Logical Reasoning Book

DIWAKAR EDUCATION HUB
Logical Reasoning Unit-

UGC NET PAPER -1
2020
NO.1 SUPPORATIVE INSTITUTE UGC-NET

Logical Reasoning Arguments
The Logical Reasoning section of the LSAT assesses your ability to analyze arguments.
In this article, we’ll introduce you to the components of an argument and how to recognize
them. If this is new to you, it’s a good idea to spend quite a bit of time on these
foundational skills. Work through argument-based questions slowly and carefully as you
build up your confidence!
What is an argument?
An argument is a set of statements made up, at minimum, of the following parts:
 A main conclusion: This statement is a claim that expresses what the arguer is trying to
persuade us to accept, whether or not it actually is true.
 Evidence: Also known as premises or support, the arguer provides these statements in
order to show us that the conclusion is true. Essentially, the evidence answers the
question, “Why do you believe [the conclusion] to be true?” The simplest arguments on the
LSAT have just one piece of evidence; more complex arguments will have several.
Top tip: Order doesn’t matter
There is no set order to an argument’s components; the conclusion could be at the
beginning, in the middle, or at the end, and the same is true for any other component.
Note: When we analyze arguments in this way, we don’t analyze their tone or style. Be
prepared for the argument components to appear in a variety of writing styles.
Conclusion + evidence
The simplest arguments consist of one main conclusion and one piece of evidence. Here’s
an example:
 Sarah will probably receive a job offer, because she has ten years of experience.
Which piece is the conclusion, and which piece is the evidence? Click below when you feel
confident in your answer.
Conclusion + evidence + intermediate conclusion

More complex arguments might include something called an intermediate conclusion.
Also known as a subsidiary conclusion (or “sub-conclusion” for short), this is a claim that
acts both as a conclusion and as evidence. In other words, it’s a conclusion based on
evidence, but it’s a conclusion that leads to yet another conclusion. For that reason, the
intermediate conclusion can’t be the main conclusion.
Let’s modify our simple argument from above so that it contains an intermediate
conclusion:
 Sarah will probably receive a job offer, because she has ten years of experience. That
means that she’ll soon pay me back for the money I lent her.
Can you see how the new main conclusion is that Sarah will soon pay me back? That’s
because Sarah receiving a job offer is the reason to believe that she’ll pay me back. So Sarah
receiving a job offer is the conclusion for her having ten years of experience, but
it’s also the evidence for the prediction that she’ll soon pay me back.
Conclusion + evidence + background information

This argument structure is very common on the LSAT. Background information is
provided to us in order to “set the stage” and orient us to the situation. Let’s look at our
original argument again:
 Sarah will probably receive a job offer, because she has ten years of experience.
You might be asking yourself, “Who’s Sarah? What job? Experience in what?” and that’s
where background information comes in. Here’s a longer version, including background
information:
 One of this neighborhood’s residents has been complaining about his sister Sarah having
been unemployed for so long. She’s applying for programming jobs at many companies,
but she only received her first interview invite last week. She’ll probably receive a job offer
because she has ten years of experience. In a job market like the current one, anything over
eight years of experience gives a candidate a great advantage.
Can you notice how much more time it takes to break down this argument as opposed to
the bare-bones argument we first presented? One of your primary goals on most LSAT
argument-based questions is to rephrase an argument in its “conclusion,
because support” form in order to keep it simple. It’s rare that background information
holds information critical to your ability to complete the task.
When we read logical reasoning arguments critically, we read with a purpose, and most of
the time, our purpose will be to break the argument into its components so that we can
answer the question!
How do we identify the main conclusion?

You can see from our argument above—the one with the extra background information—
that the conclusion won’t always be immediately obvious. While there isn’t one way that’s
guaranteed to identify the conclusion (since writing and rhetoric is so variable), we can
give you a few tools.
Signal words for conclusions
While there is no guarantee that any one word or phrase is introducing

the main conclusion of an argument—remember that many arguments have sub-
conclusions!—the following keywords are often found at the beginning of a conclusion
sentence or a conclusion clause.
 Thus
 Therefore
 Hence
 So
 Conclude
 It follows that
 As a result
 Clearly
 Obviously
 Nevertheless
 Nonetheless
These words, when they are present in an argument, can often give you a good place
to start when you want to locate the main conclusion quickly.
WARNING! Remember that conclusions don’t have to have any kind of leading keyword at
all! Consider the following keyword-less conclusions:
 The cat will run away if you open the door. That's because the cat doesn't like being inside.
 90% of adults in the area returned a survey and indicated that they think crime is on the
rise. We need to act quickly to combat this increase in crime.
Therefore, always use context in order to identify the main conclusion.
How do we identify the relevant evidence?

Keep asking WHY?
It’s really easy to get “lost” in the words when we analyze an LSAT argument, so it can be
helpful to keep one question in mind when identifying the evidence, or support: “Why?” In
other words, “Why does the arguer believe [that conclusion]?”
In the practice section of the system, you’ll often see us break down arguments like this:
Conclusion
 [Insert conclusion here]

because
Support
 [Insert the “why” reasoning here].
Other times, it may be easier to understand the argument by starting with the support:
Support
 [Insert premises here]. Therefore,

Conclusion
 [Insert conclusion here].

Sometimes a claim is partly direct evidence and partly background info, which makes it
more difficult to “weed out” the background info. Keep asking “Why?/Because” as you
approach arguments in the Logical Reasoning section, and you’ll start to see patterns
emerge, and gain the confidence you need to approach more complex claims. The more you
do it, the better you’ll get!
Signal words for evidence
Keywords indicating evidence tend to be more reliable than the keywords that can indicate
conclusion. The following keywords—though far from constituting a complete list—often
indicate some type of evidence, if not the main support for the conclusion:
 Because
 Since
 After all
 On the grounds that
 Given that
 For
 As shown by
Argument forms—
Deductive argument: involves the claim that the truth of its premises guarantees the
truth of its conclusion; the terms valid and invalid are used to characterize deductive
arguments. A deductive argument succeeds when, if you accept the evidence as true (the
premises), you must accept the conclusion.
Inductive argument: involves the claim that the truth of its premises provides some
grounds for its conclusion or makes the conclusion more probable; the terms valid and
invalid cannot be applied.
Valid: an argument is valid if and only if it is necessary that if all of the premises are
true, then the conclusion is true; if all the premises are true, then the conclusion must be
true; it is impossible that all the premises are true and the conclusion is false.
Invalid: an argument that is not valid. We can test for invalidity by assuming that all the
premises are true and seeing whether it is still possible for the conclusion to be false. If
this is possible, the argument is invalid.
Validity and invalidity apply only to arguments, not statements. For our purposes, it
is just nonsense to call a statement valid or invalid. True and false apply only to
statements, not arguments. For our purposes, it is just nonsense to call an argument true
or false. All deductive arguments aspire to validity.
If you consider the definitions of validity and invalidity carefully, you'll note that
valid arguments have the following important property: valid arguments preserve truth.
If all your premises are true and you make a valid argument from them, it must be the
case that whatever conclusion you obtain is true. (We shall see below, however, that
valid arguments do not necessarily preserve truth value: it is entirely possible to argue
validly from false premises to a true conclusion).
Sound: an argument is sound if and only if it is valid and contains only true premises.
Unsound: an argument that is not sound.
Counterexample: an example which contradicts some statement or argument (ex. a
counterexample to the statement “All fifteen year-olds have blue hair” would be a
fifteen-year-old without blue hair); for an argument, a counterexample would be a
situation in which the premises of the argument are true and the conclusion is false;
counterexamples show statements to be false and arguments to be invalid.
Categorical proposition
predicate is, without qualification, affirmed or denied of all or part of the subject. Thus, categorical
propositions are of four basic forms: “Every S is P,” “No S is P,” “Some S is P,” and “Some S is not P.”
These forms are designated by the letters A, E, I, and O, respectively, so that “Every man is mortal,” for
example, is an A-proposition. Categorical propositions are to be distinguished from compound and
complex propositions, into which they enter as integral terms; in particular, being assertions of fact
rather than of logical connections, they contrast especially with hypothetical propositions, such as “If
every man is mortal, then Socrates is mortal.”
Venn diagrams of four categorical propositions.
history of logic: Categorical forms
…this way were later called categorical propositions and fall into one or another of the following forms:…
Venn diagram
…diagram, graphical method of representing categorical propositions and testing the validity of categorical
syllogisms, devised by the English logician and philosopher John Venn (1834–1923). Long recognized for their
pedagogical value, Venn diagrams have been a standard part of the curriculum of introductory logic since the mid-
20th century.…
MCQ Related to Arugument Forms-
Direction :Each of the following question consists of a statement followed by 2 arguments
I and II.Give answer
a)if only argument I is strong
b)if only argument II is strong
c)if either I or II is strong
d)if neither I or II are strong
e)if both I and II follow
1. Statement : Should India change its course from the economic reform process and look
inward for all round economic development?
Arguments:
I . No ,There is a way to look backward after having started the process.
II. Yes , This will benefit India in the long run as the reform process borrowed from
western countries will adverse;ly affect our economy.
Answer
2. Statement :Should all the foreign banks immediately be asked to close down their
operations in India
Arguments:
I .No, this will have an adverse impact on Indian economy.
II.Yes, this is the only way to make the Indian banks survive and prosper.
Answer
3. Statement : Three persons were caught with huge arms and ammunition in the city
Arguments:
I .The police should be instructed for night patrolling
II.The three persons should be set free and their movements should be carefully watched
to nab the other criminals
Answer
4. Statement :Banks should always check financial status before lending money to a client
Arguments:
I .Checking before lending would give a true picture of the client’s financial status
II.Clients something may not present the correct picture of their ability to repay loan
amount to the bank
Answer
5. Statement : Anyone found smoking in the ‘Non smoking’ area would be penalised
Arguments:
I .There are separate smoking and non smoking areas
II.There are some people who do not smoke
Answer
6. Statement :You need to be talented to identify talent

Arguments:
I .Talent is acquired and developed
II.Talent is hereditary
Answer
7. Statement : Should India support all the international policies of USA ?

Arguments:
I. No, many other powerful countries do not support the same
II.Yes, This is the only way to gain access to USA developmental funds.
Answer
8. Statement : Should there be more than one High Courts in each state of India ?
Arguments:
I. No, this will be a sheer wastages of taxpayer’s money
II.Yes, this will help to reduce the backlog of cases pending for a very long time
Answer
9. Statement : Should all the infrastructural development projects in India be handed over
to the private sector ?
Arguments:
I. No, the private sector entities are not equipped to handle such projects.
II.Yes, such projects are handled by private sector in the developed countries.
Answer
10. Statement : Should we scrap the ‘Public Distribution System’ in India ?

Arguments:
I .Yes, Protectionism is over, everyone must get the bread on his/her own.
II.Yes, the poor do not get any benefit because of corruption.
Answer
set-2
Direction :Each of the following question consists of a statement followed by 2 arguments
I and II.Give answer
1. Statement : A very large no of students have failed in the final high school examination
due to faulty questions in one of the subjects.
Arguments:
I.All the students who have failed in that subjects should be allowed to take
supplementary examination.
II.All those who are responsible for the error should be suspended and an enquiry should
be initiated to find
out the facts
Answer
2. Statement : The meteorological department has predicted good monsoon this year for
the 10th consecutive year and will result in good crop yield.
Arguments:
I.Gov should offload the store before harvesting.
II.Gov should provide chemical fertilisers to farmers immediately
Answer
3. Statement : In order to build more space, extra FSI needs to be bought

Arguments:
I.The person being told does not know the meaning of FSI
II.More space will reduce the construction cost
Answer

4. Statement : Job rotation helps employee get an overview of the organisation
Arguments:
I.Job rotation is the only method to get an overview of the organisation
II.It is required to have an overview of the organisation
Answer
5. Statement : Use our medicine to fight the problem of obesity

Arguments:
I.Other slimming medicines available in the market do not reduce weight
II.Obesity cannot be controlled without medicines
Answer
6. Statement : Should judiciary be independent of the executive ?

Arguments:
I.Yes,this would help to curb the unlawful activities of the executive
II.No, the execution would not be able to take bold measures
Answer
7. Statement : Should family planning be made compulsory in India ?

Arguments:
I.Yes, looking at the miserable conditions in India, there is no other go
II.No, in India there are people of various religions and family planning is against the
tenets of some of religions
Answer

8. Statement : Should non-vegetarian food be totally banned in our country ?
Arguments:
I.Yes, it is expensive and therefore beyond the means of most people in our country.
II.No, nothing should be banned in a democratic company
Answer
9. Statement : Should the school teachers be necessarily involved in the census activities ?
Arguments:
I.No, this will adversely affect the quality of teaching programme
II.Yes, the teachers are the best fit for this job
Answer
10. Statement : An advertisement – the new model has been launched with K – series
engine.
Arguments:
I.People know about K – series engine
II.Engine type / series is important for buyers.
Answer
Set-3
1. Statement :A huge oil tanker overturned on the highway leading to the state capital and
blocked most part of the highway from vehicular traffic .
I. Gov should immediately constitute a high level enquiry committee to look into the
matter
II. The driver of the oil tanker should immediately be arrested
1)if only argument I is strong
2)if only argument II is strong
3)if either I or II is strong
4)if neither I or II are strong
5)if both I and II follow
Answer
2. Statement :Gov has decided to relocate all the factories from the city with immediate
effect to reduce the pollution.
I. Pollution in the city is being caused only because of the factories.
II. People may be able to manage travelling daily to the relocated factories.
Answer
3. Statement :Many organizations have switched over to on-line mode of examinations.

I. Candidates from all parts of the country may be well versed using computers.
II. On-line mode of examinations helps in recruiting more capable personnel.
Answer
4. Statement :Use chlorine tablets for drinking water – A notice by municipal authority
I. To drink water without using chlorine tablets is hazardous.
II. Municipal authority is providing chlorine tablets.
Answer
5. Statement :An increased number of credit/debit card forgery cases have been recorded
recently.
I. The banks should make strict verification to ensure the access to cards by the
authorized persons.
II. The banks should advice their customers to be more careful in dealing with this type of
cards.
Answer
6. Statement :Power cuts in most parts of the country has put the students in tremendous
difficulty during examinations.
I. Gov should advise the public to make stand by arrangements like generator and
invertors.
II. Parents of the students should take out a morcha to the Electricity boards in protest
against power cuts.
Answer
7. Statement :Many students at School and Degree level are not able to master the
subjects even if passed out with high scores
I. Education board should examine and revise the examination system to tap the real
talent
II. Examination systems at all levels should be so designed as to discourage rote learning.
III. Difficulty level of the exam papers should be significantly increased.
2)if only argument III is strong
4)if Only I and III follow
5)if Only I and II follow
Answer
5)if Only I and II follow
8. Statement :Gov of India has appointed a joint parliamentary committee to investigate

into the recent stock market crash
I. The members of the committee may possess requisite expertise to carry out the
investigation.
II. The people responsible for the crash may destroy all their documents before the
committee lay their hands on them.
Answer
9. Statement :For any kind of problems with your mobile phones, contact our help desk
immediately.
I. Help desk has a solution to all kinds of problems related to mobile phones or will guide
accordingly
II. Unless the problem is reported immediately, it cannot be solved.
Answer
10. Statement :Many school children died in few accidents caused due to poor maintenance
of school buses during the last year.
I. The Gov should set up an expert group to inspect the condition of school buses to avoid
such accidents.
II. The Gov should suspend the licence of all school buses till these buses are properly
checked.
Answer
Set-4
1. Statement : Every school that promote partnerships that will increase parental
involvement and participation for promoting the growth of children
I.For the growth of the children, parents should be involved in various school activities.
II.Involvement of parents in school activities has no influence on the growth of the
children.
Answer

2. Statement : Aggressive animals can be trained with care and affection to behave as the
occasion demands.
I.Trained dogs cannot be aggressive
II.Animals are always aggressive unless care and affection is given to them
Answer
3. Statement : Self managing people control their first impulses for action and delay
premature conclusions
I.Self managing people do not take actions without thinking
II.Instant conclusions are taken by self managing people.
Answer
4. Statement : Teachers have long known form experience about the importance of
practise and emotional engagement in learning.
I.Emotional engagement is learning is not an important as practise
II.Teachers are aware of the necessity
Answer
5. Statement: Finance Ministry has recommended that small public sector banks, with
assets of less than Rs.2 lakh core, should be readied to merge with 5 large PSBs .Which of
the following is the reason for the merger of small banks ?
I.Less profit Generation
II.Growing competition with private banks
Answer
6. Statement :The minister questioned the utility of the space research programme and
suggested its replacement by other areas of felt national need.
I.Exploring the space does not contribute to critical national needs
II.Research should be oriented to national needs
Answer
7. Statement : The oceans are a storehouse of practically every mineral, including uranium.
But like most of other minerals, it is found extremely low concentration about 3grms to
1000 tonnes of water.
I.The oceans are a cheap source of uranium
II.The oceanshorbour radiation hazards
Answer
8. Statement : The district authority has decided to set up wireless communication along
the coastline in view of the cyclonic storm hitting the coast.
I.The telephone communications may be paralyzed due to the cyclonic storm
II.The wireless communication systems may be able to withstand the fury of the cyclonic
storm
Answer
9. Statement : The management of the passenger car manufacturing company has decided
to reduce its workforce in view of the sluggish demand in the market
I.The demand of cars manufactured by the company may continue to be lower in the near
future.
II.The company may be able to run its operation with the reduced work force
Answer

10. Statement: Should the railways immediately stop issuing free passes to all its
employees?
I. Yes. This will help railways to provide better facility.
II. No. The employees have the right to travel free.
Answer
Set-5
1. Statement : Even though the number of sugar factories is increasing at a fast rate in
India, We still continue to import it from other countries.
I.The demand for sugar may increase substantially in future.
II.Even the increased number of factories may not be able to demand of sugar in India.
Answer
Answer – 1)if only argument I is strong
2. Statement :The gov announced a heavy compensation package for all the victims of the
terrorist attacks.
I.Such incidents of terror may not occur in near future
II.Compensation may mitigate the anger among the citizens against the government.
Answer
Answer – 4)if neither I or II are strong
3. Statement :Gambling through lotteries is banned by central gov in all the states with
immediate effect.
I.The citizens may not gamble in any other way, if the lotteries are banned.
II.This may save innocent citizens from getting cheated of their earned money
Answer
Answer – 2)if only argument II is strong
4. Statement :Increasing competition on various fronts is putting children and youth under
tremendous pressure leading them to take extremely drastic steps.
I.Children and youth along with their parents should be counselled for facing the
competition in right spirit.
II.Parents and teachers should be advised not to bring pressure on children.
Answer
5. Statement : Should India change its course from the economic reform process and look
inward for all round economic development ?
I.No, there is no way to look backward after having started the process
II.Yes, this will benefit India in long run as the reform process borrowed from western
countries will adversely affect our economy.
Answer
6. Statement :The US based FMCG company has developed a new deodorant. The company
selected a media person couple for its promotion and marketing. They marketing it
through TV, Radio and Social media.
I.People want to see film stars and famous sports personality in the advertisement of an
FMCG product
II.Some people may tend to buy the deodorant of the US based FMCG company
Answer
7. Statement :Many sociologists have argued that there is a functional relationship between
education and economic systems. They point to the fact that mass formal education began
in industrial society and is an established part of all industrial societies.
I.Industrial society is responsible for expansion of education of the mass level.
II.Formal education has suffered a setback due to industrial society
Answer

8. Statement :The gov has appealed to all citizens to use potable water judiciously as there
is an acute shortage in supply. Excessive use may lead to huge scarcity in future months.
I.Large number of people may positively respond to the gov’s appeal and help tide over
the crisis.
II.Gov may be able to put in place alternate sources of water in the event of a crisis
situation
9. Statement :The municipal corporation has announced 50% reduction in water supply till
monsoon arrives in the city.
I.People may protest against the unilateral decision of the municipal corporation
II.Municipal corporation may reduce its taxes from the residents as it failed to provide
adequate water
Answer
10. Statement :In view of the severe heat wave passing through the state, the gov has
asked all the schools to remain closed for the next fortnight with immediate effect?
I.The parents of the students may not allow their wards to attend school even after a
fortnight.
II.The heat wave may not continue beyond a fortnight
Set-6
In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered
1 & 2. On the basis of information given in the statement to be true, then decide which of
the following suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing. Give your
answer as-
1)If only 1 follows
2)If only 2 follows
3)If either 1 or 2 follows
4)If neither 1 nor 2 follows
5)If both 1 & 2 follow
1. The state government has decided to provide relief by way of food and clothes to
all the flood victims in the state.
I.The government machinery should identify those people who are affected by flood and
are to be provided with relief material.
II.The government machinery should procure enough food and clothes for providing relief
to the flood victims.
Answer
Answer – 5)If both 1 & 2 follow

Explanation :
Both are right as government should provide relief material and food for the victims
2. Increasing construction of residential towers in the city is hampering the

infrastructure arrangements like water supply, sewage system etc.
I.Municipal authorities in the city should not permit construction of towers unless
adequate provisions for infrastructural facilities are made.
II.Concerned authorities should take stringent action against those builders who are
violating the rules.
Answer

Explanation :
As the Infrastructure facilities are hampered the municipal authority should prohibit the
establishment of towers until there are proper provisions are made. Moreover there must
be strict actions against those who violates the rules.
3. Drinking and rave parties have become fashion among the present college youth
which diverts them from studies.
I.The state government should make it a rule to disallow the students from entering Pubs
and Bars.
II.The parents as well as the colleges should impose strict discipline among the college
going youth.
Answer
Answer – 2)If only 2 follows

Explanation :
Government can’t ban students from going into pubs or bars but parents should be strict
with their children and impose discipline
4. Increasing competition on various fronts is putting children and youth under

tremendous pressure leading them to take extremely drastic steps.
I.Parents and teachers should be advised not to bring pressure on children.
II.Children and youth along with their parents should be counselled for facing the
competition in right spirit.
Answer

Explanation:
The pressure should be held in a healthy way with right spirit and timely counselling of
parents
5. The management of school ‘X’ has decided to give free breakfast from next
academic year to all the students in the primary section through its canteen even
though they will not get any government grant.
I.The canteen facilities and utensils will have to be checked and new purchases to be
made to equip it properly.
II.The school will have to admit many poor students who will seek admission for the next
academic year.
Answer

Explanation :
Since the school has introduced the scheme without receiving any grant, it needs to pool
up the funds and make adequate arrangements to keep the scheme going. Action 2 has
no connection with the statement
6. The Deputy Mayor of city ‘w’ has proposed to install a plant of mineral water and
to supply citizens mineral water bottles at Rs.6 per litre as against Rs.10 per litre
being sold by local private companies.
I.The tap water scheme of city w will have to be stopped.
II.The local private companies of city w will have to close their operation.
Answer
7. The chairman of the car company announced in the meeting that all trials of its
first product the new car model ‘M’ are over and company plans to launch its car
in the market after six months.
I.The network of dealers is to be finalised and all legal, financial and other matters in this
connection will have to be finalised shortly.
II.The company will have to make plan for product other than car.
Answer

Explanation :
Once the trials are over the availability of resources is necessary to make. 2 has no
connection with the statement
8. A heavy unseasonal downpour during the last two days has paralysed the normal
life in the state in which five persons were killed but this has provided a huge
relief to the problem of acute water crisis in the state.
I.The state government should immediately remove all the restrictions on use of potable
water in all the major cities in the state.
II.The state government should send relief supplies to all the affected areas in the state.
Answer
Explanation :
Unseasonal downpour paralysed the normal life in the state so the Course of action (1)
does not address the problem properly and only Course of action (2) is suitable for
pursuing.
9. The police department has come under a cloud with recent revelations that at
least two senior police officers are suspected to have been involved in the illegal
sale of a large quantity of weapons from the state police armoury.
I.A thorough investigation should be ordered by the State Government to find out all
those who are involved into the illegal sale of arms.
II.State police armoury should be kept under Central Government control.
Answer

Explanation :
Keeping the State police armoury under the supervision of Central Government control is
not right action. Whereas an investigation may help to reveal those involved into the
illegal acts. Hence, only action I is right.
10. Some strains of mosquito have become resistant to chloroquine, the widely used
medicine for malaria patients.
I.Researchers should develop a new medicine for patients affected by such mosquitoes.
II.Selling of chloroquine should be stopped.
Answer

Explanation :
Chloroquine can still be used to get rid of the non-resistant varieties, and new medicines
developed for the resistant varieties. So only 1 follows
Set-7
1. The government has decided to earmark a separate lane in the metropolis for
passengers vehicles with more than one occupant.
I.Many people may resort to pool car systems to avoid traffic.
II.The move may help decongest the roads of the metropolis
Explanation :
The gov has taken steps assuming that decongestion of the roads will improve.
2. New Census data on the educational status of India show the biggest increase in
the no of people pursuing engineering & technology diplomas or technical
degrees equivalent to a graduate .
I.India has over 30lakh people with teaching degree and over 15 lakh people with a
medical degree
II.Education in India has been boosted up with the opening of new private and
government colleges.

Explanation :
The biggest increase in the no of Engineering graduates is owing to the opening of new
colleges
3. NTPC is under a lot of pressure to expand and deliver cheap power but faces a
big challenges as its customers, the state owned power distribution companies
are not buying electricity due to their poor financial health.
I.NTPC should enter into distribution business and show existing discoms that power
distribution is a profitable business
II.Debt-laden discoms have been forcing generating companies to run their units at less
than full capacity.
Answer & Explanation

Explanation :
When there is less demand, generating companies will be forced to produce less.
4. The Indian Railways has tied up with TCS to pilot Systems to conduct its
recruitments exam online, as the country’s largest employer looks to introduce
trasparecy into its operation.
I.Online examination will reduce corruption and bring transparency
II.Cheating in examination will be wiped out
Answer – 2)If only 1 follow
Explanation :
Online examination will avoid forgery and reveal the real talents and accuracy of the
candidates
5. The Gov may raise the minimum wages in the country by as much as 25% and
also make them binding on all states, a move aimed at improving the lifestyle of
the poor and giving an indirect boost to the rural economy.
I.Unskilled workers will get motivated to move into semi-skilled and skilled category for a
better lifestyle
II.It will help the gov to cut expenditure on social sector programmes and generate
demands in the economy.

Explanation :
The increase in the min wages by the gov will help to provide livelihood to the workers
and save the money spent on social programmes.
6. The crime branch unearthed a major fake admission racket in Delhi University
and arrested around 100 candidates for forged documents.
I.DU should cancel the admission of such candidates and strict action should be taken by
the college against such candidates.
II.Document verification should be done properly to avoid the forgery.

Explanation :
DU should take the action against candidate to avoid this in future
7. With the implementation of Mobile Number Portability(MNP), mobile subscribers

can now keep their existing mobile numbers even while shifting between states
and circles.
I.The profit of the mobile companies will reduce
II.People won’t to change their numbers frequently
Explanation :
With MNP facility customers can retain their number in any parts of India.
8. Persistness weakness in global demand and the lower value of oil products led
India’s merchandise exports to fall for the sixth straight month in May .
I.There will be an increase in the domestic demand of gold and jewellery
II.There will be an increase in the collection of indirect taxes in the month of April and May

Explanation :
Decline in Gold imports is a major reason.
9. Rivers in UP have beeb polluted to dangerous level because of the industrial

waste released illegally into them by the industries.
I.All the industries located on the bank of the river should be closed down
II.Industrial waste should not be allowed to flow into the river

Explanation :
The gov should order the industries to avoid the flow of wastages into the river.
10. The Modi Government is likely to overhaul its overseas investment regime as the
government is keen to make it easier for doing business in the country and
attract capital from abroad in the manufacturing unit.
I.Indian economy will compete with that of the developed nations
II.India’s ranking in ease of doing business will improve

Explanation :
The decision will give an opportunity to global companies to enter the country easily.
Set-8
In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered
1 & 2. On the basis of information given in the statement to be true, then decide which of
the following suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing. Give your
answer as-
1)If only 1 follows
2)If only 2 follows
3)If either 1 or 2 follows
4)If neither 1 nor 2 follows
5)If both 1 & 2 follow
1. You can win over new people by your warm smile

Assumptions:
I.It is possible for us to smile warmly at unknown people
II.It is necessary to win over new people

Explanation :
Smile only not necessary to win, but smile create a possibility, so I is true
2. Traffic police be given anti-pollution masks while managing traffic signals

Assumptions :
I.The masks are safe for wearing and there is no other side effects.
II.The traffic police will be able to carry out their works after wearing the masks
Answer –5)If both 1 & 2 follow

Explanation :
I and II is the true fact with respect to given statements.
3. Please do not use lift while going down-an-instruction on the top of a five-storey
building
Assumptions:
I.While going down the lift is unable to carry any load
II.Provision of the lift is a matter of facility and not of right.

Answer – 4)If neither 1 nor 2 follows
Explanation :
Both I and II are false assumption with respect to the given statement.
4. Many pilgrims died in a stampede while boarding a private ferry to the holy place
on the first day of the ten-day long festival
Course of action :
I.The gov should immediately cancel the licences of all the private ferry operators with
immediate effects.
II.The gov should deploy an adequate number of its personnel to guide pilgrims on their
journey to the holy place

Explanation :
For this the gov can’t cancel the licences of a private ferry, so II is implicit
5. The rate of inflation has reached its highest in last twenty years and there is no
sign of it softening in the coming months.
Course of action :
I.Farmers should be asked by the gov to sell their product at lower prices.
II.The gov should initiate steps like reducing gov taxes on essential commodities
Answer – 4)If neither 1 nor 2 follows

Explanation :
This actions can’t softening the inflation.
6. A large part of the locality was flooded as the main pipe supplying drinking water
burst while the workers of a utility company were laying cables in the area
Course of action:
I.The civic authority should immediately arrange to repair the damage and stop loss of
water
II.The civic authority should seek an explanation and compensation from the utility
company for the damage caused by them

Explanation :
Both the actions are implicit with respect to given statement
7. Sid invited all his friends to his home for dinner on his birthday and requested
his mother to arrange for the birthday party.
Assumptions:
I.Most of Sid’s friends may attend his birthday party
II.Sid’s mother may be able to make all the arrangements including food

Explanation :
Both the assumptions are true with respect to the given statements.
8. The gov has decided to import pulses from various countries which will start
arriving at various ports in the country from October
Assumptions:
I.Imported pulses are rich in protein compared with domestic products
II.The retail price of pulses is quite high in the local market
Answer –3)If either 1 or 2 follows

Explanation :
The scarcity of pulses or their quality has led to the gov decision
9. According to the recent report by the gov, Khadi sales had doubled over 1 year ?
Assumption :
I.Discounts are offered by the Khadi outlets to the customers
II.The inclination of the people towards the use of Khadi has increased

Explanation :
People interest towards Khadi products has increased in recent days.
10. Please note that the company will provide accommodation to only outside
candidate if selected in first round of interview.
Assumptions:
I.The local candidates would be having some other arrangement for their stay
II.The company plans to select only local candidates

Explanation :
Statement I only true. Because company will select the candidates depend upon their
performance in the selection process
Set-9
Directions (1-10): Each question is followed by two arguments. You have to decide which
of the argument is “strong”. Give answer.
(A) If only argument I is strong.
(B) If only argument II is strong.
(C) If either argument I or II is strong.
(D) If neither argument I not II is strong.
(E) If both argument I and II are strong.
1. Before marriage should HIV test be made mandatory for bride and groom?
I. Yes. In order to restrict the number of victims this action should be taken because in
India the number of HIV victim is high.
II. No. It will be a type of harassment for both bride and groom.

Explanation:
Both arguments are correct in one way or the other.
The HIV victims should be reduced.
2. For supervising the advertisements by different companies, should a censor
board be created?
I. Yes. It is seen many times that a particular ad comes under a topic of debate about
showing of some scenes.
II. No. There is no need of censor boards for all purposes.

Explanation:
II is not correct because the areas where there is chance of much debates, a team can be
formed for solving purpose.
3. Can an employer given the right to terminate the services of its employee on the
ground of disability?
I. Yes. An employee is an important part of organization and if he is not able to fulfill the
needs of organization, he can be terminated.
II. No. Humanity cannot be ignored. Our constitution even provides reservation in jobs for
the disabled, they why terminating when a normal person becomes disabled.

Explanation:
Both are correct.
4. Should legal professions of India have the right to go on strike?

I. Yes. They are also a part of our society and if they feel like something not happened
right, they can go on strike,
II. No. India is already facing a backlog of such strikes where no result seems to come.
Another strike will mean an addition to these already strikes.

Explanation:
II is not correct. Even if there is a backlog, everyone has the right to say his problem.
5. Should a free phone service be provide to the children in distress?
I. Yes. Child is the father of man.
II. No. This will be misused by children

Explanation:
I has nothing to do with given question.
II is correct but due to this reason only, the question cannot be answered as NO.
6. Should the people of India have the right to access any information from
government?
I. Yes. More than 25 countries have made available this facility to their citizens
II. Yes. This move will provide openness in government functioning.
(B) If only argument II is strong.

Explanation:
I is not correct because right to access information should not be given after seeing other
countries. It is the citizens right.
7. Should a rapist be sentenced to life imprisonment in India?

I. Yes. The rape cases are increasing in the country and giving such severe punishment
will help in the safety of women.
II. No. The government should also think about the family of rapist.

Explanation:
II is not true because if families are taken into account while giving punishment then the
crimes will not stop and this will not be good for the safety of women.
8. Should the use of credit cards be restricted?

I. Yes. The facility provided by these cards make a person spendthrift.
II. No. the facility provided by these make a person technology-oriented.

Explanation:
I is not true because credit cards are mainly for this purpose only so that people can shop
without taking money with them everywhere.
II is false because use of credit cards has nothing to do with people becoming high-tech.
9. Should purchase of gold by individuals be restricted in India to improve its

foreign exchange position?
I. Yes. Interference on customer’s rights is desirable.
II. No. Business interest has to be guarded first.

Explanation:
In India any interference cannot be made to its people by government.
10. Should all education be made free in India for girls and women of all ages?
I. Yes. This is the only way in which the parents will make their daughters come out and
study.
II. No. This step will weaken the present social structure.

Explanation:
No, this is not the only way.
This has nothing to do with social life of people.
Set-10
1. The government announced a heavy compensation package for all the victims of
the terrorist attacks.
Assumptions:
1.Such incidents of terror may not occur in near future.
2.Compensation may mitigate the anger among the citizens against the current
government.
A)If only 1 is implicit
B)It only 2 is implicit
C)If either assumption 1 or 2 is implicit
D)If neither assumption 1 nor 2 is implicit
E)If both are implicit
Answer
Answer – B)It only 2 is implicit
2. Gambling through lotteries is banned by the central government in all the states
with immediate effect.
Assumptions:
1. This may save innocent citizens from getting cheated of their hard -earned money.
2. The citizens may not gamble in any other way if the lotteries are banned.
Answer
Answer – A)If only 1 is implicit
3. Should coal engines be replaced by electric engines in trains?

Assumptions:
1. Yes, coal engines cause a lot of pollution.
2. No, India doesn’t produce enough electricity to fulfil even the domestic needs.
Answer
Answer – E)If both are implicit

4. Should all professional colleges in India be encouraged to run their own courses
without affiliations to any university?
Assumptions:
1. Yes, this is the only way to create more opportunities for those who seek professional
training.
2. No, this will dilute the quality of professional training as all such colleges may not be
equipped to conduct such courses.
Answer
5. Government should deploy army to rehabilitate the people displaced due to

earthquake.
Assumptions:
1. Army can be used for purposes other than war also.
2. Only army can rehabilitate the displaced victims of the earthquake.
B)If only 2 is implicit
Answer
Answer – A)If only 1 is implicit
6. “We should inform all our officers not to read newspapers during office hours.”
Chief manager tells chief administrators.
Assumption:
1.Reading newspapers during office hours is desirable.
2. Office efficiency will not increase by stopping this.
Answer
Answer – D)If neither assumption 1 nor 2 is implicit
7. Every year doctors, scientists and engineers mitigate from India to greener
pastures.
Assumptions:
1. Brain drain has affected India badly.
2. Better scales and better standards of living act as a bait to lure them.
Answer
8. Should powerful nations attack relatively weaker nations which pose probable
danger to world peace ?
Arguments:
1. Yes. War is justified for the noble purpose of peacekeeping.
2. No. War/violence should never be resorted to.
Answer

9. You can’t solve syllogism question without constructing a
diagram(Venn).Difficult question of syllogism need Venn diagram solving, A
teacher tells his students.
Assumptions:
1. The students are not intelligent.
2. Problem cannot be solved.
Answer
10. Statement: “In order to bring punctuality in our office, we must provide
conveyance allowance to our employees.” – In charge of a company tells
Personal Manager.
Assumptions:
1. Conveyance allowance will not help in bringing punctuality.
2. Discipline and reward should always go hand in hand.
Answer
Mood and Figure-

Mood, in logic, the classification of categorical syllogisms according to the quantity
(universal or particular) and quality (affirmative or negative) of their constituent propositions.
There are four forms of propositions: A (universal affirmative), E (universal
negative), I (particular affirmative), and O (particular negative). Because each syllogism has
three propositions and each proposition may take four different forms, there are 64 different
patterns (moods) of syllogisms. Twenty-four of the 64 possible moods are valid, though only 19
were traditionally accepted as valid. Various mnemonic terms are employed to label these
moods. The vowels of these terms represent the forms of propositions in the syllogism. For
example, “Felapton” is the mnemonic term to signify the mood in which the major premise (the
premise containing the predicate of the conclusion) of the syllogism is an E proposition, the
minor premise (the premise containing the subject of the conclusion) is an A, and the
conclusion is an O.
Mood and Figure

Now we will combine categorical propositions to create what are called categorical syllogisms.
To be in standard form a categorical syllogism meets the following strict qualifications:
· It is an argument with two premises and one conclusion.
· All three statements are categorical propositions.
· It contains exactly three different terms.
· Each term is used exactly twice.
The following notes apply to standard form categorical syllogisms:
· Major term (P) = Predicate of conclusion
· Minor term (S) = Subject of conclusion
· Middle term (M) = Term that occurs in both premises
Don't let the fact that in this chapter S and P stand for "minor term" and "major term," and last chapter they stood for "subject
term" and "predicate term" confuse you. It would have been good to use different letters, but, sadly, Major, Minor and Middle
all start with "M." Just remember that they now mean something somewhat different.
· Major Premise = Premise containing major term
· Minor Premise = Premise containing minor term
List major premise first and minor premise second (conclusion, of course, is last).
HELPFUL NOTE: The second term in your conclusion will always be in the top premise. (This follows from the definition of
major premise)
Once a categorical syllogism is in standard form, we can then determine its mood and figure. The form of the syllogism is
named by listing the mood first, then the figure.
· Mood depends upon the type of propositions ( A, E, I or O) It is a list of the types beginning with the major premise and
ending with the conclusion.
· Figure depends on the arrangement of the middle terms in the proposition. You must memorize the four figures on p. 255
It is quite simple to determine the mood and figure of a standard form categorical syllogism. Don't make it difficult.
Once you have determined the mood and figure you can look at the first chart on p. 256 (unconditionally valid) to determine
whether the argument is valid or not. If the argument form is in the chart, the argument is valid.
If it is not in the chart, and if you can certify that the required terms of the syllogism exist, then check the second chart. If it
is on this chart, the argument is valid. If you don't know about the existence of the terms (you were only given the argument
form with no particular content) you can call the forms on the second chart conditionally valid.
If the argument form is on the second chart but the terms don't exist the argument is invalid, and if the form is on neither
chart it is invalid.
Reconstruction
You will also need to be able to reconstruct a "generic" standard form categorical syllogism, when you are given the mood and
figure. This is also quite simple if you take it step by step:
STEP 1. Preceding each line, write the statement type letter. (A-E-I or O)
STEP 2. Create a skeleton for each statement. Write your quantifier (All, Some, No); skip a blank space; write your copula (are,
are not); leave a blank space.
STEP 3. Based on the figure, fill in the middle terms (M).
STEP 4. Place your minor terms (S)
A. In the first blank in the conclusion, and
B. In remaining blank in second premise.
STEP 5. Place your major term (P)
A. In last blank in conclusion, and
B. In remaining blank in first premise.
e. g., EAE-2
Assignment 1: (Six points each)
Identify the major, minor, middle terms and the mood and figure of each of the following standard form categorical
syllogisms. Determine whether the argument is valid or invalid.
1. All cats are felines

No dogs are cats
No dogs are felines
2. No islands are men

Some islands are continents
Some continents are not men
3. Some paintings are works by Renoir

All works by Renoir are masterpieces
Some masterpieces are paintings.
4. All ducks are birds
All griffins are ducks
Some griffins are birds
5. Some P are not M

All S are M
Some S are not P
Assignment 2: (10 points each)
Put the following syllogisms into standard form, name the mood and figure and determine whether the argument is valid or
invalid. Use letters to represent the terms (i.e., abstract the form from the content). Be sure to tell what the letters stan d for.
1. Some triple crown winners were sired by Northern Dancer. Secretariat was sired by Northern Dancer. So Secretari at will be a
triple crown winner.
2. All unicorns are one-horned animals. No unicorns exist because no one-horned animals exist.
3. Communism is not a viable economic system. All viable economic systems must allow free enterprise and communism does
not allow such enterprise.
4. Some homosexuals are AIDS victims. Jim is homosexual so he must have AIDS.
Assignment 3: (five points each)
Reconstruct the following syllogisms:
1. OAO-4
2. AAI-1
3. EEO-2
4. EAO-3
5. III-1
6. AEE-2
Formal and Informal fallacies-
Logical Fallacies
A fallacy is a defect in an argument which misleads the mind. The defect may be intentional or unintentional. If the defect is
intentional, we sometimes call it a sophism. One’s understanding of fallacies may be used for good, in order to avoid or expose
error; or it may be used for evil, in order to subtly deceive.
Ethics of Fallacy Detection

Being mislead by another’s reasoning may lead one to be persuaded to follow a foolish and harmful course of action. As
Christians are to be as wise as serpents, so they ought to be aware of the false reasonings which are common to man ever since
the initial deception by the serpent in the garden. One should sense some moral obligation to be aware of faulty reasonings in
order to protect himself from the misleadings of others, and to protect others from being mislead by himself. Above all, it is to
the glory of God that we reason correctly, for without correct reasoning we cannot understand His Word, and without
understanding we cannot fully and properly obey.
Detection of a fallacy in another’s reasoning does not necessarily imply that it is proper to point it out. One can become
obnoxious and offensive if he continually picks apart what others say. There are more gracious ways to avoid errors than
simply pointing them out frankly, candidly and bluntly. To be sure, there are times to be brutally honest, but such times are less
frequent than practiced. One’s goal should be to win another to sound reasoning, and winning another often involves more than
naked reason. It involves courtesy, consideration, and gentle coaxing. Also, one ought to approach such matters with humility,
for fallacy is a malady so common to man that it is certain that the corrector himself is to be found at fault from time to time.
Formal Fallacies
A formal fallacy is one which involves an error in the form, arrangement or technical structure of an argument. The question in
view is not whether a conclusion is true or false, but whether the form of the argument is correct or incorrect, valid or invalid.
The concluding statement of an argument may be objectively true, though the argument is formally invalid; or the concluding
statement may be objectively false, though the argument is formally valid. Here are some examples:
Formally Valid Arguments:

1. True and Valid:
All men are mortal.
Socrates is a man.
Therefore Socrates is mortal.
2. False but Valid:
All men are green.
Socrates is a man.
Therefore Socrates is green.
Formally Invalid Arguments:

3. False and Invalid:
Some men are green.
Socrates is a man.
Therefore Socrates is green.
4. True but Invalid:
Some men are mortal.
Socrates is a man.
Therefore Socrates is mortal.
In example 2, the first statement is false, but the form or structure of the argument is correct or valid. (If all men were green;
then Socrates would be also.)
In examples 3 and 4, the first statement says something about some men, not about all men. One could correctly reason from
this first statement that Socrates might possibly be green or mortal, but he could not correctly reason that Socrates necessarily
is green or mortal.
Formal fallacies are therefore invalid arguments, arguments where the concluding statement does not necessarily follow from
the statements preceding it. The concluding statement may actually be objectively true, but it’s truth does not depend on or
follow from the other statements.
A change in the actual terms used in an argument may affect the actual truth value of the argument, but a change in terms will
not affect the validity or invalidity of the argument. All men including Socrates are truly mortal; but all men including Socrates
are not truly green. If all men were green, then Socrates would be also! But if only some men were green, then Socrates would
not necessarily be green.
Because the terms themselves do not affect validity, we can substitute symbols for the terms.
All men are mortal. All a are b.

Socrates is a man. c is a.
Therefore Socrates is mortal. Therefore c is b.
No matter what terms you may put in the place of a, b, and c, if all a are members of the class called b, and c is a member of
the class called a, the c must necessarily be a member of the class called b.
Because there are only a small number of possible relationships between the terms, these relationships can also be represented
by symbols. When this is done, the whole form of an argument can be written in symbols. This is called symbolic logic, which
is a special branch of the study of formal validity.
Informal Fallacies
Correct reasoning involves clear expression and valid form. Formal fallacies are a matter of invalid form. Informal fallacies are
a matter of unclear expression. Formal fallacies deal with the logic of the technical structure, while informal fallacies deal with
the logic of the meaning of language. The word “informal” does not here mean it is inferior, casual or improper. It only means
that our focus is not on the form of the argument, but on the meaning of the argument.
An informal fallacy involves such things as: the misuse of language such as words or grammar, misstatements of fact or
opinion, misconceptions due to underlying presuppositions, or just plain illogical sequences of thought.
We encounter both formal and informal fallacies every day, but unlike formal fallacies, we cannot reduce informal fallacies to
symbolic formulas. We can, however, compile a list of characteristic profiles of informal fallacies, and arrange them into
general categories.
I. Informal Fallacies of Ambiguity

The first general category of informal fallacies we will examine is that which involves the imprecise use of language. Each
language has its own “logic” the way the written symbols or the spoken symbols are arranged to convey certain meanings.
When a word or an expression is used in an imprecise manner, a door is opened for a misunderstanding, a fallacy.
A. Equivocation
A word may have more than one distinguishable meaning. An argument may be constructed around the ambiguity of the
meaning of that word. If you use one meaning of the word in a premise; then another meaning of the word in another premise,
or in the conclusion, you may appear to have proved something.
Example:
Logic teaches you how to argue.
People argue entirely too much.
Therefore we don’t need to teach people Logic.
In this “argument” the word “argue” is used in two entirely different senses. In the first line, the word “argue” is used to mean
only the process of arranging propositions to flow logically from a premise to a conclusion. In the second line, the word
“argue” is used to include such meanings as a heated discussion, a bitter disagreement, a contentious altercation, a dispute or a
controversy. A logical argument may sometimes lead to a dispute, or it may sometimes settle a dispute; but there is no
necessary connection between teaching logical argument and encouraging people to bitterly argue.
Often a person does not recognize that he is using a term in two senses because the two senses are often very close, yet
distinguishable. A gracious way to approach someone whom you think has equivocated is to ask him to define his use of the
word in each proposition. If he does not recognize any difference, you may point out the differences, often subtle, which you
notice. If he still does not catch on, you may wish to offer an example of your own equivocation in order to humble yourself
and thereby disarm any “defense” mechanism which may be kicking in and blinding him. Another possibility which you must
consider is that you have invented the equivocation in your mind. It is not real. If you are still satisfied that he has equivocated,
you must determine whether the conversation can continue around the point, possibly returning later to the point after other
things have been discussed and clarified.
B. Amphibology or Semantic and Syntactic Ambiguity
A variation on the above is when a word, phrase or grammatical construction is used which can be understood more than one
way.
 Example: Lots for sale. (Semantic Ambiguity: Allotments of land or numerous things?)
 Example: Laurie calls her mother when she’s alone. (Syntactic Ambiguity: Who is alone, Laurie or her mother?)
A Semantic Ambiguity can be removed by defining the ambiguous word or by offering a synonym. A Syntactic Ambiguity can
be removed by reconstructing the sentence.
Some Amphibologies may be deliberate.
 Example: “What I have written, I have written.” (John 19:22)

Pilate states a fact, that he had written the inscription of condemnation on the cross; then he declares his intention, that he was
not going to change the inscription.
Primary Uses of Language
Primary Uses of Language

Language is the means by which humans learn, interact and bond. Both verbal and non-verbal forms
of language communicate subtle nuances that affect the meaning of words and phrases.
Communication can be categorized into three primary purposes for language: informative,
expressive and directive.
Informative
The informative use of language involves information giving and receiving. The general assumption
is that the content is believable and valuable. For example, language is used to offer opinions, give
advice, make announcements, lecture, admonish, report news, solicit input or ask questions.
Everyday conversations center around information sharing.
Expressive
Language expresses and evokes ideas, thoughts and feelings. Expressive language may or may not
include any real information because the purpose of expressive use of language is to convey
emotion. For example, the expression “Yuck” connotes disgust, but the word itself isn't necessarily
used to inform. Expressive language in literature, music and the performing arts has the power to
inspire and entertain.
Directive
Language is used to establish and maintain social order. Directive use of language establishes norms
of expected behavior in certain situations. Traffic signs, laws, rules and policies are among the
common forms of directive language that promote health and safety in society. “Eat your
vegetables” is an example of directive use of language used in informal communication.
Multiple Uses
In many cases, use of language serves multiple purposes. For example, the statement “Stop that” is
both directive and expressive. Yawning and uttering “I’m tired” is informative, expressive, and
possibly directive if used to imply that another person should leave because it's late.
Connotation and Denotation

Connotations
Meaning of Connotation is a secondary word used to express an idea, qualities or feeling
in association to its literal meaning. Connotation describes the primary word and it does
not need to be a part of the meaning of word or phrase. It generally has an emotional
connection which can be positive or negative. For example, I am feeling very blue today.
Here blue refers to sad. Let us understand the denotation and connotation meaning in
detail with examples.
Connotation Definition
A rich vocabulary enables you to choose the right words to express yourself. Choosing
the right words is important because although two words may have the same meaning,
their connotations may differ.
So, what are connotations? Connotations are perceptions or feelings a word conveys,
which are distinct from the actual meaning of the words. For instance, there may be
words that have the same meaning, but different perceptions. Let us understand this
further.
Connotation and Denotation
To understand connotations completely, you should first understand the term denotation.
Denotation simple refers to the meaning of a word.
That is, denotation is the actual meaning of a word without any reference to any
associations or emotions of the word. For example, the denotation of word red is just
colour red but its connotation is danger or blood is, Here again you should be careful
because, in some instances, the dictionary lists several denotations for a single word.
Read more about Denotation here.
This usually happens when people use a word in different contexts. For example, the
word “high” has several denotations.
As an adjective, the word “high” means “of great vertical extent” or “greater than
normal in quantity or size”. As a noun, the word “high” means “a high point, level, or
figure” or a “successful moment”.
Connotations, on the other hand, are the feelings or emotions associated with a word. It
goes beyond the actual meaning of the word and paints a picture or invokes a feeling.
Browse more Topics under Vocabulary
 Vocabulary and Types of Vocabulary

 Synonyms and Antonyms
 Roots of Words
 Prefix and Suffix
 Phrasal Verbs
 Collocations
 Idioms
Examples of Connotation
For example, the words “house” and “home” have the same meaning—a place meant for
human habitation. However, the feelings or emotions associated with these two words
are different.
While the word “house,” indicates a neutral feeling of just a place of inhabitation, the
word “home” gives a feeling of warmth and love.
Importance of Connotations
Connotations are important when you communicate with people. A language, in itself, is
subjective in nature and it can evoke different psychological reactions from different
people. That is why using the wrong words can totally ruin communication even if your
intent and ideas were correct and trustworthy.
The words you choose can significantly change the meaning of a sentence. Hence, you
should completely understand both the literal and suggestive meaning of different words
before using them.
As connotations express feelings, they may be positive, negative, or neutral depending

on the context. A positive connotation makes people feel good.
Negative connotations evoke a sad or negative psychological feeling. Finally, neutral

connotations have no emotional reactions. The use of certain connotations depends on
the context or type of communication. A writer may use a word with a negative
connotation purposely to create the desired impact.
Connotations can also be formal or informal. With friends or close relatives, you can use
informal words or words that do not have a formal connotation. Business
communication, on the other hand, should always be formal and neutral.
Consider the words “young”, “youthful”, and “childish”. The word “young” is neutral. It
has no associated emotion. It just means a person who is young in age. The word
“youthful”, on the other hand, has a positive connotation.
It refers to a person who may not be young but has the exuberance of youth. Finally, the
word “childish” has a negative connotation referring to a person who behaves like a
child.
Now, look at the words “proud”, “confident”, and “conceited”. The word “proud” has a
neutral connotation as it does not have an emotional aspect.
The word “confident” is a connotation with a positive feeling as it projects belief and
self-confidence. Lastly, the word “conceited” has a negative connotation as it evokes a
feeling of being too self-absorbed.
Solved Examples For You

Q. Give examples of words and their associated connotations.
Answer: To begin with, the words “aroma” and “stench” both refer to smell or scent.
However, while the word “stench” indicates a bad odor or smell, the word “aroma”
evokes a pleasant smell or feeling. Hence, you will see that the connotation”aroma”
expresses positivity while the word “stench” has a negative connotation.
Similarly, the words “cheap” and “thrifty” also have different connotations. The word
“cheap” has a negative connotation. It refers to a person who hates spending money. On
the other hand, the word “thrifty” has a positive expression in the sense that it refers to a
person who is careful with money.
Square of Opposition-
1. Proposition: A proposition is a sentence that makes a statement and gives a relation between two
or more terms. In logical reasoning, any statement is termed as a proposition.
 A proposition is assumed to be true and from which a conclusion can be drawn.

 The statement, ‘all dogs are lemons’ is assumed to be true as a proposition (or premise), but actually
we all know that dogs and lemons are entirely different entities.
The proposition consists of the following four parts:
1. Quantifier: all, no and some. They specify a quantity. ‘all’ and ‘no’ are universal quantifiers and
‘some’ is a particular quantifier.
2. Subject: About which something is being said.
3. Predicate: Something that affirms or denies the subject.
4. Copula: The relation between subject and predicate.
2. Classical Square of Opposition: The categorical proposition having the same subject and
predicate terms may differ in quality and quantity or in both. This differs is called opposition.
 There were few questions in previous years exam, where understanding terms, such
as contradictory, contrary, sub alternation and sub contrary may help in finding solutions.
 The understanding of the square of opposition can help candidates in attempting these types of
questions:
a. Contradictory: Contradictory opposition is the relation between two proposition having the same
subject but differs in both quality and quantity. The relation between A and O, E and I are called
contradictory. In order to refute the truth of the proposition ‘All dogs are lemons’, it would be
enough to show that some dog (or even one dog) are not lemon. One exception would disprove the
truth of the universal affirmative proposition.
b. Contrary: Contrary opposition exists between two proposition when both have universal quantity
but one affirms and the other denies its predicate of the subject. The relationship between A and E is
called contraries.
Ex: (A) All dogs are lemons: This statement is universal affirmative.
The contrary of this proposition will be: (E) No dogs are lemons. This statement is universal
negative.
c. Sub contraries: The relation between two particular proposition having the same subject and
predicate but differing in quality is sub contrary opposition. The relation between particular
affirmative (I) and particular negative (O) is called sub contraries.
Ex. Some dogs are lemons (I): This is a particular positive proposition.
Sub contrary to the proposition will be: Some dogs are not lemons (O): This is a particular negative
proposition.
d. Sub alternation: Sub alternation opposition is the relation between two proposition having the
same subject and predicate but differing in quantity only.
The relation between universal negative (E) and particular negative (O) is called sub alternation.
Check this table to see all the differences between Square of Opposition Terms
Contradictory Contrary
If one is true, then the other will be
a. It is always between universal.
false definitely.
Both statements can not be true at
If one is false, then the other will be
b. the same time but both can be
true definitely.
false.
Both can not be true or false at the If one is true, then the other will be
c.
same time. false definitely.
If one is false, then the other will
d. -
be doubtful.
Sub-contrary Sub alternation

It is between universal and
a. It is always between particular.
particular
If universal is true, then particular
b. Opposite to contrary.
will be true definitely.
Both statements can not be false at If universal is false, then
c.
the same time but both can be true. particular will be doubtful.
If one is false, then the other will be If particular is false, then universal
d.
true definitely. will be false definitely.
If particular is true, then universal
If one is true, then the other will be
e. will be doubtful.
doubtful.
Truth downward, false upward.
Questions from previous year papers

1. "E" denotes:
(A) Universal Negative Proposition
(B) Particular Affirmative Proposition
(C) Universal Affirmative Proposition
(D) Particular Negative Proposition
Ans: A
‘E’ denotes universal negative proposition.
Ex. No cats are apple.
2. If the statement ‘all students are intelligent’ is true, which of the following statements are
false?
(i) No students are intelligent.
(ii) Some students are intelligent.
(iii) Some students are not intelligent.
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i) only
Ans: B
Solution: This statement ‘all students are intelligent’ is a universal positive proposition. If universal
positive is true, then definitely particular negative will be false because of the contradictory
relationship. And contradictory of this statement is ‘some students are not intelligent’. In a contrary
relationship, if universal positive is true then universal negative must be false. And universal
negative of this statement is ‘no students are intelligent’.
Question Answer MCQ –
DIRECTIONS Q. 1 to Q. 10: In each of the questions below are given few statements are given followed by
few Conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from
commonly known facts. Read all the Conclusions and then decide which of the given Conclusions logically
follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
1. Statements:
All booklets are packets.
All packets are bottles.
Some bottles are cans.
Some cans are pitchers.
Conclusions:
I. Some pitchers are bottles.
II. Some cans are packets.
III. Some bottles are booklets.
A. None follows
B. Only I follows
C. Only II follows
D. Only III follows
E. Only II and III follow
2. Statements:
Some ropes are walls.
Some walls are sticks.
All sticks are chairs.
All chairs are tables.
Conclusions:
I. Some tables are walls.
II. Some chairs are ropes.
III. Some sticks are ropes.
A. None follows
B. Only I follows
C. Only II follows
D. Only III follows
E. Only II and III follow
3. Statements:
Some rivers are jungles.
Some jungles are horses.
Some horses are tents.
Some tents are buildings.
Conclusions:
I. Some buildings are horses.
II. Some tents are jungles.
III. Some horses are rivers.
A. None follows
B. Only I follows
C. Only II follows
D. Only III follows
E. Only I and II follow
4. Statements:
Some pens are knives.
All knives are pins.
Some pins are needles.
All needles are chains.
Conclusions:
I. Some chains are pins.

II. Some needles are knives.
III. Some pins are pens.
A. Only I follows
B. Only II follows
C. Only III follows
D. Only II and III follow
E. None of these
5. Statements:
All fields are ponds.
No ponds is tree.
Some trees are huts.
All huts are goats.
Conclusions:
I. Some goats are fields.
II. No goat is field.
III. Some goats are trees.
A. Only I follows
B. Only II follows
C. Only III follows
D. Only either I or II follows
E. Only either I or II and III follow
6. Statements:
Some doctors are treatments.
All treatments are Indians.
Some Indians are stars.
Conclusions:
I. Some treatments are Indians.
II. Some doctors are Indians.
III. Some doctors are stars.
IV. Some doctors are not stars.
A. I, II and III follow

B. I, II and IV follow
C. II and III follow
D. I, II and either III or IV follow
E. None of these
7. Statements:
Some docks are treats.
All treats are Indians.
Some Indians are stars.
Conclusions:
I. Some treats are Indians.
II. Some docks are Indians.
III. Some docks are stars.
IV. Some docks are not stars.

B. I, II and IV follow
C. II and III follow
E. None of these
8. Statements:
Some bunkers are arms.
No gun is a dagger.
All arms are daggers.
Conclusions:
I. No arm is a gun.
II. Some bunkers are not guns.
III. Some daggers are bunkers.
IV. Some daggers ate not bunkers.
A. I and II follow
B. I, II and III follow
C. Either III or IV follow
E. None of these
9. Statements:
All bulbs are radios.
All radios are fans.
No fans are tables.
Conclusions:
I. Some fans are bulbs.
II. No table is a bulb.
III. Some radios are bulbs.
IV. Some tables are radios.

B. II, III and IV follow
C. Only I and II follow
D. Only I and III follow
E. None of these
10. Statements:
Some charts are dart.
All dart are carts.
Some carts are rigid.
Conclusions:
I. Some charts are carts.
II. Some carts are dart.
III. Some dart are rigid.
IV. Some rigid are charts.
A. Only I and III follow
B. Only II and III follow
C. I and II follow
D. I, III and IV follow
E. None of these
DIRECTIONS Q. 11 to Q. 15: In each question, a set of six statements is given, followed by five answer
choices. Each of the answer choices has a combination of three statements from the given set of six
statements. You are required to identify the answer choice in which the third statement is logically follows
the first two in the same order.
11. Statements:
A. All red is green.
B. All red is white.
C. All red is black.
D. All black is white.
E. All green is yellow.
F. All green is white.
A. ABF
B. AEF
C. CDB
D. CBE
E. None of these
12. Statements:
A. All cows are goats.
B. All goats are dogs.
C. No goats are cows.
D. No goats are dogs.
E. All cows are dogs.
F. All dogs are cows.
A. FAB
B. ABE
C. AFB
D. ABF
E. None of these
13. Statements:
A. Singers know English.
B. He does not know English.
C. He is a Singer.
D. He is not a Singer.
E. He knows Hindi.
F. He should know English.
A. ABD
B. AEF
C. DEA
D. ACF
E. None of these
14. A. P is taller than Q.
B. P and Q play golf.
C. R is shorter than Q but taller than S.
D. Golf and cricket are outdoor games.
E. R is the second shortest.
F. All outdoor games require energy.
A. ABC
B. ACE
C. ADF
D. FBD
E. None of these
15. A. Some sharpeners are pencils.

B. Rubbers are sticky.
C. All sharpeners are rubbers.
D. Sharpeners must be sticky.
E. No pen is a rubber.
F. Some sharpeners are rubbers.
A. ACE
B. FCA
C. CBD
D. ABF
E. None of these
DIRECTIONS Q.16 to Q.19: In each of the questions below are given few statements are given followed by
few Conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from
commonly known facts. Read all the Conclusions and then decide which of the given Conclusions logically
follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
16. Statements:
Some wins are trophies.
Some trophies are cups.
No cup is a prize.
Conclusions:
I. At least some cups are wins.
II. All prizes being trophies is a possibility.
A. If only conclusion I is true

B. If only conclusion II is true
C. If either conclusion I or II is true
D. If both conclusions are true
E. If neither conclusion I nor II is true
17. Statements:
Some baskets are caskets.
Some caskets are trunks.
All trunks are fans.
All sweets are fans.
Conclusions:
I. At least some baskets are trunks is a possibility.
II. At least some fans are caskets is a possibility.
III. All fans are baskets is a possibility.
IV. At least some sweets are not caskets is a possibility.
A. Only I and III follow

B. Only II and IV follow
C. Only I, II and III follow
D. All follow
E. None of these
18. Statements:
Some forks are spades.
Some spades are not shovels.
All chisels are shovels.
No potato is a chisel.
Conclusions:
I. Some shovels are not a potatoes is a possibility.
II. At least one chisel is a spade is a possibility.
III. All potatoes are shovels is a possibility.
IV. Some forks are chisels is a possibility.
A. Only III and IV follows

B. Only II and IV follows
C. Only I, II and IV follows
D. All follow
E. None of these
19. Statements:
No bank is a school.
Some schools are colleges.
Conclusions:
I. Some colleges are definitely not schools.
II. All banks being colleges is a possibility.
A. If only conclusion I follows

B. If only conclusion II follows
C. If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
D. If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
E. If both conclusion I and conclusion II follow
DIRECTIONS Q.20 to Q.25: In each group of questions below are few conclusions followed by set of
statements. You have to choose the correct set of statements that logically satisfies given conclusions.
20. Conclusion:
Some Kids are Royal.
No eraser is a kid.
Statement:
I. Some Kids are erasers. All erasers are Royals.
II. No kid is an eraser. No erasers is Royal.
III. Some Royals are erasers. All Kids are erasers.
IV. All Royals are kid. No kid is an eraser.
V. Some Royals are definitely erasers. No Kid is a Royal.
A. Only Statement I follows

B. Only Statement II follows
C. Only Statement III follows
D. Only Statement IV follows
E. Only Statement V follows
21. Conclusions:
Some 50s are 40s
Some 90s are 40s
Statements:
I. Some 70s are 50s. All 50s are 90s. No 90s is 80s. No 40s is 90s
II. All 70 s are 50s. All 50s are 90s. No 90 is 80s. All 40s are 50s
III. Some 70s are 50s. All 50s are 90s. No 90s is 80s. Some 40s are 80s
IV. All 40s are 50s. All 50s are 90s. No 90s is 80s. Some 80s are 70s.
A. Only statement I follows

B. Only statement II follows
C. Both statement II and statement IV follows
D. Only statement IV follows
E. None of them follow
22. Conclusions:
All Donald being Micky is a possibility.
All Tom being Jerry is a possibility.
Statements:
I. All Donald is Jerry. All Jerry is Micky. No Micky is Tom.
II. Some Donald is Jerry. No Jerry is Micky. Some Micky is Tom.
III. Some Donald is Jerry. Some Jerry is Micky. No Micky is Tom.
IV. All Donald is Jerry. No Jerry is Micky. All Micky is Tom.
V. No Jerry is Tom. Some Donald is Tom. No Micky is Donald.

23. Conclusions:
Some Table is plastic.
Some plastic are bench
Statements:
I. All Table are Chair. All Chairs is bench. Some benches are plastic.
II. All Table is Chair. Some Chair is bench. All benches are plastic.
III. No Table is Chair. All Chairs are bench. Some benches are plastic.
IV. Some Table is Chair. All Chairs are bench. No bench is plastic
V. All Table is Chair. All Chairs are bench. All benches are plastic.

24. Conclusions:
Some dates are
day. Some years
are day.
Statements:
I. All day are month. All month are year. Some years are date.
II. Some days are month. All month are year. Some days are date.
III. All day are month. Some month is year. All year are date.
IV. All day are month. All month are date. Some years are date.
V. No year is day. Some day is date. Some date is month.

25. Conclusions:
Some teachers are not student.
Some lessons are classroom.
Statements:
I. Some classroom is not student. All classrooms are teacher. All teachers are lesson.
II. All classrooms are teachers. Some student is not classroom. Some teacher is lesson.
III. All classrooms are student. No student is teacher. No teachers are lesson.
IV. Some classrooms are student. No student is teacher. Some teachers are lesson.
V. All students are classroom. All classrooms are lessons. All lessons are teachers.

Answers
1. (D) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (E) 5. (E) 6. (D) 7. (D) 8. (B) 9. (A)

10. (C) 11. (C) 12. (B) 13. (D) 14. (B) 15. (C) 16. (B) 17. (D) 18. (D)
19. (B) 20. (D) 21. (C) 22. (C) 23. (E) 24. (B) 25. (E)
Deductive and inductive reasoning.

What is Inductive Reasoning?
Inductive reasoning is an approach to logical thinking that involves making generalizations based on
specific details. Inductive reasoning is an important critical thinking skill that many employers look for
in their employees.
Inductive reasoning is an example of an analytical soft skill. Unlike hard skills - which are job-specific
and generally require technical training - soft skills relate to how you interact with people, social
situations, and ideas.
Employers value workers who can think logically as they solve problems and carry out tasks.
For jobs that require inductive reasoning, employers need individuals that can discern patterns and
develop strategies, policies, or proposals based on those tendencies. That makes it a useful skill to
highlight in your job applications and job interviews.
Inductive Reasoning vs. Deductive Reasoning

Inductive reasoning is different from deductive reasoning, where you start with a generalization or
theory, and then test it by applying it to specific incidents. For example, in grade school, our teachers
may have taught the difference to us as "going from big to small" when using deductive reasoning
and "going from small to big" when using inductive reasoning.
Scientists may use deductive reasoning to test a hypothesis in a lab, whereas many law
enforcement, military, or corporate leaders must be able to use inductive reasoning by taking quick
sweep of a situation and making a vital, but time-sensitive decision. Inductive reasoning allows
individuals to accurately “see the signs” of something bigger at play.
Examples of Inductive Reasoning

In practice, inductive reasoning often appears invisible. You might not be aware that you’re taking in
information, recognizing a potential pattern, and then acting on your hypothesis. But, if you’re a good
problem solver, chances are that these examples will feel familiar:
1. A teacher notices that his students learned more when hands-on activities were incorporated
into lessons, and then decides to regularly include a hands-on component in his future
lessons.
2. An architect discerns a pattern of cost overages for plumbing materials in jobs and opts to
increase the estimate for plumbing costs in subsequent proposals.
3. A stockbroker observes that Intuit stock increased in value four years in a row during tax
season and recommends clients buy it in March.
4. A recruiter conducts a study of recent hires who have achieved success and stayed on with
the organization. She finds that they graduated from three local colleges, so she decides to
focus recruiting efforts on those schools.
5. A salesperson presents testimonials of current customers to suggest to prospective clients
that her products are high quality and worth the purchase.
6. A defense attorney reviews the strategy employed by lawyers in similar cases and finds an
approach that has consistently led to acquittals. She then applies this approach to her own
case.
7. A production manager examines cases of injuries on the line and discerns that many injuries
occurred towards the end of long shifts. The manager proposes moving from 10-hour to 8-
hour shifts based on this observation.
8. A bartender becomes aware that customers give her higher tips when she shares personal
information, so she intentionally starts to divulge personal information when it feels
appropriate to do so.
9. An activities leader at an assisted living facility notices that residents light up when young
people visit. She decides to develop a volunteer initiative with a local high school, connecting
students with residents who need cheering up.
10. A market researcher designs a focus group to assess consumer responses to new
packaging for a snack product. She discovers that participants repeatedly gravitate towards
a label stating “15 grams of protein." The researcher recommends increasing the size and
differentiating the color of that wording.
Types of Inductive Reasoning Skills
The following are some of the skills that individuals with strong inductive reasoning abilities have.
Attention to Detail
No one can draw conclusions on details without first noticing them. That’s why paying attention is
crucial to inductive reasoning. If you are trying to develop better inductive reasoning, begin by first
noticing more about the things around you. Be mindful of your five primary senses: the things that
you hear, feel, smell, taste, and see.
 Observation
 Active Listening
 Note-taking
 Critical Thinking
 Asking Questions
 Mindfulness
Recognizing Patterns
Those that have strong inductive reasoning quickly notice patterns. They can see how certain
objects or events lining up in a certain way can result in a common outcome. Teachers working with
students with different personalities and intellectual abilities must practice inductive reasoning when
figuring out which approach best helps each student. Financial analysts use inductive reasoning to
examine data and draw conclusions.
 Data Analysis
 Mathematics
 Observation
 Adaptability
 Language Skills
 Troubleshooting
Making Projections
Closely related to recognizing patterns is then being able to predict (or intuit) what the near future
will hold by taking certain steps now. Leaders must be able to know that certain decisions will lead to
more group cooperation and greater success. Among the most common demands for inductive
reasoning is being able to build financial projections for a startup, insurance
company, investing, accounting firm, or for an executive of a medium-to-large firm.
 Leadership
 Decision Making
 Integration
 Creating Pro Forma Statements
 Risk Management
Memory
Often, you will notice a few details and then recognize them again months or years later. Your
inductive reasoning is often directly connected to your ability to recall past events and the details
leading up to those events. For those that worry that their memory might fail them, they may learn to
take notes (by hand, smartphone, or audio recording device) so that they can reference them later
on.
 Organization
 Curiosity
 Mnemonic Skills
 Research
 Reflection Tactics
Emotional Intelligence (EQ)
Different than raw intellect (known as IQ), emotional intelligence (EQ) is the ability to perceive
emotions motivating social moments that otherwise might be mysterious to those lacking EQ. People
with high levels of EQ are frequently more understanding of others and better able to “get to
the heart” of issues between two or more people.
 Communication Skills
 Collaboration Skills
 Empathy
 Mentoring
 Reading Body Language
Showing Your Inductive Reasoning Skills at an Interview
Job interviews provide an ideal opportunity to show employers that you have inductive reasoning
skills.
Before the interview, review your past roles and identify situations in which you have applied
inductive reasoning. Specifically, think of times when inductive reasoning resulted in positive
outcomes, where you independently applied knowledge learned on the job in order to adapt quickly
to your role.
When highlighting your inductive reasoning during an interview, use the STAR interview response
technique. This is an acronym that stands for:
 Situation
 Task
 Action
 Result
First, describe the situation: Where you were working? What project were you working on?
Then describe the task: What was your responsibility? What problem did you have to solve? What
observations did you make?
Next, explain the action you took: What solution did you implement? How did you translate your
observations into a solution or action?
Finally, explain the result: How did your action help the problem, or help the company more
broadly?. This technique will clearly show the interviewer that you have inductive reasoning skills
that can add value to the company.
Deductive Reasoning-
Deductive reasoning moves from generalities to specific conclusions. Perhaps the biggest stipulation is that the
statements upon which the conclusion is drawn need to be true.
If they're accurate, then the conclusion stands to be sound and accurate. Let's explore some deductive reasoning
examples. See if you would've drawn the same conclusions yourself.
Examples of Deductive Reasoning

Everyday life often tests our powers of deductive reasoning. Did you ever wonder when you'd need what you
learned in algebra class?
Well, if nothing else, those lessons were meant to stretch our powers of deductive reasoning. For example, if a = b
and b = c, then a = c. Let's flesh that out with added examples:
 All dolphins are mammals, all mammals have kidneys; therefore all dolphins have kidneys.
 All numbers ending in 0 or 5 are divisible by 5. The number 35 ends with a 5, so it must be divisible by 5.
 All birds have feathers and all robins are birds. Therefore, robins have feathers.
 It's dangerous to drive on icy streets. The streets are icy now, so it would be dangerous to drive.
 All cats have a keen sense of smell. Fluffy is a cat, so Fluffy has a keen sense of smell.
 Cacti are plants and all plants perform photosynthesis; therefore, cacti perform photosynthesis.
 Red meat has iron in it and beef is red meat. Therefore, beef has iron in it.
 Acute angles are less than 90 degrees. This angle is 40 degrees, so it must be acute.
 All noble gases are stable. Helium is a noble gas, so helium is stable.
 Elephants have cells in their bodies and all cells have DNA. Therefore, elephants have DNA.
 All horses have manes. The Arabian is a horse; therefore, Arabians have manes.
Invalid Deductive Reasoning

Even with two solid premises, sometimes, deductive reasoning goes wrong. Here are a few examples of just that:
 All swans are white. Jane is white. Therefore, Jane is a swan.
 All farmers like burgers. Jethro likes chicken wings. Therefore, Jethro is not a farmer.
 All actors are handsome. Tom Cruise is handsome. Therefore, Tom Cruise is an actor.
In each of these examples, the premises may very well be true but the conclusions make invalid assumptions. Let's
take the Tom Cruise example. Just because Tom Cruise is handsome, does that mean he must be an actor? Who's to
say all electricians or writers aren't pretty too? In these examples, a + b does not necessarily equal c. Rather, "c" is
an overgeneralization.
Deductive Reasoning vs. Inductive Reasoning

Inductive reasoning is akin to deductive reasoning. The main difference is that, with inductive reasoning, the
premises provide some evidence for the validity of the conclusion, but not all.
With deductive reasoning, the conclusion is necessarily true if the premises are true. With inductive reasoning, the
conclusion might be true, and it has some support, but it may nonetheless be false. However, your educated guess
can become a hypothesis you could consider fleshing out through research and an abundance of outside sources.
Let's take a look at a few examples of inductive reasoning. After we examine the inductive reasoning, we'll flip it
and see what it looks like in the form of deductive reasoning.
 Inductive Reasoning: The first lipstick I pulled from my bag is red. The second lipstick I pulled from my bag
is red. Therefore, all the lipsticks in my bag are red.
Deductive Reasoning: The first lipstick I pulled from my bag is red. All lipsticks in my bag are red. Therefore,
the second lipstick I pull from my bag will be red too.
 Inductive Reasoning: My mother is Irish. She has blond hair. Therefore, everyone from Ireland has blond
hair.
Deductive Reasoning: My mother is Irish. Everyone from Ireland has blond hair. Therefore, my mother has
blond hair.
 Inductive Reasoning: Most of our snowstorms come from the north. It's starting to snow. This snowstorm
must be coming from the north.
Deductive Reasoning: All of our snowstorms come from the north. It's starting to snow. Therefore, the storm
is coming from the north.
 Inductive Reasoning: Maximilian is a shelter dog. He is happy. All shelter dogs are happy.
Deductive Reasoning: Maximillian is a shelter dog. All shelter dogs are happy. Therefore, he is happy.
Notice how each example of deductive reasoning is more sound (assuming the first two premises are true)? In each
instance, the inductive reasoning may be true. But, they're lacking enough evidence to be universally true. Further
samplings would be required.
Don't Leave Room for Assumptions

If you proceed with facts and evidence, your deductive or inductive reasoning can quickly turn into an assumption.
And that's what we typically try to avoid in life. A hypothesis, however, is a nice place to start. This is an idea that
can be molded into factuality and follow the lines of deductive reasoning.
That might be a road worth considering if you're ever tasked with writing an argumentative essay. Of course, the
goal is not to get into an argument but, rather, take a position and present evidence in support of your claim. For
more, enjoy these argumentative essay examples.
Difference between Inductive and Deductive reasoning

Reasoning in artificial intelligence has two important forms, Inductive reasoning, and Deductive reasoning. Both
reasoning forms have premises and conclusions, but both reasoning are contradictory to each other. Following is a
list for comparison between inductive and deductive reasoning:
o Deductive reasoning uses available facts, information, or knowledge to deduce a valid conclusion, whereas
inductive reasoning involves making a generalization from specific facts, and observations.
o Deductive reasoning uses a top-down approach, whereas inductive reasoning uses a bottom-up approach.
o Deductive reasoning moves from generalized statement to a valid conclusion, whereas Inductive reasoning
moves from specific observation to a generalization.
o In deductive reasoning, the conclusions are certain, whereas, in Inductive reasoning, the conclusions are
probabilistic.
o Deductive arguments can be valid or invalid, which means if premises are true, the conclusion must be
true, whereas inductive argument can be strong or weak, which means conclusion may be false even if
premises are true.
The differences between inductive and deductive can be explained using the below diagram on the basis of
arguments:
Comparison Chart:
Basis for Deductive Reasoning Inductive Reasoning

comparison
Definition Deductive reasoning is the form of valid Inductive reasoning arrives at a conclusion by the
reasoning, to deduce new information or
conclusion from known related facts and process of generalization using specific facts or data.
information.
Approach Deductive reasoning follows a top-down approach. Inductive reasoning follows a bottom-up approach.
Starts from Deductive reasoning starts from Premises. Inductive reasoning starts from the Conclusion.
Validity In deductive reasoning conclusion must be true if In inductive reasoning, the truth of premises does
the premises are true. not guarantee the truth of conclusions.
Usage Use of deductive reasoning is difficult, as we need Use of inductive reasoning is fast and easy, as we
facts which must be true. need evidence instead of true facts. We often use it
in our daily life.
Process Theory→ hypothesis→ patterns→confirmation. Observations-→patterns→hypothesis→Theory.
Argument In deductive reasoning, arguments may be valid In inductive reasoning, arguments may be weak or
or invalid. strong.
Structure Deductive reasoning reaches from general facts to Inductive reasoning reaches from specific facts to
specific facts. general facts.
Analogies
Analogy Definition
An analogy is a comparison in which an idea or a thing is compared to another thing that is
quite different from it. It aims at explaining that idea or thing by comparing it to something
that is familiar. Metaphors and similes are tools used to draw an analogy. Therefore,
analogy is more extensive and elaborate than either a simile or a metaphor. Consider the
following example:
The structure of an atom is like a solar system. The nucleus is the sun, and electrons are
the planets revolving around their sun.
Here, an atomic structure is compared to a solar system by using the word “like.” Therefore,
it is a simile. Metaphor is used to relate the nucleus to the sun, and the electrons to the
planets, without using the words “like” or “as.” Hence, similes and metaphors are employed
to develop an analogy.
Examples of Analogy in Everyday Life

We commonly use analogy in our everyday conversation. Some common analogy examples
are given below:
 Life is like a race. The one who keeps running wins the race, and the one who stops
to catch a breath loses.
 Just as a sword is the weapon of a warrior, a pen is the weapon of a writer.
 How a doctor diagnoses diseases is like how a detective investigates crimes.
 Just as a caterpillar comes out of its cocoon, so we must come out of our comfort
zone.
 You are as annoying as nails on a chalkboard.
Examples of Analogy in Literature

Example #1: Night Clouds (By Amy Lowell)
The white mares of the moon rush along the sky

Beating their golden hoofs upon the glass Heavens.
Here, the poet constructs an analogy between clouds and mares. She compares the
movement of the white clouds in the sky at night with that of the white mares on the ground.
Example #2: A Hanging (By George Orwell)
The lines below were taken from George Orwell’s narrative essay A Hanging, which exhibits
an analogy between a prisoner and a fish.
They crowded very close about him, with their hands always on him in a careful, caressing
grip, as though all the while feeling him to make sure he was there. It was like men handling
a fish which is still alive and may jump back into the water.
The people are taking a prisoner to the gallows to be hanged. They are holding him firmly,
as if he were a fish which might slip away and escape.
Example #3: The Day Is Done (By Henry Wadsworth Longfellow)
Henry Wadsworth Longfellow uses analogy in the following lines taken from his poem The
Day is Done:
Read from some humbler poet,

Whose songs gushed from his heart,
As showers from the clouds of summer,
Or tears from the eyelids start.
He relates his poems to the summer showers and tears from the eyes. He develops the
similarity to show spontaneity of art when it directly comes out from the heart of an artist.
Example #4: Romeo and Juliet (By William Shakespeare)
These lines are taken from William Shakespeare’s Romeo and Juliet, Act II, Scene 2:
What’s in a name? That which we call a rose

By any other word would smell as sweet.
So Romeo would, were he not Romeo called…
Juliet is indirectly saying that, just like a rose that will always smell sweet by whichever
name it is called, she will love Romeo even if he changes his name.
Example #5: The Flea (By John Donne)
John Donne, in his poem The Flea, uses analogy of a flea to describe his love with his
beloved:
This flea is you and I, and this

Our marriage bed, and marriage temple is…
In the quoted lines, he tells his darling that, as a flea has sucked blood from both of them,
and their blood has mingled in its gut, so the flea has become their “wedding bed.”
Function of Analogy
Writers use analogy to link an unfamiliar or a new idea with common and familiar objects.
This makes it is easier for readers to comprehend a new idea, which may have been difficult
for them to understand otherwise. In addition, by employing this literary tool, writers catch
the attention of their readers. Analogies help increase readers’ interest as analogies help
them relate what they read to their life.
MCQ RELATED TO ANALOGICS –
1. ______ : trail :: grain : grail
a. train
b. path
c. wheat
d. holy
2. particular : fussy ::
______ : subservient
a. meek
b. above
c. cranky
d. uptight
3. ______ : horse ::
board : train
a. stable
b. shoe
c. ride
d. mount
4. tureen : ______ ::
goblet : wine
a. napkin
b. soup
c. spoon
d. pilsner
5. 4 : 6 :: ______ : 16
a. 2
b. 14
c. 8
d. 10
6. son : nuclear ::
______ : extended
a. father
b. mother
c. cousin
d. daughters
7. coif : hair :: ______ : musical
a. shower
b. close
c. praise
d. score
8. feta : Greek ::
provolone : ______
a. salad
b. Swiss
c. blue
d. Italian
9. moccasin : snake ::
______ : shoe
a. alligator
b. waders
c. asp
d. loafer
10. ______ : zenith ::
fear : composure
a. apex
b. heaven
c. heights
d. nadir
11. pill : bore :: core : ______
a. center
b. mug
c. bar
d. placebo
12. pilfer : steal :: ______ : equip
a. return
b. damage
c. exercise
d. furnish
13. native : aboriginal ::
naïve : ______
a. learned
b. arid
c. unsophisticated
d. tribe
14. junket : ______ :: junk : trash
a. trounce
b. trip
c. refuse
d. trinket
15. ______ : festive ::
funeral : somber
a. tension
b. soiree
c. eulogy
d. sari
16. fetish : fixation ::
slight : ______
a. flirt
b. sloth
c. insult
d. confuse
17. hovel : dirty :: hub : ______
a. unseen
b. prideful
c. busy
d. shovel
18. bog : ______ ::
slumber : sleep
a. dream
b. foray
c. marsh
d. night
19. ______ : segue ::
throng : mass
a. subway
b. church
c. transition
d. line
20. ragtime : United States ::
raga : ______
a. cloth
b. country
c. piano
d. India
21. miserly : cheap ::
homogeneous : ______
a. extravagant
b. unkind
c. alike
d. friendly
22. skew : gloomy ::
slant : ______
a. glee
b. foible
c. desperate
d. gloaming
23. eider : ______ :: cedar : tree
a. snow
b. plant
c. duck
d. pine
24. gerrymander : divide ::
filibuster : ______
a. bend
b. punish
c. delay
d. rush
25. vapid : ______ :: rapid : swift
a. inspired
b. turgid
c. wet
d. insipid
26. denim : cotton ::
______ : flax
a. sheep
b. uniform
c. sweater
d. linen
27. obscene : coarse ::
obtuse : ______
a. subject
b. obstinate
c. obscure
d. stupid
28. diamond : baseball ::
court : ______
a. poker
b. jury
c. grass
d. squash
29. quixotic : pragmatic ::
murky : ______
a. rapid
b. cloudy
c. clear
d. friendly
30. smear : libel :: heed : ______
a. represent
b. doubt
c. consider
d. need
31. nymph : ______ ::
seraphim : angel
a. maiden
b. sinner
c. candle
d. priest
32. poetry : rhyme ::
philosophy : ______
a. imagery
b. music
c. bi-law
d. theory
33. jibe : praise ::
______ : enlighten
a. jib
b. delude
c. worship
d. wed
34. marshal : prisoner ::
principal : ______
a. teacher
b. president
c. doctrine
d. student
35. fecund : infertile ::
______ : fleet
a. rapid
b. slow
c. fertilizer
d. damp
Answers
1. a. Train becomes trail when the “n” is replaced by an “l,” and
grain becomes grail when the “n” is replaced by an “l.”
2. a. Particular is a synonym for fussy, and meek is a synonym for
subservient.
3. d. To mount means to get on a horse, and to board means to get
on a train.
4. b. A tureen is used to hold soup, and a goblet is used to hold wine.
5. b. 4 plus 2 is 6, and 14 plus 2 is 16.
6. c. A son is part of a nuclear family, and a cousin is part of an
extended family.
7. d. To coif means to arrange hair, and to score means to arrange a
musical.
8. d. Feta is a Greek cheese, and provolone is an Italian cheese.
9. d. A moccasin is a type of snake, and a loafer is a type of shoe.
10. d. Nadir is the opposite of zenith, and fear is the opposite of
composure.
11. a. A pill is another word for a bore, and a core is another word for
a center.
12. d. To pilfer means to steal, and to furnish means to equip.
13. c. Native is a synonym for aboriginal, and naïve is a synonym for
unsophisticated.
14. b. A junket is a synonym for a trip, and junk is a synonym for
trash.
15. b. A soiree is described as festive, and a funeral is described as
somber.
16. c. A fetish is a synonym for a fixation, and a slight is a synonym for
an insult.
17. c. A hovel is described as dirty, and a hub is described as busy.
18. c. A bog is a synonym for a marsh, and slumber is a synonym for

sleep.
19. c. A transition is a synonym for a segue, and a throng is a
synonym for a mass.
20. d. Ragtime is a type of music from the United States, and raga is a
type of music from India.
21. c. Miserly is another word for cheap, and homogeneous is another
word for alike.
22. c. To skew is a synonym of to slant, and to be gloomy is a
synonym for desperate.
23. c. An eider is a type of duck, and a cedar is a type of tree.
24. c. To gerrymander is a political term meaning to divide land, and
to filibuster is to delay legislature.
25. d. Vapid is another word for insipid, and rapid is another word for
swift.
26. d. Denim is a fabric made from cotton, and linen is a fabric made
from flax.
27. d. Obscene is a synonym for coarse, and obtuse is a synonym for
stupid.
28. d. Baseball is played on a diamond, and squash is played on a
court.
29. c. Quixotic is an antonym for pragmatic, and murky is an antonym
for clear.
30. c. To smear is a synonym of to libel, and to heed is a synonym of
to consider.
31. a. A nymph is a maiden, and a seraphim is an angel.

32. d. Poetry is often comprised of rhyme; philosophy is often built on
theory.
33. b. To jibe is an antonym of to praise, and to delude is an antonym
of to enlighten.
34. d. A marshal is a person in charge of a prisoner, and a principal is a
person in charge of a student.
35. b. Fecund is an antonym for infertile, and slow is an antonym for
fleet.
36. mend : sewing ::
edit : ______
a. darn
b. repair
c. manuscript
d. makeshift
37. abet : ______ :: alone :: lone
a. bet
b. loan
c. wager
d. single
38. 80 : 40 :: 2 : ______
a. 8
b. 4
c. 1
d. 20
39. piercing : ______ ::
hushed : whisper
a. diamond
b. watch
c. siren
d. ears
40. segregate : unify ::
repair : ______
a. approach
b. push
c. damage
d. outwit
41. congeal : solidify ::
______ : char
a. conceal
b. singe
c. evaporate
d. charge
Word Analogy
Practice
42. ______ : marsupial ::
monkey : primate
a. opossum
b. ape
c. honeybee
d. moose
43. principle : doctrine ::
living : ______
a. will
b. dead
c. likelihood
d. livelihood
44. ______ : climb ::
recession : withdrawal
a. ascent
b. absence
c. dollar
d. absorption
45. myopic : farsighted ::
______ : obscure
a. benevolent
b. famous
c. turgid
d. wasted
46. shallot : ______ ::
scallop : mollusk
a. shark
b. muscle
c. dessert
d. onion
47. conjugate : pair ::
partition : ______
a. divide
b. consecrate
c. parade
d. squelch
48. ______ : excerpt ::
exercise : maneuver
a. exception
b. passage
c. routine
d. cause
49. alphabetical : ______ ::
sequential : files
a. sort
b. part
c. list
d. order
50. tacit : implied ::
______ : inferior
a. shoddy
b. taciturn
c. forthright
d. superior
51. implement : rule ::
______ : verdict
a. propose
b. render
c. divide
d. teach
52. vaunt : boast ::
skewer : ______
a. flaunt
b. criticize
c. prepare
d. avoid
53. gambol : ______ ::
gamble : bet
a. skip
b. win
c. bat
d. worship
54. rotation : earth ::
______ : top
a. planet
b. spinning
c. sun
d. expanding
55. gall : vex :: hex : ______

a. fix
b. jinx
c. index
d. vixen
56. monarch : ______ ::
king : cobra
a. queen
b. butterfly
c. royal
d. venom
57. iota : jot :: ______ : type
a. one
b. ilk
c. tab
d. jet
58. ______ : subject :: veer : path
a. object
b. prove
c. math
d. digress
59. pan : ______ :: ban : judge
a. band
b. critic
c. author
d. lawyer
60. ______ : oyster :: paddy : rice
a. aphrodisiac
b. mollusk
c. bed
d. sandwich
61. cicada : ______ ::
collie : canine
a. fruit
b. mineral
c. cat
d. insect
62. huckster : ______ ::
gangster : crime
a. corn
b. trucking
c. policeman
d. advertising
63. ______ : bedrock ::
cement : foundation
a. mica
b. water
c. lava
d. sand
64. dolorous : ______ ::
sonorous : loud
a. woozy
b. weepy
c. dull
d. sleepy
65. lapidary : ______ ::
dramaturge : plays
a. cows
b. gems
c. rabbits
d. movies
66. penurious : ______ ::
deep : significant
a. generous
b. stingy
c. decrepit
d. cavernous
67. somnolent : nap ::
truculent : ______
a. sleepwalker
b. journey
c. war
d. mood
68. nictitate : ______ ::
expectorate : spit
a. wink
b. stomp
c. quit
d. smoke
69. cytology : ______ ::
geology : rocks
a. cyclones
b. psychology
c. pharmacology
d. cells
70. proboscis : ______ ::
abdomen : gut
a. prognosis
b. nose
c. ear
d. nausea
Answer with Explanation –
36. c. One fixes sewing by mending; one fixes manuscript by editing.
37. a. Abet becomes bet when the “a” is removed, and alone becomes
lone when the “a” is removed.
38. c. Half of 80 is 40, and half of 2 is 1.
39. c. A siren is described as piercing, and a whisper is described as
hushed.
40. c. To segregate is an antonym of to unify, and to repair is an
antonym of to damage.
41. b. To congeal means to solidify, and to singe means to char.
42. a. A monkey is an example of a primate, and an opossum is an
example of a marsupial.
43. d. A principle is another word for a doctrine, and a living is
another word for livelihood.
44. a. An ascent is a climb, and a recession is a withdrawal.
45. b. Myopic is an antonym for farsighted, and famous is an
antonym of obscure.
46. d. A shallot is a type of onion, and a scallop is a type of mollusk.
47. a. To conjugate means to pair, and to partition means to divide.
48. b. A passage is another word for an excerpt, and an exercise is
another word for a maneuver.
49. c. Alphabetical describes the ordering of a list, and sequential
describes the ordering of files.
50. a. Tacit is another word for implied, and shoddy is another word
for inferior.
51. b. A rule is implemented, and a verdict is rendered.
52. b. To vaunt means to boast, and to skewer means to criticize.
53. a. To gambol means to skip, and to gamble means to bet.
54. b. Rotation is the movement of the earth and spinning is the
movement of a top.
55. b. To gall is to vex, and to hex is to jinx.
56. b. A monarch is a type of butterfly and a king is a type of cobra.
57. b. Iota and jot are synonyms, as are ilk and type.
58. d. One digresses from a subject, and one veers from a path.
59. b. Pan is something a critic does, and ban is something a judge
does.
60. c. Oysters grow in a bed of the ocean, and rice grows in a paddy.
61. d. A cicada is a type of insect, and a collie is a type of canine.
62. d. A huckster is one who deals in advertising, and a gangster is
one who deals in crime.
63. a. Mica makes up bedrock—on which skyscrapers are built;
cement makes up a foundation—on which houses are built.
64. b. Dolorous is a synonym for weepy, and sonorous is a synonym
for loud.
65. b. A lapidary is one who works with gems, and a dramaturge
works with plays.
66. b. Penurious is a synonym for stingy, and deep is a synonym for
significant.
67. c. Being somnolent can lead to a nap, and being truculent can lead
to war.
68. a. To nictitate means to wink, and to expectorate means to spit.
69. d. Cytology is the study of cells, and geology is the study of rocks.
70. b. Proboscis means nose, and abdomen means gut.
Venn Diagram
Venn Diagrams are a schematic way of representing the elements of a set or a group.
In your exam, you shall definitely encounter such problems. In each Venn Diagram,
we represent sets or groups of objects with the help of circles or ellipses. The
questions asked in the bank exams will either have the Venn Diagrams are given or
you will have to guess the type of Venn diagram that will suit the particular
Venn Diagram
The intersection of these ellipses represents all those elements that are present in
either of the sets. In mathematical language, it represents the intersection of the two
groups. These ellipses are often drawn inside a rectangle. This rectangle is supposed
to be the master set or the universal set. Consider the following diagram:
In the above diagram, we see that there are three groups or sets called ‘A’ ,’B’, and
‘C’. These three sets could represent any given collection of people. For example, say
set A contains all the people that like candy. Set B represents all the people who like
ice cream and set C represents all the people who like chocolate. Then the region
marked as AB represents all the people who like both candy and ice cream.
The region marked BC represents all the people who like both ice cream and
chocolate. Similarly, the region AC represents all the people who like candy and ice
cream.
The region ABC is known as the intersection of the sets. The people in this region
belong to all the groups i.e. they like candy, ice cream as well as chocolate. Now that
we know what Venn diagrams are, let’s solve some examples.
First Kind Of Problems
In these type of problems, Venn Diagram will be given and you will be asked to
answer questions based on the given Venn Diagram. Take care of the boundaries and
do write down the data that is given. For example, consider the following diagram
again:
Let A, B and C represent people who like apples, bananas, and carrots respectively.
The number of people in A = 10, B = 12 and C = 16. Three people are such that they
enjoy apples, bananas as well as carrots. Two of them like apples and bananas. Let
three people like apples and carrots. Also, four people are such that they like bananas
and carrots. Answer the following questions:
Q 1: How many people like apples only?
A) 2 B) 7 C) 4 D) 11
Answer: This means that we have to find the number of people in A – the number of
people in [AB + ABC + AC] only. We know that the number of people in A = 10.
Also, the number of people in AB = 2, AC = 3 and ABC = 3. Therefore, we have:
The number of people who like apples only = 10 – [ 2 + 3 + 3 ] = 2.
Q 2: How many people like only one of the three?
A) 33 B) 3 C) 4 D) 2
Answer: The question here is asking us to find us the number of people in A + B + C

– [AB + AC + BC + ABC] = 10 + 12 + 16 – [2+3+4+3] = 38 – 12 = 26.
Problems of The Second Kind

In these types of questions, the Venn Diagrams are given in the options. The question
will contain analogous words, and you will be asked to represent these in the form of
a Venn Diagram. Let us consider the following examples:
Q 1: Out of the following Venn Diagrams which one represents the relationship
between the following: animals, horses, dogs?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Answer: All dogs are animals. Also, all horse are animals. So if we have two circles
one representing the group of dogs and the other representing the group of horses,
then we can say that these two circles should be inside the greater circle that
represents animals. However, no dog is a horse and no horse is a dog. So the two
circles or ellipses representing the group of dogs and the group of horses will not
intersect. Thus we see that option (A) is the correct option.
Q 2: Consider the following diagram:

How many people like tea and wine? If you check the region of overlap between
the triangle and the rectangle, you will find that in the region shared by the
two figures, we have 17 + 15 people = 32 people. So 32 people are such that who like
both tea and wine. Similarly, you can ask how many people like tea only? As you can
see the answer is 20+10 = 30.
Summary
Solving Venn Diagram questions is easy if you take the help of visual aids. You can
shade or mark different areas that represent different groups or sets. However, the
point to be noted here is that the relationship or the absence of any relationship
between the given quantities should be marked very carefully.
Practice Questions
Q 1: In the Venn Diagram given below, A represents the total number of people in a
town who like cricket = 1300. B represents the total number of people who like
badminton = 500 and C represents the total number of people who like Tennis = 100.
If AB = 9, BC = 12, AC = 13 and ABC = 2, how many people like only one game?
Ans: 1264
Q 2: Out of the following Venn Diagrams which one represents the relationship
between the following: earth, moon, planets?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Ans: (B)
Question Answer (MCQ)
Q.1Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Travelers, Train and Bus ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Bus and Train are different from each other but some travelers travel by bus and some travel by train.
2. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Profit, Dividend and Bonus ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Bonus and Dividend are different from each other. But both these are parts of profit.
3. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Women, Mothers and Engineers ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
All mothers are women and some mothers and some women may be engineers.
4. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Factory, Product and Machinery ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Product and Machinery are different from each other but both are found in Factory.
5. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Author, Lawyer and Singer ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
All the three are different professions.
6. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Judge, Thieves and Criminals ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
All the thieves are criminals while judge is different from these.
7. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between India, Haryana and World ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Haryana is in India and India is in the World.
8. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Pigeon, Bird and Dog ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
All the pigeons are birds while dog is different from these.
9. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Earth, Sea and Sun ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Sea is a part of Earth while Sun is different from these two.
10. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Hockey, Football and Cricket ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
All these three games are different from each other.
11. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Iron, Lead and Nitrogen ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
All these three elements are different from each other
12. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Examination, Questions and Practice ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Some questions are asked in examination and some in practice but examination and practice are different from
each other.
13. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Bulb, Lamp and Light ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Bulb and Lamp are different from each other but light is obtained from both.
14. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Lion, Dog and Snake ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
All the three are different from each other.
15. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Moon, Sun and Earth ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
All the three are different from each other.
16. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Hospital, Nurse and Patient ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Hospital consists of nurse and patient but nurse and patient are of two different nature.
17. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Mercury, Zinc and Metal ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Mercury and Zinc both are different from one another but belong to metal.
18. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Teacher, Writer and Musician ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
A teacher may or may not be a writer and musician. Similarly a musician may or may not be a teacher and writer
and so a writer may or may not be a teacher and musician.
19. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Boys, Girls and Students ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
20. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Tall man, Black haired people and Indians ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
INDIAN LOGIC –
PRAMANA: The Means of Knowledge
1. What is Pramana?
 Pramāṇa is a Sanskrit word which means ‘measure’. The concept of pramanas is very
critical for understanding the laws of Indian Logic and the philosophy of knowledge.
 In Indian philosophy, the word represents all the means through which true and accurate
knowledge about the world can be obtained. A different school of thoughts and philosophies
have a varied number of means through which one can make the sense of the world.
 As per the Vedas philosophy, Pramanas are six in number. Therefore, there is the valid means
of knowledge available to us and we should be careful enough to use various faculties of
mind to arrive at the true knowledge. We will be discussing each one of these in detail here.
2. What are the types of Pramanas?
a. Pratyaksha Pramana (Perception): Pratyaksha means knowledge gained through
perception. Perception takes place with the help of sensory organs.
 It can be direct as well as indirect.
 Direct perception is the cognition of the sense objects by our sense organs alone– smell
(nose), touch (skin), form (eyes), sound (ears) and taste (tongue). Knowledge takes place
when the object of knowledge comes in direct contact with objects of sense. Direct sensory
perception is also referred to as anubhava (meaning experience).
 Indirect perception creates knowledge based on memory (Smriti). Once we have known
what an apple looks like, this gets feed into our memory or stock of knowledge. In later
instances, whenever we see any red-coloured and round shaped fruit, our previous memory
directs us to categorise them as apples.
b. Anumana Pramana (Inference): Knowledge that cannot be gained through sense organs
becomes the object of inference. We infer knowledge of what we don’t see from what we can
see. This is also considered to be the source of valid mediated knowledge. For example, we can
infer fire from the smell of smoke; or we can infer physical or emotional pain when we see the
other person crying, etc.
c. Upamana Pramana (Comparison or Analogy): This kind of knowledge is acquired by the
perception of similarity between two different objects of knowledge.
 It is different from mere perception and inference and is based on a comparison.
 For example, a person who has known that a Monkey animal that Jump on the trees is called
a Monkey in his City. When this person goes to the jungle and sees a similar looking animal
which jump on the trees, he can say that ‘this wild Monkey is like the Monkey in my city’ or
‘the Monkey in my City is like this wild Monkey’.
 Such knowledge is possible when there is a prior familiarity with a particular thing which lets
the person compare both the things based on the known familiarity.
d. Arthapatti Pramana (Assumption or Implication): Knowledge gained through seeing the
relation between cause and effect are Arthapatti pramana.
 It includes postulation, supposition, and presumption.
 This form of knowledge is either gained from what we have seen or heard, and are assuming
rightly.
 For example, a healthy person says that he doesn’t Walk at night. From this proposition, we
can postulate that this person Walk during the day. Without this assumption, it is not possible
to explain why this person is not walk during Night. Assumption and implication are very
useful concepts to make logical arguments about the world.
e. Anupalabdhi Pramana (Apprehension and Non- Apprehension): This is based on the
apprehension of a non-existent thing based on non-perception. This means that perception, as
well as non-perception, can be the source of valid knowledge. For example, there is no student
in the class; there is no water in the glass. Because we cannot perceive student in the class at the
moment, we can conclude that there is no student in the class.
f. Shabda Pramana (Word or Verbal Testimony): This is gained through verbal testimony. A
lot of knowledge that we gain about the world is through verbal testimony, texts, symbols, or
words. It is either uttered or written.
 A verbal testimony must have a valid source for its object of knowledge to be true. In ancient
times, Vedas were considered to be the most authentic source of knowledge by most of the
Indian philosophers. Some western philosophers totally rejected this idea and called for
context-based knowledge. This also opened the debate that there can be various sources of
knowing objects and its validity and reliability depends on the source as well as the context.
 In modern days, we rely on newspapers, books, journals, TV news etc. to form our object of
knowledge or opinion.
MCQ OF INDIAN LOGIC –

01. “Education is the process of natural development of the child into an enjoyable, rational,
harmoniously balanced, useful and hence, natural life”. Which school of philosophy of education
believes that?’
(a) Realism
(b) Existentialism
(c) Naturalism
(d) Idealism.
02. Evaluate the viewpoint “The child knows better than any educator what he should learn, when
and how he should learn it”?
(a) Hundred percent correct
(b) Correct, but not practical
(c) Correct and practical both
(d) Practical, but not correct.
ADVERTISEMENTS:
03. While, according to Samkhya, Philosophy effect is the real modification of cause, according to
Samkara, it is
(a) Real.
(b) Unreal.
(c) Indescribable.
(d) None of these.
04. The theory of causation advanced by Samkara has been proved by

(a) Experience.
(b) Logic,
(c) Scriptures.
(d) All of these.
05. The relation between the Jiva and Brahman, according to Samkara, can be explained as
(a) Identity.
(b) Reflection.
(c) Emanation.
(d) Evolution.
06. According to the theory known as Avacchedavada, causation means

(a) Destruction.
(b) Annihilation,
(c) Reflection.
(d) None of these
07. Ramanuja’s theory of causation is known as

(a) Vivartavada.
(b) Prakrti Parinamavada.
(c) Brahman Parinamavada.
(d) Asatkarayavada.
08 The indirect proofs for the existence of self, according to the Jain philosophers, are
(a) Soul is mover.
(b) co-ordinator.
(c) Efficient cause,
(d) All of these.
09. The Jains have refused the Charvaka view of self on the basis of
(a) No evidence.
(b) Against causation.
(c) Illogical.
(d) All of these.
10. Buddha’s theory of self is known as

(a) Theory of no-soul.
(b) Immutable self.
(c) Eternal self.
(d) None of these.
11. Buddha’s theory of self is similar to the theory propounded in the West by
(a) William James.
(b) David Hume,
(c) Bertrand Russel.
(d) All of these.
12. The existence of soul in Indian philosophy has not been accepted by the schools known as
(a) The Charvakas.
(b) The Buddhists,
(c) Both.
(d) None of these.
13. Man, according to Charvaka philosophy, is

(a) The physical body.
(b) The self.

(c) The consciousness.
(d) None of these.
14. Happiness and sorrow and other mental activities, according to Charvaka, are the attributes of
(a) Body.
(b) Self.
(c) Consciousness,
(d) None of these.
15. Charvaka philosophers have been classified into

(a) Dhurta.
(b) Susikshit.
(c) Both.
(d) None of these.
16. The sage Vatsyayan belongs to the Charvaka School of

(a) Dhurta.
(b) Susikshit.
(c) Both.
(d) None of these.
17. Rebirth, according to Buddha, is connected with self as

(a) Relevant.
(b) Irrelevant,
(c) fundamental.
(d) None of these.

18. Buddha’s attitude towards self can be said to be
(a) Dogmatic.
(b) sceptic,
(c) Indifferent.
(d) Agnostic.
19. Man, according to Buddha, can be said to be

(a) sanghat.
(b) Self.
(c) Body.
(d) None of these.
20. The self, according to Samkhya theory is

(a) Body.
(b) Mind.
(c) Intellect.
(d) All of these.
21. The self, according to Samkhya is different from

(a) Body.
(b) Mind,
(c) Intellect.
(d) All of these
22. The Samkhya theory of self, is based upon

(a) The Vedas.
(b) The Bhagwadgita.
(c) The Puranas.
(d) None of these.
23. The chief characteristics of the self according to Samkhya philosophy, is

(a) Pure consciousness.
(b) Rebirth.
(c) Eternity.
(d) None of these.
24. In evolution self aims at

(a) Enjoyment.
(b) Liberation,
(c) Both.
(d) None of these.
25. The chief arguments to prove the existence of self advance by Samkhya philosophies are
(a) Structure of things.
(b) The Gunas.
(c) Substratum of knowledge.
(d) All of these.
26. The self is proved on the basis of the psychological tendencies of

(a) Enjoyment
(b) Knowledge,
(c) Salvation
(d) All of these
27. The plurality theory of self in Indian philosophy has been accepted by
(a) The Jainas.
(b) The Samkhya.
(c) The Mimamsa.
(d) All of these
28. The unitary theory of self in Indian philosophy has been supported by
(a) advaita Vedanta.
(b) The Jainas.
(c) The Mimamsa.
(d) The Samkhya.
29. Samkhya theory of self has been criticised on the basis of

(a) Confusion between Jiva and Atman.
(b) Proofs for practical self only.
(c) Illogical.
(d) All of these.
30. The most important theory of self in Indian philosophy has been advanced by
(a) Advaita Vedanta.
(b) Jainas.
(c) Buddhists.
(d) Samkhya.
31. Self, according to Samkara, is

(a) Brahman.
(b) Eternal,
(c) transcedent
(d) All of these.
32. The most important characteristic of self, according to Samkara is

(a) Metaphysical.
(b) Epistemological.
(c) Axiological.
(d) All of these
33. The fundamental basis of Samkara’s theory of self is

(a) Dualism.
(b) Non-dualism.
(c) Qualified monism.
(d) Pluralism.
34. Samkara’s theory of self is based upon

(a) Metaphysics.
(b) Epistemology.
(c) Logic.
(d) All of these.
35. Causation in Indian philosophy has been explained by

(a) satkaryavada.
(b) Asatkaryavada.
(c) parinamavada.
(d) All of these.
36. The theory, that the effect is the real result of the cause, is known as
(a) satkaryavada.
(b) asatkaryavada.
(c) parinamavada.
(d) vivartavada.
37. The theory, that the effect is only the apparent of the cause, is known as
(a) Satkaryavada.
(b) Asatkaryavada.
(c) Parinamavada.
(d) Vivartavada.
38. The theory that the effect is already implicit in the cause, is known as
(a) Satkaryavada.
(b) asatkaryavada.
(c) Parinamavada.
(d) Vivartavada.
39. The Theory that the effect is not implicit but super-imposed upon cause, is known as
(a) satkaryavada.
(b) asatkaryavada.
(c) parinamavada.
(d) vivartavada.
40. Ramanuja’s theory of causation is known as
(a) Brahman Parinamavada.
(b) Prakrti Parinamavada.
(c) Both of them.
(d) None of these.
41. The theory of causation known as Parinamavada in Indian philosophy has been supported by
(a) Samkhya.
(b)Ramanuja.
(c) Both of them.
(d) None of these.
42. The cause, according to Indian philosophy, can be classified as

(a) Material cause.
(b) Immediate cause.
(c) Efficient cause.
(d) All of these.
43. The material and the efficient cause, according to Samkhya philosophy, are related as
(a) Identical.
(b) Contradictory,
(c) Different.
(d) None of these.
44. The Mimamsa theory of causation is known as

(a) Theory of energy.
(b) vivartavada.
(c) parinamavada.
(d) None of these
45. The world, according to Samkara, is the result of

(a) Real causation.
(b) Super-imposition.
(c) Evolution.
(d) None of these.
46. The theory known as Satkaryavada includes

(a) Parinamavada.
(b) Vivartavada.
(c) Both of them
(d) None of these.
47. The causal relation, according to Samkara is

(a) Real change.
(b) Unreal change,
(c) Both of them.
(d) None of these
48. The reflection of Brahman as according to Samkara, is due to

(a) Avidya.
(b) Adhyasa.
(c) Vyavahara.
(d) All of these.
49. According to Pranvadin Charvakas the nature of self is

(a) Body.
(b) Sense organs,
(c) Vital principle.
(d) Mind.
50. According to Atma Manovadin, Charvakas self is

(a) Body.
(b) Sense organs,
(c) Vital principle.
(d) Mind.
51. The Charvakas deny the existence of

(a) Self.
(b) Merit and demerit.
(c) Heaven and hell.
(d) All of these.
52. The Charvaka theory of self can be termed as

(a) Materialist.
(b) vitalist.
(c) Mentalist.
(d) All of these.
53. The false knowledge, according to Samkara, is known as

(a) vidya.
(b) avidya.
(c) adhyasa.
(d) May a.
54. The cause of the power of Maya, according to Samkara, is

(a) vidya.
(b) aidya.
(c) adhyasa.
(d) None of these.
55. The cause of bondage of the Jiva in the world, according to Samkara, is
(a) vidya.
(b) avidya.
(c) adhyasa.
(d) May a.
56. The nature of Avidya, according to Samkara, can be described as

(a) eternal.
(b) Natural.
(c) Both of them.
(d) Neither of these.
57. The aim of the study of Vedanta scriptures is:

(a) Liberation from Avidya.
(b) Achievement of self.

(c) brahman realisation.
(d) All of these.
58. Knowledge according to Mimamsa philosophy, is

(a) real.
(b) Unreal.
(c) Both of them.
(d) None of these.
59. The nature of world as illusion has been accepted in Indian philosophy by
(a) advaita Vedanta.
(b) mimamsa.
(c) vishishitadvaita.
(d) All of these.
60. The relationship of the ultimate reality with the world in Indian philosophy has been explained
by the theory of
(a) Reality.
(b) Error.
(c) Falsehood.
(d) All of these.
61. The only valid Pramana according to Charvaka is

(a) Perception.
(b) Scriptures,
(c) Inference.
(d) None of these.
62. According to materialism, the only valid pramana is

(a) Perception.
(b) Scriptures,
(c) Inference.
(d) None of these.
63. Perception coming through the contact of external senses with objects according to Charvaka
is known as
(a) external.
(b) Internal.
(c) Both of them.
(d) None of these.
64. The nature of perception according to Charvaka can be said to be

(a) Authentic.
(b) Inauthentic.
(c) Both of them.
(d) None of these.
65. The Charvakas have challenged the validity of

(a) Inference.
(b) Scriptures,
(c) Both of them.
(d) None of these.

66. The validity of scriptures has been challenged by the Charvakas in the field of
(a) Perceptible things.
(b) Imperceptible things.
(c) Both of them.
(d) None of these.
67. Charvakas have rejected the validity of scriptures on the basis of

(a) Absence of physical proof.
(b) Criticism of inference.
(c) Contradictions and tautologies.
(d) All of these.
68. Charvaka criticism of scriptures has been challenged by

(a) Nyaya
(b) Advaita Vedanta
(c) Samkhya
(d) All of these.
69. The philosophers who have condemned Charvaka, challenge to Vedas include
(a) Udayana.
(b) Vainkathnath.
(c) Samkara.
(d) All of these.
70. The arguments presented in favour of the Vedas include

(a) Authenticity of the authors.
(b) Character of the authors.
(c) Purpose to the authors.
(d) All of these.
71. The most important element in the Jain theory of Pramanas is

(a) Perception.
(b) Naya.
(c) Scriptures.
(d) Inference.
72. Knowledge according to Jain philosophers can be called

(a) Pramana
(b) Naya
(c) Both of them
(d) None of these.
73. The theory of Naya is based upon

(a) Anekantvada.
(b) Ekantvada.
(c) Both of them.
(d) None of these.
74. Pramanas, according to Jaina’s include

(a) Direct.
(b) Indirect.
(c) Both of them.

(d) None of these.
75. The knowledge of the qualities of the Paksha through the Hetu is known as
(a) Paramarsa.
(b) Anuman.
(c) Vyapti.
(d) None of these.
76. The invariable relation between the Hetu and the Saddaya in Nyaya Philosophy is known as
(a) Paramarsa.
(b) Anuman.
(c) Vyapti.
(d) None of these.
77. Vyapti can be properly defined as

(a) Invariable concomitant.
(b) Causal relation.
(c) Sequence.
(d) None of these.
78. The knowledge of the relation between a name and the thing named in Nyaya is known as
(a) Perception.
(b) Inference,
(c) Comparison.
(d) Testimony.
79. The knowledge gained through the testimony of the reliable statement of scripture is known as
(a) Perception.
(b) Inference,
(c) Comparison.
(d) Testimony.
80. Words according to Nyaya can be classified as

(a) Drastartha.
(b) Adrastartha.
(c) Both of them.
(d) None of these.
81. The basis of the classification of scriptural words according to Nyaya can be
(a) Meaning of words.
(b) Origin of words.
(c) Both of them.
(d) Neither of these.
82. The words which are given to the seers through the God himself are known as
(a) Vedic.
(b) Laukika.
(c) Both of them.
(d) None of these.
83. Words created by ordinary human beings are known as

(a) Vedic.
(b) Laukika.
(c) Both of them.
(d) None of these.
84. The nature of Vedic words can be described as

(a) True.
(b) False.
(c) Both of them.
(d) None of these.
85. Prama literally means the experience which is

(a) real.
(b) Unreal.
(c) doubtful.
(d) None of these.
86. Valid knowledge according to Mimamsa includes

(a) Perceptual.
(b) Non-perceptual,
(c) Both of them.
(d) None of these.
87. The perceptual knowledge, according to Mimamsa, can be classified as

(a) Savikalpa.
(b) Nirvikalpa.
(c) Both of them.
(d) None of these.

88. The immediate knowledge according to Mimamsa is known as
(a) Perceptual.
(b) Non-perceptual,
(c) Both of them.
(d) None of these.
89. Knowledge of name, shape, quality etc is known as

(a) Savikalpa.
(b) Nirvikalpa.
(c) Both of them.
(d) None of these.
90. Knowledge arising out of similar cognition or perception is known as

(a) Inference.
(b) Comparison,
(c) Testimony.
(d) Perception.
91. The Pramana of Upmana in Indian philosophy has been accepted by

(a) Nyaya.
(b) Mimamsa.
(c) Vedanta.
(d) All of these.
92. The most important source of knowledge according to Mimamsa is

(a) Perception.
(b) Inference,
(c) Comparison.
(d) Testimony.
93. The Vedic statements, according to Mimamsa, can be classified as

(a) Siddhartha.
(b) Vidhayaka.
(c) Both of them.
(d) None of these.
94. Sentences pertaining to objective existence are known as

(a) Siddhartha.
(b) Vidhayaka.
(c) Both of them.
(d) None of these.
95. Statements concerning the Mode of Performance of religious activity are known as
(a) Siddhartha.
(b) Vidhayaka.
(c) Both of them.
(d) None of these.
96. “Achieve heaven through charity for a whole month,” is a statement which can be classified as
(a) Upadesaka.
(b) Atidesa.
(c) Both of them.

(d) None of these.
97. The postulation of a fact by the impossibility of its opposite is known as

(a) Arthapatti.
(b) Anupalabdhi.
(c) Inference.
(d) Testimony.
98. The immediate knowledge of the nonexistence of an object is known as

(a) Arthapatti.
(b) Anupalabdhi.
(c) Inference.
(d) Testimony.
99. Prama, according to Vedanta, is the knowledge which is

(a) Uncontradictory.
(b) Contradictory.
(c) Worldly.
(d) Other worldly.
100. Pramanas, according to Vedanta, can be classified as

(a) Perception.
(b) Inference,
(c) Scriptures.
(d) All of these.

Answers
01. (c) 02. (b) 03. (b) 04. (d) 05. (b) 06. (b) 07. (c) 08. (d) 09. (a) 10. (a) 11. (a) 12.(c) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15.(c)
16. (b)117.(c) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (d) 21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24.(c) 25. (d) 26. (d) 27. (d) 28. (a) 29. (a) 30.
(d) 31. (a) 32. (d) 33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (d) 36.(c) 37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (a) 41. (c) 42. (d) 43. (c) 44. (a) 45.
(b) 46. (b) 47. (b) 48. (d) 49. (c) 50. (d) 51. (d) 52. (c) 53. (b) 54. (b) 55. (b) 56.(c) 57(d) 58. (c) 59. (d) 60.
(b) 61. (a) 62. (a) 63. (c) 64.(c) 65. (c) 66. (b) 67. (d) 68. (d) 69. (d) 70. (d) 71. (b) 72. (c) 73. (a) 74.(c) 75.
(a) 76. (b) 77. (d) 78. (c) 79. (d) 80.(c) 81. (c) 82. (a) 83. (b) 84. (a) 85. (a) 86.(c) 87. (c) 88. (a) 89. (a) 90.
(b) 91. (d) 92. (d) 93.(c) 94. (a) 95. (b) 96. (b) 97. (a) 98. (b) 99. (a) 100. (d)
PART – 2
101. The identity of the subject and object consciousness adopting the form of external object is
known as
(a) Perception.
ADVERTISEMENTS:
(b) Inference,
(c) Scriptures.
(d) All of these.
ADVERTISEMENTS:
102. The relation of subject and object in perception, according to Vedanta, is

(a) Identical.
(b) Different,
(c) Contradictory.
ADVERTISEMENTS:
(d) None of these.

103. The knowledge which results by the past impressions based upon the awareness of
concomitance is known as
(a) Perception.
(b) Inference,
(c) Scriptures.
(d) All of these.
104. The most important pramana, according to Advaita Vedanta, is

(a) Perception.
(b) Inference,
(c) Scriptures.
(d) All of these.
105. While Nyaya admits as many as five stages in the process of inference, Samkara has
admitted
(a) Three.
(b) Seven.
(c) Two.
(d) None of these.
106. The best theory of Pramanas in Indian philosophy has been presented by
(a) Nyaya.
(b) Samkhya.
(c) Advaita Vedanta.
(d) None of these.
107. The most, important source of knowledge, according to Indian philosophy is

(a) Scriptures.
(b) Inference,
(c) Perception.
(d) All of these.
108. The imposition of some external objects upon the self, according to Samkara, means
(a) Atmakhyativada.
(b) Anyathakhyativada.
(c) Akyativada.
(d) Asatkhyativada.
109. The theory of error known as Atmakhyativada in Indian philosophy has been presented by
(a) Advaita vedanta.
(b) Samkhya.
(c) Nyaya.
(d) Mimamsa.
110. The theory of imposition of a mental concept upon the external world is known as
(a) Atmakhyativada.
(b) Akhathakhyativada.
(c) Mmyativada.
(d) Asatkhyativada.
111. The imposition of an object upon another due to illusion is known as

(a) Atmakhyativada.
(c) Akhyativada.
(d) Asatkhyativada.
112. The imagination of quality in a thing which has been the subject of imposition of the object
having that quality leads to the error known as
(a) Atmakhyativada.
(c) Akhyativada.
(d) Asatkhyativada.
113. The imposition of some quality in a thing where it is not, is known as

(a) Avidya.
(b) Adhyasa.
(c) Akhyati.
(d) None of these.
114. The proper cause of adhyasa, according to Samkara, is

(a) Avidya.
(b) Maya.
(c) Vyavahara.
(d) All of these.
115. The world, according to Samkara, is

(a) Real.
(b) Unreal.
(c) Illusory.
(d) None of these.
116. In Indian philosophy the theory of error has been mostly utilised in the field of
(a) Metaphysics.
(b) Epistemology.
(c) Axiology.
(d) All of these.
117. Samkara has utilised the Adhyasa to explain

(a) Nature of Brahman.
(b) Nature of self.
(c) Nature of world.
(d) Nature of liberation.
118. The proper nature of Adhyasa can be explained as

(a) Knowledge.
(b) Ignorance,
(c) Both of them.
(d) None of these.
119. The right knowledge, according to Samkara, is known as

(a) Vidya.
(b) Avidya.
(c) Adhyasa.
(d) Maya.
120. The knowledge known as Pramana is gained by

(a) Soul.
(b) Jiva.
(c) Sense organs.
(d) None of these.
121. The knowledge which the Jiva attains without any help is known as
(a) pratyaksha
(b) Paroksha
(c) Both of them.
(d) None of these.
122. The knowledge of a thing by means of Hetu, according to Jain’s is known as

(a) Pratyaksha.
(b) Paroksha.
(c) Both of them.
(d) None of these.
123. Knowledge according to Nyaya, can be properly described as

(a) Prama
(b) Aprarna
(c) Both of them.
(d) None of these.
124. Uncontradicted knowledge arising out of the sense object contact is known as
(a) Perception.
(b) Inference,
(c) Comparison.
(d) Testimony.
125. The most important source of knowledge according to Nyaya philosophy is

(a) Perception.
(b) Inference,
(c) Comparison.
(d) Testimony.
126. Anuma knowledge according to Nyaya is

(a) Perception.
(b) Inference.
(c) Comparison.
(d) Testimony.
127. The proper means of anumana according to Nyaya is

(a) Perception.
(b) Hetu.
(c) Sadhya.
(d) Paksha.
128. Liberation, as becoming a part of God, according to Ramanuja is known as

(a) Salokya.
(b) Samipya.
(c) Sanidhya.
(d) Sayujya.
129. Liberation, as nearness to Ishwara according to Ramanuja is known as
(a) Salokya.
(b) Samipya.
(c) Sanidhya.
(d) Sayujya.
130. The important means for achievement or liberation, according to Samkara, is

(a) Distinction of self and not-self.
(b) Concentration on Om.
(c) Religious practices.
(d) All of these.
131. The main theories concerning the intrinsic values are

(a) Axiological subjectivists.
(b) Objective theory.
(c) Both of them.
(d) None of these.
132. The extrinsic values mainly include

(a) Wealth.
(b) Things.
(c) Property.
(d) All of these.
133. Health can be classified as having the value of

(a) Extrinsic.
(b) Intrinsic.
(c) Instrumental.
(d) None of these.
134. Beauty can be classified as having the value of

(a) Instrumental.
(b) Ultimate.
(c) Extrinsic.
(d) None of these.
135. Value can be properly defined as

(a) Something important.
(b) Object of effort.
(c) Aim of life.
(d) All of these.
136. Value is accompanied with

(a) Beliefs.
(b) Convictions,
(c) Sacrifices.
(d) All of these.
1237. Value has been closely linked with interest. This statement has been given by
(a) J.B.Perry.
(b) J.S.Mackenzie,
(c) J.S. Mill.

(d) W. M. Urban.
138. According to psychologists, value is primarily concerned with:

(a) Needs.
(b) Sentiments,
(c) Drives.
(d) All of these.
139. According to ethicists, values are concerned with

(a) Morals.
(b) Reasons,
(c) Purposes.
(d) All of these.
140. Axiological judgement shows the characteristics of

(a) Inevitable.
(b) Obligatory.
(c) Based upon judgment.
(d) All of these.
141. The materialists define value as

(a) Material.
(b) Mental.
(c) Spiritual.
(d) None of these.
142. The spiritualists define value as

(a) Material.
(b) Mental.
(c) Spiritual.
(d) None of these.
143. Values have been classified as

(a) Intrinsic.
(b) Extrinsic,
(c) Both of them.
(d) None of these.
144. Goodwill, according to Immanual Kant, is

(a) Extrinsic value.
(b) Intrinsic value.
(c) Instrumental value.
(d) None of these.
145. The ultimate good includes

(a) Extrinsic value.
(b) Intrinsic value.
(c) Instrumental value.
(d) None of these.
146. The ultimate human values are of the nature of

(a) Physical.
(b) Intellectual,
(c) Spiritual.
(d) None of these.
147. Values can be classified as

(a) Permanent.
(b) Temporary,
(c) Both of them
(d) None of these.
148. The theory of liberation has been rejected in Indian philosophy by the school known as
(a) The Charvaka.
(b) The Jaina.
(c) The Buddhists,
(d) The Vedanta.
149. Liberation, according to Charvaka, can be said to be

(a) Possible.
(b) Impossible,
(c) Foolish.
(d) None of these.
150. Liberation, according to Jaina philosophy, is

(a) Freedom of matter.
(b) Freedom from life and death.
(c) Freedom from Karma.
(d) All of these.

151. Liberation, according to Jaina philosophy can be classified as
(a) Bhava moksha.
(b) Dravya moksha.
(c) Both of them.
(d) None of these.
152. The state of Jivan mukti is included in

(a) Bhava moksha.
(b) Dravya moksha.
(c) Both of them.
(d) None of these.
153. Liberation, according to Jaina, can be achieved by

(a) Penance.
(b) Self-control,
(c) Detachment.
(d) All of these.
154. Liberation, according to Buddha, means

(a) Extinction.
(b) Freedom.
(c) Detachment.
(d) None of these.
155. Liberation in Buddhist philosophy is known as

(a) Nirvana.
(b) Moksha.
(c) Mukti.
(d) None of these.
156. The most important means for achieving Nirvana, according to Buddha, is
(a) Eight-fold path,
(b) Penance,
(c) Detachment.
(d) Mortification.
157. Nirvana in Buddhist texts has been described as

(a) State of peace.
(b) Eternal health,
(c) Perfect freedom,
(d) All of these.
158. Nirvana cannot be described as

(a) Eternalism.
(b) Nihilism.
(c) Both
(d) None of these.
159. The famous preaching of Nirvana to king Milinda were given by

(a) Gautam Buddha.
(b) Nagarjuna.
(c) Nagasena.
(d) None of these
160. The important forms of Nirvana include

(a) Sopadhi sesa.
(b) Nirupadhi sesa
(c) Both of them.
(d) None of these.
161. The world as suffering has been postulated by

(a) Buddhism.
(b) Samkhya.
(c) Jainas.
(d) All of these.
162. The cause of suffering, according to Samkhya, philosophy is

(a) Ignorance.
(b) Attachment,
(c) Fear.
(d) None of these.
163. Liberation, according to Samkhya, can be attained by:

(a) Knowledge.
(b) Penance,
(c) Enjoyment.
(d) None of these.
164. The self in Samkhya philosophy is known as

(a) Jiva.
(b) Purusa.
(c) Atman.
(d) None of these.
165. The chief characteristics of purusa in Samkhya philosophy is

(a) Transcendent.
(b) Ever liberated,
(c) Non-attached.
(d) All of these.
166. The liberation by living, according to Samkhya philosophy, can be termed as

(a) Jivanmukti.
(b) Videhamukti.
(c) Both of them.
(d) None of these.
167. Liberation after death, according to Samkhya philosophy, can be termed as

(a) jivanmukti.
(b) videhamukti.
(c) Both of them.
(d) None of these.
168. The final state of liberation, according to Samkhya philosophy, is

(a) Jivanmukti.
(b) Videhamukti.
(c) Both of them.
(d) None of these.
169. Liberation and bondage, according to Samkhya philosophy, are of the nature of
(a) Ultimate reality,
(b) Practical reality,
(c) Like dream.
(d) None of these.
170. The main objection against Samkhya concept of liberation is based upon
(a) The Purusa as agent.
(b) No happiness in liberation.
(c) Fallacies of evolution.
(d) All of these.
171. The best theory of liberation in Indian philosophy has been advanced by
(a) The Jainas.
(b) The Buddhists.
(c) The Samkhya.
(d) Advaita Vedanta.
172. According to Advaita Vedanta, the nature of liberation can be explained as

(a) Brahman.
(b) Atman.
(c) Transcedental reality.
(d) All of these.

173. Advaita Vedanta theory of liberation is based upon
(a) The Vedas.
(b) The Upanishads.
(c) Bhagwadgita.
(d) Brahmasutra.
174. The liberation in Advaita Vedanta is known as:

(a) Nirvana.
(b) Apavargh.
(c) Moksha.
(d) None of these.
175. To contribute to India’s national integration education should

(a) Make children familiar with all aspects of national life.
(b) Reach each and every child of the country.
(c) Be free and compulsory.
(d) Be of high quality.
176. Indian education can promote national consciousness by

(a) Breaking down regional and linguistic barriers.
(b) Establishing more and more all India institutions which will admit students from different parts of the
country.
(c) Understanding and re-evaluating of India’s cultural heritage.
(d) All of these.
177. Who was the founder of Shanti Niketan ?

(a) Tagore
(b) Vivekananda
(c) Gandhi
(d) Sri Aurobindo.
178. under whose leadership is founded the University at Pondicherry?

(a) Tagore
(b) Vivekananda
(c) Gandhi
(d) Sri Aurobindo.
179. On whose philosophy is based the current primary education in India?

(a) Tagore
(b) Vivekananda
(c) Gandhi
(d) Sri Aurobindo.
180. Material and spiritual knowledge is already present in man covered by a ‘curtain of
ignorance-who said this?
(a) Tagore
(b) Vivekananda
(c) Gandhi
(d) Plato.
181. Vivekananda included study of religion, philosophy, Upnishadas and Puranas” to achieve
(a) Spiritual development of the child.
(b) Development of intellect of the child.

(c) Propagation of Indian culture.
(d) Complete development of child’s personality.
182. Which of the following was not suggested as a method of education by Vivekananda?
(a) Lecture-cum-discussion
(b) Yoga
(c) Meditation
(d) Guided readings.
183. Vivekananda’s philosophy of life was derived from

(a) Buddhistic philosophy.
(b) Vedanta philosophy.
(c) Sarakhya philosophy.
(d) Plato’s Idealism.
184. Which of the following types represents M.K. Gandhi’s contribution to education?
(a) Integral education
(b) Basic Education
(c) Education for man making
(d) Education for international understanding.
185. Which of the following types represents Vivekananda’s contribution to education?

(a) Integral education
(b) Basic education
(d) Education for International understanding.

186. Which of the following types represents Aurobindo’s contribution to education?
(a) Integral Education
(b) Basic education
(d) Education for international understanding.
187. As an educationist, Gandhiji was

(a) A naturalist
(b) An Idealist
(c) Naturalist, an Idealist and a Pragmatist all together
(d) A Pragmatist.
188. The ultimate aim of education, according to Gandhiji, was to help the individuals to be
(a) Gainfully employed in life.
(b) Peaceful and happy in life.
(c) Able to acquire as much as possible from the ocean of knowledge.
(d) Able-to grow into a divine human being by realizing Godliness.
189. What did Gandhiji’s philosophy of education stress as aim of education?

(a) Social aims
(b) Individual aims
(c) Cultural aims
(d) A synthesis of individual and social aims.
190. Rabindra Nath Tagore was a Naturalist because he said about children that
(a) They should be made to develop into complete human being.
(b) They should be given full freedom to live in natural environment and learn by doing.
(c) They should be acquainted with the ideals and values of national culture.
(d) They should be educated for national integration.
191. Tagore was an Idealist because he emphasized

(a) Religious education in a formal manner.
(b) Moral and spiritual development of the child.
(c) Vocational education.
(d) Rigid control and discipline in schools.
192. In Democracy educational pattern is planned after the interests of the many because
(a) Democracy is the government of the many, by the many and for the many.
(b) There are always too many illiterates in a democracy.
(c) The ultimate authority determining educational policy in democracy is imminent in man.
(d) Democracy has tremendous faith in her men and their powers.
193. Aims of education are determined by human being for the good of the
(a) Individual.
(b) Society.
(c) The individual and the society both.
(d) Neither the individual nor the society.
194. India’s constitutional value of “equality of all” is founded on several assumptions. Which of
the following is not among these?
(a) Claim of human dignity
(b) All men have intrinsic worth
(c) All men are alike by nature

(d) All men are created equal.
195. In India’s constitutional values equality applied to education means

(a) To equalize the external or material circumstances of obtaining education.
(b) To impart same kind of education to all.
(c) To impart education to all up to the same level.
(d) To have same kinds of institutions for all in the society.
196. Which of the following does not contribute to India’s national integration?
(a) National system of education
(b) Teaching history compulsorily in the school
(c) National language
(d) National curriculum.
197. Which of the following is not a national objective to be achieved through education in India?
(a) Increasing productivity
(b) Achieving social and national integration
(c) Increasing children’s creative ability
(d) Accelerating process of modernization.
198. Development of which of the following is not an aim of democratic education?

(a) Vocational efficiency
(b) Educational leadership
(c) Scientific and technical education
(d) Democratic citizenship.
199. The Vedas teach us that creation is

(a) Without beginning.
(b) Without an end.
(c) Without beginning and without an end.
(d) Has a definite beginning and also an end.
200. Who said, “Without caring for all that is believed, reason it all out and having found that it will
do good to you and all believe it, live upto it and help others to live upto it”?
(a) Swami Vivekananda
(b) Buddha
(c) Kapila
(d) Vyas.
Answers
101. (a) 102. (a)103. (b) 104.(c) 105. (a) 106. (a) 107. (d) 108. (a) 109. (a) 110. (b) 111.(c) 112. (d) 113.
(b) 114. (d) 115. (b) 116. (d) 117.(c) 118. (b) 119. (a) 120. (b) 121. (a) 122. (b) 123. (a) 124. (a) 125. (b)
126. (b) 127. (b) 128. (d) 129. (b) 130. (d) 131. (c) 132. (d) 133. (b) 134. (b) 135. (d) 136. (d) 137. (a) 138.
(d) 139. (d) 140. (d) 141. (a) 142.(c) 143.(c) 144. (b) 145. (b) 146. (c) 147.(c) 148. (a) 149. (d) 150. (d)
151. (c) 152. (a) 153. (d) 154. (a) 155. (a) 156. (a) 157. (d) 158. (c) 159.(c) 160.(c) 161. (d) 162. (a) 163.
(a) 164. (b) 165. (d) 166. (c) 167. (b) 168. (b) 169. (b) 170. (d) 171. (d) 172. (d) 173. (d) 174. (c) 175. (a)
176. (d) 177. (a) 178. (d) 179.(c) 180. (b) 181. (a) 182. (d) 183. (b) 184. (b) 185.(c) 186. (a) 187. (c) 188.
(d) 189. (d) 190. (b) 191. (b) 192. (b) 193. (c) 194. (c) 195. (a) 196. (b) 197. (c) 198. (c) 199. (c) 200. (b)
Structure & Kinds of Anumana –

INTRODUCTION
This unit introduces to you the theory of inference of Nyâya philosophy.In Sanskrit
inference is known as ‘anumâna’. Anumâna is the second source of valid knowledge
according to the Nyâya-Vaiúeika school. Anumâna is a mediateand indirect source of
knowledge. It is different from ‘Pratyaka,’ because pratyaka is a direct and immediate
source of knowledge.The word ‘anumâna’ literally means after-knowledge. The word
‘anumâna’ is a Combination of two words: ‘anu’ which means ‘after’ and ‘mana’
which means ‘knowledge’. The joint meaning of these two words is ‘after
knowledge’. Anumâna is a knowledge which arises after other knowledge. There are
two meanings of the word ‘anumâna’. First, it may mean inferential cognition (
anumiti). Secondly, it may mean the instrument of Inferential cognition ( anumiti-
kârana). The Naiyayikas use the word ‘anumâna’ in the latter sense and holds that
inference is the specific case of inferential cognition ( Anumitikaranam anumânam).
Let us take the following example:
The hill is fiery.
Because the hill is smoky.
Whatever has fire has smoke.
In the above example, we pass from the perception of smoke in the hill to the
knowledge of the existence of fire in it on the ground of our previous knowledge of
the universal relation between smoke and fire. Thus we may hold that inference is a
mediate knowledge of an object( e.g. fire) derived through the medium of the
knowledge of a mark(e.g. smoke) by virtue of the relation of invariable concomitance
between them.
DEFINITION OF INFERENCE
Gautama, the propounder of the Nyâya system defines anumâna as a ‘knowledge

which is preceded by perception.’Vâtsyâyana defines inference as the knowledge of
an object through the previous knowledge of some sign or mark. Dr. B. N. Seal
defines inference as “ Anumâna (inference) is the process of ascertaining, not by
perception or direct observation, but through the instrumentality or medium of a mark,
that a thing possesses a certain character.”
From the definitions of inference mentioned above, it appears that an inference must
have some constituents. It has three terms and atleast three propositions. In the above
mentioned example, three points are to be noted. First, there is the perception of a
mark or reason (hetu), (e.g.smoke) in a subject(hill). Secondly, there is a recollection
of the relation of invariable concomitance between smoke and fire as we have
observed in the past. Thirdly, there is the inference of the existence of an unperceived
object ( e. g. fire) in the subject ( e. g. hill). Three terms are involved in this
inference.They are paka, sâdhya and hetu. Paka is the subject in which the predicate
or inferable object is doubted. The sâdhya is that which we want to prove or establish
in this inference. The hetu is the mark or sign which indicates the presence of the
object which is to be inferred. Let us analyse the terms in the example mentioned
above. Here in this example,hill is the paka, since paka is the subject in which the
predicate is sought to be inferred. Smoke is the mark or sign which indicates the
presence of the object which is to be inferred. Fire is the sâdhya which is to be
inferred in relation to the paka or the inferable. The paka, the sâdhya and the hetu
correspond to the minor term,major term and the middle term of the Aristotelian
syllogism respectively. One point is to be added here—the order of the propositions in
a syllogism is written in the following way : the proposition which is sought to be
established is to be written first,this is the conclusion of the inference; then the reason
for the conclusion is to be written and then the affirmation of the recollection between
the sadhya and the madhya is to be written. Here the first is the conclusion, the second
is the minor premise and the third is the major premise.
We have seen that in inference we must have atleast three propositions, all of which
are categorical and one must be affirmative and the others may be affirmative or
negative. At this point we may observe that inference in Indian logic is a complex
process which involves both induction and deduction. It includes both formal and
material logic. But in western logic, a syllogism is formal. Moreover, a syllogism in
western logic is generally stated in the form of three propositions, of which the first is
the major premise, the second is the minor premise and the last is the conclusion.
In Nyâya theory of perception, we find five propositions. These propositions are

known as ‘members’ (avayava) of Nyâya syllogism. These avayavas are: pratijñâ
(proposition), hetu (reason), udâharana (example), upanaya (application) and
nigamana (deduction). This five- member syllogism may be illustrated in the
following way:
1) The hill is fiery (pratijñâ).

2) Because the hill is smoky(hetu).
3) Whatever is smoky is fiery, e.g. a kitchen(udâharana).
4) This hill is also smoky(upanaya).
5) Therefore this hill is fiery( nigamana).
The pratijñâ is the proposition which is sought to be established. The hetu is the
second proposition which states the reason for this assertion. The third member is
udâharana which states a universal relation between the hetu and the sâdhya together
with an example. The fourth is upanaya or the application of the universal
concomitance to the present case. And the fifth is the nigamana or conclusion which is
drawn from the preceding premises.
ACTIVITY
Bring out two differences between perception and inference.
Give an example of Pancavayava Nyâya from Your own.
Mixed MCQ of All Topics –
Statement and Assumption MCQ
1:
Ravi is too intelligent to fail in the examination.
Assumption I: Very intelligent boys do not fail in the examinations.
Assumption II: Those who are not intelligent at all may fail in the examinations.
A.assumption I is implicit
B. assumption II is implicit,
C. both I and II are implicit
D.neither of them is implicit.

Option: C
Explanation :
Too intelligent means very intelligent so assumption I is implicit. On the other hand if some one is very much intelligent he
rarely fails and that who is not intelligent at all may fail. So. assumptiOn II is also implicit.
2:
Crop condition continues to be critical before rains.
Assumption I: It is expected to improve after rain.
Assumption II: Unless it rains no change in crop condition is likely to be.
Option: C
Explanation :
Crop is dependent on rains. Whatever problem the crop faces ceases to be after rains. Thus any improvement in crop
condition is directly related to rains. If it does not rain its condition will continue to be critical. Thus both the assumptions are
implicit.
3:
Let the government increase the present rate of taxation to recover the deficit in the budget.
Assumption I: Present rate of taxes is very low.
Assumption II: If government wants to get away with the budgetary deficit it should increase tax rate.

Option: B
Explanation :
There are many reasons behind budgetary deficits. Thus if the rate of tax is low even then it can not be said that deficit is the
product of low tax rate. In this way first assumption is not implicit but II one is implicit as taxes are a good source of finance
to cover the deficit.
4:
Go by aeroplane from Delhi to Chennai to reach quickly.
Assumption I: Delhi and Chennai are connected by air services.
Assumption II: There is no other means of going from Delhi to Chennai.
Option: A
Explanation :
One is suggested to go to Chennai from Delhi by aeroplane. It means both the cities are connected by air services. But the
word 'quickly' used in the statement clarifies that there are other means of transportation also. So only assumption I is
implicit.
5:
Indian scientists working abroad do not come back and serve their motherland.
Assumption I: India lacks such highly sophisticated labs, instruments and other amenities as they have there.
AssuMption II: India can not afford to pay them as much as they get there.

Option: C
Explanation :
Both are the genuine reasons that is why they do not come back here.
Some patients die because of sheer negligence.
Assumption I: Negligence kills the patient.
Assumption II: They are neglected by doctors nor by their family.
C. both the arguments are strong
D.neither I nor II is strong
Option: B
Explanation :
The assumption I is not implicit because statement is "I" premise while assumption is A premise.
7:
If you have any problem, bring them to me.
Assumption I: I am able to solve any of your problems.
Assumption II: You don't have any problem.
Option: A
Explanation :
If someone is able to solve a problem only then he will say like that, but assumption II is not implicit at all.
8:
You have to study hard for qualifying JRF.
Assumption I: Qualifying JRF is desirable.
Assumption II: Hard work leads to success.
Option: C
Explanation :
If you want to quaify JRF you will have to study hard. It is hard work that leads to success. Assumption I is also implicit
because the statement is an advice given to a person at this juncture. The person is needing it and he is being suggested.
9:
Successful man has the ability to judge himself correctly.
Assumption I: Successful man can not make a wrong judgement.
Assumption II: To judge others is of no use for successful man.
Option: D
Explanation :
Successful man judge himself correctly but it does not meanthat he will never have wrong judgement. Assumption II is also
not implicit because if he judges others he may or may not be a successful man.
10:
Every mature citizen of India exercises adult franchise.
Assumption I: Children are entitled to cast their votes.
Assumption II: Adult sufferage is related to those who are grown up.
Option: B
Explanation :
Adult sufferage is related to youths so children are not entitled to it. But assumption II is implicit because grown up means
those adults who are grown up.
Some patients die because of sheer negligence.
Assumption I: Negligence kills the patient.
Assumption II: They are neglected by doctors nor by their family.
C. both the arguments are strong
D.neither I nor II is strong
Option: B
Explanation :
The assumption I is not implicit because statement is "I" premise while assumption is A premise.
7:
If you have any problem, bring them to me.

Assumption I: I am able to solve any of your problems.
Assumption II: You don't have any problem.
Option: A
Explanation :
If someone is able to solve a problem only then he will say like that, but assumption II is not implicit at all.
8:
You have to study hard for qualifying JRF.
Assumption I: Qualifying JRF is desirable.
Assumption II: Hard work leads to success.
Option: C
Explanation :
If you want to quaify JRF you will have to study hard. It is hard work that leads to success. Assumption I is also implicit
because the statement is an advice given to a person at this juncture. The person is needing it and he is being suggested.
9:
Successful man has the ability to judge himself correctly.
Assumption I: Successful man can not make a wrong judgement.
Assumption II: To judge others is of no use for successful man.

Option: D
Explanation :
Successful man judge himself correctly but it does not meanthat he will never have wrong judgement. Assumption II is also
not implicit because if he judges others he may or may not be a successful man.
10:
Every mature citizen of India exercises adult franchise.
Assumption I: Children are entitled to cast their votes.
Assumption II: Adult sufferage is related to those who are grown up.
Option: B
Explanation :
Adult sufferage is related to youths so children are not entitled to it. But assumption II is implicit because grown up means
those adults who are grown up.
11:
Everybody likes reading "Alif Laila".
Assumption I: Alif Laila is the only important reading material.
Assumption II: Alif Laila is an interesting story.
Option: B
Explanation :
Assumption I is not implicit because `only' is not there in the statement but assumption II is implicit because reading a
material is. liked by all only when it is interesting or significant from any point of view.
12:
The new education poicy envisages major modification in the educational system.
Assumption I: The present education system needs improvement.
Assumption II: The present education system is inconsistent with the national needs.
Option: C
Explanation :
Major modification in a system is done only when it has become outdated and improvement can be made by modification.
Thus both assumption I and II are implicit.
13:
Computer education should start at schools.
Assumption I: Learning computer is easy.
Assumption II: Computer education fetches jobs easily.
Option: A
Explanation :
Assumption I is impicit because had computer education not been easy it would not have been suggested for school boys,
but it is not necessarily , true that we can get job easily after
14:
"Childien who get encouragement usually perform better". A note by the principal to the parents,
Assumption I: Some parents do not encourage children.
Assumption II: Parents may follow principal's advice.
D.neither of them is
implicit.
Option: C
15:
Himalaya drugs improve haemoglobin keeping the complexion fair and glaring.
Assumption I: People like fair and glaring complexion.
Assumption II: Complexion becomes dull and dark owing to the deficiency of haemoglobin.

Option: C
Explanation :
Complexion is directly related to haemoglobin. Those who do not have fair and glaring complexion feel concern over the
problem and uses Himalaya drugs in order to improve haemoglobin and hence maintain complexion
16:
You don't get to be on top overnight.
Assumption I: People desire to be on top.
Assumption II: Sustained efforts are necessary to be on top.
Option: B
Explanation :
Asumption I is not implicit because statement is 'I' premise while assumption is 'A' premise but assumption II is implicit
because no one can get on top overnight. If he wants to be on top he should do sustained efforts.
17:
Warning : Cigarette smoking is injurious to health.
Assumption I: Non-smoking promotes health.
Assumption II: This warning is not necessary at all.
Option: D
Explanation :
Both of the assumptions are not implicit because those' who are not addicted to smoking are not necessarily healthy. It
means that smoking has no doubt, ill effect on health but non-smoking does not necessarily promote health, because of this
reason warning is necessary.
18:
Of all the newspapers published in India `The Hindu' has the largest number of readers.
Assumption I: The volume of readership of all newspapers in India is known.
Assumption II: No newspaper in India other than 'The Hindu' has a large readership.
Option: A
Explanation :
Assumption I is implicit because unless we know the volume of readership of all newspapers we can not conclude about the
popularity of a particular newspaper. Here the study is comparative in nature so we can not say on the basis of only this
meagre information that other newspapers has less number of readers. Thus assumption II is not implicit.
19:
Opening a sports centre in Aligarh is of no use.
Assumption I: Inhabitants of. Aligarh have no interest in games.
Assumption II: Sports have lost its credibility today.
Option: A
Explanation :
Here only assumption I is implicit because people of Aligarh have no interest in games so sports centre is of no use here.
Assumption II does not relate with the statement at all so this is not implicit.
20:
Although the city was under knee deep of water for a week in this monsoon, there was no outbreak of
cholera.
Assumption I: Cholera spreads usually in monsoon.
Assumption II: Water concentration at a place leads to cholera.
Option: C
Explanation :
Although there was water logging, yet there was not outbreak of cholera. It means water logging leads to cholera. And water
logging is usually seen in monsoon so cholera and monsoon are also related.
21:
The present education system needs over- hauling.
Assumption I: The present education system has become obsolete.

Assumption II: Changes result in improvement.
Option: A
Explanation :
If a thing is outdated it should be over-hauled. So assumption I is implicit. But changes does not necessarily result in
improvement even if it is outdated.
22:
In a world, in a rush, Book Digest becomes indispensable.
Assumption I: Book Digest should not be used when there is no rush.
Assumption II: Book digest is useful only in normal time.
Option: D
Explanation :
Book Digest become necessary only when we are in rush and want to save time. So both assumptions are not implicit.
23:
You know that your suit is excellent when people ask you about your tailor who sewed it.
Assumption I: People do not ask about your tailor if your suit is not good.
Assurnption II: Your tailor has made excellent suit for you.
Option: C
Explanation :
If people ask you about your tailor it means your suit is excellent and your tailor is an excellent tailor. So both the
assumptions are implicit.
24:
Delink degrees with job. Then boys will think twice before joining colleges.
Assumption I: Boys join colleges for getting jobs.
Assumption II: Degree is of no use for getting jobs.
Option: A
Explanation :
If degree is not given importance for job, then no one would care for college education. Thus boys go to college education
for jobs and importance of degree is secondary to job. Thus only assumption I is implicit.
Verbal Reasoning MCQ
. Vincent has a paper route. Each morning, he delivers 37 newspapers to customers in his neighborhood. It takes
Vincent 50 minutes to deliver all the papers. If Vincent is sick or has other plans, his friend Thomas, who lives on
the same street, will sometimes deliver the papers for him.
A. Vincent and Thomas live in the same neighborhood.
B. It takes Thomas more than 50 minutes to deliver the papers.
C. It is dark outside when Vincent begins his deliveries.
D. Thomas would like to have his own paper route.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
The fact that Vincent and Thomas live on the same street indicates that they live in the same neighborhood.
There is no support for any of the other choices.
2. The Pacific yew is an evergreen tree that grows in the Pacific Northwest. The Pacific yew has a fleshy, poisonous
fruit. Recently, taxol, a substance found in the bark of the Pacific yew, was discovered to be a promising new
anticancer drug.
A. Taxol is poisonous when taken by healthy people.
B. Taxol has cured people from various diseases.
C. People should not eat the fruit of the Pacific yew.
D. The Pacific yew was considered worthless until taxol was discovered.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Given the information presented, the only statement that could be considered true is that the fruit should not be
eaten because it is poisonous. There is no support that taxol is poisonous or that taxol has cured anyone (choices
a and b). There is no support for choice d.
3. Erin is twelve years old. For three years, she has been asking her parents for a dog. Her parents have told her
that they believe a dog would not be happy in an apartment, but they have given her permission to have a bird.
Erin has not yet decided what kind of bird she would like to have.
A. Erin's parents like birds better than they like dogs.
B. Erin does not like birds.
C. Erin and her parents live in an apartment.
D. Erin and her parents would like to move.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Since Erin's parents think a dog would not be happy in an apartment, we can reasonably conclude that the family
lives in an apartment. We do not know if Erin's parents dislike dogs (choice a) or if Erin dislikes birds (choice
b).There is no support for choice d.
4. Tim's commute never bothered him because there were always seats available on the train and he was able to
spend his 40 minutes comfortably reading the newspaper or catching up on paperwork. Ever since the train
schedule changed, the train has been extremely crowded, and by the time the doors open at his station, there
isn't a seat to be found.
A. Tim would be better off taking the bus to work.
B. Tim's commute is less comfortable since the train schedule changed.
C. Many commuters will complain about the new train schedule.
D. Tim will likely look for a new job closer to home.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The passage tells us that Tim's commute didn't bother him because he was always able to sit down and
comfortably read or do paperwork. Therefore, it is reasonable to assume that Tim's commute has become less
comfortable since the schedule change, because it is very crowded and he can no longer find a seat. There is no
information given that supports choices a, c, and d.
5. When they heard news of the hurricane, Maya and Julian decided to change their vacation plans. Instead of
traveling to the island beach resort, they booked a room at a fancy new spa in the mountains. Their plans were a
bit more expensive, but they'd heard wonderful things about the spa and they were relieved to find availability on
such short notice.
A. Maya and Julian take beach vacations every year.
B. The spa is overpriced.
C. It is usually necessary to book at least six months in advance at the spa.

D. Maya and Julian decided to change their vacation plans because of the hurricane.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
The first sentence makes this statement true. There is no support for choice a. The passage tells us that the spa
vacation is more expensive than the island beach resort vacation, but that doesn't necessarily mean that the spa
is overpriced; therefore, choice b cannot be supported. And even though the paragraph says that the couple was
relieved to find a room on short notice, there is no information to support choice c, which says that it is usually
necessary to book at the spa at least six months in advance.
6. Ten new television shows appeared during the month of September. Five of the shows were sitcoms, three were
hour-long dramas, and two were news-magazine shows. By January, only seven of these new shows were still on
the air. Five of the shows that remained were sitcoms.
A. Only one of the news-magazine shows remained on the air.
B. Only one of the hour-long dramas remained on the air.
C. At least one of the shows that was cancelled was an hour-long drama.
D. Television viewers prefer sitcoms over hour-long dramas.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
If there were seven shows left and five were sitcoms, this means that only two of the shows could possibly be
dramas. Choices a and b may be true, but there is no evidence to indicate this as fact. The fact that all of the
sitcoms remained does not necessarily mean that viewers prefer sitcoms (choice d).
7. On weekends, Mr. Sanchez spends many hours working in his vegetable and flower gardens. Mrs. Sanchez
spends her free time reading and listening to classical music. Both Mr. Sanchez and Mrs. Sanchez like to cook.
A. Mr. Sanchez enjoys planting and growing vegetables.
B. Mr. Sanchez does not like classical music.
C. Mrs. Sanchez cooks the vegetables that Mr. Sanchez grows.
D. Mrs. Sanchez enjoys reading nineteenth century novels.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Because Mr. Sanchez spends many hours during the weekend working in his vegetable garden, it is reasonable
to suggest that he enjoys this work. There is no information to suggest that he does not like classical music.
Although Mrs. Sanchez likes to cook, there is nothing that indicates she cooks vegetables (choice c). Mrs.
Sanchez likes to read, but there is no information regarding the types of books she reads (choice d).
8. Georgia is older than her cousin Marsha. Marsha's brother Bart is older than Georgia. When Marsha and Bart are
visiting with Georgia, all three like to play a game of Monopoly. Marsha wins more often than Georgia does.
A. When he plays Monopoly with Marsha and Georgia, Bart often loses.
B. Of the three, Georgia is the oldest.
C. Georgia hates to lose at Monopoly.
D. Of the three, Marsha is the youngest.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
If Georgia is older than Marsha and Bart is older than Georgia, then Marsha has to be the youngest of the three.
Choice b is clearly wrong because Bart is the oldest. There is no information in the paragraph to support either
choice a or choice c.
MIX TOPIC MCQ

1-Look closely at the letter pattern and choose the series from the options given that will correctly fill
the blank at the end of the series.
FAG, GAF, HAI, IAH, _______
1. JAK
2. HAL
3. HAK
4. JAI
(Ans: A)
2-Fill in the blank
ELFA GLHA ILJA _____ MLNA
A. OLPA
B. KLMA
C. LLMA
D. KLLA
(Ans: D)
3-In a top secret message, if LIVING is coded as KGSHLD. How will BUDDHA be coded?
A. ATEEIB
B. ATACFX
C. ATCCGZ
D. KGSHLD
(Ans: B)
4-Suresh, the son of Mahesh is married to Sia, whose sister Jia is married to Amar, the brother of
Suresh. How is Jia related to Mahesh?
(A) Daughter in law
(B) Cousin
(C) Sister in law
(D) Sister
(Ans: A)
5-Smith said, “Lilly is wife of the grandson of my sister’s mother.” How is Smith related to Lilly?
A. Father
B. Father-in-law
C. Brother-in-law
D. Grand Father
(Ans: B)
6- Shoe always has _____________.
A. Laces
B. Leather
C. Strap
D. Soles
(Ans: D)
7-In an archery match, Peter’s team got more scores than David’s team but not as many as Smith’s
team. Smith’s team got more scores than Taiwa’s team. Taiwa’s team got less score than David’s team.
Which team is in second place in the descending order of scores?
A. Smith’s team
B. Taiwa’s team
C. Peter’s team
D. David’s tea
(Ans: C)
8-In the school midterm exams, David has lower marks than Dechen, but has more than Sonam.
However, Karma also has more marks than David. Who has the lowest mark?
A. David
B. Dechen
C. Sonam
D. Karma
(Ans: D)
9-In their class, Chumley, Peter, Kenel, Donald and Senthil are sitting on a bench. Chumley is sitting next
to Peter, Kenel is sitting next to Donald. Donald is not sitting with Senthil. If Chumley and Senthil sit on either
end of the bench where does Donald sit?
A. between Peter and Donald
B. between Donald and Senthil
C. between Peter and Kenel
D. between Kenel and Senthil
(Ans: C)
10-Choose the most meaningful sequence for the following words.
1. Job 2. Independence 3. Study 4. Income 5. Exam
A. 1, 4, 2, 3, 5
B. 2, 5, 3, 1, 4
C. 3, 1, 2, 4, 5
D. 3, 5, 1, 4, 2
(Ans: D)
11-Samantha is your father’s mother’s grandson’s daughter. Therefore, Samantha is your
A. niece
B. sister
C. uncle
D. brother
(Ans: A)
12-The day before yesterday was Saturday. What day will it be the day after tomorrow?
A. Tuesday
B. Wednesday
C. Thursday
D. Friday
(Ans: B)
13-David prefers Economics to Maths, English to Social science, and Political Science to History. If she
prefers Maths to History, and Social science to Maths, which is David’s least preferred subject?
A History
B Maths
C Social science
D Economics
(Ans: A)
14-Pointing out to an elderly woman, Robin said, “She is the daughter of the woman who is the mother
of the husband of my mother”. What is the woman’s relationship to Robin?
A. grand daughter
B. sister in-law
C. aunt
D. daughter
(Ans: C)
15-A school organized a knockout football competition in which 23 teams played. What was the least
number of matches they needed to play to decide the winner?
A. 11 matches
B. 62 matches
C. 21 matches
D. 22 matches
(Ans: D)
16-In a maths class Riki divides 60 chalk sticks by half and adds fifteen. What answer does she show the
Class?
A. 129 chalk sticks
B. 130 chalk sticks
C. 135 chalk sticks
D. 145 chalk sticks
(Ans: C)
Coding Decoding MCQ
:
If TOUR is written as 1234, CLEAR is written as 56784 and SPARE is written as 90847, find the code for CARE
A.1247
B. 4847
C. 5247
D.5847
Option: D
Explanation :
R is in every group of letter and 4 is in every group of numbers so R = 4 C L E A R = 5 6 7 8 4 , S P A R E = 9 0 8 4 7 Here 847
are common So CL = 56 and SP = 90 Thus C A R E = 8 4 7
2:
CALANDER is coded in a code as CLANAEDR. Find the code for CIRCULAR under the same rule.
A.LACANDER
B. CRIUCALR
C. CLANADER
D.None of these
Option: B
Explanation :
C AL AN DE R = C IR CU LA R
C LA NA ED R = C RI UC AL R
Here first and last letters are not
dispositioned but other pairs are being reversed
3:
In a code sign DRLAL is coded as 62014314. How CAMEL is coded ?
A.5315714
B. 35729310
C. 5313613
D.None of these
Option: A
Explanation :
Add two in the serial number of letters as :
D = 4th + 2 = 6
R= 18th + 2 = 20
L = 12th + 2 = 14
A = Ist + 2 = 3
L = 12th + 2 = 14
4:
In a code language 35796 is written as 44887. Find the code for 46823.
A.55914
B. 57194
C. 55934
D.55745
Option: A
Explanation :
3+1=4 of the code

5-1=4 of the code
7+1=8 of the code
9-1=8 of the code
6+1=7 of the code
as 3 5 7 9 6
+1 -1 +1 -1 +1
-----------------------------
4 4 8 8 7
So 4 6 8 2 3
+1 -1 +1 -1 +1
----------------------------------
5 5 9 1 4
5:
If LIGHT is coded as GILTH, find the code for RAINY.
A.IARYN
B. ARINY
C. NAIRY
D.RINAY
Option: A
Explanation :
There are two groups LIG and HT each being reversed
LIG HT RAI, NY
GIL TH IAR, YN
If TOM = 48 and DICK = 27. Find the value of CATTLE ?
A.93
B. 61
C. 91
D.65
Option: B
Explanation :
TOM
20 + 15 + 13 = 48
DICK
4+9+3+11=27
CATTLE
3 + 1 + 20 + 20 + 12 + 5 = 61
.
7:
If LONDON is coded as MPOEPO. What code is needed for DELHI ?
A.DEHLI
B. EFIMJ
C. HLDEI
D.EFMIJ
Option: D
Explanation :
LONDONDELHI
+1 1 1 1 1 1 + 1 1 1 1 1
MPOEPOEFMIJ
.
8:
In a certain language if A is written as 2, B as 4 and C as 6 what do the figure 12, 10, 10, 8 stands for?.
A.DEEP
B. DOOR
C. DEER
D.FEED
Option: D
Explanation :
12 10 10 8
F E E D
.
9:
In a certain code language

1 .Chip, Din, Chunk means students attend class
2. Din Sunk Dink means Arjun is student
3. Jump Mink Sink means Schools are good
4. Dink Mup Chimp means Teacher is teaching
The code which is used for Arjun is ?
A.Sunk
B. Din
C. Dink
D.Chunk
Option: A
Explanation :
On the basis of Ist and IInd equations "students" = DIN
On the basis of IInd and IVth equations "is" = DINK
So Putting these two values into equation IInd we get the code for Arjun as SUNK.
10:
In a miitary code CAUTION is coded as UACITNO.

How will you write MISUNDERSTAND?
A.SIMUNEDSRTAND
B. SIMNUEDSRATDN
C. SMIUNDERSTAND
D.None of the above
Option: B
Explanation :
CAU TI ON MIS UN DE RS TA ND
UAC IT NO SIM NU ED SR AT DN
It means in the first group three letters are reversed then each pair is being reversed.

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Logical Reasoning Unit-

NO.1 SUPPORATIVE INSTITUTE UGC-NET

Conclusion + evidence + intermediate conclusion

Conclusion + evidence + background information

How do we identify the main conclusion?

Signal words for conclusions

While there is no guarantee that any one word or phrase is introducing

How do we identify the relevant evidence?

 [Insert conclusion here]

 [Insert the “why” reasoning here].

 [Insert premises here]. Therefore,

 [Insert conclusion here].

Signal words for evidence

history of logic: Categorical forms

d)if neither I or II are strong

a)if only argument I is strong

d)if neither I or II are strong

c)if either I or II is strong

b)if only argument II is strong

6. Statement :You need to be talented to identify talent

b)if only argument II is strong

7. Statement : Should India support all the international policies of USA ?

d)if neither I or II are strong

a)if only argument I is strong

d)if neither I or II are strong

10. Statement : Should we scrap the ‘Public Distribution System’ in India ?

d)if neither I or II are strong

e)if both I and II follow

a)if only argument I is strong

3. Statement : In order to build more space, extra FSI needs to be bought

d)if neither I or II are strong

b)if only argument II is strong

5. Statement : Use our medicine to fight the problem of obesity

d)if neither I or II are strong

6. Statement : Should judiciary be independent of the executive ?

a)if only argument I is strong

7. Statement : Should family planning be made compulsory in India ?

b)if only argument II is strong

d)if neither I or II are strong

b)if only argument II is strong

e)if both I and II follow

1)if only argument I is strong

4)if neither I or II are strong

3. Statement :Many organizations have switched over to on-line mode of examinations.

2)if only argument II is strong

5)if both I and II follow

5)if both I and II follow

5)if Only I and II follow

8. Statement :Gov of India has appointed a joint parliamentary committee to investigate

1)if only argument I is strong

5)if both I and II follow

1)if only argument I is strong

1)if only argument I is strong

4)if neither I or II are strong

1)if only argument I is strong

2)if only argument II is strong

2)if only argument II is strong

1)if only argument I is strong

5)if both I and II follow

5)if both I and II follow

4)if neither I or II are strong

Answer – 1)if only argument I is strong

Answer – 2)if only argument II is strong