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FAQ thread on the Aryan Invasion Theory (AIT) and assimilating it


into the Hindu narrative.
My understanding derived from scholars such as
@blog_supplement @agnimaan @RangaTheDude
@GhorAngirasa @shrikanth_krish @razibkhan @IndianHistory0
(THREAD)

Will keep adding Qs over time


Q1) What is the AIT ?
A proposed series of historical events that describe the distribution
of Indo-European languages in Central Asia, Iran and India
(1/n)
Q2) What does it propose ?
The linguistic predecessor to sanskrit and Avestan was spoken by
pastoral nomands originating in the Pontic-Caspian steppes
(shaded region), who then conquered N/NW India between
2000-1500BC
tinyurl.com/d2z8w2m4
(2/n)
Q3) What is the proof for this theory ?
Primarily linguistic analysis and comparative mythology in the
18-19th centuries. Subsequent correlation with archeological
evidence in 20th century from Central Asia, Steppes and Indus
Valley (IVC) sites. (3/n)

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Q4) What about genetic evidence ?


Modern and ancient DNA analyses from 21st century agree with
broad contours of original AIT and give the first incontrovertible
evidence for it.
(4/n)
Q5) Why do many Hindus reject it ?
If true, many proponents as well as skeptics believe it is proof
Hinduism too, like Christianity and Islam, is not native to India and
are therefore equivalent. All other controversies are downstream of
this claim.
(5/n)
Q6) Is there a basis for rejecting it ?
Yes, based on the application of the theory by anti-H forces and
intentions of the indologists who developed it.
No, based on first principles consideration of the available linguistic,
archeological and genetic evidence.
(6/n)
Q7) Are there alternative theories from those rejecting it ?
Yes, many. The most prominent one is the Out of India Theory
(OIT), championed by Elst and Talageri who propose that Proto-
Indo-European (PIE) speakers originated in NW India in 6th
millenium BC.
(7/n)
Q8) Which theory better explains available evidence ?
IMO AIT. But intent of the thread isn't to compare merits of the two
theories but to provide a guide on navigating the misuse of AIT by
enemies of Hindus and drawbacks of relying on any flavour of OIT.
(8/n)
Q9) What is the most important drawback of relying on OITs ?
If Arya-s originated from one part of India, they still conquered the
rest to forge a single cultural entity. Can be argued, regardless of
origin in Punjab or Steppes, they are foreigners to rest of India.

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(9/n)
Q10) What is the 2nd most important drawback of relying on OITs ?
Doesn't explain the Out of Africa expansion of modern humans
60,000 years ago. If humans ultimately came from outside India,
why does it matter when they entered ?
(10/n)
Q11) What is the 3rd most important drawback of relying on OITs ?
Most OITs, like AIT, don't conform to paurANic chronologies. It
exists merely for politics. So from a religious POV, it is no more
virtuous than AIT.
(11/n)
Q12) So if AIT is true, is Hinduism equivalent to X/M with respect to
India ?
No, they are counter-religions while H is a natural one. X/M were
finished products when they entered India. H as we know it evolved
with the Indian nation as it developed and expanded.
(12/n)
Q13) Islam also evolved further after entering India. So can it also
be called as native ?
No. Self-conception of Ms was as a foreign people here merely to
rule. Arya-s were pastoral nomads whose identity was not tied to
geography.
(13/n)
Q14) If Arya-s didn't tie identity to geography why associate their
culture, H, with India ?
They turned into a settled people in India and began identifying with
the land. There was no single cultural entity until they forged
AryAvarta. Idea of India begins with Arya-s.
(14/n)
Q15) What is the evidence that the Arya-s did not identify with the
land ?
Arya-s/Indo-Iranians were a distinct people from 3000 BC. This

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rough sketch I made shows how much they moved in the following
1000 years. Doesn't look like a people who identified with the land
(15/n)

Q16) Do these nuanced definitions of a native culture apply only to


India ?
No. Going by simplistic definitions used to target Hindus, Greek
culture is also foreign to Greece, as is Japanese culture to Japan.
Yet this isn't the popular perception, as this Wiki entry shows
(16/n)

Q17) But is IVC counted as a native culture ?


Yes. Arya-s entered India as IVC was in decline. IVC elites,
craftsmen, priests etc integrated into Aryan society, and vice versa,
allowing cultural continuity within the varNa matrix. IVC culture was
also their culture now

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(17/n)
Q18) Do we have any evidence that this integration happened ?
Yes, many. AASI ancestry in NW India increases after Aryan entry.
So migration was happening from SE to NW India. Arya-s
connected and revitalized the Indian subcontinent.
(18/n)
Q19) If this integration happened why is it still termed the Aryan
"Invasion" ?
Mostly legacy usage. But unlikely that conquest itself didn't involve
blood. Arya-s were a war-like people as seen in itihAsa-s.
(19/n)
Q20) So they were violent and yet good ?
Yes. Their conduct in war does not obviously reflect their conduct
as rulers towards society and during peacetime. In that yuga, if you
were not fierce and powerful, you didn't exist. The Aryan saga is a
victorious one for us all.
(20/n)
Q21) Is AIT colonial propaganda ?
No, but it was used as such - just as Hindu ideals of ahimsa etc
were weaponized against Hindus. Unless Hindus own AIT, it will
remain in the hands of unscrupulous indologists.
Countering AIT isn't the same as denying it

(22/n)
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