IRRIGATION WATER RESOURCES period is 14 days.

The outlet factor for this

1. Which of the following methods of applying will be
water may be used on rolling land ? a) 637 hectares/m3/sec
a) boarder flooding b) 837 hectares/m3/sec
b) check flooding c) 972 hectares/m3/sec
c) furrow flooding d) 1172 hectares/m3/sec
d) free flooding Ans: a
Ans: a 8. For supplying water to rabi crop, kharif
2. The value of Sodium Absorption Ratio for crop and sugarcane, the channel is
high sodium water lies between designed for a capacity equal to the greater of
a) 0 to 10 the water requirement of
b) 10 to 18 a) rabi or kharif
c) 18 to 26 b) rabi and kharif or sugarcane
d) 26 to 34 c) rabi and sugarcane or kharif and sugarcane
Ans: c d) rabi or kharif or sugarcane
3. Optimum depth of kor watering for rice is Ans: c
a) 135 mm 9. The ratio of the quantity of water stored in
b) 165 mm the root zone of the crops to the
c) 190 mm quantity of water actually delivered in the
d) 215 mm field is known as
Ans: c a) water conveyance efficiency
4. Irrigation water having the concentration b) water application efficiency
of Na++ , Ca++ and Mg++ as 20, 3 and 1 c) water use efficiency
Milli equivalent per litre respectively will be d) none of the above
classified as Ans: b
a) low sodium water 10. The water utilizable by plants is available
b) medium sodium water in soils mainly in the form of
c) high sodium water a) gravity water
d) very high sodium water b) capillary water
Ans: b c) hydroscopic water
5. The duty is largest d) chemical water
a) at the head of water course Ans: b
b) on the field 11. The amount of irrigation water required
c) at the head of a main canal to meet the evapotranspiration needs of
d) same at all places the crop during its full growth is called
Ans: b a) effective rainfall
6. The “outlet discharge factor” is the duty at b) consumptive use
the head of c) consumptive irrigation requirement
a) main canal d) net irrigation requirement
b) branch canal Ans: c
c) watercourse 12. With the increase in the quantity of water
d) distributory supplied, the yield of most crops
Ans: c a) increases continuously
7. The kor depth for rice is 190 mm and kor b) decreases continuously
c) increases upto a certain limit and then d) more than infiltration capacity
becomes constant Ans: b
d) increases upto a certain limit and then 19. Cyclonic precipitation is caused by lifting
decreases of an air mass due to
Ans: d a) pressure difference
13. Hydrograph is the graphical b) temperature difference
representation of c) natural topographical barriers
a) runoff and time d) all of the above
b) surface runoff and time Ans: a
c) ground waterflow and time 20. Which of the following is a non-recording
d) rainfall and time raingauge ?
Ans: a a) tipping bucket type raingauge
14. Infiltration rate is always b) Simon’s raingauge
a) more than the infiltration capacity c) Steven’s weighing type raingauge
b) less than the infiltration capacity d) floating type raingauge
c) equal to or less than the infiltration capacity Ans: b
d) equal to or more than the infiltration capacity 21. A raingauge should preferably be fixed
Ans: c a) near the building
15. The depth of water required to bring the b) under the tree
soil moisture content of a given soil upto c) in an open space
its field capacity is called d) in a closed space
a) hygroscopic water Ans: c
b) equivalent moisture 22. Which of the following types of rain
c) soil moisture deficiency gauges is used for measuring rain in remote
d) pellicular water hilly inaccessible areas ?
Ans: c a) tipping bucket type
16. Infiltration capacity b) weighing type
a) is a constant factor c) floating type
b) changes with time d) Simon’s raingauge
c) changes with location Ans: a
d) changes with both time and location 23. Rate of evaporation from a water surface
Ans: d increases if
17. Infiltration is the i) difference of vapour pressure between water
a) movement of water through the soil and air is increased
b) absorption of water by soil surface ii) velocity of wind is decreased
c) both (a) and (b) iii) concentration of soluble solids in water is
d) none of the above decreased The correct answer is
Ans: a a) (i) and (ii)
18. If the intensity of rainfall is more than the b) (i) and (iii)
infiltration capacity of soil, then the c) (ii) and (iii)
infiltration rate will be d) (i). (ii) and (iii)
a) equal to rate of rainfall Ans: b
b) equal to infiltration capacity 24. A 70% index of wetness means
c) more than rate of rainfall a) rain excess of 30%
b) rain deficiency of 30% Ans: a
c) rain deficiency of 70% 30. The area between the isohyets 45 cm and
d) none of the above 55 cm is 100 square km and between 55
Ans: b cm and 65 cm is 150 square km. The average
25. Under the same conditions, which of the depth of annua! precipitation over the
following shapes of water surface will above basin of 250 square km will be
give the highest rate of evaporation ? a) 50 cm
a) flat water surface b) 55 cm
b) convex water surface c) 56 cm
c) concave water surface d) 60 cm
d) independent of shape of water surface Ans: c
Ans: b 31. A current meter is used to measure the
26. Assertion A : To estimate the rainfall over a) velocity of flow of water
a catchment, the number of raingauges b) depth of flow of water
required per unit area is large for hilly areas. c) discharge
Reason R : Rainfall gradient is steep. Select d) none of the above
your correct answer according to the Ans: a
coding system given below : 32. If it rains between 2 P.M. and 3 P.M. and the
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct entire basin area just starts contributing water at
explanation of A 3
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct P.M. to the outlet, then time of concentration
explanation of A will be
c) A is true but R is false a) 15 minutes
d) A is false but R is true b) 20 minutes
Ans: a c) 30 minutes
27. When surface of transpiration is d) 60 minutes
submerged under water, then potential Ans: d
evapotranspiration is 33. The rainfall on five successive days were
a) much more than evapotranspiration measured as 100 mm, 80 mm, 60 mm, 40 mm
b) much less than evapotranspiration and 20
c) equal to evapotranspiration mm respectively. If the infiltration index or the
d) equal to or less than evapotranspi-ration storm loss rate for the catchment area is earlier
Ans: a estimated as 50 mm/day, the total surface run off
28. Unit of runoff in M.K.S. system is will be
a) cubic metre/sec a) 50 mm
b) metre/sec b) 60 mm
c) cubic metre c) 90 mm
d) square metre d) 140 mm
Ans: a Ans: c
29. The runoff increases with 34. The normal annual precipitation at stations
a) increase in intensity of rain X, A, B and C are 700 mm, 1000 mm, 900 mm
b) increase in infiltration capacity and
c) increase in permeability of soil 800 mm respectively. If the storm precipitation
d) all of the above at three station A, B and C were 100 mm, 90
mm Ans: a
and 80 mm respectively, then the storm 40. Dimensions of coefficient of transmissibility
precipitation for station X will be are
a) 70mm a) M°L°T°
b) 80mm b) rvfL’T”1
c) 90 mm c) M° L2 T1
d) 105 mm d) M’LV
Ans: a Ans: c
35. The best unit duration of storm for a unit 41. If d is the depth of the aquifer through which
hydrograph is water is flowing, then the relationship between
a) 1 hour permeability k and transmissible T is given by
b) one-fourth of basin lag a) T = kd
c) one-half of basin lag b) T = k/d
d) equal to basin lag c) T= Vkd
Ans: b d) k= VTd
36. The unit hydrograph due to a storm may be Ans: a
obtained by dividing the ordinates of the direct 42. An artesian aquifer is the one where
runoff hydrograph by a) water surface under the ground is at
a) direct runoff volume atmospheric pressure
b) period of storm b) water is under pressure between two
c) total rainfall impervious strata
d) none of the above c) water table serves as upper surface of zone of
Ans: a saturation
37. The unit hydrograph of a specified duration d) none of the above
can be used to evaluate the hydrograph of storms Ans: b
of 43. A deep well
a) same duration only a) is always deeper than a shallow well
b) same and shorter duration b) has more discharge than a shallow well
c) same and longer duration c) is weaker structurally than a shallow well
d) any duration d) both (a) and (b)
Ans: d Ans: b
38. S-hydrograph is used to obtain unit 44. A multipurpose reservoir is the one which is
hydrograph of a) designed for one purpose but serves more
a) shorter duration from longer duration than one purpose
b) longer duration from shorter duration b) planned and constructed to serve various
c) both (a) and (b) purposes
d) none of the above c) both (a) and (b)
Ans: c d) none of the above
39. The relation between probability (P) and Ans: b
recurrence interval (T) is given by 45. The useful storage is the volume of water
a) PT = 1 stored in the reservoir between
b) PT2 = 1 a) minimum pool level and maximum pool level
c) P/T = 1 b) minimum pool level and normal pool level
d) P/T2 = 1 c) normal pool level and maximum pool level
d) river bed and minimum pool level The correct answer is
Ans: b a) Only (ii)
46. The water stored in the reservoir below the b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
minimum pool level is called c) (i), (ii) and (iv)
a) useful storage d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
b) dead storage Ans: a
c) valley storage 51. When the upstream face of a gravity dam is
d) surcharge storage vertical, then the intensity of water pressure at
Ans: b the
47. For a flood control reservoir, the effective water surface and at the base respectively will be
storage is equal to a) 0 and wH212
a) useful storage – valley storage b) wH2/2and wH2/3
b) useful storage + surcharge storage c) wH and 0
c) useful storage + surcharge storage + valley d) OandwII
storage where w is unit weight of water and H is the
d) useful storage + surcharge storage -valley depth of water.
storage Ans: d
Ans: d 52. The uplift pressure on a dam can be
48. Trap efficiency of a reservoir is a function of controlled by
a) capacity/inflow ratio i) constructing cutoff under upstream face
b) capacity/outflow ratio ii) constructing drainage channels bet-ween the
c) outflow/inflow ratio dam and its foundation
d) none of the above iii) by pressure grouting in foundation
Ans: a The corret answer is
49. The total capacity of a reservoir is 25 million a) only (i)
cubic metres and dead storage is 5 million cubic b) both (i) and (ii)
metres. If the average volume of sediment c) both (i) and (iii)
deposition is 0.10 million cubic metre per year, d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
then the Ans: d
usefulness of the reservoir will start reducing 53. The uplift pressure on the face of a drainage
after gallery in a dam is taken as
a) 50 years a) hydrostatic pressure at toe
b) 150 years b) average of hydrostatic pressure at toe and heel
c) 200 years c) two-third of hydrostatic pressure at toe plus
d) 250 years one-third of hydrostatic pressure at heel
Ans: a d) none of the above
50. The forces, which are considered for the Ans: c
analysis of an elementary profile of a gravity 54. Horizontal acceleration due to earthquake
dam under results in
empty reservoir condition, are a) hydrodynamic pressure
i) Water pressure b) inertia force into the body of the dam
ii) Self weight c) both (a) and (b)
iii) Uplift d) none of the above
iv) Pressure due to earthquake Ans: c
55. Hydrodynamic pressure due to earthquake c) 1.25 hw
acts at a height of d) 1.50 hw
a) 3H/47I above the base where hw is height of wave.
b) 3H747t below the water surface Ans: d
c) 4H/371 above the base 61. As compared to gravity dams, earthen dams
d) 4H737t below the water surface where H is a) are costlier
the depth of water. b) are less susceptible to failure
Ans: c c) require sound rock foundations
56. The major resisting force in a gravity dam is d) require less skilled labour
a) water pressure Ans: d
b) wave pressure 62. The most suitable material for the central
c) self-weight of dam impervious core of a zoned embankment type
d) uplift pressure dam is
Ans: c a) clay
57. When the reservoir is full, the maximum b) coarse sand
compressive force in a gravity dam is produced c) silty clay
a) at the toe d) clay mixed with fine sand
b) at the heel Ans: d
c) within the middle third of base 63. Seepage through embankments in an earthen
d) at centre of base dam is controlled by
Ans: a a) drainage filters
58. The maximum permissible eccentricity for b) relief wells
no tension at the base of a gravity dam is c) drain trenches
a) B/2 d) provision of downstream berms
b) B/3 Ans: c
c) B/4 64. Seepage through foundation in an earthen
d) B/6 dam is controlled by providing
Ans: d a) rock toe
59. Presence of tail water in a gravity dam b) horizontal blanket
i) increases the principal stress c) impervious cut off
ii) decreases the principal stress d) chimney drain
iii) increases the shear stress Ans: c
iv) decreases the shear stress 65. The flow of water after spilling over the weir
The correct answer is crest in chute spillway and side channel spillway
a) (i) and (iii) respectively are
b) (i)and(iv) a) at right angle and parallel to weir crest
c) (ii) and (iii) b) parallel and at right angle to weir crest
d) (ii) and (iv) c) parallel to weir crest in both
Ans: d d) at right angle to weir crest in both
60. For wave action in dams, the maximum Ans: a
height of freeboard is generally taken to be equal 66. The discharge passing over an ogee spillway
to is given by
a) 0.5 hw a) CLH3/2
b) 0.75 hw b) CHL3/2
c) CLH5/2 a) one divide wall and one undersluice
d) CLH1/2 b) one divide wall and two undersluices
where, L is effective length of spillway crest and c) two divide walls and one undersluice
H is the total head over the spillway crest d) two divide walls and two undersluices
including Ans: d
velocity head. 73. Generally the weir is aligned at right angles
Ans: a to the direction of the main river current because
67. Coefficient of discharge of an ogee spillway a) it ensures less length of the weir
a) depends on depth of approach and upstream b) it gives better discharging capacity
slope c) it is economical
b) depends on downstream apron interference d) all of the above
and downstream submergence Ans: d
c) remains constant 74. The main function of a divide wall is to
d) both (a) and (b) a) control the silt entry in the canal
Ans: d b) prevent river floods from entering the canal
68. Which of the following spillways is least c) separate the undersluices from weir proper
suitable for an earthen dam ? d) provide smooth flow at sufficiently low
a) ogee spillway velocity
b) chute spillway Ans: c
c) side channel spillway 75. A divide wall is provided
d) shaft spillway a) at right angle to the axis of weir
Ans: a b) parallel to the axis of weir and up-stream of it
69. In case of non-availability of space due to c) parallel to the axis of weir and down-stream
topography, the most suitable spillway is of it
a) straight drop spillway d) at an inclination to the axis of weir
b) shaft spillway Ans: a
c) chute spillway IRRIGATION WATER RESOURSES
d) ogee spillway Engineering and Hydrology Interview
Ans: b Questions and Answers
70. In a chute spillway, the flow is usually 76. As compared to crest of the normal portion
a) uniform of the weir, the crest of the under sluice portion
b) subcritical of
c) critical weir is kept at
d) super critical a) lower level
Ans: d b) higher level
71. For the upstream face of an earthen dam, the c) same level
most adverse condition for stability of slope is d) any of the above depending on the design
a) sudden drawdown Ans: a
b) steady seepage 77. Silt excluders are constructed on the
c) during construction a) river bed upstream of head regulator
d) sloughing of slope b) river bed downstream of head regulator
Ans: a c) canal bed upstream of head regulator
72. If there are two canals taking off from each d) canal bed downstream of head regulator
flank of a river, then there will be Ans: a
78. According to Khosla’s theory, the exit a) 19 m
gradient in the absence of a downstream cutoff b) 38m
is c) 57m
a) 0 d) 76m
b) unity Ans: b
c) infinity 84. Which of the following canal structures is
d) very large used to remove surplus water from an irrigation
Ans: c channel into a natural drain ?
79. The minimum size of stone that will remain a) canal fall
at rest in a channel of longitudinal slope S and b) canal outlet
hydraulic mean depth R is given by c) canal escape
a) 4RS d) canal regulator
b) 11 RS Ans: c
c) 7RS 85. For a proportional outlet, the flexibility is
d) 15 RS a) zero
Ans: b b) between zero and 1
80. The ratio of average values of shear stresses c) 1
produced on the bed and the banks of a channel d) greater than 1
due Ans: c
to flowing water is 86. The sensitivity of a rigid module is
a) less than 1 a) zero
b) equal to 1 b) between zero and one
c) greater than 1 c) 1
d) equal to zero d) infinity
Ans: c Ans: a
81. If the critical shear stress of a channel is xc, 87. Which of the following is a flexible outlet ?
then the average value of shear stress required to a) submerged pipe outlet
move the grain on the bank is b) Kennedy’s gauge outlet
a) 0.5 xc c) Gibb’s outlet
b) 0.75 TC d) none of the above
c) xc Ans: b
d) 1.33 TC 88. A straight glacis type fall with a baffle
Ans: b platform and a baffle wall is called
82. As per Lacey’s theory, the silt factor is a) vertical dropfall
a) directly proportional to average par¬ticle size b) glacis fall
b) inversely proportional to average par¬ticle c) Montague type fall
size d) inglis fall
c) directly proportional to square root of average Ans: d
particle size 89. Which of the following types of falls use
d) not related to average particle size parabolic glacis for energy dissipation ?
Ans: c a) vertical drop fall
83. Wetted perimeter of a regime channel for a b) glacis fall
discharge of 64 cumecs as per Lacey’s theory c) Montague type fall
will be d) inglis fall
Ans: c c) super passage and canal syphon
90. In a Sarda type fall, rectangular crest is used d) level crossing
for discharge upto Ans: c
a) 6 cumecs 96. If the R.L’s of canal bed level and high flood
b) 10 cumecs level of drainage are 212.0 m and 210.0 m
c) 14 cumecs respectively, then cross drainage work will be
d) 20 cumecs a) aqueduct
Ans: c b) superpassage
91. Which of the following can be used as a c) syphon
meter fall ? d) syphon aqueduct
a) vertical drop fall Ans: c
b) flumed glacis fall 97. The aqueduct or superpassage type of works
c) unflumed glacis fall are generally used when
d) all of the above a) high flood drainage discharge is small
Ans: a b) high flood drainage discharge is large and
92. Vertical drop fall is satisfactory for a height short lived
upto c) high flood drainage discharge is large and
a) 0.5 m continues for a long time
b) 1.5 m d) none of the above
c) 3.5 m Ans: a
d) 5.0 m 98. An aggrading river is a
Ans: b a) silting river
93. Which of the following canal outlets b) scouring river
maintains a constant discharge ? c) both silting and scouring river
a) non-modular outlet d) neither silting nor scouring river
b) flexible outlet Ans: a
c) rigid module 99. Tortuosity of a meandering river is the ratio
d) none of the above of
Ans: c a) meander belt to meander length
94. The ratio of rate of change of the discharge b) meander length to meander belt
of an outlet to the rate of change of the discharge c) curved length along the channel to the direct
of axial length of the river reach
distributing channel is called d) direct axial length of the river reach to curved
a) proportionality length along the channel
b) flexibility Ans: c
c) setting 100. The meander pattern of a river is
d) sensitivity developed by
Ans: b a) average discharge
95. The drainage water intercepting the canal b) dominant discharge
can be disposed of by passing the canal below c) maximum discharge
the d) critical discharge
drainage in Ans: b
a) aqueduct and syphon aqueduct 101. The main cause of meandering is
b) aqueduct and super passage a) presence of an excessive bed slope in the river
b) degradation Ans: b
c) the extra turbulence generated by the excess 107. Study the following statements.
of river sediment during floods i) Levees are constructed parallel to river
d) none of the above flow,
Ans: c ii) Spurs are constructed parallel to river
102. Tortuosity of a meandering river is flow,
always iii) Levees are constructed transverse to river
a) equal to 1 flow,
b) less than 1 iv) Spurs are constructed transverse to river
c) greater than 1 flow.
d) less than or equal to 1 The correct answer is
Ans: c a) (i) and (ii)
103. Select the correct statement. b) (i) and (iv)
a) A meander increases the river length but a cut c) (ii) and (iii)
off reduces the river length. d) (iii) and (iv)
b) A cutoff increases the river length but a Ans: b
meander reduces the river length. 108. A repelling groyne is aligned
c) Both meander and cutoff increase the river a) pointing upstream
length. b) pointing downstream
d) Both meander and cutoff decrease the river c) perpendicular to bank
length. d) parallel to bank
Ans: a Ans: a
104. River training for depth is achieved by 109. A river training work is generally
a) groynes required when the river is
b) construction of dykes or leavees a) aggrading type
c) both (a) and (b) b) degrading type
d) groynes and bandalling c) meandering type
Ans: d d) both (a) and (b)
105. Main purpose of mean water training for Ans: c
rivers is 110. A river bend characterized by silting
a) flood control a) scouring on concave side
b) to provide sufficient depth of water in b) silting on convex side
navigable channels, during low water periods c) scouring on convex side and on concave side
c) to preserve the channel in good shape by d) scouring on concave side and silting on
efficient disposal of suspended and bed load convex side
d) all of the above Ans: d
Ans: c 111. Select the incorrect statement.
106. If D is the depth of scour below original a) Intensive irrigation should be avoided in areas
bed, then the width of launching apron is susceptible to water logging.
generally taken as b) Extensive irrigation should be adopted in
a) 1.2 D areas susceptible to water logging.
b) 1.5 D c) Lift irrigation increases water logging.
c) 2.0 D d) all of the above
d) 2.5 D Ans: c
112. A land is known as waterlogged c) utilisation factor
a) when the permanent wilting point is reached d) both (a) and (b)
b) when gravity drainage has ceased Ans: d
c) capillary fringe reaches the root zone of plants 119. A hydroelectric scheme operating under
d) none of the above a head of 80 m will be classified as
Ans: c a) low head scheme
113. Lining of irrigation channels b) medium head scheme
a) increases the waterlogging area c) high head scheme
b) decreases the waterlogging area d) none of the above
c) does not change the water logging area Ans: c
d) none of the above 120. A hyetograph is a graphical
Ans: b representation of
114. A runoff river plant is a) rainfall intensity and time
a) a low head scheme b) rainfall depth and time
b) a medium head scheme c) discharge and time
c) a high head scheme d) cumulative rainfall and time
d) none of the above Ans: a
Ans: a 121. Variability of rainfall is
115. The net speed under which the turbine i) largest in regions of high rainfall
reaches its peak efficiency is called ii) largest in coastal areas
a) design speed iii) largest in regions of scanty rainfall
b) rated speed The correct answer is
c) gross speed a) only (i)
d) operating speed b) (i) and (ii)
Ans: a c) only (iii)
116. A runoff river plant d) (ii) and (iii)
a) is a medium head scheme Ans: c
b) generates power during peak hours only 122. In India, which of the following is
c) is suitable only on a perennial river adopted as standard recording raingauge ?
d) has no pondage at all a) Symon’s raingauge
Ans: c b) tipping bucket type
117. The net head under which the turbine c) natural syphon type
reaches its peak efficiency at synchronous d) weighing bucket type
speed is called Ans: c
a) design head 123. The maximum average depth due to one
b) rated head day storm over an area of 100 km2 is
c) gross head 100 mm. Depth-Area-Duration (DAD) curves
d) operating head indicate that for the same area of 100
Ans: a km2 the maximum average depth for a 3
118. The ratio of the average load to the hour storm will be
installed capacity of the plant whose reserve a) 100 mm
capacity is zero will be equal to b) more than 100 mm
a) load factor c) less than 100 mm
b) plant factor d) none of the above
Ans: b c) moving boat method
124. The maximum rainfall depth of 300 mm d) ultra-sonic method
in 24 hours has a return period of 100 Ans: a
years. The probability of 24 hours rainfall 129. To determine the discharge at a section
equal to or greater than 300 mm occurring in a stream from its rating curve, the
at least once in 10 years is given by required data are
a) (0.99)10 i) slope of water surface at the section
b) 1 – (0.99)10 ii) stage at the section iii) current meter
c) (0.9)’00 readings at the section The correct answer is
d) l-(0.9)100 a) (i) and (ii)
Ans: b b) (ii) and (iii)
125. The most suitable chemical which can be c) only (ii)
applied to the water surface for d) only (iii)
reducing evaporation is Ans: c
a) methyl alcohol 130. The stage of river carrying a discharge of
b) ethyl alcohol Q m7sec at a point is 10 m and slope of
c) cetyl alcohol water surface is (1/4000). The discharge of a
d) butyl alcohol flood at the same point and same stage
Ans: c of 10 m with a water surface slope
126. Interception losses are due to of(l/1000)willbe
i) evaporation a) V2 Q m3/sec
ii) transpiration b) 0.5 Q mVsec
iii) stream flow c) 2 Q m3/sec
The correct answer is d) 4 Q m3/sec
a) only (i) Ans: c
b) (i)and(ii) 131. The stream which does not have any
c) (ii) and (iii) base flow contribution is called
d) (i), (ii) and (iii) a) perennial stream
Ans: a b) intermittent stream
127. A 6 hours storm had 4 cm of rainfall and c) ephemeral stream
the resulting runoff was 2 cm. If <j) d) none of the above
index remains at the same value, the runoff Ans: c
due to 10 cm of rainfall in 12 hours in the 132. The flow-mass curve is graphical
catchment is representation of
a) 4.5 cm a) cumulative discharge and time
b) 6.0 cm b) discharge and percentage probability of flow
c) 7.5 cm being equaled or exceeded
d) 9.0 cm c) cumulative discharge, volume and time in
Ans: b chronological order
128. Which of the following methods is used d) discharge and time in chronological order
to estimate flood discharge based on Ans: c
high water marks left over in the past ? 133. If the demand line drawn from a ridge in
a) slope-area method a flow mass curve does not intersect the
b) area-velocity method curve again, it indicates that
a) demand cannot be met by inflow a) 20 3/sec
b) reservoir was not full at the beginning b) 25 m3/sec
c) both (a) and (b) c) 30 m3/sec
d) none of the above d) 35 m3/sec
Ans: a Ans: b
134. The shape of recession limb of a 139. To estimate the magnitude of a flood
hydrograph depends upon with a return period of T years, Gumbel’s
a) basin characteristics only distribution method requires the following
b) storm characteristics only data pertaining to annual flood series
c) both (a) and (b) i) mean value
d) none of the above ii) standard deviation
Ans: a iii) length of record
135. Instantaneous unit hydrograph is a iv) coefficient of skew
hydrograph of The correct answer is
i) unit duration a) (i) and (ii)
ii) unit rainfall excess b) (i),(iD and (iii)
iii) infinitely small duration c) (i), (ii) and (iv)
iv) infinitely small rainfall excess d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
The correct answer is Ans: b
a) (i) and (ii) 140. For an annual flood series arranged in
b) (i)and(iv) descending order of magnitude, the
c) (ii) and (iii) return for a magnitude listed at position
d) (iii) and (iv) period m in a total data N is
Ans: c a) N/(m+l)
136. For a catchment area of 120 km2, the b) m/(N+l)
equilibrium discharge in m3/hour of an c) m/N
Scurve obtained by the summation of 6 hour d) (N+l)/m
unit hydro graph is Ans: d
a) 0.2 x 106 141. If the risk of a flood occurring in the
b) 0.6 x 106 next 10 years is accepted to 10%, then the
c) 2.4 xlO6 return period for design should be
d) 7.2 xlO6 a) 1 + (0.9)010
Ans: a b) 1 – (0.9)°l0
137. A unit hydro graph has one unit of c) 1/(1-0.9°10)
a) rainfall duration d) 1/(1+ 0.9010)
b) rainfall excess Ans: c
c) time base of direct runoff
d) discharge
Ans: b
138. The peak of a 4 hour flood hydrograph is
240 m3/sec . If the rainfall excess is 80
mm and base flow which is constant is 40
m3/sec, then the peak of 4-hours unit
hydrograph will be