NEET - Test Series

Test Series For NEET-2019

A PERFECT BLEND & COMBINATION OF 5 SOURCES - NCERT | NCERT EXEMPLAR | STANDARD BOOKS | PREVIOUS YEARS PAPERS | CONCEPTUAL QUESTIONS

PART TEST - 1
Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 720

SYLLABUS
Physics : Electrostatics Force, Electric Field & Potential, Potential Energy , Electric Dipole,
Gauss' Theorem, Conductors, Capacitors.
Chemistry : Some Basic Concept of Chemistry, States of Matter, Thermodynamics.
Biology : The Living World, Biological Classification, Plant Kingdom, Animal Kingdom.

Name : ______________________________________ ID No. : ___________________ Date : ______ / _____ / _______

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE
GENERAL :
1. This paper contains 180 Qs. all questions are compulsory.
2. There is Negative Marking.
3. Write your Name, ID No. & Date in the space provided on this cover page of question paper.
4. The question paper contains blank space for your rough work. No additional sheet will be provided for rough work.
5. The answer sheet, machine readable Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) is provided separately.
6. Do not break the seal of the question paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilator.
7. Blank papers, Clipboards, Log tables, Slide Rule, Calculators, Cellular Phones, Pagers and Electronic Gadgets in
any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.
MARKING SCHEME :
1. This paper contains Single correct option, Sub option, Column Matching type and Diagram based questions.
2. Only one option is correct out of four given options. For each incorrect response, one-mark would be deducted.
3. In Physics : Q. 1 - 45 carry 4 marks each
In Chemistry : Q. 46 - 90 carry 4 marks each
In Biology : Q. 91 - 180 carry 4 marks each
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 NEET - Test Series

PHYSICS
Electrostatics Force, Electric Field & Potential, Potential Energy , Electric Dipole,Gauss' Theorem, Conductors, Capacitors

Q. 1 A point positive charge is brought near an Q. 1

isolated conducting sphere (Fig. ). The
electric field is best given by

(a) Fig (i) (b) Fig (iii) (a) Fig (i) (b) Fig (iii)
(c) Fig (ii) (d) Fig (iv) (c) Fig (ii) (d) Fig (iv)

Q. 2 If there were only one type of charge in the Q. 2

universe, then
(a) fdlh Hkh lrg ds fy, Ñ
(a) Ñ on any surface.

(b) ;fn fudk; dk dqy vkos”k “kwU; gS Ñ

(b) Ñ , if net charge of system is zero

(c) Ñ E.dS ifjHkkf’kr ugha fd;k tk ldrk

(c) Ñ E.dS could not be defined.
s
s

(d) Ñ tgk¡ q dk eku lrg ds vanj fLFkr

(d) Ñ if charges of magnitude q were

inside the surface.

vkos”kksa dk ifjek.k gS

Q. 3 Refer to the arrangement of charges in Fig. Q. 3

and a Gaussian surface of radius R with Q at R
the centre. Then Q

(a) total flux through the surface of the sphere is

-Q -Q
. (a) xksys dh lrg ls dqy ¶yDl ε gS
ε0 0

-Q -Q
(b) field on the surface of the sphere is 4 ε R 2 . (b) xksys dh lrg ij oS|qr {ks= 4 ε R 2 gS
0 0

(c) flux through the surface of sphere due to (c) xksys dh lrg ls 5Q ds dkj.k ¶yDl 5Q/ε 0 gS
5Q is 5Q/ε 0 .
(d) xksys dh lrg ij -2Q ds dkj.k lHkh txg oS|qr
(d) field on the surface of sphere due to –2Q is
{ks= leku gS
same everywhere.

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 NEET - Test Series
Q. 4 A positive charge Q is uniformly distributed Q. 4 R
along a circular ring of radius R. A small test
charge q is placed at the centre of the ring Q
(Fig. ). Then incorrect is q

(a) ;fn q > 0 gS rFkk oy; ds dsUnz ls nwj oy; ds

(a) If q > 0 and is displaced away from the centre
in the plane of the ring, it will be pushed back
towards the centre.
(b) If q < 0 and is displaced away from the centre
in the plane of the ring, it will never return to
the centre and will continue moving till it hits
the ring.
(c) If q < 0, it will perform SHM for small
displacement along the axis.
(d) q at the centre of the ring is in an unstable
equilibrium within the plane of the ring for
q > 0.
ry esa foLFkkfir fd;k tkrk gS rks ;g okil dsUnz
dh vksj /kdsy fn;k tk;sxk
(b) ;fn q < 0 gS rFkk oy; ds dsUnz ls nwj oy; ds
ry esa foLFkkfir fd;k tkrk gS rks ;g dHkh dsUnz
ij ugha vk;sxk rFkk fujUrj rc rd xfr djsxk
tc rd fd oy; ls uk Vdjk tk;s
(c) ;fn q < 0 gS rks oy; ds v{k ds vuqfn’k NksVs
foLFkkiu ds fy, SHM djsxk
(d) q > 0 ds fy, esa oy; ds dsUnz ij q vLFkk;h
lkE;koLFkk esa gS

Q. 5 Consider a sphere of radius R with charge Q. 5 R

density distributed as
ρ r = kr for r R
ρ r = kr for r R
= 0 for r > R.
= 0 for r > R.
Find the electric field at all points r < R. r<R

kr k.r 2 kr k.r 2
(a) 2 (b) 4 (a) 2 (b) 4
0 0 0 0

k.R2 kR k.R2 kR
(c) 2 (d) 4 (c) 2 (d) 4
0 0 0 0

Q. 6 The electrostatic potential on the surface Q. 6

of a charged conducting sphere is 100V. Two 100V
statments are made in this regard:
:
S1 : At any point inside the sphere, electric
intensity is zero. S1 :
S 2 : At any point inside the sphere, the
electrostatic potential is 100V. S2 :
Which of the following is a correct 100V
statement? ?
(a) S1 is true but S2 is false. (a) S1 lR; gS ijUrq S2 vlR; gS
(b) Both S1 & S2 are false. (b) S1 rFkk S2 vlR; gSA
(c) S1 is true, S2 is also true and S1 is the cause (c) S1 lR; gS S2 lR; gS rFkk izdFku S1 dk dkj.k
of S2. izdFku S2 gSA
(d) S1 is true, S2 is also true but the statements (d) S1 lR; gS, S2 lR; gS ijUrq nksuksa izdFku ,d
are independant nwljs ls Lora= gSA
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 NEET - Test Series

Q. 7 A parallel plate capacitor is made of two Q. 7

dielectric blocks in series.One of the blocks
has thickness d1 and dielectric constant k1 d1
and the other has thickness d2 and dielectric
k1 d2
constant k 2 as shown in Fig. This
arrangement can be thought as a dielectric k2
slab of thickness d (= d1+d2) and effective d (= d1+d2)
dielectric constant k. Then k is k k

k1d1 + k 2 d 2
(a) k1d1 + k 2 d 2
d1 + d 2 (a) d1 + d 2
k1d1 + k 2 d 2 k1d1 + k 2 d 2
(b) k1 + k 2 (b) k1 + k 2

k1d 2 d1 + d 2 k1d 2 d1 + d 2
(c) k d + k d (c) k d + k d
1 1 2 2 1 1 2 2

2k1k 2
2k1k 2 (d) k + k
(d) k + k 1 2
1 2

Q. 8 If a conductor has a potential V 0 and Q. 8 V 0,

there are no charges anywhere else outside,
then
(a) vkos”k pkyd dh lrg ij ;k pkyd ds vUnj
(a) there must be charges on the surface or
inside itself. gksxk
(b) there may be any charge in the body of the (b) pkyd ds vUnj dksbZ vkos”k ugh gks ldrk
conductor.
(c) there must be charges only on the surface. (c) vkos”k flQZ pkyd dh lrg ij gksxk
(d) there must be charges inside the surface. (d) pkyd dh lrg ds vUnj vkos”k gksxk

Q. 9 A capacitor is made of two circular plates of Q. 9 R

radius R each,separated by a distance d<<R. d<<R
The capacitor is connected to a constant
voltage. A thin conducting disc of radius
r<<R and thickness t<<r is placed at a r<<R t<<
centre of the bottom plate. Find the
minimum voltage required to lift the disc if
the mass of the disc is m. m

d mg d 2mg d mg d 2mg
(a) r (b) r (a) r (b) r
0 0 0 0

mg d mg mg d mg
(c) (d) r 2 (c) (d) r 2
0 0 0 0

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 NEET - Test Series
Q. 10 Two metal spheres, one of radius R and the Q. 10 R 2R
other of radius 2R,both have same surface σ
charge density σ . They are brought in
contact and separated. What will be new
surface charge densities on them?
5 5 3 5 5 5 3 5
, , (a) , (b) ,
(a) (b) 6 3 5 6
6 3 5 6
5 5 5 6 5 5 5 6
(c) , (d) , (c) , (d) ,
3 6 3 5 3 6 3 5
Q. 11 In the circuit shown in Fig., initially K1 is Q. 11 K1
closed and K2 is open. Then K1 was opened K2 K1
and K2 was closed (order is important), What
K2
will be the charge on identical capacitor?
? [C = 1 μF ]
[C = 1 μF ]

2 9 2 9
(a) C, C (a) C, C
9 2 9 2
9 2 9 2
(b) C, C (b) C, C
2 9 2 9

9 9 9 9
(c) C, C (c) C, C
1 1 1 1

9 9
9 9 (d) C, C
(d) C, C 2 2
2 2

Q. 12 A resistance R is to be measured using a Q. 12 R

meter bridge. Student chooses the standard S 100Ω
resistance S to be 100Ω . He finds the
l1 = 2.9 cm
nullpoint at l1 = 2.9 cm. He is told to attempt
to improve the accuracy.Which of the
following is a useful way? ?
(a) He should measure l1 more accurately.
(a) mls l1 dk eku “kq)rk ls ekiuk pkfg,A
(b) He should change S to 1000Ω and repeat
(b) mls izfrjks/k S dk eku 1000Ω dj ds ekiuk
the experiment.
pkfg,
(c) He should change S to 3Ω and repeat the
experiment. (c) mlsizfrjks/k S dk eku 3Ω dj ds ekiuk pkfg,

(d) He should give up hope of a more accurate (d) mls ehVj lsrq ls vkSj “kq) eki dh mEehn NksM
measurement with a meter bridge. nsuh pkfg,

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 NEET - Test Series
Q. 13 Two cells of emf’s approximately 5V and 10V Q. 13 5V 10V
are to be accuratelycompared using a
potentiometer of length 400cm. 400cm
(a) The battery that runs the potentiometer should (a) foHkoekih dks pykus okyh cSVªh dk foHko 8V
have voltage of 8V. gksuk pkfg,A
(b) The battery of potentiometer can have a (b) foHkoekih dh csV
S ªh ds foHko dk eku 15V rd gks
voltage of 15V and R adjusted so that the ldrk gS rFkk bldk R bl izdkj cnyk tk
potential drop across the wire slightly exceeds ldrk gS rkfd rkj esa foHko dk eku 10V ls
10V. FkksM+k T;knk gksA
(c) 50 cm yEckbZ ds izFke Hkkx esa foHko 10V gksuk
(c) The first portion of 50 cm of wire itself should
have a potential drop of 10V. pkfg,A
(d) foHkoekih dk iz;ksx izfrjks/k dh rqyuk ds fy,
(d) Potentiometer is usually used for comparing
fd;k tkrk gS foHko dh ugha
resistances and not voltages.
Q. 14 An electron falls through a distance of 1.5 Q. 14
cm in a uniform electric field of magnitude 2 × 10-4 Nc-1 1.5 cm
-4 -1
2.0×10 NC [Fig.]. The direction of the field
is reversed keeping its magnitude
unchanged and a proton falls through the
same distance [Fig.]. Compute the time of
fall in each case.

(a) te = 2.9 ns, tp = 130ns a) te = 2.9 ns, tp = 130ns

(b) t e= 130 ns,tp = 2.9ns (b) t e= 130 ns,tp = 2.9ns
(c)t e= 4.2 ns, tp = 75ns (c)t e= 4.2 ns, tp = 75ns
(d)te = 75 ns, tp = 4.2ns (d)te = 75 ns, tp = 4.2ns

Q. 15 two charges ±10 μC are placed 5.0 mm Q. 15 ±10 μC 5.0 mm

apart. Determine the electric field at point Q
Q, 15 cm away from O on a line passing 15 cm
thorugh O and normal to the axis of the O
dipole, as shown in fig.

(a) 1.3 × 105 NC-1 along BA (a) 1.3 × 105 NC-1 along BA
(b) 1.3 × 105 NC-1 along AB (b) 1.3 × 105 NC-1 along AB
(c) 2.3 × 105 NC-1 along BA (c) 2.3 × 105 NC-1 along BA
(d) 2.3 × 105 NC-1 along AB (d) 2.3 × 105 NC-1 along AB

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 NEET - Test Series
Q. 16 The electric field components in Fig. are Q. 16
E x = αx1/2 , E y = E z = 0, in which a = 800 E x = αx1/2 , E y = E z = 0, (a)
N/Cm1/2 Calculate (a) the flux through the (b)
cube, and (b) the charge within the cube.
a = 0.1 m.
Assume that a = 0.1 m.

(a) f = 1.05 Nm2 C-1, Q = 9.27 × 10-12 C (a) f = 1.05 Nm2 C-1, Q = 9.27 × 10-12 C
(b) f = 9.27 × 10-12 C, Q = 1.05 Nm2 C-1 (b) f = 9.27 × 10-12 C, Q = 1.05 Nm2 C-1
(c) f = 2.10 Nm2 C-1, Q = 4.63 × 10-12 C (c) f = 2.10 Nm2 C-1, Q = 4.63 × 10-12 C
(d) f = 4.63 Nm2 C-1, Q = 2.10 × 10-12 C (d) f = 4.63 Nm2 C-1, Q = 2.10 × 10-12 C
Q. 17 Four point charges q A = 2μC, q B = - 5μC, Q. 17 q A = 2μC, q B = - 5μC,
qC = 2μC, and q D = - 5μC are located at the q C =C 2μC,
μC,and
and
q Dq=D -=5μC
- 5μC
corners of a square ABCD of side 10 cm. ABCD
What is the force on a charge of 1μC placed 1μC ?
at the centre of the square ?
(a) zero N (b) 2.52 N
(a) zero N (b) 2.52 N
(c) 6.3 N (d) 4.37 N
(c) 6.3 N (d) 4.37 N
Q. 18 Two large, thin metal plates are parallel and close Q. 18
to each other. On their inner faces, the plates
have surface charge densities of opposite signs
17.0 × 10 -22 C/m 2
and of magnitude 17.0 × 10-22 C/m 2 . What is
electric field E between the plates? E ?

(a)2.4 N/C (b) 1.9 N/C (a) 2.4 N/C (b) 1.9 N/C
(c)3.5 N/C (d) 4.1 N/C (c) 3.5 N/C (d) 4.1 N/C

Q. 19 A hollow charged conductor has a tiny hole Q. 19

cut into its surface. The electric field in the
hole is ( σ is the surface charge density near
(σ
the hole.)
(a) σ/2ε 0 nˆ (b) σ/3ε 0 nˆ
(a) σ/2ε 0 nˆ (b) σ/3ε 0 nˆ
(c) σ/4ε 0 nˆ (d) σ/1ε 0 nˆ
(c) σ/4ε 0 nˆ (d) σ/1ε 0 nˆ

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 NEET - Test Series
Q. 20 A particle of mass m and charge (-q) enters Q. 20 m (-q)
the region between the two plates initially vx
moving along x-axis with speed v x. The L
length of plate is L and an uniform electric
E
field E is maintained between the plates.
Show that the vertical deflection of the
particle at the far edge of the plate is
2 2 2 2
2 2
(a) qEL / 1m v x
2 2
(b) qEL / 2m v x (a) qEL / 1m v x (b) qEL / 2m v x

2 2
2
(c) qEL/ 2m v x
2
(d) qEL / 2m v x (c) qEL/ 2m v x (d) qEL / 2m v x

Q. 21 The variation of electric field on the y - axis Q. 21 y y-

as a function of ' y ' is best represented by :
[for the given figure] –( )

(a) (b)

(a) (b)

(c) (d)
(c) (d)

Q. 22 A point charge 50 mC is located in the x-y Q. 22 x-y 50 mC

r r
plane at the position vector r0 (2 ˆi 3ˆj)m . r0 (2 ˆi 3ˆj)m
r
The electric field at the point of position vector r (8iˆ 5j)
ˆ m
r
r (8iˆ 5j)ˆ m, in vector from is equal to :
(a) 90 ( 3iˆ 4j)
ˆ V/m
(a) 90 ( 3iˆ 4ˆj) V/m
(b) 90 (3iˆ 4j)
ˆ V/m
(b) 90 (3iˆ 4j)
ˆ V/m

(c) 900 ( 3iˆ 4j)

ˆ V/m (c) 900 ( 3iˆ 4j)
ˆ V/m

(d) 900 (3iˆ 4j)

ˆ V/m (d) 900 (3iˆ 4j)
ˆ V/m

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 NEET - Test Series

Q. 23 Which of the following graphs shows the Q. 23

correct variation of electric field as a function R Q
of x along the axis of a uniformly and
x
positively charged ring of radius R and
charge Q.

(a)
(a)

(b)
(b)

(c)
(c)

(d)
(d)

Q. 24 r 2r,
Q. 24 consider two thin uniformly charged
concentric shells of radii r and 2r having
charges Q and – Q respectively, as shown. Q –Q A, B C
Three points A, B and C are marked at r 3r
,
2 2
r 3r 5r 5r
distances , and respectively from
2 2 2 EA, EB EC
2
their common centre. If EA, EB and EC are A, B C
magnitudes of the electric fields at points A, -
B and C respectively then

(a) EA > EB > EC (b) EC > EB > EA (a) EA > EB > EC (b) EC > EB > EA
(c) EB > EA = EC (d) EB > EA > EC (c) EB > EA = EC (d) EB > EA > EC

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 NEET - Test Series

Q. 25 Eight point charges (can be assumed as Q. 25 q

small spheres uniformly charged and their (
centres at the corner of the cube) having
values q each are fixed at vertices of a ) ABCD
cube. The electric flux through square
surface ABCD of the cube is

q q
(a) 24 Î (b) 12 Î
q q 0 0
(a) 24 Î (b) 12 Î
0 0 q q
(c) 6 Î (d) 8 Î
0 0
q q
(c) 6 Î (d) 8 Î
0 0

Q. 26 An uncharged sphere of metal is placed in Q. 26

a uniform electric field produced by two
large conducting parallel plates having
equal and opposite charges, then lines of
force look like

(a) (a)

(b)
(b)

(c)
(c)

(d)
(d)

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 NEET - Test Series

Q. 27 Two point charges +q and –4q are placed at Q. 27 +q –4q , (–a, 0) (+a, 0)
(–a, 0) and (+a, 0). Take electric field
intensity to be positive if it is along positive x- x-
x-direction. The variation of the electric field
intensity as one moves along the x-axis is

(a) (a)

(b) (b)

(c) (c)

(d) (d)

Q. 28 Charge Q coulombs is uniformly distributed Q. 28 R

throughout the volume of a solid hemisphere Q
of radius R metres. Then the potential at
O
centre O of the hemisphere in volts is

R R

O O

1 3Q 1 3Q 1 3Q 1 3Q
(a) 4pe 2R (b) 4pe 4R (a) 4pe 2R (b) 4pe 4R
o o
o o

1 Q 1 Q 1 Q 1 Q
(c) 4pe 4R (d) 4 pe 8R (c) 4pe 4R (d) 4 pe 8R
o o
o o

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 NEET - Test Series

Q. 29 A point charge q is brought from infinity Q. 29 q

(slowly so that heat developed in the shell is
negligible) and is placed at the centre of a
conducting neutral spherical shell of inner a b
radius a and outer radius b, then work done :
by external agent is:

(a) 0 (b) (a) 0 (b)

(c) – (d) - (c) – (d) -

Q. 30 A solid metallic sphere has a charge +3Q Q. 30 +3Q –Q

concentric with this sphere is a conducting
spherical shell having charge –Q. The radius a
of the sphere is a and that of the spherical b(>a) r(a < r < b)
shell is b(>a). What is the electric field at a ?
distance r(a < r < b) from the centre?
1 Q 1 3Q
1 Q 1 3Q (a) 4pe (b) 4pe
(a) 4pe (b) 4pe 0 r 0 r
0 r 0 r
1 3Q 1 Q
1 3Q 1 Q (c) 4pe (d) 4pe
(c) 4pe (d) 4pe 0 r2 0 r
2
0 r2 0 r
2

Q. 31
Q. 31 An ellipsoidal cavity is carved within a
perfect conductor . A positive charge q is q
placed at the center of the cavity . The points
A and B are on the cavity surface as shown in A B
the figure. Then

(a) A =
(a) electric field near A in the cavity = electric
B
field near B in the cavity
(b) A =B
(b) charge density at A = charge density at B
(c) A =B
(c) potential at A = potential at B
(d)
(d) total electric field flux through the surface of
q/e0
the cavity is q/e0 .

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 NEET - Test Series

Q. 32 Three charges Q , + q and + q are placed at Q. 32

the vertices of a right - angled isosceles Q, +q +q
triangle as shown. The net electrostatic
energy of the configuration is zero if Q is Q
equal to :

- -
- - (a) + (b) +
(a) + (b) +
(c) -2 q (d) + q
(c) -2 q (d) + q

Q. 33 A point charge ' q ' is placed at a point inside Q. 33 'q'

a hollow conducting sphere. Which of the
following electric force pattern is correct? ?

(a) (b)
(a) (b)

(c) (d) (c) (d)

Q. 34 A few electric field lines for a system of two Q. 34 Q1 Q2 x-

charges Q 1 and Q 2 fixed at two different
points on the x-axis are shown in the figure.
These lines suggest that

(a) |Q1| = |Q2|

(a) |Q1| = |Q2| (b) |Q1| < |Q2|
(b) |Q1| < |Q2| (c) Q1 ds ckbZ vksj fu;r nwjh ij fo|qr {ks= “kwU;
(c) at a finite distance to the left of Q1 the gS
electric field is zero (d) Q2 ds nkbZ vksj fu;r nwjh ij fo|qr {ks= “kwU;
(d) at a finite distance to the right of Q2 the gS
electric field is zero
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 NEET - Test Series

Q. 35 The plate separation in a parallel plate Q. 35 d

condenser is d and plate area is A. If it is A V
charged to V volt & battery is disconnected
then the work done in increasing the plate 2d
separation to 2d will be–

2
3 e 0 AV e 0 AV 2 3 e 0 AV
2
e 0 AV 2
(a) (b) (a) (b)
2 d d 2 d d

2e 0 AV 2 e 0 AV 2 2e 0 AV 2 e 0 AV 2
(c) (d) 2 d (c) (d)
d d 2d

Q. 36 P Q
Q. 36 The effective capacity in the following figure
between the points P and Q will be –

(a) 3mF (b) 5mF

(a) 3mF (b) 5mF
(c) 2mF (d) 1mF
(c) 2mF (d) 1mF

Q. 37 Capacitor C1 of the capacitance 1 microfarad Q. 37 C 1

and capacitor C2 of capacitance 2 microfarad C 2
are separately charged fully by a common
battery. The two capacitors are then t=0
separately allowed to discharge through
equal resistors at time t = 0.
(a) the current in each of the two discharging (a) t=0
circuits is zero at t = 0.
(b) the current in the two discharging circuits at (b) t=0
t = 0 are equal but maximum.
(c) the current in the two discharging circuits at (c) t=0
t = 0 are unequal
(d) capacitor C1 loses 50% of its initial charge (d) C1
sooner than C2 loses 50% of its initial charge C2 50%

Q. 38 Find the equivalent capacitance of the Q. 38 A B

infinite ladder shown in the figure between
the points A and B.

(a) 4mF (b) 6mF (a) 4mF (b) 6mF

(c) 1mF (d) 2mF (c) 1mF (d) 2mF

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 NEET - Test Series
Q. 39 A capacitor is made of a flat plate of area A Q. 39 A
and a second plate having a stair-like
structure as shown in figure. The width of
each stair is a and the height is d. Find the a d
capacitance of the assembly.

18 0A 11 0 A 18 0A 11 0 A
(a) (b) (a) (b)
11d 18d 11d 18d
13 0A 16 0A 13 0 A 16 0A
(c) (d) (c) (d)
16d 13d 16 d 13d

Q. 40 Consider the situation shown in figure. The Q. 40

width of each plate is b. The capacitor plates b
are rigidly clamped in the laboratory and V
connected to a battery of emf V. All surface M
are frictionless. Calculate the extension in
the spring in equilibrium (spring is
nonconducting).

2 2
2 2 0 bv (K 1) 0 bv(K 1)
0 bv (K 1) 0 bv (K 1) (a) (b)
(a) (b) 2dK S 4dK S
2dK S 4dKS
2 2
2 2 0 bv (K 1) 0 bv(K 1)
0 bv(K 1) 0 bv(K 1) (c)
2dK S
(d)
4dK S
(c) (d)
2dK S 4dKS

Q. 41 We have a combinat ion as show n in Q. 41

f ollow ing f igure. Choose the correct :
options :

(a) Total charge in this series combination is

600 mC (a) 600 mC
(b) The potential difference between the plates
of C3 is 30 V
(b) C 3 30 V
(c) The potential difference between the plates
of C1 is 20 V (c) C1 20 V
(d) The potential difference between the plates
(d) C 2 40 V
of C2 is 40 V

15
 NEET - Test Series
Q. 42 Two spherical conductors A1 and A2 of radii Q. 42 A1 A2
r1 and r 2 are placed concentrically in air. ( r1 r2)
The two are connected by a copper wire
as shown in figure. Then the equivalent
capacitance of the system is

4 0k r1 .r2 4 0k r1 .r2
(a) r2 r1 (a) r2 r1

(b) 4pÎ0 (r1 + r2) (b) 4 pÎ0 (r1 + r2)

(c) 4 pÎ0r2 (c) 4 pÎ0r2
(d) 4pÎ 0r1 (d) 4pÎ 0r1

Q. 43 A battery is used to charge a parallel plate Q. 43

capacitor till the potential difference between
the plates becomes equal to the
electromotive force of the battery. The ratio
of the energy stored in the capacitor and the
work done by the battery will be
(a) 1/2 (b) 1 (a) 1/2 (b) 1

(c) 2 (d) 1/4 (c) 2 (d) 1/4

Q. 44 A parallel plate condenser with a dielectric Q. 44

of dielectric constant K between the plates K C V
has a capacity C and is charged to a potential
V volt. The dielectric slab is slowly removed
from between the plates and then reinserted.
The net work done by the system in this
process is
(a) zero
(a) zero

1 1
(b) (K 1)CV 2 (b) (K - 1)CV 2
2 2

CV 2 (K 1) CV 2 (K - 1)
(c) (c)
K K
(d) (K – 1) CV2 (d) (K – 1) CV2

16
 NEET - Test Series

Q. 45 A parallel plate capacitor with air between Q. 45 9 pF

the plates has a capacitance of 9 pF. The
separation between its plates is ‘d’. The ‘d’
space between the plates is now filled with k1
two dielectrics. One of the dielectrics has
=3 d/3
dielectric constant k1 = 3 and thickness d/3
k2 = 6 2d/3
while the other one has dielectric constant
k2 = 6 and thickness 2d/3. Capacitance of the
(a) 45 pF (b) 40.5 pF
capacitor is now
(c) 20.25 pF (d) 1.8 pF
(a) 45 pF (b) 40.5 pF
(c) 20.25 pF (d) 1.8 pF

17
 NEET - Test Series

CHEMISTRY
Some Basic Concept of Chemistry, States of Matter, Thermodynamics.
Q.46 If 500 mL of a 5M solution is diluted to 1500 Q.46 5M 500 mL
mL, what will be the molarity of the solution 1500 mL
obtained? ?
(a) 1.5 M (b) 1.66 M (a) 1.5 M (b) 1.66 M
(c) 0.017 M (d) 1.59 M (c) 0.017 M (d) 1.59 M
Q.47 If the density of a solution is 3.12 g mL–1, Q.47 3.12 g mL–1
the mass of 1.5 mL solution in significant fig- 1.5 mL
ures is _______.
(a) 4.7g (b) 4680 × 10–3g
(a) 4.7g (b) 4680 × 10–3g
(c) 4.680g (d) 46.80g
(c) 4.680g (d) 46.80g

Q.48 Which of the following statements is correct Q.48

about the reaction given below:
4Fe(s) + 3O2(g) 2Fe2O3(g) 4Fe(s) + 3O2(g) 2Fe2O3(g)
(a) vfHkdeZdksa esa yksg vkSj vkWDlhtu dk dqy nzO;eku
(a) Total mass of iron and oxygen in reactants = = mRikn esa yksg vkSj vkWDlhtu dk dqy nzO;ekuA
total mass of iron and oxygen in product
vr% ;gk¡ nzO;eku laj{k.k ds fu;e dk ikyu gks
therefore it follows law of conservation of
mass. jgk gS
(b) vfHkdeZdksa dk dqy nzO;eku = mRiknksa dk dqy
(b) Total mass of reactants = total mass of
product; therefore, law of multiple proportions
nzO;eku ; vr% xqf.kr vuqikr ds fu;e dk ikyu
is followed. gksrk gS
(c) fdlh ,d vfHkdeZd ¼ykSg vFkok vkWDlhtu½
(c) Amount of Fe2O3 can be increased by taking
any one of the reactants (iron or oxygen) in dks vkf/kD; esa ysdj Fe2O3 dh ek=k c<+kbZ tk
excess. ldrk gS
(d) Amount of Fe2O3 produced will decrease if (d) ;fn fdlh ,d vfHkeZd ¼yksg vFkok vkWDlhtu½
the amount of any one of the reactants (iron dks vkf/kD; esa fy;k tk, rks Fe2O3 dh mRikfnr
or oxygen) is taken in excess. ek=k de gks tk,xh
Q.49 Which of the following property of water can Q.49
be used to explain the spherical shape of rain
droplets? ?
(a) Viscosity (b) Surface tension (a) “;kurk (b) i`’B ruko
(c) Critical phenomena (d) Pressure (c) Økafrd ifj?kVuk (d) nkc

Q.50 A plot of volume (V) versus temperature (T) Q.50 (V)

for a gas at constant pressure is a straight (T)
line passing through the origin. The plots at
different values of pressure are shown in Fig.
Which of the following order of pressure is
correct for this gas?
?
(a) p1 > p2 > p3 > p4
(a) p1 > p2 > p3 > p4
(b) p1 = p2 = p3 = p4
(b) p1 = p2 = p3 = p4
(c) p1 > p2 > p3 > p4
(c) p1 > p2 > p3 > p4
(d) None
(d) dksbZ ugha
18
 NEET - Test Series

Q.51 The interaction energy of London force is Q.51

inversely proportional to sixth power of the
distance between two interacting particles
but their magnitude depends upon
(a) Charge of interacting particles (a) vU;ksU; fØ;k djus okys d.k ds vkos”k ij
(b) Mass of interacting particles (b) vUU;ksU; fØ;k djus okys d.k ds nzO;eku ij
(c) Polarisability of interacting particles (c) vU;ksU; fØ;k djus okys d.kksa dh /kwzo.kh;rk ij
(d) Strength of permanent dipoles in the particles. (d) d.kksa esa mifLFkfr LFkk;h f}/kqzo dh izcyrk ij

Q.52 Dipole-dipole forces act between the Q.52

molecules possessing permanent dipole.
Ends of dipoles possess ‘partial charges’.
The partial charge is
(a) More than unit electronic charge
(a) ;wfuV bysDVªkWfud vkos”k ls vf/kd
(b) Equal to unit electronic charge (b) ;wfuV bysDVªkWfud vkos”k ds cjkcj
(c) Less than unit electronic charge (c) ;wfuV bysDVªkWfud vkos”k ls de
(d) Double the unit electronic charge (d) ;wfuV bysDVªkWfud vkos”k ls nqxuk
Q.53 The pressure of a 1:4 mixture of dihydrogen Q.53 1:4
and dioxygen enclosed in a vessel is one
atmosphere. What would be the partial
pressure of dioxygen?
(a) 0.8×105atm
(a) 0.8×105atm
–2
(b) 0.008 Nm (b) 0.008 Nm–2
4 –2
(c) 8×10 Nm (c) 8×104 Nm–2
(d) 0.25 atm (d) 0.25 atm
Q.54 Gases possess characteristic critical Q.54
temperature which depends upon the
magnitude of intermolecular forces between
the particles. Following are the critical
temperatures of some gases. H2 He O2 N2
Gases H2 He O2 N2
Critical temperature 33.2 5.3 154.3 126
in Kelvin 33.2 5.3 154.3 126
From the above data what would be the order
?
of liquefaction of these gases? Start writing
the order from the gas liquefying first
(a) H2, He, O2, N2 (a) H2, He, O2, N2
(b) He, O2, H2, N2 (b) He, O2, H2, N2
(c) N2, O2, He, H2 (c) N2, O2, He, H2
(d) O2, N2, H2, He (d) O2, N2, H2, He

19
 NEET - Test Series
Q.55 What is SI unit of viscosity coefficient (h)? Q.55 (h) SI
(a) Pascal (b) Nsm–2
(a) ikLdy (b) Nsm–2
(c) km–2s (d) Nm–2 (c) km–2s (d) Nm–2

Q.56 Atmospheric pressures recorded in different Q.56

cities are as follows:
Cities p in N/m2 N/m2
Shimla 1.01×10 5 1.01×10 5
Bangalore 1.2 × 105 1.2 × 105
Delhi 1.02 × 105 1.02 × 105
Mumbai 1.21×10 5 1.21×10 5
Consider the above data and mark the place
at which liquid will boil first.
(a) Shimla (b) Bangalore (a) f”keyk (b) csx
a yq:
(c) Delhi (d) Mumbai (c) fnYyh (d) eqEcbZ
Q.57 Thermodynamics is not concerned Q.57 ______
about______.
(a) Energy changes involved in a chemical (a) jklk;fud vfHkfØ;k esa gksus okys ÅtkZ ifjorZu
reaction. (b) jklk;fud vfHkfØ;k ds gksus dh lhek
(b) The extent to which a chemical reaction
proceeds. (c) vfHkfØ;k ds gksus dh nj
(c) The rate at which a reaction proceeds.
(d) jklk;fud vfHkfØ;k gksus dh laHkkouk
(d) The feasibility of a chemical reaction.

Q.58 Which of the following statements is Q.58 ?

correct?
(a) The presence of reacting species in a
covered beaker is an example of open
system.
(b) There is an exchange of energy as well as
matter between the system and the
surroundings in a closed system.
(c) The presence of reactants in a closed vessel
made up of copper is an example of a closed
system.
(d) The presence of reactants in a thermos flask
or any other closed insulated vessel is an
example of a closed system.
Q.59 The volume of gas is reduced to half from its
original volume. The specific heat will be
______.
(a) Reduce to half
(b) Be doubled
(c) Remain constant
(d) Increase four times
(a) ,d <ds gq, chdj esa vfHkdkjh Lih”kht dh
mifLFkfr [kq y s fudk; dk ,d mnkgj.k
gSA
(b) ,d can fudk; esa fudk; vkSj ifjos”k ds e/;
ÅtkZ vkSj nzO; nksuksa dk fofue; gksrk gSA
(c) dkWij ds cus ,d can ik= esa vfHkfØ;dksa dh
mifLFkfr ca n fudk; dk ,d mnkgj.k
gSA
(d) ,d FkeZl ¶ykLd ;k fdlh vU; can Å’ekjks/kh
ik= esa vfHkfØ;dksa dh mifLFkfr can fudk; dk
,d mnkgj.k gSA
Q.59
______.
(a) ?kVdj vk/kk jg tk,xk
(b) nqxuk gks tk,xk
(c) vifjofrZr jgsxk
(d) c<+dj pkj xquk gks tk,xk

20
 NEET - Test Series

Q.60 of formation of CH 4 (g) at certain Q.60 CH4 (g)

temperature is –393 kJ mol–1 . The value of –393 kJ mol–1
is
(i) zero (ii) < Df UQ (i) “kwU; (ii) < Df UQ
(iii) > Df UQ (iv) equal to Df UQ (iii) > Df UQ (iv) Df UQ ds cjkcj

Q.61 In an adiabatic process, no transfer of heat Q.61

takes place between system and
surroundings. Choose the correct option for
free expansion of an ideal gas under
adiabatic condition from the following.
(i) q = 0, DT ` 0, w = 0
(i) q = 0, DT ` 0, w = 0
(ii) q 0, DT = 0, w = 0
(ii) q 0, DT = 0, w = 0
(iii) q = 0, DT = 0, w = 0 (iii) q = 0, DT = 0, w = 0
(iv) q = 0, DT < 0, w 0 (iv) q = 0, DT < 0, w 0
Q.62 The pressure-volume work for an ideal gas Q.62
can be calculated by using the expression v
v

The work can also be vi

vi

calculated from the pV– plot by using the pV–

area under the curve within the specified
limits. When an ideal gas is compressed (a)
Vi Vf
reversibly or (b) irreversibly from volume
Vi to Vf . choose the correct option.
(i) w (reversible) = w (irreversible)
(ii) w (reversible) < w (irreversible) (i) w (mRØe.kh;) = w (vuqRØe.kh;)
(iii) w (reversible) > w (irreversible) (ii) w (mRØe.kh;) < w (vuqRØe.kh;)
(iv) w (reversible) = w (irreversible) + pex .DV (iii) w (mRØe.kh;) > w (vuqRØe.kh;)
(iv) w (mRØe.kh;) = w (vuqRØe.kh;) + pex .DV

Q.63 The entropy change can be calculated by Q.63 DS = qrev /T

using the expression DS = q rev /T. When
water freezes in a glass beaker, choose the
correct statement amongst the following :
:
(i) DS (system) decreases but DS (surroundings)
(i) DS (fudk;) ?kVrk gS ijUrq DS (ifjos”k) ogh
remains the same.
jgrk gSA
(ii) DS (system) increases but DS (surroundings)
(ii) DS (fudk;) c<+rk gS ijUrq DS (ifjos”k) ?kVrk
decreases.
gSA
(iii) DS (system) decreases but DS (surroundings)
increases. (iii) DS (fudk;) ?kVrk gS ijUrq DS (ifjos”k) c<+rk
(iv) DS (system) decreases and DS
gSA
(surroundings) also decreases. (iv) DS (fudk;) ?kVrk gS vkSj DS (ifjos”k ) Hkh
?kVrk gS

21
 NEET - Test Series

Q.64 On the basis of thermochemical equations Q.64 (a), (b) (c)

(i), (ii) and (iii), find out which of the algebric (a) (d)
relationships given in options (a) to (d) is
correct.
(i) C(graphite) + O2(g) ®CO2(g); DrH=x kJmol-1 (i) C(graphite) + O2(g) ®CO2(g); DrH=x kJmol-1

1 1
(ii) C (graphite) + O (g)®CO(g); DrH=y kJ mol-1 (ii) C (graphite) + O (g)®CO(g); DrH=y kJ mol-1
2 2 2 2

1 1
(iii) CO (g) + O (g)®CO2(g); DrH=z kJ mol-1 (iii) CO (g) + O (g)®CO2(g); DrH=z kJ mol-1
2 2 2 2

(a) z = x + y (b) x = y – z (a) z = x + y (b) x = y – z

(c) x = y + z (d) y = 2z – x
(c) x = y + z (d) y = 2z – x
Q.65 Suppose the elements X and Y combine to Q.65 X Y
form two compounds XY2 and X3Y2. When XY2 X3 Y2 0.1 XY2
0.1 mole of XY2 weight 10 g and 0.5 mole of 10 g 0.5 X3 Y2 9g X
X3 Y2 weighs 9g, the atomic weights of X and Y
Y are
(a) 40, 30 (b) 60, 40
(a) 40, 30 (b) 60, 40
(c) 20, 30 (d) dkbZ ugha
(c) 20, 30 (d) None

Q.66 What is the mass of the precipitate formed Q.66 50 mL, 16.9% AgNO3
when 50 mL of 16.9% solution of AgNO3 is 50 mL, 5.8% NaCl
mixed with 50 mL of 5.8% NaCl solution? ?
(Ag = 107.8, N=14, O = 16, Na = 23, Cl =
35.5) (Ag = 107.8, N=14, O = 16, Na = 23, Cl = 35.5)
(a) 3.5 g (b) 7 g (a) 3.5 g (b) 7 g
(c) 14 g (d) 28 g (c) 14 g (d) 28 g

Q.67 1.0 g of magnesium is burnt with 0.56 g O2 Q.67 1.0 g 0.56 g O2

in a closed vessel . Which reactant is left in
excess and how much? (At wt. Mg = 24, O
Mg = 24, O = 16
= 16)
(a) Mg, 0.16 g (b) O2, 0.16 g
(a) Mg, 0.16 g (b) O2, 0.16 g
(c) Mg, 0.44 g (d) O2, 0.28 g
(c) Mg, 0.44 g (d) O2, 0.28 g
Q.68 Given that the abundances of isotopes 54Fe, Q.68 Fe, 56Fe
54 57
Fe
56
Fe and 57 Fe are 5%, 90% and 5%, 5%, 90% 5% Fe
respectively, the atomic mass of Fe is
(a) 55.85 (b) 55.95 (a) 55.85 (b) 55.95
(c) 55.75 (d) 56.0 (c) 55.75 (d) 56.0

Q.69 For a given reaction, H 35.5kJ mol 1

and Q.69 , H 35.5kJ mol
.
S 85.6JK 1 mol 1 . The reaction is ( DH
spontaneous at (Assume that DH and DS do DS )
not vary with temperature.)
(a) T > 425 K (b) lHkh rkiksa ij
(a) T > 425 K (b) All temperatures
(c) T > 298 K (d) T < 425 K
(c) T > 298 K (d) T < 425 K
22
 NEET - Test Series

Q.70 Consider the following liquid-vapour Q.70

equilibrium.
ˆˆ† Vapour
Liquid ‡ˆˆ
ˆˆ† Vapour
Liquid ‡ˆˆ
?
Which of the following relations is correct?

(a) (b) 2
(a) (b) 2

(c) (d)
(c) (d)

Q.71 Match List I (Equations) with List II (Type Q.71 I( ) II ( )

of processes) and select the correct option.
List I List II
I II
(Equations) (Type of processes)
A. KP < Q (i) Non – spontaneous
A. KP < Q (i)
B. DGo <RT ln Q (ii) Equilibrium
B. DGo <RT ln Q (ii)
C. KP = Q (iii) Spontaneous and
C. KP = Q (iii)
endothermic

D. T (iv) Spontaneous
(a) A – (i), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (iv)
(b) A – (iii), B – (iv), C – (ii), D – (i)
(c) A – (iv), B – (i), C – (ii), D – (iii)
(d) A – (ii), B – (i), C – (iv), D – (iii)
D. T (iv)
(a) A – (i), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (iv)
(b) A – (iii), B – (iv), C – (ii), D – (i)
(c) A – (iv), B – (i), C – (ii), D – (iii)
(d) A – (ii), B – (i), C – (iv), D – (iii)

Q.72 Three moles of an ideal gas expanded Q.72

spontaneously into vacuum. The work done
will be
(a) vuUr (b) 3 twy
(a) Infinite (b) 3 Joules
(c) 9 Joules (d) Zero (c) 9 twy (d) “kwU;

Q.73 The following two reactions are known Q.73

Fe 2O 3(s ) 3CO (g) 2Fe(s) 3CO 2(g ) ; H 26.8kJ Fe 2O 3(s) 3CO(g) 2Fe(s) 3CO 2(g) ; H 26.8kJ
FeO (s ) CO (g) Fe (s ) CO 2( g) ; H 16.5kJ FeO (s ) CO (g) Fe (s ) CO 2( g) ; H 16.5kJ
The value of DH for the following reaction
Fe 2O 3( s) CO (g ) 2FeO (s) CO 2(g ) is
Fe 2O 3( s) CO (g ) 2FeO (s) CO 2(g ) , DH
(a) + 10.3 kJ
(a) + 10.3 kJ
(b) – 43.3 kJ
(b) – 43.3 kJ
(c) – 10.3 kJ
(c) – 10.3 kJ
(d) + 6.2 kJ
(d) + 6.2 kJ

23
 NEET - Test Series

Q.74 From the following bond energies : Q.74 :

H – H bond energy : 431.37 kJ mol-1 H–H : 431.37 kJ mol-1
C = C bond energy : 606.10 kJ mol-1 C=C : 606.10 kJ mol-1
C – C bond energy : 336.49 kJ mol-1
C–C : 336.49 kJ mol-1
-1
C – H bond energy : 410.50 kJ mol
C–H : 410.50 kJ mol-1
Enthalpy for the reaction,
H H H H
H H H H | | | |
| | | | C C H H H C C H
C C H H H C C H | | | |
| | | | Will be H H H H
H H H H

1 1
(a) 243.6 kJ mol (b) 120.0 kJ mol (a) 243.6 kJ mol 1
(b) 120.0 kJ mol 1

1 1
(c) 553.0 kJ mol (d) 1523.6 kJ mol (c) 553.0 kJ mol 1
(d) 1523.6 kJ mol 1

Q.75 What is the density of N2 gas at 227oC and Q.75 5.00 atm 227oC N2
5.00 atm. Pressure? (R = 0.082L atm K -1 ? (R = 0.082L atm K-1 mol-1)
mol-1)
(a) 1.40 g/mL (b) 2.81 g/mL
(a) 1.40 g/mL (b) 2.81 g/mL
(c) 3.41 g/mL (d) 0.29 g/mL
(c) 3.41 g/mL (d) 0.29 g/mL

Q.76 50 mL of each gas A and of gas B takes 150 Q.76 A B

and 200 seconds respectively for effusing 50 mL
through a pin hole under the similar 150 200
conditions. If molecular mass of gas B is 36, B a
the molecular mass of gas A will be
(a) 96 (b) 128 (a) 96 (b) 128
(c) 32 (d) None (c) 32 (d) None

Q.77 For real gases wvan der waals equation is Q.77

written as

Where a and b are van der Waals constants a b

Two sets of gases are
(i) O2, CO2, H2 and He (i) O2, CO2, H2 He
(ii) CH4, O2 and H2 (ii) CH4, O2 H2
The gases given in set-I in increasing order I b
of b and gases given in set-II in decreasing II a
order of a, are arranged below.Select the
correct order from the following
(a) (a) He < H2< CO2< O2 (b) CH4> H2> O2 (a) (a) He < H2< CO2< O2 (b) CH4> H2> O2
(b) (a) O2<He <H2< CO2 (b) H2> O2>CH4 (b) (a) O2<He <H2< CO2 (b) H2> O2>CH4
(c) (a) H2<He < O2< CO2 (b) CH4> O2> H2 (c) (a) H2<He < O2< CO2 (b) CH4> O2> H2
(d) (a) H2< O2< He < CO2 (b) O2>CH4> H2 (d) (a) H2< O2< He < CO2 (b) O2>CH4> H2

24
 NEET - Test Series

Q.78 Equal volumes of two monatomic gases, A Q.78 A B

and B at same temperature and pressure are
mixed. The ratio of specific heats (CP<CV)
of the mixture will be (CP<CV)
(a) 0.83 (a) 0.83
(b) 1.50 (b) 1.50
(c) 3.3 (c) 3.3
(d) 1.67 (d) 1.67

Q.79 By what factor does the average velocity of Q.79

a gasesous molecule increase when the ?
temperature (in Kelvin) is doubled?
(a) 2.0 (b) 2.8
(a) 2.0 (b) 2.8
(c) 4.0 (d) 1.4
(c) 4.0 (d) 1.4

Q.80 A bubble of air is underwater at temperature Q.80 15OC 1.5 bar

15OC and the pressure 1.5 bar. If the bubble
rises to the surface where the temperature 25OC 1.0 bar
is 25 OC and the pressure is 1.0 bar, what
will happen to the voume of the bubble? ?

(a) Volume will become greater by a factor of 1.6 (a) vk;ru 1.6 ds xq.kkad ls vf/kd tk,xkA

(b) Volume will become greater by a factor of 1.1 (b) vk;ru 1.1 ds xq.kkad ls vf/kd gks tk,xkA
(c) Volume will become smaller by a factor of 0.70 (c) vk;ru 0.70 ds xq.kkad ls de gks tk,xkA
(d) Volume will become greater by fa factor of 2.5 (d) vk;ru 2.5 ds xq.kkad ls vf/kd gks tk,xkA

Q.81 The solubility of K2SO4 in water is 16 g at Q.81 50ºC K2SO4 16 g 4

50ºC. The minimum amount of water g K2SO4
requried to dissolve 4 g K2SO4 is: :
(a) 10 g (b) 25 g (a) 10 g (b) 25 g
(c) 50 g (d) 75 g (c) 50 g (d) 75 g

Q.82 In a compound AxBy: Q.82 AxBy :

(a) Mole of A = Mole of B = Mole of AxBy
(b) Eq. of A = Eq. of B. = Eq. of AxBy
(c) y × mole of A = y × mole of B = (x+ y) ×
mole of AxBy
(d) y × mole of A = y × mole of B
(a) A ds eksy = B ds eksy = AxBy ds eksy
(b) A ds rqY;kad = B ds rqY;kad = AxBy ds rqY;kad
(c) y × A ds eksy = y × B ds eksy = (x + y) × AxBy
ds eksy
(d) y × A ds eksy = y × B ds eksy

Q.83 Two elements A (at.wt. 75) and B (at. wt. 16) Q.83 A( 75) B(
combine to yield a compoud. The % by 16)
weight of A in the compound was found to be A % 75.08
75.08. The formula of the compound is:
(a) A2B (b) A2B3 (a) A2B (b) A2B3
(c) AB (d) AB2 (c) AB (d) AB2

25
 NEET - Test Series

Q.84 4.4g of CO2 and 2.24 litre of H2 at STP are Q.84 4.4g CO2 2.24 H2 STP
mixed in a container. The total number of
molecules present in the container will be
(a) 6.022 × 1023 (b) 1.2044 × 1023 (a) 6.022 × 1023 (b) 1.2044 × 1023
(c) 2 mole (d) 6.023 × 1024 (c) 2 mole (d) 6.023 × 1024

Q.85 If for two gases of molecular weights M A Q.85 TA TB MA

and M B at temperature TA and TB, TAMB = MB T A MB = T B M A
TBM A, then which property has the same (magnitude)
magnitude for both the gases :
(a) density (b) pressure (a) ?kuRo (b) nkc
(c) K. E. per mole (d) r.m.s. speed (c) K. E. izfr eksy (d) r.m.s. osx
Q.86 The internal pressure of one mole of a Q.86
Vander Waal gas is equal to : :
2
(a) zero (b) b (a) zero (b) b 2
a a a a
(c) (d) b – (c) (d) b –
V2 RT V2 RT
Q.87 What percent of a sample of nitrogen Q.87
must be allow ed t o escape if its 273
temperature, pressure and volume are to °C , 3.00 atm , 1.65 L
be changed from 273 °C , 3.00 atm , and
0°C, 0.75 atm 0.55 L
1.65 L to 0°C, 0.75 atm and 0.55 L.
(a) 16.67 % (b) 83.33 %
(a) 16.67 % (b) 83.33 %
(c) 75.00 % (d) 25.00 %
(c) 75.00 % (d) 25.00 %
Q.88 Heat of combustion of CH4, C2H6, C2H4 and Q.88 CH , C H6, C2H4 C2H2
C2H2 are –212.8, –373.0, –337.0 and –310.5 –212.8, –373.0, –337.0
kcal respectively at the same temperature. –310.5 kcal
The best fuel among these gases is –
(a) CH4 (b) C2H6 (a) CH4 (b) C2H6
(c) C2H4 (d) C2H2 (c) C2H4 (d) C2H2

Q.89 For a reaction M 2O(s) ¾® 2M(s) + 1/2 Q.89 M2O(s) ¾® 2M(s) + 1/2 O2(g)
O2(g); DH = 30 kJ mol–1 and DS = 0.07 kJ 1 atm DH = 30 kJ mol–1 DS =
K–1 mol–1 at 1 atm. The reaction would not 0.07 kJ K–1 mol–1
be spontaneous at temperature –
(a) < 428.57 K (b) > 428.57 K
(a) < 428.57 K (b) > 428.57 K
(c) 428.57 K (d) 273 K
(c) 428.57 K (d) 273 K
Q.90 For the reaction at 300 K Q.90 300 K
A(g) + B(g) ® C(g) A(g) + B(g) ® C(g)
DE = – 3.0 kcal ; DS = –10.0 cal/K. Value of DE = – 3.0 kcal ; DS = –10.0 cal/K
DG is DG
(a) –600 cal (b) –6600 cal (a) –600 cal (b) –6600 cal

(c) – 6000 cal (d) None (c) – 6000 cal (d) None

26
 NEET - Test Series

BIOLOGY
The Living World, Biological Classification, Plant Kingdom, Protozoa, Animal Kingdom.

Q.91 The tube in a tube plan is not present in Q.91

the
(a) Taenia (b) Pheretima (a) Vhfu;k (b) QsjhfVek
(c) Leech (d) Ascaris (c) tksd
as (d) ,Ldsfjl
Q.92 Schizocoelic type of coelom is present in the Q.92
(a) Protochordata (b) Echinoderms (a) izksVksdkWMZV
s k (b) bdkbuksMesZVk
(c) Nematodes (d) Annelids (c) fuesVksM~l (d) ,uhfyMk
Q.93 When embryo develops in the body of Q.93
female but it does not obtain nutrients from
the mother, then it is called
(a) Ovo-viviparous (b) Viviparous
(a) vksoks&
a fofoisjl (b) fofoisjl
(c) Oviparous (d) None of these
(c) vksohisjl (d) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
Q.94 Match the animals list with names under Q.94 I-
Column I- with the animals listed with regular -II
zoological name given under Column-II;
Choose the answer which gives the correct
combination of the alphabets of the two
columns.
-I -II
Column-I Column-II
A. p.
A. Star fish p. Sepia
B. Jelly fish q. Astropecten B. q.
C. Devil fish r. Aurelia C. r.
D. Cuttle fish s. Octopus D. s.
(a) A = r, B, = s, C = p, D = q (a) A = r, B, = s, C = p, D = q
(b) A = r, B, = p, C = s, D = q (b) A = r, B, = p, C = s, D = q
(c) A = q, B, = r, C = s, D = p (c) A = q, B, = r, C = s, D = p
(d) A = q, B, = p, C = s, D = r
(d) A = q, B, = p, C = s, D = r

Q.95 Which phylum belongs to Duterostomia Q.95

(a) Echinodermata (b) Mollusca (a) bdkbZuksMesZVk (b) eksyLdk
(c) Arthropoda (d) Annelida (c) vkFkzksiksMk (d) ,uhfyMk

Q.96 An animal that transforms from bilateral to Q.96

radial symmetry in its life history is
(a) Hydra (b) Obelia (a) gkbMªk (b) vkWcfs y;k
(c) Starfish (d) Sponge (c) LVkjfQ”k (d) Liat
Q.97 Triploblastic acoelomate animals are Q.97
(a) Annelids (b) Platyhelminthes (a) ,fufyM~l (b) IysVhgsfYeUFkht
(c) Some arthropods (d) Both (a) and (b) (c) dqN vkFkzksiksM~l (d) (a) rFkk (b) nksuksa esa

27
 NEET - Test Series

Q.98 For seeing a haemocoel which animal you Q.98

will select
(a) dsp
a qvk (b) gkbMªk
(a) Earthworm (b) Hydra
(c) Liat (d) dkWdjksp
(c) Sponge (d) Cockroach
Q.99 Which is not the locomotory organ of Q.99
protozoa
(a) lhfy;k (b) ¶yStsyk
(a) Cilia (b) Flagella
(c) dwVikn (d) ik”oZikn
(c) Pseudopodia (d) Parapodia

Q.100 Which of the following is a member of Q.100

phylum porifera (a) lkbdkWu (b) Y;wdkslksysfu;k
(a) Sycon (b) Leucosolenia
(c) Liksaftyk (d) lHkh
(c) Spongilla (d) All of them

Q.101 Coelenterates are Q.101

(a) Acoelomate (b) Coelomate (a) vnsgxqgh; (b) nsgxqgh;

(c) Pseudocoelomate (d) All of these (c) feF;k nsgxqgh; (d) mijksDr lHkh

Q.102 Most appropriate term to designate the life Q.102

cycle of Obelia is
(a) Metastasis (a) esVkLVsfll
(b) Metagenesis (b) esVktsufs ll
(c) Metamorphosis (c) esVkekWQksZfll
(d) None of theses (d) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

Q.103 The phylum of comb jelly is Q.103

(a) Mollusca (a) eksyLdk
(b) Echinodermata (b) bZdkbuksMesZVk
(c) Coelenterata (c) lhysUVªsVk
(d) Ctenophora (d) VhuksQksjk

Q.104 Solenocytes and nephridia are respectively Q.104

found in (a) IysVhgsfYeaFkht vkSj ,fufyM~l esa
(a) Platyhelminths and Annelids (b) ,fufyM~l vkSj fuesVksMk esa
(b) Annelids and Nematoda (c) fuMsfj;k vkSj eksyLdk esa
(c) Cnidaria and Mollusca
(d) eksyLdk vksj bZdkbuksMesZVk esa
(d) Mollusca and Echinodermata
Q.105 Miracidium larva occurs in the life history Q.105
of (a) xksyd`fe
(a) Round worm (b) ;d`rd`fe ¼¶ywd½
(b) Liver fluke (c) dsp
a qvk
(c) Earthworm
(d) Qhrkd`fe
(d) Tapeworm

28
 NEET - Test Series

Q.106 Examine the figures A, B, C, D, E and F. In Q.106 A, B, C, D, E F

which one of the four options all the items, A, B, C, D, E F
A, B, C, D, E and F are correct ?
?

(a) A – Tape worm; B – Liver fluke; C – Female
Roundworm; D – Male Roundworm; E –
Hirudinaria; F – Nereis
(b) A – Tape worm; B – Liver fluke; C –Male
Roundworm; D – Female Roundworm; E –
Hirudinaria; F – Nereis
(c) A – Tape worm; B – Liver fluke; C – Female
Roundworm; D – Male Roundworm; E –
Nereis; F – Hirudinaria
(d) A – Tape worm; B – Liver fluke; C – Male
Roundworm; D – Female Roundworm; E –
Nereis; F – Hirudinaria
Q.107 A, B
Q.107 A, B and C are found in :
(a) A – Qhrk d`fe; B – ;d`r d`fe; C – eknk xksy
d`fe; D – uj xksy d`fe; E – fg:fMusfj;k; F –
usjht
(b) A – Qhrk d`fe; B – ;d`r d`fe; C –uj xksy
d`fe; D – eknk xksy d`fe; E – fg:fMusfj;k; F –
usjht
(c) A – Qhrk d`fe; B – ;d`r d`fe; C – eknk xksy
d` f e; D – uj xksy d`f e; E – us jht; F –
fg:fMusfj;k
(d) A – Qhrk d`fe; B – ;d`r d`fe; C – uj xksy
d`fe; D – eknk xksy d` fe; E – usjht; F –
fg:fMusfj;k
C :

(a) Annelids, Aschelminthes, Platyhelminthes

(a) Øe”k% ,fufyM~l] ,Ldsgfs YeUFkht] IysVhgsfYeUFkht esa
respectively
(b) Platyhelminthes, Annelids, Aschelminthes (b) Øe”k% IysVhgsfYeUFkht] ,fufyM~l] ,Ldsgfs YeUFkht esa
respectively
(c) Aschelminthes, Platyhelminthes, Annelids (c) Øe”k% ,Ldsgfs YeUFkht] IysVhgsfYeUFkht] ,fufyM~l esa
respectively
(d) Annelids, Platyhelminthes, Aschelminthes (d) Øe”k% ,fufyM~l] IysVhgsfYeUFkht] ,Ldsgfs YeUFkht esa
respectively
Q.108 Given below are three statements regarding Q.108
Aschelminthes
A. They are bilaterally symmetrical and A.
triploblastic B.
B. They are dioecious C.
C. All are plants or animals parasites
Mark the option that has both the correct
statements
(a) A, B (b) A, C
(a) A, B (b) A, C
(c) B, C (d) None (c) B, C (d) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

29
 NEET - Test Series
Q.109 What will you look for to identify the sex of Q.109
the following?
(a) Female Ascaris – sharply curved posterior end (a) eknk ,sLdsfjl&i”p fljk eqMk gqvk
(b) Male frog – a copulatory pad on the first digit (b) uj es<
a +d&i”p ikn dh izFke vaxqyh ij esFkqu
of the hind limb xn~nh mifLFkr
(c) Female cockroach – anal cerci (c) eknk dkWdjksp & xqnk ywe
(d) Male shark – claspers borne on pelvic fins (d) uj “kkdZ&isfYod ia[kks ij DysLij dh mifLFkfr
Q.110 Mark the incorrect statement for the phyla, Q.110
Platyhelminthes to Echinodermata
(a) All groups represent organ/organ-system
level of organization (a) lHkh vax@vax ra= Lrj dk laxBu n”kkZrs gSa
(b) All are triploblastic (b) lHkh f=Lrjh; gS
(c) All are eukaryote (c) lHkh ;wdsfj;ksV~l gS
(d) None of these (d) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

Q.111 In platyhelminthes Q.111

(a) The embryonic layers, ectoderm and (a) Hkwz.kh; Lrj ,DVksMeZ rFkk ,aMksMeZ ehlksfXy;k
endoderm, are separated by mesoglea }kjk i`Fkd gksrs gS
(b) The body is asymmetrical (b) “kjhj vlefer gksrk gS
(c) There is tissue level of organization (c) buesa ÅÙkd Lrj dk laxBu feyrk gS
(d) The body cavity is absent (d) buesa “kjhj xqgk vuqifLFkr gksrh gS
Q.112 Given are the four matches of phyla with their Q.112
characteristic cells
A. Coelenterate – Nematocytes
A. –
B. Porifera – Choanocytes
B. –
C. Ctenophora – Solenocytes
C. –
D. Platyhelminthes – Nephrocytes
D. –
Select the correct option
(a) A, B (b) B, C (a) A, B (b) B, C
(c) C, D (d) B, D (c) C, D (d) B, D

Q.113 Which of the following organism is correctly Q.113

matched with its common name?
(a) vkWjfs y;k&dkWEc tSyh
(a) Aurelia-comb jelly
(b) ,Mefl;k&leqnhz ,sfueksu
(b) Adamsia-sea anemone
(c) ,ulkbDyksLVksek&fiu d`fe
(c) Ancylostoma-pin worm
(d) Aplysia-sea mouse (d) ,Iykbfl;k&leqnzh pwgk

Q.114 The cross section of the body of an Q.114

invertebrate is given below. Identify the
animal which has this body plan.

30
 NEET - Test Series
(a) Cockroach (Arthropoda) (a) dkWdjksp (vkFkzksiksMk)
(b) Round worm (Aschelminthes) (b) xksy d`fe (,Ldsgfs YefUFkt)
(c) Planaria (Flat worm) (c) Iysusfj;k (piVs d`fe)
(d) dspqvk¡ (,fufyMk)
(d) Earthworm (Annelida)
Q.115 –
Q.115 Select the incorrect statement –
A. In Urochordates notochord only present A.
in tail of larva.
B. In cephalochordates notochord extend B.
head to tail
C. Branchiostoma is a hemichordate. C.
D. Superclass agnatha include only class D.
cyclostomata
(a) OnlyA, B and D (b) Only C, D and A (a) A, B rFkk D dsoy (b) C, D rFkk A dsoy
(c) Only C (d) Only A and D (c) C dsoy (d) A rFkk D dsoy

Q.116 The portal system seen in all vertebrates is Q.116

(a) Hepatic (b) Renal (a) fgisfVd (b) jhuy
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Pulmonary
(c) (a) rFkk (b) nksuksa (d) iYeksujh
Q.117 Match items in column I with those given in Q.117 I II
column II
I II
Column I Column II
(A) (i)
(A) Limbless reptile (i) Lamprey
(B) (ii)
(B) Jawless vertebrate (ii) Salamander
(C) (iii)
(C) Amphibian (iii) Snake
(D) Cartilaginous fish (iv) Shark (D) (iv)
(E) Flightless bird (v) Ostrich (E) (v)
(a) (A) – (i), (B) – (ii), (C) – (iii), (D) – (iv), (E) – (v) (a) (A) – (i), (B) – (ii), (C) – (iii), (D) – (iv), (E) – (v)
(b) (A) – (ii), (B) – (i), (C) – (iii), (D) – (iv), (E) – (v) (b) (A) – (ii), (B) – (i), (C) – (iii), (D) – (iv), (E) – (v)
(c) (A) – (iii), (B) – (i), (C) – (ii), (D) – (iv), (E) – (v)
(c) (A) – (iii), (B) – (i), (C) – (ii), (D) – (iv), (E) – (v)
(d) (A) – (v), (B) – (ii), (C) – (iii), (D) – (iv), (E) – (i)
(d) (A) – (v), (B) – (ii), (C) – (iii), (D) – (iv), (E) – (i)

Q.118 Match the columns Q.118

Column- I Column-II -I -II

A. Planula 1. Annelida A. 1.
B. Tornaria 2. Mollusca B. 2.
C. Trochophore 3. Arthropoda C. 3.
D. Bipinnaria 4. Hemichordata D. 4.
E Glochidium 5. Echinodermata E 5.
6. Coelenterata 6.
(a) A – 6, B – 4, C – 1, D – 5, E – 2 (a) A – 6, B – 4, C – 1, D – 5, E – 2
(b) A – 2, B – 5, C – 1, D – 4, E – 6 (b) A – 2, B – 5, C – 1, D – 4, E – 6
(c) A – 6, B – 4, C – 3, D – 2, E – 1 (c) A – 6, B – 4, C – 3, D – 2, E – 1
(d) A – 4, B – 3, C – 2, D – 1, E – 5
(d) A – 4, B – 3, C – 2, D – 1, E – 5
31
 NEET - Test Series

Q.119 Fresh water bony fishes maintain water Q.119

balance by
(a) Excrete hypotonic urine
(a) gkbZiksVksfud ;wfju ds mRltZu }kjk
(b) Excrete salts from gills
(b) fxyksa ds vkj&ikj mRlftZr yo.kksa }kjk
(c) Drink more water
(c) ty dh vf/kd ek=k ihus ls
(d) Excretory waste is uric acid
(d) ;wfjd vEy ds :i esa mRlthZ viekT;Z ds }kjk
Q.120 Correct sequence of Rana tigrina Q.120 –
classification is –
(a) Chordata, Craniata, Amphibia,Gnathostomata, (a) dkWMsZVk] Øsfu;Vk] ,EQhfc;k] XusFkksLVksesVk] jkuk
Rana
(b) dkWMsZVk] Øsfu;Vk] XusFkksLVksesVk] ,EQhfc;k] jkuk
(b) Chordata, Craniata, Gnathostomata,
Amphibia, Rana
(c) dkWMV
Zs k] Øsfu;Vk] ,EQhfc;k] XusFkksLVkseVs k] fVxjhuk
(c) Chordata, Craniata, Amphibia,
Gnathostomata, Tigrina (d) XusFkksLVksesVk] Øxfu;Vk] dkWMZV
s k] jkuk] fVxjhuk
(d) Gnathostomata, Craniata, Chordata,Rana,
Tigrina
Q.121 Match items in column I with those given in Q.121 I II
column II –I – II
Column – I Column – II A. 1.
A. Euplectella 1. Sea pen B. 2.
B. Physalia 2. Pin worm C. 3.
C. Pennatula 3. Venous flower basket
D. 4.
D. Enterobias 4. Midwife toad
E. 5.
E. Alytes 5. Midwife soldier
(a) A – 5, B – 4, C – 3, D –2, E – 1 (a) A – 5, B – 4, C – 3, D –2, E – 1
(b) A – 5, B – 3, C – 4, D –2, E – 1
(b) A – 5, B – 3, C – 4, D –2, E – 1
(c) A – 4, B – 5, C – 1, D –2, E – 3
(c) A – 4, B – 5, C – 1, D –2, E – 3
(d) A – 3, B – 5, C – 1, D –2, E – 4 (d) A – 3, B – 5, C – 1, D –2, E – 4
Q.122 Which of the following statement is correct Q.122
regarding cockroach – –
(a) Ventral nerve cord present (a) v/kj raf=dk jTtw dk ik;k tkuk
(b) Spiracles helps in excretion (b) LikbjsdYl dk mRltZu esa lgk;rk djuk
(c) Phallomeres present in female cockroach (c) eknk dkWdjksp esa Qsyksfe;lZ dk ik;k tkuk
(d) Compound eye is called ocellus. (d) la;qDr us= dks vksflyl dguk

Q.123 The diagram represents the reproductive Q.123

organs of male cockroach. Choose the
correct combination of labelling.

32
 NEET - Test Series

(a) a-8th sternum, b-anal cercus, c-10th tergum (a) a-8th LVuZe , b-,uy ldZl, c-10th VxZe
d-anal style d-,uy LVkbZy
(b) a-10th tergum, b-anal cercus, c- anal style, (b) a-10th VxZe, b-,uy ldZl, c- ,yu LVkbZy,
d-8th sternum d-8th LVuZe
(c) a-anal style, b-anal cercus, c-10th tergum d- (c) a-,uy LVkbZ, b-,uy ldZl, c-10th VxZe d-
8th sternum 8th LVuZe
(d) a-8th sternum, b-anal style, c-10th tergum d- (d) a-8th LVuZe, b-,uy LVkbZy, c-10th VxZe, d-
anal cercus ,uy ldZl
Q.124 Match the columns and choose the exact Q.124
combination
(A) (i)
(A) Ommatidia (i) Articulation with thorax
(B) Trochanter (ii) For vision (B) (ii)

(C) Coxa (iii) Forming exoskeleton (C) (iii)

(D) Sclerites (iv) Fused with large and stout
(D) (iv)
femur
(a) A—(iv) B—(iii) C—(i) D —(ii)
(a) A—(iv) B—(iii) C—(i) D —(ii)
(b) A—(i) B—(ii) C—(iii) D —(iv)
(b) A—(i) B—(ii) C—(iii) D —(iv)
(c) A—(ii) B—(iv) C—(i) D —(iii)
(c) A—(ii) B—(iv) C—(i) D —(iii)
(5) A—(iii) B—(i) C—(ii) D —(iv) (5) A—(iii) B—(i) C—(ii) D —(iv)
Q.125 From the given below features of living Q.125
organisms how many are shown by all
organisms from the prokaryotes to most
complex eukaryotes (A) and how many are (A)
exhibited by non-living objects (B) (B)
respectively?
Metabolism, intrinsic growth, Reproduction,
Cellular organisation, Self consciousness,
Extrinsic growth.
(a) A – 2, B – 2
(a) A – 2, B – 2
(b) A – 3, B – 1
(b) A – 3, B – 1
(c) A – 4, B – 1
(c) A – 4, B – 1
(d) A – 5, B – 4 (d) A – 5, B – 4

Q.126 ‘Taxa can indicate categories at different Q.126

levels.’ The above given statement is well
justified by which of the following group of
organisms
(a) Potato, Brinjal, Makoi (a) vkyw] cSaxu] edks;

(b) Lion, Tiger, Leopard (b) “ksj] phrk] ck|

(c) Plants, Monocots, Rice (c) ikni] ,dchti=h] pkoy

(d) Mango, Wheat, Maize (d) vke] xsgw¡] eDdk

33
 NEET - Test Series
Q.127 Choose the correct option for the missing Q.127 (A, B, C, D)
words (A, B, C, D)
(a) Petunia, A ® Solanaceae
(a) , A ®
(b) Felis, B ® C . (b) , B ® C .
(c) Convolvulaceae, Solanaceae ® D . (c) ,® D .
(a) A – Triticum B–Panthera (a) A – fVªfVde B–is aFkjk
C – Felidae D – Polymoniales C – QsfyMh D – ikWyheksfu,Yl
(b) A – Datura B – Canis (b) A – /krwjk B – dsful
C – Cancidae D – Poales C – dsuhMh D – ikW,sYl
(c) A – Datura B – Panthera (c) A – /krwjk B – isFa kjk
C – Felidae D – Polymoniales C – QsfyMh D – ikWyheksfu,Yl
(d) A – Solanum B – Canis (d) A – lksyu
s e B – dsful
C – Felidae D – Polymoniales C – QsfyMh D – ikWyheksfu,Yl

Q.128 Taxonomic aids for preservation of plant Q.128

specimens and conservation of plants
respectively are
(a) E;wft;e] gcsZfj;e
(a) Museum, Herbarium
(b) Herbarium, Botanical garden (b) gcsZfj;e] okuLifrd m|ku

(c) Herbarium, Museum (c) gcsZfj;e] E;wft;e

(d) Botanical garden, Museum (d) okuLifrd m|ku E;wft;e

Q.129 Taxonomic aid for the identification of plants Q.129

and animals based on similarities and
dissimilarities are
a. Using non-contrasting characters
a.
occurring in pair.
b. Generally analytical in nature.
b.
c. Involved in acceptance of two options
c.
from a couplet.
d. Same for the different taxonomic levels.
d.
e . Using couplets and leads. e.
Choose correct option
(a) a, b & c (b) a, c & d (a) a, b & c (b) a, c & d
(c) b & e (d) c, d & e (c) b & e (d) c, d & e

Q.130 Choose the correct option for the blanks A, Q.130 A, B, C D

B, C and D.

34
 NEET - Test Series
(a) A – Absent B – Protista (a) A – vuqifLFkr B – izkfs VLVk
C – Absent D – Fungi C – vuqifLFkr D – dod
(b) A – Non-cellulosic B – Fungi (b) A – uku&lsywyksftd B – dod
C – Present D – Protista C – mifLFkr D – izkfs VLVk
(c) A – Cellulosic B – Fungi (c) A – lsY;wyksfld B – dod
C – Absent D – Plantae C – vuqifLFkr D – IykUVh
(d) A – Present B – Protista (d) A – mifLFkr B – izkfs VLVk
C – Absent D – Fungi C – vuqifLFkr D – dod

Q.131 Choose correct option for the given below Q.131

figures

(a) B – Most common shape (a) B – vf/kdrj lkekU; vkdkj

(b) A – Always non-flagellated
(c) D – Vibrio
(d) All are correct
Q.132 Bacterial group which play a great role in
recycling of nutrients
(a) Are photoautotrophs
(b) Oxidise organic substances
(c) Release energy through oxidation of nitrates
(d) Fix atmospheric nitrogen
Q.133 Smallest living cells
(a) Cannot survive without oxygen
(b) May lack cell wall
(c) Are pathogenic both to plants and animals
(d) Possess dsDNA which is circular
(b) A – ges”kk vdk”kkfHkdh;
(c) D – dksekdkj
(d) lHkh lgh gS
Q.132
(a) izdk”k Loiks’kh gksrs gS
(b) dkcZfud inkFkksZ dks vkWDlhd`r djrs gS
(c) ukbVªV
s ds vkWDlhdj.k ls ÅtkZ dh foeqfDr djrs gS
(d) okrkoj.kh; ukbVªkstu dk fLFKjhdj.k gS
Q.133
(a) vkWDlhtu ds fcuk thfor ugh jg ldrh
(b) dksf”kdk fHkfÙk dh deh gks ldrh gS
(c) ikS/ks ,oa tUrq nksuksa ds fy, jksxtud gksrh gS
(d) ds ikl dsDNA gS tks o`rh; gksrk gS

Q.134 Choose correct option w.r.t. body Q.134

organisation, metabolic diversity and
structure of bacteria respectively (a) <hys Ård Lrj] O;kid] tfVy
(a) Loose tissue level, extensive, complex
(b) tfVy] vO;kid] ljy
(b) Complex, non-extensive, simple
(c) Cellular, extensive, simple (c) dksf”kdh;] O;kid] ljy
(d) Cellular, non-extensive, complex (d) dksf”kdh;] vO;kid] tfVy

Q.135 Cell wall of diatoms Q.135

(a) Form thick overlapping non-porous shells (a) irys vfrO;kfir vfNnzhr dks’B ls curh gS
(b) Is embedded with silica and lignin (b) flfydk ,o fyfXuu ds lkFk vUr% LFkkfir gksrh gS
(c) Forms non-gritty soil (c) xSj fdjdhjh feV~Vh ls fufeZr gksrh gS
(d) Is indestructible (d) v{k; gksrh gS
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Q.136 What is the origin of asexual spore and Q.136
sexual spores produced in members of
ascomycetes respectively?
?
(a) Exogenous, Endogenous
(a) cfgtkZr ,ao vUrtkZr
(b) Endogenous, Exogenous,
(b) vUrtkZr ,ao cfgtkZr
(c) Exogenous, Exogenous
(c) cfgtkZr ,oa cfgtkZr
(d) Endogenous, Endogenous,
(d) vUrtkZr ,oa vUrtkZr
Q.137 Asexual reproduction through the formation Q.137
of both zoospore and aplanospore occurs in
members of
(a) Sac fungi (b) Club fungi (a) lsd dod (b) Dyc dod

(c) Algal fungi (d) Imperfect fungi (c) ,Yxy dod (d) viwZ.k dod

Q.138 Lichens are dual organisms that represent Q.138

association between
(a) Autotrophic + Heterotrophic organism
(b) Prokaryotic + Eukaryotic organism
(c) Lower plants + Saprophytic organism
(d) More than one option is correct
Q.139 Whittaker classification system does not
include
(a) Lichens, Virus, BGA
(b) Viroids, Prions, Algae
(c) Virus, Viroids, Prions
(d) Mycorrhiza, BGA, Lichens
(a) Loiks’kh + fo’keiks’kh tho
(b) izksdsfj;ksfVd + ;wdsfj;ksfVd tho
(c) fuEurj ikni + e`rthoh tho
(d) ,d ls vf/kd fodYi lgh gS
Q.139
(a) ykbdsUl] ok;jl, BGA
(b) okbjkWbM] fizvkWu] “kSoky
(c) ok;jl] okbjkWbM] fizvkWu
(d) ekbdksjkbtk, BGA, ykbdsUl

Q.140 Symbiotic association of fungi with the roots Q.140

of higher plants
(a) Allows only mineral absorption
(b) Occurs in eutrophic soils
(c) Forms VAM
(d) Involve only intercellular fungal growth
(a) dsoy [kfut vo”kks’k.k iznku djuk
(b) lqiks’k.kh e`nk es gksuk
(c) VAM dk fuekZ.k
(d) vUr% dksf”kdh; dodh; o`f) iz;Dq r

Q.141 Choose odd one out w.r.t. causal agent Q.141

(a) Small pox (a) LekWy ikWDl
(b) Influenza (b) bU¶yq,atk
(c) AIDS
(c) AIDS
(d) vkyw dk /kwjh dUn jksx
(d) Potato spindle tuber disease
Q.142
Q.142 Prions are
(a) U;wfDy;ksikz V
s hu vfLrRo
(a) Nucleoprotein entities
(b) laØfer vkuqokaf”kd inkFkZ ;qDr
(b) Possess infectious genetic material (c) T.O. fMuj }kjk [kkst
(c) Discovered by T.O. Diener
(d) izksVhu;qDr laØfer d.k
(d) Proteinaceous infectious particle

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Q.143 Select correct set of option w.r.t. the Q.143

characteristic of plant groups where + = +=
present / true, – = absent/ false –=

Bryo Pteri Gymno- Angio-

-hyta -dophyta sperm sperm
Archeg-
(a) + + + -
onium
(b) Embryo - + + +
(c) Seed - + + +
Vascular
(d) + + + +
tissue

Q.144 Which of the following is not considered as Q.144

part of chemotaxonomy for classification of
organisms?
(a) Nucleic acid (a) u;wfDyd vEy
(b) Chromosome (b) Øksekslkse
(c) Protein (c) izksVhu
(d) Storage and reserve food material (d) laxzfgr ,oa lajf{kr [kk| inkFkZ

Q.145 Which option is correct w.r.t. red algae? Q.145 ?

Chloro- Type of Chloro- Type of

Cell wall Flagella Cell wall Flagella
phyll reverse food phyll reverse food
cellulose cellulose
(a) a+c Starch Isokonate (a) a+c Starch Isokonate
and agar and agar
Laminarin Laminarin
celluloase celluloase
(b) a+d and Akonatae (b) a+d and Akonatae
and agar and agar
Mannitol Mannitol
cellulose and cellulose and
Floridean Floridean
(c) a+d sulphated Akontae (c) a+d sulphated Akontae
starch starch
polysaccharide polysaccharide
cellulose and cellulose and
(d) a+c sulphated Heterokontae (d) a+c sulphated Heterokontae
polysaccharied polysaccharied

Q.146 Which algae can be used in the treatment of Q.146

goitre?
?
(a) Red algae (b) Brown algae
(a) yky “kSoky (b) Hkwjh “kSoky
(c) Blue green algae (d) Green algae
(c) uhy gfjr “kSoky (d) gjh “kSoky
Q.147 Water is essential to develop a new plant Q.147
body w.r.t. sexual reproduction. This
statement is true for which plant group? ?
(a) Only bryophytes (a) dsoy czk;ksQkbV~l
(b) dsoy VsfjMksQkbV~l
(b) Only pteridophytes
(c) czk;ksQkbV~l ,oa VsfjMksQkbV~l nksuks
(c) Both bryophytes and pteridophytes
(d) czk;ksQkbV~l VsfjMksQkb~l ,oa ftEuksLieZ
(d) Bryophytes, pteridophytes and Gymnosperms

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Q.148 Which among the following statement is not Q.148

related with gametophyte?
(a) It is haploid in nature
(b) The plant body which produces the gamete
is called gametophyte
(c) The first cell of gametophyte generation is
Spore and the last cell is gamete
(d) Spore after germination in Funaria forms
unbranched filamentous structure called
protonema
?
(a) ;g izd`fr esa vxqf.kr gksrk gS
(b) ikni dk; ls mRiUu ;qXed] ;qXekdsnf~ Hkn
dgykrk gS
(c) ;qXedksn~fHkn ih<h dh izFke dksf”kdk chtk.kq gS
,oa vfUre dksf”kdk ;qXed gS
(d) ¶;wusfj;k esa vadqj.k ds i”pkr~ chtk.kq v”kkf[kr
rarqe; fQykesafVl lajpuk dk fuekZ.k djrk gS]
izksVksusek dgykrk gS

Q.149 The formation of gametes in gametophyte Q.149

of Bryophyte, Pteridophyte and
Gymnosperm occurs by (a) lHkh esa lelq=.k }kjk
(a) Mitosis in all (b) lHkh esa v/kZlw=.k }kjk
(b) Meiosis in all (c) czk;ksQkbV] VsfjMksQkbV esa lelw=.k }kjk ,oa
(c) In Bryophyte, Pteridophyte by mitosis and in ftEuksLieZ esa v/kZl=
w .k }kjk
Gymnosperm by meiosis
(d) czk;ksQkbV esa lelw=.k }kjk ,oa VsfjMksQkbV]
(d) In Bryophyte by mitosis and in Pteridophyte,
Gymnosperm by meiosis ftEuksLieZ esa v/kZl=
w .k }kjk

Q.150 The sporophyte of Funaria is Q.150

(a) Foliar and photosynthetic
(b) Nonfoliar and independent of gametophyte
(c) Foliar and partially dependent on
Gametophyte for food
(d) Nonfoliar and partially dependent on
Gametophyte for water and minerals
Q.151 In which group of plants true root, stem and
leaf are found?
(a) Bryophyte, Pteridophyte, Gymnosperm and
Angiosperm
(b) Pteridophyte and Gymnosperm only
(c) Gymnosperm and Angiosperm only
(d) Pteridophyte, Gymnosperm and Angiosperm
(a) i.khZ; ,oa izdk”kla”ys’kh
(b) vi.khZ; ,oa ;qXedksnf~ Hkn ls Lora=
(c) i.khZ; ,oa Hkkstu ds fy, ;qXedksn~fHkn ij vkaf”kd
fueZjrk
(d) ty ,oa [kfut ds fy, ;qXedksn~fHkn ij vi.khZ;
,oa vkaf”kd fuHkZjrk
Q.151
?
(a) czk;ksQkbV~ VsfjMksQkbV] ftEuksLieZ ,oa ,fUt;ksLieZ
(b) dsoy VsfjMksQkbV ,oa ftEuksLieZ
(c) dsoy ftEuksLieZ ,oa ,fUt;ksLieZ
(d) Vsfa jMksQkbV] ftEuksLieZ ,oa ,fUt;ksLieZ

Q.152 In which of the following pteridophytes, Q.152

strobili or cones are found? ?
(a) Dryopteris, Selaginella (a) Mªk;ksIVsfjl] flysftusyk
(b) Selaginella, Horse tail
(b) flysftusyk] v”o&iwPN
(c) Dryopteris, Equisetum
(c) Mª;ksIVsfjl] bDohflVe
(d) Little club moss and Dryopteris
(d) NksVk dYc ekWl ,oa Mªk;sIVsfjl

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Q.153 Match the following w.r.t. classification and Q.153

examples
Column I Column II
I II
a. Lycophyta (i) Adiantum
a. (i)
b. Filicophyta (ii) Selaginella
b. (ii)
c. Sphenophyta (iii) Equisetum
c. (iii)
d. Psilophyta (iv) Psilotum
d. (iv)
(a) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(a) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(b) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (b) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(c) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (c) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
(d) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (d) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)

Q.154 Endosperm of gymnosperm is Q.154

(a) Triploid (a) f=xqf.kr
(b) Developed from megaspore mother cell
(b) izR;{k :i ls xq:chtk.kq ek= dksf”kdk ls fodflr
directly
(c) Developed from a megaspore before (c) fu’kspu ls igys ,d xq:chtk.kq ls fodflr
fertilisation (d) f}fu’kspu es f=lay;u }kjk fufeZr
(d) Formed by triple fusion in double fertilization
Q.155 In Gymnosperms, branched stem is found Q.155
in (a) lk;dl ,oa tsfe;k fixfe;k esa
(a) Cycas and Zamia pygmea
(b) ikbul ,oa lk;dl esa
(b) Pinus and Cycas
(c) ikbul ,oa fLkMªl esa
(c) Pinus and Cedrus
(d) flMªl ,oa lkbdl esa
(d) Cedrus and Cycas
Q.156 Find incorrect statement w.r.t. angiosperm Q.156
(a) Sporophylls are organised into flower (a) chtk.kqi.kZ ¼LiksjksfQYl½ iq’i esa laxfBr gksrs gS
(b) Only one archegonium is found in an ovule (b) chtk.M esa dsoy ,d vkfdZxksfu;e ik;h tkrh gS
(c) f=xqf.kr Hkwz.kiks’k f}fu’kspu ds f=lay;u }kjk
(c) Triploid endosperm is formed by triple fusion
fufeZr gksrk gS
of double fertilization
(d) thou pØ izk:i ds vuqlkj f}xqf.kr thou pØ
(d) As life cycle pattern diplontic life cycle is
found ik;k tkrk gS

Q.157 Pteridophytes exhibit a haplodiplontic life Q.157

cycle pattern in which the haploid
gametophyte is
(a) ,ddksf”k;
(a) Unicellular
(b) Dependent and short lived (b) vkfJr ,oa vYithoh

(c) Vascular (c) laoguh

(d) Saprophytic or autotrophic (d) e`rthoh ;k Loiks’kh

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 NEET - Test Series
Q.158 Which of the following ‘suffixes’ used for Q.158
units of classification in plants indicates a
( )
taxonomic category of ‘family’.
(a) – Ales (b) – Onae
(a) – Ales (b) – Onae
(c) – Aceae (d) – Ae (c) – Aceae (d) – Ae
Q.159 The taxonomic unit ‘Phylum’ in the Q.159
classification of animals is equivalent to
which hierarchial level in classfication of
plants
(a) Class (b) Order (a) oxZ (b) x.k
(c) Division (d) Family (c) Hkkx (d) dqy

Q.160 Botanical gardens and zoological parks have Q.160

(a) Collection of endemic living species only (a) dsoy LFkkfud thfor tkfr;ksa dk laxg
z .k
(b) Collection of exotic living species only (b) dsoy ckgjh thfor tkfr;ksa dk laxzg.k
(c) Collection of endemic and exotic living species (c) LFkkfud vkSj ckgjh thfor tkfr;ksa dk laxg
z .k
(d) Collection of only local plants and animals (d) dsoy LFkkuh; ikS/kksa vkSj tUrqvksa dk laxzg.kA
Q.161 Taxonomic key is one of the taxonomic tools Q.161
in the identification and classification of
plants and animals. It is used in the
preparation of
(a) Monographs (b) Flora (a) eksuksxkz Ql (b) ¶yksjk

(c) Both a & b (d) None of these (c) (a) o (b) nksuksa (d) buesa ls dksbZ

Q.162 Match the following and choose the correct Q.162

option:
A. (i)
(A) Family i. tuberosum
B. (ii)
(B) Kingdom ii. Polymoniales
(C) Order iii. Solanum C. (iii)

(D) Species iv. Plantae D. (iv)

(E) Genus v. Solanacea E. (v)
Options (a) i-D, ii-C, iii-E, iv-B, v-A
(a) i-D, ii-C, iii-E, iv-B, v-A (b) i-E, ii-D, iii-B, iv-A, v-C
(b) i-E, ii-D, iii-B, iv-A, v-C (c) i-D, ii-E, iii-B, iv-A, v-C
(c) i-D, ii-E, iii-B, iv-A, v-C (d) i-E, ii-C, iii-B, iv-A, v-D
(d) i-E, ii-C, iii-B, iv-A, v-D
Q.163 An association between roots of higher Q.163
plants and fungi is called
(a) Lichen (a) ykbdsu
(b) Fern (b) QuZ
(c) Mycorrhiza
(c) ekbdksjkbtk
(d) BGA (d) BGA

40
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Q.164 A dikaryon is formed when Q.164 ( )
(a) Meiosis is arrested (a) v)Zlw=.k vo:) gks tkrh gSA
(b) The nucleus of two haploid cells fuse immediately (b) nks vxqf.kr dksf”kdkvksa ds dsUnzd rqjr
a layf;r gksrh gSAa
(c) Cytoplasm fuse only (c) dsoy dksf”kdk æO; layf;r gksrk gSA
(d) None of the above (d) buesa ls dksbZ ughaA

Q.165 Contagium vivum fluidum was proposed by Q.165

(a) D. J. Ivanowsky (a) Mh- ts- bokuksoLdh
(b) M.W. Beijerinek (b) ,e- MCY;w- cstsfjfud
(c) Stanley (c) LVsuys
(d) Robert Hook (d) jkWcVZ gqd

Q.166 With respect to fungal sexual cycle, choose Q.166

the correct sequence of events
(a) Karyogamy, Plasmogamy and Meiosis (a) dSfj;ksxSeh]IykTeksxSeh ,oa fe;ksfll
(b) Meiosis, Plasmogamy and Karyogamy (b) fe;ksfll] IykTeksxSeh ,oa dSfj;ksxSeh
(c) Plasmogamy, Karyogamy and Meiosis (c) IykTeksxSeh] dSfj;ksxSeh ,oa fe;ksfll
(d) Meiosis, Karyogamy and Plasmogamy (d) fe;ksfll] dSfj;ksxSeh ,oa IykTeksxSeh
Q.167 Members of phycomycetes are found in Q.167
i. Aquatic habitats (i)
ii. On decaying wood (ii)
iii. Moist and damp places (iii)
iv. As obligate parasites on plants (iv)
Choose from the following options
(a) None of the above
(a) mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ughaA
(b) (i) and (iv)
(b) (i) o (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii) o (iii)
(d) All of the above
(d) mijksDr lHkh
Q.168 Holdfast, stipe and frond constitutes the Q.168
plant body in case of
(a) Rhodophyceae
(a) jksMksQkblh
(b) Chlorophyceae
(b) DyksjksQkblh
(c) Phaeophyceae
(c) fQ;ksQkblh
(d) All of the above
(d) mijksDr lHkh
Q.169 A plant shows thallus level of organization. Q.169
It shows rhizoids and is haploid It needs
water to complete its life cycle because the
male gametes are motile. Identify the group
to which it belongs to
(a) Pteridophytes (b) Gymnosperms
(c) Monocots (d) Bryophytes (a) VsfjMksQkbV~l (b) vuko`Ÿkchth
(c) ,dchti=h (d) czk;ksQkbV~lA

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Q.170 A Prothallus is Q.170

(a) A structure in Pteridophytes formed before (a) VsfjMksQkbV~l dh og lajpuk tks FkSyl ds fodflr
the thallus develops gksus ls iwoZ curh gS
(b) A sporophytic free living structure formed in (b) VsfjMksQkbV~l esa fufeZr ,d chtk.kqnf~ Hkn~ Lora=thoh
Pteridophytes lajpuk
(c) A gametophyte free living structure formed (c) VsfjMksQkbV~l esa fufeZr ,d ;qXedksnf~ Hkn~ Lora=thoh
in Pteridophytes lajpuk
(d) A primitive structure formed after fertiliza- (d) VsfjMksQkbV~l esa fu”kspu ds ckn fufeZr ,d vk|
tion in Pteridophytes lajpuk
Q.171 The embryo sac of an Angiosperm is made Q. 171
up of
(a) 8 dksf”kdkvksals
(a) 8 cells
(b) 7 cells and 8 nuclei (b) 7 dksf”kdkvksa ,oa 8 dsUædksa ls
(c) 8 nuclei (c) 8 dsUædksa ls
(d) 7 cells and 7 nuclei (d) 7 dksf”kdkvksa ,oa 7 dsUædksa lsA
Q.172 If the diploid number of a flowering plant is Q. 172
36. What would be the chromosome number
in its endosperm
(a) 36 (b) 18
(a) 36 (b) 18
(c) 54 (d) 72
(c) 54 (d) 72
Q.173 Protonema is Q. 173
(a) Haploid and is found in Mosses (a) vxqf.kr rFkk ekWl esa ik;k tkrk gSA
(b) Diploid and is found in Liverworts (b) f}xqf.kr rFkk fyojoV~Zl esa ik;k tkrk gSA
(c) Diploid and is found in Pteridophytes (c) f}xqf.kr rFkk VsfjMksQkbV~l esa ik;k tkrk gSA
(d) Haploid and is found in Pteridophytes (d) vxqf.kr rFkk VsfjMksQkbV~l esa ik;k tkrk gSA
Q.174 The giant Redwood tree (Sequoia Q. 174 )
sempervirens) is a/an
(a) vko`Ÿkchth (b) Lora= QuZ
(a) Angiosperm (b) Free fern
(c) Pteridophyte (d) Gymnosperm (c) VsfjMksQkbV (d) vuko`Ÿkchth

Q.175 Which one of the following living organisms Q.175

completely lacks a cell wall?
(a) Cyanobacteria (a) lkbukscDS Vhfj;k
(b) Gorgonia (b) xksxksfZ u;k
(c) Saccharomyces (c) lSdsjksekblht
(d) Blue - green algae (d) uhy gfjr “kSoky

Q.176 Planaria possesses high capacity of Q.176

(a) Metamorphosis (a) dk;karj.k
(b) Regeneration (b) iqu:n~Hkou
(c) Alternation of generation (c) ih<+h ,dkarj.k
(d) Bioluminescence (d) tSo&iznhfIr

Q.177 A marine cartilaginous fish that can produce Q.177

electric current is
(a) Pristis (b) Torpedo (a) fizfLVl (b) VkWjihMks
(c) Trygon (d) Scoliodon (c) VªkbZxkWu (d) Ldksfy;ksMku
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Q.178 Which group of animals belong to the same Q.178

phylum?
(a) Prawn, Scorpion, Locust
(b) Sponge, Sea anemone, Starfish
(c) Plasmodium, Amoeba, Mosquito
(d) Earthworm, Pinworm, Tapeworm.
Q.179 Which one of the following categories of
animals, is correctly described with no single
exception in it?
(a) All reptiles possess scales, have a three
chambered heart and are poikilothermal.
(b) All bony fishes have four pairs of gills and
an operculum on each side.
(c) All sponges are marine and have collared
cells.
(a) >haxk] fcPNw] yksdLV
(b) Liat] leqæh ,suheksu] LVkjfQ”k
(c) IykTeksfM;e] vehck] ePNj
(d) dsp
a qvk] fiuoeZ] Qhrkd`fe (VsioeZ)
Q.179
(a) lHkh ljhl`iksa esa “kYd gksrs gS] rhu d{kh; ân;
gksrk gS rFkk os vlerkih gksrs gSaA
(b) lHkh vfLFky eNfy;ksa esa pkj tksM+h Dykse rFkk
nksuksa vksj ,d&,d izPNn gksrk gSA
(c) lHkh Liat leqæh gksrs gSa ,oa muesa dkWyj;qDr

(d) All mammals are viviparous and possess

dksf”kdk,a gksrh gSaA
diaphragm for breathing. (d) lHkh Lruh f”k”kqitz d gksrs gSa rFkk muesa “okl
ysus ds fy, ,d Mk;Ýke gksrk gSA
Q.180 Ureters act as urinogenital ducts in Q.180
(a) Human males
(b) Human females (a) ekuo uj esa
(c) Both male and female frogs (b) ekuo eknk esa
(d) Male frogs (c) es<
ad
+ ds uj o eknk esa
(d) uj es<
a +d esa

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 NEET - Test Series

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