Comprehensive exam 2017

1.Which of the following is/are effects of non-competitive inhibition in enzyme catalyzed

reaction?
A.Lower Vmax
B. Higher Km
C. Lower enzyme concentration
D. A and B only

Ans: ​A

Review:
Vmax: maximal number of substrate molecules converted to product per unit time
Km: michaelis constant, substrate concentration at which V1 (inital reaction velocity) is half the
maximal velocity attainable at a particular concentration of enzyme

2.What group of amino acid is responsible for UV absorbance property of protein?

A. Acidic AA
B. Basic AA
C. Aliphatic AA
D. Aromatic AA
Ans: D
Review
Acidic AA: Aspartate and glutamate. Acidic because of negatively charged carboxylate group
(COO-)
Basic AA: Hisitidine, arginine , Lysine, Basic because of additiona NH3 at side chain
Aliphatic AA: Aliphatic meaning non-polar. This include Glycine, alanine, valine, leucine,
isoleucine, phe, tryp, met, proline
Aromatiic AA: includes Tyr, Phe, Tryp (lahat ng may aromatic ring, yung pentagon sa side
chain)
T​ryptophan​ ang may highest UV absorbance property!

3. What group is found in the side chain of Histidine that allows it to act as a protein acceptor
A.Sulfur atom (walang sulfur sa histidine, sa cystine at cysteine lng)
B. Hydroxylic group ( sa mga polar uncharged AA lng to, -OH. Serine, Threonine, Tyrosine)
C. Aliphatic side chain ( Aliphatic meaning non POLAR)
D. Aromatic ring ​( ang histidine ay may aromatic ring, and within the aromatic ring meron to
unpaired NH group, causing it to become a basic protein re: protein acceptor)

4. True of enzymes:
Ans: Enzymes increase the rate at which a chemical reeaction reaches equilibrium

5. Protein structure described as the number of of oligomeric proteins and spatial arrangement?
A. Primary: ( Nope 1 dimension lng to, reason: peptide bonds)
B. Secondary ( Nope, folding to ie: alpha helix and B pleated sheets, reason: hydrogen binding)
C. Tertiary (Nope, responsible to for overall 3D formation ng protein example: globin ng
hemoglobin, reason: disulfide binds, hydrophobic binds, ionic binds)
D. Quaternary​. (kopyang kopya yung definition sa topnotch lol; organization of two or more
protein chains to bind together in such a manner as to give a group of proteins a single function.
6. Which of the ff. Is not a function of nucleotides:
A. Component of co-enzyme (yes example: coenzyme A)
B. Source of energy (DUH ATP)
C. Component of membrane
D. Physiologic mediator (yep coenzyme nga sya eh)
E. None of the above
Review nucleotides:

7. Needed for production of nucleosides (PYR AND PURINES)

ANS: All of the above

8. What is the end product of excessive production of AMP and GMP

Answer: D. Uric acid

Review AMP -> to Hypoxanthine converted by xanthine oxidase(XO) to xanthine (XO is inhibited
by febuxostat and Allopurinol) and xanthine is converted to Uric acid by XO as well

GMP goes directly to becoming xanthine then converted by XO to uric acid which is secreted in
the urine

9. Kinetics is….
A. Study of rate of change of reactants to products
B. Is the change in amount of reactants or products per unit time (Velocity)
C. Is the change in concentration… (velocity pa rin)
D. Is the equation that relates the initial velocity to the concentration of reactants (michaelis
menten equation)
10. In this mechanism of the active site, the energy level of substrate is raised, and bond
lengths and angles of the substrate more closely resemble those found in the transition state
Ans.​ C. Strain effect ( aka substrate strain)

11. The rate limiting enzyme is the enzyme that..

Ans. A. catalyzes the first irreversible reaction in the metabolic pathway.
27-39

40 What is the mutation when CCA which is the codon for proline is replaced by UCA which is a
codon for serine
A) Missense Mutation
B) Frameshift Mutation
C) Nonsense mutation
D) Silent mutation

41 Genes that are expressed at a constant rate and rate not usually subject to regulation are the
A. Cistrons
B. Constitutive genes
C. Inducible genes
D. Repressor genes

42 A palindrome is
A) The ends of DNA fragment having a single strand sequences which are complementrart
to each other
 B) Sequence of duplex dna is different when the two strands are read in the same direction
C) A sequence of DNA is the same when the 2 strands are read in opposite direction
D) None of these

43 Which base pair required a high temp to dissociate

a. Adenine and guanine
b. Cystonine and thymine
c. Adenine and thymine
d. Cystosine and guanine
with three hydrogen bonds, are more stable and require more heat energy to dissociate

44 Which condition will not produce functional vit K deficiency

A. Prolo nged oral broad spectrum antibioti therapy
B. Total pack of red meat in the diet
C. Therapy with coumarin
D. Being newborn infant

45 Which type of repair mechanism is used when a damaged DNA is removed, refilled with the
proper DNA sequence and is ligated
a. Photoreplication repair
b. Recombination
c. Excision repair
d. Post replication repair

46. What is this process by which specific genetic information from DNA is retrieved and copied
on to copied RNA
a. Replication
b. Transcription
c. Translation
 d. Mutation

47 in which carbon position is the first double bond always introduced during desaturation
a. Between c4 and c5
b. Between c14 and c15
c. Between c9 and c10
d. Between c11 and c12

48 From what vitamin is ACP or fatty acid synthase complex derived

a. Pyridoxal
b. Cobalamin
c. Thiamine
d. Pantothenic Acid

49 What compound is not geneerated during cycle of beta oxidation

a. FADH
b. Acetyl CoA
c. H20
d. Fatty acyl coa

Oxidation, hydration (nglalagay ng H20 hindi gumagawa) oxidaytion thiolysis

50 which of the following statements is true about fatty acid synthase complex on mammals
a. It is composed of seven different proteins
b. It is a dimer of two similar sub units
c. It is composed of covalently linked enzymes
d. A catalyzes eight different enzymatic steps

51 what lipid would be deficient in a rat fed fat free diet from birth
a. Phospholipd
b. Triacylglycerol
c. Prostaglandin
d. Cholesterol

52 which of the following statements is not true about ketone bodies

a. They are present at high levels in uncontrolled DM
b. They are formed during prolonged starvation
c. They are utilized by the liver during long term fasting
d. They may be excreted in the urine
53. Which of the following is not required in the synthesis of fatty acids?
a. HCO3
b. ATP
c. FADH2
d. Acetyl-CoA

54. Which fatty acid oxidation pathway is defective in Refsum disease?

a. Alpha oxidation ​(accumulation of phytanic acid which is oxidized by alpha oxidation)
b. Beta oxidation
c. Omega oxidation
d. Odd number oxidation

55. The rate-limiting step in the synthesis of triacylglycerol is catalyzed by:

a. Phosphatidic acid phosphatase
b. Diacylglycerol acyltransferase
c. Glycerol-3-phosphate kinase
d. Monoacylglycerol acyltransferase

56. The backbone of triacylglycerol comes from the:

a. Direct action of glycerol kinase to glycerol
b. DHAP from glycolysis
c. Gluconeogenic amino acids
d. Succinate CoA

57. All carbons of cholesterol are from:

a. Pyruvate
b. Glycerol
c. DHAP
d. Acetyl CoA

58. Leptin is a hormone secreted by adipocytes to:

a. Increase appetite
b. Decrease appetite
c. Have orexigenic effect
d. Increase satietyj

59. Which of the following are the most important epimers of glucose
a. Fructose and sucrose
b. Fructose and galactose
c. Mannose and galactose
d. Mannose and xylulose
60 to 62: ​HINDI KO MABASA

63. The enzyme that catalyzes the oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate to acetyl Co-A in the
mitochondria is:
a. Pyruvate carboxylase
b. PEP carboxykinase
c. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
d. Pyruvate kinase

64. Skeletal muscle cannot release free glucose from its storrs of glycogen because it lacks
which of the following enzyme?
a. Debranching enzyme
b. Glucose-6-phosphatase
c. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
d. Glycogen phosphorylase

65. When carbohydrate enters the cell, this is the initial step they undergo:
a. Acetylation
b. Dehydrogenation
c. Methylation
d. Phosphorylation

66. This enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting committed step in glycolysis and is stimulated by
AMP and fructose-2,6-bisphosphate
a. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
b. Pyruvate kinase
c. Phosphofructokinase-1
d. Glucokinase

67. Blood glucose levels is maintained during the first few hours of initial stage of fasting by:
a. Glycolysis
b. Glycogenesis
c. Glycogenolysis
d. Gluconeogenesis

68. The products of the hexosamine pathway:

a. Functions to store glucose when it its plentiful
b. Are important sources of reducing equivalents
c. Are important components of glycosaminoglycans
d. Provides glucose during the fasting and starvation stares

69. Cataract formation in diabetic patients is due to the production of which of the following?
a. Sugar acid, glucoronic acid
 b. Sugar alcohol, sorbitol
c. Sugar phosphate, glucose-6-phosphate
d. Sugar aramine, glucosamine

70. In the anaplerotic step of gluconeogenesis, what metabolite is being replenished or refilled?
a. Acetyl Co-A
b. Citrate
c. Oxaloacetate
d. Pyruvate

71. Increased triglyceride and cholesterol synthesis with the development of atherosclerosis and
coronary artery disease can occur with increased intake of which of the following
carbohydrates?
a. Fructose
b. Galactose
c. Glucose
d. Mannose

72. One of the following statements is true about the Cori cycle:
a. Recycles lactose back to glucose
b. Recycles alanine back to glucose
c. Converts glucose-6-phosphate to pyruvate
d. Transaminates pyruvate to alanine

73. The high energy demand to power gluconeogenesis is mainly provided by which of the
following?
a. Oxidation of fatty acids
b. Oxidation of glucose
c. Transamination of amino acids
d. All of these

74. Which two amino acids act as transporters of ammonia formed in other tissues to the liver?
a. Glutamate and alanine
b. Citrulline and ornithine
c. Aspartate and glutamine
d. Glutamine and alanine

75. Which of the following is the universal amino acid group acceptor in transamination
reactions?
a. Pyruvate
b. Alanine
c. A-ketoglutarate
d. Glutamate
76. Which of the following enzymes is needed for transamination reactions?
a. Biotin
b. Pyridoxal phosphate
c. Tetrahydrobiopterin
d. THF

77. Which of the following intermediate links the urea cycle to the TCA?
A. Citrate
B. Fumarate
C. Aspartate
D. Oxaloacetate

78. Which amino acids catabolize their carbon atoms via pyruvate to the TCA?
A. Alanine, serine, threonine
B. Aspartate and asparagine
C. Histidine, arginine, proline
D. Tryptophan, isoleucine, lycine
Among the most important of such anaplerotic reactions is the formation of oxaloacetate by the
carboxylation of pyruvate, catalyzed by pyruvate carboxylase. This reaction is important in
maintaining an adequate concentration of oxaloacetate for the condensation reaction with
acetyl-CoA

79. Decarboxylation of glutamic acids will result in synthesis of what potent neuroinhibitor?
A. Serotonin
B. Gamma amino butyric acid
C. Dopamine
D. Acetylcholine

Glutamate decarboxylase​ or ​glutamic acid decarboxylase​ (​GAD​) is an enzyme that catalyzes

the decarboxylation of glutamate to GABA and CO​2​. GAD uses PLP as a cofactor.

80. What is the catabolic product of the carbon atoms of aspartate and asparagine?
A. Oxaloacetate
B. Pyruvate
C. A-ketoglutarate
D. Fumarate

The precursor to asparagine is oxaloacetate. Oxaloacetate is converted to aspartate using a

transaminase enzyme. The enzyme transfers the amino group from glutamate to oxaloacetate
producing α-ketoglutarate and aspartate.
81. Deficiency of homogentistic oxidase in the catabolism of tyrosine will give rise to which of
the following inborn error of amino acid metabolism?
A. Tyrosinemia
B. Phenylketonuria
C. Alkaptonuria
D. Hartnup disease

Ochronosis (dark pigmentation in connective tissue) as the result of homogentisic acid

(HGA) accumulation is a useful sign but does not appear until the 4th decade. As a
result the joint cartilage becomes fragile leading to disabling and chronic symptoms of
arthritis especially in the spine and large joints. Symptoms usually begin in the third or
fourth decade and the degeneration of the ochronotic intervertebral disks may result in
significant loss of height. Back pain, kyphosis, and decreased lumbar flexion are
common. Usually smaller joints such as those of the digits are not affected sufficiently
to cause symptoms.

82. Which of the following is Phase 1 reaction in the metabolism of xenobiotics

A. Conjugation
B. Methylation
C. Hydroxylation
D. Glucoronidation

Phase I - oxidation, hydroxylation, reduction

Phase II - conjugation (mathylation, sulphation, acetylation, glucuronidation, glutathione
conjugation, glycine conjugation)

83. What vitamin can be used to treat hyperlipidemia?

A. Folic acid
B. Biotin
C. Niacin
D. Thiamine

Niacin or vitamin B3 is one of the most important vitamins and its deficiency can severely
affect different metabolic processes and systems in the body.
Niacin is also the most important vitamin for improving lipid profile. Besides its effect on
cholesterol level, niacin is required for carbohydrate metabolism. It is also needed for the
normal functioning of the nervous and digestive systems as well as the skin, hair and eyes.
Multiple studies have confirmed that niacin can raise the level of HDL (high-density
lipoprotein or “good”) cholesterol. The results of these studies show that niacin increases
HDL cholesterol level by 15 – 25%.
In fact, the Mayo Clinic considers niacin as the most effective drug/supplement for raising
HDL cholesterol.
Besides its effect on HDL cholesterol, niacin also lowers blood LDL (low-density lipoprotein
or “bad”) cholesterol as well as triglycerides. To reduce the amount of LDL cholesterol and
triglycerides in the blood, niacin blocks the breakdown of stored fat. This action reduces the
amount of VLDL (very low-density lipoprotein) cholesterol and LDL cholesterol produced in
the liver.

84. What vitamin B deficiency can be diagnosed with erythrocyte transketolase activity?
A. Thiamin
B. Riboflavin
C. Pantothenic acid
D. Pyridoxine

Erythrocyte is the technical name for red cells. These are the cells that carry oxygen to our tissues
and they contain a complex mechanism that depends on a series of biochemical processes, each of
which requires an enzyme. Transketolase is one of these enzymes. Its activity can be detected by a
laboratory test and ​measuring transketolase is the only way of showing that the activity of
thiamine is normal​. The reason for this is that all the enzymes in body and brain cells require one
or more “cofactors” that enable the enzyme to function properly. Vitamins and some minerals are
cofactors and that is why they are so important. We have long known that they have to be obtained
from our diet, but the reasons given above make it clear that dietary intake may be normal and still
result in poor function of the enzyme in question.

85. Which of the following codes for amino acids?

A. Intron
B. Exon
C. Promoter
D. All of the above

intron / introns. In some genes, not all of the DNA sequence is used to make protein.
Introns are noncoding sections of an RNA transcript, or the DNA encoding it, that are
spliced out before the RNA molecule is translated into a protein. The sections of DNA
(or RNA) that code for proteins are called exons.

86. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the genetic code?

A. Triplet
B. Non-overlapping
C. Contains punctuations
D. Degenerate
87. The enzyme that synthesizes DNA from an RNA template is
A. RNA polymerase
B. Reverse transcriptase
C. DNA polymerase
D. None of the previous choices
88. Messenger RNA is synthesized in what direction?
A. 5’ to 3’ direction
B. 3’ to 5’ direction
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A and B

DNA replication also synthesized in 5’ to 3’ direction

DNA and RNA synthesis do differ in several important ways, including the following: (1)
ribonucleotides are used in RNA synthesis rather than deoxyribonucleotides; (2) U replaces T
as the complementary base for A in RNA; (3) a primer is not involved in RNA synthesis as RNA
polymerases have the ability to initiate synthesis de novo; (4) only portions of the genome are
vigorously transcribed or copied into RNA, whereas the entire genome must be copied, once
and only once during DNA replication; and (5) there is no highly active, efficient proofreading
function during RNA transcription.

89. Which of the ff may be responsible for increasing level of expression of a specific gene
A. Promoter
B. STructural gene
C. Enhancer
D. Nota

90. Frameshift mutations result from which of the ff alterations in the structure region of the
gene
A. Deletion
B. Insertion
C. Single base change
D. A and b only

91. Specifies the sequence of nucleotide in the rna

A. ​Rna polymerase
B. DNA polymerase
C. Sequence of nucleotide in DNA template
D. Aota

92. Contains the TATA sequence

A. ​Promoter
B. Operator
C. Enhancer
D. Structural gene

93. Rna editing refers to

A. Exception to central dogma occurs when coding info if changed to rna
B. Capping and tailing of rna to form the mature mrna
 C. Splicing of introns
D. Nota

94. Hormone action begins when the hormone

A. Is synthesized
B. Binds to binding protein
C. Is released into circulation
D. Binds to its receptor

95. Hormones may be classified according to the ff except

A. Nature of the transport protein
B. Location of receptor
C. Nature of signal to mediate hormone effect
D. Chem composition

96. Considered as prohormone

A. Testosterone
B. Estradiol
C. Calcitriol
D. Dihydrotestosterone

97. MOA of gonadal hormones

A. Open CA channel to allow influx
B. Binds to memb receptor to activate G prot
C. Activate activity of kinase to influence enzyme action
D. Binds to intracellular receptors to enter nucleus

98. Postmenopausal, major source of estrogen

A. Androstenedione to estrone
B. Testosterone to 17-b estradiol
C. Androstenedione to 17-b estradiol
D. Testosterone to estrone

99​. ​Correct about bound hormones

A. Easier to excrete
B. Serve as circulating reservoir of hormone
C. Biologically active
D. Most peptide and AA derived hormone

100. Catalytic domain of protein kinase are related to each other with respect to
A. Submit composition
B. Autophosphorylation
C. Sequence and structure
D. Km of atp and molecular weight