MG6088 Software Project Management

MG6088 SOFTWARE PROJECT MANAGEMENT

Topic

Unit I MCQ Questions with Answers

Unit II MCQ Questions with Answers

Unit III MCQ Questions with Answers

Unit IV MCQ Questions with Answers

Unit V MCQ Questions with Answers

Additional All Unit MCQ Questions with Answers

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MG6088 Software Project Management
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

UNIT 1

1. Project managers have to assess the risks that may affect a project.
a) True
b) False

2. Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?

a) Specification delays
b) Product competition
c) Testing
d) Staff turnover

3. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as
a) Project Management
b) Manager life cycle
c) Project Management Life Cycle
d) All of the mentioned

4. A 66.6% risk is considered as

a) very low
b) low
c) moderate
d) high

5. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when computing
the costs of a software development project?
a) travel and training costs
b) hardware and software costs
c) effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)
d) all of the above

6. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for

a) team
b) project

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c) customers
d) project manager
7. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management of
a software system?
a) Internship management
b) Change management
c) Version management
d) System management

8. Identify the sub-process of process improvement

a) Process introduction
b) Process analysis
c) De-processification
d) Process distribution

9. An independent relationship must exist between the attribute that can be measured
and the external quality attribute.
a) True
b) False

10. In designing a system it is found that the cost of the system was Rs 1,50,000 and the
benefit is Rs 10,000 per month. The interest is 1% per month; the payback period
using the present value method is
a) 14 months
b) 17 months
c) 15 months
d) 20 months

11. Pick the indirect cost from the following

a) cost of new forms
b) cost of training analysts and users
c) cost of software to be brought
d) cost of fact gathering

12. A cost benefit analysis consists of

(i) finding the direct and indirect cost of developing, implementing and
running the system
(ii) finding out the tangible and intangible benefit of the
system (iii)finding the investment to be made in the system
(iv)finding the profit which will accrue from the system

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a) iii and iv
b) i and iv
c) ii and iii
d) i and ii

13. Goals should be agreeable to

a) top management
b) project leader
c) all concerned, both management and operational staff
d) programmers

14. A unique, planned, scheduled activity with one or more objectives referred as
a) Project
b) Job
c) Process
d) Task

15. The first stage of the software project is a which results in a

recommended course of action.
a) system driven project
b) software driven project
c) hardware driven project
d) objectives driven project

16. Which one is the result of an activity.

a) Software.
b) System.
c) Control.
d) Product

17. Project planning is an process.

a) continuous.
b) iterative.
c) time consuming.
d) Conventional

18. A project is a Endeavor.

A. Temporary B. Good
C. Bad D. None of them
19. Project creates Product or services.
A. Reusable B. Unique
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20. Which one is not a example of project?
a) Launching new Product
b) Developing a new product or service
c) marketing campaign for a new product
d) watching a movie
21. Effective software project management focuses on four P's which are
a) people, performance, payoff, product
b) people, product, performance, process
c) people, product, process, project
d) People ,process ,Payoff, Product
22. A project is considered successful when:
a) The product of the project has been manufactured.
b) The project sponsor announces the completion of the project.
c) The product of the project is turned over to the operations area to handle the
ongoing aspects of the project.
d) The project meets or exceeds the expectations of the stakeholders.
23. Which of these software characteristics are used to determine the scope of a
software project?
a) context, lines of code, function
b) context, function, communication requirements
c) information objectives, function, performance
d) communications requirements, performance, information objectives
24. Which of the following brings together a set of tools and techniques used to describe,
organize, and monitor the work of project activities?
a) Project managers B. Guide to the PMBOK
C. Project management D. Stakeholders

25. What are the triple constraints?

a) Time, schedules, and quality B. Time, availability, and quality
C. Time, money, and schedules D. Time, money, and quality

26. Projects have predetermined

a) Time Span B. Budget
C. none of them D. Both A and B
27. Feasibility is carried out in
a) Initiation phase B. Definition Phase
C. Design phase D. Development phase
28. Which of the following principles of project management defines and controls the
functions that are to be included in the system?
a) Project Quality Management B. Project Cost management
C. Project time Management D. Project Scope Management

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29. Which of the following are Project Management processes?
a) Planning and develop processes
b) Analyzing and evaluate processes
c) Planning and executing processes
d) None of them
30. Your project statement tells you what must be done, how it must be
done.
a) assumption B. resource
C. scope D. constraint and objectives or specifications to be met

UNIT II
1) ___________ is a method of splitting of software development work into distinct phases (or
stages) containing activities with the intent of better planning and management.
a) software development methodology
b) artifacts
c) process
d) phase
2) The software development methodology may include the predefinition of _____ and ____ that
are created.
a)model, process
b)deliverables,artifacts
c)planning,management
3) ______, ______ and ______ are the three basic approaches applied to software development
methodology frameworks.
a) Framework, process,planning
b) Prototyping,waterfall,spiral
c) Methodology, framework,management
4) Each of the methodology frameworks are best suited to specific kinds of projects, based on
technical, organizational, project and team considerations.
a) Process,cost,benefit
b) Selecting,implementing,monitoring
c) Technical,organizational,project
5) Software development organizations implement --------- to ease the process of development.
a) Cost-benefit analysis
b) Process methodologies
c) Framework planning
6) The international standard for describing the method of selecting, implementing and monitoring
the life cycle for software is ---------------.
a) ISO/IEC 12207
b) ISO/IEC 12307
c) ISO/IEC 12107

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7) Large numbers of software projects do not meet their expectations in terms of ------, -------, or -----
-- schedule.
a) functionality, cost, delivery
b) cost,benefit,planning
c) framework, management, methodology
8) Organizations may create a _________, which is the focal point for process improvement.
a) Software Engineering Process Group (SEPG)
b) Plan
c) Model
9) A major part of the _________ will be the choosing of the development methods to be used and
the slotting of these into an overall process model.
a) Planning
b) Framework
c) Model
10) --------------- is a general term used to refer to alternatives to the conventional waterfall model of
software development.
a) Rapid application development (RAD)
b) Waterfall model
c) Framework model
11) RAD approaches to software development put less emphasis on ………… and more emphasis on
…………..
a) Planning, process.
b) Process,planning
c) Framework,model
12) RAD approaches emphasize ________ in response to knowledge gained as the project progresses.
a) adaptability
b) scalability
c) reliability
13) Graphical user interface builders are often called __________ tools.
a) rapid application development
b) process development
c) framework development

14) The James Martin approach to RAD divides the process into four distinct phases such as _____,
_____,_____ and _____
a) Requirements planning, User design, Construction, Cutover
b) Process,planning,framework,model
c) Cost,benefit,planning,analysis
15) _______ phasecombines elements of the system planning and systems analysis phases of the
Systems Development Life Cycle (SDLC).
a) Requirements planning
b) User design
c) Construction
d) Cutover

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16) The RAD groups or subgroups typically use a combination of _____ techniques and ______ to
translate user needs into working models.
a) Joint Application Development, CASE tools
b) Cost,benefit
c) Process,model
d) Framework,process
17) ________ is a continuous interactive process that allows users to understand, modify, and
eventually approve a working model of the system that meets their needs.
a) User Design
b) Adaptability
c) Feasibility
d) Scalability
18) ________ phase focuses on program and application development task similar to the SDLC.
a) Construction
b) User Design
c) Requirement
d) Analysis
19) ______ is an advantage of RAD model
a) Risk control
b) Adaptability
c) Scalability
d) Feasibility
20) The _______ model emphasizes on the fact that entire team should be a tightly integrated unit.
a) Agile
b) Process
c) Project
d) Framework
21) Deliveries are short-term and these are usually a delivery cycle ranges from one week to four
weeks. These are commonly known as _____
a) Sprints
b) Frameworks
c) Processes
d) Models
22) Agile Project Management does not _____
a) Enhance the tool and practices used in the development process
b) Facilitate and encourage effective and open communication within the team.
c) hold agile meetings that discusses the short-term plans and plans to overcome obstacles.
d) involve in technical decision making or deriving the product strategy.
23) _____________is a software development methodology which is intended to improve software
quality and responsiveness to changing customer requirements.
a) Extreme programming (XP)
b) Waterfall model
c) Spiral model

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24) _________ are the elements of extreme programming
a) extensive code review
b) unit testing of all code
c) flat management structure
d) all of these
25) _____ is the process of finding an estimate, or approximation, which is a value that can be used
for some purpose even if input data may be incomplete, uncertain, or unstable.
a) Estimation
b) Planning
c) Framework
d) Programming
26) Estimation is based on
a) Past Data/Past Experience
b) Available Documents/Knowledge
c) Assumptions
d) All of these
27) The Project Estimation Approach that is widely used is_________
a) Decomposition Technique
b) Waterfall model
c) Spiral model
28) Important factors that affect the accuracy of estimates are_________
a) input data
b) estimate calculation
c) predictability
d) all of these
29) Guidelines in estimating a project include _________
a) Include management time in any estimate.
b) Always build in contingency for problem solving
c) Allow enough time to do a proper project estimate.
d) All of these
30) _________, __________ and ____________ are the three function point counts.
a) Development, Application, Enhancement
b) Waterfall,spiral,process
c) Framework,planning,cost
31) _________ and ______ are the types of data function
a) Internal Logical File, External Interface File
b) Process, Data
c) Framework, Model
32) ______________ is an Elementary Process that sends data or control information outside the
application’s boundary.
a) External Output (EO)
b) Dataflow
c) Process Framework

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33) The ___________ method is an internationally standardized software sizing method.
a) COSMIC
b) Waterfall
c) Spiral
34) ______, _________ and __________ are performed in a stepwise manner by breaking down a
Project into major Functions or related Software Engineering Activities.
a) Size, Effort ,Cost estimation
b) Framework, process,planning
c) Cost,benefit,process analysis
35) _________ can provide a historical perspective and valuable input for generation of quantitative
estimates.
a) Analysis
b) Requirement
c) Project metrics

UNIT III
1. A combination of interrelated activities and events depicted with arcs and nodes is known as
a) Listing
b) Node sorting
c) Team management
d) Network
2. Networks usually indicate activity precedence constructed from
a) Left to right
b) Right to left
c) Bottom to up
d) Up to bottom

3. PMIS stands for

a) Project Management Information System
b) Project Management Integrated System
c) Project Management Inline System
d) Project Management Input System
4. An activity that can be conducted at a normal pace or at an expedited pace, known as
a) Delinking
b) Coupling
c) Crashing
d) Event

5. The amount of resources of each kind that are to be assigned to a specific activity in a certain time
period is
a) Resource leveling
b) Resource prioritizing
c) Resource loading
d) Resource generation
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6. Deciding how to approach and plan the risk management activities for a project is known as
a) Risk identification
b) Risk analysis
c) Risk management planning
d) Risk response

7. Risk management is one of the most important jobs for a

a) Client
b) Investor
c) Production team
d) Project manager

8. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as expected?
a) Product risk
b) Project risk
c) Business risk
d) Programming risk

9. Which of the following strategies means that the impact of the risk will be reduced?
a) Avoidance strategies
b) Minimization strategies
c) Contingency plans
d) All of the mentioned

10. Risk management is now recognized as one of the most important project management tasks.
a) True
b) False

11. Which of the following is not one of the guiding principles of software project scheduling
a) Compartmentalization
b) Market assessment
c) Time allocation
d) Effort validation
12. The software equation can be used to show that by extending the project deadline slightly
a) Fewer people are required
b) You are guaranteed to meet the deadline
c) More lines of code can be produced
d) None of the above
13. The 40-20-40 rule suggests that the least of amount of development effort be spent on
a) Estimation and planning
b) Analysis and design
c) Coding
d) Testing

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14. A task is a collection of
a) Engineering work tasks,milestones,deliverables
b) Task assignments,cost estimates, metrics
c) Milestones, deliverables, metrics
d) Responsibilities , milestones ,documents
15. Tasks that lie on the critical path in a task network may be completed in any order as long as the
project is on the schedule
a) True
b) False
16. Two tools for computing critical path and project completion times from activity networks are
a) CPM,DRE
b) CPM,PERT
c) CPM,FP
d) FP,PERT

17. Which of the following is the reason that software is delivered late?
a) Changing customer requirements that are not reflected in schedule changes
b) Technical difficulties that could not have been foreseen in advance
c) Human difficulties that could not have been foreseen in advance
d) All of the mentioned

18. Which of the following is an activity that distributes estimated effort across the planned project
duration by allocating the effort to specific software engineering tasks?
a) Software Macroscopic schedule
b) Software Project scheduling
c) Software Detailed schedule
d) None of the mentioned

19. What is a collection of software engineering work tasks, milestones, and deliverables that must be
accomplished to complete a particular project?
a) Task set
b) Degree of milestone
c) Adaptation criteria
d) All of the mentioned

20. Ensuring that no more than the allocated number of people are allocated at any given time in
Software Scheduling is known as
a) Time Allocation
b) Effort Validation
c) Defined Milestone
d) Effort Distribution

21. What is used to determine the recommended degree of rigor with which the software process should
be applied on a project?
a) Degree of Rigor
b) Adaptation criteria

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c) Task Set
d) Both degree of Rigor and adaptation criteria

22. What evaluates the risk associated with the technology to be implemented as part of project scope?
a) Concept scoping
b) Preliminary concept planning
c) Technology risk assessment
d) Customer reaction to the concept

23. Which of the following is a project scheduling method that can be applied to software development?
a) PERT
b) CPM
c) CMM
d) Both PERT and CPM

24. What is the recommended distribution of effort for a project?

a) 40-20-40
b) 50-20-30
c) 30-40-30
d) 50-30-20

25. A project usually has a timeline chart which was developed by

a) Henry Gantt
b) Barry Boehm
c) Ivar Jacabson
d) None of the mentioned

26. What assess the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when you learn more about
the risk?
a) Risk monitoring
b) Risk planning
c) Risk analysis
d) Risk identification

27. Which of the following risks are derived from the organizational environment where the software is
being developed?
a) People risks
b) Technology risks
c) Estimation risks
d) Organizational risks

28. Which of the option is not a notable challenge while scheduling a project?
A) Deadlines exist.
B) Independent activities.
C) Too many workers may be required.
D) Costly delay
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29. PERT analysis is based on

A. Optimistic time
B. Pessimistic time
C. Most likely time
D. All the above.

30. The particular task performance in CPM is known

A. Dummy
B. Event
C. Activity
D. Contract.
31. The earliest start time rule
A) Compares the activities starting time for an activity successor.
B) Compares the activities end time for an activity predecessor.
C) Directs when a project can start.
D) Regulates when a project must begin.

32. The critical path

A) Is a path that operates from the starting node to the end node
B) Is a mixture of all paths.
C) Is the longest path
D) Is the shortest path

33. While scheduling a project by CPM

A. A project is divided into various activities
B. Required time for each activity is established
C. A sequence of various activities is made according to their importance
D. All the above.

34. The project manager meets with the project team to review lessons learned from previous projects. In
what activity is the team involved?
A) Performance management
B) Scope identification
C) Risk identification
D) Project team status meeting

35. All of the following are ALWAYS inputs to the risk management process EXCEPT:
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A) Historical information
B) Lessons learned
C)Work breakdown structure
D)Project status reports

36. Risk tolerance is determined in order to help:

a) The team ranks the project risks.

b) The project manager estimates the project.
c) The team schedules the project.
d) Management knows how other managers will act on the project.

37. During which risk management process is a determination to transfer a risk made?

a) Identify Risks
b) Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
c) Plan Risk Response
d) Monitor and Control Risks
38. If a risk has a 20 percent chance of happening in a given month, and the project is expected to last five
months, what is the probability that the risk event will occur during the fourth month of the project?

a) Less than 1 percent

b) 20 percent
c) 60 percent
d) 80 percent
39.A 66.6% risk is considered as
a) very low
b) low
c) moderate
d) high

40. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when computing the costs of a
software development project?
a) travel and training costs
b) hardware and software costs
c) effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)
d) All of the mentioned

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UNIT IV
1.Which of the following is example of multi-variable cost estimation model?
A.COCOMO
B.intermediate COCOMO
C.both
D.None

2.Which of the following technique overcomes the drawbacks of expert judgement technique?
A.Heuristic technique
B.Delphi cost esttimation
C.Basis COCOMO
D.only a & b

3.Resource allocation is done using

A.PERT chart
B.Gantt chart
C.UML
D.pi-chart

4.Which chart representation is suitable for project monitoring and control?

A.PERT chart
B.Gantt chart
C.THETA chart
D.All of the above

5.This technique decompose a given task set recursively into small activities?
A.Sotware Configuration Management
B.Configuration indentification
C.Work breakdown Structure
D.both a & c

6. The ways in Which a software development organisation can be structured.

A.functional formation
B.project format
C.both
D.None

7. Which of the following activity is undertaken immediately after feasibility study and before the
requirement analysis and specification phase?
A.Project Planning
B.Project Monitoring
C.Project Control
D.Project Scheduling

8.In the project planning, which of the following is considered as the most basic parameter based
on which all other estimates are made?
A.project size
B.project effort
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C.project duration
D.project schedule

9. To define all project tasks, build a network that depicts their ________________
A. Interdependencies B. Arrangement
C. Position D. Work

10. Software project scheduling is an activity that distributes ________________ across the
planned project duration.
A. Resource B. Time
C. Estimated effort D. Money

11. UCP means __________________

A. You case points
B. use case preference
C. use case perfect
D. Use Case Points

12. A task network, also called an activity network, is a _________________ of the task flow for a
project.
A. Slide Presentation B. Video
C. graphic representation D. Drawing

13. Full form of WBS is

A. With both system
B. work breakdown structure
C. Without break structure
D. Work bound system

14. Road map for a software project manager.

A. Project Cost
B. Project Resources
C. Project Schedule
D. Project Distribution

15.Which of the following serves as metrics for project size estimation?

A.Lines of codes
B.function point
C.Number of persons
D.Only A & B

16. ________ combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration
objects that are created during the software process.
a. Configuration status reporting.
b. Change control
c. Version control
d. None of the above

17. What is the main aim of Software Configuration Management (SCM)?

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a. Identify change
b. Control change
c. Ensure that change is being properly implemented
d. All of the above

18. What is the name of process which will ensure that different versions of system and its
components are recorded and maintained?
a. workspace
b. code control
c. versions
d. Configuration Control

19. Which of the following tasks is not part of Software Configuration Management (SCM)?
a. Change control
b. Version control
c. Configuration status reporting
d. None of the above

20. To pass an Exam, a candidate has to score minimum of 50 marks in order to clear the exam.
The maximum that he can score is 100 marks. Identify the Valid Equivalence values if the student
passes the exam.
a. 50, 58, 75
b. 49, 50, 51
c. 52, 60, 99
d. 0, 15, 50

21. Which of the following values for age are in the same Equivalence Partition?
- If you are less than 18, you are too young to be registered for program.
- Between 18 and 50 inclusive, you will receive a 20% discount.
- Anyone over 50 is not eligible for a discount.

a. 17, 18, 19
b. 51, 52, 53
c. 18, 49, 50
d. 17, 49, 51

22. Which of the following is / are the output of the Software Process?
a. Computer programs
b. Documents that describe the computer programs.
c. Data (contained within the program or external to it).
d. All of the above

23. Which of the following is / are Software Configuration items?

a. Software Requirements
b. Design Specification
c. Source Code
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d. All of the above

24. Which of the following is / are types of Software Maintenance?

a. Corrective
b. Adaptive
c. Perfective
d. All of the above

25. As the reliability increases, failure intensity _____.

a. Decreases
b. Increases
c. No effect
d. None of the above

26. _______ combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration
objects that are created during the software process.

a. Configuration status reporting.

b. Change control
c. Version control
d. None of the above

27. _______ is a Software Configuration Management concept that helps us to control

change.

a. Baseline
b. Procedure
c. Audit
d. None of the above

28. What is the name of process which will ensure that different versions of system and its
components are recorded and maintained?

a. workspace
b. code control
c. versions
d. Configuration Control

29. Which of the following tasks is not part of Software Configuration Management (SCM)?
a. Change control
b. Version control
c. Configuration status reporting
d. None of the above

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30. If the Earned Value is equal to Actual Cost, it means

a. Schedule Variance Index is 1

b.There is no schedule variance
c.There is no cost variance
d. Project is on budget and on schedule

31. Identify the sub-process of process improvement

a. Process distribution
b. De-processification
c. Process introduction
d. Process analysis

32. Which of the following types of Organizational Charts can be BEST used to track project
costs:
a. Hierarchical type Organizational Chart
b. Organizational Breakdown Structure
c. Resource Breakdown Structure
d. Responsibility Assignment Matrix

33. What kind of quality cost is incurred when an error is detected in a product prior to shipment?
a. Internal Failure
b. Prevention
c. Appraisal
d. External Failure

34. Ensuring that no more than the allocated number of people are allocated at any given time in
Software Scheduling is known as
a. Time Allocation
b. Defined Milestone
c. Effort Validation
d. Effort Distribution

35. Which of the following is not an effective software project management focus?
a. popularity
b. process
c. product
d. people

36. Which of the following is not Software project management goal?

a. Avoiding customer complaints
b. Keeping overall costs within budget
c. Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team
d. Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time

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37. David’s project metrics says that his project has SPI of .83 and CPI of 1.3. How can David’s
Project status BEST described?
a. Project is behind schedule and over budget
b. Project is behind schedule and under budget
c. Project is ahead of schedule and over budget
d. Project is ahead of schedule and under budget

38. A new project manager in your company is asked to make a report for a project where the
work is performed at the budgeted rate. He asks for your help and provide these values to you
BAC = $ 35,000, Earned value (EV) = $25,000, planned value (PV) = $24,000 and actual cost
(AC) = $ 28,000. What is the value of Estimate At Completion (EAC) ?
a. $ 38,000
b. $ 24,000
c. $ 37,000
d. $ 36,000

39. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management?
a. Version management
b. Change management
c. Internship management
d. System management

40. If the budget at completion is £19,000 and CPI is 1.86 what is Estimate at Completion EAC
a. £13500
b. £12,400
c. £13000
d. £10,215

UNIT V
3 intrinsic motivation refers to
(a)interest or enjoyment in the task itself
(b)Create a jobholderprofile
(c)ExamineCVsInterviews
(d)Valence Expectancy

4. What are the two factors about a job?

(a)Skill variety
(b)Task Significance
(c)Motivators Hygiene
(d)Task Identity

5 What are the three variables introduced by Vroom?

(a)Set specific goals Provide
(b)feedback
(c) Consider job design
(d)Valence Expectancy

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6 What are the factors that made the job meaningful?
(a) Intrinsic motivation
(b) Extrinsic motivation
(c) Skill Variety and Task Identity
(d)hygiene

7 Define Stress.
(a)psychological demands on a person such that an unusual
(b) out-of-the-ordinary response occurs.
(c) The circumstance – the stressor- can be a final exam, a financial problem, or a difficult
boss.
(d) all of the above

8.What are the two measures used to enhance job design?

a)Set specific
(b)Jobenlargement and job enrichment
(c)feedback
(d)Consider job design

9.What are stages to become a team?

(a)Forming Storming Norming Performing Adjourning
(b)Set specific goals
(c) Provide feedback
(d)Consider job design

10.Define risky shift.

(a)People in groups often make decisions
(b)People in groups often not make decisions
(c) People make decisions
(d)People not make decisions

11.Define leadership.
(a)Leadership is the ability to influence others
(b)Leadership is the ability not to influence other
(c )Leadership is the ability to order other
(d)Leadership is the ability not to order other

12.What is masslow’s hierarchy needs?

(a) used for achieving organization objectives
(b used for achieving their own objectives
(c) used for achieving management objectives
(d) used for achieving worker objectives

13.what is the other name for organizational stress.

(a)white-collar stressors

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(b)worker’s collar stressors.
(c )blue-collar stressors
(d)black-collar stressors

14.Role conflict-occurs when role demands areinconflict

(a)Intra sender conflict
(b)Intra senderconflict,IntersenderConflict,Inter role conflict
(c) Inter role conflict
(d)Intrasender conflict and inter role conflict

15.The most common organizational stressors are failure.

(a)in role sending

(b)in role sending
(c) in role-sending and role-taking
(d)sending and taking

16.What are the factors to be considered in the Oldham-Hackman job characteristic

model?
(a)skill variety and Task Variety
(b)Task Variety
( c) skill variety
(d)work variety

17.what is Skill variety

(a)2 (or) 3 of the offerings available
(b)1 (or) 3 of the offerings available
(c)1 (or) 2 of the offerings available
(d)1 (or) more of the offerings available

18. What is start-to-start relationship (SS)?

(a)It means that two activity can start if and only another activity starts
(b)It means that three activity can start if and only another activity starts
(c) It means that one activity can start if and only another activity starts
(d)It means that four activity can start if and only another activity starts

19.what are the uses of Nominal group techniques?

(a)Creative decision making
(b)Ideas generating situation
(c) Problem solving
(d)All the above

20.Define Acceptance.
(a)to demonstrate that the expected quality has not achieved.
(b)to demonstrate that the expected quality has not been achieved.
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( c)to demonstrate that the expected quantity has been achieved.
( d)to demonstrate that the expected quantity has been not achieved.

21.Write down four selection criteria for SCM tools.

(a)Multi user support ,Scalability,Easyto setup ,Processmanagement
(b)Creative, decision making,Problem solving ,Scalability
(c) decision making,Problem solving ,Scalability,Creative
(d) Intra sender conflict ,Intra senderconflict,Interroleconflict,Intra role
conflict.

22.What is Herzberg’s two factor theory.

(a)customers and suppliers
(b)Hygiene or maintenance factors ,Motivators
(c) satisfaction and quality
(d)reliability and scalability

23.Write the basic objectives of organizational structure .

(a)Functional
(b),Projected,
(c) Matrix
(d)All of the above

24.What do you understand by virtual team?

(a) group of individuals work across time and space.
(b)group of team work
(c )group of individuals work
(d)group of team and individuals work

25.Mention the important causes of stress encountered in projects.

(a)Unrealistic timeline
(b)Lack of resources – human and/orequipment
(c) Proliferation of virtual teams and cross culturalinfluences
(d)All of the above

26.Motivation is the word derived from the

(a)word ’motive’
(b)word ‘needs’,
(c) word ‘desires’,
(d)All of the above

27.In the work goal context the psychological factors stimulating the people’s behaviour can be
-
(a)desire formoney
(b)success
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(c) recognition
(d)All of the above

28.Risk mitigation strategies

(a) risk avoidance

(b) risk factor
(c) risk level
(d) risk strategie

29.Mention the methods of improving motivation.

(a)Set specific tasks, provide feedback,don’t consider job design
(b)Set specific tasks, provide feedback, and consider job design
(c) Set specific tasks,don’t provide feedback, and consider job design
(e) provide feedback, and consider job design

30.Mention some mental obstacles to good decision making.

(a)behavior, 
b sunk cost, risk propensity,
(c )behavior, sunk cost, risk propensity, risk perception,
d)behavior, sunk cost, risk propensity

31.what are the measures to reduce the disadvantage of group Decision making?
(a)The cooperation of a number of experts
(b) The problem is presented to the experts.
(c) The experts record their recommendations.
(d)All of the above

32.What are the functions of leader?

(a)Goal-setter
b)team leader
(c )team coordinator
(d)team head

33.Which is not leadership styles?

(a)Directive autocrat
(b)directive democrat
(c) Management Styles Permissive Democrat
(d)team leader

34.List out the five process of Project Management Institute

(a)Initiating Scheduling Executing Controlling Closing
(b)Initiating Planning Executing Composing Closing
(c)Initiating Planning Executing Controlling Closing
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(d))Initiating Planning Executing Controlling Catching

35.Where is bespoke system is used.

(a)United Kingdom
(b)United nation
(c )United States of America
(d)United world

36.In the U.S., bespokesoftware

(a) is often called Supplier custom-designed software.
(b)is often called customer custom-designed software.
(c) is often called customer designed software.
(d)is often called customer custom-delivered software.

37.List out the categories of decisions.

(a)Planning Control Maintenance
b)Planning Control Mitigate
cPlanning Cancel Maintenance
dPushing Control Maintenance

Select the five basic stages of development.
(a)Defining the product Documenting plan
(b)Defining the product Documenting plan Estimating cost Estimating effort
(c)Defining the product Estimating effort
(d)Defining the product

39.Which is not the stages of team formation model.

(a)Forming-
(b) Asset Management
(c) performing
(d) maintaining

40.List out the methods for improving motivation.

(a)Set specific tasks
(b)provide feedback
(C)Consider job design
(d)all of the above


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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

31. Which of the following is not project management goal?
a) Keeping overall costs within budget
b) Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time
c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team
d) Avoiding customer complaints

32. Which of the following risks are derived from the organizational environment
where the software is being developed?
a) People risks
b) Technology risks
c) Estimation risks
d) Organizational risks

33. Which of the following strategies means that the impact of the risk will be reduced?
a) Avoidance strategies
b) Minimization strategies
c) Contingency plans
d) All of the mentioned

34. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: ―There will be a
change of organizational management with different priorities.‖?
a) Staff turnover
b) Technology change
c) Management change
d) Product competition

35. What assess the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when you
learn more about the risk?
a) Risk monitoring
b) Risk planning
c) Risk analysis
d) Risk identification

36. In what order do managers typically perform the managerial functions?

a) organising, planning, controlling, leading

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b) organising, leading, planning, controlling
c) planning, organising, leading, controlling
d) planning, organising, controlling, leading

37. Management exists at the level of the organization.

a) Lower
b) Middle
c) Top
d) All of the above

38. Positive motivation makes people willing to do their work in the best way they can
and improve their.
a) Productivity
b) Personality
c) Performance
d) All of the above
39. Return on investment(ROI) is calculated by
a) (Average Annual Profit*total investment)/100
b) (Average annual profit*100)/total investment
c) (100*Total investment)/Average annual profit
d) (1000*Total investment)/Average annual profit

40. In the abbrevation of SMART what does the letter M stands for
a) Marketing
b) Measurable
c) Milestone
d) Management

41. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for

a) team
b) project
c) customers
d) project manager

42. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as
a) Project Management
b) Manager life cycle
c) Project Management Life Cycle
d) All of the mentioned

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43. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management of
a software system?
a) Internship management
b) Change management
c) Version management
d) System management

44. The rapid application development model is

a) Another name for component-based development.
b) A useful approach when a customer cannot define requirements clearly.
c) A high speed adaption of the linear sequential model.
d) All of the above.

45. The waterfall model of software development is

a) A good approach when a working program is required quickly.
b) The best approach to use for projects with large development teams.
c) An old fashioned model that is rarely used any more.
d) A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined.

46. The incremental model of software development is

a) A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined.
b) A good approach when a working core product is required quickly.
c) The best approach to use for projects with large development teams.
d) A revolutionary model that is not used for commercial products.

47. Evolutionary software process models

a) Are iterative in nature.
b) Can easily accommodate product requirements change
c) Do not generally produce throwaway systems.
d) All of the above.

48. Which of the following traits need to exist among the members of an agile software team?
a) Competence
b) Decision-making ability
c) Mutual trust and respect
d) All of the above

49. The prototyping model of software development is

a) A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined.
b) A useful approach when a customer cannot define requirements clearly.
c) The best approach to use for projects with large development teams.
d) A risky model that rarely produces a meaningful product.
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50. The spiral model of software development

a) Ends with the delivery of the software product.
b) Is more chaotic than the incremental model.
c) Includes project risks evaluation during each iteration.
d) All of the above

51. The formal methods model of software development makes use of mathematical
methods to
a) Define the specification for computer-based systems.
b) Develop defect free computer-based systems.
c) Verify the correctness of computer-based systems.
d) All of the above.

52. The component-based development model is

a) Only appropriate for computer hardware design
b) Not able to support the development of reusable components.
c) Dependent on object technologies for support.
d) Not cost effective by known quantifiable software metrics

53. Agile modeling (AM) provides guidance to practitioner during which of these
software tasks?
a) Analysis and Design
b) Design and Coding
c) Coding and Testing
d) Testing and Maintenance

54. Which of the following is not necessary to apply agility to a software process?
a) Eliminate the use of project planning and testing
b) Only essential work products are produced
c) Process allows team to streamline tasks
d) Uses incremental product delivery strategy

55. What are the four framework activities found in the Extremen Programming (XP)
process model?
a) Analysis, design, coding, testing
b) Planning, analysis, design, coding
c) Planning, analysis, coding, testing
d) Planning, design, coding, testing

56. Which is not one of the key questions that is answered by each member at each
daily Scrum meeting?
a) What did you do since the last meeting?
b) What obstacles are you creating?
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c) What is the cause of the problem you are encountering?
d) What do you plan to accomplish be the next team meeting?

57. Which of the following is delivered at the end of the Sprint?

a) A document containing test cases for the current sprint
b) An architectural design of the solution
c) An increment of Done software
d) Wireframes designed for User interface

58. When is a Sprint Retrospective ceremony performed?

a) At the end of each sprint
b) Whenever needed
c) Whenever the Scrum master suggests
d) Whenever the team suggests

59. When can a Sprint be cancelled?

a) Sprint can never be cancelled
b) Whenever the product owner says
c) When development is unable to complete the work
d) The sprint items are no longer needed

60. What is a sprint review?

a) Activity to Introspect and Adapt
b) Activity to improve Scrum process
c) Activity to seek approval for the work done
d) Activity to plan for the release

61. The objective of software project planning is to

a) Convince the customer that a project is feasible
b) Make use of historical project data
c) Enable a manager to make reasonable estimates of cost and schedule.
d) Determine the profitable profit margin prior to bidding on a project.

62. Software feasibility is based on which of the following

a) Business and marketing concerns
b) Scope, constraints, market
c) Technology, finance, time, resources
d) Technical prowess of the developers

63. Problem based estimation is based on problem decomposition which focuses on

a) Process activities
b) Information domain values and software functions
c) Project schedule
d) Software functions
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64. LOC-based estimation techniques require problem decomposition based on

a) Information domain values
b) Project schedule
c) Software functions
d) Process activities

65. FP-based estimation techniques require problem decomposition based on

a) Information domain values
b) Project schedule
c) Software functions
d) Process activities

66. Process-based estimation techniques require problem decomposition based on

a) Information domain values
b) Project schedule
c) Software functions
d) Software functions and process activities

67. In which estimation software size should be known?

a) Time estimation
b) Effort estimation
c) Cost estimation
d) Software size estimation

68. Empirical estimation models are typically based on

a) Expert judgement based on past project experiences
b) Refinement of expected value estimation
c) Regression models derived from historical project data.
d) Trial and error determination of the parameters and coefficients

69. Which of the following is/ are main parameters that you should use when computing
the costs of a software development project?
a) Travel and training costs
b) Hardware and software costs
c) Effort costs
d) All of the above

70. COCOMO stands for

a) Constructive cost model
b) Comprehensive cost model
c) Constructive cost estimation model
d) Complete cost estimation model

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71. COCOMO was developed initially by
a) B.Beizer
b) Rajiv Gupta
c) B.W.Bohem
d) Gregg Rothermal

72. COCOMO II is an example of a suite of modern empirical estimation models that

require sizing information expressed as
a) Function points
b) Lines of code
c) Object points
d) Any of the above

73. Which one is not a stage of COCOMO II?

a) Early design estimation model
b) Application composition estimation model
c) Comprehensive cost estimation model
d) Post architecture estimation model

74. Resources refers to

a) Manpower
b) Machinery
c) Materials
d) All of the above

75. Which of the following is not an approach to identify the activities that make up a project
a) The activity-based approach,
b) The product-based approach
c) The non- hybrid approach.
d) The process-based approach

76. PERT analysis is based on

a) optimistic time
b) pessimistic time
c) most likely time
d) all the above.

77. Which of the option is not a notable challenge while scheduling a project?
a) Deadlines exist.
b) Independent activities.
c) Too many workers may be required.
d) Costly delay

78. The particular task performance in CPM is known

a) Dummy

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b) Event
c) Activity
d) Contract.

79. The earliest start time rule

a) Compares the activities starting time for an activity successor.
b) Compares the activities end time for an activity predecessor.
c) Directs when a project can start.
d) Regulates when a project must begin.

80. The critical path

a) Is a path that operates from the starting node to the end node
b) Is a mixture of all paths.
c) Is the longest path
d) Is the shortest path

81. Activities A, B, and C are the immediate predecessors for Y activity. If the earliest finish
times for the three activities are 12, 15, and 10, then the earliest start time for Y will be
a) 10
b) 15
c) 12
d) Cannot be determined

82. Activities P, Q and R instantly follow activity M, and their current start times are 12, 19,
and 10. Therefore, the latest finish time for activity M is
a) 11
b) 10
c) 18
d) Cannot be determined

83. Completion of a CPM network diagram activity is commonly known

a) Connector
b) Event
c) Node
d) All the above.

84. While scheduling a project by C.P.M.

a) A project is divided into various activities
b) Required time for each activity is established
c) A sequence of various activities is made according to their importance
d) All the above.

85. A process of specifying the time for when each activity should take place
a) Scheduling
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b) Sequencing
c) Activity Plan
d) Project Plan

86. .The event of the project becoming completed refers

a) Sink node
b) Source node
c) Intermediate node
d) Main mode

87. The activities and inter relationship as a graph represents

a) Network Model
b) Bar Chart
c) Activity Model
d) Pie Chart

88. The difference between total float and free float is

a) Independent Float
b) Interfering Float
c) Network Float
d) Activity Float

89. The difference between the earliest date and latest date for an event is
a) Free Float
b) Total Float
c) Slack
d) Float

90. Activity-on-Arrow Networks are also called

a) Arrow Diagramming Method
b) Critical Path Method
c) Precedence Diagramming Method
d) Activity-on-node

91. Two types of networks diagrams are

a) AOA and AON
b) Arrow Diagramming Method and AoA
c) Precedence Diagramming Method and AoN
d) CPM and PERT

92. An event that might occur and will create a problem for the successful completion of
the project, if it does occur.
a) Risks
b) Project Failure
35
MG6088 Software Project
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d) Threat

93. WBS Stands for

a) Wide Breakdown System
b) Work Breakdown Structure
c) World Breakdown Structure
d) Work Breakdown System

94. Free float is a term in

a) Stock Loading
b) Stock Trading
c) Stock Holding
d) Stock Maintenance

95. PERT stands for

a) Process Elimination reforce Technique
b) Program Elimination Review Technique
c) Program Evaluation Review Technique
d) Program Estimation and Reporting Technique

96. The three different approaches to identifying the activities are

a) Activity,Product,Hybrid
b) Affair,Process,Hybrid
c) Task,Product,Hybrid
d) Project,Process,Hybrid

97. Five levels of WBS

a) Project,Deliverables,Components,Work,Tasks
b) Process,Plan,Compound,Project,Tasks
c) Process,Delay,Components,Stock,Work
d) Project,Deliverables,Stock,Work,Planning

98. To calculate the earliest dates

a) Forward Pass
b) Backward Pass
c) Start Method
d) Read Method

99. Risk Assessment formula

a) Potential Damage*Probablility of Occurrence
b) Probability*loss
c) Probability*gain
d) Damage*gain Probability
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100. .Free Float

a) Total float-Free Float
b) Total Float-Head Event Slack
c) Total Float-Stack
d) Slack-Float

101. .Dangle Activity is

a) Tight Activity
b) Loose Activity
c) Open Activity
d) Close Activity

102. Using feasibility analysis it is necessary to examine several alternative solutions because
(i) a comparison of alternatives will lead to a cost-effective solution
(ii) a pre-conceived single solution may turn out to be unimplementable
(iii)it is always good to examine alternatives
(iv) management normally looks at alternatives
a) i and iii
b) i and iv
c) i and ii
d) ii and iv

103. To crash a schedule you should:

a) Increase the time allowed on those tasks that have float.
b) Try to increase expenditures of time only those tasks that are behind schedule.
c) Replace those worker that are not performing up to par with the busy.
d) Increase work efforts on those tasks that are on the critical path.

104. Resource requirement in project becomes constant while the project is in

its progress stage.
a) 40 to 55%
b) 55 to 70%
c) 70 to 80%
d) 80 to 95%

105. Project managers have to assess the risks that may affect a project.
a) True
b) False

106. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when
computing the costs of a software development project?
a) travel and training costs
b) hardware and software costs
c) effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)
d) All of the mentioned
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107. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration
management of a software system?
a) Internship management
b) Change management
c) Version management
d) System management

108. Identify the sub-process of process improvement

a) Process introduction
b) Process analysis
c) De-processification
d) Process distribution

109. An independent relationship must exist between the attribute that can be
measured and the external quality attribute.
a) True
b) False

110. Cost Variance is which of the following equations?

a) CV=BCWP-BCWS
b) CV=BCWP-ACWP
c) CV=SV/BCWS
d) A and C

111. Which of the following is a direct project cost?

a) Lighting and heating for the corporate office
b) Workers Compensation insurance
c) Piping for an irrigation Project
d) A and B

112. The BCWS=$250,the ACWP=$350,and the BCWP=$200.Calculate the cost variance.

a) -$150
b) $150
c) -$50
d) $50

113. One of the types of cost estimation is order of Magnitude.This estimate:

a) is performed when detailed information is available
b) is used in the beginning of the project conceptualization.
c) Uses mostly information from past projects
d) is used in the ending of the project.

114. Internal costs include

a) Developers salaries
b) Managers and support personnel salaries
c) The cost of overheads such as utilities, rent and senior
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managers d)Materials (such as manuals) and services such as
travel
e) All of the above.

115. If a control switch is passed as an argument this is an example of coupling.

a) Content
b) Common
c) Control
d) Stamp
e) Data.
116. Which of these are valid software configuration items?
a) Case tools
b) Documentation
c) Executable programs
d) test data
e) All the Above

117. Which of the following is not considered one of the four important elements that
should exist when a configuration management system is developed?
a) Component elements
b) human elements
c) process elements
d) Validation elements

118. Which configuration objects would not typically be found in the project database?
a) design specification
b) marketing data
c) Organizational structure Description
d) test plans
e) b and c

119. A data repository meta model is used to determine how

a) information is stored in the respository
b) well data integrity can be maintained
c) easily the existing model can be extended
d) all the above

120. Which of the following task is not part of software configuration management?
a) Change control
b) reporting
c) Statistical quality control
d) Version control

121. Change management for web and mobile Apps is best handled in agile manner.
a) True
b) False

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122. Content management establishes a process which web content is rendered on the
user’s display screen
a) True
b) False

123. The primary purpose of configuration status reporting is to

a) allow revision of project schedule and cost estimates by project managers
b) make sure that change information is communicated to all affected parties
c) Both A and B
d) None of the Above
124. When software configuration management is a formal activity the
software configuration audit is conducted by the
a) Development team
b) Senior managers
c) testing Specialists
d) Quality assurance group

125. Change control is not necessary if a development group is making use of an

automated project database tool
a) True
b) False

126. The following costs are not part of the total effort cost
a) Costs of lunch time food
b) Costs of providing heating
c) Costs of networking
d) Costs of support

127. A is developed using historical cost information that relates some

software metric to the project cost.
a) Estimation by analogy
b) Parkinson’s Law
c) Algorithmic cost modeling
d) Expert judgement

128. Which of the following is a requirement management activity?

a) Construction and test
b) Design
c) Investigation
d) All of the mentioned

129. An estimation technique measure the size of the functionality to

be developed.
a) A.Analogy
b) B.Function point
c) C.WBS

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d) D.Floating Point

130. If Task A to complete,it takes 10 days of human effort.It started 5 days earlier to
the scheduled date and completed on 35th day.Then,the float value
a) A.20
b) B.25
c) C.10
d) D.15
131. Earned value Formula
a) percentage Pending*Total cost
b) Percentage Completed*Budget
c) Percentage Completed*Initial investment
d) Percentage Pending*Initial investment

132. Contract management is made with

a) Customer
b) Vendors
c) Partners
d) Employees
e) All the above

133. A unit of measurement to express the amount of business funactionality an

information system provides to a user
a) Functional Point
b) Control Point
c) Checkpoint
d) Cost trade

134. What are the concerns in Managing People in Software Environments?

a) Staff Selection
b) Staff Development
c) Staff Motivation
d) Well-being Staff during course of project
e) All the above

135. Which of the following is not included in Hackman and Oldham’s job characteristics model
of work motivation?
a) Variety of skill
b) Significance of the task
c) Quality of job life
d) Autonomy

136. Organisational behavior is

a) A science
b) An art
c) A science as well as an art
d) None of the above
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137. The field of organisational behaviour examines such questions as the nature of
leadership, effective team development, and
a) Interpersonal conflict resolution; motivation of individuals
b) Organisational control; conflict management
c) Motivation of individuals; planning
d) Planning; development
138. The field of organisational behavior is primarily concerned with
a) The behaviour of individual and groups.
b) How resources are effectively managed.
c) Control processes and interactions between organizations, external context.
d) Both a and c.

139. The study of organisation behaviour has certain basic assumptions. They are
a) An industrial enterprise is an organization of people.
b) These people must be motivated to work effectively.
c) The goals of the employee and the employer may not necessarily coincide.
d) All of the above.

140. Which of the following represents correct sequencing of historical developments

of Organizational Behaviour?
a) Industrial revolution —> Scientific management –> Human relations
movement –> OB
b) Industrial revolution —> Human relations movement —> Scientific management
–> OB
c) Scientific management —> Human relations movement –> Industrial revolution
–> OB
d) None of these.

141. Which of the following is not correct for the organisational behaviour?
a) Organisational behaviour is an integral part of management
b) Organisational behaviour is a disciplinary approach
c) Organisational behaviour helps in analysis of behavior
d) Organisational behaviour is goal-oriented

142. The is based on the environment. Though like thinking,

expectations and perception do exist, and they are not needed to manage or predict
behaviour.
a) Behaviouristic approach, Cognitive processes,
b) cognitive processes, behaviouristic approach
c) Social cognitive, behaviouristic approach
d) Cognitive processes, social cognitive

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143. Now a days a lot of stress is being put on the of the employee in
the organization
a) Character
b) improvement
c) Behaviour
d) Rewards
144. The purpose of job enrichment is to
a) expand the number of tasks an individual can do
b) increase job efficiency
c) increase job effectiveness
d) increase job satisfaction of middle management

145. Which of the following is not an example of Content Theory?

a) Maslow Theory
b) Herzberg’s Theory
c) Expectancy theory
d) Alderfer’s ERG theory

146. theory emphasis that, Unsatisfied need can influence the

behaviour satisfied one will not act as a motivator.
a) Maslow Theory
b) Herzberg’s Theory
c) Expectancy theory
d) Alderfer’s ERG theory

147. Among the following which is not a problem in changing the attitude of the employee
a) Insufficient Information
b) Resistant by employee
c) Cognitive Dissonance
d) Cognitive Dissonance

148. Motivation includes

a) job enrichment
b) Job rotation
c) Job enlargement
d) all of the above

149. The statement ―I don’t feel comfortable in crowd‖ is an example of

component of attitude.
a) Behavioral
b) Cognitive
c) Affective
d) Positive

150. The statement ―I am going to apologies for my mistake‖ is an example of

component of attitude.
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Management a) Behavioral
b) Cognitive
c) Affective
d) Positive
151. In which stage of the team development process does hostility and infighting occur?
a) storming
b) forming
c) norming
d) performing

152. What is the final stage of the team development process?

a) forming
b) storming
c) adjourning
d) performing

153. Which of the following best defines the type of rewards that are distributed
toindividuals for their unique contribution to the team?
a) functional team rewards
b) competitive team rewards
c) cooperative team rewards
d) non-competitive team rewards

154. Which of the following is not a type of team?

a) teams that recommend things
b) teams that organize things
c) teams that make or do things
d) teams that run things

155. What is the ideal size of a team in order for it to be productive and successful?
a) 2 to 4
b) 9 to 12
c) 5 to 8
d) 8 to 11

156. Which of the following best defines an organization where decision making authority is
at the top of the organization and employees have little freedom to make their own
decisions?
a) decentralized organization
b) centralized organization
c) virtual organization
d) functional organization

157. Which type of structure is also referred to as a team structure?

a) virtual structure
b) matrix structure
c) horizontal structure
d) staff structure
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Management
158. Which of the following best describes functions that are advisory and supportive in
nature; designed to contribute to the efficiency and maintenance of
theorganization?
a) line functions
b) organizational functions
c) matrix functions
d) staff functions

159. Organizations put maximum effort in measuring performance of organizational

people because;
a) It makes procedures cost effective
b) It helps in detecting the problems
c) It leads to product innovation
d) It assists in implementing new technology

160. The S in the acronym for SMART goals stands for

a) specific
b) straightforward
c) strategic
d) source

161. A problem(s) with management by objectives is (are) that it can:

a) Be time consuming.
b) Result in immeasurable objectives.
c) 1 and 2
d) None of the above.

162. On her work team Michelle develops detailed tasks lists and work flow charts to help
her team members understand the steps involved in each project. She also maintains
the project calendar and receives periodic updates from each team member to ensure
that projects are progressing on schedule. Which role does Michelle most likely fill on
her team?
a) assessor
b) organizer
c) maintainer
d) creator

163. Coasting on the group effort is termed .

a) inconsistency
b) incompetence
c) social loafing
d) dysfunction

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