Special Acts For Up Judicial Service Examination

Rahul’s a blu e pr int of success
PRACTICE QUESTIONS FOR SPECIAL ACTS
THE DOWRY PROHIBITION ACT, 1961
1. Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961, received the President’s assent on

(A) 01.02.1961
(B) 20.05.1961
(C) 01.07.1961
(D) 20.06.1961
2. Which of the following does not fall under the ambit of dowry as per the Dowry
Prohibition Act, 1961?
(A) movable property
(B) immovable property
(C) valuable security
(D) none of the above
3. The expression valuable security used in the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961 has the
same meaning as in
(A) Section 28 of IPC
(B) Section 29 of IPC
(C) Section 30 of IPC
(D) Explanation I to Section 2 of the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961
4. Which of the following does not fall under the ambit of expression ‘dowry’ for the
purpose of the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961?
(A) mahr
(B) dower
(C) both (A) and (B)
(D) neither (A) nor (B)
5. Which of the following is not an object of the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961?
(A) prohibit giving of dowry
(B) prohibit taking of dowry
(C) penalise demanding of dowry
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6. Any person who gives or takes or abets the giving or taking of dowry shall be
liable for
(A) imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than five years and fine
which shall not be less than Rs. 15000/-
(B) imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than three years and fine
(C) imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than two years and fine
(D) imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than one year and fine
7. According to the proviso to sub-section 2(b) to section 3 of the Dowry Prohibition
Act, 1961, when customary presents are given by or on behalf of the bride then whose
financial status is to be taken into consideration
(A) to whom customary presents are given
(B) by whom or on whose behalf such customary gifts are given
8. An agreement for the giving or taking of dowry shall be
(A) void
(B) voidable
(C) unlawful
(D) valid
9. In which year provisions as to ban on advertisement of any offer of share in
property or in business as consideration of marriage was inserted to the Dowry
Prohibition Act, 1961?
(A) 1983
(B) 1986
(C) 2002
(D) 2005
10. Which of the following has been conferred with power to make rules for carrying
out the purposes of the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961?
(A) High Court
(B) Central Government
(C) State Government
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(D) Both (B) and (C)
11. Which of the following provision of the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961, deals with
Dowry Prohibition Officer?
(A) Section 8
(B) Section 8A
(C) Section 8B
(D) Section 9
12. Under the provisions of the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961, the burden of proof that
one has not taken or abetted the taking of dowry is upon
(A) prosecution
(B) the person who contend that he had not omitted an offence under section 3
(C) victim
13. Every offence under the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961, shall be
(A) non-bailable and non-copoundable
(B) bailable
(C) Compoundable
(D) bailable and compoundable
14. No Court inferior to the following shall try any offence under the Dowry Prohibition
Act, 1961?
(A) Judicial Magistrate of Second Class
(B) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(C) Court of Sessions
(D) Judicial Magistrate of First Class
15. Any person who demands directly or indirectly any dowry shall be liable for
(A) imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than six months but which
may extend to three years and fine which may extend to Rs. 5000/-.
(B) imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than six months but which
may extend to five years and fine which may extend to Rs. 3000/-.
(C) imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than six months but which
may extend to two years and fine which may extend to Rs. 10000/-.
(D) imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than one month but which
may extend to one year and fine which may extend to Rs. 15000/-.
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16. Which provision of the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961, provides penalty for
demanding dowry?
(A) Section 3
(B) Section 4
(C) Section 5
(D) Section 6
17. Section 6 of the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961, deals with
(A) ban on advertisement
(B) penalty for demanding dowry
(C) dowry to be for the benefit of the wife or her heirs
(D) cognizance of offence
18. The limitation period during which the dowry was received by any person when
the woman was minor, shall be transferred to the woman
(A) within one month after she has attained the age of 18 years
(B) within two months after she has attained the age of 21 years
(C) within three months after she had attained the age of 18 years
(D) within six months after she had attained the age of 21 years
19. Where a woman dies within seven years of her marriage, otherwise than due to
natural causes and she has no children then her property (dowry) shall be transferred to
her
(A) parents
(B) legal heir
(C) legal heir of her husband
(D) husband
20. Which of the following provision of the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961, is a
contentious provision as it support the idea of child marriage?
(A) Section 6(a)
(B) Section 6(b)
(C) Section 6(c)
21. The court shall take cognizance upon
(A) its own knowledge
(B) a police report of the facts which constitute such offence
(C) a complaint by aggrieved person
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(D) all of the above
22. The word ‘dowry under the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961, includes
(A) presents given on birth of grand-son by his maternal grandparents
(B) dower paid by Muslim husband to his wife
(C) agreement to give car for marriage of bride’s sister with groom’s brother
23. Presents which are given at the time of marriage to the bride without any demand
having been made in that behalf provided that such presents are entered in a list
maintained in accordance with the rules made under the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961.
Such presents fall under the definition of dowry under the provision of the Dowry
Prohibition Act, 1961.
(A) False
(B) True
(C) partly true
24. The provision of making list of presents received at the time of marriage is
(A) discretionary for bride and bridegroom
(B) mandatory for bride and bridegroom
(C) mandatory for the father of the bridegroom only
25. Where the paternal uncle of bridegroom demands dowry from maternal uncle of
the bride. Such paternal uncle shall be liable under
(A) Section 3
(B) Section 4
(C) Section 5
(D) none of the above as he has not committed any offence
26. When any dowry is received by any person other than woman in connection with
whose marriage it is given, that person shall transfer it to the woman, if the dowry was
received before marriage, within
(A) one year after the date of marriage
(B) nine months after the date of marriage
(C) six months after the date of marriage
(D) three months after the date of marriage
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27. Advisory Board for the purpose of advising and assisting the Dowry Prohibition
Officer shall consists of
(A) not more than 10 social welfare workers
(B) not more than 7 social welfare workers
(C) not more than 5 social welfare workers
(D) not more than 3 social welfare workers
28. The Advisory Board shall consist at least
(A) two women
(B) three women
(C) four women
(D) five women
29. Which of the following provision(s) of the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961, is/are
related to rule making power?
(A) Section 9
(B) Section 10
(D) Section 11 and Section 12
30. In which of the following case the Hon’ble Court observed that the customary gifts
or payment in connection with the birth of child or other ceremonies unrelated to
marriage does not fall within the ambit of dowry?
(A) State of A.P V Raj Gopal Asawa
(B) Hakam Singh V State of Punjab
(C) Arjun Dhondiba Kamle V State of Maharashtra
(D) Satvir Singh V State of Punjab
ANSWER KEY
6
THE DOWRY PROHIBITION ACT, 1961
Q. No. Answer Q. No. Answer

1. B 16. B
2. D 17. D
3. C 18. C
4. C 19. A
5. D 20. C
6 A 21. D
7. B 22. C
8. A 23. A
9. B 24. B
10. D 25. B
11. C 26. D
12. B 27. C
13. A 28. A
14. D 29. C
15. C 30. D
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Rahul’s a blu e pri nt of success
PROTECTION OF CHILDREN FROM SEXUAL OFFENCES ACT, 2012
Total Questions: 30
Maximum Marks: 30
Duration:
Date: /2023
Negative marking: 0.25 marks per question
1. The Protection of Children from Sexual offences (Amendment) Act, 2019 came
into force with effect from:
(A) 05th August 2019
(B) 16th August 2019
(C) 14th November 2019
(D) 01st January 2020
2. India ratified to the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child in
(A) 1945
(B) 1950
(C) 1972
(D) 1992
3. For the purpose of the Protection of Children from Sexual offences Act, 2012, a
child means any person below the age of
(A) Eighteen years
(B) Twelve years
(C) Sixteen years
(D) Seven years
4. Which provision of the Protection of Children from Sexual offences Act, 2012,
deals with confidentiality of the victim’s identity:
(A) Section 21
(B) Section 23
(C) Section 25
(D) Section 29
5. Select the statement which is not TRUE
(A) The police officer while recording the statement of the child shall be in
uniform.
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(B) According to section 32 a person shall be eligible to be appointed as
Special Public Prosecutor if had been in practice for not less than ten years as an
advocate.
(C) The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 contains 48
sections under IX chapters.
6. In which of the following case it was observed that the Courts should always take
into consideration the fact that false charges of rape or sexual assault are common and
the parents in order to take revenge convince their minor daughters to tell lies and
concoct stories.
(A) Dinesh Kumar Maurya V State of U.P
(B) Bijoy V State of West Bengal
(C) M. Khanna V State
(D) Pintu V State of U.P
7. Which provision of the Protection of Children from Sexual offences Act, 2012,
deals with term ‘sexual assault’
(A) section 2(g)
(B) section 2(h)
(C) section 2(i)
(D) section 2(j)
8. The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012, came into force with
effect from
(A) 19.06.2012
(B) 01.07.2012
(C) 16.08.2012
(D) 14.11.2012
9. Which of the following term was inserted to section 2 of the POCSO by Act 25 of
2019?
(A) religious institution
(B) child pornography
(C) aggravated sexual assault
(D) armed forces or security forces
10. Which chapter of the POCSO Act, 2012, deals with procedure for reporting of
cases?
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(A) Chapter III
(B) Chapter IV
(C) Chapter V
(D) Chapter VI
11. Aggravated sexual assault has the same meaning as assigned to it in
(A) Section 7
(B) Section 9
(C) Section 11
(D) Section 13
12. What is the punishment for penetrative sexual assault?
(A) imprisonment of either description which shall not be less than ten years
but which may extend to imprisonment for life and shall also be liable to fine.
(B) imprisonment of either description which shall not be less than five years
but which may extend to seven years or fine or both.
(C) imprisonment of either description which shall not be less than seven years
but which may extend to ten years and shall also be liable to fine.
(D) imprisonment for life and shall also be liable to fine.
13. Which of the following falls under the category of aggravated penetrative sexual
assault?
Whoever commits penetrative sexual assault on a child below
(A) 18 years of age
(B) 16 years of age
(C) 12 years of age
14. Section 7 of POCSO Act, 2012, deals with
(A) Aggravated Sexual Assault
(B) Sexual assault
(C) Sexual harassment
(D) punishment for sexual assault
15. As per POCSO Act, 2012, punishment for sexual harassment is
(A) imprisonment of either description for a term which shall not be less than
five years but which may extend to seven years and shall also be liable to fine.
(B) imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to three
years and shall also be liable to fine.
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(C) imprisonment of either description for a term which shall not be less than
three years but which may extend to five years and shall also be liable to fine.
(D) rigorous imprisonment which may extend to five years or fine or both
16. Which of the following provides that an act or offence is said to be committed in
consequence of abetment, when it is committed in consequence of the instigation or in
pursuance of the conspiracy or with the aid which constitutes the abetment?
(A) Explanation I to Section 16
(B) Explanation II to Section 16
(C) Explanation III to Section 16
(D) Explanation to Section 17
17. The information as to commission of an offence under POCSO Act, 2012, shall be
provided to
(A) the District Magistrate
(B) the Special Juvenile Police Unit
(C) the local police
(D) either (B) or (C)
18. What is the time limit within which the Special Juvenile Police Unit or local police
shall report the matter to the Child Welfare Committee and the Special Court?
(A) 24 hours
(B) 48 hours
(C) 7 days
(D) 10 days
19. The statement of the child by police officer is being recorded
(A) at his residence
(B) at a place where he usually resides
(C) at the place of his choice
(D) either (A) or (B) or (C)
20. The medical examination of a child in respect of whom any offence has been
committed under POCSO Act, 2012, be conducted in accordance with
(A) Section 53 of CrPC
(B) Section 53A of CrPC
(C) Section 164A of CrPC
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21. For the purpose of section 30 of POCSO Act, 2012, ‘culpable mental state’ does
not include
(A) motive
(B) intention
(C) reason to believe a fact
22. What is the time period within which the Special Court shall complete the trial from
the date of taking cognizance of the offence?
(A) three months
(B) six months
(C) one year
(D) two years
23. Select the statement which is not TRUE
A Special Court may take cognizance of any offence under POCSO Act, 2012
(A) only when the accused being committed to it for trial
(B) upon receiving complaints of facts
(C) upon a police report
24. For the purpose of trial of any offence under POCSO Act, 2012, a Special Court
shall have all the powers of a
(A) Court of Judicial Magistrate First Class
(B) Court of Chief Judicial Magistrate
(C) Court of Sessions
25. Which provision of the POCSO Act, 2012, provides that trials to be conducted in
camera
(A) Section 38
(B) Section 37
(C) Section 36
(D) Section 35
26. Which of the following shall prepare the guidelines for use of non-governmental
organisation, professionals and experts or persons having knowledge of psychology,
social work, physical health, mental health and child development to be associated with
the pre-trial and trial stage to assist the child?
12
(A) State Government
(C) High Court
(D) Ministry of Child and Women Development
27. If any question arises in any proceeding before the Special Court whether a
person is a child or not, such question shall be determined by the
(A) High Court
(B) District Magistrate
(C) Special Court
(D) State Government
28. What is the punishment for aggravated penetrative sexual assault?
(A) rigorous imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than twenty years
but which may extend to imprisonment for life and shall also be liable to fine or
with death
(B) imprisonment of either description for a term which shall not be less than
ten years but which may extend to imprisonment for life and shall also be liable to
fine.
(C) imprisonment of either description for a term which shall not be less than
seven years but which may extend to imprisonment for life and shall also be liable
to fine.
(D) rigorous imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than ten years but
which may extend to imprisonment for life and shall also be liable to fine.
29. Match the following
(a) Reporting of offences 1. Section 27
(b) Medical examination of child 2. Section 19
(c) Designation of Special Courts 3. Section 42
(d) Alternate punishment 4. Section 28
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 2 1 4 3
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30. The evidence of the child shall be recorded within how many days of the Special
Court taking cognizance of the offence?
(A) 30 days
(B) 60 days
(C) 90 days
(D) 21 days
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EXPLANATION TO THE OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS OF
PROTECTION OF CHILDREN FROM SEXUAL OFFENCES ACT, 2012
Q. No. Answer Explanation

1. B The Protection of Children from Sexual offences (Amendment) Act,
2019 came into force with effect from 16th August 2019.
2. D India has acceded on 11th December 1992 to the UN Convention on
the Rights of the Child.
3. A According to section 2(d) of the Protection of Children from Sexual
offences Act, 2012, child means any person below the age of eighteen
years.
4. B Section 23 (2) of the Protection of Children from Sexual offences Act,
2012, deals with confidentiality of the victim’s identity.
5. D As per section 24 (2), the police officer while recording the statement
of the child shall not be in uniform.
Section 32(2) provides that a person shall be eligible to be appointed
as a Special Public Prosecutor only if he had been in practice for not
less than seven years as an advocate.
The POCSO contains IX chapters and 46 sections.
6 A In Dinesh Kumar Maurya V State of U.P, it was observed by the
Hon’ble Allahabad High Court that Courts should always take into
consideration the fact that false charges of rape or sexual assault are
common and the parents in order to take revenge convince their minor
daughters to tell lies and concoct stories.
7. C Section 2(i) of the Protection of Children from Sexual offences Act,
2012, deals with term ‘sexual assault’.
8. D The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012, came into
force with effect from 14th November 2012.
9. B The term ‘child pornography’ was inserted to section 2 of the POCSO
by Act 25 of 2019.
10. C Chapter V of the POCSO Act, 2012, deals with procedure for reporting
of cases.
11. B According to section 2(b) of POCSO Act, 2012, aggravated sexual
assault has the same meaning as assigned to it in section 9.
12. A As per section 4 of POCSO Act, 2012, whoever commits penetrative

sexual assault shall be punished with imprisonment of either
description which shall not be less than ten years but which may
extend to imprisonment for life and shall also be liable to fine.
13. C As per section 5(m) of POCSO Act, whoever commits penetrative
sexual assault on a child below twelve years of age is said to commit
aggravated penetrative sexual assault.
14. B Section 7 of POCSO Act, 2012, deals with sexual assault.
15. B Section 12 provides that whoever, commits sexual harassment upon a
child shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a
term which may extend to three years and shall also be liable to fine.
16. D Explanation to Section 17 provides that an act or offence is said to be
15
committed in consequence of abetment, when it is committed in
consequence of the instigation or in pursuance of the conspiracy or
with the aid which constitutes the abetment.
17. D The information as to commission of offence under POSCO Act, 2012,
shall be provided to the Special Juvenile Police Unit or the local police
as per sub section (1) to section 19.
18. A The Special Juvenile Police Unit or local police shall without
unnecessary delay but within a period of twenty four hours, report the
matter to the Child Welfare Committee and the Special Court.
19. D The statement of the child by police officer is being recorded at the
resident of the child or at a place where he usually resides or at the
place of his choice according to section 24(1) of POCSO Act, 2012.
20. C The medical examination of a child in respect of whom any offence
has been committed under POCSO Act, 2012, be conducted in
accordance with Section 164A of CrPC.
21. D Explanation to section 30 provides that ‘culpable mental state’
includes intention, motive, knowledge of a fact and the belief in or
reason to believe a fact.
22. C As per section 35(2) of POCSO Act, 2012, the Special Court shall
complete the trial as far as possible within a period of year from the
date of taking cognizance of the offence.
23. A Section 33 (1) provides that a Special Court may take cognizance of
any offence, without the accused being committed to it for trial, upon
receiving a complaint of facts which constitute such offence or upon a
police report of such facts.
24. C For the purpose of trial of any offence under POCSO Act, 2012, a
Special Court shall have all the powers of a Court of Session
according to sub section (9) to section 33
25. B Section 35 provides that the trials to be conducted in camera.
26. A State Government shall prepare the guidelines for use of non-
governmental organisation, professionals and experts or persons
having knowledge of psychology, social work, physical health, mental
health and child development to be associated with the pre-trial and
trial stage to assist the child.
27. C If any question arises in any proceeding before the Special Court
whether a person is a child or not, such question shall be determined
by the Special Court.
28. A Punishment for aggravated penetrative sexual assault is rigorous
imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than twenty years but
which may extend to imprisonment for life and shall also be liable to
fine or with death.
29. D (a) Reporting of offences 1. Section 19
(b) Medical examination of child 2. Section 27
(c) Designation of Special Courts 3. Section 28
(d) Alternate punishment 4. Section 42
30. A As per section 35 (1) the evidence of the child shall be recorded within
thirty days of the Special Court taking cognizance of the offence.
16
PROTECTION OF WOMEN FROM DOMESTIC VIOLENCE ACT, 2005
Total Questions: 30
Maximum Marks: 30
Duration:
Date: /2023
1. The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, came into force with
effect from:
(A) 13.09.2005
(B) 26.10.2006
(C) 01.04.2006
(D) 15.03.2005
2. For the purpose of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005,
the term ‘child’ does not include
(A) adopted child
(B) step child
(C) foster child
3. The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, consists of
(A) 5 chapters and 37 sections
(B) 6 chapters and 47 sections
(C) 4 chapters and 34 sections
(D) 5 chapters and 27 sections
4. In which of the following case the Hon’ble Supreme Court held that ‘respondent’
includes the term ‘female relative’ under section 2(q) of The Protection of Women from
Domestic Violence Act, 2005
(A) D Velusamy V D Patchaiammal
(B) Sandhya Manoj Wankhade V Manoj Bhimrao Wankhade
(C) Inder Raj Malik V Sunita Malik
(D) Lalita Toppo V State of Jharkhand
5. Which of the following provision of The Protection of Women from Domestic
Violence Act, 2005, defines the term ‘domestic relationship’
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(A) Section 2(d)
(B) Section 2(e)
(C) Section 2(f)
(D) Section 2(k)
6. The term ‘physical abuse’ has been defined under
(A) Section 2
(B) Section 3
(C) Section 4
(D) Section 5
7. Section 8 of The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, deals
with
(A) Duties of shelter home
(B) Duties of medical facilities
(C) Service providers
(D) Appointment of Protection Officers
8. For the purpose of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005,
the term ‘Magistrate’ means
(A) District Magistrate
(B) Executive Magistrate
(C) Judicial Magistrate of First Class or Metropolitan Magistrate
9. The Protection Officer shall be appointed by the
(C) District Magistrate
(D) High Court
10. Who among the following may present an application to the Magistrate seeking
relief under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005?
(A) an aggrieved person
(B) Protection Officer
(C) any person on behalf of aggrieved person
(D) any of the above
11. The Protection Officer shall be under the control and supervision of the
(A) Magistrate
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(C) District Legal Services Authority
(D) High Court
12. The Magistrate shall endeavour to dispose of every application made under
section 12 (1) of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, within a
period of
(A) 30 days
(B) 45 days
(C) 60 days
(D) 90 days
13. Which provision of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005,
provides that proceedings may be conducted in camera
(A) Section 12
(B) Section 16
(C) Section 18
(D) Section 21
14. A notice of hearing fixed under section 12 shall be given by the Magistrate to the
(A) Respondent
(B) Police Officer
(C) Officer of Court
(D) Protection Officer
15. When the Magistrate has issued any direction for counselling under section 14(1)
of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, he shall fix the next date
of hearing of the case within a period not exceeding
(A) one month
(B) two months
(C) three months
(D) six months
16. Every person appointed as Protection Officer under the Protection of Women from
Domestic Violence Act, 2005, have minimum experience of how many years in social
sector?
(A) one year
(B) two years
(C) three years
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(D) five years
17. Which of the following is competent authority to frame rules for carrying out the
provision of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005?
(C) High Court
18. Which provision of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005,
provides immunity to the Protection Officer for action taken in good faith?
(A) Section 35
(B) Section 36
(C) Section 37
19. The Protection Officer who fails or refuses to discharge his duties without
sufficient cause shall be liable for
(A) imprisonment of either description which may extend to two years or with
fine which may extend to five thousand rupees or with both
(B) imprisonment of either description which may extend to three year or with
fine which may extend to ten thousand rupees or with both
(C) imprisonment of either description which may extend to one year or with
fine which may extend to twenty thousand rupees or with both
(D) simple imprisonment which may extend to six months or with fine which
may extend to one thousand rupees or with both
20. The Protection Officer and members of service providers shall be deemed to be
public servant within the meaning of
(B) Section 2 (17) of CPC
(C) Section 2 (n) of the Protection of women from Domestic Violence Act
21. Which of the following does not fall under the ambit of domestic violence
(A) physical abuse
(B) economic abuse
(C) verbal and emotional abuse
20
22. A service provider registered under section 10(1) of the Protection of women from
Domestic Violence Act, 2005, shall have power to
(A) record the domestic incident report
(B) get the aggrieved person medically examined
(C) ensure that the aggrieved person is provided shelter in a shelter home
23. Under which provision of the Protection of women from Domestic Violence Act,
2005, an application is presented before the Magistrate for seeking relief
(A) Section 10
(B) Section 12
(C) Section 14
(C) Section 16
24. The notice of date of first hearing shall be served on the respondent or on any
other person within a maximum period of
(A) two days
(B) three days
(C) five days
(D) seven days
25. The aggrieved person shall have the right to reside in the shared household
(A) only when she has right to reside
(B) only when she has title to the shared household
(C) only when she has beneficial interest in the shared household
(D) whether or not she has any right, title or beneficial interest in the shared
household.
26. Select the wrong match
(A) Residence Order - Section 19
(B) Custody order - Section 21
(C) Monetary relief - Section 22
(D) Jurisdiction - Section 27
27. According to section 25 of the Protection of women from Domestic Violence Act,
2005, a protection order made under section 18 shall be in force till
(A) such orders are set aside by appellate court
(B) the aggrieved person applied for discharge
(C) aggrieved person is alive
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(D) responded appeal against such order
28. What is the limitation period within which appeal may be preferred against the
order of the Magistrate
(A) 90 days
(B) 60 days
(C) 30 days
(D) 15 days
29. What is the nature of offence committed under section 31 (1) of the Protection of
women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005?
(A) Cognizable and non-bailable
(B) non-cognizable and bailable
(C) cognizable and bailable
(D) non-cognizable and non-bailable
30. An appeal against an order of the Magistrate shall lie before the
(A) High Court
(B) Court of Session
(C) Court to which an appeal ordinary lies from the court of the Magistrate
(D) Chief Judicial Magistrate
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ANSWER KEY
PROTECTION OF WOMEN FROM DOMESTIC VIOLENCE ACT, 2005

1. B 16. C
2. D 17. B
3. A 18. A
4. B 19. C
5. C 20. A
6 B 21. D
7. D 22. D
8. C 23. B
9. A 24. A
10. D 25. D
11. A 26. C
12. C 27. B
13. B 28. C
14. D 29. A
15. B 30. B
23
MAINTENANCE AND WELFARE OF PARENTS AND SENIOR CITIZENS ACT, 2007
Total Questions: 30
Maximum Marks: 30
Duration:
Date: /2023
1. In State of Uttar Pradesh the Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior
Citizens Act, 2007, came into force with effect from:
(A) 31.12.2007
(B) 25.09.2012
(C) 01.01.2008
(D) 01.04.2010
2. Which of the following is empowered to make periodic review and monitor the
progress of the implementation of the provisions of the Maintenance and Welfare of
Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007?
(A) Central Government
(B) High Court
(C) District Magistrate
(D) State Government
3. Which provision of the Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens
Act, 2007, provides immunity against prosecution to the Government officers for anything
done under under said Act?
(A) Section 29
(B) Section 28
(C) Section 27
(D) Section 26
4. Which Chapter of the Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens
Act, 2007, deals with offences and procedure for trial
(A) Chapter IV
(B) Chapter V
(C) Chapter VI
24
(D) Chapter VII
5. The Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007, consists
of
(A) 39 sections
(B) 35 sections
(C) 34 sections
(D) 32 sections
6. Which of the following is has been conferred with power to make rules for carrying
out the provisions of the Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act,
2007?
(C) Union Parliament
(D) District Magistrate
7. Which provision of the Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens
Act, 2007, bars jurisdiction of the Civil Court in respect of any matter to which provisions
of this Act applies?
(A) Section 23
(B) Section 25
(C) Section 27
(D) Section 29
8. Every offence under the Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens
Act, 2007, shall be
(A) Non-cognizable and non-bailable
(B) Cognizable and bailable
(C) Cognizable and non-bailable
(D) Non-cognizable and bailable
9. What is the liability of the person who is having care or protection of senior citizen
leaves such senior citizen in any place with the intention of wholly abandoning such
senior citizen?
(A) Simple imprisonment for a term which may extend to six months
(B) fine which may extend to ten thousand rupees
(C) imprisonment of either description which may extend to six months or fine
which may extend to ten thousand rupees or both
25
(D) imprisonment of either description which may extend to three months or
fine which may extend to five thousand rupees or both
10. Under which of the following circumstances, senior citizen is not eligible to avail
the benefit of section 23 of the Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens
Act, 2007?
(A) unconditional transfer of property
(B) transferee for consideration and without notice of right to receive
maintenance
(C) Third person approach the court to declare the transaction void
11. Who among the following does not fall under the ambit of term ‘children’ for the
purpose of the Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007?
(A) grand-son
(B) minor daughter
(C) grand daughter
(D) daughter
12. Senior citizen means any person being a citizen of India, who has attained the age
of
(A) 65 years or above
(B) 62 years or above
(C) 60 years or above
(D) 55 years or above
13. For the purpose of the Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens
Act, 2007, the term ‘property’ does not include
(A) movable or immovable property
(B) tangible or intangible property
(C) interest in ancestral or self acquired property
14. Which of the following provision of the Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and
Senior Citizens Act, 2007, defines the term ‘minor’?
(A) Section 2(b)
(B) Section 2(c)
(C) Section 2(d)
(D) Section 2(e)
26
15. Under which provision of the Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior
Citizens Act, 2007, a senior citizen including parent who is unable to maintain himself
from his own earning shall be entitled to make an application
(A) Section 3
(B) Section 4
(C) Section 5
(D) Section 6
16. Any person being a relative of a senior citizen and having sufficient means shall
maintain such senior citizen provided he
(A) is in possession of the property of such senior citizen
(B) would inherit the property of such senior citizen
(C) only (A) not (B)
(D) either (A) or (B)
17. An application filed for monthly allowance for the maintenance and expenses for
the proceeding shall be disposed of within how many days from the date of service of
notice?
(A) 90 days
(B) 60 days
(C) 45 days
(D) 30 days
18. Allowance for the maintenance and expenses for proceeding shall be payable
from the
(A) date of the order
(B) date of the application
(C) date as desired by the senior citizen or parent
19. Where the children or relative ordered to pay maintenance and they/he fail to
comply with the order without sufficient cause, such children or relative may be liable for
imprisonment which may extend to
(A) six months
(B) three months
(C) two months
(D) one month
27
20. Under exceptional circumstances the Tribunal may after recording the reasons in
writing may extend the time period for disposal of application filed for maintenance once
for a maximum period of
(A) one month
(B) two months
(C) three months
(D) six months
21. All evidence to maintenance proceeding under the Maintenance and Welfare of
Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007, shall be recorded in the manner prescribed for
(A) warrant case
(B) summons case
(C) summary case
(D) Court of sessions case
22. The Conciliation Officer shall submit his findings under section 6 of the
Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007, within
(A) 7 days
(B) 14 days
(C) one month
(D) three months
23. The Tribunal constituted under section 7 of the Maintenance and Welfare of
Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007, shall be presided over by an officer not below the
rank of
(A) Sub-Divisional Magistrate
(B) Divisional Magistrate
(C) Sub-Divisional Officer
(D) Divisional Officer
24. The Tribunal shall be deemed to be a civil court for all the purposes of
(A) Section 195 of CrPC
(B) chapter contains provisions relating to offences affection the administration
of justice under CrPC
(C) neither (A) nor (B)
(D) both (A) and (B)
28
25. What is the maximum maintenance allowance that may be ordered by the Tribunal
under the provisions of the Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act,
2007
(A) Rs. 10,000/-
(B) Rs, 15,000/-
(C) Rs. 25,000/-
(D) no maximum limit has been provided under the Act.
26. In pursuance to an order made for maintenance under the Maintenance and
Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007, the children or relative who is required
to pay shall within how much time period from the date of announcing the order by the
Tribunal, deposit entire amount ordered?
(A) 7 days
(B) 15 days
(C) one month
(D) three months
27. What is the maximum rate of interest which may be ordered by the Tribunal from
the date of application, in addition to the amount of maintenance?
(A) 18%
(B) 15%
(C) 12%
(D) 10%
28. The Appellate Tribunal is constituted under which of the following provision of the
Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007?
(A) Section 7
(B) Section 12
(C) Section 15
(D) Section 18
29. The limitation period during which any senior citizen or a parent aggrieved by an
order of a Tribunal may prefer an appeal to the Appellate Tribunal
(A) 30 days
(B) 45 days
(C) 60 days
(D) 120 days
29
30. In which of the following case the constitutional validity of section 17 of the
Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007 was challenged
before the Court?
(A) Adv.K.G Suresh V Union of India
(B) Dr. Ashwani Kumar V Union of India
(C) S Vanitha V The Deputy Commissioner
(D) Aarti Sharma V Ganga Saran
ANSWER KEY
MAINTENANCE AND WELFARE OF PARENTS AND SENIOR CITIZENS ACT, 2007

1. B 16. D
2. A 17. A
3. B 18. D
4. C 19. B
5. D 20. A
6 A 21. B
7. C 22. C
8. B 23. C
9. D 24. D
10. D 25. A
11. B 26. C
12. C 27. A
13. D 28. C
14. B 29. C
15. C 30. A
30
THE MEDICAL TERMINATION OF PREGNANCY ACT, 1971
Total Questions: 30
Maximum Marks: 30
Duration:
Date: /2023
1. The object of the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971, is

(A) an Act to provide for the termination of certain pregnancies by registered
medical practitioners
(B) an Act to prohibit the termination of pregnancies by unauthorised person
(C) an Act to provide the termination of all pregnancies by registered medical
practitioners
(D) an Act to prevent termination of pregnancies at unauthorised place
2. Which of the following term was inserted to section 2 by the Medical Termination
of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2021
(A) minor
(B) Medical Board
(C) Registered Medical Practitioner
3. The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971, contains
(A) 12 sections
(B) 10 sections
(C) 9 sections
(D) 8 sections
4. The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971, came into force with effect from
(A) 10.08.1971
(B) 01.04.1972
(C) 09.09.1972
(D) 25.12.1971
5. For the purpose of The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971, the term
‘minor’ means a person who
31
(A) is under 12 years of age
(B) is under 18 years of age
(C) is under 21 years of age
(D) under the provisions of the Indian majority Act, 1875, is to be deemed not
to have attained his majority.
6. Which provision of the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971, defines the
term ‘registered medical practitioner’
(A) Section 2(b)
(B) Section 2(c)
(C) Section 2(d)
(D) Section 2(e)
7. Which provision of the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971, provides
immunity to registered medical practitioner, if any pregnancy is terminated by him
in accordance to the provisions of this Act?
(A) Section 2(e)
(B) Section 3(1)
(C) Section 4(2)
8. Mentally ill person means a person who is in need of treatment by reason of any
(A) mental disorder
(B) mental retardation
(C) mental illness
9. Which of the following term used under the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act,
1971, has been substituted by ‘mentally ill person’?
(A) insane
(B) psychotic
(C) lunatic
(D) idiotic
10. The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2021, came into force
with effect from
(A) 25.03.2021
(B) 24.09.2021
(C) 01.04.2022
32
(D) 01.07.2021
11. The opinion of how many registered medical practitioner is required for termination
of pregnancy when pregnancy is less than twenty weeks?
(A) one
(B) two
(C) three
(D) five
12. In which of the following case the Hon’ble Supreme court held that a woman’s
right to make reproductive choice is also a dimension of personal liberty as under Article
21 of the Constitution of India?
(A) A V Union of India
(B) Z V State of Bihar
(C) Suchita Srivastava V Chandigarh Administration
13. Where the length of pregnancy exceeds twenty weeks but does not exceed twenty
four weeks, such pregnancy may be terminated by obtaining opinion of not less than
(A) one RMP
(B) two RMP
(C) three RMP
(D) five RMP
14. What is the nature of explanation I to section 2(2) of the Medical Termination of
Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2021?
(A) may presume
(B) shall presume
(C) conclusive proof
15. In which of the following circumstance, the written consent of her guardian for
termination of pregnancy shall be required?
(A) woman has not attained the age of eighteen years
(B) woman has attained the age of eighteen years but she is mentally ill
16. Which provision of the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 1971,
provides that even after 24 weeks of pregnancy, it may be terminated where such
33
termination is necessitated by the diagnosis of any of the substantial foetal abnormalities
diagnosed by a Medical Board?
(A) Sub-Section 2A of Section 3
(B) Sub-Section 2B of Section 3
(C) Sub-Section 2C of Section 3
(D) Sub-Section 2D of Section 3
17. Sub-Section 3 of Section 3 used the term “...woman’s actual or reasonably
foreseeable environment” which includes
(A) societal structure
(B) living conditions
(C) sociological set up
18. Which provision of the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971, makes the
consent of the pregnant woman mandatory before termination of pregnancy save certain
circumstances?
(A) Sub-Section 3 of Section 3
(B) Sub-Section 4(a) of Section 3
(C) Sub-Section 4(b) of Section 3
19. The term used ‘good faith’ in the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971, has
the same meaning as defined under
(B) Section 2(e) of MTP Act
(C) Section 2(g) of CrPC
20. The District Level Committee shall consist of
(A) not less than six members
(B) not less than five members
(C) not less than four members
(D) not less than three members
21. According to the provision of the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971, a
pregnancy may be terminated in a
(A) hospital established by Government only
(B) hospital maintained by Government only
34
(C) a place for the time being approved by Government or District Level
Committee
(D) Either (A) or (B) or (C)
22. Which of the following has been conferred with power to make rules to carry out
the provisions of the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971?
(B) State Government
(C) High Court
(D) Department of Woman and Child Development
23. Provision as to protection of privacy of a woman was inserted to the Medical
Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971, in
(A) 1972
(B) 2003
(C) 2019
(D) 2021
24. A person who reveals the name and other particulars of a woman whose
pregnancy has been terminated shall be liable for
(A) imprisonment which may extend to three months
(B) imprisonment which may extend to six months
(C) imprisonment which may extend to one year
(D) imprisonment which may extend to three years
25. Medical Board means the Medical Board constituted under
(A) Sub-Section 2D of Section 3 of MTP Act
(B) Sub-Section 2C of Section 3 of MTP Act
(C) Sub-Section 2B of Section 3 of MTP Act
(D) Sub-Section 2A of Section 3 of MTP Act
26. Which of the following has power to make regulations
(D) Chief Medical Officer
27. The termination of pregnancy by a person who is not a registered medical
practitioner shall be an offence punishable with
35
(A) rigorous imprisonment which shall not be less than three years but which
may extend to ten years
(B) rigorous imprisonment which shall not be less than two years but which
may extend to five years
(C) rigorous imprisonment which shall not be less than two years but which
may extend to seven years
(D) simple imprisonment which shall not be less than three year but which may
extend to imprisonment for life
28. The expression ‘owner’ has been defined under
(A) Explanation I to Section 5
(B) Explanation II to Section 5
(C) Section 2
(D) Explanation I to Section 4
29. Whoever terminates any pregnancy in a place other than that mentioned in
section 4, shall be punishable with
(A) imprisonment of either description which shall not be less than two years
but which may extend to five years
(B) simple imprisonment which shall not be less than three years but which
(C) rigorous imprisonment which shall not be less than two years but which
(D) imprisonment of either description which shall not be less than seven years
but which may extend to imprisonment for life
30. In which of the following case the Hon’ble Court held that a person who has been
suffering from mental retardation and not mental illness can give consent?
(A) Kumari ‘X’ (through mother) V State of U.P (through Principal Secretary
Lucknow & Ors)
(B) Mrs. ‘X’ V GNCTD
(C) XYZ V GNCTD
(D) Z V State of Bihar
36
ANSWER KEY
THE MEDICAL TERMINATION OF PREGNANCY ACT, 1971

1. A 16. B
2. B 17. D
3. D 18. C
4. B 19. A
5. D 20. D
6 C 21. D
7. B 22. A
8. A 23. D
9. C 24. C
10. B 25. B
11. A 26. B
12. C 27. C
13. B 28. A
14. A 29. C
15. B 30. D
37
THE SEXUAL HARASSMENT OF WOMEN AT WORKPLACE (PREVENTION,

PROHIBITION AND REDRESSAL) ACT, 2013
Total Questions: 30
Maximum Marks: 30
Duration:
Date: /2023
1. The Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and

Redressal ) Act, 2013, consists of
(A) VII Chapters and 32 sections
(B) VIII Chapters and 30 sections
(C) IX Chapters and 33 sections
(D) X Chapters and 31 Sections
2. The guidelines given in which of the following case formed the basis of the the
Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal )
Act, 2013?
(A) Vishakha & Ors V State of Rajasthan
(B) Tarun Saxena V Union of India
(C) Mukesh & Anr V NCT Delhi
(D) Apparel Export Promotion Council V A.K Chopra
3. The Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and
Redressal ) Act, 2013, came into force wef.
(A) 22.04.2013
(B) 25.09.2013
(C) 09.12.2013
(D) 01.01.2014
4. For the purpose of the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention,
Prohibition and Redressal ) Act, 2013, aggrieved women means
(A) a woman of above 14 years of age
(B) a woman of above 16 years of age
(C) a woman of above 18 years of age
(D) a woman of any age
38
5. According to section 2(f) of the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace
(Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013, employee means a person employed
at a workplace for any work on
(A) regular basis
(B) temporary basis
(C) adhoc or daily basis
6. Which of the following provision of The Sexual Harassment of Women at
Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal ) Act, 2013, deals with “sexual
harassment”
(A) Section 2 (n)
(B) Section 2(o)
(C) Section 2(i)
(D) Section 2(p)
7. An unorganised sector in relation to a workplace means an enterprise owned by
individuals or self-employed workers, where the number of such workers is
(A) less than one hundred
(B) less than fifty
(C) less than twenty five
(D) less than ten
8. Internal Complaints Committee shall consists of minimum how many members
including Presiding Officer
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 2
9. In Internal Complaint Committee at least how many of the total members shall be
women
(A) ½
(B) 1/3
(C) ¼
(D) ¾
10. The Presiding Officer of the Internal Complaint Committee shall hold office for a
period not exceeding
39
(A) 1 year
(B) 2 years
(C) 3 years
(D) 5 years
11. The Local Committee shall be constituted by
(B) District Officer
(C) High Court
(D) Commissioner
12. In which of the following circumstance the Local Committee is obliged to receive
complaints
(A) where complaint is against the employer himself
(B) where internal committee has not been constituted
(C) neither (A) nor (B)
13. Any complaint received by the nodal officer is required to be forwarded to the
concerned Local Committee within a period of
(A) seven days
(B) ten days
(C) three days
(D) fifteen days
14. Local Committee shall constitute minimum how many members including
chairperson
(A) 10
(B) 7
(C) 6
(D) 5
15. Every member of the Local Committee shall hold office for such period not
exceeding
(A) five years
(B) three years
(C) two years
(D) one year
40
16. On which of the following ground the Chairperson or any member of the Local
Committee shall be removed from the Committee?
(A) publication of identity and address of the aggrieved woman, respondent
and witnesses
(B) found guilty in any disciplinary proceedings
(C) convicted for an offence
17. Under which of the following provision of the Sexual Harassment of Women at
Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal ) Act, 2013, any aggrieved woman
may make in writing a complaint of sexual harassment at workplace to the Internal
Committee or Local Committee?
(A) Section 6
(B) Section 7
(C) Section 9
(D) Section 10
18. What is the limitation period to make a complaint of sexual harassment at
workplace, from the date of incident?
(A) nine months
(B) five months
(C) three months
(D) one month
19. According to the provisions of section 10 of The Sexual Harassment of Women at
Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal ) Act, 2013, the Internal Committee or
the Local Committee before initiating an inquiry at the request of the aggrieved women
take steps to settle the matter through
(A) Arbitration
(B) Conciliation
(C) Mediation
20. According to the provisions of section 11 of The Sexual Harassment of Women at
Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal ) Act, 2013, in case of a domestic
worker, the Local Committee shall, if prima facie case exist, forward the complaint to the
police with a period of
(A) two days
41
(B) three days
(C) seven days
(D) ten days
21. Which Chapter of the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention,
Prohibition and Redressal ) Act, 2013, deals with the provisions as to ‘inquiry into
complaint’?
(A) Chapter V
(B) Chapter VI
(C) Chapter VII
(D) Chapter VIII
22. During inquiry, if the aggrieved woman makes a written request, the Internal
Committee or the Local Committee may recommend to the employer to grant leave to the
aggrieved woman up to a period of
(A) one month
(B) two months
(C) three months
(D) six months
23. On completion of inquiry the Internal Committee shall provide a report of its finding
to the employer within a period of
(A) seven days
(B) ten days
(C) fifteen days
(D) one month
24. Within how many days the employer shall act upon the recommendation of the
Internal Committee, from the date of its receipt?
(A) 10 days
(B) 30 days
(C) 60 days
(D) 120 days
25. Which of the following factor shall not be taken into consideration while
determining the sums to be paid to the aggrieved woman under section 15 of the Sexual
Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal ) Act, 2013?
(A) loss in the career opportunity due to the incident of sexual harassment
(B) income and financial status of the respondent
42
(C) medical expenses incurred by the victim for physical or psychiatric
treatment
26. What is limitation period to prefer an appeal by an aggrieved person from the
recommendation made under section 13(3)(i) and (ii) of the Sexual Harassment of
Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal ) Act, 2013?
(A) 90 days
(B) 60 days
(C) 45 days
(D) 30 days
27. Choose the option which is not correct
Every employer shall
(A) provide a safe working environment at the workplace
(B) provide necessary facilities to the internal committee for dealing with the
complaint and conducting an inquiry
(C) treat sexual harassment as a misbehaviour under the service rules and
initiate action for such misbehaviour
(D) monitor the timely submission of reports by the Internal Committee.
28. Which of the following shall monitor the implementation of the Sexual Harassment
of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal ) Act, 2013?
(C) Appropriate Government
(D) District Magistrate
29. Where the employer fails to constitute an Internal Committee under section 4 of
the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and
Redressal ) Act, 2013,he shall be punishable with fine with may extend to
(A) ten thousand rupees
(B) twenty thousand rupees
(C) thirty thousand rupees
(D) fifty thousand rupees
30. Every offence under the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention,
Prohibition and Redressal ) Act, 2013, shall be
(A) cognizable
43
(B) non-cognizable
(C) cognizable and non-bailable
(D) cognizable and bailable
44
ANSWER KEYS
THE SEXUAL HARASSMENT OF WOMEN AT WORKPLACE (PREVENTION,
PROHIBITION AND REDRESSAL) ACT, 2013

1. B 16. D
2. A 17. C
3. C 18. C
4. D 19. B
5. D 20. C
6 A 21. A
7. D 22. C
8. B 23. B
9. A 24. C
10. C 25. D
11. B 26. A
12. D 27. C
13. A 28. C
14. D 29. D
15. B 30. B
45
THE RIGHTS OF PERSONS WITH DISABILITIES ACT, 2016
Total Questions: 30
Maximum Marks: 30
Duration:
Date: /2023
1. India ratified the United Nations Convention on the Rights of Persons with
Disabilities on
(A) 13.12.2006
(B) 01.10.2007
(C) 14.11.2008
(D) 05.04.2009
2. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016, repealed
(A) The Persons with Disabilities (Equal Opportunity Protection of Rights and
Full Participation) Act, 1995
(B) The Person with Disabilities (Protection of Rights) Act, 1995
(C) The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2005
(D) The Equal Opportunity Protection of Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act,
2007
3. Under the provisions of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016, rule
making power has been conferred upon
(D) Parliament only
4. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016, consists of
(A) XIV chapter, 108 sections and one Schedule
(B) XV chapters, 105 sections and two schedule
(C) XVI chapters, 103 sections and one schedule
(D) XVII chapters, 102 sections and one Schedule
46
5. When an offence punishable under the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act,
2016, is also punishable under any other law for the time in force, the offender shall be
liable to punishment only under such Act as provides for punishment which is
(A) lesser in degree
(B) greater in degree
(C) more reformative in nature
(D) more appropriate in the opinion of the Court
6. Which of the following provision of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act,
2016, defines ‘barrier’?
(A) Section 2(c)
(B) Section 2(d)
(C) Section 2(e)
(D) Section 2(f)
7. The term ‘inclusive education’ means a system of education wherein
(A) academic education along with professional skill is imparted to the students
(B) practical and purposeful aspects of education has been taught
(C) students with and without disability learn together
(D) students of various culture study together
8. Section 2(h) of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016, defines
(A) high support
(B) discrimination
(C) institution
(D) local authority
9. The term ‘local authority’ means
(A) Panchayat
(B) Municipality
(C) Cantonment Board
10. Which of the following shall ensure that the persons with disabilities enjoy the right
to equality, life with dignity and respect for his or her integrity equally with others?

(D) Local Authority
47
11. Which chapter of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016, deals with
education
(A) Chapter II
(B) Chapter III
(C) Chapter IV
(D) Chapter V
12. No person with disability shall be a subject of any research without
(A) his or her free and informed consent
(B) prior permission of a Committee for Research on Disability
(D) permission in writing from Appropriate Government
13. The appropriate Government and the local authorities shall in order to ensure
whether educational institutions funded or recognised by them provide inclusive
education to the children with disabilities, conduct survey of school going children in
every
(A) ten years
(B) five years
(C) three years
(D) alternate year
14. Which of the following shall be provided by every Government to employees with
disability
(A) reasonable accommodation
(B) appropriate barrier free and conducive environment
15. Any person aggrieved with the non-compliance of the provisions of section 20 of
the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016, may file a complaint with Grievance
Redressal Officer and such complaint shall be inquired within
(A) two weeks of its registration
(B) four weeks of its receipt
(C) three weeks from serving notice to respondent
(D) six weeks from the date of first hearing
48
16. According to Section 23 of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016, If the
aggrieved person is not satisfied with the action taken on his complaint by the Grievance
Redressal Officer, he may approach
(A) Appropriate authority
(B) District-Level Committee on disability
(C) nearest Judicial Magistrate
(D) any Executive Magistrate
17. The appropriate Government shall within the limit of its economic capacity and
development formulate necessary schemes and programmes to safeguard and promote
the right of persons with disabilities and quantum of assistance to the PwD under such
schemes shall be at least how much higher than the similar schemes applicable to
others?
(A) 33%
(B) 27%
(C) 25%
(D) 15%
18. According to section 35 of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016, the
appropriate Government and the local authorities, provide incentives to employer in
private sector to ensure how much percent of their work force is composed of person
with benchmark disability?
(A) at least five percent
(B) at least three percent
(C) at least seven percent
(D) at least ten percent
19. Every appropriate Government shall appoint in every Government establishment
not less than how much percent of the total number of vacancies in the cadre strength in
each group of posts meant to be filed with persons with benchmark disabilities.
(A) 7½%
(B) 6%
(C) 5%
(D) 4%
20. Every child with benchmark disability of which age group shall have right to free
education in a neighbourhood school or in a special school of his choice?
(A) six to twelve years
49
(B) six to fourteen years
(C) six to eighteen years
(D) upto six years
21. For admission in institution of higher education, the persons with benchmark
disabilities shall be given an upper age relaxation of
(A) three years
(B) five years
(C) eight years
(D) ten years
22. Which of the following shall formulate rules for persons with disabilities laying
down standards of accessibility for the physical environment etc and services provided to
the public in urban and rural areas?
(A) Appropriate Government
(B) Central Government in consultation with Chief Commissioner
(C) Local Authority
(D) District-Level Committee
23. According to the provisions of section 45 of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities
Act, 2016, all existing public buildings shall be made accessible in accordance with
formulated rules within a period of
(A) 15 years
(B) 10 years
(C) 7 years
(D) 5 years
24. For the purpose of registration of institutions for persons with disabilities and
grants to such institutions, which of the following shall appoint an authority as it deems fit
to be a competent authority?
(D) Local Authority
25. Which provision of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016, deals with
revocation of registration
(A) Section 51
(B) Section 52
50
(C) Section 53
(D) Section 54
26. The certificate of disability issued under section 58 of the Rights of Persons with
Disabilities Act, 2016, shall be valid
(A) within the district from where it was issued
(B) within the State where PwD resides
(C) across the country
(D) within the territorial area as mentioned in the certificate
27. The Central Government shall appoint how many Commissioners to assist the
Chief Commissioner
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 2
28. Which chapter of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016, deals with
special court
(A) chapter XIII
(B) chapter XIV
(C) chapter XV
(D) chapter XVI
29. Whoever, fraudulently avails any benefit meant for person with benchmark
disability shall be liable for
(A) imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years or with fine which
may extend to Rs. 10,000/-
(B) imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years or with fine which
may extend to one lakh rupees or with both
(C) imprisonment for a term which may extend to five years or with fine which
may extend to Rs, 20,000/- or with both
(D) imprisonment for a term which may extend to one year or with fine which
may extend to Rs. 50,000/- or with both
30. In which of the following case the Hon’ble Court gave a broad interpretation to
Section 47 and took a protective approach towards persons with disabilities by holding:
“From the narrow point of view the officers were duty bound to follow the law and it was
not open to them to allow their bias to defeat the lawful rights of the disabled employee.
51
From the larger point of view the officers failed to realise that the disabled too are equal
citizens of the country and have as much share in its resources as any other citizen. The
denial of their rights would not only be unjust and unfair to them and their families but
would create larger and graver problems for the society at large. What the law permits to
them is no charity or largess but their right as equal citizens of the country.”
(A) Manjunatha V Government of Karnataka

(B) U.P Vishesh Shikshank Association V State of U.P
(C) Bhagwan Dass V Punjab State Electricity Board
(D) Ritesh Sinha V State of Haryana
52
ANSWER KEYS
THE RIGHTS OF PERSONS WITH DISABILITIES ACT, 2016

1. B 16. B
2. A 17. C
3. C 18. A
4. D 19. D
5. B 20. C
6 A 21. B
7. C 22. B
8. B 23. D
9. D 24. A
10. C 25. B
11. B 26. C
12. C 27. D
13. B 28. A
14. C 29. B
15. A 30. C
53
THE INDECENT REPRESENTATION OF WOMEN (PROHIBITION) ACT, 1986
Total Questions: 30
Maximum Marks: 30
Duration:
Date: /2023
1. In which of the following case the Hon’ble Court observed that “Where, obscenity
and art are mixture, art must so preponderate as to throw the obscenity into a shadow or
the obscenity so trivial and insignificant that it can have no effect and may be overlooked.
It is necessary that a balance should be maintained between ‘freedom of speech and
expression’ and ‘public decency and morality’ but when the latter is substantially
transgressed the former must give way.
There is no fixed rules to determine obscenity. The concept of obscenity would
differ from country to country depending on the standard of morals of contemporary
society”
(A) Manohar Lal Sharma V Sanjay Leela Bhansali
(B) Chandrakant Kalyan Das Kakodar V State of Maharashtra
(C) Smitha V State of Kerala
(D) Abhinaya V Gandhi Smaraka Samithi
2. The Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act, 1986, received the
President’s assent on
(A) 01.01.1986
(B) 02.04.1986
(C) 23.12.1986
(D) 31.12.1986
3. The Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act, 1986,contains
(A) 15 sections
(B) 13 sections
(C) 12 sections
(D) 10 sections
4. The Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act, 1986, is
(A) Act No. 60
54
(B) Act No. 56
(C) Act No. 45
(D) Act No. 42
5. Which provision of the Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act, 1986,
defines the term ‘ indecent representation of women’
(A) Section 2(a)
(B) Section 2(b)
(C) Section 2(c)
(D) Section 2(d)
6. “Holding of beauty contest is repugnant to dignity or decency of women and
offends Article 21 of Indian Constitution” was held in the case of
(A) Anoop V State of Kerala
(B) Chandra Raja Kumari V Police Commissioner, Hyderabad
(C) Piyush Sharma V NCT Delhi
(D) Ajay Goswami V Union of India
7. The Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act, 1986, came into force
with effect from
(A) 01.01.1987
(B) 12.04.1987
(C) 02.10.1987
(D) 14.12.1987
8. Under the provisions of the Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act,
1986, the rule making power has been conferred on
(A) High Court
(C) State Government
(D) Central Government
provides protection against prosecution for action taken in good faith?
(A) Section 11
(B) Section 10
(C) Section 9
(D) Section 8
55
10. Section 3 of the Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act, 1986,
imposes prohibition upon
(A) production
(B) advertisement
(C) storage
11. The term ‘package’ does not include
(A) box
(B) carton
(C) tin
12. Section 9 of the Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act, 1986,
provides immunity to
(C) any officer of the Central Government or the State Government
13. An offence punishable under the Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition)
Act, 1986, shall be
(A) cognizable and bailable
(B) non-cognizable and bailable
(C) cognizable and non-bailable
(D) non-cognizable and non-bailable
deals with the situation where an offence under this Act has been committed by a
company?
(A) Section 6
(B) Section 7
(C) Section 8
(D) Section 9
15. For the purpose of the provision of the Indecent Representation of Women
(Prohibition) Act, 1986, the expression ‘company’ means
(A) any body corporate
(B) firm
56
(C) association of individuals
16. Any person who contravenes the provisions of section 3 or section 4 shall be
punishable on first conviction with imprisonment of either description for a term which
may extend to
(A) five year and with fine which may extend to Rs. 5000/-
(B) three years and with fine which may extend to Rs. 3000/-
(C) two years and with fine which may extend to Rs. 2000/-
(D) three years and with fine which may extend to Rs. 5000/-
deals with search and seizure of articles which contravenes any of the provisions of the
Act?
(A) Section 4
(B) Section 5
(C) Section 6
(D) Section 7
18. Under the provisions of the Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act,
1986, which of the following premises shall be entered with search warrant only
(A) private dwelling house
(B) shopping mall
(C) Multiplex
(D) Government office
19. Where any person seizes anything which contravenes provisions of the Indecent
Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act, 1986, he shall as soon as may be, inform the
(A) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(C) nearest Magistrate
(D) any officer authorised by the State Government in this behalf
20. Which provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, shall apply search and
seizure made under the Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act, 1986?
(A) Section 95
(B) Section 94
(C) Section 93
(D) Section 91
57
21. Which of the following provision of the Indecent Representation of Women
(Prohibition) Act, 1986, defines the term ‘label’?
(A) Section 2(a)
(B) Section 2(b)
(C) Section 2(c)
(D) Section 2(d)
22. In Rajya Sabha, who among the following introduced a Bill against indecent
representation of woman in 1986
(A) Margaret Alva
(B) Dr. Nirupama Rath
(C) Pushpamoyee Bose
(D) Aruna Asaf Ali
23. The provisions of section 4 the Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition)
Act, 1986, do not apply to
Any book, pamphlet, paper, slide, film, writing, painting, photograph,
representation or figure
(A) the publication of which is proved to be justified as being for public good
(B) which is kept or used for religious purpose
(D) neither (A) not (B)
24. The expression ‘distribution’ includes distribution by way of
(A) free samples
(B) paid samples
(C) discounted samples
25. Who shall be deemed guilty where an offence under the provisions of the Indecent
Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act, 1986, has been committed by a company?
(A) every person who at the time of commission of offence was in charge of
and was responsible to the company for the conduct of its business.
(B) General Manager
(C) Director
(D) Secretary
58
26. Any person who contravenes the provisions of section 3 or section 4 shall be
punishable on second or subsequent conviction with imprisonment for a term
(A) of not less than 3 months but which may extend to 5 years and also with
fine not less than five thousand rupees but which may extend to fifty thousand rupees.
(B) of not less than 6 months but which may extend to 5 years and also with
fine not less than ten thousand rupees but which may extend to one lakh rupees.
(C) of not less than 1 year but which may extend to 5 years and also with fine
not less than ten thousand rupees but which may extend to fifty thousand rupees.
(D) of not less than 2 years but which may extend to 7 years and also with fine
not less than ten thousand rupees but which may extend to one lakh rupees.
27. Who among the following has power to enter and search according to the
provisions of the Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act, 1986?
(A) any police officer
(B) any person
(C) police officer not below the rank of Sub-inspector
(D) any Gazetted Officer authorised by the State Government
28. The Hon’ble Supreme Court established the test of obscenity in the case of
(A) Gangula Mohan Reddy V State of A.P
(B) Raju Thapa V State of Uttarakhand
(C) Ranjit D Udeshi V State of Maharashtra
(D) Aveek Sarkar V State of West Bengal
29. Provisions of Section 4 of the Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition)
Act, 1986, shall not apply to any film in respect of which provisions of
(A) part II of the Cinematograph Act, 1952 will be applicable
(B) part III of the Cinematograph Act, 1952 will be applicable
(C) part IV of the Cinematograph Act, 1952 will be applicable
(D) part I of the Cinematograph Act, 1952 will be applicable
30. In which of the following case the Court held that the provisions of the Indecent
Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act, 1986, are not applicable if there are some
sexually explicit pictures or videos with a person of his own then the mere possession will
not be a criminal offence unless there is distinction or publication of pictures for
advertisement or for any other incidental pupose.
(A) Urmila Devi V Yudhveer Singh yt
(B) Smitha V State of Kerala
(C) S. Khushboo V Kannaimmal
(D) Vinitha Paul V State
59
ANSWER KEYS
THE INDECENT REPRESENTATION OF WOMEN (PROHIBITION) ACT, 1986

1. B 16. C
2. C 17. B
3. D 18. A
4. A 19. C
5. C 20. B
6 B 21. D
7. C 22. A
8. D 23. C
9. C 24. D
10. B 25. A
11. D 26. B
12. D 27. D
13. A 28. C
14. B 29. A
15. D 30. B
60
PRE-CONCEPTION & PRE-NATAL DIAGNOSTIC TECHNIQUES (PROHIBITION OF

SEX SELECTION) ACT, 1994
Total Questions: 30
Maximum Marks: 30
Duration:
Date: /2023
1. The Pre-Conception & Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (Prohibition of Sex

Selection) Act, 1994, consists of
(A) X chapters and 36 sections
(B) VIII chapters and 33 sections
(C) IX chapters and 35 sections
(D) VII chapters and 32 sections
Selection) Act, 1994, prohibits sex selection
(A) before conception
(B) after conception
(C) before or after conception
(D) when it leads to discrimination between male and female
Selection) Act, 1994, came into force with effect from
(A) 01.04.1994
(B) 15.07.1994
(C) 09.09.1995
(D) 01.01.1996
4. Before 2003 the Pre-Conception & Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (Prohibition
of Sex Selection) Act, 1994, was known as
(A) The Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (Regulations and Prevention of
misuse) Act, 1994
(B) The Pre-Conception Diagnostic Techniques (Prevention and Control) Act,
1994
(C) The Sex-determination Techniques (Regulations and Control) Act, 1994
61
(D) The Pre-Conception Diagnostic Techniques (Prevention of misuse) Act,
1994
5. According to the provisions of the Pre-Conception & Pre-Natal Diagnostic
Techniques (Prohibition of Sex Selection) Act, 1994, ‘embryo’ means a developing
human organism after fertilization till the end of
(A) twelve weeks
(B) ten weeks
(C) eight weeks
(D) six weeks
6. Which provision of the Pre-Conception & Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques
(Prohibition of Sex Selection) Act, 1994, defines ‘pre-natal diagnostic procedures’
(A) Section 2(g)
(B) Section 2(i)
(C) Section 2(k)
(D) Section 2(m)
7. The term ‘foetus’ means a human organism during the period of its development
beginning on the ____ following fertilization or creation (excluding any time in which its
development has been suspended) and ending at the birth
(A) sixty seventh day
(B) fifty seventh day
(C) forty third day
(D) sixty fourth day
8. Which chapter of the Pre-Conception & Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques
(Prohibition of Sex Selection) Act, 1994, deals with regulation of pre-natal diagnostic
techniques
(A) Chapter III
(B) Chapter IV
(C) Chapter V
(D) Chapter VI
9. The Pre-natal diagnostic techniques may be used for the purpose of detection of
(A) Sex-linked genetic diseases
(B) chromosomal abnormalities
(C) congenital anomalies
62
10. In which of the following situation no pre-natal diagnostic techniques shall be used
by the person qualified to do so, according to section 4(3) of the Pre-Conception & Pre-
Natal Diagnostic Techniques (Prohibition of Sex Selection) Act, 1994?
(A) the pregnant woman has undergone of two or more spontaneous abortions
(B) the pregnant woman has family history of mental retardation
(C) age of pregnant woman is twenty one years
(D) the pregnant woman had been exposed to potentially teratogenic agents
(Prohibition of Sex Selection) Act, 1994, prohibits sex determination?
(A) Section 6
(B) Section 7
(C) Section 13
(D) Section 14
12. In Central Supervisory Board how many women Member of Parliament shall be
elected
(A) six
(B) five
(C) four
(D) three
13. The Central Supervisory Board shall meet at least once in
(A) three months
(B) six months
(C) nine months
(D) every month
14. A member of the Central Supervisory Board shall not be disqualified for being
appointed as a member if he
(A) is an undischarged insolvent
(B) has been convicted and sentenced to imprisonment for an offence which in
the opinion of the Central Government, involves moral turpitude
(C) is of unsound mind
(D) has been removed or dismissed from the service of the Government
15. The State Supervisory Board and Union Territory Supervisory Board is constituted
under
(A) Section 16
63
(B) Section 16A
(C) section 15
(D) Section 15A
16. The State Board shall meet once in
(A) two months
(B) three months
(C) four months
(D) six months
17. How many of the total members of the State Board shall constitute the quorum
(A) ½
(B) 1/3
(C) ¼
(D) 2/3
18. Section 19 of the Pre-Conception & Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (Prohibition
of Sex Selection) Act, 1994, deals with
(A) Certificate of registration
(B) Cancellation of suspension of registration
(C) Offences and penalties
(D) Offences by companies
19. In which of the following case the constitutional validity of section 23 of the Pre-
Conception & Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (Prohibition of Sex Selection) Act, 1994
was challenged?
(A) Centre for Enquiry into Health and Allied Themes (CEHAT) V Union of India
(B) Dr. Mrs. Sudha Samir V State of Haryana
(C) Dr. Varsha Gautam V State of U.P
(D) Federation of Obstretics and Gynaecological Societies (FOGSI) V Union of
India
20. The time period during which the Genetic Counselling Centre may prefer an
appeal against an order of suspension or cancellation of registration passed by
Appropriate Authority
(A) 15 days
(B) 21 days
(C) 30 days
(D) 60 days
64
21. A Genetic Laboratory having ultrasound machine advertise in a newspaper
regarding facilities of pre-natal determination of sex are available, shall be liable for
(A) imprisonment which may extend to three years and with fine which may
extend to ten thousand rupees
(B) imprisonment which may extend to one year or fine which may extend to
ten thousand rupees or both
(C) imprisonment which may extend to five years or fine which may extend to
fifty thousand rupees or both
(D) imprisonment which shall not be less than six months but which may
extend to two years and fine which may extend to twenty thousand rupees.
(Prohibition of Sex Selection) Act, 1994, deals with offences by companies
(A) Section 24
(B) Section 25
(C) Section 26
(D) Section 27
23. What is the presumption of the Court in case of conduct of pre-natal diagnostic
techniques
(A) may presume
(B) shall presume
(C) conclusive proof
(D) irrebuttable presumption of law
24. Any registered medical practitioner who first time contravenes the provisions of
the Pre-Conception & Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (Prohibition of Sex Selection)
Act, 1994, shall be liable for
(A) imprisonment which may extend to five years and fine which may extend to
fifty thousand rupees
(B) imprisonment which may extend to three years and fine which may extend
to fifty thousand rupees
(C) imprisonment which may extend to two years or fine which may extend to
five thousand rupees or both
(D) imprisonment which extend to three years and with fine which may extend
to ten thousand rupees
65
25. Every offence under the Pre-Conception & Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques
(Prohibition of Sex Selection) Act, 1994, shall be
(A) non-cognizable and compoundable
(B) cognizable and bailable
(C) non-bailable and non-cognizable
(D) cognizable and non-compoundable
26. No court shall take cognizance of an offence under the Pre-Conception & Pre-
Natal Diagnostic Techniques (Prohibition of Sex Selection) Act, 1994, except on a
complaint made by a person who has given notice to the Appropriate Authority of not less
than
(A) 7 days
(B) 10 days
(C) 15 days
(D) 21 days
27. Who among the following is competent to try any offence punishable under the
Pre-Conception & Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (Prohibition of Sex Selection) Act,
1994?
(A) Judicial Magistrate of First Class
(B) Sessions Judge
(C) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(D) any Judicial Magistrate
28. All records, reports, consent letters shall be preserved for a period of
(A) one year
(B) two years
(C) three years
(D) five years
29. If any criminal proceeding has been instituted against any Genetic Counselling
Centre, the records and all other documents of such GCC shall be preserved
(A) for 3 years
(B) for 5 years
(C) for 12 years
(D) till final disposal of such proceedings
66
30. According to the provisions of the Pre-Conception & Pre-Natal Diagnostic
Techniques (Prohibition of Sex Selection) Act, 1994, the rule making power has been
conferred upon
(A) Supervisory Board
(C) Appropriate Authority
(D) Parliament
67
ANSWER KEYS
PRE-CONCEPTION & PRE-NATAL DIAGNOSTIC TECHNIQUES ACT, 1994

1. B 16. C
2. C 17. B
3. D 18. A
4. A 19. D
5. C 20. C
6 B 21. A
7. B 22. C
8. A 23. B
9. D 24. D
10. C 25. D
11. A 26. C
12. D 27. A
13. B 28. B
14. C 29. D
15. B 30. B
68

Special Acts For Up Judicial Service Examination

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PRACTICE QUESTIONS FOR SPECIAL ACTS

THE DOWRY PROHIBITION ACT, 1961

1. Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961, received the President’s assent on

Q. No. Answer Q. No. Answer

PROTECTION OF CHILDREN FROM SEXUAL OFFENCES ACT, 2012

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Q. No. Answer Explanation

12. A As per section 4 of POCSO Act, 2012, whoever commits penetrative

PROTECTION OF WOMEN FROM DOMESTIC VIOLENCE ACT, 2005

Q. No. Answer Q. No. Answer

MAINTENANCE AND WELFARE OF PARENTS AND SENIOR CITIZENS ACT, 2007

Q. No. Answer Q. No. Answer

THE MEDICAL TERMINATION OF PREGNANCY ACT, 1971

1. The object of the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971, is

Q. No. Answer Q. No. Answer

THE SEXUAL HARASSMENT OF WOMEN AT WORKPLACE (PREVENTION,

1. The Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and

Q. No. Answer Q. No. Answer

THE RIGHTS OF PERSONS WITH DISABILITIES ACT, 2016

(C) Appropriate Government

(A) Manjunatha V Government of Karnataka

Q. No. Answer Q. No. Answer

THE INDECENT REPRESENTATION OF WOMEN (PROHIBITION) ACT, 1986

Q. No. Answer Q. No. Answer

PRE-CONCEPTION & PRE-NATAL DIAGNOSTIC TECHNIQUES (PROHIBITION OF

1. The Pre-Conception & Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (Prohibition of Sex

Q. No. Answer Q. No. Answer

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