15 Series TNC-1

TNC (Team Nursing Classes) 15
TNC
(Team Nursing Classes)
SERIES 15.
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TNC (Team Nursing Classes)

Q 1-Pain of ovarian carcinoma is referred to
A) Back of thigh
B) Gluteal region
C) Anterior surface of thigh
D) Medial surface of thigh
Q 2-A woman with primary infertility with CA-125 level 90 iu. She has bilateral palpable mass. USG
shows mass in pelvis. Diagnosis may be
A) Ovarian CA
B) TB
C) Endometrioma
D) Borderline ovarian tumor
Q 3-At what gestational age should a pregnancy with cholestasis of pregnancy be terminated?
A) 34 weeks
B) 36 weeks
C) 38 weeks
D) 40 weeks
Q 4-A lady with placenta previa delivered a baby. She had excessive bleeding. After resuscitation
most likely complication is
A) Galactorrhoea
B) Diabetes insipidus
C) Loss of menstruation
D) Cushing’s syndrome
Q 5-All are seen in gestational diabetes except
A) Previousmacrosomic baby
B) Obesity
C) Malformations
D) Polyhydramnios
Q 6-Ideal contraceptive for lactating mothers
A) Barrier method
B) Combined OCP
C) Lactational amenorrhoea
D) Progesterone only pills
Q 7-Which hormone is necessary for the positive pregnancy test?
A) Progestron
B) Hcg
C) Estrogen
D) Placental lactogen
Q 8. 12 years-old girl come to the physician because of a vaginal discharge. The discharge started
about 2months ago and is whitish. Microscopic examination of the discharge shows no evidence of
pseudo hype, clue cell, or trichomonads. Which of the following can be the diagnosis?
A) Bacterial vaginosis
B) Candida vulvovaginitis
C) Physiologic leucorrhoea
D) Syphilis
Q 9- An important landmark of the pelvis that determine the distance of the decent of the head is
known as:
A) Linaeterminalis
B) Sacrum
C) Ischial spines
D) Ischialtuberosities
Q 10- Oxytocin is a hormone produced by:
A) Ovaries
B) Placenta
C) Pituitary gland
D) Adrenal gland
Q 11- At term amniotic fluid volume is
A) 800 ml
B) 600 ml
C) 400 ml
D) 2000 ml
Q 12- What is the principal carbohydrate present in Amniotic fluid?
A) Glucose
B) Fructose
C) Maltose
D) Galactose
Q 13- Serious sign and symptoms of pre-eclampcia are
A) Sharp rise in blood pressure
B) Increase proteinuria
C) Severe headache and visual disturbance
D) All of these
Q 14- In which of the following types of spontaneous abortions would the nurse see dark brown
vaginal discharge and a negative pregnancy test?
A) Threatened
B) Imminent
C) Missed
D) Incomplete
Q 15- After reviewing the women’s maternal history of magnesium sulfate during labour, which
condition would the nurse anticipate as a potential problem in the neonate?
A) Hypoglycaemia
B) Jitteriness
C) Respiratory depression
D) Trachycardia
Q 16- Long term penicillin therapy for the patient with rheumatic fever indicate to:
A) Prevent chronic rheumatic carditis
B) To arrest the progress of migratory arthritis
C) To destroy the infective organism and cure the disease
D) To prevent recurrence of rheumatic fever
Q 17- Early amniocentesis is done in which period of pregnancy
A) 12-14 weeks
B) 14-16 weeks
C) 16-18 weeks
D) 9-11 weeks
Q 18- Which of the following antihypertensives is not safe in pregnancy?
A) Clonidine
B) ACE inhibitors
C) Alpha- methyldopa
D) Amlodipine
Q 19- Risk of the damage of fetus by maternal rubella is maximum if mother get infected in?
A) 6-12 weeks of pregnancy
B) 20-24weeks of pregnancy
C) 24-28weeks of pregnancy
D) 32-36 weeks of pregnancy
Q 20- All of the following are causes of atonicpost partum haemorrhage, except?
A) Multiparity
B) Multiple pregnancy
C) Fibroid uterus
D) Pre- eclampsia
Q 21- Which of the following is a common side effect of vasopressin.
A) Heart burn
B) Diarrhea
C) Drowsiness
D) None of the above
Q 22- A doctor has prescribed 500 mg of Cefixime. The vial reads 250 mg each ml, how many ml
will you give to the patient.
A) 0.5 ml
B) 2 ml
C) 1 ml
D) 0.75 ml
Q 23. A doctor had ordered to mix 200 mg of dopamine in 500 ml of 5% Dextrose and infuse at the
rate of 400mcg/min. What is the required flow a7 drop rate? The drop factor for the set is
16gtt/ml.
A) 15 drops/min
B) 16 drops/min
C) 17 drops/min
D) 18 drops/ min
Q 24. Which of the following is not recommended as a gastric antacid.
A) Aluminium hydroxide
B) Silicone dioxide
C) Sodium bicarbonate
D) Magnesium trisilicate.
Q 25. What is the drug of choice for angina pectoris.
A) Dopamine
B) Nitroglycerine
C) Dobutamine
D) Atenolol.
Q 26. Madhuri 25 Year old pregnant woman present herself to hospital with features of dilated
cardiomyopathy which of the following drug will not be administered to her.
A) ACE Inhibitor
Diuretics
c. Digoxin
d. Vasodilators
Q 27. What is the common side effect of anti-histamine?
A) Sneezing
B) Tinnitus
C) Sedation
D) Congestive heart failure.
Q 28. What is the first symptom of digoxin overdose
A) Fainting spells
B) Ectopic on ECG
C) GTI Disturbances
D) U Wave changes.
Q 29. Which drug is not suitable for hypovolemic shock?
A) Adrenaline
B) Vasopressin
C) Epoprostenol
D) Sodium nitroprusside
Q 30. which drug is contraindicated in Raynaud’s disease
A) Beta blocker
B) Calcium channel blocker
C) Angiotensin receptor blocker
D) All of the above.

Q 31. Which one among the following cortical steroid is administered by IV route in case of
anaphylactic shock?
A) Dexamethasone
B) Hydrocortisone
C) Betamethasone
D) Prednisolone.
Q 32. What is the drug of choice for managing Seizures?
A) Lorazepam
B) Labetalol.
C) Lignocaine.
D) Levodopa
Q 33. What is the dosage for epinephrine in cardiac arrest?
A) 1 mg IV of 1:10,000 sol
B) 0.1-1 mg IM of 1:10,000 sol
C) 0.3-1 mg IM of 1:10,000 sol
D) 1 mg IV of 1:1000 sol
Q 34. What a nurse can question the physician regarding prescription of diltiazem for a patient
who is in cardiogenic shock because
A) It slows down Heart rate
B) It increases Heart rate
C) It increases coronary blood flow
D) It initiates vasodilator effect
Q 35. Before administering injection Furosemide, the nurse will check that one of the following
drugs is omitted.
A) Calcium chloride
B) Dopamine
C) Dobutamine
D) Nitro-glycerine
Q 36. Diphtheria is caused by
A) Corynebacterium
B) Staphylococcus
C) Streptococcus
D) None of these
Q 37. Bacterial ribosomes are composed of
A). Protein and DNA
B) Protein and mRNA
C) Protein and rRNA
D) Protein and tRNA
Q 38. Other than the sample (specimen) the remaining portion is stained then it is called
A) Simple staining
B) Negative staining
C) Differential staining
D) None of these
Q 39. The order of stains in Gram-staining procedure is
A) Crystal violet, Iodine solution, Alcohol, Saffranine
B) Iodine solution, Crystal Violet, Saffranine, Alcohol
C) Alcohol, Crystal Violet, Iodine solution, Saffranine
D) All of these
Q 40. Virulent factor in pneumococcus is
A) Cell wall
B) Capsule
C) Mesosomes
D) Endotoxins
Q 41 pH required for the growth of bacteria is
A) 6.8 – 7.2
B) 5.6 – 8.2
C) 3.0 – 6.0
D) 8.0 – 14.0
Q 42. Minimum growth temperature is
a. The growth of organisms at lowest temperature
b. The lowest temperature at which the microorganisms grow
c. The maximum temperature at which the growth is stable
d. None of these
Q 43. Growth curve does not include following phases of bacteria –
A). Decline phase
B) Stationary phase
C) Lag phase
D) Synchronous growth
Q 44. Rabies virus is
A). Nake RNA virus
B) Naked DNA virus
C) Enveloped RNA virus
D) Enveloped DNA virus
Q 45. Western blotting is the technique used in the determination of
A) RNA
B) DNA
C) Proteins
D) All of these
Q 46.The antibody that is first formed after infection is
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgD
D. IgE
Q 47. AIDS disease is caused by a virus which belongs to
A). Retro virus group
B). Rhabdo virus group
C) Hepatitis virus group
D) Adeno virus group
Q 48. Active immunity is induced by
A) Infection
B) Placental transfer of antibodies
C) Injection of antibodies
D) Injection of gamma- globulins
Q 49. Immunoglobulin is associated with anaphylactic delayed hypersensitivity reaction
A) IgE
B) IgA
C) IgD
D) IgM
Q 50. Immunoglobin which are found in asthma at elevated level:
A) IgA
B) IgE
C) IgM
D) IgD
Q 51. A nurse is communicating with a male client suffering from substance induced persisting
dementia, the client cannot remember facts and fills in gaps with imaginary information. this is:
A) flight of ideas
B) associative looseness
C) confabulation
D) concretism
Q 52. Thiamine has been prescribed for an alcoholic patient. The rationale for admiration of this
medication is prevention of:
A) Alcoholic dementia
B) Huntington’s disease
C) Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
D) Alcohol withdrawal
Q 53.What is Rorschach’s projective test designed to measure?
A) Unconscious intentions
B) Dreams
C) Conscious desire
D) Brain size
Q 54. Excessive use of abstract thinking or generalization to decreases painful thinking is :
A) projection
B) rationalization
C) intellectualization
D) over explanation
Q 55. Which of the following tool is used to assess cognitive function?
A) Wechsler adult intelligence scale
B) Child behavioral checklist
C) CAGE questionnaire
D) Rorschach inkblot test

Q 56. Which of the following disorder is a self-limiting condition:
A) Postnatal depression
B) Postnatal blues
C) Postnatal psychosis
D) Postnatal anxiety disorder
Q 57. Clouding of consciousness is characteristic of:
A) Schizophrenia
B) Dementia
C) Hysteria
D) Delirium
Q 58. Which classification of drugs may be used to treat enuresis in children?
A) Tricyclic antidepressant
B) Major tranquilizers
C) Anti-anxiety agents
D) Hypnotics
Q 59. Ideas of reference, odd eccentric behavior and magical thinking are the main feature in
which of the following personality disorder?
A) Paranoid personality disorder
B) Antisocial personality disorder
C) Schizotypal personality disorder
D) Histrionic personality disorder
Q 60. “Chasing the dragon” refers to smoking of :
A) Nicotine
B) Heroine
C) LSD
D) Cocaine
Q 61. La bella indifference is seen in :
A) Conversion disorder
B) Phobic disorders
C) Schizophrenic disorder
D) Bipolar affective disorder
Q 62. A patient with schizophrenia is not taking medication as advised for this client, a medication
as advised for the client a medication that is to be administered I/M by the nurse every 2-3 week
is
A) Haloperidol
B) Valium
C) Lithium carbonate
D) Prolixindecanoate
Q 63. According to Caplan, which of the following phase is associated with successful crisis
resolution?
A) Phase 1
B) Phase 2
C) Phase 3
D) Phase 4
Q 64. Loss of personal identity and wandering away from psychiatric hospital is referred to as
A) Fugue
B) Split personality
C) Possession state
D) Trance state
Q 65. Parkinson’s disease is caused by
A) Hereditary factors
B) Death of brain cells due to old age
C) Impairment of dopamine producing cell in brain
D) Demyelination of nerve cells
Q 66. Cyclothymic disorder is characterized by:
A) Short periods of major depression and severe manic episodes
B) Short periods of mild depression and hypomania
C) Short periods of moderate depression and severe mania
D) Short periods of major depression and hypomania
Q 67. The theory of operant conditioning was proposed by:
A) Ian Pavlov
B) Watson
C) B F skinner
D) Harry Stock Sullivan
Q 68. After a successful presentation at an interview, MrDaivik felt calm and relaxed, he stopped
sweating and felt hungry, which part of his nervous system was activated?
A) Sympathetic
B) Parasympathetic
C) Somatic
D) Autonomic
Q 69. A client with chronic schizophrenia who takes neuroleptic medication is admitted to the
psychiatric unit. Nursing assessment reveals, fever, hypertension and diaphoresis. These finding
suggest which life threating reaction?
A) Tardive dyskinesia
B) Dystonia
C) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
D) Akathisia
Q 70. When planning to care for a female client using ritualistic behavior, nurse must recognize
that the ritual:
A) Help the client focus on the inability to deal with reality
B) Helps the client control the anxiety
C) Is under the client’s conscious control
D) Is used by client primarily for secondary gains
Q 71. The visceral pleura
A) is the membrane lining surface of the lungs
B) is the membrane lining the wall thoracic cavity
C) is the fluid around the lungs
D) is the thinnest portion of peritoneum
Q 72. Which of the following hormones is secreted by anterior pituitary gland?
A) Corticotrophin
B) Antidiuretic hormone
C) Cortisol
D) Oxytocin
Q 73. The patient is admitted to a hospital with a hematocrit of 56% and a serum sodium level of
152 mEq/L. The cause for these findings is:
A) Overhydration.
B) Dehydration
C) Anaemia.
D) Liver failure.
Q 74.The client is admitted with a serum sodium level of 110 mEq/L. The nursing intervention that
should be implemented is
A) Encourage fluids orally.
B) Administer 10% saline solution intravenously.
C) Administer antidiuretic hormone intra-nasally.
D) Place on seizure precautions.
Q 75. While measuring a patient’s blood pressure manually, nurse notices carpal spasm when she
pumps up the cuff above the systolic pressure for a few minutes. The nurse understands that as
A) Trousseau's Sign in patients with Hypocalcemia
B) Trousseau's Sign in patients with Hypercalcemia
C) Chvostek's Sign
D) Normal nervous response to an inflating blood pressure cuff that is inflated above the systolic
pressure
Q 76. Injection Magnesium Sulfate IV is prescribed by the doctor for a patient with magnesium
level of 1.2mg/dl. The priority intervention is to
A) Monitor the patient for reduced deep tendon reflexes and initiate seizure precautions
B) Set-up IV Atropine at bedside due to the bradycardia effects of Magnesium Sulfate
C) Set-up bedside suction
D) Monitor blood pressure
Q 77 The telemetry monitor technician notifies the nurse of the morning telemetry readings.
Which client should the nurse assess first?
A) The client diagnosed with atrial fibrillation with a rate of 100.
B) The client diagnosed with a myocardial infarction who has occasional PVC.
C) The client in normal sinus rhythm with a peaked T wave.
D) The client with a first-degree AV block and a rate of 92.

Q 78.A nurse reviews a client's electrolyte laboratory report and notes that the potassium level is
3.2 mEq/L. Which of the following would the nurse note on the electrocardiogram as a result of
the laboratory value?
A) U waves
B) Absent P waves
C) Elevated T waves
D) Elevated ST segment
Q 79. Complication of bronchiectasis are except
A) cerebral abscess
B) lung abscess
C) amyloidosis
D) Bronchogenic carcinoma
Q 80. What are the signs of Cushing’s syndrome other than obesity?
A) Large thighs and upper arms
B) Pendulous abdomen and large hips
C) Abdominal striae and ankle enlargement
D) Posterior neck fat pad and thin extremities
Q 81. After Billroth-II surgery, the client developed dumping syndrome. Which of the following
should the nurse exclude in the plan of care?
A) Sit upright for at least 30 minutes after meals
B) Take only sips of water between bits of solid food
C) Eat small meal every 2-3 hours
D) Reduce the amount of simple carbohydrates in the diet
82. Chemical burn of the eye is treated with
A) Local anaesthetic and anti-bacterial drop for 24-36 hours
B) Hot compresses applied at 15-minute interval
C) Flushing of lids conjunctiva and cornea with tap or preferably sterile water
D) Cleansing the conjunctiva with small cotton tipped applicator

Q 83. An emergency treatment for an acute asthmatic attack is Adrenaline 1:1000 given
hypodermically. This is given to:
A ) Increase BP
B) Decrease mucosal swelling
C) Relax the bronchial smooth muscles
D) Decrease bronchial secretions
Q 84. What laboratory finding is the primary diagnostic indicator for pancreatitis
A) Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
B) Elevated serum lipase
C) Elevated aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
D) Increase lactate dehydrogenase (LD)
Q 85. Using the rule of nine, percentage of right lower extremities that is burned is:
A) 4.5%
B) 9%
C) 18%
D) 22.5%
Q 86. Which of the conditions is an early symptom commonly seen in myasthenia gravis?
A) Dysphagia
B) Fatigue improving at the end of the day
C) Ptosis
D) Respiratory distress
Q 87. The following are lipid abnormalities. Which of the following is a risk factor for the
development of atherosclerosis and PVD?
A) High level of low density lipid (LDL) cholesterol
B) High level of high density lipid (HDL) cholesterol
C) Low concentration triglycerides
D) Low level of low density lipid (LDL) cholesterol

Q 88.A male client has undergone spinal surgery, the nurse should
A) Observe the clients bowel movement and voiding pattern
B) Log-roll the client to prone position
C) Assess the client’s feet for sensation and circulation
D) Encourage the client to drink plenty of fluids
Q 89.A client is experiencing spinal shock. The nurse should expect the function of bladder to
which of the following:
A) Normal
B) Atonic
C) spastic
D) Uncontrolled
Q 90. Gallow’s traction is used for
A) Fracture shaft of femur
B) Fracture neck of femur
C) Fracture humerus
D) Fracture tibia
Q 91. The surgical procedure done to relieve pressure in compartment syndrome is:
A) Open reduction with internal fixation (ORIF)
B) Meniscectomy
C) Fasciotomy
D) Arthroplasty
Q 92. Kaposi’s sarcoma is associated with:
A) Human papilloma virus (HPV)
B) Human T-cell lympphotrophic virus type (HTLV-I)
C) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
D) Epstein Barr virus

Q 93.Which of the following is the manifestation of pyloric stenosis?
A) Projectile vomiting
B) Regurgitation
C) Steatorrhea
D) Tenesmus
Q 94.Direct action of parathyroid hormone include everything EXCEPT :
A) Increased resorption of calcium from bone
B) Increased absorption of calcium from intestine
C) Increased production of 1,25 dihydroxy vitamin D
D) Increased reabsorption of calcium from kidney
Q 95. Which of the following nursing measure would be most appropriate in the care of patient
who has acute epistaxis?
A) Tilt the patient head back
B) Place the patient’s head between his legs
C) Pinch the nose and have the patient lean forward
D) Place warm compresses on the patient’s nasal bridge
Q 96.A normal infants sits briefly leaning forward on her hands, reaches for and grasps a cube and
transfer it from hand to hand. She babbles but cannot waves bye bye, nor she can grasps objects
with the finger and thumb. Her age is______.
A) 4 month
B) 7month
C) 10 month
D) 14 month
Q 97. Shakir tape is used for:
A) Measurement of height
B) Measurement of length of infant
C) Measurement of mid arm circumference
D) Measurement of skin pad thickness
Q 98.A 18 months baby presents with recurrent episodes of excessive crying followed by crying,
unconsciousness and occasional seizures since 9 months of age the most likely diagnosis is:
A) Epilepsy
B) Anoxic spells
C) Breath holding spells
D) Vasovagal attack
Q 99. Kernicterus which may occur as a complication of jaundice, is a pathological condition

of____
A) Liver
B) Heart
C) Kidney
D) Brain
Q 100. Cystic fibrosis is an inherited disease that affects the respiratory and digestive systems.
What is the genetic etiology of cystic fibrosis?
A) Autosomal dominant.
B) Autosomal recessive.
C) Y chromosome linked.
D) Spontaneous mutation.
MOTIVATIONAL
“सपनों में उड़ान भरो”
कुछ क़ाम करो,

न मन को ननऱाश करो
पंख होंगे मजबूत,
तुम सपनों में स़ाहस भरो,
गगरोगे लेककन किर से उड़ान भरो,
सपनों में उड़ान भरो।
तल़ाश करो मंजजल की,
ऩा व्यर्थ जीवनद़ान करो,
जग में रहकर कुछ ऩाम करो,
अभी शुरुआत करो,
सुयोग बीत न ज़ाए कह ,ं
समझो खुद को,
लक्ष्य क़ा ध्य़ान करो,
यंू ऩा बैठकर बीच ऱाह में ,
मंजजल क़ा इंतज़ार करो,
संभ़ालो खुद को यंू ऩा ववश्ऱाम करो,
उठो चलो आगे बढो,
मन की आव़ाज सुनो,
खुद के सपने स़ाक़ार करो,
अपऩा भी कुछ ऩाम करो,
इनतह़ास के पन्नों में अपऩा ऩाम दजथ करो,
बहक ज़ाएं गर कदम,
तो गुरु क़ा ध्य़ान करो,
तुम प़ा ऩा सको ऐसी कोई मंजजल नह ,ं
ह़ार जीत क़ा मत ख्य़ाल करो,
अडिग रहकर लक्ष्य क़ा रसप़ान करो,
SR NO ANSWER SR NO ANSWER SR NO ANSWER SR NO ANSWER
1 B 26 B 51 C 76 A
2 C 27 C 52 C 77 C
3 C 28 C 53 A 78 A
4 C 29 D 54 C 79 D
5 C 30 A 55 A 80 D
6 D 31 B 56 B 81 A
7 B 32 A 57 D 82 C
8 B 33 A 58 A 83 C
9 C 34 A 59 C 84 B
10 C 35 C 60 A 85 C
11 A 36 A 61 A 86 C
12 A 37 C 62 D 87 A
13 D 38 B 63 C 88 B
14 C 39 A 64 A 89 C
15 C 40 D 65 C 90 A
16 C 41 A 66 B 91 C
17 B 42 B 67 C 92 C
18 B 43 D 68 B 93 A
19 A 44 C 69 C 94 B
20 D 45 B 70 B 95 C
21 C 46 B 71 A 96 B
22 B 47 A 72 A 97 C
23 B 48 A 73 B 98 C
24 B 49 A 74 D 99 D
25 B 50 B 75 A 100 D
. Each question mark is equally one marks
. Negative marks 1/3


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TNC (Team Nursing Classes) 15

TNC (Team Nursing Classes)

Q 1-Pain of ovarian carcinoma is referred to

C) Anterior surface of thigh

D) Medial surface of thigh

D) Borderline ovarian tumor

Q 5-All are seen in gestational diabetes except

Q 6-Ideal contraceptive for lactating mothers

D) Progesterone only pills

Q 7-Which hormone is necessary for the positive pregnancy test?

Q 10- Oxytocin is a hormone produced by:

Q 11- At term amniotic fluid volume is

Q 12- What is the principal carbohydrate present in Amniotic fluid?

Q 13- Serious sign and symptoms of pre-eclampcia are

A) Sharp rise in blood pressure

C) Severe headache and visual disturbance

A) Prevent chronic rheumatic carditis

B) To arrest the progress of migratory arthritis

C) To destroy the infective organism and cure the disease

D) To prevent recurrence of rheumatic fever

Q 17- Early amniocentesis is done in which period of pregnancy

Q 18- Which of the following antihypertensives is not safe in pregnancy?

A) 6-12 weeks of pregnancy

D) 32-36 weeks of pregnancy

Q 21- Which of the following is a common side effect of vasopressin.

D) None of the above

Q 24. Which of the following is not recommended as a gastric antacid.

Q 25. What is the drug of choice for angina pectoris.

Q 27. What is the common side effect of anti-histamine?

D) Congestive heart failure.

Q 28. What is the first symptom of digoxin overdose

Q 29. Which drug is not suitable for hypovolemic shock?

Q 30. which drug is contraindicated in Raynaud’s disease

B) Calcium channel blocker

C) Angiotensin receptor blocker

D) All of the above.

Q 32. What is the drug of choice for managing Seizures?

Q 33. What is the dosage for epinephrine in cardiac arrest?

B) 0.1-1 mg IM of 1:10,000 sol

C) 0.3-1 mg IM of 1:10,000 sol

A) It slows down Heart rate

B) It increases Heart rate

C) It increases coronary blood flow

D) It initiates vasodilator effect

Q 36. Diphtheria is caused by

Q 37. Bacterial ribosomes are composed of

A). Protein and DNA

B) Protein and mRNA

C) Protein and rRNA

D) Protein and tRNA

Q 39. The order of stains in Gram-staining procedure is

A) Crystal violet, Iodine solution, Alcohol, Saffranine

B) Iodine solution, Crystal Violet, Saffranine, Alcohol

C) Alcohol, Crystal Violet, Iodine solution, Saffranine

Q 40. Virulent factor in pneumococcus is

Q 41 pH required for the growth of bacteria is

Q 42. Minimum growth temperature is

a. The growth of organisms at lowest temperature

b. The lowest temperature at which the microorganisms grow

c. The maximum temperature at which the growth is stable

Q 43. Growth curve does not include following phases of bacteria –

A). Decline phase

Q 44. Rabies virus is