Professional Documents
Culture Documents
1-
What is the main source of financing in a leveraged buyout? A,
Debt
Equity
Assets
Cash
3-Investment banks typically compete to provide a financing in an LBO, the legally binding letters are called?
D, Commitment papers
Revolver
Financing papers
Both A and C
A financial sponsor
A strategic investor
A passive investor
A limited partner
5-What is another name for a limited partnership structured as a fixed-life investment vehicle?
B, General partnership
Blind pool
Passive investment
SPAC
6-
All of the following are ways to improve operational efficiencies EXCEPT:
7-What can potentially be reduced or eliminated in the event that economic or operating performance declines?
A,
Growth capex
Assets
Maintenance capex
PP&E
8-
What is the primary metric used by sponsors to gauge the attractiveness of a potential LBO as well as the
performance of their existing investments?
DCF
B, IRR
Precedent transactions analysis
Comparable companies analysis
9-Calculate the internal rate of return for a $300.0m cash outflow at the end of year 0 and a $716.0m cash
inflow at the end of year 5.
D, 16%
20%
18.5%
19%
10-If a target was purchased for $1,500.0m with an equity contribution of $500.0m, what is the enterprise value
of the target if it used $500.0m of cash flow to repay debt?
C, $1,000.0m
$500.0m
$1,500.0m
$2,000.0m
11-
A target was purchased for $1,500.0m with an equity contribution of $500.0m, and by year 5 $500.0m of cash
flow was used to repay debt. Assuming the sponsor sells the target for the enterprise value, what is the value of
the sponsor’s equity?
B, $1,500.0m
$1,000.0m
$500.0m
$2,000.0m
12-A target was purchased for $1,500.0m with an equity contribution of $500.0m. By year 5 no debt has been
repaid and enterprise value has grown by $500.0m. Assuming the sponsor sells the target for its enterprise
value, what is the sponsor’s cash return? A,
2x
3x
1x
5x
14-Which of the following LBO financing scenarios will lead to the highest interest expense?
D, 80% equity
20% debt
60% debt
20% equity
Bank debt
Mezzanine debt
Equity contribution
High yield bonds
17-An ABL facility is generally secured by a first priority lien on which of the following assets?
C, PP&E
Deferred tax asset
Inventory
18-Goodwill
A feature in the high yield market that allows the issuer to pay interest in the form of additional notes is called
a:
C, Bridge loan
First lien
PIK
Term B loan
19-What kind of loan is needed if the “take-out” securities deteriorate between the signing and the closing of an
LBO? A,
Bridge loan
Second lien term loan
PIK
Mezzanine debt
20-
What can protect investors from having debt with an attractive yield refinanced before maturity?
D, Floating interest rate
Fixed interest rate
PIK
Call premium
21-
All of the following are primary classifications of covenants EXCEPT:
C, Affirmative
Negative
Maintenance
Financial
22-
What is the classification of a covenant requiring a borrower to maintain assets, collateral, or other securities?
A,
Affirmative
Negative
Maintenance
Financial
23-
What is the classification of a covenant that limits the amount of debt the borrower can have outstanding?
B, Affirmative
Negative
Maintenance
Financial
24-
What is the classification of a covenant that requires to buyer to maintain a minimum EBITDA?
D, Affirmative
Negative
Maintenance
Financial
25-
What is the annual interest rate paid on a debt obligation’s principal amount outstanding called? ?
B, Covenant
Coupon Call
premium PIK
26-
When performing a returns analysis in an LBO, which method does not include the time value of money?
C, IRR
DCF
Cash return analysis
Perpetuity growth method
27-
If an LBO target does not repay any debt during the investment horizon, how can the sponsor still realize a
return? A.
If the target reinvests its cash into the business, the sponsor can realize a return by selling the target at a higher
enterprise value
The sponsor cannot realize a return, as the enterprise value did not increase
The sponsor cannot realize a return, as the value of the sponsor’s equity could not increase
It depends on the sponsor’s internal rate of return
28-
Which exit strategy provides the sponsor with the ability to retain 100% of its existing ownership position in the
target?
C, Value maximization
Speed of execution
Dilution 2-
Certainty of completion
In which of the following scenarios would a sell-side advisor consider running a broad auction?
D, Broad auction
Targeted auction
Negotiated sale
Both B and C
4-
All of the following are disadvantages of which auction type? -
B, Broad auction
Targeted auction
A. Negotiated sale
B. Silent auction
5-
All of the following are advantages of which auction type? -
D, Broad auction
Targeted auction
Negotiated sale
None of the above
6-
Which of the following is performed during the first stage of the auction process? A,
Financial capacity
A. Sector expertise
B. Investment strategy
C. Both A and B
9-
Which of the following criteria should be considered when evaluating a potential financial sponsor buyer?
D, Investment strategy
Fund size
Synergies
Both A and B
10-
Which of the following may be an advantage of a pursuing a strategic buyer in the M&A process?
B, Financial exhibits
Marketing materials
Confidentiality agreement
Contract
12-
In the M&A sales process, projected financial information can be found in which document?
C, 10-K
8-K
CIM
A. 424B3
13-
The confidentiality agreement includes provisions for all of the following EXCEPT: A,
Restrictions on financing
Standstill agreement
Permitted disclosure
Restrictions on clubbing
14-
What marks the formal launch of the bidding process?
B, CIM
Bid procedure letter
A. Teaser
B. Confidentiality agreement
17-
A comprehensive set of information relevant to buyers can be found where? A,
Data room
CIM
Teaser
Confidentiality agreement
18-
Stapled financing is a(n):
C, Financial sponsor
Strategic buyer
Direct competitor
A. They are all equal
20-
Which of the following buyers could potentially have limited access to the data room?
A,
Direct competitor
A. Strategic buyer
B. Financial sponsor
C. All have equal access
21-
Which document has the purchase price details as well as the exact date and guidelines for an M&A process?
D, CIM
Bid procedures letter
Confidentiality agreement
Final bid procedures letter
22-
When is an issues list used in the M&A sale process?
D, Jones Act
Glass-Steagall Act
Sarbanes-Oxley Act
Hart-Scott-Rodino Act
26-
Who decides to approve or reject a transaction in a one-step merger transaction for a public company?
C, CEO
Board of directors
Target shareholders
A. CFO
27-
In an M&A transaction, when is a tender offer made to the public shareholders?
C, Stock sale
One-step transaction
Two-step tender process
□ Asset sale
28-
What happens in a two-step tender process if the buyer fails to acquire enough of the target’s shares within 20
business days?
B, Asset sale
Negotiated sale
A. Targeted auction
B. Broad auction
31-
All of the following are advantages of a negotiated sale EXCEPT:
D, LBO model
Precedent transitions analysis
Comparable companies analysis
Accretion/(dilution) analysis
1-
All of the following are reasons why M&A activity tends increase in strong economic
times EXCEPT:
A point person
A. The CEO
B. Investor relations
C. The CFO
3-
In many instances, growth through acquisition is than building a new
business from scratch.
D, Cheaper
More time consuming
Faster
Both A and C
4-
When an acquirer buys a target in the same or a closely related business, synergies
tend to be:
B, Nonexistent
Greater
Lower
Unknown
5-
All of the following are considered cost synergies EXCEPT:
B, Safe
Speculative
A. Dependable
B. Conservative
7-
Which form of integration expands an acquirer’s geographic reach, product lines,
services, or distribution channels? A,
Horizontal integration
A. Geographic integration
B. Vertical integration
C. Transitional integration
8-
If a computer manufacturer purchases a semiconductor company, what form of
integration is this?
C, Horizontal integration
Vertical integration
Backward integration
Forward integration
9-
A company that brings together a broad range of businesses is considered: A,
Horizontally integrated
A conglomerate
An oligopoly
Vertically integrated
10-
Which of the following M&A scenarios tends to use an all-stock consideration?
C, Horizontal integration
Vertical integration
Merger of equals
Forward integration
11-
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of debt financing from the acquirer’s
prospective?
C, EPS accretion
Tax deductibility
Lack of covenants
A. Return on equity
12-
Calculate a target’s deferred tax liability given the following details.
Details: -
Tangible asset write-up: $100.0m -
Intangible asset write-up: $50.0m -
Total asset write-up: $150.0m -
Tax rate: 38% A,
$57.0m
A. $19.0m
B. $114.0m
C. $76.0m
13-
Given the following details, what is the difference in seller net proceeds between the
asset sale and the stock sale?
Details: -:
Corporate tax rate: 38% -
Capital gains rate: 20%
Stock Sale: -
Purchase price: $4,000.0 -m
Stock basis: $1,000.0m
Asset Sale: -
Purchase price: $4,000.0m -
Asset basis: $1,000.0m
B, $1,520.0m
$912.0m
A. $372.0m
B. $518.0m
14-
Which of the following generally provides the highest valuation on a football field
graphic display? A,
DCF
C. LBO
D. Comparable companies analysis
E. Precedent transactions analysis
15-
In a football field graphic for an M&A transaction, which of the following is a proxy
for what a financial buyer would be willing to pay for the company?
B, Football field
AVP
D. Contribution analysis
E. Consequences analysis
17-
Assuming this is a stock deal, calculate the goodwill created in the M&A transaction
given the following details.
Details: -
Shareholders’ equity: $5,000.0m -
Existing goodwill: $1,500.0m -
Equity purchase price: $6,600.0m -
Tangible and intangible asset write-ups: $1,200.0m -
Deferred tax liabilities: $800.0m
C, $2,000.0m
$1,500.0m
$2,700.0m
$3,200.0m
18-
When is a merger accretive?
C, Brand
Patents
PP&E
A. Copyrights
24-
Which of the following is the cheapest form of financing? A,
Cash on hand
B. Debt financing
C. Equity financing
D. Stock sale
25-
Which of the following is a negative feature of debt financing?
C, Tax deductibility
ROE
Covenants
D. EPS accretion
26-
Which is the most common form of M&A deal structure? A,
Stock sale
C. Asset sale
D. Section 338 election
E. Cash on hand
No, the transaction will dilute the EPS and destroy shareholder value
Yes, accretion/dilution is not important
C, It depends; expected synergies and growth prospects may make the deal accretive
and therefore create shareholder value
No, once a deal is dilutive it cannot become accretive
Private sale