ARIHANT ACADEMY OF TECHNOLOGY & EDUCATION

1. If ‘L’ is the span of a light suspension Ans. C

bridge, whose, each cable carries total weight
(w) and the central dip is ‘y’, the horizontal Sol. 𝑇 = 2𝜋√ 𝐿 𝑔 where L, length of pendulum
pull at each support is _________. and g is local gravity acceleration

A. wL/4y 4. In order to double the period of a simple

pendulum __________.
B. wL/8y
A. the mass of its bob should be doubled
C. wL/2y
B. the mass of its bob should be quadrupled
D. wL/y
C. its length should be doubled D. its length
Ans. B should be quadrupled
2. The vehicle moving on a level circular pa th Ans. D
will exert pressure such that _________.
Sol. Time period of simple pendulum 𝑇 = 2 𝜋√
A. the reaction on the outer wheels will be 𝐿 𝑔 where L, length of pendulum and g is local
more gravity acceleration In order to double the time
period it is required to quadrupled the length
B. the reaction on the inner wheels will be
of pendulum.
more
C. the reaction on the inner wheels as well as
on the outer wheels will be equal 5. A body is vibrating at 10 vibrations/second
in Simple Harmonic Motion of 10 cm
D. it depends on the speed
amplitude. The maximum velocity in cm/sec
Ans. A can be _________.

Sol. centrifugal force pushes the car outwards. A. 100𝜋

Since the center of mass of the car is above the
B. 50
level of the wheels, it tends to create a moment
which pushes the outer wheels down and the C. 200 𝜋
inner wheels up. Since the outer wheels are
being pushed downwards, the ground exerts a D. 100
greater normal force on the outer wheels. Ans. C
3. Which one of the following laws is not Sol. For velocity to be maximum in SHM
applicable for a simple pendulum? 𝑉𝑚𝑎𝑥 = 2𝜋𝑓𝐴 Where, f is frequency and a is
A. the time period does not depend on its maximum amplitude. 𝑉𝑉𝑚𝑎𝑥 = 2𝜋 × 10 × 10
magnitude = 200

B. the time period is proportional to its length 7. The sum of kinetic and potential energy of a
falling body __________.
C. the time period is proportional to square
root of its length A. is constant at all points

D. the time period is inversely proportional to B. varies form point to point

square root of its acceleration due to gravity C. is maximum at starting and goes on
increasing
D. is maximum at starting and goes on
decreasing
Ans. A
Sol. The sum of the PE and KE is the total
energy, which is a constant for a body.
7. If two bodies, one light and other heavy,
have equal kinetic energy, which on has a
greater momentum?
A. the heavy body
B. the light body
C. both have equal momentum
D. unpredictable
Ans. A Sol. 𝑚𝑜𝑚𝑒𝑡𝑢𝑚 𝑜𝑓 𝑏𝑜𝑑𝑦 = 𝑚𝑣 Where,
m mass of the body and v is the velocity of the
body, hence the heavier body will have higher
momentum.
8. A bucket of water weighing 10 kg is pulled
up from a 20 m deep well by a rope weighing
1 kg/m length, then the work done is
__________.
A. 200 kg-m
B. 400 kg-m
C. 500 kg-m
D. 600 kg-m
Ans. B
Sol. Total work done will be sum of work
done to pull the bucket and work done
required to pull the rope. 𝑑𝑊 = (𝑊𝑏𝑢𝑐𝑘𝑒𝑡 +
𝑊𝑟𝑜𝑝𝑒 ) × 𝑑𝑥 𝑑𝑊 = (10 + 𝑥)𝑑𝑥 𝑊 = ∫ (10 +
𝑥)𝑑𝑥 = 400 𝐾𝑔 − 𝑚
9. Which of the following is an example of a
body undergoing translational equilibrium?
A. a body at rest on a table
B. a body travelling in a circular path at a
constant speed
C. a body rotating with constant angular speed
about an axis
D. a body sliding down a frictionless inclined
plane
Ans. A Sol. Translational equilibrium is
achieved when there is no change in body
position with respect to time and space at
given instance.
10. A boy is swinging on a swing. If another
boy sits along with him without disturbing his
motion, then the time period of wing will
__________.
A. increase
B. decrease
C. be doubled
D. remain the same
Ans. D
Sol. The swing is behaving like a simple
pendulum 𝑇 = 2𝜋√ 𝐿 𝑔 𝑤ℎ𝑖𝑐ℎ 𝑖𝑠 𝑖𝑛𝑑𝑒𝑝𝑒𝑛𝑑 𝑜𝑓
𝑡ℎ𝑒 ℎ𝑎𝑛𝑔𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠.
11. The type of motion when the acceleration
is proportional to displacement is called ____.
A. translation
B. rotational
C. gyroscopic
D. simple harmonic
Ans. D
Sol. Acceleration in SHM is given by. 𝑎 = 𝜔
2𝑥 Where x is displacement.
12. The escape velocity of a body on earth
_____________.
A. increases with the increase of its mass
B. decreases with the increase of its mass
C. remains unchanged with variation of mass
D. varies as the square of the change in mass
Ans. C
Sol. Escape velocity of body is given as
𝑉𝑒𝑠𝑐𝑎𝑝𝑒 = √ 2𝐺𝑀 𝑟 Which is independent of
mass of given body.
13. Property of a fluid by which molecules of
different kinds of fluids are attracted to each
other is called ___________.
A. adhesion Ans. B
B. cohesion Sol. To maintain NPSH in axial flow pump it
is required to open its delivery valve kept
C. viscosity open.
D. compressibility 17. In a centrifugal pump, the liquid enters the
Ans. A pump from _________.

Sol. Adhesion is the attraction of molecules of A. the top

one kind for molecules of a different kind, and B. the bottom
it can be quite strong for water.
C. the centre
14. If no resistance is encountered by
displacement, such a substance is known as D. from sides
_____.
Ans. C
A. fluid
Sol. In centrifugal pump fluid enter at the
B. water centre and come out from the periphery of the
pump.
C. gas
18. One dimensional flow is _______.
D. ideal fluid
A. restricted to flow in a straight line
Ans. D
B. uniform flow
Sol. Inviscid or ideal flow has no resistance for
relative motion between fluid layers. C. one which neglects changes in a transverse
direction
15. Head loss in turbulent flow in a pipe
___________. D. the most general flow
A. varies directly as velocity Ans. C
B. varies inversely as square of velocity Sol. Term one, two or three dimensional f low
refers to the number of space coordinated
C. varies approximately as square of velocity
required to describe a flow.
D. depends upon orientation of pipe 19. Specific speed of a turbine depends upon
Ans. C _________.

Sol. Head loss in turbulent flow is given as, A. speed, power and discharge
ℎ𝑒𝑎𝑑 𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑠 = 𝑓𝜌𝑣 2 2𝐷 where f friction factor, B. discharge and power
p density of fluid, v velocity of fluid, d
diameter of pipe. C speed and head

16. For starting an axial flow pump, its
delivery valve should be __________.
A. closed
B. open
C. depends on starting condition and flow
desired
D. could be either open or closed
D. speed, power and head
Ans. D
Sol. Specific speed of turbine, 𝑁𝑠 = 𝑁 √𝑃/ 𝐻 5
4
20. If a mouthpiece is running full at the
outlet, the vacuum at vena-contracta
____________.
A. increases velocity of jet
B. decreases velocity of jet Sol. Medium specific speed of a pump implies
that it is mixed flow pump as it is used for
C. decreases the discharge medium head available.
D. decreases the value of coefficient of 24. The hydraulic grade line is ____________.
contraction
A. always moving up
Ans. A
B. always moving down
Sol. The vacuum at vena- contracta will result
in pressure drop in that region and leads to C. always above the energy grade line
increase the velocity of jet.
D. the velocity head below the energy grade
21. Maximum impulse will be developed in line
hydraulic ram when _______.
Ans. D
A. when valve closes suddenly
Sol. Hydraulic grade line is pizeometric head
B. supply pipe is long and always below the total energy line.
C. supply pipe is short 25. The ratio of depth of bucket for Pelton
Wheel to the diameter of jet is of the order of
D. ram chamber is large ___.
Ans. A
A. 1
Sol. When valve is closed suddenly all the
B. 1.2
flow energy will be converted to pressure
energy and generate maximum impulse in C. 1.5
hydraulic ram.
D. 1.8
22. Critical-depth meter is used to measure
Ans. B
____________.
Sol. The ratio of depth of bucket for Pelton
A. discharge in an open channel
Wheel to the diameter of jet is of the order of
B. hydraulic jump 1.2.
C. depth of flow in channel 26. The flow at critical depth in an open
channel is __________.
D. depth of channel
A. maximum
Ans. A
B. minimum
Sol. Critical-depth meter is used to measure
discharge in open channel. C. zero
23. Medium specific speed of a pump implies D. half of normal flow
that it is _________.
Ans. A
A. centrifugal pump
Sol. Critical depth is defined as the depth of
B. mixed flow pump flow where energy is at a minimum for a
particular discharge.
C. axial flow pump
27. Air vessels in reciprocating pump are used
D. axial flow pump or centrifugal pump to __________.
Ans. B A. smoothen flow
B. reduce acceleration to minimum
C. increase pump efficiency
D. save pump from cavitation
Ans. B
Sol. using air vessel, work is saved by
eliminating the work lost in friction during the
acceleration and deceleration of the fluid.
Sol. Alloy steel is a steel that has had small
amounts of one or more alloying elements
(other than carbon) such as such as
manganese, silicon, nickel, titanium, copper,
chromium and aluminum added.
31. Alloy steel containing 36% nickel is called
________.

28. A hydraulic intensifier normally consists A. Invar

of __________.
B. Stainless steel
A. two cylinders, two rams and a storage C. High speed steel
device
D. None of these
B. a cylinder and a ram
Ans. A
C. two co-axial rams and two cylinders
Sol. Invar is a nickel–iron alloy notable for its
D. a cylinder, a piston, storage tank and uniquely low coefficient of thermal expansion
control valve
32. Carbon steel is __________.
Ans. C
A. Produced by adding carbon in steel
Sol. hydraulic intensifier constructed by
mechanically connecting two pistons, each B. an alloy of iron and carbon with varying
working in a separate cylinder of a different quantities of phosphorus and sulphur
diameter.
C. purer than the cast iron
29. Which of the following pumps is used f or
pumping viscous fluids? D. None of these

A. centrifugal pump Ans. B

B. screw pump Sol. Carbon steel, or plain-carbon steel, is a

metal alloy. It is a combination of two
C. reciprocating pump elements, iron and carbon. Other elements are
present in quantities too small to affect its
D. jet pump properties.
Ans. B 33. Percentage of carbon in steel is
Sol. screw pump pumps is used f or pumping ___________.
viscous fluids A. 0.1% to 0.8%
30. Steel whose elements are used for the B. 0.35% to 0.45%
purpose of modifying the mechanical
properties of plain carbon steel is called C. 1.8% to 4.2%
___________.
D. 0.1% to 1.5%
A. Alloy steel
Ans. D
B. Invar
Sol carbon content in steel, Low carbon steel-
C. Stainless steel upto 0.3%, Medium carbon steel-0.3-0.6%,
High carbon steel- 0.6-1%, Ultra high carbon
D. High speed steel steel-upto 1.5%.
Ans. A 34. Hardness of steel depends on __________.
A. amount of cementite it contains
B. amount of carbon it contains
C. contents of alloying elements
D. method of manufacture of steel
Ans. B Sol. the hardness of a carbon steel
depends on its carbon content
35. __________ is added to raise the yield
point of low carbon steel.
A. Silicon
B. Carbon
C. Phosphorous
D. Sulphur
Ans. C
Sol. To increase yield point of low carbon
steel phosphorous is added as alloying
element.
36. An alloy steel contains ___________.
A. more than 0.5% Mn and 0.5% Si
B. less than 0.5% Mn and 0.5% Si
C. more than 0.35% Mn and 0.5% Si
D. less than 0.35% Mn and 0.5% Si
Ans. A
Sol. Alloy steels are derivative of carbon steels
where some typical elements are added to
achieve desired property. An iron based steel
is consider to be Alloy steel when manganese
is greater than 0.165%,silicon over 0.5%
copper over 0.6%.
37. Steel which destroys by burning is called
__________.
A. Alloy steel
B. Carbon steel
C. Silicon steel
D. Killed steel
Ans. D
Sol. Killed steel is steel that has been
completely deoxidized by the addition of an
agent before casting
38. In steel, main alloy causing corrosion
resistance is ________.
A. Manganese
B. Vanadium
C. Chromium
D. Cobalt
Ans. C
Sol. Chromium is the most important alloying
element and it gives stainless steels their basic
corrosion resistance. All stainless steels have a
Cr content of at least 10.5% and the corrosion
resistance increases the higher chromium
content. Chromium also increases the
resistance to oxidation at high temperatures
and promotes a ferritic microstructure
39. The crest diameter of a screw thread is
same as _________.
A. major diameter
B. minor diameter
C. pitch diameter
D. core diameter
Ans. A
Sol. Crest, The surface of the thread
corresponding to the major diameter of the
screw and the minor diameter of the nut. So
the crest diameter will be equal to major
diameter.
40. The function of a washer it to _________.
A. provide cushioning effect
B. provide bearing area
C. absorb shocks and vibrations
D. provide smooth surface in place of rough
surface
Ans. B
Sol. washer normally used to distribute the A. flanged
load of a threaded fastener, such as a screw or
nut. B. threaded

41. Fibrous fracture occurs in ___________. C. bell and spigot

A. ductile material D. expansion

B. brittle material
C. elastic material
D. hard material
Ans. A
Sol. A gray and amorphous fracture that
results when a metal is sufficiently ductile for
the crystals to elongate before fracture occur s.
When a fibrous fracture is obtained in an
impact test, it may be regarded as definite
evidence of toughness of the metal.
Ans. D
Sol. Expansion joint is used in pipe joint that
would carrying steam as it will get cool or
warm while in running condition.
45. Antifriction bearings are:-
A. Sleeve bearings
B. Hydrodynamic bearings
C. Thin lubricated bearings
D. Ball and roller bearings

42. For tight leakage joints, following type of A. only A

thread is best suited ________. B. only B and C
A. metric C. only C
B. buttress D. None of these
C. NPT (National Pipe Threads) Ans. D
D. acme Sol. Antifriction bearings are commonly made
Ans. C with hardened rolling elements (balls and
rollers) and races.
Sol. NPT (National Pipe Threads) can provide
an effective seal for pipes transporting liquids, 46. In V-belt drive, belt touches __________.
gases, steam, and hydraulic fluid A. at bottom
43. A backing ring is used inside the pipe joint B. at sides only
when making a _______.
C. both at bottom and sides
A. butt weld
D. could touch anywhere
B. fillet weld
Ans. B
C. sleeve weld
Sol. For the V belt to be effective, the belt or
D. socket weld cable will need to be in contact with the sides
Ans. A of the groove, but not the base of the groove so
the friction will be only on the sides.
Sol. metal ring used inside a butt-welded joint
to reinforce the joint and to prevent weld metal 47. In standard taper roller bearings, the angle
from entering the pipe at the joint of taper of outer raceway is _______.

44. Which of the following pipe joints would A. 5°

be suitable for pipes carrying steam? B. 8°
C. 15°
D. 25°
Ans. D
Sol. In standard taper roller bearings, the angle
of taper of outer raceway is 25°
48. Basic shaft is one _____.
A. whose upper deviation is zero
B. whose lower deviation is zero
C. whose lower as well as upper deviations are
zero
D. does not exist
Ans. A
Sol. Basic Size: It is the size with reference to
which upper or lower limits of size are
defined. In case of shaft its upper deviation is
zero
49. Allen bolts are ___________.
A. self-locking bolts
B. designed for shock load
C. used in aircraft application
D. provided with hexagonal depression in head
Ans. D
Sol. a bolt with a hexagonal socket in its head
that is designed to be used with an Allen
wrench.
50. A rived joint may fail due to :-
A. Shearing of the rivet
B. Shearing off the plate at an edge
C. Crushing of the rivet
A. only A
B. only B
C. only C
D. Any of A or B or C
Ans. D Sol. Rivet may fail all the above reason
stated.
51. The same volume of all gases would
represent their __________.
A. densities
B. specific weights
C. molecular weights
D. gas characteristics constants
Ans. C
Sol. The same volume of all gases would
represent their molecular weight.
52. Extensive property of a system is one
whose value _________.
A. depends on the mass of the system, like
volume
B. does not depend on the mass of the system,
like temperature, pressure etc.
C. is not dependent on the path f ollowed but
on the state
D. is dependent on the path followed and not
on the state
Ans. A
Sol. Extensive property of a system is one
which depends on the mass of the system, like
volume
53. In an isothermal process, the internal
energy of gas molecules _______.
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains constant
D. may increase/decrease depending on the
properties of gas
Ans. C
Sol. Internal energy of system is only function
of its temperature. In isothermal process
temperature does not change and its internal
energy remain constant.
54. The more effective way of increasing
efficiency of Carnot engine is to _________.
A. increase higher temperature
B. decrease higher temperature
C. increase lower temperature
D. decrease lower temperature
Ans. D
Sol. Carnot cycle include Two isentropic
(compression and expansion) Two isothermal
(heat addition and heat rejection)
58. Change of entropy depends upon
________.

Sol. As the temperature difference increase A. change of mass

between the sink the efficiency of cannot B. change of temperature
engine. will increases. But the upper limit of
temperature is limited to material property, C. change of specific heats
hence the only favorable condition is to
decrease the lower temperature. D. change of heat

55. Under ideal conditions, isothermal, Ans. D

isobaric, isochoric and adiabatic processes are Sol. change in entropy, ∆𝑆 = ∆𝑄 𝑇
____.
59. Compressed air coming out from a
A. static processes punctured football _________.
B. dynamic processes A. becomes hotter
C. quasi-static processes B. becomes cooler
D. stable processes C. remains at the same temperature
Ans. C D. may become hotter or cooler depending
Sol. Under ideal conditions, isothermal, upon the humidity of the surrounding air
isobaric, isochoric and adiabatic processes are Ans. B
quasi-static processes
Sol.. the gas inside the football will go under
56. Total heat of a substance is also known as free expansion and it will expend on expanse
___________. of its internal energy hence its temperature
A. internal energy will get cool down.

B. entropy 60. The ratio of actual cycle efficiency to that

of ideal cycle efficiency is called __________.
C. thermal capacity
A. effectiveness
D. enthalpy
B. work ratio
Ans. D
C. efficiency ratio
Sol. Total heat of a substance is also known as
its enthalpy. D. isentropic efficiency

57. In a Carnot cycle, heat is transferred at Ans. C

______________. Sol. ratio of actual cycle efficiency to that of
A. constant pressure ideal cycle efficiency is called efficiency ratio
61. Which of the following cycles is not a
B. constant volume
reversible cycle?
C. constant temperature
A. Carnot
D. constant enthalpy
B. Ericsson
Ans. C
C. Stirling 64. Properties of substances like pressure,
temperature and density, in thermodynamic
D. Joule co-ordinates are ___________.
A. only A A. path functions
B. only A and B B. point functions
C. only C
C. cyclic functions
D. None of these
D. real functions
Ans. D
Ans. B
Sol. The above cycle are reversible cycle.
Sol Properties of substances like pressure,
62. A system will be thermodynamic temperature and density are intensive property
equilibrium only if it is in __________. and independent of mass. Which depend only
on state of the system hence these are point
A. Thermal equilibrium function.
B. Mechanical equilibrium 65. The refrigeration plants are charged by
C. Chemical equilibrium refrigerants from the cylinder at the
_________.
A. only A
A. suction of compressor
B. only B
B. crank case of compressor
C. only C
C. evaporator
D. A, B and C
D. receiver
Ans. D
Ans. D
Sol. A system is said to be in equilibrium
when system has achieve all the four Sol. the refrigerant used in the refer plant gets
equilibrium as given below Thermal consumed or is reduced in quantity because of
equilibrium, Mechanical equilibrium, leakage in the system. Reduction in quantity of
Chemical equilibrium No phase change. refrigerant may lead to troubles in the plant.
When the above mentioned problems occur, it
63. Davis steering gear consists of indicates that the plant has to be charged with
__________. the refrigerant. charged by refrigerants from
the cylinder at the receiver.
A. Sliding pairs
66. Which of the following refrigerant
B. Turning pairs
characteristics change constantly during the
C. Rolling pairs cooling cycle?

D. Higher pairs A. pressure and phase

Ans. A B. temperature and pressure

Sol. Davis steering system or Davis steering C. phase and flow

gear is the most used power steering system.
D. flow and pressure
Almost all cars are installed with the power
steering system. This is a type of side pivot Ans. B
steering mechanism which has only sliding
pair system. Sol. During cooling cycle in refrigerant system
temperature and pressure
67. Moisture in a refrigerant system is B. cooling substance
removed by ________.
C. auxiliary refrigerant
A. Driers
D. absorbent
B. Filter driers
Ans. D
C. Desiccants
Sol. Lithium bromide in vapour absorption
A. only A refrigeration system is used as absorbent.
B. only B 71. The condenser and evaporator tubes in a
Freon refrigeration plant are made of ____.
C. only C
A. steel
D. A, B and c
B. copper
Ans. B
C. brass
Sol. Moisture in a refrigerant system is
removed by filter driers to avoid entry of D. aluminium
moisture content in compressor.
Ans. B
68. The most suitable refrigerant for a
commercial ice plant is ________. Sol. Feron does not have corrosion effect on
copper so the component of Freon
A. Brine refrigeration system is made of copper.
B. NH3 72. Vertical lines on pressure-enthalpy chart
show constant ________.
C. Freon
A. pressure lines
D. Air
B. temperature lines
Ans. B
C. total heat lines
Sol. NH3 has some excellent property llike,
Penetrating odour, soluble in water. D. entropy lines
69. Fittings in ammonia absorption Ans. C
refrigeration system are made of ________.
Sol. Vertical lines on pressure-enthalpy chart
A. Cast steel or forgings show constant total heat lines.
B. Copper 73. The coefficient of performance is the ratio
of the refrigerant effect to the __________.
C. Brass
A. Heat of compression
D. Aluminium
B. Work done by compression
Ans. A
C. Enthalpy increase in compressor A. only A
Sol. Fittings in ammonia absorption
B. only B C. only C
refrigeration system are made of Cast steel or
forgings because it attack other metal and D. A, B and C
corroded it
Ans. D
70. Lithium bromide in vapour absorption
refrigeration system is used as ___________. Sol. 𝐶𝑂𝑃 = 𝐷𝑒𝑠𝑖𝑟𝑒 𝑒𝑓𝑓𝑒𝑐𝑡 𝑤𝑜𝑟𝑘 𝑖𝑛𝑝𝑢𝑡 𝑡𝑜
𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑠𝑦𝑠𝑡𝑒𝑚/ Work input the system include
A. refrigerant heat of compression, [work done by
compression and enthalpy increase in vapor there is in the air. knowing the dew
compression] point gives an idea of how moist or dry the air
is.
74. Moisture in Freon refrigeration system
causes _________. 77. Air is normally dehumidified by
__________.
A. ineffective refrigeration
A. injecting water
B. high power consumption
B. passing steam
C. freezing automatic regulating valve
C. heating
D. corrosion of whole system
D. cooling
Ans. C
Ans. D
Sol. Free water can freeze in ice crystals inside
the dispenser and in the evaporator tubes Sol. The process in which the air is cooled
systems that operate below the freezing point sensibly and at the same time the moisture is
of water. This reaction is called freeze-up. removed from it is called as cooling and
dehumidification process. Cooling and
75. During sensible cooling process dehumidification process is obtained when the
__________.
air at the given dry bulb and dew point (DP)
A. specific humidity remains constant temperature is cooled below the dew point
temperature.
B. specific humidity increases
78. Which of the following is not a type of
C. specific humidity decreases steel?
D. specific humidity is unpredictable A. austenite
Ans. A Sol. Sensible heat is the heat (energy) B. limonite
in the air due to the temperature of the air and
the latent heat is the heat (energy) in the air C. pearlite
due to the moisture of the air. So for sensible
D. martensite
cooling no change in moisture content hence
specific humidity remain constant. Ans. B
76. If air is heated without changing its Sol. Limonite is not a type of steel.
moisture content, the dew point will
79. In which component of VCRS, Heat is
___________.
released ?
A. increase
A. Condenser
B. decrease
B. Compressor
C. remain the same
C. Evaporator
D. unpredictable
Ans. A
Ans. C
Sol. Heat is released in a condenser in a VCRS
Sol. The dew point temperature is the refrigeration system.
temperature to which the air must be cooled
before dew or frost begins to f orm. The dew 80. Poisson ratio is highest for which material
________? A. Rubber B. Steel C. Cork D.
point temperature is also a measure of the
Wood Ans. A Sol. Rubber have highest
amount of water vapor in the current air mass.
poisson ratio.
The higher the dew point, the more water
81. How many drums in Benson boiler no. Ans. A
drums are used in Benson boiler?
Sol. Diesel engine efficiency does not directly
A. three depend on cut off ratio.
B. two 85. In a locomotive boiler, draught is created
by _________?
C. One
A. Steam jet
D. Zero
B. Chimney
Ans. D
C. Fan
Sol. Benson boiler is a supercritical boiler,
Hence no drum is used. D. Blower
82. Which device is not used in the rankine Ans. B
cycle ________?
Sol. In a locomotive boiler, a draught is
A. Compressor created by a chimney.
B. Condenser 86. Which of the following is not the unit of
viscosity _________?
C. Turbine
A. N-s/m2
D. Pump
B. Poise
Ans. A
C. m2 /sec
Sol. Compressor is not used in the Rankine
cycle. Rankine cycle parts: Condenser, Pump, D. Pa-S
Boiler, Turbine
Ans. C
83. In the VCRS cycle, capillary tube is placed
in between _________? Sol. m2 /sec is a unit of kinematic viscosity
not dynamic viscosity.
A. compressor and condenser
87. What is the function of a carburettor
B. Evaporator and compressor _________?
C. Condenser and evaporator A. to supply air only
D. sub cooler and condenser B. to maintain Air fuel ratio
Ans. C C. to supply fuel only
Sol. In the VCRS cycle, the capillary tube is Ans. B
placed in between the condenser and
Sol. The function of a carburettor is to provide
evaporator.
homogeneous mixture of air and fuel by
84. Diesel engine efficiency does not directly maintaining A/F ratio.
depend on _________?
88. Reversed _________ is used in gas
A. cutoff ratio refrigeration?
B. Compression ratio A. Carnot
C. specific heat ratio B. Brayton
D. Pressure ratio C. Rankine
D. Stirling Ans. D
Ans. B Sol. Bell coleman cycle is also known as
Reversed brayton cycle or Reversed Joule
Sol. Reversed Brayton cycle is used in gas cycle
refrigeration systems.
93. RTT Theorem uses which concept
89. Heat addition in the Otto cycle is at
________? A. Moving control Volume
A. At constant pressure B. Fixed control Volume
B. at constant volume C. control surface analysis
C. at constant temperature Ans. B
D. at constant entropy Sol. In Reynold’s Transport Theorem(RTT)
fixed control volume approach is used.
Ans. B
94. What kind of combustion takes place in
Sol. Heat addition in the Otto cycle is at
Fourth stage of an CI engine
constant volume.
A. controlled
90. In a carburizing flame in welding, which of
the following is used in excess ? B. uncontrolled
A. Acetylene C. after burning
B. Oxygen D. Ignition lag
C. Argon Ans. C
D. Air Sol. combustion in Fourth stage in diesel
engine is after burning stage.
Ans. A
95. Classification of steel is not done on the
Sol. Acetylene is used in access in carburizing basis which parameter
flame.
A. Heat treatment
91. In which component of VCRS, Heat is
released ? B. composition
A. Condenser C. Method of manufacturing
B. Compressor Ans. C
C. Evaporator Sol. Classification of steel is not done on the
basis of Method of manufacturing
Ans. A
96. Refrigeration system which uses waste
Sol. Heat is released in a condenser in a VCRS
heat
refrigeration system.
A. Steam Jet refrigerator
92. Bell coleman cycle is also known as
B. Vortex refrigerator
A. Reversed carnot cycle
C. VARS
B. Brayton cycle
Ans. C
C. stirling cycle
D. Reversed brayton cycle
Sol. Refrigeration system which uses waste Ans. B
heat is Vapour Absorption Refrigeration
system. Sol. Process in which ice directly converts into
vapour is sublimation.
97. Rankine cycle efficiency can be increased
by
A. By increasing condenser pressure
B. By increasing the mean temperature of heat
addition
C. By increasing the condenser temperature
Ans. B
Sol. Rankine cycle efficiency can be increased
by increasing the mean temperature of heat
addition.
98. Which of the following gives correct
relation for hydrostatic pressure = ......... x
Depth of the point
A. Specific weight
B. Specific gravity
C. Density
D. Viscosity
Ans. A
Sol. hydrostatic pressure = specific gravity x
Depth of the point.
99. Spheroidal cast iron is also known as
A. Grey cast Iron
B. white cast Iron
C. MALLEABLE cast Iron
D. Ductile cast Iron
Ans. D
Sol. Spheroidal cast iron is also known as
Ductile cast iron.
100. Process in which ice directly converts
into vapour
A. Vaporisation
B. Sublimation
C. Fusion