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Anil Kumar V.
Department of Mathematics
University of Calicut
Malappuram
Kerala, India 673 635
Theorem
Let E be a measurable set and {fn } be a sequence of measurable functions. Then
1 sup fi is measurable.
1≤i≤n
2 inf fi is measurable.
1≤i≤n
3 sup fn is measurable.
n
4 inf fn is measurable.
n
5 lim sup fn is measurable.
6 lim inf fn is measurable.
Hence
[
n [
n
f −1
(α, ∞] = {x ∈ E : fi (x) > α} = fi−1 (α, ∞] ∈ M .
i=1 i=1
| {z }
∈M
inf fi is measurable.
1≤i≤n
T
n
Claim: g −1 (α, ∞] = fi−1 (α, ∞]).
i=1
Note that
Hence
\
n \
n
g −1 (α, ∞] = {x ∈ E : fi (x) > α} = fn−1 (α, ∞] ∈ M .
| {z }
i=1 i=1
∈M
y1 = sup{x1 , x2 , x3 , . . .} = sup xk
k≥1
y2 = sup{x2 , x3 , . . .} = sup xk
k≥2
..
.
yn = sup{xn , xn+1 , . . .} = sup xk
k≥n
z1 = inf{x1 , x2 , x3 , . . .} = sup xk
k≥1
z2 = inf{x2 , x3 , . . .} = sup xk
k≥2
..
.
zn = inf{xn , xn+1 , . . .} = sup xk
k≥n
Let
gn (x) = sup fk (x)
k≥n
Let
gn (x) = inf fk (x)
k≥n
Remark
A property is said to hold almost everywhere (abbreviated a.e.) if the set of points where
it fails to hold is a set of measure zero.
Thus in particular we say that f = g a.e. if f and g have the same domain and
m{x : f (x) ̸= g(x)} = 0.
(
1 x∈Q
Consider the functions f : R → R defined by f (x) = and g : R → R
0 x ∈ Q∼
defined by g(x) = 0 for all x ∈ R. Then f = g a.e.
Similarly, we say that fn converges to g almost everywhere on E if
Theorem
Let E be a measurable subset of R. Let f, g : E → [−∞, ∞] such that f is measurable
and g = f a.e on E. Then g is measurable.
Let
A = {x ∈ E : f (x) ̸= g(x)}
Then m∗ (A) = 0. Since m∗ (A) = 0, we have A ∈ M
Let α ∈ R. Then
Note that
({x ∈ E : g(x) > α} ∩ A) ⊆ A
Therefore,
m{({x ∈ E : g(x) > α} ∩ A)} ≤ m(A) = 0
This implies that
({x ∈ E : g(x) > α} ∩ A) ∈ M