whether the consent of the
promisor was freely given.
23. (d) It has been laid down by the Supreme Court, in Gherulal Parekh v.Mahadeo Das[xii]
that though a wager is void and unenforceable it is not forbidden by law .Hence a wagering
agreement is not unlawful under section 23 of the Contract Act and therefore the transactions
collateral to the main transaction are enforceable.
As Section 30 of the Indian Contract Act is based upon the provisions of Section 18 of the
Gaming Act, 1845, and though a wager is void and unenforceable, it is not forbidden by law
and therefore the object of a collateral agreement is not unlawful under Section 23 of the
Contract Act.
24. (b) Section 29 of the Indian Contract Act –
29. Agreements void for uncertainty. Agreements, the meaning of which is not certain, or
capable of being made certain, are void.
25. (a) Section 56 of Transfer of Property Act – Marshalling by subsequent purchaser
and Section 81- Marshalling Securities
Section 56. Marshalling by subsequent purchaser. If the owner of two or more properties
mortgages them to one person and then sells one or more of the properties to another person,
the buyer is, in the absence of a contract to the contrary, entitled to have the mortgaged-debt
satisfied out of the property or properties not sold to him, so far as the same will extend, but
not so as to prejudice the rights of the mortgagee or persons claiming under him or of any
other person who has for consideration acquired an interest in any of the properties.
Section 81. Marshalling, securities. If the owner of two or more properties mortgages them to
one person and then mortgages one or more of the properties to another person, the
subsequent mortgagee is, in the absence of a contract to the contrary, entitled to have the
prior mortgage-debt satisfied out of the property or properties not mortgaged to him, so far as
the same will extend, but not so as to prejudice the rights of the prior mortgagee or of any
other person who has for consideration acquired an interest in any of the properties.
26. (a) Section 67 of Transfer of Property Act –

67. Right to fore-closure or sale. In the absence of a contract to the contrary, the mortgagee
has, at any time after the mortgage-money has become due to him, and before a decree has
been made for the redemption of the mortgaged property, or the mortgage money has been
paid or deposited as hereinafter provided, a right to obtain from the Court a decree that the
mortgagor shall be absolutely debarred of his right to redeem the property, or a decree that
the property be sold. A suit to obtain a decree that a mortgagor shall be absolutely debarred of
his right to redeem the mortgaged property is called a suit for foreclosure. Nothing in this
section shall be deemed- (a) to authorise any mortgagee other than a mortgagee by
conditional sale or a mortgagee under an anomalous mortgage by the terms of which he is
entitled to foreclose, to institute a suit for foreclosure, or an usufructuary mortgagee as such
or a mortgagee by conditional sale as such to institute a suit for sale; or (b) to authorise a
mortgagor who holds the mortgagee’s rights as his trustee or legal representative, and who
may sue for a sale of the property, to institute a suit for foreclosure; or (c) to authorise the
mortgagee of a railway, canal, or other work in the maintenance of which the public are
interested, to institute a suit for foreclosure or sale; or (d) to authorise a person interested in
part only of the mortgage-money to institute a suit relating only to a corresponding part of the
mortgaged property, unless the mortgagees have, with the consent of the mortgagor, severed
their interests under the mortgage.
27. (c) Section 43 of Transfer of Property Act
43. Transfer by unauthorised person who subsequently acquires interest in property

transferred. Where a person fraudulently or erroneously represents that he is authorised to
transfer certain immoveable property and professes to transfer such property for
consideration, such transfer shall, at the option of the transferee, operate on any interest
which the transferor may acquire in such property at any time during which the contract of
transfer subsists. Nothing in this section shall impair the right of transferees in good faith for
consideration without notice of the existence of the said option
28. (d) Sections 10,16 and 20 of Specific Relief Act have been amended by the
Amendment Act
10. Specific performance in respect of contracts.—The specific performance of a contract

shall be enforced by the court subject to the provisions contained in sub-section (2) of section
11, section 14 and section 16.
16. Personal bars to relief.—Specific performance of a contract cannot be enforced in favour

of a person— [(a) who has obtained substituted performance of contract under section 20; or]
(b) who has become incapable of performing, or violates any essential term of, the contract
that on his part remains to be performed, or acts in fraud of the contract, or wilfully acts at
variance with, or in subversion of, the relation intended to be established by the contract; or
(c) [who fails to prove] that he has performed or has always been ready and willing to
perform the essential terms of the contract which are to be performed by him, other than
terms of the performance of which has been prevented or waived by the defendant.
Explanation.—For the purposes of clause (c),— (i) where a contract involves the payment of
money, it is not essential for the plaintiff to actually tender to the defendant or to deposit in
court any money except when so directed by the court; (ii) the plaintiff 4 [must prove]
performance of, or readiness and willingness to perform, the contract according to its true
construction.
20. Substituted performance of contract.—(1) Without prejudice to the generality of the

provisions contained in the Indian Contract Act, 1872 (9 of 1872), and, except as otherwise
agreed upon by the parties, where the contract is broken due to non-performance of promise
by any party, the party who suffers by such breach shall have the option of substituted
performance through a third party or by his own agency, and, recover the expenses and other
costs actually incurred, spent or suffered by him, from the party committing such breach. (2)
No substituted performance of contract under sub-section (1) shall be undertaken unless the
party who suffers such breach has given a notice in writing, of not less than thirty days, to the
party in breach calling upon him to perform the contract within such time as specified in the
notice, and on his refusal or failure to do so, he may get the same performed by a third party
or by his own agency: Provided that the party who suffers such breach shall not be entitled to
recover the expenses and costs under sub-section (1) unless he has got the contract performed
through a third party or by his own agency. (3) Where the party suffering breach of contract
has got the contract performed through a third party or by his own agency after giving notice
under sub-section (1), he shall not be entitled to claim relief of specific performance against
the party in breach.
(4) Nothing in this section shall prevent the party who has suffered breach of contract from
claiming compensation from the party in breach.
29. (b) Section 42 of Specific Relief Act
42. Injunction to perform negative agreement.—Notwithstanding anything contained in

clause (e) of section 41, where a contract comprises an affirmative agreement to do a certain
act, coupled with a negative agreement, express or implied, not to do a certain act, the
circumstance that the court is unable to compel specific performance of the affirmative
agreement shall not preclude it from granting an injunction to perform the negative
agreement: Provided that the plaintiff has not failed to perform the contract so far as it is
binding on him.
30. (a) Section 37 of Specific Relief Act
37. Temporary and perpetual injunctions.—(1) Temporary injunctions are such as are to
continue until a specific time, or until the further order of the court, and they maybe granted
at any stage of a suit, and are regulated by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (5 of 1908). (2)
A perpetual injunction can only be granted by the decree made at the hearing and upon the
merits of the suit; the defendant is thereby perpetually enjoined from the assertion of a right,
or from the commission of an act, which would be contrary to the rights of the plaintiff.
31. (c) Section 137 of Evidence Act

137. Examination-in-chief. –– The examination of witness by the party who calls him shall be
called his examination-in-chief. Cross-examination. –– The examination of a witness by the
adverse party shall be called his cross-examination. Re-examination. ––The examination of a
witness, subsequent to the cross-examination by the party who called him, shall be called his
re-examination.
32. (a) Indian Evidence Act -
Section 22. When oral admissions as to contents of documents are relevant. –– Oral
admissions as to the contents of a document are not relevant, unless and until the party
proposing to prove them shows that he is entitled to give secondary evidence of the contents
of such document under the rules hereinafter contained, or unless the genuineness of a
document produced is in question.
Section 32. Cases in which statement of relevant fact by person who is dead or cannot be
found, etc., is relevant. –– Statements, written or verbal, of relevant facts made by a person
who is dead, or who cannot be found, or who has become incapable of giving evidence, or
whose attendance cannot be procured without an amount of delay or expense which under the
circumstances of the case appears to the Court unreasonable, are themselves relevant facts in
the following cases: –– (1) When it relates to cause of death. –– When the statement is made
by a person as to the cause of his death, or as to any of the circumstances of the transaction
which resulted in his death, in cases in which the cause of that person’s death comes into
question. Such statements are relevant whether the person who made them was or was not, at
the time when they were made, under expectation of death, and whatever may be the nature
of the proceeding in which the cause of his death comes into question. (2) or is made in
course of business. –– When the statement was made by such person in the ordinary course of
business, and in particular when it consists of any entry or memorandum made by him in
books kept in the ordinary course of business, or in the discharge of professional duty; or of
an acknowledgement written or signed by him of the receipt of money, goods, securities or
property of any kind; or of a document used in commerce written or signed by him; or of the
date of a letter or other document usually dated, written or signed by him. (3) or against
interest of maker.–– When the statement is against the pecuniary or proprietary interest of the
person making it, or when, if true, it would expose him or would have exposed him to a
criminal prosecution or to a suit for damages. (4) or gives opinion as to public right or
custom, or matters of general interest. –– When the statement gives the opinion of any such
person, as to the existence of any public right or custom or matter of public or general
interest, of the existence of which, if it existed, he would have been likely to be aware, and
when such statement was made before any controversy as to such right, custom or matter had
arisen. (5) or relates to existence of relationship.–– When the statement relates to the
existence of any relationship 1 [by blood, marriage or adoption] between persons as to whose
relationship 1 [by blood, marriage or adoption] the person making the statement had special
means of knowledge, and when the statement was made before the question in dispute was
raised. (6) or is made in will or deed relating to family affairs.–– When the statement relates
to the existence of any relationship 1 [by blood, marriage or adoption] between persons
deceased, and is made in any will or deed relating to the affairs of the family to which any
such deceased person belonged, or in any family pedigree, or upon any tombstone, family
portrait or other thing on which such statements are usually made, and when such statement
was made before the question in dispute was raised. (7) or in document relating to transaction
mentioned in section 13, clause (a). –– When the statement is contained in any deed, will or
other document which relates to any such transaction as is mentioned in section 13, clause
(a). (8) or is made by several persons and expresses feelings relevant to matter in question. ––
When the statement was made by a number of persons, and expressed feelings or impressions
on their part relevant to the matter in question.
Section 47. Opinion as to hand-writing, when relevant. –– When the Court has to form an
opinion as to the person by whom any document was written or signed, the opinion of any
person acquainted with the handwriting of the person by whom it is supposed to be written or
signed that it was or was not written or signed by that person, is a relevant fact. Explanation.
––A person is said to be acquainted with the handwriting of another person when he has seen
that person write, or when he has received documents purporting to be written by that person
in answer to documents written by himself or under his authority and addressed to that
person, or when, in the ordinary course of business, documents purporting to be written by
that person have been habitually submitted to him.
Section 53. In criminal cases previous good character relevant. –– In criminal proceedings,
the fact that the person accused is of a good character, is relevant.
33. (c) Section 114 of Evidence Act
114. Court may presume existence of certain facts. –– The Court may presume the existence
of any fact which it thinks likely to have happened, regard being had to the common course
of natural events, human conduct and public and private business, in their relation to the facts
of the particular case.
34. (a) Section 149. Question not to be asked without reasonable grounds. –– No such
question as is referred to in section 148 ought to be asked, unless the person asking it has
reasonable grounds for thinking that the imputation which it conveys is well-founded.
Illustrations (a) A barrister is instructed by an attorney or vakil that an important witness is a
dakait. This is a reasonable ground for asking the witness whether he is a dakait.
35. (d) Section 129 of Evidence Act
129. Confidential communications with legal advisers. –– No one shall be compelled to

disclose to the Court any confidential communication which has taken place between him and
his legal professional adviser, unless he offers himself as a witness, in which case he may be
compelled to disclose any such communications as may appear to the Court necessary to be
known in order to explain any evidence which he has given, but no others.
36. (b) Preamble to Evidence Act- WHEREAS it is expedient to consolidate, define and
amend the law of Evidence
37. (b) Section 62, Explanation II of Evidence Act
62. Primary evidence. –– Explanation 2. –– Where a number of documents are all made by
one uniform process, as in the case of printing, lithography or photography, each is primary
evidence of the contents of the rest; but, where they are all copies of a common original, they
are not primary evidence of the contents of the original.
38. (d) Section 63 of Evidence Act
63. Secondary evidence. –– Secondary evidence means and includes –– (1) certified copies
given under the provisions hereinafter contained; (2) copies made from the original by
mechanical processes which in themselves insure the accuracy of the copy, and copies
compared with such copies; (3) copies made from or compared with the original; (4)
counterparts of documents as against the parties who did not execute them; (5) oral accounts
of the contents of a document given by some person who has himself seen it.
39. c The theory of the Fundamental Rights implies a limited Government. Accordingly, they impose
restrictions on the State. For example, the State cannot discriminate against citizens on grounds of
caste, class, race, sex, religion, etc. Similarly, citizens cannot be deprived of the right to equality of
opportunity in public employment.
40. d Article 15. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place
of birth. (1) The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion,
race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them. (2) No citizen shall, on grounds only of
religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them, be subject to any disability, liability,
restriction or condition with regard to- (a) access to shops, public restaurants, hotels and
places of public entertainment; or (b) the use of wells, tanks, bathing ghats, roads and places
of public resort maintained wholly or partly out of State funds or dedicated to the use of the
general public.
41. c Article 32/Article 226 to the Constitution of India
Article 32. Remedies for enforcement of rights conferred by this Part. (1) The right to move the
Supreme Court by appropriate proceedings for the enforcement of the rights conferred by this
Part is guaranteed.
Article 226. Power of High Courts to issue certain writs. (1) Notwithstanding anything in article
32 every High Court shall have power, throughout the territories in relation to which it exercises
jurisdiction, to issue to any person or authority, including in appropriate cases, any Government,
within those territories directions, orders or writs, including writs in the nature of habeas corpus,
mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari, or any of them, for the enforcement of any
of the rights conferred by Part III and for any other purpose.
42. b Article 47 to the Constitution of India –

Article 23. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour. (1) Traffic in human
beings and beggar and other similar forms of forced labour are prohibited and any
contravention of this provision shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law. (2)
Nothing in this article shall prevent the State from imposing compulsory service for public
purposes, and in imposing such service the State shall not make any discrimination on
grounds only of religion, race, caste or class or any of them.
Article 47. Duty of the State to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living and to
improve public health. The State shall regard the raising of the level of nutrition and the
standard of living of its people and the improvement of public health as among its primary
duties and, in particular, the State shall endeavour to bring about prohibition of the
consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of drugs which are
injurious to health.
43 b Indibility Creative Pvt. Ltd and others v. Government of West Bengal and others 2019 -
the Supreme Court stated that Right to freedom of speech and expression cannot be restricted
by fear of mob violence and public officials are subject to the rule of law
44 a BK Pavitra and others v. Union of India 2019 - the constitutional validity of Karnataka

Extension of Consequential Seniority to Government Servants promoted on the basis of The
Reservation Act 2018 as per Article 16(4A) of the Constitution
45. c Anuradha Bhasin v. Union of India 2020 –
a. Supreme Court in this case held that Right to internet forms a part of freedom of speech
and expression under Article 19(1) (a) and ban of internet in the State of Jammu and Kashmir
is violative of it
b. The court also stated that an order suspending internet services indefinitely is
impermissible under the Temporary Suspension of Telecom Services (Public Emergency or
Public Service) Rules, 2017
46. c In the case of D.A.V. College Trust and Management Society v. Director of Public
Instructions 2019, Supreme Court held that a. non-governmental organizations substantially
financed by the government whether directly or indirectly will fall within the ambit of ‘public
authority’ under section 2(h) of the Right to Information Act, 2005. Schools and colleges
which are substantially financed by the Government fall within the Right to Information Act,
2005
47. d M Siddiq (d) through LRs v. Mahant Suresh Das and others 2019 case is famously
known as ‘Ayodhya case’.
In this case, the five judge bench of Supreme Court decided to hand over the disputed land of
2.77 acres in Ayodhya to a trust for the construction of Ram Mandir and also under Article
142 of the Constitution ordered to give an alternate five acre tract of land to the Sunni Waqf
board to build the mosque. It was held by the Court that the act of placing idols beneath the
central dome of the mosque in 1949 was declared to be an act of desecration i.e. acts of
religious impurity.
48. c Section 106 of Juvenile Justice Act –
106. State Child Protection Society and District Child Protection Unit.—Every State
Government shall constitute a Child Protection Society for the State and Child Protection
Unit for every District, consisting of such officers and other employees as may be appointed
by that Government, to take up matters relating to children with a view to ensure the
implementation of this Act, including the establishment and maintenance of institutions under
this Act, notification of competent authorities in relation to the children and their
rehabilitation and co-ordination with various official and non-official agencies concerned and
to discharge such other functions as may be prescribed.
49. a Section 2(23) of Juvenile Justice Act –
(23) “court” means a civil court, which has jurisdiction in matters of adoption and
guardianship and may include the District Court, Family Court and City Civil Courts
50. d Section 94 of Indian Penal Code
94. Act to which a person is compelled by threats. Except murder, and offences against the
State punishable with death, nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is
compelled to do it by threats, which, at the time of doing it, reasonably cause the
apprehension that instant death to that person will otherwise be the consequence: Provided
the person doing the act did not of his own accord, or from a reasonable apprehension of
harm to himself short of instant death, place himself in the situation by which he became
subject to such constraint.
Explanation 1- A person who, of his own accord, or by reason of a threat of being beaten,
joins a gang of dacoits, knowing their character, is not entitled to the benefit of this
exception, on the ground of his having been compelled by his associates to do anything that is
an offence by law. Explanation 2- A person seized by a gang of dacoits, and forced, by threat
of instant death, to do a thing which is an offence by law; for example, a smith compelled to
take his tools and to force the door of a house for the dacoits to enter and plunder it, is
entitled to the benefit of this exception. A, B and C, a gang of thieves compel D at gun point
to steal some valuables from a house. In doing so, D kills Z, who is the owner of the house. In
this case, D is liable for murder of Z. No defence under section 94 is available to D
(e) 51. d - The doctrine of transferred malice implies that even if the act of a person is not
intended or aimed at any particular person, it would still amount to culpable homicide or
murder. Is provided in section 229, section 300(4) and section 301
52. b Section 304A of Indian Penal Code –
Section 304A. Causing death by negligence. Whoever causes the death of any person by
doing any rash or negligent act not amounting to culpable homicide, shall be punished with
imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or
with both.
Doctor administering poisonous medicine to his patient without studying the effects of such
medicine and Putting up an electrically charged copper wire around the latrine to prevent
intruders leading to death of a person are rash and negligent acts under section 304A.
53 a Section 498A –
A and B, a married couple had a fight and husband of A gave her grievous injuries due to
which the she died. In this case, B is guilty of matrimonial cruelty under section 498A.
498A. Husband or relative of husband of a woman subjecting her to cruelty. Whoever, being
the husband or the relative of the husband of a woman, subjects such woman to cruelty shall
be punished with imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years and shall also be
liable to fine. ExplanationFor the purpose of this section, "cruelty" means- (a) any wilful
conduct which is of such a nature as is likely to drive the woman to commit suicide or to
cause grave injury or danger to life, limb or health (whether mental or physical) of the
woman; or
(b) harassment of the woman where such harassment is with a view to coercing her or any
person related to her to meet any unlawful demand for any property or valuable security or is
on account of failure by her or any person related to her to meet such demand.
54 c Section 304B of Indian Penal Code –
304B. Dowry Death.
ExplanationFor the purpose of this sub-section, "dowry" shall have the same meaning as in
section 2 of the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961 (28 of 1961)
2. Definition of “dowry”.
In this Act, “dowry” means any property or valuable security given or agreed to be given
either directly or indirectly-
(a) by one party to a marriage to the other party to the marriage; or
(b) by the parents of either party to a marriage or by any other person, to either party to the
marriage or to any other person;
at or before or any time after the marriage in connection with the marriage of said parties but
does not include dower or mahr in the case of persons to whom the Muslim Personal Law
(Shariat) applies.
55 c Section 498A of Indian Penal Code –
498A. Husband or relative of husband of a woman subjecting her to cruelty. Whoever, being
the husband or the relative of the husband of a woman, subjects such woman to cruelty shall
be punished with imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years and shall also be
liable to fine. ExplanationFor the purpose of this section, "cruelty" means- (a) any wilful
conduct which is of such a nature as is likely to drive the woman to commit suicide or to
cause grave injury or danger to life, limb or health (whether mental or physical) of the
woman; or
(b) harassment of the woman where such harassment is with a view to coercing her or any
person related to her to meet any unlawful demand for any property or valuable security or is
on account of failure by her or any person related to her to meet such demand.
56 c Section 307 of Indian Penal Code –
307. Attempt to murder. Whoever does any act with such intention or knowledge, and under
such circumstances that, if he by that act caused death, he would be guilty or murder, shall be
punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to ten years,
and shall also be liable to fine; and if hurt is caused to any person by such act, the offender
shall be liable either to imprisonment for life, or to such punishment as is hereinbefore
mentioned. Attempts by life convicts- When any person offending under this section is under
sentence of imprisonment for life, he may, if hurt is caused, be punished with death.
57 a Section 307 -
307. Attempt to murder. Whoever does any act with such intention or knowledge, and under
such circumstances that, if he by that act caused death, he would be guilty or murder, shall be
punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to ten years,
and shall also be liable to fine; and if hurt is caused to any person by such act, the offender
shall be liable either to imprisonment for life, or to such punishment as is hereinbefore
mentioned. Attempts by life convicts- When any person offending under this section is under
sentence of imprisonment for life, he may, if hurt is caused, be punished with death.
A shot B from very closed quarters causing injuries on the abdomen and the left arm. A
would be held liable for the offence of Attempt to murder under section 307
58 a Section 306 of Indian Penal Code
306. Abetment of suicide. If any person commits suicide, whoever abets the commission of
such suicide, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may
extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine.
59. c Section 197 of Criminal Procedure Code -
197. Prosecution of Judges and public servants.—(1) When any person who is or was a Judge
or Magistrate or a public servant not removable from his office save by or with the sanction
of the Government is accused of any offence alleged to have been committed by him while
acting or purporting to act in the discharge of his official duty, no Court shall take cognizance
of such offence except with the previous sanction 1 [save as otherwise provided in the Lokpal
and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 (1 of 2014)]— (a) in the case of a person who is employed or, as
the case may be, was at the time of commission of the alleged offence employed, in
connection with the affairs of the Union, of the Central Government; (b) in the case of a
person who is employed or, as the case may be, was at the time of commission of the alleged
offence employed, in connection with the affairs of a State, of the State Government: 2
[Provided that where the alleged offence was committed by a person referred to in clause (b)
during the period while a Proclamation issued under clause (1) of article 356 of the
Constitution was in force in a State, clause (b) will apply as if for the expression “State
Government” occurring therein, the expression “Central Government” were substituted.] 3
[Explanation.—For the removal of doubts it is hereby declared that no sanction shall be
required in case of a public servant accused of any offence alleged to have been committed
under section 166A, section 166B, section 354, section 354A, section 354B, section 354C,
section 354D, section 370, section 375, section 376, section 376A, section 376C, section
376D or section 509 of the Indian Penal Code (45 of 1860).] (2) No Court shall take
cognizance of any offence alleged to have been committed by any member of the Armed
Forces of the Union while acting or purporting to act in the discharge of his official duty,
except with the previous sanction of the Central Government. (3) The State Government may,
by notification, direct that the provisions of sub-section (2) shall apply to such class or
category of the members of the Forces charged with the maintenance of public order as may
be specified therein, wherever they may be serving, and thereupon the provisions of that sub-
section will apply as if for the expression "Central Government" occurring therein, the
expression "State Government" were substituted. 4 [(3A) Notwithstanding anything
contained in sub-section (3), no court shall take cognizance of any offence, alleged to have
been committed by any member of the Forces charged with the maintenance of public order
in a State while acting or purporting to act in the discharge of his official duty during the
period while a Proclamation issued under clause (1) of article 356 of the Constitution was in
force therein, except with the previous sanction of the Central Government. (3B)
Notwithstanding anything to the Contrary contained in this Code or any other law, it is
hereby declared that any sanction accorded by the State Government or any cognizance taken
by a court upon such sanction, during the period commencing on the 20th day of August,
1991 and ending with the date immediately preceding the date on which the Code of Criminal
Procedure (Amendment) Act, 1991 (43 of 1991), receives the assent of the President, with
respect to an offence alleged to have been committed during the period while a Proclamation
issued under clause (1) of article 356 of the Constitution was in force in the State, shall be
invalid and it shall be competent for the Central Government in such matter to accord
sanction and for the court to take cognizance thereon.] (4) The Central Government or the
State Government, as the case may be, may determine the person by whom, the manner in
which, and the offence or offences for which, the prosecution of such Judge, Magistrate or
public servant is to be conducted, and may specify the Court before which the trial is to be
held.
60. a Section 198 of Criminal Procedure Code –
198. Prosecution for offences against marriage.—(1) No Court shall take cognizance of an
offence punishable under Chapter XX of the Indian Penal Code (45 of 1860) except upon a
complaint made by some person aggrieved by the offence: Provided that— (a) where such
person is under the age of eighteen years, or is an idiot or a lunatic, or is from sickness or
infirmity unable to make a complaint, or is a woman who, according to the local customs and
manners, ought not to be compelled to appear in public, some other person may, with the
leave of the Court, make a complaint on his or her behalf; (b) where such person is the
husband and he is serving in any of the Armed Forces of the Union under conditions which
are certified by his Commanding Officer as precluding him from obtaining leave of absence
to enable him to make a complaint in person, some other person authorised by the husband in
accordance with the provisions of sub-section (4) may make a complaint on his behalf;
(c) where the person aggrieved by an offence punishable under 1 [section 494 or section 495]
of the Indian Penal Code (45 of 1860) is the wife, complaint may be made on her behalf by
her father, mother, brother, sister, son or daughter or by her father's or mother's brother or
sister 2 [, or, with the leave of the Court, by any other person related to her by blood,
marriage or adoption]. (2) For the purposes of sub-section (1), no person other than the
husband of the woman shall be deemed to be aggrieved by any offence punishable under
section 497 or section 498 of the said Code: Provided that in the absence of the husband,
some person who had care of the woman on his behalf at the time when such offence was
committed may, with the leave of the Court, make a complaint on his behalf. (3) When in any
case falling under clause (a) of the proviso to sub-section (1), the complaint is sought to be
made on behalf of a person under the age of eighteen years or of a lunatic by a person who
has not been appointed or declared by a competent authority to be the guardian of the person
of the minor or lunatic, and the Court is satisfied that there is a guardian so appointed or
declared, the Court shall, before granting the application for leave, cause notice to be given to
such guardian and give him a reasonable opportunity of being heard. (4) The authorisation
referred to in clause (b) of the proviso to sub-section (1), shall be in writing, shall be signed
or otherwise attested by the husband, shall contain a statement to the effect that he has been
informed of the allegations upon which the complaint is to be founded, shall be countersigned
by his Commanding Officer, and shall be accompanied by a certificate signed by that Officer
to the effect that leave of absence for the purpose of making a complaint in person cannot for
the time being be granted to the husband. (5) Any document purporting to be such an
authorisation and complying with the provisions of sub-section (4), and any document
purporting to be a certificate required by that sub-section shall, unless the contrary is proved,
be presumed to be genuine and shall be received in evidence. (6) No Court shall take
cognizance of an offence under section 376 of the Indian Penal Code (45 of 1860), where
such offence consists of sexual intercourse by a man with his own wife, the wife being under
3 [eighteen years of age], if more than one year has elapsed from the date of the commission
of the offence. (7) The provisions of this section apply to the abetment of, or attempt to
commit, an offence as they apply to the offence
61. a Section 198A and 198B of Criminal Procedure Code –
Section 198A. Prosecution of offences under section 498A of the Indian Penal Code.—No
Court shall take cognizance of an offence punishable under section 498A of the Indian Penal
Code (45 of 1960) except upon a police report of facts which constitute such offence or upon
a complaint made by the person aggrieved by the offence or by her father, mother, brother,
sister or by her father’s or mother’s brother or sister or, with the leave of the Court, by any
other person related to her by blood, marriage or adoption.
Section 198B. Cognizance of offence.—No Court shall take cognizance of an offence

punishable under section 376B of the Indian Penal Code (45 of 1860) where the persons are
in a marital relationship, except upon prima facie satisfaction of the facts which constitute the
offence upon a complaint having been filed or made by the wife against the husband.
62. a Section 199 of Criminal Procedure Code –
199. Prosecution for defamation.—(1) No Court shall take cognizance of an offence

punishable under Chapter XXI of the Indian Penal Code (45 of 1860) except upon a
complaint made by some person aggrieved by the offence: Provided that where such person is
under the age of eighteen years, or is an idiot or a lunatic, or is from sickness or infirmity
unable to make a complaint, or is a woman who, according to the local customs and manners,
ought not to be compelled to appear in public, some other person may, with the leave of the
Court, make a complaint on his or her behalf. (2) Notwithstanding anything contained in this
Code, when any offence falling under Chapter XXI of the Indian Penal Code (45 of 1860) is
alleged to have been committed against a person who, at the time of such commission, is the
President of India, the Vice-President of India, the Governor of a State, the Administrator of a
Union territory or a Minister of the Union or of a State or of a Union territory, or any other
public servant employed in connection with the affairs of the Union or of a State in respect of
his conduct in the discharge of his public functions a Court of Session may take cognizance
of such offence, without the case being committed to it, upon a complaint in writing made by
the Public Prosecutor. (3) Every complaint referred to in sub-section (2) shall set forth the
facts which constitute the offence alleged, the nature of such offence and such other
particulars as are reasonably sufficient to give notice to the accused of the offence alleged to
have been committed by him. (4) No complaint under sub-section (2) shall be made by the
Public Prosecutor except with the previous sanction— (a) of the State Government, in the
case of a person who is or has been the Governor of that State or a Minister of that
Government; (b) of the State Government, in the case of any other public servant employed
in connection with the affairs of the State; (c) of the Central Government, in any other case.
(5) No Court of Session shall take cognizance of an offence under sub-section (2) unless the
complaint is made within six months from the date on which the offence is alleged to have
been committed. (6) Nothing in this section shall affect the right of the person against whom
the offence is alleged to have been committed, to make a complaint in respect of that offence
before a Magistrate having jurisdiction or the power of such Magistrate to take cognizance of
the offence upon such complaint.
63. d Section 474 of Criminal Procedure Code –
474. Trials before High Courts.—When an offence is tried by the High Court otherwise than
under section 407, it shall, in the trial of the offence, observe the same procedure as a Court
of Sessions would observe if it were trying the case
64. c Section 186 of Criminal Procedure Code –
186. High Court to decide, in case of doubt, district where inquiry or trial shall take place.—
Where two or more Courts have taken cognizance of the same offence and a question arises
as to which of them ought to inquire into or try that offence, the question shall be decided—
(a) if the Courts are subordinate to the same High Court, by that High Court; (b) if the Courts
are not subordinate to the same High Court, by the High Court within the local limits of
whose appellate criminal jurisdiction the proceedings were first commenced, and thereupon
all other proceedings in respect of that offence shall be discontinued
65. d Section 258 of Criminal Procedure Code –
258. Power to stop proceedings in certain cases.—In any summons-case instituted otherwise
than upon complaint, a Magistrate of the first class or, with the previous sanction of the Chief
Judicial Magistrate, any other Judicial Magistrate, may, for reasons to be recorded by him,
stop the proceedings at any stage without pronouncing any judgment and where such
stoppage of proceedings is made after the evidence of the principal witnesses has been
recorded, pronounce a judgment of acquittal, and in any other case, release the accused, and
such release shall have the effect of discharge.
66. c Section 259 of Criminal Procedure Code –

259. Power of Court to convert summons-cases into warrant-cases.—When in the course of
the trial of a summons-case relating to an offence punishable with imprisonment for a term
exceeding six months, it appears to the Magistrate that in the interests of justice, the offence
should be tried in accordance with the procedure for the trial of warrant-cases, such
Magistrate may proceed to re-hear the case in the manner provided by this Code for the trial
of warrant-cases and may re-call any witness who may have been examined
67. (b) Section 2(2) of Civil Procedure Code –
(2) “decree” means the formal expression of an adjudication which, so far as regards the
Court expressing it, conclusively determines the rights of the parties with regard to all or any
of the matters in controversy in the suit and may be either preliminary or final. It shall be
deemed to include the rejection of a plaint and the determination of any question within 2 ***
section 144, but shall not include— (a) any adjudication from which an appeal lies as an
appeal from an order, or (b) any order of dismissal for default. Explanation.—A decree is
preliminary when further proceedings have to be taken before the suit can be completely
disposed of. It is final when such adjudication completely disposes of the suit. It may be
partly preliminary and partly final;
68. (c) Section 2(5) and 2(6) of Civil Procedure Code –
(5) “foreign Court” means a Court situate outside India and not established or continued by
the authority of the Central Government;
(6) “foreign judgment” means the judgment of a foreign Court;
69. (d) Section 2(8), 2(9) and 2(10) of Civil Procedure Code –
(8) “Judge” means the presiding officer of a Civil Court;

(9) “judgment” means the statement given by the Judge of the grounds of a decree or order;
(10) “judgment-debtor” means any person against whom a decree has been passed or an order
capable of execution has been made;
70. (d) Section 2(11), 2(13) and 2(14) of Civil Procedure Code
(11) “legal representative” means a person who in law represents the estate of a deceased
person, and includes any person who intermeddles with the estate of the deceased and where
a party sues or is sued in a representative character the person on whom the estate devolves
on the death of the party so suing or suied;
(13) “movable property” includes growing crops;
(14) “order” means the formal expression of any decision of a Civil Court which is not a
decree;
71. (a) Section 2(12) of Civil Procedure Code –
(12) “mesne profits” of property means those profits which the person in wrongful possession
of such property actually received or might with ordinary diligence have received therefrom,
together with interest on such profits, but shall not include profits due to improvements made
by the person in wrongful possession;
72. (c) Section 3 and Explanation 1 to Section 9 of Civil Procedure Code –
3. Subordination of Courts.—For the purposes of this Code, the District Court is subordinate
to the High Court, and every Civil Court of a grade inferior to that of a District Court and
every Court of Small Causes is subordinate to the High Court and District Court.
9. Courts to try all civil suits unless barred.—The Courts shall (subject to the provisions
herein contained) have jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature excepting suits of which
their cognizance is either expressly or impliedly barred. 4 [Explanation I].—A suit in which
the right to property or to an office is contested is a suit of a civil nature, notwithstanding that
such right may depend entirely on the decision of questions as to religious rites or
ceremonies. 5 [Explanation I].—For the purposes of this section, it is immaterial whether or
not any fees are attached to the office referred to in Explanation I or whether or not such
office is attached to a particular place.]
73. (d) Section 10 to Civil Procedure Code –

Section 10. Stay of suit.—No Court shall proceed with the trial of any suit in which the
matter in issue is also directly and substantially in issue in a previously instituted suit
between the same parties, or between parties under whom they or any of them claim litigating
under the same title where such suit is pending in the same or any other Court in 6 [India]
have jurisdiction to grant the relief claimed, or in any Court beyond the limits of 6 [India]
established or continued by 7 [the Central Government 8 ***.] and having like jurisdiction, or
before 9 [the Supreme Court]. Explanation.—The pendency of a suit in a foreign Court does
not preclude the Courts in 6 [India] from trying a suit founded on the same cause of action
74. (a) Explanation 1 to Section 11 to Civil Procedure Code –
Section 11. Res judicata.—Explanation I.—The expression “former suit” shall denote a suit
which has been decided prior to a suit in question whether or not it was instituted prior
thereto.
75. a Section 24 of Limitation Act –
Section 24. Computation of time mentioned in instruments. All instruments shall for the
purposes of this Act be deemed to be made with reference to the Gregorian calendar.
76. d Section 30 of Limitation Act –
Section 30. Provision for suits, etc., for the prescribed period is shorter than the period
prescribed by the Indian Limitation Act, 1908. Notwithstanding anything contained in this
Act- (a) any suit for which the period of limitation is shorter than the period of limitation
prescribed by the Indian Limitation Act, 1908, may be instituted within a period of seven
years next after the commencement of this Act or within the period prescribed for such suit
by the Indian Limitation Act, 1908, whichever period expires earlier: Provided that if in
respect of any such suit, the said period of seven years expires earlier than the period of
limitation prescribed therefor under the Indian Limitation Act, 1908 and the said period of
seven years together with so much of the period of limitation in respect of such suit under the
Indian Limitation Act, 1908, as has already expired before the commencement of this Act is
shorter than the period prescribed for such suit under this Act, then, the suit may be instituted
within the period of limitation prescribed therefor under this Act; (b) any appeal or
application for which the period of limitation is shorter than the period of limitation
prescribed by the Indian Limitation Act, 1908, may be preferred or made within a period of
ninety days next after the commencement of this Act or within a period prescribed for such
appeal or application by the Indian Limitation Act, 1908, whichever period expires earlier.
77. d Section 19 of Limitation Act –
Section 19. Effect of payment on account of debt or of interest on legacy. Where payment on
account of a debt or of interest on a legacy is made before the expiration of the prescribed
period by the person liable to pay the debt or legacy or by his agent duly authorised in this
behalf, a fresh period of limitation shall be computed from the time when the payment was
made: Provided that, save in the case of payment of interest made before the 1st day of
January, 1928, an acknowledgement of the payment appears in the handwriting of, or in a
writing signed by, the person making the payment. ExplanationFor the purposes of this
section- (a) where mortgaged land is in the possession of the mortgagee, the receipt of the
rent or produce of such land shall be deemed to be a payment; (b) "debt" does not include
money payable under a decree or order of a court.
78. d Section 16 of Limitation Act

Section 16. Effect of death on or before the accrual of the right to sue. (1) Where a person
who would, if he were living, have a right to institute a suit or make an application dies
before the right accrues, or where a right to institute a suit or make an application accrues
only on the death of a person, the period of limitation shall be computed from the time when
there is a legal representative of the deceased capable of instituting such suit or making such
application. (2) Where a person against whom, if he were living, a right to institute a suit or
make an application would have accrued dies before the right accrues, or where a right to
institute a suit or make an application against any person accrues on the death of such person,
the period of limitation shall be computed from the time when there is a legal representative
of the deceased against whom the plaintiff may institute such suit or making such application.
(3) Nothing in sub-section (1) or sub-section (2) applies to suits to enforce rights of pre-
emption or to suits for the possession of immovable property or of a hereditary office.
79. d Section 6 and 7 of Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001 –
Section 6. Revision of rent in respect of existing tenancies. (1) Notwithstanding anything

contained in any agreement, where the premises have been let out before the commencement
of this Act, the rent thereof shall be liable to be revised according to the formula indicated
below:- (a) where the premises have been let out prior to lst January, 1950, it shall be deemed
to have been let out on lst January, 1950 and the rent payable at that time shall be liable to be
increased. at the rate of 7.5 % per annum and the amount of increase of rent shall be merged
in such rent after ten years. The amount of rent so arrived at shall again be liable to be
increased at the rate of 7.5 % per annum in similar manner upto the year of commencement
of this Act- (b) where the premises have been let out on or after lst January, 1950, the rent
payable at the time of commencement of the tenancy shall be liable to be increased at the rate
of 7.5 % per annum and the amount of increase of rent shall be merged in such rent after ten
years. The amount of rent so arrived at shall again be liable to be increased at the rate of 7.5
% per annum in similar manner upto the year of commencement of this ActIllustration :- If
the rent was Rs. 100 per month on 1st January, 1950, it shall become Rs. 175/- per month on
lst January, 1960. It shall become Rs. 306.30 per month on 1st January, 1970 and Rs. 536.30
per month on 1st January, 1980. (2) Notwithstanding anything contained in subsection (1),
where the period of ten years for merger of increase of rent under sub-section (1) is not-
completed upto the year of the commencement of this Act, the rent at the rate of 7.5 % per
annum shall be increased upto the year of the commencement of this Act and the amount of
increase of rent shall be merged in rent. (3) The rent arrived at according to the formula given
in sub-sections (1) and (2) shall, after completion of each year from the year of
commencement of this Act, again be liable to be increased and paid at the rate of 5 % per
annum and the amount of increase of rent shall be merged in such rent after ten years. Such
rent shall further be liable to be increased at similar rate and merged in similar manner till the
tenancy subsists. (4) The rent revised as per formula given under subsection (1) or sub-
section (2) shall be payable, after the commencement of this Act, from the date agreed upon
between the landlord and the tenant or where any petition is filed in a Rent Tribunal, from the
date of filing of such petition.
Section 7. Revision of rent in respect of new tenancies.- (1) In the absence of any agreement
to the contrary, the rent of the premises let out after the commencement of this Act shall be
liable to be increased at the rate of 5 % per annum and the amount of increase of rent shall be
merged in such rent after ten years. Such rent shall further be liable to be increased at the
similar rate and merged in similar manner till the tenancy subsists. (2) Any agreement for
increase of rent in excess of 5% per annum shall be void to that extent.
80. c. Section 25 of the Sexual Harassment of women at workplace (Prevention, Prohibition

and Redressal) Act, 2013 - Power to call for information and inspection of records.—(1) The
appropriate Government, on being satisfied that it is necessary in the public interest or in the
interest of women employees at a workplace to do so, by order in writing,—
(a) call upon any employer or District Officer to furnish in writing such information relating
to sexual harassment as it may require;
(b) authorise any officer to make inspection of the records and workplace in relation to sexual
harassment, who shall submit a report of such inspection to it within such period as may be
specified in the order.
(2) Every employer and District Officer shall produce on demand before the officer making
the inspection all information, records and other documents in his custody having a bearing
on the subject matter of such inspection.
81. d Section 21 of Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 –
21. Custody orders.—Notwithstanding anything contained in any other law for the time being
in force, the Magistrate may, at any stage of hearing of the application for protection order or
for any other relief under this Act grant temporary custody of any child or children to the
aggrieved person or the person making an application on her behalf and specify, if necessary,
the arrangements for visit of such child or children by the respondent: Provided that if the
Magistrate is of the opinion that any visit of the respondent may be harmful to the interests of
the child or children, the Magistrate shall refuse to allow such visit.
82. c. Section 22 of Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 –
22. Compensation orders.—In addition to other reliefs as may be granted under this Act, the
Magistrate may on an application being made by the aggrieved person, pass an order
directing the respondent to pay compensation and damages for the injuries, including mental
torture and emotional distress, caused by the acts of domestic violence committed by that
respondent.
83. a Proviso to section 11 of the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958 –

11. Courts competent to make order under the Act, appeal and revision and powers of courts
in appeal and revision. –
(1) Notwithstanding anything contained in the Code or any other law, an order under this Act,
may be made by any court empowered to try and sentence the offender to imprisonment and
also by the High Court or any other court when the case comes before it on appeal or in
revision. (2) Notwithstanding anything contained in the Code, where an order under section 3
or section 4 is made by any court trying the offender (other than a High Court), an appeal
shall lie to the court to which appeals ordinarily lie from the sentences of the former court. (3)
In any case where any person under twenty-one years of age is found guilty of having
committed an offence and the court by which he is found guilty declines to deal with him
under section 3 or section 4, and passes against him any sentence of imprisonment with or
without fine from which no appeal lies or is preferred, then, notwithstanding anything
contained in the Code or any other law, the court to which appeals ordinarily lie from the
sentences of the former court may, either of its own motion or on an application made to it by
the convicted person or the probation officer, call for and examine the record of the case and
pass such order thereon as it thinks fit. (4) When an order has been made under section 3 or
section 4 in respect of an offender, the Appellate Court or the High Court in the exercise of
its power of revision may set aside such order and in lieu thereof pass sentence on such
offender according to law:
Provided that the Appellate Court or the High Court in revision shall not inflict a
greater punishment than might have been inflicted by the court by which the offender
was found guilty.
84. (a) The Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act, 1986 has been enforced on
2nd October, 1987, vide notification No G.S.R. 821(E), dated 25th September, 1987, see
Gazette of India, Extraordinary, Part II, sec. 3(i).
85.(b) Section 27 of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 - Medical
examination of a child.
Section 27. Medical examination of a child.—(1) The medical examination of a child in

respect of whom any offence has been committed under this Act, shall, notwithstanding that a
First Information Report or complaint has not been registered for the offences under this Act,
be conducted in accordance with section 164A of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of
1973). (2) In case the victim is a girl child, the medical examination shall be conducted by a
woman doctor. (3) The medical examination shall be conducted in the presence of the parent
of the child or any other person in whom the child reposes trust or confidence. (4) Where, in
case the parent of the child or other person referred to in sub-section (3) cannot be present,
for any reason, during the medical examination of the child, the medical examination shall be
conducted in the presence of a woman nominated by the head of the medical institution.
86. b
87. c
88. d
89. b
90. b
91 c
92. b
93. c
94. a
95 c
96 c
97 a
98 d
99 a
100 d

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Rajasthan Judicial Service Exam

Mock Test Paper 1

17. Which of these is not an element of document?

18. Contract of indemnity is defined under which section?

19. Contract of indemnity is a ___________contract.

(a) Present transactions

(b) Future transactions

(c) Past transactions

(d) All of the above

23. A wagering agreement -

24. Section 29 of the Indian Contract Act provides for -

(a) Section 56 and 81

(a) For foreclosure

(a) Rule against unjust enrichment

29. Injunctions cannot be granted in a suit -

(a) in which the specific performance cannot be enforced

(b) for breach of negative contract to enforce specific performance

(c) for declaration where the plaintiff is in possession

(d) neither (a) nor (b) nor (c)

30. What is true of temporary injunction?

(a) continues until a certain specific time

(b) is permanent between the parties

(c) concludes the right

a. He has stolen the money

This illustration is based on which Section of the Indian Evidence Act?

35. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

a. Matrimonial Communication- Section 122

a. To define and amend the law of evidence.

a. Secondary evidence of the contents of the rest.

38. Secondary evidence includes -

a. Certified copy of a court’s judgment

d. All of the above.

a. sovereignty of the people

40. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion is a fundamental right classifiable

a. the Right to freedom of religion

a. in the Supreme Court only

1. Prohibition of Traffic in Human beings and forced labour

2. Prohibition of consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of

44. Which judgment upheld the constitutional validity of Karnataka Extension of

a. Child Protection Society for the State

b. Child Protection Unit for every District

49. Under the Juvenile Justice Act, “Court” means

b. the Civil court

c. the District Court, Family Court and City Civil Courts

d. the Family Court

(c)No defence under section 94 is available to D

(d) Both (a) and (c).

51. The doctrine of transferred malice –

(c) Either (a) or (b)

(d) Both (a) and (b)

(d) None of the above

(b) Dowry death

(c) Culpable homicide amounting to murder

(d) None of the above

54. Dowry under section 304B would not include –

(b) Any valuable security which is agreed to be given directly or indirectly

(c) Dower or mahar

(d) None of the above

(c)Either (a) or (b)

(d) Both (a) and (b)

(b) Imprisonment for a period of fourteen years

(d) Grievous hurt

58. Abetment of suicide is punishable with –