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PMI Agile Certified Practitioner
PMI-ACP Exam 1
Question 2 of 120 Question ID: 80253
The Chief Financial Officer (CFO) of the company asked an agile practitioner to explain why using agile project
management methods is more beneficial than using traditional project management methods, specifically how return on
investment (ROI) can be improved. Which of the following responses would be most appropriate?
A Agile project management methods improve product time-to-market for the customer.
B Agile project management methods eliminate all time and effort spent on documentation.
C Agile project management methods develop a comprehensive set of features.
D Agile project management methods involve multitasking between several different projects to maximize
utilization of available resources.
J Question answered incorrectly
Hint:
Which answer choice is consistent with agile principles?
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Continuous feature delivery with incremental releases is beneficial in terms of ROI. For example, rather than waiting 12
or 18 months for new software features, incremental delivery can deliver features to customers quarterly or even more
frequently, and allow customers to take advantage of first-to-market opportunities that would be lost by waiting 18
months.
Details for Each Option:
A Agile project management methods improve product time-to-market for the customer.
Correct. Continuous feature delivery through the use of incremental releases is beneficial regarding ROI.
Incremental delivery can deliver features to customers more frequently, and allow customers to take advantage of
first-to-market opportunities.
B Agile project management methods eliminate all time and effort spent on documentation.
Incorrect. Although project documentation should diminish when using agile project management practices, some
documentation may still be required.
C Agile project management methods develop a comprehensive set of features.

Incorrect. The Standish Group Study estimates that over 40% of software features were never used, and only 20%
were used often or always. Using agile methods may prevent the development of costly but unused features,
which can be instrumental in improving ROI.
D Agile project management methods involve multitasking between several different projects to maximize
utilization of available resources.
Incorrect. Multitasking results in task switching penalties, which are a form of waste. Agile methods are based on
the principles of eliminating waste wherever possible, which reduces cost and helps improve ROI.
Reference:
Agile Practice Guide, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 9, 25, 151; see also Agile Project Management:
Creating Innovative Products - 2nd Edition, Jim Highsmith, 2009, Return on Investment (ROI)
PMI-ACP Exam 1
An agile project sponsor has requested to see the impact of the scope changes requested by the customer throughout
the lifecycle of the project. What information radiator would an agile practitioner recommend to the sponsor to examine?
A Burndown chart
B Burnup chart
C Velocity chart
D Scope baseline
Hint:
When scope is added, a horizontal line representing the original scope volume on the chart jumps up.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Burnup charts track the work, usually displayed in story points, accomplished by the team on the project. As work is
being completed, the chart’s curve trends up. When changes are requested by the customer, i.e. more story points are
added to the backlog (either product, release, or iteration), this increase in scope is represented by a step up in the
horizontal line representing the original scope. This jump in the horizontal line is easily visible on the chart and allows the
project stakeholders to see the impact of the scope changes.
A Burndown chart
Incorrect. Burndown charts track the work that remains to be completed on a project. While scope changes can be
reflected in the burndown charts, it is not always possible to understand their impact easily.
B Burnup chart
Correct. Burnup charts allow one to see changes in scope. Typically, an increase in scope is represented by a step
up in the chart’s horizontal line representing the initial scope.
C Velocity chart
Incorrect. ‘Velocity chart’ is not a proper term. Instead, ‘velocity tracking chart’ is the term used. However, even in
its correct usage, velocity tracking chart does not reflect scope changes. Rather, the velocity tracking chart shows
the amount of work, typically story points, completed by the team per iteration.
D Scope baseline
Incorrect. Scope baseline is a traditional project management term and rarely if at all, used in agile.
Reference:
Agile Practice Guide, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 63-64; see also Agile Estimating and Planning,
Mike Cohn, 2005
PMI-ACP Exam 1
An agile practitioner is working on a hybrid project where her responsibilities include both acting as the project scrum
master, and providing periodic project performance reports to senior management. The project sponsor has just
suggested that to monitor project progress, the individual velocity of each project team member should be tracked rather
than the velocity of the team as a whole. What should the agile practitioner do?
A Track and report both team velocity and individual velocities to monitor project team performance
B Track and report only team velocity to monitor project team performance
C Track only average individual velocity to monitor project team performance
D Track either team velocity or individual velocities to monitor project team performance
Hint:
What is the agile best practice when it comes to monitoring and reporting an agile project team's performance?
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
As an agile best practice, the team velocity should be tracked and reported to monitor project team performance. Some
agile teams report productivity as the average individual velocity on the team in story points or ideal days completed by
an individual team member. However, teams should resist reporting the velocities of individual team members as it can
lead to behavior that works against the success of the team and project.
Individuals should be given every incentive possible to work as a team. Team velocity should matter most because
ideally as a team you operate better and more efficiently than as individuals. The synergy gained by team members
working in a high functioning team should be the goal. Similarly, a low performing team needs to look for ways to
continuously improve their performance as a unit and part of project team. Most user stories should be written so that
they can be worked on by more than one person. If most of the user stories written by the product owner can be
completed by a single person, then how the user stories are written should be reconsidered. Note that, although not
mentioned in the answer choices, the agile practitioner should also follow up with the product owner to explain why the
suggestion will not be adopted.

A Track and report both team velocity and individual velocities to monitor project team performance
Incorrect. Tracking and reporting an individual velocity is not considered an agile best practice as this approach
does not reinforce team behaviors and conflicts with the basic agile tenant that teams solve problems better than
individuals.
B Track and report only team velocity to monitor project team performance
Correct. As an agile best practice, the agile practitioner should track and report team velocity to monitor project
team performance.
C Track only average individual velocity to monitor project team performance

Incorrect. Agile best practices include the tracking of the team rather than individual velocities. Additionally, the
team velocity is an important metric which should not be eliminated.
D Track either team velocity or individual velocities to monitor project team performance
Incorrect. Agile best practices include tracking team velocity and not individual velocities.
Reference:
Agile Practice Guide, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 64; see also Agile Estimating and Planning, Mike
Cohn, 2005, Individual Velocity
PMI-ACP Exam 1
A software developer creating a crowd-funded role-playing smartphone game is also a partner in the company. This
developer loses a lot of time that should be dedicated to developing the software due to constant task switching because
he must also handle daily marketing and fundraising updates to the project's sponsors. Which of the following best
describes how task switching affects the agile development process?
A Task switching is beneficial because if you become blocked on one task, you can switch to another.
B Task switching in agile environments allows you to deliver constant value because each feature can progress
incrementally.
C Task switching is a core component of Kanban to keep work in progress moving in a pull system.
D Task switching is detrimental because it causes project team members to lose focus on their assigned tasks.
Hint:
At what point does task switching affect the focus of an agile project team member?
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Ideal time is where you assume that your agile project team members will have no interruptions or task switching in their
work and will be 100% productive every hour of every day. On an agile project, ideal time differs from elapsed time
because of task switching, and the natural overhead we experience every day. On any given day, in addition to working
on the planned tasks of a project, a team member may spend time answering email, helping to remove another team
member's impediments or attending a meeting. Task switching is detrimental because it causes project team members to
lose focus on their assigned tasks. Task switching results in more time added to complete these tasks since team
members have to determine where they were in the original task before they switched to another task and lost focus.
People experience productivity losses somewhere between 20% and 40% when task switching, and the loss increases
exponentially with the number of tasks. Additionally, project team members are more likely to make mistakes as a result
of multitasking.

A Task switching is beneficial because if you become blocked on one task, you can switch to another.
Incorrect. Task switching is detrimental because it causes project team members to lose focus on their assigned
tasks, which results in productivity losses and makes mistakes more likely.
B Task switching in agile environments allows you to deliver constant value because each feature can progress
incrementally.
Incorrect. Project features can progress incrementally much faster if you are focusing on one development task at
a time.
C Task switching is a core component of Kanban to keep work in progress moving in a pull system.
Incorrect. Work in progress can progress much faster in a pull system if you are focusing on one development task
at a time.
D Task switching is detrimental because it causes project team members to lose focus on their assigned tasks.
Correct. Task switching is one of the reasons why ideal time does not equal elapsed time. Task switching causes
project team members to lose focus on their assigned tasks. Task switching results in more time added to
complete these tasks since team members have to reorient themselves to where they were in the original task
before they switched to another task.
Reference:
Mike Cohn, 2005, Task/Context Switching
PMI-ACP Exam 1
The agile triangle provides a different way of looking at project success and addresses the real goals of projects, which
are represented by the three sides or parameters of the agile triangle. Two of the sides are value and quality. Which of
the following represents the third side of the agile triangle?
A Constraints
B Stakeholders
C Retrospective
D Resources
Hint:
The correct answer includes cost, schedule, and scope.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
In the reference provided, the author explains the evolution of the traditional iron triangle of project management, to the
agile iron triangle (which, in essence, is the inverted traditional triangle), to the actual agile triangle where the three sides
are represented by value, quality, and constraints (the latter being a combination of the traditional parameters - scope,
schedule, and cost). In this respect, the agile triangle is the most comprehensive of the three. The agile triangle provides
a different way of looking at project success and addresses the real goals of projects, which are represented by the three
sides or parameters of the agile triangle. These parameters include producing value that delights customers (value),
building in quality that speeds the development process and creates a viable platform for future enhancements (quality),
and delivering within constraints (constraints). In the agile triangle, constraints include the three constraints from the
traditional project management iron triangle (scope, schedule, and cost). Of the available choices, only constraints are
included in the agile triangle.
A Constraints
Correct. On their own, the constraints of scope, schedule, and costs are not the goals of a project. However, they
are critical to the delivery process as they establish clear boundaries, within which the team must operate.
Therefore, constraints are one of the parameters or sides listed on the agile triangle.
B Stakeholders
Incorrect. A stakeholder is an individual, group, or organization that may affect, be affected by, or perceive itself to
be affected by a decision, activity, or outcome of a project, program, or portfolio. Stakeholder satisfaction is an
important measure of success. However, stakeholders, on their own, do not represent one of the sides of the agile
triangle.
C Retrospective
Incorrect. A retrospective is a regularly occurring workshop in which participants explore their work and results in
order to improve both process and product. A retrospective is not one of the parameters by which success is
measured on a project nor is it one of the agile triangle's sides.
D Resources
Incorrect. Resources are critical to any project. However, resources are a required input for a project. The agile
triangle deals with three parameters including value, quality, and constraints. Therefore, this answer choice is not
correct.
Reference:
Agile Project Management: Creating Innovative Products, 2nd Edition, Jim Highsmith, 2009, Agile Performance
Measurement; see also
PMI-ACP Exam 1
An agile team was almost done with the release when they determined that the application was not scalable to the
100,000 users as expected. What could the team have done differently?
A Prioritize functional features ahead of non-functional features
B Emphasize security and reliability over scalability
C Design the system to accommodate one million users
D Devote more time to non-functional requirements
Hint:
Scalability, as defined by Wikipedia, is "the capability of a system, network, or process to handle a growing amount of
work, or its potential to be enlarged in order to accommodate that growth.”
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Non-functional requirements are important and should be taken into consideration when maximizing a value-driven
delivery, as they ensure that the product is effective and usable. Therefore, the team could have spent more time on the
testing of non-functional requirements, specifically to allow scalability to the desired number of users. Non-functional
requirements are typically revisited as part of the definition of done for a user story.
A Prioritize functional features ahead of non-functional features

Incorrect. There is not enough information provided by the question to indicate that functional features are more
important than non-functional ones. A successful product needs both types of features to work as expected.
B Emphasize security and reliability over scalability

Incorrect. There is not enough information provided by the question to indicate that security and reliability are more
important than scalability. All of these aspects are typically needed to create a successful product.
C Design the system to accommodate one million users
Incorrect. One should not over specify or create more scalability than is required, especially with cost implications.
The team should deliver what was required by the customer.
D Devote more time to non-functional requirements

Correct. Since the product does not meet expectations on scalability, the team should have devoted more time to
testing non-functional requirements before they developed the rest of the application.
Reference:
PMI Agile Certified Practitioner (PMI-ACP)®, Examination Content Outline, Value-Driven Delivery, Task 13; see also
PMI-ACP Exam 1
An agile coach reflects on his past agile projects and realizes that his ability to understand human motivation, expression
and dynamics played a large part in his success. What interpersonal skill is being described here and was most likely
responsible for the agile coach’s success?
A Servant leadership
B Conflict resolution
C Emotional intelligence
D Adaptive leadership
Hint:
This interpersonal skill is based on empathy rather than sympathy.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The interpersonal skill described by the question is emotional intelligence. Emotional intelligence (EI), and its
corresponding metric emotional intelligence quotient (EQ) is different from traditional intelligence or just being ‘smart'. It is
considered the ability to understand your own emotions and the emotions of others in order to interact successfully with
them on your agile projects. It also includes the capacity to reason about emotions in order to enhance thinking. The
benefits of learning these emotional intelligence traits, and they can be learned, is that they allow the agile practitioner to
motivate better, lead, collaborate with, and negotiate with other team members and stakeholders.
A Servant leadership
Incorrect. Servant leadership is a set of agile strategies and practices that is founded on the goal of serving other
project team members and stakeholders first, and in doing so effectively determining and meeting the needs of
these project team members and stakeholders in order to benefit them.
B Conflict resolution
Incorrect. Conflict resolution involves the use of various techniques to resolve and settle conflicts that occur
between those individuals working on your agile project to ensure the ability to work together effectively and
continuously throughout the life cycle of the project.
C Emotional intelligence
Correct. In addition to servant leadership, agile leaders emphasize their interpersonal and emotional intelligence
skills. Emotional intelligence (EI) is considered the ability to understand your own emotions and the emotions of
others in order to successfully interact with them.
D Adaptive leadership
Incorrect. Adaptive leadership is a set of strategies and practices that agile project teams can implement to
overcome roadblocks, to employ meaningful and valuable change where necessary, and to increase their
adaptability. The goal of adaptive leadership is to create a culture where adaptability is encouraged and nurtured
and can thrive.
Reference:
Agile Practice Guide, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 36; see also Coaching Agile Teams: A
Companion for ScrumMasters, Agile Coaches, and Project Managers in Transition, Lyssa Adkins, 2010, Emotional
Intelligence; see also A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project
Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 349
PMI-ACP Exam 1
Effective scrum masters demonstrate excellent meeting facilitation skills. Which of the following activities should the
scrum master manage while facilitating a sprint retrospective?
A Grooming the backlog
B Demonstrating the increment to the product owner
C Meeting timeboxes
D Meeting content under discussion
Hint:
Which of the activities occur during a sprint retrospective?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
As a meeting facilitator, scrum masters may follow the content, but their primary responsibility is the process. The
facilitation process involves managing activities, managing group dynamics, and managing time. Facilitators focus on the
process and structure of the meeting, attend to the needs and dynamics of the group, and help the group reach a goal
within the agreed upon timebox for the meeting. Effective facilitators should remain neutral in discussions because if they
become too focused on the content, they cannot pay full attention to the process. The most successful facilitators often
recommend that a separate scribe attends a meeting and be assigned to record the meeting content for follow-up action
items after the meeting has concluded.
A Grooming the backlog

Incorrect. Grooming the backlog is an activity which occurs during a backlog refinement meeting as opposed to a
sprint retrospective. Therefore, this is an incorrect answer choice.
B Demonstrating the increment to the product owner

Incorrect. Demonstrating the increment, or evolving product, to the product owner occurs during the sprint review
and not a sprint retrospective. Therefore, this option can be eliminated as a correct response.
C Meeting timeboxes
Correct. The scrum master is responsible for ensuring the Scrum process is upheld and works to ensure the
Scrum team adheres to the practices and rules. One of the scrum master's responsibilities in a sprint retrospective,
a daily standup, or in any of the scrum meetings is to enforce timeboxes.
D Meeting content under discussion

Incorrect. The team are the experts and are in the best position to choose the topics and content that should be
emphasized during a sprint retrospective. The scrum master often lacks the specific knowledge or experience
required to manage the content of the discussion. Scrum masters are more facilitative and not subject matter
experts.
Reference:
Agile Practice Guide, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 101; see also Agile Retrospectives: Making Good
Teams Great, Esther Derby, Diana Larsen, 2006, Facilitation Process
PMI-ACP Exam 1
An agile team has just completed their iteration retrospective meeting. After the meeting concluded, the project manager
suggested that the team get together later that day to determine the cause of a major problem that was discussed during
the iteration retrospective meeting. Which of the following would be the best tool for the team to use to determine the root
cause of the problem discussed?
A SWOT analysis
B Tornado diagram
C Kano analysis
D Fishbone diagram
Hint:
Which method is a root cause analysis tool?
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The fishbone diagram is a tool used to graphically display cause-and-effect relationships and root causes. It can be used
by agile teams when they need to identify, explore, and display the possible causes of a specific problem or condition.
Teams that are empowered to work on improvement-based projects or are searching for root causes to problems find this
tool extremely helpful. It methodically provides the answer to the general question, 'What could be contributing to this
problem?'. After the general cause is identified, continuously investigating the why for each cause will help to identify the
root cause more concisely. The fishbone diagram is also known as a cause-and-effect diagram, spider chart, or Ishikawa
diagram.
A SWOT analysis
Incorrect. SWOT analysis is a technique that examines the project from the perspective of the strengths,
weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) to increase the breadth of identified risks by including internally-
generated risks. SWOT analysis is not used to determine the root cause of a problem.
B Tornado diagram
Incorrect. A tornado diagram is used in sensitivity analysis to characterize a group of risks and to determine which
risk in this group is likely to have the greatest impact on the project. Tornado diagrams are not used to determine
the root cause of a problem.
C Kano analysis
Incorrect. Kano analysis is a value-based prioritization technique to help categorize how to achieve customer
satisfaction and loyalty within the product development process. Kano analysis is not used to determine the root
cause of a problem.
D Fishbone diagram
Correct. The fishbone diagram is a tool used to graphically display cause-and-effect relationships and root causes.
The fishbone diagram can be used by agile teams when they need to identify, explore, and display the possible
root causes of a specific problem or condition.
Reference:
A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management
Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 293-294; see also Effective Project Management: Traditional, Agile, Extreme, Fifth Edition,
Robert K. Wysocki, 2009, Retrospectives - Fishbone Diagram; see also The Agile PrepCast, Advanced Concepts in
Process Improvement,
PMI-ACP Exam 1
Agile Manifesto Principle #9 states, "Continuous attention to technical excellence and good design enhances agility."
Which of the following concepts is the most important when measuring the degree of technical excellence that a team
should demonstrate on an agile project?
A Ensuring that technical debt is paid off before the end of the project
B Achieving technical perfection to deliver consistent customer value
C Ensuring that technical excellence is the primary project objective
D Delivering customer value today and creating an adaptable product for tomorrow
Hint:
Striving for technical excellence helps achieve both short-term and long-term customer objectives.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
On an agile project, developers strive for technical excellence, and project leaders champion it. Technical excellence is
measured by both the capacity to deliver customer value today, and the capacity to create an adaptable product for
tomorrow. The team can deliver customer value today by understanding what requirements are of highest value to the
customer and incrementally delivering these requirements in short iterations. Agile technical practices also focus on
lowering technical debt, which helps to ensure the adaptability of the product in the future with minimal effort.
A Ensuring that technical debt is paid off before the end of the project
Incorrect. Achieving technical excellence involves being proactive in preventing technical debt throughout the
project, rather than being reactive at the end of the project and trying to eliminate or 'pay off' the technical debt
incurred previously during the project.
B Achieving technical perfection to deliver consistent customer value

Incorrect. Agile team members must understand, within the context of their specific product, the difference
between excellence and perfection. No company can afford to produce a perfect product. But building a product
that delivers customer value and maintains its technical integrity is essential to both commercial success and the
technical team’s satisfaction.
C Ensuring that technical excellence is the primary project objective

Incorrect. Although technical excellence should be one of the primary objectives of the 'project team', it does not
need to be the primary objective of the 'project'. Project leaders not only need to be involved with the team in
debating and deciding on the technical approach to development but must also ensure that the team is aware of
the overall business and project objectives as technical issues are decided.
D Delivering customer value today and creating an adaptable product for tomorrow
Correct. Technical excellence is measured by both the capacity to deliver customer value today and the capacity to
create an adaptable product for tomorrow. The team can deliver customer value today by understanding what
requirements are of highest value to the customer and incrementally delivering these requirements in short
iterations. Agile technical practices also focus on lowering technical debt, which helps to ensure the adaptability of
the product in the future with minimal effort.
Reference:
Agile Practice Guide, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 9, 58; see also Agile Project Management:
Creating Innovative Products - 2nd Edition, Jim Highsmith, 2009, Technical Excellence
PMI-ACP Exam 1
An important key performance indicator (KPI) used in Agile to measure the performance of the team's progress is
velocity. Which of the following metrics is most often used to measure an agile team's performance in terms of velocity?
A The number of user story points completed by the team per day
B The number of user story points completed by the team per iteration
C The number of iterations completed by the team per release
D The number of story points planned to be completed in the next iteration
Hint:
Think about which of the options would offer the most benefit to both the project team and senior management in terms
of team performance monitoring, without getting into too much detail.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Velocity is a measure of a team's rate of progress and is calculated by summing the number of story points assigned to
each user story that the team completed during the iteration. If a team completed ten story points of work last iteration,
our best guess is that they will complete ten story points this iteration. Because story points are estimates of relative size,
this will be true whether they work on two five-point stories or five two-point stories. If we sum the story-point estimates
for all desired features, we come up with a total size estimate for the project. If we know the team's velocity, we can
divide size by velocity to arrive at an estimated number of iterations for the remainder of the project.
A The number of user story points completed by the team per day
Incorrect. Although story points are typically used in calculating velocity, the velocity is typically calculated based
on the iteration rather than the day.
B The number of user story points completed by the team per iteration
Correct. Velocity is typically calculated as the sum of story points sizes for the features actually completed during
an iteration.
C The number of iterations completed by the team per release

Incorrect. Measuring velocity per release means waiting for the release to be completed. Velocity should be
calculated while the release is still in progress so that adjustments could be made to improve performance.
D The number of story points planned to be completed in the next iteration

Incorrect. Velocity is calculated based on the story points that have actually been completed rather than planned to
be completed.
Reference:
Agile Practice Guide, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 61, 64; see also Agile Estimating and Planning,
Mike Cohn, 2005, Velocity
PMI-ACP Exam 1
As an agile best practice, under what circumstances can a team re-estimate the size or level of effort it takes to complete
a user story during an iteration?
A Re-estimate a user story when it takes a shorter amount of time to complete than originally estimated
B Re-estimate a user story when its relative size has changed
C Re-estimate a user story when it takes a longer amount of time to complete than originally estimated
D Re-estimate a user story if the product owner requests to do so
Hint:
Remember that you are in the middle of an iteration and you have already assigned the user story an initial size.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Story points and ideal days are estimates of the overall size and complexity of the user story being completed, not an
estimate of the amount of time it takes to complete a user story. The amount of time it takes to complete a user story is a
function of its size (estimated in either ideal days or story points) and the team’s rate of progress (as reflected by its
velocity).
Because story points and ideal time are using estimated size, the team members should re-estimate only when they
believe the relative size of a user story has changed. There are a variety of reasons the relative size of a user story may
need to be adjusted or changed. If the team believes the relative size is different than initially estimated, it is permissible
for them to re-estimate the size of the story to more accurately reflect the effort and amount of work required to complete
the story.
A Re-estimate a user story when it takes a shorter amount of time to complete than originally estimated
Incorrect. There is no need to re-estimate user story size when it has taken a shorter amount of time to complete.
This could be due to factors other than an incorrect sizing such as increased team productivity, process
improvement, etc.
B Re-estimate a user story when its relative size has changed

Correct. Occasionally a user story will be more complex than originally thought or the approach to complete the
story will take longer for the team to perfect than originally estimated. In this case, it is permissible to re-estimate a
user story size and the size of others that require this approach as the effort required for those may be similarly
affected.
C Re-estimate a user story when it takes a longer amount of time to complete than originally estimated
Incorrect. It is not permissible to re-estimate user story size just because it took longer to complete. This could be
due to factors other than an incorrect sizing such as a decrease in team productivity due to illness or any number
of external factors. The amount of work required could be just the same as originally estimated, but internal or
external factors caused a delay in completion.
D Re-estimate a user story if the product owner requests to do so

Incorrect. During an iteration, it is generally not permissible to re-estimate a user story just because the product
owner requests it. During an iteration, it is the development team should be the ones to determine if a user story
requires re-estimation and only under specific circumstances.
Reference:
Agile Estimating and Planning, Mike Cohn, 2005, Agile Re-Estimation

PMI-ACP Exam 1
A company has recently lost a significant number of customer accounts due to the poor quality of the company's
software applications. An agile practitioner reviews the development process and concludes that technical debt was the
main cause of the poor quality. Which approach would the agile practitioner least likely recommend to help improve the
quality in upcoming projects?
A Maximizing technical excellence through good technical design
B Including technical debt reduction user stories in the backlog
C Implementing software code refactoring best practices
D Ensuring quality through the use of automated testing tools
Hint:
Preventing technical debt should be done proactively. Note, the question is looking for the 'least' likely approach.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Many software products suffer from technical debt, which is the accumulation of problems caused by poor quality
practices. Agile technical practices focus on lowering technical debt as an integral part of the development process.
There are three specific proactive practices that can be followed to help lower technical debt on an agile project:
maximizing technical excellence through good technical design, implementing software code refactoring best practices,
and ensuring quality through the use of automated testing tools. Including technical debt reduction user stories in the
backlog and completing these user stories throughout the project is a reactive approach. With this approach, the
technical debt has already been incurred, and these user stories are completed to eliminate this incurred technical debt.
Therefore, of the choices provided, including technical debt reduction user stories in the backlog is the 'least' likely
approach the agile practitioner would recommend.
A Maximizing technical excellence through good technical design

Incorrect. Maximizing technical excellence through good technical design is a best practice of agile as reflected in
principle #10 of the Agile Manifesto.
B Including technical debt reduction user stories in the backlog

Correct. Including technical debt reduction user stories in the backlog and completing these user stories
throughout the project is a reactive approach. With this approach, the technical debt has already been incurred,
and these user stories are completed to eliminate this incurred technical debt.
C Implementing software code refactoring best practices

Incorrect. Best practice in software development is to avoid duplicated code, minimize dependencies among
modules, and increase cohesion. By keeping the design efficient, changes and new functionality can be added
more easily, thus enhancing agility. Refactoring is the process of improving the design of existing code without
changing the functionality. Developers should consider code refactoring with every code change. The idea is
leaving the code slightly better than before.
D Ensuring quality through the use of automated testing tools

Incorrect. Automated testing tools are critical in that they identify problems early in development where they can be
corrected before more code is built on top of the faulty code.
Reference:
Agile Practice Guide, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 58; see also Agile Project Management: Creating
Innovative Products - 2nd Edition, Jim Highsmith, 2009, Technical Debt
PMI-ACP Exam 1
Agile team members understand that if by the end of the sprint, the product increment that they are building does not
meet the criteria specified at the beginning of the sprint, this work is not included in the velocity for the current sprint.
What are these criteria?
A Estimate to complete
B Definition of done
C Testing and usability
D Retrospective
Hint:
What is the term that an agile team uses to describe when work is considered complete?
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The question asks about the description of the definition of 'done':
According to The Scrum Guide™, "When a Product Backlog item or an Increment is described as 'Done', everyone must
understand what 'Done' means. Although this varies significantly per Scrum Team, members must have a shared
understanding of what it means for work to be complete, to ensure transparency. This is the definition of 'Done' for the
Scrum Team and is used to assess when work is complete on the product Increment."
The Agile Practice Guide (page 151) defines the Definition of Done (DoD) as a team's checklist of all the criteria required
to be met so that a deliverable can be considered ready for customer use." At the beginning of each sprint, the
development team sets a DoD for the product increment. If the team fails to meet these criteria, their work would not
count towards the velocity of the current sprint.
A Estimate to complete
Incorrect. Estimate to complete is the expected cost to finish all the remaining project work.
B Definition of done
Correct. Definition of done is a shared understanding of what it means for work to be complete.
C Testing and usability

Incorrect. Testing and usability are part of product quality, but they are not the shared understanding of what it
means for work to be complete.
D Retrospective
Incorrect. A sprint retrospective is an opportunity for the scrum team to look back on the current sprint and decide
on improvements for the subsequent sprint. A similar idea applies to a release retrospective, where the team
examines improvements for the next release. A retrospective is not specifically related to work completeness.
Reference:
Agile Practice Guide, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 151; see also , Ken Schwaber and Jeff
Sutherland, 2016, Definition of Done
PMI-ACP Exam 1
A facilitator for a sprint retrospective is currently setting the stage for the meeting. She decides to use the focus on/ focus
off activity in order to prepare the agile project team for the work that they will be performing during the retrospective
meeting. On a blank flip chart, she writes down the four phrases that will be used during the focus on/ focus off activity.
Which of the following should be listed on the activity flip chart?
A Debate rather than dialogue
B Argument rather than conversation
C Understanding rather than defending
D Advocacy rather than inquiry
Hint:
Three of the choices have the preferred behavior switched around with the less desired behavior.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
In order to set the right mindset during a sprint or project retrospective, a focus on/ focus off activity can be used. Each
participant is asked to define and describe four terms that consist of a pair of words and discuss how these types of
behaviors affect the team. The first word in the term encourages behavior to focus on, while the second word in the term
encourages behavior to focus off. Of the available choices, only 'understanding rather than defending' is the correct
pairing for this activity.
A Debate rather than dialogue

Incorrect. The correct pairing should state ‘dialogue rather than debate’ as opposed to ‘debate rather than
dialogue.’ Although debate can be healthy, participants in a sprint retrospective should first strive for open dialogue
as opposed to debating the merits of a point of view.
B Argument rather than conversation

Incorrect. The correct pairing should state ‘conversation rather than argument’ as opposed to ‘argument rather
than conversation.’ Arguments during a sprint retrospective are not productive and may potentially damage
relationships. Instead, participants should seek to hold conversations rather than arguing a point of view.
C Understanding rather than defending

Correct. During a sprint retrospective, participants should seek to understand other points of view as opposed to
defending one's own point of view.
D Advocacy rather than inquiry

Incorrect. The correct pairing should state ‘inquiry rather than advocacy’ as opposed to ‘advocacy rather than
inquiry.’ Advocacy means to take sides, argue and persuade. Inquiry means to try to understand rather than
convince others of a point of view.
Reference:
Agile Retrospectives: Making Good Teams Great, Esther Derby, Diana Larsen, 2006, Retrospectives - Focus On/ Focus
Off
PMI-ACP Exam 1
An agile coach has made sure to create a collaborative environment for her team members by colocating them and
providing the opportunity for osmotic communication. She also made some private workspaces available in case some
team members wished to meet privately without disturbing other team members. What is the name of this colocated and
collaborative environment where team members can perform osmotic communication?
A Common area
B Colocated area
C Cubicle area
D Collaborative area
Hint:
This area allows for collaboration, colocation, and osmotic communication.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The environment described in this question is the implementation of the caves and common room layout for team
communications management. The phrase 'caves and common' comes from eXtreme Programming (XP) and refers to
the creation of two zones in the project team space. The 'common' area is organized to maximize colocation, osmotic
communication, and information transfer. The 'caves' portion of the room layout is organized to give people a private
place to check e-mail, make phone calls, take care of their need for separation, and deliver private updates to
stakeholders who are external to the project team. The incorrect answer choices are general terms not specific to Agile.
A Common area
Correct. The common area is a colocated space organized to maximize osmotic communication and information
transfer.
B Colocated area
Incorrect. Although the colocated area describes space where osmotic learning can take place, this is not the
specific term used in agile. Therefore, although technically correct, this option is not the ‘best’ answer to the
question asked.
C Cubicle area
Incorrect. ‘Cubicle area’ is not a term typically used in agile.
D Collaborative area
Incorrect. Although the ‘collaborative area’ describes space where osmotic learning can take place, this is not an
agile specific term. Therefore, although technically correct, this option is not the ‘best’ response.
Reference:
Agile Practice Guide, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 46; see also Agile Software Development: The
Cooperative Game (2nd Edition), Alistair Cockburn, 2007, Caves and Common; see also The Agile PrepCast, Agile
Collocated Team Communication,
PMI-ACP Exam 1
During iteration planning, the product owner meets with the project stakeholders to determine the criteria by which a
given product backlog item will be judged as a success or failure by the project stakeholders so the product owner can
effectively communicate these criteria to the development team. What will be the output of this discussion?
A Working agreements
B Conditions of satisfaction
C A product increment
D A prioritized backlog
Hint:
These criteria are most often set by the major project stakeholders both at the beginning of an agile project and before a
release is planned.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Conditions of satisfaction are specific to a given product backlog item and define what must be true for that product
backlog item to be considered done. For example, a user story such as, "As a user, I am required to login before using
the site," might include these conditions of satisfaction:
A user is logged in only when proper credentials are provided.

A "remember me" option is available.
A user can request a password reminder.
A user is locked out after three failed attempts.
A Working agreements
Incorrect. Working agreements are the standards that each agile team defines by consensus to outline the specific
rules for how the team members will work together during the course of the project.
B Conditions of satisfaction
Correct. Conditions of satisfaction are specific to a given product backlog item and define what must be true for
that product backlog item to be considered done.
C A product increment
Incorrect. A product increment is a result of a completed iteration.
D A prioritized backlog
Incorrect. A prioritized backlog is a result of keeping the backlog updated and accurately prioritized. Backlog
prioritization does not involve the determination of the criteria by which a given product backlog item will be judged
as a success or failure by the project stakeholders.
Reference:
Agile Estimating and Planning, Mike Cohn, 2005, Conditions of Satisfaction; see also
PMI-ACP Exam 1
An agile practitioner is modifying some of the processes to ensure the success of the current project. Which of the
following is the agile practitioner currently performing?
A Process adjusting
B Process fashioning
C Process priming
D Process tailoring
Hint:
The agile practitioner is adjusting existing processes to better fit the needs of the current project.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Process tailoring is a general project management term that describes when a project team takes an existing
documented process from an organization's 'arsenal' to tailor or adjust it for some current specific needs. The results of
process tailoring efforts are usually captured in the project planning documentation by explaining which parts of the
standard process will be or will not be utilized, along with all other accepted divergences from the original plan of the
specific process being tailored. In agile, process tailoring defines the approach that an agile project team will use to
deliver a product. The project team starts with the organization's standard agile framework and processes and then
tailors the framework and processes to their needs. Process adjusting, process fashioning, and process priming are not
terms specifically associated with agile project management.
A Process adjusting
Incorrect. ‘Process adjusting’ is not a term associated with agile project management.
B Process fashioning
Incorrect. ‘Process fashioning’ is not a term associated with agile project management.
C Process priming
Incorrect. ‘Process priming’ is not a term associated with agile project management.
D Process tailoring
Correct. Agile frameworks are not customized for the team. The team may need to tailor practices to deliver value
on a regular basis.
Reference:
Innovative Products - 2nd Edition, Jim Highsmith, 2009, Process Framework Tailoring; see also A Guide to the Project
Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 28
PMI-ACP Exam 1
A product owner is giving an agile presentation at a meeting for some senior project stakeholders. One of the attendees
asks him what he believes is the main benefit of using an agile method on a project. The product owner explains that
following agile principles when executing a project helps the project team to detect problems early and often, and allows
more opportunities and time to address problems before they become even bigger issues. What aspect of Agile enables
this type of problem detection?
A Relying on documentation, process, and formality
B Performing incremental development with reflection
C Adopting a random organizational paradigm for the project team's structure
D Avoiding failing early
Hint:
Which of the answer choices represents a basic principle of agile?
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
One of the major success factors of any agile project is utilizing a combination of incremental development with
reflection. Incremental development refers to a scheduling and staging strategy in which pieces of the system are
developed at different rates or times and integrated as they are developed. Incremental development lets the team learn
about its own development process as well as about the system being designed. After a section of the system is built, the
team members reflect on their working conventions to find out what should be improved. Without incremental
development, the team does not have a chance to detect and correct problems in its direction and process. Without
reflection, the team will not actually redirect itself.
A Relying on documentation, process, and formality

Incorrect. These are aspects of a 'heavy' methodology, where agile is a 'light' methodology concerned with
minimizing the amount of documentation, process, and formality used on a project.
B Performing incremental development with reflection
Correct. Without incremental development, the team does not have a chance to detect and correct problems in its
direction and processes. Without reflection, the team will not actually redirect itself.
C Adopting a random organizational paradigm for the project team's structure

Incorrect. A random organizational paradigm is a type of organizational structure without central leadership that
sometimes works for small teams but is not characteristic of agile methods.
D Avoiding failing early

Incorrect. Agile dictates the opposite and encourages a project team to fail early since this will help them learn
from their mistakes and improve future iterations.
Reference:
Agile Practice Guide, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 13-16; see also Agile Software Development:
The Cooperative Game (2nd Edition), Alistair Cockburn, 2007, Problem Solving - Problem Detection
PMI-ACP Exam 1
An agile team created a Kanban board containing five columns. One of the software developers is determining the work
in process (WIP) limit for each column to optimize the team’s performance. What should the agile team consider when
determining an appropriate WIP limit for each column?
A The limit, if set incorrectly, can cause either people or work to be idle.
B The WIP limit should be removed for large projects.
C A higher limit is generally better than a lower one.
D Finishing early or starting late impacts how you set the limit.
Hint:
What happens if the WIP limit is set too high or too low?
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The WIP limit, if set incorrectly, can cause either people or work to be idle. If the WIP limit is set too high, work will
become idle, and there will be work items for which no one is responsible. Moreover, if the WIP limit is too low, people
will become idle, all items will be worked on, and some people will have no work.
A The limit, if set incorrectly, can cause either people or work to be idle.
Correct. If the WIP limit is set too high, then work will become idle. Conversely, if the WIP limit is too low, then
some people will not have any available work.
B The WIP limit should be removed for large projects.

Incorrect. Removing the WIP limit increases the risk of the team ending up with a Kanban board flooded with work,
which will make the Kanban board inefficient and unusable.
C A higher limit is generally better than a lower one.
Incorrect. A lower WIP limit is generally better than a higher one, and you want to limit the number of items you
work on as much as possible. This situation results in better lead times and faster feedback and forces the removal
of impediments.
D Finishing early or starting late impacts how you set the limit.
Incorrect. Finishing early or starting late is not considered an important guideline when determining WIP limits.
Finishing a task early or starting a task late has nothing to do with limiting WIP, but rather depends on the
sequence of tasks to perform, and their prioritization.
Reference:
Agile Practice Guide, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 103-105; see also Kanban In Action, Marcus
Hammarberg, Joakim Sunden, 2014, WIP Limits
PMI-ACP Exam 1
A software development company had to make a number of adjustments in how financials are captured in order to report
on agile projects. The Chief Financial Officer (CFO) wants to make sure that the same set of financial metrics are used
across all projects before, during, and after the project in order to track the project’s benefit realization. The internal rate
of return (IRR) is on the CFO's list of proposed financial metrics. What is an argument against using IRR for all of their
projects?
A The organization's discount rate needs to be established when calculating the IRR
B The IRR cannot be calculated by hand
C IRR cannot be used to compare different projects directly
D IRR cannot be used in all situations
Hint:
The IRR is the discount rate when the present value of the cash inflows equals the original investment.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The Internal Rate of Return or IRR is a financial calculation that can help forecast how much money your agile project
will make over time. IRR is the discount rate when the present value of the cash inflows equals the original investment. A
rule of thumb when evaluating a project is to accept investments where the IRR is greater than the opportunity cost of
capital. One cannot calculate an IRR in all situations. To be able to calculate a "meaningful" IRR you must be aware of
the following preconditions:
One or more items in the cash flow stream must be expenses, and there must be at least one.
Once the cash flow stream turns positive, it must remain positive.
The sum of the positive cash flow items is larger than the sum of the negative cash flow items.
A The organization's discount rate needs to be established when calculating the IRR
Incorrect. Unlike net present value (NPV), the organization’s discount rate does not need to be established when
calculating IRR.
B The IRR cannot be calculated by hand

Incorrect. Although it can be time-consuming and tedious, it is possible to calculate the IRR by hand, although
most major spreadsheet programs include easy-to-use IRR functions.
C IRR cannot be used to compare different projects directly

Incorrect. IRR is often used to compare different projects. When choosing between projects or when choosing
alternative methods of executing the project, projects with high IRR values are generally considered better than
projects with low IRR values. Note that you cannot use IRR at all times to make such comparison (e.g., for projects
with different duration)
D IRR cannot be used in all situations

There are situations where the IRR cannot be calculated.
Reference:
Agile Estimating and Planning, Mike Cohn, 2005, Internal Rate of Return; see also
PMI-ACP Exam 1
A team is trying to determine whether to implement use cases or user stories to develop a new video game. Which of the
following relationships between use cases and user stories should the team consider while planning their project?
A A use case contains data and user interface design information and always capture a single user story.
B A use case does not contain data or user interface design information and may contain multiple user stories.
C A user story and use case are the same thing and therefore can be implemented by the team as necessary.
D A user story must consist of multiple use cases and be small enough to be implemented in less than an
iteration.
Hint:
Think about the relationship between the levels of detail contained in use cases as opposed to the level of detail in user
stories.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
A use case does not contain data or user interface design information. A user story may be a request for new
functionality, an extension of functionality or data, or improved usability. A use case may contain multiple user stories, but
it does not mean that each step in a use case is always mapped to a single user story. It may take several use case
steps to capture a single user story, or one use case step may be complicated enough that it should be split into several
user stories. Some use case steps describe business rules or behaviors that are difficult to implement, either of which
may need to be split into several user stories and developed in different iterations. There is no one-to-one relationship
between user stories and use cases, which makes it difficult to 'convert' use cases to user stories.
A A use case contains data and user interface design information and always capture a single user story.
Incorrect. Use cases do not contain data and user interface design information. Use cases do not 'always' capture
single user stories. A use case may contain multiple user stories. Note, the use of the word 'always' in an answer
choice is a red flag. Answer choices with absolute statements, such as always, never, etc. are typically incorrect.
B A use case does not contain data or user interface design information and may contain multiple user stories.
Correct. It is true that use cases do not contain data or user interface design information. A user story may be a
request for new functionality, an extension of functionality or data, or improved usability. A use case may contain
multiple user stories, but it is not necessary that each step in a use case is always a single user story.
C A user story and use case are the same thing and therefore can be implemented by the team as necessary.
Incorrect. A user story and use case are two different things and cannot be used interchangeably.
D A user story must consist of multiple use cases and be small enough to be implemented in less than an
iteration.
Incorrect. It is true that a user story must be small enough to be implemented in less than an iteration. However, it
is the use case that may consist of multiple user stories and not the other way around.
Reference:
Cooperative Game (2nd Edition), Alistair Cockburn, 2007, Agile Modeling - Use Cases
PMI-ACP Exam 1
An agile coach is encouraging the development team to look for and implement small incremental improvements in the
processes being used. Which of the following is the agile coach recommending to the team?
A Muda
B Kaizen
C Ishikawa
D Kanban
Hint:
This is a continuous improvement process used on agile projects and made famous by Toyota.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The Japanese word 'Kaizen' means 'change for the better' or 'continuous improvement'. This is a process that is
continually and incrementally being implemented by those that do the work of the project. It is considered a mindset that
all workers should adopt in order to optimize processes over time.
A Muda
Incorrect. Muda is the Japanese word meaning 'waste' and is the metaphor used in lean manufacturing and the
Toyota production system for activities that do not add value to the end product. Eliminating waste is one of the
basic premises of lean manufacturing and value stream analysis.
B Kaizen
Correct. Kaizen is a Japanese word meaning 'change for the better' or 'continuous improvement'.
C Ishikawa
Incorrect. Ishikawa diagrams, also called fishbone diagrams, herringbone diagrams, or cause-and-effect diagrams
are causal diagrams created by Kaoru Ishikawa that show the causes of a specific event. Common uses of the
Ishikawa diagram are product design and quality defect prevention to identify potential factors causing an overall
effect.
D Kanban
Incorrect. Kanban is an agile product development method that is based in lean manufacturing and used to provide
information to the development team using a pull system.
Reference:
PMI-ACP Exam Prep, 2nd Edition: A Course in a Book for Passing the PMI Agile Certified Practitioner (PMI-ACP) Exam,
Mike Griffiths, 2012, Kaizen; see also Kanban In Action, Marcus Hammarberg, Joakim Sunden, 2014
PMI-ACP Exam 1
An agile project team is conducting a release retrospective. The current discussion is focused on some disruptive risk
events that occurred in the last few weeks, prior to the release, that were difficult to resolve and threatened the release
date. These risks were identified early in the planning process but were associated with user stories that were relatively
low in value to the customer. What could have been done to avoid having these risks occur so close to the scheduled
release date?
A The product owner could have authorized overtime and added additional resources in the weeks leading up
to the release to mitigate the impact of the high-risk user stories.
B The product owner could have written the user stories in the backlog in such a way as to minimize or remove
any risk.
C There is really nothing the product owner could have done because risk events always occur just before the
scheduled release date.
D The product owner could have scheduled the completion of high risk user stories in the product backlog
sooner rather than later in the release cycle.
Hint:
In addition to customer value, what should be considered when prioritizing and reprioritizing the product backlog?
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Risk should be considered, as well as, customer value when prioritizing the product backlog. When planning risk-related
work, it is better to address high- risk items sooner rather than later, so that if the risk is realized, there will be sufficient
time to address the event and to help minimize the impact on the iteration or release.
A The product owner could have authorized overtime and added additional resources in the weeks leading up to
the release to mitigate the impact of the high-risk user stories.
Incorrect. Adding resources and authorizing overtime will rarely resolve risk-related issues that occur later in the
project. This approach is also counter to agile best practices.
B The product owner could have written the user stories in the backlog in such a way as to minimize or remove
any risk.
Incorrect. The risk exists more due to the nature of the work than how that work is described in a user story. It
would be impossible to eliminate risk based solely on how the work is described in the user story.
C There is really nothing the product owner could have done because risk events always occur just before the
scheduled release date.
Incorrect. It is always possible to influence the probability and impact of identified risk events. An agile best
practice is to address the high-risk user stories earlier in the project. Discovering problems sooner rather than later,
and which allows more time to address and resolve these problems.
D The product owner could have scheduled the completion of high risk user stories in the product backlog sooner
rather than later in the release cycle.
Correct. While the product owner prioritizes the product backlog primarily based on customer value, project risk
should also be considered when grooming the product backlog. It is better to schedule the completion of high risk
user stories early in the project so that if the risk occurs, there is time to resolve the issue before it threatens the
schedule.
Reference:
Cohn, 2005, Risk Management
PMI-ACP Exam 1
An agile team used a simple change management process where the product owner could reprioritize user stories based
on the customer feedback. New user stories would need to be the same relative size as those being replaced in order to
maintain a fixed budget and schedule. The final product included the highest value customer features, and the project
was completed on schedule and budget. What Agile Manifesto value did the team emphasize to ensure project success?
A Responding to change over following a plan
B Customer collaboration over contract negotiation
C Individuals and interactions over processes and tools
D Working software over comprehensive documentation
Hint:
The question is asking what Agile Manifesto value the team emphasized the ‘most’ in this case to ensure project
success.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Agile Manifesto Value # 4 specifies that responding to change is valued more than following a plan. All the answer
choices are Agile Manifesto values, but only one actually is supported by the situation described in the question. By
developing a new and simple change management process, the client could initiate the reprioritization of user stories
with the development team. In doing so, the team changed the original plan to accommodate the client’s needs. This
flexibility was successfully implemented despite the project having a fixed budget and schedule.
By responding to the needs of the customer with the implementation a process that allowed changes to be initiated by
the client, the team helped to ensure that the final deliverable would contain those features that the client valued highest,
as well as with the project being completed on schedule and within budget. In this instance, it was demonstrated that
responding to change was more important than following a plan that did not serve the needs of the customer.

A Responding to change over following a plan
Correct. The scenario emphasized the change management process, flexibility, welcoming, and accommodating
changes while including the features that represented the highest value to the client. While the scenario does not
explicitly mention the original plan that was not followed, of the choices provided, responding to change over
following a plan best addresses the question asked and is, therefore, the best response.
B Customer collaboration over contract negotiation

Incorrect. Although changes were accommodated through customer collaboration with the product owner and
team, there was no mention of external or internal contracts or their negotiation.
C Individuals and interactions over processes and tools

Incorrect. The only mention of processes is the simple change management process. The question did not directly
highlight individuals and interactions over processes and tools.
D Working software over comprehensive documentation

Incorrect. The question did not mention anything about documentation.
Reference:
Agile Practice Guide, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 8-9; see also , Agile Manifesto Value # 4; see
also The Agile PrepCast, Agile Manifesto,
PMI-ACP Exam 1
The Agile Manifesto's 4 values and 12 principles form the foundation of all agile methods. Although all of these values
and principles are critical to the success of any agile project, one principle stands out as the top priority for all agile
projects. Which of the following describes this top priority?
A Delivering working product frequently, from a couple of weeks to a couple of months
B Welcoming changing requirements, even late in development
C Satisfying the customer through early and continuous delivery of valuable product
D Building projects around motivated individuals
Hint:
This principle is not actually specific to Agile but should drive any project, regardless of the method used to execute the
project.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
In 2001, a group of 17 software developers practicing various agile methods met to compare notes and determine the
commonalities between these different agile methods. The result was the first draft of The Agile Manifesto for Software
Development, which presented these common organizing principles in a single document. The Agile Manifesto is based
on 4 values and 12 principles that help guide agile project teams when executing their projects. Agile Manifesto Principle
# 1 states, “Our highest priority is to satisfy the customer through early and continuous delivery of valuable software.”
This principle underscores the focus of delivering value to the customer, and it is this philosophy of customer satisfaction
that drives agile project teams.
Note: You may have noticed that the word 'product' was substituted for the word 'software' in the question and answer
choices. This word choice is because although the original drafters of the Agile Manifesto were talking about these
values and principles supporting 'software' development, it is now understood that these principles can be successfully
applied to any type of 'product' development. It is very important that you fully understand the Agile Manifesto values and
principles because they help form the foundation of all agile project management activities.

A Delivering working product frequently, from a couple of weeks to a couple of months
Incorrect. This answer choice does represent one of the twelve principles of the Agile Manifesto. However, this
principle is not stated to be the highest priority.
B Welcoming changing requirements, even late in development

Incorrect. This response is one of the principles of the Agile Manifesto. However, a different answer choice is
stated as the highest priority.
C Satisfying the customer through early and continuous delivery of valuable product
Correct. Agile Manifesto Principle # 1 states, “Our highest priority is to satisfy the customer through early and
continuous delivery of valuable software.”
D Building projects around motivated individuals

Incorrect. While this answer choice is an important principle of the Agile Manifesto, it is not described as the top
priority.
Reference:
Agile Practice Guide, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 9; see also The Software Project Manager's
Bridge to Agility, Michele Sliger, Stacia Broderick, 2008, Agile Manifesto Principle # 1 (Customer Satisfaction); see also
PMI-ACP Exam 1
The product owner wants to assign users stories for the next iteration. The customer tells the product owner which user
stories hold the highest value, while the product owner indicates which have the highest risk level and dependencies on
other user stories. By the end of the meeting, they have a prioritized list of user stories in the product backlog, the most
important of which will be discussed in the next iteration planning meeting. What process have the product owner and the
customer just performed?
A Backlog filtering
B Kano analysis
C Backlog refinement
D Minimum viable product
Hint:
What does the development team require in order to perform an iteration planning meeting?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The product owner and the customer just performed the backlog refinement process. When an agile team starts a new
project, the product owner should initiate the product backlog by working with the stakeholders and other team members
to capture the stakeholders' needs, wants, desires, and requirements as product backlog items. As the work progresses,
the product owner and the development team should work with the stakeholders continuously to prioritize the backlog,
identify new items, and refine and clean up the items in the product backlog to get them ready for planning. This process
is called backlog refinement and must be performed continuously because the team's work often exposes new
information that clarifies existing items and identifies new ones. Backlog refinement is also sometimes referred to as
backlog grooming.
A Backlog filtering
Incorrect. Backlog filtering is not a term associated with agile project management.
B Kano analysis
Incorrect. Kano analysis is a technique that is used to classify customer preferences into four categories that can
be further used by the project stakeholders to understand how customer needs relate to customer satisfaction.
C Backlog refinement
Correct. Backlog refinement is the process of keeping the backlog updated and accurately prioritized based on the
latest requirements and new information.
D Minimum viable product

Incorrect. A minimum viable product (MVP) is an early version of the product released to the target users that is
complete enough to be useful to the users, but small enough that it does not represent the entire product/project.
Reference:
Agile Practice Guide, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 52-53; see also Exploring Scrum: The
Fundamentals, 2nd Edition, Dan Rawsthorne with Doug Shimp, 2013, Backlog Grooming/Refinement
PMI-ACP Exam 1
An agile practitioner is attending a scrum meeting where the team is demonstrating some individual product components
to the customer via video conference in anticipation of a major feature release coming up in two weeks. What scrum
meeting is the team currently attending?
A Daily standup meeting
B Sprint review meeting
C Release review meeting
D Sprint retrospective meeting
Hint:
Two of the answer choices are events where product functionality is demonstrated, but one is held at the end of a sprint
and one is held at the end of a release.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The sprint review meeting is a product-oriented meeting held at the end of the sprint to demonstrate a potentially
shippable product increment completed within that sprint to the product owner, customer and other interested
stakeholders.
A Daily standup meeting

Incorrect. The daily standup meeting is used to synchronize the team on a daily basis during the iteration.
B Sprint review meeting

Correct. The sprint review meeting is a product-oriented meeting held at the end of the sprint to demonstrate the
product components completed within that iteration to the product owner, customer and other interested
stakeholders.
C Release review meeting
Incorrect. The release review meeting is a product-oriented meeting held at the end of each release on an agile
project where the agile team demonstrates working features at the release level to the customer, product owner,
and any other interested stakeholders. Whereas, the sprint review meeting is held at the end of each sprint to
demonstrate the product components developed during the sprint.

Incorrect. The sprint retrospective meeting is held at the end of each sprint but is used to review current processes
in order to improve them.
Reference:
Agile Practice Guide, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 55, 101; see also Exploring Scrum: The
Fundamentals, 2nd Edition, Dan Rawsthorne with Doug Shimp, 2013, Scrum - Events - Sprint Review Meeting
PMI-ACP Exam 1
An agile team is using the acceptance test-driven development (ATDD) approach in their project. Which of the following
would the team ideally be doing?
A Writing the acceptance tests at the same time as developing the functionality to be tested
B Writing the acceptance tests before developing the functionality to be tested
C Using the user interface as a method to test the functionality
D Consulting developers on how best to test the functionality
Hint:
ATDD is closely related to test-driven development (TDD).
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
One of the key aspects of the acceptance test-driven development (ATDD) approach is that the writing of the new
acceptance tests or test cases occurs prior to developing or implementing the functionality.
A Writing the acceptance tests at the same time as developing the functionality to be tested
Incorrect. In ATDD, acceptance test cases are written according to the requirements before the development of
those functions.
B Writing the acceptance tests before developing the functionality to be tested

Correct. In ATDD, acceptance test cases are written according to the requirements before the development of
those functions.
C Using the user interface as a method to test the functionality

Incorrect. ATDD favors the use of automated testing, so much so that manually testing via the user interface of the
application is less favorable.
D Consulting developers on how best to test the functionality
Incorrect. Ideally, developers do not need to be consulted on how best to test functionality. Testing of the
functionality should be done from the end user's perspective and should not require input from the developers as to
how best to test the application.
Reference:
Agile Practice Guide, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 56; see also Lean-Agile Software Development:
Achieving Enterprise Agility, Alan Shalloway, Guy Beaver, James R. Trott, 2010, Acceptance Test-Driven Development; ;
see also Agile PrepCast, Agile Overt Product Quality Concepts,
PMI-ACP Exam 1
When the team lead was asked how the team intended to mitigate the risks associated with their upcoming high-risk
project, the team lead replied that the team would do its best to fail fast during the initial sprints. What did the team lead
mean by that?
A Since the project has a high risk of failure, it is better to fail soon so that the team can start working on a
different project.
B It is better to fail at the beginning of the project rather than at the end for the company to save some money.
C The team should develop the most difficult features first, thus forcing an early failure, to figure out possible
solutions sooner.
D Fast failure at the beginning of the project allows the team to spot problems early and try to solve them as
soon as possible.
Hint:
Think of the purpose and benefits of failing early during a project as it relates to risk mitigation.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Obviously, failure is not the goal of any project. However, it is better for a project to fail sooner rather than later. As it
pertains to risk mitigation, agile teams prefer to fail fast to detect and correct potential problems as early in the project
life-cycle as possible. By failing fast, the team will have an opportunity to learn early. Not only the team, but the whole
organization can benefit from the fast failure, because if the team cannot overcome the risks and challenges, then the
organization can terminate or postpone the project and reallocate resources sooner.
A Since the project has a high risk of failure, it is better to fail soon so that the team can start working on a
different project.
Incorrect. This choice is not a valid reason for a team to fail fast. If a project is doomed to failure, then a company
should not have started it in the first place. Additionally, the question states that the team will do its best to fail fast
during the initial sprints rather than expedite the failure of the entire project.
B It is better to fail at the beginning of the project rather than at the end for the company to save some money.
Incorrect. While it is true that failure near the end of a project would likely be more costly to the company than
failures at the beginning of a project, the team's goal is not so much to fail, but to allow for 'limited' failure early in
the project by allowing innovation and experimentation to find a better way of doing things.
C The team should develop the most difficult features first, thus forcing an early failure, to figure out possible
solutions sooner.
Incorrect. Although it is true that early failure allows teams to figure out solutions sooner, a team does not
necessarily start by developing the most difficult features first. Instead, the team typically develops features with
the highest priority and value first as defined by the product owner.
D Fast failure at the beginning of the project allows the team to spot problems early and try to solve them as soon
as possible.
Correct. It is better for the team to fail fast to detect and correct potential problems as early as possible on the
project.
Reference:
Kanban: Successful Evolutionary Change for your Technology Business, David J. Anderson, 2010, Fast Failure
PMI-ACP Exam 1
One of the stakeholders suggests that it would be best for them only to attend release demonstrations and skip iteration
demonstrations since so many meetings are required to review and verify the product increments. Which of the following
statements might the product owner use to defend this common agile practice?
A It decreases cycle time.
B It prevents any misunderstanding between the stakeholders and the development team.
C It helps the team predict and decrease defects.
D It reduces the cost of fixing issues
Hint:
Regular cycles of verification and validation improve early detection of defects and issues, thereby minimizing rework.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
In this question, the stakeholder who is complaining about how frequently they are asked to attend iteration reviews is
likely not experienced in the benefits of agile methods and best practices such as regular verification and validation.
Traditional non-adaptive project management methods, such as waterfall, do not require the project stakeholders to
verify and validate deliverables until far later in the product or project lifecycle. Unfortunately, this infrequency and delay
often result in late detection of defects or issues, which then require significant amounts of rework and delays. The net
effect of this late detection is an increased cost of change and potentially a product that does not meet the needs or
expectations of the project stakeholders and/or customers.
A It decreases cycle time.

Incorrect. Cycle time is the time it takes to work through part of a process. Cycle time and frequent validation and
verification of product increments are not related or dependent activities.
B It prevents any misunderstanding between the stakeholders and the development team.
Incorrect. Mistakes, errors, or misunderstandings of requirements on projects are impossible to avoid completely.
The key word to eliminate this choice from being the correct answer is 'any'. It's highly unlikely to prevent ANY
misunderstanding between the stakeholders and the development team no matter how frequently the reviews are
conducted.
C It helps the team predict and decrease defects.

Incorrect. The practice of frequent stakeholder validation and verification does not help the team predict or
decrease defects. This practice can, however, help identify a defect earlier in the project cycle, which minimizes
the amount of rework required to fix the defect.
D It reduces the cost of fixing issues

Correct. The practice of frequent stakeholder validation and verification is one way that agile methods keep the
cost of changes required or requested low as issues are detected far earlier in the product lifecycle when
stakeholders, customers, and product owners are able to verify that product increments behave as expected and
provide value to the customer.
Reference:
Innovative Products, Jim Highsmith, 2004, Cost of Change
PMI-ACP Exam 1
During a sprint planning meeting, the scrum team is arguing over 115 story points' worth of user stories that the product
owner is pushing to be completed in the upcoming sprint. However, the development team’s average velocity is only 100
story points. Who makes the final decision on how many story points will be targeted for completion during a sprint?
A The project manager
B The development team
C The scrum master
D The product owner
Hint:
Who is in the best position to determine what realistically can be accomplished during the sprint?
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
In Scrum, the development team discusses the initial stories and corresponding story points they 'think' they can
complete in the current sprint. The development team then decides how many story points they can commit to
completing during the current sprint. In this situation, because the team's average velocity is 100 story points, 100 story
points worth of work is the maximum that they are willing to commit to completing. Since the user stories presented by
the product owner total 115 story points, one or more of the user stories need to be removed from the sprint backlog for
the development team to complete the sprint successfully. Although the product owner would like the development team
to commit to completing 115 story points instead of 100 story points during this sprint, it is up to the development team to
determine how many story points they can commit to completing during any given sprint since the development team will
actually be performing the work.
A The project manager

Incorrect. The sprint planning meeting should include the product owner, scrum master, and development team.
Although others may be invited to the meeting, this is not typically the case for agile projects. More importantly, the
project manager, if this role even exists on the project, is not part of the development team, and is not in a position
to determine what can be accomplished during the sprint.
B The development team

Correct. The development team is responsible for determining what will be accomplished during the sprint, as the
individuals responsible for completing the work are in the best position to make that determination.
C The scrum master

Incorrect. If the members of the development team cannot reach an agreement during a sprint planning meeting,
the scrum master’s role is to facilitate a discussion to help the team break the impasse. In extreme circumstances,
the scrum master may make decide for the team, but this action should only be taken as a last resort to resolve the
issue. However, the question does not indicate that there is any conflict among the members of the development
team, but rather the product owner is pushing for an unrealistic target.
D The product owner

Incorrect. Agile best practices allow the development team to make decisions regarding what can be accomplished
during a sprint. Since the development team will be performing the actual development work, they are in the best
position to determine what can realistically be accomplished during the sprint. Although the product owner wants
more to be accomplished during the sprint, given the development team’s average velocity of 100 story points,
setting a target of 115 story points is probably unrealistic.
Reference:
Agile Practice Guide, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 41, 101; see also User Stories Applied: For Agile
Software Development, Mike Cohn, 2004, Sprint Backlog
PMI-ACP Exam 1
The agile team coach receives an email request for a copy of the project management plan. How should the team coach
respond to this request from a stakeholder who is unfamiliar with agile?
A Send the stakeholder a story map or project roadmap
B Explain the adaptive planning approach used by agile projects
C Suggest the stakeholder attend an iteration retrospective and ask their planning questions
D Ask the product owner to address the stakeholder's questions
Hint:
Whose job is it to educate the organization about agile planning methods and how they differ from
traditional predictive approaches, and how should this best be done in this situation?
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
In this situation, the project stakeholder is not familiar with agile methods of planning and has requested for a copy of the
project management plan, an artifact, which is typical in traditional, predictive project planning. One of the responsibilities
of an agile coach is to educate the organization about agile practices and methodologies. The agile coach should contact
the stakeholder and take this opportunity to educate and inform the stakeholder that agile uses adaptive planning rather
than predictive planning. The coach can introduce the stakeholder to the product backlog, iterations, releases, iteration
and release planning, as well as other planning artifacts such as story maps and product road maps. The coach can then
draw parallels between agile artifacts and those used in traditional predictive project management. Introducing key
concepts of adaptive planning such as agile discovery and progressive elaboration will help the stakeholder understand
agile practices and explain why in agile, a traditional project management plan is not used to plan, monitor and execute
the project from start to finish.
A Send the stakeholder a story map or project roadmap

Incorrect. While story maps and project roadmaps are used as high-level planning tools, simply sending these
items to the stakeholder without explaining how they are used or how agile planning is different from traditional
project management planning is not likely to satisfy the stakeholder or improve their understanding of how agile
projects are planned.
B Explain the adaptive planning approach used by agile projects

Correct. The correct approach in this situation is to contact the stakeholder to explain how agile methods use an
adaptive and not predictive approach to planning. The coach should educate the stakeholder on the artifacts used
for planning in agile.
C Suggest the stakeholder attend an iteration retrospective and ask their planning questions
Incorrect. Iteration retrospectives are conducted for the development team to identify opportunities to improve how
subsequent iterations are executed. Iteration retrospectives only have the team coach and the development team
in attendance; therefore, it is not the forum for stakeholders to discuss questions about project planning.
D Ask the product owner to address the stakeholder's questions

Incorrect. The role of the agile coach is to educate stakeholders on agile methodology, so the coach should do so
while addressing the stakeholder’s request for a project management plan. At times, a coach may defer to the
product owner on matters (e.g., issues with what is included in the product backlog), but product owner does not
need to be involved in this instance.
Reference:
Agile Practice Guide, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 18-19; see also PMI-ACP Exam Prep, 2nd
Edition: A Course in a Book for Passing the PMI Agile Certified Practitioner (PMI-ACP) Exam, Mike Griffiths, 2012
PMI-ACP Exam 1
A software developer is writing code in an eXtreme Programming (XP) environment and discovers an error in another
developer’s code, and he believes he knows how to correct the error. Which of the following is the developer's best
course of action?
A Document the error and report it to the original developer so that it can be corrected
B Make the necessary correction to the code himself and document as needed
C Report the error to the product owner and let them decide how to proceed
D Ignore the error because it will be discovered and corrected during testing
Hint:
On an eXtreme Programming software development team, who owns the code?
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
eXtreme Programming (XP) is an agile software development method that draws upon 13 core practices, one of which is
collective code ownership. The concept of collective code ownership dictates that the entire development team takes
responsibility for the integrity of the software code that is produced. If an error is discovered and the solution is within the
capabilities of the person who discovered the error, then it should be corrected by that person. The idea is that the team
collectively assumes responsibility for the quality of the code, which not only helps to shorten the time it takes to develop
the code but also helps to ensure that the code produced provides the best value for the customer.
A Document the error and report it to the original developer so that it can be corrected
Incorrect. XP promotes the concept of shared or collective code ownership. Since the ownership of the code is
shared among the developers, there is no reason to delay the correction of the error by reporting it to the original
developer.
B Make the necessary correction to the code himself and document as needed
Correct. The concept of collective code ownership within XP permits the developer that discovered the error to
make the necessary corrections.
C Report the error to the product owner and let them decide how to proceed
Incorrect. It can be assumed that the product owner requires a product that is free of defects. Therefore, the error
just needs to be corrected, and there is no reason to report the issue to the product owner.
D Ignore the error because it will be discovered and corrected during testing
Incorrect. The error may or may not be detected during testing. Regardless, ignoring the error is irresponsible and
may lead to further issues with the code.
Reference:
Agile Practice Guide, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 102; see also Extreme Programming Explained:
Embrace Change, 2nd Edition (The XP Series), Kent Beck, Cynthia Andres, 2005, XP - Core Practices - Collective Code
Ownership
PMI-ACP Exam 1
An agile practitioner met with the team to decide the technology for the system to be developed. At the end of the
meeting, she obtained consensus from the team on the choice of technology. Which of the following agile activities did
the agile practitioner and her scrum team demonstrate in this situation?
A Cross-functional training
B Self-organization
C Participatory decision making
D Collaboration
Hint:
Some of the answer choices are correct in this situation but read the question again to determine which answer choice
'best' fits the situation.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
In this situation, the agile practitioner and her team were demonstrating participatory decision making. Participatory
decision making is a creative process that delegates decision ownership to the entire team. There are a variety of
methods that are employed to help facilitate the finding of a choice that is acceptable to the team. In an agile
environment, the purpose of participatory decision making is to supply the project team with specific practices to make
and analyze the countless decisions that arise during an agile project. The team needs to be encouraged and enabled to
collaborate and readily make decisions due to the short timeboxes that are inherent in agile projects. They also need to
prevent any costly decision-making delays.
A Cross-functional training
Incorrect. A cross-functional team consists of individuals who are willing to explore other areas of expertise with
which they currently may not be familiar in order to increase the overall efficiency and productivity of the team as a
whole. An example of cross-functional training would be to have a developer cross-trained on how to run an
integrated testing program. Although their primary expertise is in the area of development, they are willing to
expand their knowledge of testing to improve the team's capabilities.
B Self-organization
Incorrect. Self-organization of an agile project team occurs when the majority of the tasks performed by the team
members have been selected, organized, and executed by them and not dictated by someone else. Members of
self-organizing teams are much more motivated when they understand that their input is welcome and valued.
Although participatory decision-making benefits from a team's ability to self-organize, self-organization is not the
best answer to this question.
C Participatory decision making

Correct. The agile practitioner and her team were demonstrating participatory decision making, which is a creative
process that delegates decision ownership to the entire team, and relies on methods that will result in finding an
effective option that is acceptable to the team.
D Collaboration
Incorrect. Collaboration means ensuring that each agile project team member is involved at every stage of the
development process and that their feedback is not only welcome but also encouraged. It is a basic agile principle
that permeates through all activities on an agile project and is critical to agile project success. Although
participatory decision making depends on collaboration, collaboration is not the best answer to this question.
Reference:
Agile Practice Guide, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 143; see also Agile Project Management:
Creating Innovative Products - 2nd Edition, Jim Highsmith, 2009, Participatory Decision Models
PMI-ACP Exam 1
An agile team has moved past the pleasantries of being a new team to its current state where many conflicts have begun
to arise. Tensions are running high, and the dialogue has gotten harsh. Using Paul Hersey's situational leadership model,
what actions should the team leader take in order to remove impediments while keeping the team from imploding, so
they can perform better as a team?
A Share the decision making on how tasks should be accomplished and how to resolve the conflicts
B Provide direction as well as support for the team to resolve the conflicts
C Stay involved in decisions and monitor progress, while passing the responsibility and process to team
concerning how to resolve these conflicts
D Provide clear and frequent directives to team members as to what, how, why, when and where to perform
their tasks and how to resolve these conflicts
Hint:
The question describes a storming phase for the team, so what can the team leader do for the team to ensure that the
team does not spend too much time in this phase.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Paul Hersey's situational leadership model includes four leadership styles:
S1 Telling or directing (high directive / low supportive)

S2 Selling or coaching (high directive / high supportive)
S3 Participating (low directive/high supportive)
S4 Delegating (low directive /low supportive).
He also indicates that no one style is optimal for a leader to use at all times.
Similar to Hershey's model is that of Tuckman. According to Tuckman's model of group development, a team goes
through the process of forming, storming, norming, performing, and later adjourning. During the storming phase of team-
building, it's important for agile leaders to understand that conflict is inevitable, while also ensuring that conflicts stay
within bounds. Therefore, high directives and highly supportive behavior are required in this situation because the agile
leader acts as a referee while the team resolves their conflicts.
A Share the decision making on how tasks should be accomplished and how to resolve the conflicts
Incorrect. This choice corresponds to the model participating/supporting style or S3 (low directive / high
supportive).
B Provide direction as well as support for the team to resolve the conflicts
Correct. This choice corresponds to the model selling or coaching style or S2 (high directive / high supportive).
C Stay involved in decisions and monitor progress, while passing the responsibility and process to team
concerning how to resolve these conflicts
Incorrect. This choice corresponds to the model delegating style or S4 (low directive / low supportive).
D Provide clear and frequent directives to team members as to what, how, why, when and where to perform their
tasks and how to resolve these conflicts
Incorrect. This choice corresponds to the model directing style or S1 (high directive / low supportive).
Reference:
Agile Practice Guide, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 33-38; see also The Software Project Manager's
Bridge to Agility, Michele Sliger, Stacia Broderick, 2008 High-Performing Team Characteristics - Situational Leadership;
see also
PMI-ACP Exam 1
An agile practitioner needs to establish an objective range of values to be displayed on an information radiator to indicate
whether a process is stable. Which of the following should the agile practitioner use?
A Process boundaries
B Specification limits
C Process metrics
D Control limits
Hint:
The key word in this question is 'stable'.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Control limits are the thresholds that determine whether a process is in or out of control. In the lean process, statistical
analysis is the area composed of three standard deviations on either side of the centerline, or mean, of a normal
distribution of data plotted on a control chart that reflects the expected variation in the data. A process is considered out
of control when a data point exceeds a control limit.
A Process boundaries
Incorrect. Process boundaries are a suggested item to be included in a process improvement plan. They describe
the purpose of the process, the start and end of the process, its inputs and outputs, the process owner and the
process stakeholders.
B Specification limits
Incorrect. Specification limits are the areas, on either side of the centerline, or mean, of data plotted on a control
chart that meets the customer's requirements for a product or service. This area may be greater than or less than
the area defined by the control limits.
C Process metrics
Incorrect. Process metrics are specified by the project team and are used in conjunction with control limits to
analyze process efficiency.
D Control limits
Correct. Control limits are the thresholds that determine whether a process is in or out of control. A process is
considered out of control when a data point exceeds a control limit.
Reference:
A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 304
PMI-ACP Exam 1
During a daily standup meeting, a software developer suggested a change to the database design and raised a question
about configuring the database. The tester reported on some research and started to discuss the pros and cons of using
a particular automated testing tool. Another team member reported having to wait for the delivery of hardware and
equipment to complete performance testing. Which discussion topic was appropriate for a daily standup meeting?
A Suggesting a change to the database design
B Asking a question about configuring the database
C Discussing the pros and cons of using the latest automated testing tool
D Waiting for hardware and equipment to complete performance testing
Hint:
The appropriate topics for a daily standup meeting include, what has been accomplished since the last standup, what will
be done today, and any impediments to progress.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The daily standup meeting (or daily scrum meeting as it is referred to in Scrum) is a short daily meeting held by an agile
project team that originated in Scrum but quickly spread to many of the other agile methods because of its effectiveness.
This meeting is typically held as early as possible each day but after the entire team has arrived for work. The daily
standup is primarily for the development team and is typically timeboxed to 15 minutes. To keep the meeting short, some
teams require participants to stand. During the daily standup meeting, each team member answers the following three
questions:
1. What did you do yesterday?

2. What will you do today?
3. What obstacles are in your way?
The daily standup meeting should be focused on answering the three standard questions from above and should not
veer off into other discussion topics.
A Suggesting a change to the database design

Incorrect. The appropriate topics for a daily standup meeting include, what has been accomplished since the last
standup, what will be done today, and any impediments to progress. Discussing changes to the database design is
outside the scope of a daily standup meeting.
B Asking a question about configuring the database

Incorrect. A daily standup meeting should include, what has been accomplished since the last standup, what will
be done today, and any impediments to progress. Asking questions about configuring the database is not an
appropriate topic for a daily standup meeting.
C Discussing the pros and cons of using the latest automated testing tool
Incorrect. Discussing the pros and cons of using the latest automated testing tool does not answer one of the three
standard questions that team members answer during a daily standup meeting.
D Waiting for hardware and equipment to complete performance testing

Correct. Waiting for the delivery of hardware and equipment represents an impediment to progress, and this is an
appropriate topic for a daily standup meeting.
Reference:
Agile Practice Guide, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 53-54; see also User Stories Applied: For Agile
Software Development, Mike Cohn, 2004, Daily Standup Meeting - 3 Questions; see also The Agile PrepCast, Scrum,
PMI-ACP Exam 1
An agile coach understands the importance of effectively using emotional intelligence to lead and develop the members
of her agile project teams. Emotional intelligence is the ability to understand your own emotions and the emotions of
others in order to successfully interact with them and is characterized by four major attributes. In what order should an
agile project leader master these attributes to get to the point where they can effectively lead and develop other team
members?
A Self-management, self-awareness, social awareness, social skills
B Social skills, self-awareness, self-management, social awareness
C Self-awareness, self-management, social awareness, social skills
D Social awareness, self-awareness, self-management, social skills
Hint:
Emotional intelligence mastery begins its focus internally and is then projected out to others.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Emotional Intelligence is broadly grouped into four key attributes. For emotional intelligence to be most effective, these
four attributes should be mastered in a specific order, and can be mastered by asking and answering specific questions,
as follows:
Self-awareness: Do you honestly know your strengths and weaknesses?

Self-management: Can you control your emotions appropriately? Do you take initiative and follow through on your
commitments? Can you adapt to changes?
Social awareness: Do you have empathy towards others? Can you put yourself into someone else’s shoes during a
disagreement?
Social skills: Do you clearly communicate? Do you inspire and/or motivate others? Are you able to deal with healthy
debate?

A Self-management, self-awareness, social awareness, social skills
Incorrect. One must be self-aware before being able to exercise self-management.
B Social skills, self-awareness, self-management, social awareness

Incorrect. Emotional intelligence begins by focusing internally applying social skills.
C Self-awareness, self-management, social awareness, social skills

Correct. Emotional intelligence requires the development of self-awareness, self-management, social awareness,
and social skills in this order.
D Social awareness, self-awareness, self-management, social skills

Incorrect. Emotional intelligence starts by focusing internally and is then project out to others.
Reference:
Agile Practice Guide, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 36; see also A Guide to the Project Management
Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 349; Coaching
Agile Teams: A Companion for ScrumMasters, Agile Coaches, and Project Managers in Transition, Lyssa Adkins, 2010,
Emotional Intelligence;
PMI-ACP Exam 1
A two-year project to create a state-of-the-art drivetrain for the latest model of a global automobile production company
has just come to an end. The team is engaged in the final project closeout activities. Which of the following might be
included in these activities?
A Conducting a kick-off meeting to celebrate the successful completion of the project
B Project closure is not performed on an agile project as it does not produce value for the customer
C Release of the final product to the operations team
D Preparing the project definition of done
Hint:
Which of the answer choices should be completed at the end of a project?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Activities during project closure may include but are not limited to handing over the product, finishing up any loose ends,
project review, celebrating, and releasing resources. Projects, by definition, are temporary endeavors and the project
team eventually needs to release the product to the operations team. The release of the final product is an essential
component of project closure.
A Conducting a kick-off meeting to celebrate the successful completion of the project

Incorrect. An end-of-project celebration is part of project closure, but the kick-off meeting should be held at the
start of the project.
B Project closure is not performed on an agile project as it does not produce value for the customer
Incorrect. Project closure is still necessary for an agile project. Activities during project closure may include but are
not limited to handing over the product, finishing up any loose ends, project review, celebrating, and releasing
resources.
C Release of the final product to the operations team
Correct. Projects, by definition, are temporary endeavors and the project team eventually needs to release the
product to the operations team. The release of the final product is an essential component of project closure.
D Preparing the project definition of done

Incorrect. The project definition of done should have been prepared very early on in the project, not at the end of
the project.
Reference:
Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 123; see also Agile Project Management: Creating Innovative Products - 2nd Edition, Jim
Highsmith, 2009, Agile Process Overview - Closeout; see also
PMI-ACP Exam 1
In line with valuing "individuals over processes and tools," an agile coach wants to streamline processes and tools by
implementing COCOMO. How will the team benefit from a tool such as COCOMO?
A Help teams work together in the same space
B Automate testing
C Reverse engineering similar projects to estimate future projects
D Promote knowledge sharing
Hint:
COCOMO stands for ‘constructive cost model’.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
COCOMO stands for ‘constructive cost model’. It is a software estimation model that is an incredibly helpful and popular
agile tool that uses previous projects' costs to estimate the cost of future projects. COCOMO is an open model and is
based on hundreds of historical software development projects. By using COCOMO, the agile team will not have to
waste a great deal of time or effort in creating something that already exists.
A Help teams work together in the same space

Incorrect. The choice describes colocation or a collaboration tool, but COCOMO does not serve to help teams
work together in the same space.
B Automate testing
Incorrect. COCOMO is unrelated to automated testing.
C Reverse engineering similar projects to estimate future projects

Correct. COCOMO utilizes cost drivers, equations, and other factors for similar projects to aid in estimating the
software development effort. COCOMO involves reverse engineering similar past projects to estimate future
projects.
D Promote knowledge sharing

Incorrect. COCOMO, as an open model, does promote knowledge sharing since many projects have contributed to
its growing knowledge base, but promoting knowledge sharing is not how the team will primarily benefit from its
use.
Reference:
, Constructive Cost Model (COCOMO II); see also

PMI-ACP Exam 1
A company is looking to outsource some work for an agile project. What is most important to emphasize and ensure
when selecting and contracting with prospective vendors?
A Ensuring vendors are all agile certified
B Establishing contracts as fixed-cost with incentives
C Maintaining regular contact and feedback with customers
D Enforcing strict coding standards
Hint:
The answer is supported by two of the values of the Agile Manifesto.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The Agile Manifesto's values include both, "Customer collaboration over contract negotiation" and "Individuals and
interactions over processes and tools.” Customer collaboration with the delivery team is a fundamental aspect of all agile
methods and is one of the reasons that agile projects have a high rate of success and an even higher rate of customer
satisfaction. Getting the customer involved as part of the process helps to ensure that what is being developed is of very
high value and meets the customer's expectations. The greater the customer involvement, the greater the level of
customer commitment to the success of the project. Coding standards are important and having a vendor whose
personnel are agile certified is a great benefit. However, without a regular flow of feedback from the customer, neither
coding standards nor agile certified vendors would have as great an impact as regular contact and feedback between the
customer and the vendor.
A Ensuring vendors are all agile certified

Incorrect. Although it would be beneficial and ideal for vendor staff to all be agile certified practitioners, it is not a
requirement when working with external vendors. Therefore, this choice is not the best answer. Making sure that
the vendor understands what agile methods require, especially that close customer interaction throughout
development is critical to success for all agile projects.
B Establishing contracts as fixed-cost with incentives

Incorrect. Many contracting approaches may be used when working with external vendors on an agile project. The
most common types of contracts are fixed-price work packages and graduated fixed-price contracts. It is not
required that a fixed-cost with incentives contract type be used.
C Maintaining regular contact and feedback with customers

Correct. All agile methods require regular stakeholder and customer feedback. The most important thing to
emphasize and establish with an external vendor on an agile project is that the project be structured to ensure that
customers can provide regular feedback to the contractor during development.
D Enforcing strict coding standards

Incorrect. Although strict coding standards is one of the core practices for agile teams, especially those using
eXtreme Programming (XP) methods, it is more important to ensure that customers and the external vendor are in
close and constant contact to ensure that regular feedback is maintained throughout the development process.
Reference:
Bridge to Agility, Michele Sliger, Stacia Broderick, 2008, Agile Contracting
PMI-ACP Exam 1
An agile team is midway through the current sprint when a key stakeholder approaches the scrum master with a 'must'
new requirement. Which of the following would be the scrum master’s best response?
A Add the new requirement to the current sprint backlog
B State that the sprint is currently underway and that new requirements cannot be added without written
approval from management
C Add the new requirement to the product backlog so that the product owner can review it for possible inclusion
in a future sprint
D Ask the stakeholder to discuss the new requirement with the product owner and let them decide whether to
include it in the product backlog
Hint:
Think about who is responsible for adding new requirements to the product backlog.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The scrum master should ask the stakeholder to discuss the new requirement with the product owner and let them
decide whether to include it in the product backlog. This is an example of reciprocal commitment, where the agile
development team commits to delivering 100% of the specified functionality according to the definition of done at the end
of the iteration, and the product owner, organization, and customer agree not to add new user stories or change priorities
during the iteration. Although reciprocal commitment is an important agile principle, it is by no means absolute.
This situation actually does occur in real-life situations. For example, it could be that this new requirement will be
considered of higher value to the customer and/or higher risk to the project by the product owner. If so, the product owner
has several choices:
1. The product owner may actually decide to add this new requirement as a user story in the current sprint backlog.
However, this change to the current sprint backlog should not be made without the approval of the development
team and the removal of an equivalent amount of work from the current sprint backlog.
2. The product owner may also decide to create a user story for this requirement and add it to the top of the product
backlog.
3. Another option is that if the requirement has significant business or technological implications (such as a compliance
issue), the product owner may decide to cancel the current sprint and start a new sprint that includes this new high
priority user story.
A Add the new requirement to the current sprint backlog

Incorrect. The scrum master does not have the authority to add the new requirement to the current sprint backlog.
B State that the sprint is currently underway and that new requirements cannot be added without written approval
from management
Incorrect. The first part of this answer choice is correct in stating that 'the sprint is underway and that new
requirements cannot be added '. However, management will not decide whether to include this requirement in the
current sprint. This decision must be made by the product owner and the development team.
C Add the new requirement to the product backlog so that the product owner can review it for possible inclusion in
a future sprint
Incorrect. The scrum master does not have the authority to immediately create a user story or add it to the product
backlog. The scrum master must consult with the product owner first.
D Ask the stakeholder to discuss the new requirement with the product owner and let them decide whether to
include it in the product backlog
Correct. The product owner is the individual who is responsible for the content and prioritization of the product
backlog. New requirements should be discussed with the product owner who will decide whether to include the
requirements in the product backlog.
Reference:
Agile Practice Guide, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 41; see also Agile Game Development with
Scrum, Clinton Keith, 2010, Reciprocal Commitment
PMI-ACP Exam 1
A scrum master is facilitating the daily scrum meeting when one of the team members brings up a problem accessing a
database that is impeding his progress. Another team member offers a possible solution, which in turn begins a
conversation between the two team members. After a minute or two, the scrum master cuts off their conversation
reminding them that the daily scrum meeting is not the appropriate venue for their discussion. What should the scrum
master do next?
A Ask the team member who mentioned the problem to create a change request regarding the database
roadblock and let the individuals responsible for the database resolve the problem.
B End the daily scrum meeting and focus the team on resolving the database problem since it seems to take
priority over the remainder of the daily scrum meeting.
C Continue the daily scrum meeting and when it is complete dismiss the rest of the team and ask the
appropriate people to remain in the parking lot to help resolve the database roadblock.
D Allow the conversation between the two team members to continue until the issue is resolved because
problem solving is one of the primary objectives of the daily scrum meeting.
Hint:
Think about agile best practices when it comes to running the daily scrum meeting.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The daily scrum meeting (also known as a daily standup) should be timeboxed to a maximum of 15 minutes and should
be limited to the discussion of work performed since the last daily scrum meeting, work planned to be performed before
the next daily scrum meeting, and identification of roadblocks preventing team members from performing their tasks.
Discussion of roadblocks should be deferred to the parking lot after the meeting ends and should involve only those team
members who have a roadblock and those team members who can help remove a roadblock.

A Ask the team member who mentioned the problem to create a change request regarding the database
roadblock and let the individuals responsible for the database resolve the problem.
Incorrect. A change request would not be appropriate under these circumstances, as the team should take
responsibility for the work and not pass problems on to others. Additionally, an agile project does not typically
utilize a formal change control process.
B End the daily scrum meeting and focus the team on resolving the database problem since it seems to take
priority over the remainder of the daily scrum meeting.
Incorrect. Problem solving is not something that should be done during the daily scrum meeting. Roadblocks
should be captured in the parking lot and addressed after the daily standup meeting and should only involve those
people necessary to remove the roadblock.
C Continue the daily scrum meeting and when it is complete dismiss the rest of the team and ask the appropriate
people to remain in the parking lot to help resolve the database roadblock.
Correct. The daily scrum meeting should not be used to resolve problems or to remove roadblocks; rather the daily
scrum should be used to identify the roadblocks and place them on a list to be discussed after the daily scrum
meeting has been completed.
D Allow the conversation between the two team members to continue until the issue is resolved because problem
solving is one of the primary objectives of the daily scrum meeting.
Incorrect. The purpose of the daily scrum meeting is not for problem solving and removing roadblocks. The daily
scrum meeting should also be time boxed to 15 minutes, which would be exceeded if problems were solved or
roadblocks removed during the meeting.
Reference:
Agile Practice Guide, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 53; see also Exploring Scrum: The
Fundamentals, 2nd Edition, Dan Rawsthorne with Doug Shimp, 2013, Scrum - Events - Daily Scrum Meeting
PMI-ACP Exam 1
Due to a lack of expertise, an agile practitioner aims to outsource the development of a particular software module. All of
the vendors that the procurement department has contacted so far use traditional project management methods. What is
the best course of action for the agile practitioner to take in this situation?
A Ensure that the RFP process includes information on the preferred project management method as part of
the vendor selection criteria
B Educate the procurement office to make sure that all vendors are required to be familiar with agile methods
C Perform the necessary work in-house since none of the vendors use agile practices
D Set up agile training for the vendors
Hint:
Think about which of the answer choices represents a compromise between you and the eventual third-party vendor you
contract.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
As part of the vendor selection criteria, it is perfectly acceptable for the company as the buyer to request that the third-
party contractor act in an agile fashion. That is, they attend iteration planning, daily stand-up meetings, and demo/review
meetings just like the company’s agile team does. In fact, many third-party contractors or contracting agencies act much
like an extended part of the team. In this situation, contracting with a third-party vendor is critical to project success, but
the buyer must also ensure that the expected agile behavior is identified in the contract, and reinforced by the behavior of
the procuring agile team.
A Ensure that the RFP process includes information on the preferred project management method as part of the
vendor selection criteria
Correct. It is a perfectly acceptable practice for the buyer to require that the seller's team members act much like
an extended part of the buyer's agile team as part of the vendor selection criteria.
B Educate the procurement office to make sure that all vendors are required to be familiar with agile methods
Incorrect. Not all vendors need to use agile methods, and this action may exclude acceptable vendors.
C Perform the necessary work in-house since none of the vendors use agile practices
Incorrect. This answer choice represents an action that is not a viable alternative due to a lack of expertise, as
stated in the question.
D Set up agile training for the vendors

Incorrect. Training vendors would be costly and time-consuming and would not add value to the project.
Reference:
The Software Project Manager's Bridge to Agility, Michele Sliger, Stacia Broderick, 2008, Vendor Management; see also
Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 478
PMI-ACP Exam 1
An agile team has limited wall space to be used to indicate the project progress or status, so they are debating whether
to use a software tool for which their company has an unlimited user license, or whether to use their wall space to display
post-it notes or index cards that reflect what they are currently working on. What should they do?
A Go with the software tool since the company has an unlimited user license, and cost is not an issue
B Use the post-it notes and index cards since the low-tech/high-touch solution is always better than the high-
tech/low-touch one
C Follow the same practices of communicating the project status used by other agile teams in the company
D Use post-it notes and index cards since this will provide the stakeholders with the real-time updates on the
project status
Hint:
What are the benefits and costs of each solution? Providing project status information needs to be easily accessible and
easy to interpret.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Agile projects emphasize the use of information radiators that are easy to construct, are very tactile (high-touch) and that
are easily interpreted by the stakeholders, many of whom may not have the expertise or time necessary to effectively use
more high-tech solutions like software that requires some level of expertise to use effectively across the organization.
Post it notes or index cards are ideal to use as information radiators.
A Go with the software tool since the company has an unlimited user license, and cost is not an issue
Incorrect. Although there may not be cost associated with the actual software, time and effort may be required to
administer and support it. Regardless of the cost considerations, the team should first discuss the purpose of each
tool before making a decision.
B Use the post-it notes and index cards since the low-tech/high-touch solution is always better than the high-
tech/low-touch one
Incorrect. Although agile may value low-tech/high-touch solutions to make sure that the human element/interaction
is not lost, the team should not automatically assume that low-tech/high-touch is 'always' better than the high-
tech/low-touch one. They should assess the pros and cons of various options and come to a decision on the best
tool. Avoid answer choices with absolute statements such as 'always', 'never', etc.
C Follow the same practices of communicating the project status used by other agile teams in the company
Incorrect. The team should not simply follow other agile teams because what might work for one team may not
work for another.
D Use post-it notes and index cards since this will provide the stakeholders with the real-time updates on the
project status
Correct. Given the limited wall space, post-it notes and index cards can be used to indicate the current project
status and those user stories that are currently in development. Agile methods discourage the use of software tools
to show status and progress as these solutions can introduce access issues and/or require some level of
proficiency to use properly. Post-it notes or index cards are very simple to use and easy for the stakeholders to
interpret.
Reference:
Agile Practice Guide, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 105, 152; see also Agile Software Development:
The Cooperative Game (2nd Edition), Alistair Cockburn, 2007, The Agile PrepCast, Agile Collocated Team
Communication Concepts, , Low-Tech/High-Touch
PMI-ACP Exam 1
A product owner is conducting the initial strategy meeting with the agile project team and is reviewing the agile project
charter. The product owner notices that although it includes the project vision and mission, another critical element of a
typical agile charter is missing. Which element of the project charter is missing?
A Assumptions
B Milestones
C Constraints
D Success criteria
Hint:
Look for an answer choice that is different than what a traditional project contains, and is a high-level concept.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The project charter is an important document intended to provide the team and the stakeholders with the information on
why this project matters, where the team is headed, and what the project objective is. The project charter aligns
stakeholder expectations and provides an agreed upon definition of what success looks like. An agile charter typically
contains the project’s vision, mission, and success criteria as elements. In the scenario provided, the product owner
notices that the project charter includes the project vision and mission, but is missing the success criteria. Assumptions,
milestones, and constraints are elements that are recommended for traditional project charters but are not typically used
in an agile project charter.
A Assumptions
Incorrect. Assumptions are commonly contained in traditional project charters but are not part of an agile project
charter.
B Milestones
Incorrect. Milestones are more commonly used in the scheduling of traditional projects and not used in agile
projects. They are also not part of agile project charters.
C Constraints
Incorrect. Constraints like assumptions are specified in traditional project charters but are not part of an agile
project charter.
D Success criteria
Correct. The project vision, mission, and success criteria are the typical elements of an agile project charter.
Reference:
Agile Practice Guide, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 49-50; see also Lean-Agile Software
Development: Achieving Enterprise Agility, Alan Shalloway, Guy Beaver, James R. Trott, 2010, Agile Project Charter
PMI-ACP Exam 1
An agile team meets to create the initial release plan for the project. Which of the following is the lowest level of detail
considered when developing a release plan?
A Tasks
B Products
C Iterations
D User stories
Hint:
The lowest level of detail considered during release planning describes a capability or features.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The lowest level of detail considered during release planning are the features or capabilities the stakeholders want to be
included in the release. These features or capabilities are described in user stories, either individual or epic user stories.
These user stories are selected from the prioritized product backlog to create the release goal and plan. The next step is
to combine the user stories into iterations based on the development team's velocity. Therefore, the lowest level
considered during release planning are user stories.
A Tasks
Incorrect. Tasks are identified at the iteration planning level when the user stories are decomposed into the
individual tasks that will be required to complete a user story that is part of an iteration.
B Products
Incorrect. Product definition or selection occurs as part of portfolio planning where products are selected based on
a vision that is based on the organization's strategic planning.
C Iterations
Incorrect. Iterations are determined during release planning after all the user stories that are desired in a specific
release have been selected. Iterations are largely determined by the amount of work required to complete a
release, say in story points, and a team's estimated or average velocity. With these factors known, the number of
iterations in a release can be determined.
D User stories
Correct. When planning a release all of the stakeholders and the product owner gather to determine which user
stories will be included in a release and perhaps a subsequent release. Based on the size of the user stories, a
total amount of work required to complete the release can be estimated, and the number of iterations can be
determined and planned.
Reference:
Agile Estimating and Planning, Mike Cohn, 2005, Release Planning; see also PMI-ACP Exam Prep, 2nd Edition: A
Course in a Book for Passing the PMI Agile Certified Practitioner (PMI-ACP) Exam, Mike Griffiths, 2012, Release
Planning
PMI-ACP Exam 1
The technical leads on an agile team were heavily debating the best approach for what user stories from the product
backlog to develop first. One technical lead wanted early wins by leaving the most difficult code to the end, while the
other argued that complex stories should be developed as early as possible with the belief that even if the team failed at
first, these initial failures would make the team more resilient. In what order should the team complete the user stories?
A Schedule the easiest user stories first
B Schedule the most difficult user stories first
C Schedule the most difficult user stories first if the team is confident they can solve any related issues
D Schedule the easiest user stories last
Hint:
In this case, a compromise between two conflicting goals is required.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Teams, as well as individuals, take pride in accomplishment. On the one hand, the sooner one starts working on difficult
technical challenges of the project, the sooner the risk and uncertainty can be reduced. On the other hand, it is important
to provide a way to keep the team personally motivated and productive throughout the project. The idea is to schedule
the most challenging user stories first (assuming the team feels confident in their ability to solve the issues related to
these user stories). By doing this, the project leaders balance between the need for reducing overall project risk and the
need for motivating the team members. It is important to remember, however, that ultimately, it is the product owner who
decides on which user stories the team will work on in each sprint. The technical leads merely provide technical
information and expertise to the product owner.
A Schedule the easiest user stories first

Incorrect. Although there may be early wins with this approach, it is very risky since you are delaying handling of
uncertainties until later in the project.
B Schedule the most difficult user stories first
Incorrect. If the most difficult user stories cause too much conflict and take the team an extraordinarily long time to
complete, this option does not allow the team to feel pride-in-accomplishment with early wins.
C Schedule the most difficult user stories first if the team is confident they can solve any related issues
Correct. This option allows the team to reduce overall project risk sooner while balancing the need for early wins
and pride-in-accomplishment.
D Schedule the easiest user stories last

Incorrect. This option is essentially the same as "Schedule the most difficult user stories first".
Reference:
The Cooperative Game (2nd Edition), Alistair Cockburn, 2007, Pride-in-Accomplishment
PMI-ACP Exam 1
A senior developer on an agile team is very technically competent, but he finds it very difficult to concentrate in the war
room area where his team is co-located. His desk is also located near the break room area, which makes matters worse,
so he is getting very frustrated. The developer makes a request to the scrum master that he be allowed to use a small
isolated office, away from the rest of the team. What should the scrum master do?
A Provide the developer with noise-canceling headphones and a "do not disturb" sign to be displayed at all
times
B Do nothing. The developer should understand that noise is a part of a team working environment on agile
projects
C Suggest creating a working agreement where team members can use a "do not disturb" sign and noise-
canceling headphones while working
D Provide the developer with the private office away from the rest of the team to be used on occasion
Hint:
Aim to balance accessibility and colocation with an occasional need for quiet.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The team members should have a place that they can retreat to in order to not be distracted by the work of other or
sounds that may be a distraction. It is important to emphasize that the use of a 'cave' or area that allows privacy to not be
overused or it will work against the benefits of a colocated team.
A Provide the developer with noise-canceling headphones and a "do not disturb" sign to be displayed at all times
Incorrect. If the developer always displays the "do not disturb" sign and wears the headphones on, others will not
be encouraged to interact and communicate with him, which would eventually work against the goals and benefits
of colocation.
B Do nothing. The developer should understand that noise is a part of a team working environment on agile
projects
Incorrect. While noise typically presents in any team working environment, doing nothing will not resolve the
problem.
C Suggest creating a working agreement where team members can use a "do not disturb" sign and noise-
canceling headphones while working
Incorrect. While having such a working agreement would allow the team to work without the distraction of noise, if
overused it would work against the goals and benefits of colocation. While this approach could be used to address
the problem, providing the team an office or area for quiet work, to be used on occasion and not regularly is a
better solution.
D Provide the developer with the private office away from the rest of the team to be used on occasion
Correct. A private office would isolate the developer from the rest of the team when the developer needs to focus.
This private space is referred to as a 'cave' and is part of the caves and common agile practice.
Reference:
Cooperative Game (2nd Edition), Alistair Cockburn, 2007, Concentration (Flow)
PMI-ACP Exam 1
An agile team is having difficulty optimizing the flow of information and materials required to complete a process. One of
the team members recalled an exercise that was used to help improve the process by providing the context of the
process and its importance. Which of the following tools or techniques will allow the team to see the big picture, verify
and question assumptions, as well as deliver value?
A Fast flexible design
B Just in time
C Build quality into the product
D Value stream mapping
Hint:
Which technique involves drawing pictures of current and future process streams in order to identify any waste?
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Value stream mapping, also known as material and information flow mapping, is a lean-management method for
analyzing the current state and designing a future state for the series of events that take a product or service from the
initial request through its delivery to the customer. Value stream mapping allows teams to 'optimize the whole' by
analyzing the processes required to produce the product or service in order to remove delays, constraints, and waste.
A Fast flexible design

Incorrect. Fast and flexible design tools and techniques are productive and preferred in agile methods and project
management. However, they do not focus on improving the individual processes like value stream mapping does.
B Just in time
Incorrect. Just-in-time is a manufacturing process or approach. It does not involve optimizing processes that
produce a deliverable or provide the development team a big picture view in order to improve the process by
eliminating waste or low value activity.
C Build quality into the product

Incorrect. While building quality into the product is something that is desired and reinforced in agile project
management, it is not a tool or technique used to visualize all processes that produce a product.
D Value stream mapping

Correct. Value stream mapping allows the project team to see how a process fits into the big picture of creating a
product. In doing so, it provides context from which the process can be analyzed for the value it provides to the
customer and exposes any waste, unnecessary delays, or constraints that hinder productivity without providing
enough value to justify it.
Reference:
Achieving Enterprise Agility, Alan Shalloway, Guy Beaver, James R. Trott, 2010, Value Stream Mapping - Process Cycle
Efficiency; see also Agile PrepCast, Agile Value Stream Analysis Concepts,
PMI-ACP Exam 1
Understanding the various metrics that are generated during an agile project allows agile practitioners to more accurately
gauge the scope, time, and resources needed to complete a project and deliver incremental value with each iteration.
For the purposes of gauging the number of iterations needed to complete a project, a correct understanding of
throughput is essential. Which of the following statements describes what is meant by throughput in agile terms?
A The length of time it takes for a feature to deliver value, from the moment that the team begins to work on it,
to when it is finished and accepted.
B The number of iterations that can be successfully completed by a team during a single release.
C The amount of time it takes for a feature to go through the entire process from requirements gathering to
deployment.
D The number of user story points that can be successfully processed by a team during a single iteration.
Hint:
Think about which of the answer choices is a measurement of an agile project team's productivity.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Throughput in lean manufacturing is a term that is often used in Kanban. Throughput should be reported as the number
of items (or some indication of their value) that were delivered in a given time period. Throughput should be reported as a
trend over time with the goal of continually increasing it. It is very similar to the agile velocity metric, indicating how many
user stories or story points were completed in a given period. When not using agile requirements techniques but rather
processing other things, such as functional specification items, change requests, use cases, etc., then the number of
those completed in a given period should be reported.
A The length of time it takes for a feature to deliver value, from the moment that the team begins to work on it, to
when it is finished and accepted.
Incorrect. This description corresponds to cycle time, which is a measurement of time rather than a measurement
of feature value. It is the calculated result of work in progress divided by throughput.
B The number of iterations that can be successfully completed by a team during a single release.
Incorrect. This choice does not describe a metric that is typically used in agile project management.
C The amount of time it takes for a feature to go through the entire process from requirements gathering to
deployment.
Incorrect. This description corresponds to lead time, which is the total measure of time associated with the
complete production of a feature from inception to delivery.
D The number of user story points that can be successfully processed by a team during a single iteration.
Correct. Throughput is the number of story points that is completed by an entire team during an iteration and is
referred to as velocity on an agile project.
Reference:
Agile Practice Guide, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 61-64; see also Kanban: Successful Evolutionary
Change for your Technology Business, David J. Anderson, 2010, WIP Throughput
PMI-ACP Exam 1
Three hours before the end of the sprint a major bug was found in one of the user stories’ code. What is the next logical
step the team should take in keeping with agile best practices?
A Have the team swarm on the user story to get it completed before the sprint review meeting
B Do not demonstrate this portion of the user story during the sprint review meeting
C Cease work on the user story and at the sprint review meeting indicate that it was not completed
D Wait until after the sprint review meeting and fix the bug only if found by the customer during their testing
Hint:
The team should demonstrate transparency regarding the problem with the user story.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The next logical step that the team should take in keeping with agile best practices is to cease work on the user story and
indicate that it was not completed at the sprint review meeting because a bug was found. After the sprint review meeting,
fixing the bug will need to be prioritized into a subsequent iteration in the same way that any other user story would be. It
is up to the team and the product owner to determine the priority of fixing the bug, if it will be fixed in the existing user
story, or if a different user story will be created to fix the bug.
A Have the team swarm on the user story to get it completed before the sprint review meeting
Incorrect. Swarming involves an 'all hands-on deck' situation where every team member will be working on fixing
the bug, which means the tasks that they need to perform to close the sprint will not be completed, so swarming is
not a logical next step.
B Do not demonstrate this portion of the user story during the sprint review meeting
Incorrect. As an agile best practice during the sprint review meeting, the product functionality that was completed
during the sprint should be demonstrated. The development team should also indicate the product functionality that
was not completed during the sprint and the reasons why it was not completed.
C Cease work on the user story and at the sprint review meeting indicate that it was not completed
Correct. The next logical step that the team should take in keeping with agile best practices is to cease work on the
user story and indicate that it was not completed at the sprint review meeting because a bug was found.
D Wait until after the sprint review meeting and fix the bug only if found by the customer during their testing
Incorrect. Not only would this action be unethical but also withholding information from stakeholders could also
seriously damage the trust between the team and its stakeholders.
Reference:
Cohn, 2005, Problem Solving - Bug Fixes
PMI-ACP Exam 1
An agile coach is managing a distributed project team. Which of the following tools is the most effective for the project
team to use to maximize virtual colocation?
A Video conferencing
B Email
C Post-it notes
D Teleconferencing
Hint:
Which of the available choice most closely mimics physical colocation?
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Ideally, an agile team should be physically colocated. Unfortunately, physical colocation is not always possible. Virtual
colocation is an agile term used to describe an environment in which distributed teams use digital tools to mimic the
effects of physical colocation. The goal of using these tools is for the team to try to get as close as possible to face-to-
face communication. Video conferencing is the most effective method of virtual colocation since it is a face-to-face
communication tool and occurs in real time.
A Video conferencing
Correct. Technology such as document sharing, video conferencing, and other virtual collaboration tools help
people collaborate remotely. Video conferencing is the most useful tool when trying to create a virtually colocated
team because it allows participants to capture more of the subtleties of communication. Facial expressions and
high-fidelity communication is a benefit of video conferencing.
B Email
Incorrect. Email is one of the least effective means of communicating and does not facilitate a virtually colocated
team. It is typically not used in a real-time fashion so discussion context and delays, which limit collaboration, and
the other benefits of colocation, are often lost.
C Post-it notes
Incorrect. Post-it notes are typically used by co-located teams. According to the scenario, the team is distributed.
While nothing stops the distributed team from using the post-it notes, it is unlikely that post-it notes can be
considered the most effective tool for the project team to use to maximize virtual colocation.
D Teleconferencing
Incorrect. Teleconferencing solutions can help bridge the communication and collaborative gap that exists between
distributed teams. However, teleconferencing is primarily an auditory medium of communication and lacks the
benefits of seeing the other participants to capture all the nonverbal cues.
Reference:
Bridge to Agility, Michele Sliger, Stacia Broderick, 2008, Virtual Co-Location; see also A Guide to the Project
Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s)
311, 333
PMI-ACP Exam 1
An agile team’s first iteration included daily standups that lasted over 30 minutes. During the retrospective meeting, the
team agreed to use the Shu-Ha-Ri model to make future daily standup meetings more focused and reduce their duration.
During the second iteration, the team was able to focus on the three basic questions, followed the agenda, and ensured
that no daily standup meetings lasted more than 15 minutes. Which level of the Shu-Ha-Ri model had the team
completed by the end of the second iteration?
A The Ri level
B The Ha level
C The Shu level
D The pre-Shu level
Hint:
The three levels of the Shu-Ha-Ri model are to learn, then detach, and finally transcend. Which phase did the team
complete?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Shu-Ha-Ri is one of the team development models adopted from Japanese Noh theater or, according to other sources,
from Aikido. The Shu-Ha-Ri model describes a three-step process that teams may go thru in their development. Shu -
obeying the rules, Ha - moving away from the rules, Ri - go beyond or transcend the rules. By focusing on the three basic
questions during their daily standup meetings in the second iteration, by following the agenda, and ensuring that no daily
standup meetings lasted more than 15 minutes, the team members proved that they learned the fundamental techniques
of a successful daily standup meeting and had, therefore, mastered the Shu level.
A The Ri level
Incorrect. 'Ri' means to go beyond or transcend. In this stage, the student is no longer a student but a practitioner.
The team would have reached the developmental mastery level at which they could transcend the rules and let
others follow them. Based on the scenario described, the team only learned to follow the rules, making this choice
an incorrect answer.
B The Ha level
Incorrect. 'Ha' means to detach. At the 'Ha' level, the student breaks free from the traditions/rules to some extent.
When teams reach this level, they work intuitively and may alter the rules to tailor them to their needs. The
question does not suggest that the team has broken the rules.
C The Shu level

Correct. 'Shu' is the first stage of the Shu-Ha-Ri model. At this stage, the team learns to follow the rules. As
described in the scenario, by the end of the second iteration the team could focus on the three basic questions,
follow the agenda, and ensure that no daily standup meetings lasted more than 15 minutes. This means the team
has reached the 'Shu' level.
D The pre-Shu level

Incorrect. The 'pre-Shu' level is a made-up term. But even assuming this answer choice suggests the team was not
able to reach the first level of the Shu-Ha-Ri model, such an assumption would be wrong because the team was
able to successfully follow the rules, implying the team was able to complete the 'Shu' level.
Reference:
Cooperative Game (2nd Edition), Alistair Cockburn, 2007, Developmental Mastery Models - Shu-Ha-Ri Model of Skill
Mastery; see also The Agile PrepCast, Developmental Mastery Models, ; see also
PMI-ACP Exam 1
An agile team needs to produce a simple visual representation of the user interface that will display the content, layout,
and intended functionality of a new community center website. Which of the following should they develop and
demonstrate to the customer or product owner for feedback?
A A prototype
B A wireframe
C A screen design
D A mock-up
Hint:
The correct answer represents a visual depiction of what a software screen will look like that has an intentional lack of
detail.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
A wireframe is a simple user interface (UI) design tool used to display the placement of elements and demonstrate the
intended layout and functionality of a solution. They are typically used in web page development and use a 'block'
design, where each different section of the web page is separated by boundaries or 'blocks' to indicate their intended
placement on the page. Wireframes can be created as 'low-fidelity' screen designs (using nothing more than a piece of
paper and a pen), or 'high-fidelity' screen designs (using a wireframing software application.). What differentiates
wireframes from other UI design tools is their intentional lack of detail. By leaving out graphic design details, wireframes
are not only quick and easy to create and change, but they also help focus on the 'big picture' questions regarding
structure and functionality without getting lost in detailed decisions about fonts or colors.
A A prototype
Incorrect. A prototype is an original type, form, or instance of a product to explore the basic size, look and feel of a
product without simulating the detailed functionality of the product. Prototypes are used by agile project teams so
that the customer and other project stakeholders can test the functionality of specific product components before
the final product is completed. Although the prototype is technically a correct answer to this question because
wireframes are considered a form of 'low-fidelity' prototype, it is not the best answer because the question is asking
for a specific type of prototype, which in this situation is a wireframe.
B A wireframe
Correct. Wireframes are simple block designs that display the placement of elements in a user interface and
demonstrate the intended layout and functionality of a solution. Wireframes are a common tool used in website
development.
C A screen design
Incorrect. Screen design is a generic term that covers any type of screen representation from a wireframe to a
mock-up to the final screen development with full functionality. Although screen design is technically a correct
answer to this question, it is not the best answer because the question is asking for a specific type of screen
design, which in this scenario is a wireframe.
D A mock-up
Incorrect. A mock-up is a scale or full-size model of a design or device, used for teaching, demonstration, design
evaluation, promotion, and other purposes. A mock-up is considered a prototype if it provides at least part of the
functionality of a system, and enables testing of a design. The question is asking for a simple visual representation
rather than a scale or full-size model.
Reference:
PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Premier Edition: A Course in a Book for Passing the PMI Agile Certified Practitioner (PMI-ACP)
Exam, Mike Griffiths, 2012, Wireframes
PMI-ACP Exam 1
A scrum master is helping the development team understand and embrace the five scrum values to ensure their
success. The product owner has brought the team a daunting quantity of user stories that need to be completed during
the current project. Which specific scrum value should the scrum master emphasize for the team to deliver the most
valuable items to the client as quickly as possible?
A Courage, by feeling supported and having more resources at their disposal
B Focus, by working on only a few things at a time
C Respect, by working together and sharing successes and failures
D Commitment, by having control over their own destiny
Hint:
Each of these is an important scrum value, but only one has a major impact on the product delivered to the client.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
All work performed in Scrum needs a set of values as the foundation for the team's processes and interactions. There
are five such values that are used in Scrum, and by embracing these five values, the team makes them even more
instrumental to its health and success. One of these five values is focus, which states, “Because we focus on only a few
things at a time, we work well together, produce excellent work, and deliver valuable items sooner.” While all the values
listed as answer choices represent important scrum values, focus enables the scrum team to specifically deliver valuable
items sooner. For the situation described, focus has the largest impact on the value of the product delivered to the client.
A Courage, by feeling supported and having more resources at their disposal

Incorrect. The scrum value for courage states, “Because we work as a team, we feel supported and have more
resources at our disposal. This gives us the courage to undertake greater challenges.” This value will be beneficial
for the project team, but another scrum value specifically addresses the delivery of valuable features sooner.
B Focus, by working on only a few things at a time
Correct. The scrum value for focus states, “Focus enables the scrum team to specifically deliver valuable items
sooner.”
C Respect, by working together and sharing successes and failures

Incorrect. The scrum value for respect states, “As we work together, sharing successes and failures, we come to
respect each other and to help each other become worthy of respect.” Although respect is a critical element for
team success, the scrum value of respect does not specifically address the delivery of valuable features.
D Commitment, by having control over their own destiny

Incorrect. The scrum value of commitment states, “Because we have great control over our destiny, we are more
committed to success.” Commitment to the success of the project is important. However, another scrum value
deals more directly with the delivery of value to the customer.
Reference:
Bridge to Agility, Michele Sliger, Stacia Broderick, 2008, Scrum - 5 Values: Focus; see also
PMI-ACP Exam 1
An aircraft manufacturer is executing two projects, each of which are run independently to create two sub-assemblies
that together make up a new type of engine cover. Although the projects are run separately, they have many inter-
dependencies. A senior manager has suggested that the number of joint product tests between the teams be reduced
since these tests create a major bottleneck. What agile best practice would this approach violate?
A Project flexibility and agility maintenance
B Prototyping
C Continuous integration
D Continuous user engagement
Hint:
Following this agile best practice will expose problems earlier than later.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The objective of continuous integration is to ensure that the product features fit together as an integrated whole, early
and often during development to reduce both the high cost of late misalignment and to decrease the burden of testing.
Regardless of the product that is being developed, the less frequent the integrated testing, the more apt for the
development effort to experience major problems late in the process. These issues are both difficult and expensive to
address. The suggestion of performing less joint product testing runs counter to the agile best practice of continuous
integration. In addition, although reducing the practice of continuous integration may save time in the short term, over the
long term this reduction will only serve to cause more extensive and expensive delays. Therefore, using continuous
integration saves both time and money on the projects in the end.
A Project flexibility and agility maintenance

Incorrect. On the contrary, making a change to a process, or in this case, a testing approach demonstrates both
agility and flexibility.
B Prototyping
Incorrect. Nothing in the question suggests these projects require a prototype
C Continuous integration
Correct. Continuous integration exposes issues that will be encountered as a result of integration earlier rather
than later, when they are costlier to fix. Reducing the number of joint product tests between the teams will result in
less continuous integration, which would violate an agile best practice.
D Continuous user engagement

Incorrect. It is not clear that reducing joint testing necessarily would reduce or interrupt user engagement. Although
this is a potentially correct and rational answer, continuous integration is a better and more specific choice for this
question.
Reference:
Innovative Products - 2nd Edition, Jim Highsmith, 2009, Continuous Integration
PMI-ACP Exam 1
One of the project’s objectives is to be the first to market with a new product. In a discussion, the product owner
mentioned that there is another aspect of product development that is even more important. To which aspect of product
development was the product owner referring?
A Meeting the customer requirements as specified in the project scope
B Hitting the project deadline at any cost to satisfy the customer needs
C Delivering a high-quality product that is scalable to any number of users
D Delivering a high-quality product that is easily adaptable to future needs
Hint:
Look for the choice that will allow the company to deliver a continuous flow of customer value.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
There is frequently a conflict between short and long terms goals of a project or products. Delivering the first version of
the product to the market as soon as possible is a highly important goal for the organization in the short term. However,
the 'as soon as possible' constraint may have hidden implications such as low quality, poor design, and technical debt.
With those issues, when a customer asks for new features or changes to existing features, it would be hard for the
organization to deliver if the design is not easily adaptable. Low adaptability may lead to difficulties in supporting and
maintaining the product. Therefore, it is important for agile leaders to think long-term and develop high-quality products
that are easily adaptable to meet future needs. In this way, the performing organization can deliver a continuous flow of
value to its customers. Delivering a continuous flow of value to the customer is the ultimate goal of any agile product. As
stated by the author in the reference, “Continuous flow reflects the need for leaders to view value over time – during both
the current and future projects. ... Delivering version 1 of the software promptly is important, but even more important
may be delivering a high-quality product that is easily adaptable to future needs.”
A Meeting the customer requirements as specified in the project scope

Incorrect. On agile projects, it is unlikely that the customer requirements specified in the project scope would
remain unchanged throughout the course of the project. Therefore, meeting the customer requirements as
specified in the project scope is not the best option among the choices given.
B Hitting the project deadline at any cost to satisfy the customer needs
Incorrect. ‘At any cost’ may mean compromising quality or delivering less valuable features. Based on this alone,
this choice can be eliminated from being a correct answer.
C Delivering a high-quality product that is scalable to any number of users

Incorrect. While this choice may sound like a correct answer, the question text does not suggest that the product is
required to be scalable.
D Delivering a high-quality product that is easily adaptable to future needs

Correct. Delivering a high-quality product that is easily adaptable to future needs means that the performing
organization will be able to update/upgrade the product in a way that will deliver more value to the customer.
Reference:
Agile Project Management: Creating Innovative Products - 2nd Edition, Jim Highsmith, 2009, Chapter 2, Value over
Constraints: Continuous Flow of Customer Value
PMI-ACP Exam 1
What product development method would best fit the needs of an agile team if team members want to visualize and
manage their workflow and limit work in progress without being constrained by strict timeboxed iterations?
A eXtreme programming (XP)
B Generic agile
C Kanban
D Scrum
Hint:
This method does not have time-boxed events, and the work items are pulled by the team members.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The Kanban method has its roots in the lean manufacturing system. Some agile practitioners do not even consider
Kanban as an agile method because it uses a pull system to move work items through the product development process,
unlike other agile methods, such as Scrum, eXtreme Programming (XP), or any other generic agile method, where the
work is planned in advance and scheduled using predefined timeboxed iterations. Although other agile methods can also
visualize and manage the workflow and limit work in progress, those techniques are considered primarily among Kanban
core principles. Therefore, if the team wants to visualize and manage their workflow and limit work in progress without
being constrained by strict timeboxed iterations, Kanban would fit their needs best, thus making Kanban the best option
among the answer choices given.
A eXtreme programming (XP)

Incorrect. XP best practices include the use of timeboxed iterations.
B Generic agile
Incorrect. Agile, regardless of the specific methodology, advocates for the utilization of timeboxed iterations.
C Kanban
Correct. Some agile practitioners do not even consider Kanban as an agile method because it uses a pull system
to move work items through the product development process, unlike other agile methods.
D Scrum
Incorrect. One of the core concepts of Scrum is the use of timeboxed iterations, which are typically referred to as
sprints when using a scrum framework.
Reference:
PMI-ACP® Exam Prep, Second Edition, Mike Griffiths, 2015

PMI-ACP Exam 1
Which of the following is the best course of action for a development team to maximize the value delivered to the
customer?
A Cancel the iteration due to changes in technology
B Change the length of an iteration
C Split user stories in the iteration backlog
D Reprioritize the product backlog
Hint:
How do the developers ensure user stories can be completed in one iteration?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
User stories may be sliced into smaller chunks or resized. This action means breaking down any stories that are too
large to be completed within one iteration. By slicing the stories, the development team ensures that instead of having
the customer wait for a big user story to be completed later in the project, the value can be delivered by completing
smaller user stories in each iteration.
A Cancel the iteration due to changes in technology

Incorrect. Only the product owner can cancel the iteration before the timebox is complete. Permitting the
development team to cancel the iteration is contrary to agile best practices.
B Change the length of an iteration

Incorrect. Different iteration lengths work best for different teams. However, once an ideal iteration length is
chosen, it is best to stay with the same iteration length throughout the entire project.
C Split user stories in the iteration backlog

Correct. User stories may be sliced into smaller chunks or resized by the development team when necessary so
that the story can be completed in one iteration.
D Reprioritize the product backlog

Incorrect. Items in the product backlog are prioritized by the product owner and not by the members of the
development team.
Reference:
Agile Practice Guide, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 58, 101; see also Agile Estimating and Planning,
Mike Cohn, 2005, Iteration Length; see also PMI-ACP Exam Prep, 2nd Edition: A Course in a Book for Passing the PMI
Agile Certified Practitioner (PMI-ACP) Exam, Mike Griffiths, 2015, Page(s) 275, 301
PMI-ACP Exam 1
A software development company is considering eXtreme Programming (XP) as the agile methodology to be used for all
of its future projects since it was used in the majority of the company's past projects. What is the most appropriate advice
an agile practitioner can provide in this situation?
A As long as an agile framework is used, all future project undertaken will be successful.
B Although XP typically tends to work well as a methodology on software development projects, it may not be
the best fit for all software development projects.
C The best way to ensure that each future software development project is successful is to send all project team
members to formal XP training.
D Designing a change management program for each future project team is the most important ingredient in
software development methodology success.
Hint:
Just as every agile project team is different, so is every agile project methodology.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Although it is a very noble gesture to try to design a specific agile methodology to be used for all software development
projects (or any type of development project), it is not a very realistic expectation. Automatically assuming that 'one size
fits all' in terms of the agile methodology used on a company's projects across the board is a common error and should
be avoided. An agile practitioner should refrain from selecting one methodology for all types of projects. Rather, the agile
practitioner should concentrate on determining which methodology's principles and practices most closely fit the needs of
the project, bearing in mind that the processes will most likely need to be tailored to ensure that they are the best fit for
the specific project and project team. Additionally, the agile practitioner may elect to use agile suitability filter tools in
order to determine the most appropriate methodology to use for a particular project.
A As long as an agile framework is used, all future project undertaken will be successful.
Incorrect. Agile practitioners have seen success when implementing agile methodologies, but it does not
guarantee success. There are many factors involved in project success, and designing the most appropriate
methodology is a good start.
B Although XP typically tends to work well as a methodology on software development projects, it may not be the
best fit for all software development projects.
Correct. Although suggesting that XP 'may' be the best fit, automatically assuming it ‘will’ be best and dictating that
it be used for every software development project is a common methodology design error known as 'one size fits
all,' which should be avoided.
C The best way to ensure that each future software development project is successful is to send all project team
members to formal XP training.
Incorrect. While XP training may be beneficial and good for professional development, it does not solve the
problem of XP being selected as the methodology for all projects. There is some chance of project failures
regardless of how well the team is trained in XP.
D Designing a change management program for each future project team is the most important ingredient in
software development methodology success.
Incorrect. A change management program will not resolve the issue of designing the proper methodology for use
all future agile software development teams in the company.
Reference:
Agile Practice Guide, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 32, 125-138; see also Agile Software
Development: The Cooperative Game (2nd Edition), Alistair Cockburn, 2007, Common Methodology Design Errors
PMI-ACP Exam 1
An agile team is trying to determine the ideal iteration length. Two of the team members are having a long and intense
argument about it. One team member advocates for an iteration length of two weeks, while the other advocates for an
iteration length of three weeks. Which of the following is the best course of action for a scrum master?
A Avoid being involved in the process and let the two team members come to a consensus on the most
appropriate iteration length
B Facilitate the discussion between the two team members so they can come to a consensus on the most
C Isolate the two team members from the rest of the team while they settle their dispute
D Make the decision for the team to break the impasse before relationships are damaged
Hint:
What are the roles and responsibilities of a scrum master on an agile team?
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
When the intensity of an argument reaches a point where a positive outcome is unlikely, the scrum master should use
the opportunity to coach the team towards an effective and productive solution. An effective and skilled scrum master
can accomplish this without 'managing' the team. The scrum master should help by using facilitation and coaching. This
facilitation can involve getting the entire team together to come to a consensus on the most appropriate iteration length
or helping to create a safe environment for the team members to have the discussion. The scrum master could also
suggest the team members discuss the pros and cons of each suggested iteration length to help the team reach a
consensus.
A Avoid being involved in the process and let the two team members come to a consensus on the most
Incorrect. According to the scenario, the argument between the team members is intense, warranting the
involvement of the scrum master. Avoiding being involved in the process would unlikely help in reaching a positive
outcome.
B Facilitate the discussion between the two team members so they can come to a consensus on the most
Correct. When an argument reaches an impasse, and a positive outcome is unlikely, the scrum master should
facilitate the discussion between the two team members so they can reach an agreement.
C Isolate the two team members from the rest of the team while they settle their dispute
Incorrect. Agile teams are self-directing, and the entire team must arrive at a consensus regarding the most
appropriate iteration length. The scrum master could suggest the team members discuss the pros and cons of
each recommended iteration length to help the team reach a consensus.
D Make the decision for the team to break the impasse before relationships are damaged
Incorrect. Agile teams are self-directing and must decide as a team the proper iteration length. It is not appropriate
for the scrum master to decide for the team.
Reference:
Creating Innovative Products - 2nd Edition, Jim Highsmith, 2009, Building Agile Teams - Self-Organization
PMI-ACP Exam 1
An agile project team has been working together in the same building and have enjoyed the benefits of high-touch/low-
tech methods of team interaction. The company has hired a group of developers that will be working in another city, who
will be joining the team to work on a new project. An agile practitioner has been tasked with bringing this team together
and fostering healthy team interaction. What would be the most effective first action for the agile practitioner to take?
A Provide an opportunity for a face-to-face meeting through a kickoff or group activity if the budget allows it.
B Set up everyone with a text-based instant messenger so they can stay in touch.
C Convert as many information radiators to online versions in order to maximize virtual communication.
D Insist that everyone make use of email in order to establish a trackable communication thread for all
conversations.
Hint:
The Agile Manifesto principles may be helpful in determining the best answer to this question.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
An effective initial step in building an agile team is to hold a face-to-face meeting, such as a project kick-off meeting or
initial group activity. This face-to-face interaction is important regardless of whether the team members are colocated or
distributed. Ideally, this team activity should be held in person and face-to-face, if the project budget allows it. However, if
the budget is limited, a virtual meeting may be planned with activities as a way of allowing the team to get to know each
other and to reinforce team spirit and team building. The incorrect answer choices may be effective tools in facilitating
communication with a virtual team; however, the most effective method of fostering healthy team interaction is having a
face-to-face meeting at the beginning of the project, as well as periodically throughout the life cycle of the project, if the
budget permits.
A Provide an opportunity for a face-to-face meeting through a kickoff or group activity if the budget allows it.
Correct. An effective initial step in building an agile team is to hold a face-to-face meeting, such as a project kick-
off meeting or initial group activity.
B Set up everyone with a text-based instant messenger so they can stay in touch.
Incorrect. Text-based instant messaging might be an effective communication tool, but it is not as effective as face-
to-face communication for building positive working relationships among the team members.
C Convert as many information radiators to online versions in order to maximize virtual communication.
Incorrect. It may be necessary to provide various virtual communication tools to the project team, but information
radiators are not likely to foster healthy team interaction.
D Insist that everyone make use of email in order to establish a trackable communication thread for all
conversations.
Incorrect. The use of email to establish trackable communications is a good idea for virtual as well as colocated
teams. However, email is impersonal and not an effective method of team building.
Reference:
Bridge to Agility, Michele Sliger, Stacia Broderick, 2008, Building Agile Teams; see also The Agile PrepCast, The Agile
Manifesto,
PMI-ACP Exam 1
What agile project management principles promote the development of new and highly innovative products as opposed
to making minor enhancements to existing products?
A Efficiency and adaptability for new products, innovation and optimization for existing products
B Innovation and optimization for new products, efficiency and adaptability for existing products
C Innovation and adaptability for new products, efficiency and optimization for existing products
D Optimization and adaptability for new products, efficiency and innovation for existing products
Hint:
Think about what is known about a product when it is first developed, as opposed to what is known about a product that
has already been developed.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Developing new products and services differs from making minor enhancements to existing ones. New product
development requires innovation and adaptability. Innovation helps agile teams deliver products that are of high value
and often disruptive to industries. Agile project management supports the creation of innovative new products and
services by using methods that allow adaptation to constantly changing technological and competitive constraints.
Developing minor enhancements of existing products is most often guided by efficiency and optimization. Efficiency goes
hand in hand with continuous improvement and is therefore based on trying to improve an existing product. Optimization
implies that a product already exists and that action can be taken to maximize the product's value to the customer. It is
important for agile project leaders to understand this fundamental difference when deciding how to plan and manage
their agile projects.
A Efficiency and adaptability for new products, innovation and optimization for existing products
Incorrect. This answer choice has ‘new products’ and ‘existing products’ transposed to make the response
incorrect.
B Innovation and optimization for new products, efficiency and adaptability for existing products
Incorrect. ‘Optimization’ and 'adaptability' were transposed for this response to make this option incorrect.
C Innovation and adaptability for new products, efficiency and optimization for existing products
Correct. Efficiency goes hand in hand with continuous improvement and is therefore based on trying to improve an
existing product. Optimization implies that a product already exists and that action can be taken to maximize the
product's value to the customer.
D Optimization and adaptability for new products, efficiency and innovation for existing products
Incorrect. With this answer choice, ‘optimization’ and ‘innovation’ have been switched to make this choice an
incorrect response.
Reference:
Agile Project Management: Creating Innovative Products - 2nd Edition, Jim Highsmith, 2009, Agile Project Management
(APM) - Product Development Principles
PMI-ACP Exam 1
An agile team is working in an organization that previously only used a waterfall methodology with projects. Determining
capitalization versus expense is proving to be a significant hurdle that the team is facing with the finance department.
Which of the following is the most likely action that the finance manager and team will agree to perform?
A Capitalize post-implementation costs including training and application maintenance
B Define all project requirements at the start of the project for accounting purposes
C Use historical averages to estimate capitalization vs. expense
D Track operational support and defect repairs, and capitalize these costs
Hint:
Capitalization is when the cost of an asset is amortized over its useful life rather than expensed when the cost is
incurred.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Ultimately, it is up to the finance department to select a method for determining capitalization vs. expenses on a project.
Since using historical averages may prove to be a less time-consuming yet acceptable solution, this step is what the
finance manager and agile team are most likely to agree to perform.
Note that this question is very difficult and likely beyond the scope of the actual exam. The important takeaway from this
question is to avoid spending too much time with questions that cover topics that are not familiar. Since it is possible to
encounter an unfamiliar topic on the actual exam, it is best to make the best guess and move on to the next question.
Remember that there is no penalty for answering a question incorrectly compared with leaving it unanswered.
A Capitalize post-implementation costs including training and application maintenance

Incorrect. Post-implementation costs such as training and application maintenance should be expensed as
incurred rather than capitalized. Therefore, the finance manager is not likely to agree with this action.
B Define all project requirements at the start of the project for accounting purposes
Incorrect. In the waterfall approach, all or most of the requirements are typically known up front before project work
begins. When using agile methodologies, not all requirements may be known up front. Some of the most important
requirements are known up front, but through each iteration, more requirements may emerge, and some
requirements may be dropped. Therefore, it is unlikely that the team will agree with this action.
C Use historical averages to estimate capitalization vs. expense

Correct. If acceptable to the finance department, the team should take the option of using historical averages as it
will be less time-consuming compared with detailed tracking of time and expenses.
D Track operational support and defect repairs, and capitalize these costs
Incorrect. Time spent on defect repair or operational support should be expensed rather than capitalized.
Therefore, the finance manager is not likely to agree with this action.
Reference:
The Software Project Manager's Bridge to Agility, Michele Sliger, Stacia Broderick, 2008, Agile Accounting; see also
PMI-ACP Exam 1
An experienced scrum master is starting a new project and is currently meeting with her development team to explain
that servant leadership is one of her primary responsibilities. Which of the following is the best explanation of servant
leadership?
A Servant leaders impede the team from developing software too quickly by ensuring roadblocks are in place.
B Servant leaders ensure that roadblocks are identified and removed during the sprint retrospective meeting.
C Servant leaders coordinate shared resources and critical dependencies during the daily scrum meeting to
prevent burnout by allowing individuals some down time between tasks.
D Servant leaders shield the team from interruptions and help to ensure that team members have what they
need to be productive constantly throughout the project.
Hint:
Providing resources and removing impediments is often called "hauling water" and "moving rocks."
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Waiting for key stakeholder decisions or needing additional customer information in order to complete a task are
examples of roadblocks or impediments that team members may face. Servant leaders aim to provide resources and
remove such impediments. They also ensure that critical dependencies between teams or with outside sources are well-
managed. Servant leaders contribute directly to delivering results by removing impediments ('moving rocks') and
providing resources ('hauling water')' in order to help maintain or improve team productivity by ensuring that individuals
don't need to wait on resources, stakeholder decisions, or other roadblocks that may be in their way.
A Servant leaders impede the team from developing software too quickly by ensuring roadblocks are in place.
Incorrect. Servant leaders ensure roadblocks are removed rather than ensure that roadblocks are in place.
B Servant leaders ensure that roadblocks are identified and removed during the sprint retrospective meeting.
Incorrect. Servant leaders must identify and remove roadblocks as they are encountered and not wait until the end
of the sprint.
C Servant leaders coordinate shared resources and critical dependencies during the daily scrum meeting to
prevent burnout by allowing individuals some down time between tasks.
Incorrect. While it is true that servant leaders coordinate shared resources and critical dependencies during the
daily scrum meetings, their main goal is to help ensure that individuals are productive by not having them wait on
other resources.
D Servant leaders shield the team from interruptions and help to ensure that team members have what they need
to be productive constantly throughout the project.
Correct. Servant leaders shield the team from interruptions that would distract them from their work and help to
ensure that team members have what they need to be productive constantly throughout the project, which is
referred to as "carrying or hauling food and water".
Reference:
Agile Project Management: Creating Innovative Products - 2nd Edition, Jim Highsmith, 2009, Servant Leadership
PMI-ACP Exam 1
During a daily standup meeting, the project manager goes from one team member to another questioning each one on
the work they have accomplished and reprimanding them for the slow progress the team made so far. The meeting lasts
for almost an hour and turns into a status meeting. What would an agile practitioner recommend to avoid the next
standup meeting turning into a status meeting?
A Use a timer configured to alarm 30 minutes after the start of the meeting
B Switch the development life cycle from adaptive to predictive
C Have a team member to facilitate the standup instead of the project manager
D Advise the project manager to only focus on impediments to progress
Hint:
Think about agile best practices when it comes to running the daily scrum meeting.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Agile leaders are not only responsible for understanding the guidelines governing the daily standup meeting but also for
ensuring that all team members adhere to these guidelines. In this situation, the project manager does not follow these
guidelines by allowing the meeting to go over the 15-minute timebox as well as reprimanding the team members for slow
progress thus forcing the daily standup to become a traditional status meeting. Those who have mainly worked in a
predictive environment may tend to fall into this antipattern since they used to get a status from the team members. To
ensure that the next daily standup meeting does not fall into this trap, the agile practitioner should encourage the team
members to facilitate the standup instead of the project manager so that the meeting is used as a time for the team to
self-organize and make commitments to each other.
A Use a timer configured to alarm 30 minutes after the start of the meeting
Incorrect. While setting an alarm to a predefined interval may help in adhering to one of the ground rules of the
daily standup, this action is unlikely to address the main reason the standup turned into a status meeting.
B Switch the development life cycle from adaptive to predictive
Incorrect. Project managers who have traditionally worked in a predictive environment are used to getting status
from the team members. Therefore, switching the development life cycle from adaptive to predictive will only
reinforce the meeting to become status rather than standup. Additionally, the life cycle is typically not switched in
the middle of a project.
C Have a team member to facilitate the standup instead of the project manager
Correct. Agile encourages teams to be self-organizing and self-directing. Having a team member to facilitate the
standup instead of the project manager will promote and strengthen this practice.
D Advise the project manager to only focus on impediments to progress

Incorrect. Impediments to progress are only one of the three topics that should be discussed at any standup
meeting. Not only focusing on the impediments is insufficient, but having the project manager leading the meeting
and reprimanding the team members for slow progress is not an agile best practice.
Reference:
The Cooperative Game (2nd Edition), Alistair Cockburn, 2007, Daily Standup Meeting - Guidelines
PMI-ACP Exam 1
At the sprint retrospective meeting, the scrum master asks the team if they feel that during the last sprint they properly
demonstrated the value of commitment. The team members discuss the question and conclude that they did not adhere
to the value properly because they did not work together as a unit. The team agrees to do more in the next sprint. What
should the team do to demonstrate the value better during the next sprint?
A Feel safe enough to say No, ask for help when needed, and try new things
B Trust each other to follow through on what the team members say they are going to do
C Consistently and openly seek out new ideas and opportunities to learn
D Limit the work in progress to ensure that what the team members start they finish
Hint:
Members of the scrum team work together as a unit.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
To answer this question correctly, one should be familiar with the five scrum values: commitment, courage, focus,
openness, and respect. The scrum value of commitment says that scrum teams work together as a unit, meaning the
team members trust each other to follow through on what they say they are going to do. When team members aren’t sure
how work is going, they ask. Agile teams only agree to take on tasks they believe they can complete, so they are careful
not to overcommit.
A Feel safe enough to say No, ask for help when needed, and try new things
Incorrect. This answer choice represents the value of courage.
B Trust each other to follow through on what the team members say they are going to do
Correct. This answer choice accurately describes the scrum value of commitment and is, therefore, the best
answer to the question asked.
C Consistently and openly seek out new ideas and opportunities to learn
Incorrect. This answer choice represents the value of openness.
D Limit the work in progress to ensure that what the team members start they finish
Incorrect. This choice represents the value of focus.
Reference:
Agile Practice Guide, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 101; see also , The Five Scrum Values
Exploring Scrum: The Fundamentals, 2nd Edition, Dan Rawsthorne with Doug Shimp, 2013, Team Values
PMI-ACP Exam 1
During an iteration planning meeting, a team member is having difficulty estimating the work required for a task
because it will involve using technology not familiar to the team. The use of this technology also represents a potential
risk to the project if the approach fails. What should the team do to determine this unknown impact?
A Conduct an interruption
B Have the team swarm the task
C Conduct exploratory testing
D Conduct a spike
Hint:
This activity is a practice used to investigate and head off a problem before putting effort into something that could fail.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
A spike is performed specifically to gain knowledge or to answer a question. In this scenario, the team could not develop
an accurate estimate for one of the iteration tasks and was concerned that the task if implemented could cause issues.
Often a new technology will have to be investigated using a spike to ensure the project team does not invest significant
time in something that could cause issues or lead to project failure.
A Conduct an interruption
Incorrect. Interruption is not a specific term used in agile project management.
B Have the team swarm the task

Incorrect. Swarming is a specific term used in Agile and is the practice of bringing together all project team
members to fully focus on a project activity. The situation describes the investigation of new technology that could
be a risk and is not an activity that requires swarming.
C Conduct exploratory testing
Incorrect. Exploratory testing is used to test a system using non-scripted approaches. Exploratory testing is used to
discover issues and unexpected behavior by testing the system in extreme ways to determine system boundaries.
This activity often involves testing the functional elements of a system in a manner that is not expected to be
encountered in typical user interactions. Exploratory testing is combined with scripted or automated testing to verify
a product for release.
D Conduct a spike
Correct. A spike is performed specifically to gain knowledge or answer a question. A spike is a timeboxed effort
devoted to exploring an approach, investigating an issue, or a project risk.
Reference:
Cohn, 2005, Spike
PMI-ACP Exam 1
Scrum is being considered for use on a project that requires frequent turnaround on deliverables very early in the project.
The reasoning was that the defined roles, artifacts, and events used by a scrum team help ensure the highest value
features will be delivered as early as possible. What else can be said about the roles defined in Scrum to help make a
case for using it on the project?
A The product owner ensures that the team understands and follows the scrum process while the scrum master
negotiates what work can be completed in a sprint with feedback from the development team.
B The scrum master is responsible for working with the customer to prioritize the product backlog, and the
product owner acts as a servant leader for the scrum team members.
C The scrum team self-organizes, chooses its own product owner and scrum master, and decomposes user
story tasks based on each individual team member's skill level.
D The scrum master removes impediments and focuses on the health of the team, the product owner
represents the business and stakeholders, and the development team is a cross-functional group that
designs, develops and tests the product.
Hint:
Each specific role in Scrum has specific responsibilities. Do you remember what they are?
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The defined roles, artifacts, and events used by a scrum team ensure that the highest value features are delivered as
early as possible. In Scrum, the main roles and their respective responsibilities are clearly defined. The scrum master
removes impediments and focuses on the health of the team, the product owner represents the business and
stakeholders, and the development team is a cross-functional group that designs, develops and tests the product.
A The product owner ensures that the team understands and follows the scrum process while the scrum master
negotiates what work can be completed in a sprint with feedback from the development team.
Incorrect. The scrum master ensures that the team understands and follows the scrum process while the product
owner negotiates what work can be completed in a sprint with feedback from the development team.
B The scrum master is responsible for working with the customer to prioritize the product backlog, and the product
owner acts as a servant leader for the scrum team members.
Incorrect. The product owner is responsible for working with the customer to prioritize the product backlog, and the
scrum master acts as a servant leader for the scrum team members.
C The scrum team self-organizes, chooses its own product owner and scrum master, and decomposes user story
tasks based on each individual team member's skill level.
Incorrect. Although the scrum team is self-organizing, and they do decompose user story tasks, they do not make
decisions on who will be chosen for the role of product owner or scrum master. This determination is made by an
organization's management before the scrum team is formed.
D The scrum master removes impediments and focuses on the health of the team, the product owner represents
the business and stakeholders, and the development team is a cross-functional group that designs, develops
and tests the product.
Correct. This choice accurately describes the main responsibilities of the product owner, scrum master, and
development team members on a scrum team.
Reference:
Fundamentals, 2nd Edition, Dan Rawsthorne with Doug Shimp, 2013, Scrum - Team Roles; see also
PMI-ACP Exam 1
An agile practitioner was working on a project that had a very high exploration factor of 10. What should the agile
practitioner do in response?
A Specify all stable requirements as early as possible
B Focus on the technology involved in the project
C Plan for longer iterations
D Opt for a waterfall approach
Hint:
A high exploration factor of 10 implies the project has erratic requirements and involves bleeding edge technology.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
A high exploration factor of 10 implies that the project has erratic requirements and involves bleeding edge technology. In
terms of requirements, the critical, high-risk requirements (i.e., the erratic ones) should be prioritized over the stable
ones. The project should focus on getting a good handle on the technology as soon as possible. It will likely involve a
great deal of learning by trying. Short iterations with frequent reviews work best. With the high amount of change, agile is
generally more suitable than the traditional waterfall approach.
A Specify all stable requirements as early as possible

Incorrect. The project likely has erratic requirements so critical, high risk requirements should be prioritized.
B Focus on the technology involved in the project

Correct. Very high exploration factor means that the technology is not well known, so the agile practitioner should
spend time learning and getting familiar with it.
C Plan for longer iterations
Incorrect. Short iterations will likely work better for projects that are speculative.
D Opt for a waterfall approach

Incorrect. Agile is generally more suitable for projects with a high exploration factor.
Reference:
Agile Practice Guide, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 13-16; see also Agile Project Management:
Creating Innovative Products - 2nd Edition, Jim Highsmith, 2009, Exploration Factor
PMI-ACP Exam 1
During iteration planning, an agile coach wants to ensure that her development team has an easy way of organizing their
work as well as a visual representation at a glance of the work remaining in the iteration. Of the following, what is the
best approach for the agile coach to accomplish her stated goals?
A Use a burndown chart
B Introduce a task board
C Create a burnup chart
D Utilize an information radiator
Hint:
All of the answer choices represent tools that radiate information about the team's work, but which one provides the most
detailed information about the work remaining in the iteration?
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
A task board is an information radiator that serves the dual purpose of giving your development team a convenient
mechanism for organizing their work, and a way to see at a glance how much work is left in the iteration. In flow-based
agile, the team pulls features from the backlog based on its capacity to start work rather than on an iteration-based
schedule. The team defines its workflow with columns on a task board and manages the work in progress for each
column. A task board makes these tasks highly visible so that everyone can see which tasks are being worked on and
which are available for selection.
A Use a burndown chart

Incorrect. A burndown chart is a visual representation of the project’s progress over time. It accomplishes this by
displaying the actual amount of work remaining in the project, which will ‘burn down’ over time. Burndown charts
are an agile project team's preferred tool used to display project progress, but they are not a simple way of
organizing and managing project work.
B Introduce a task board
Correct. A task board is an information radiator that serves the dual purpose of giving your agile project team a
convenient mechanism for organizing their work, and a way to see at a glance how much work is left in the
iteration.
C Create a burnup chart

Incorrect. The burnup chart is the opposite of the burndown chart. The burnup chart is also a visual representation
of the project’s progress over time. However, it accomplishes this by displaying the actual amount of work
completed so far on the project, rather than the amount of work remaining. Burnup charts are normally used to
show progress at the project level but can also be used at the release level to reflect any added scope to the
release or project over time.
D Utilize an information radiator

Incorrect. An information radiator is a general term for a visual display of work in progress or completed over time.
It is often located in a common area that everyone can see. Although information radiator is technically a correct
answer to this question, it is not the best answer because the question is asking for a specific type of information
radiator, which in this scenario is a task board.
Reference:
Cohn, 2005, Task Board
PMI-ACP Exam 1
The product owner is facilitating a story writing workshop with the team and the project stakeholders to create initial user
stories. What is the main focus of this workshop?
A To create as many user stories as possible
B To create user stories for the first iteration
C To refine user stories in the product backlog
D To re-prioritize user stories for the first release
Hint:
This is a timeboxed meeting in order to make it as focused and productive as possible.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
An agile project’s initial user stories are often written in a story writing workshop, but user stories can be written at any
time throughout the project. During the story writing workshop, everyone brainstorms as many stories as possible. Armed
with a starting set of stories, the developers estimate the size of each. During a story writing workshop, the focus should
be on quantity rather than quality, so attendees should write as many user stories within the prescribed timebox of the
workshop.
A To create as many user stories as possible

Correct. During a story writing workshop, the focus should be on quantity rather than quality, so the meeting
participants should write as many user stories within the prescribed timebox of the workshop as possible.
B To create user stories for the first iteration

Incorrect. Although some of the user stories created during the story writing workshop may be used in the first
iteration, this is not the main focus of the workshop.
C To refine user stories in the product backlog
Incorrect. The question describes a scenario in which the meeting participants are creating the initial user stories,
implying the product backlog does not yet exist. Therefore, there is nothing to refine.
D To re-prioritize user stories for the first release

Incorrect. Prioritization (and re-prioritization) of user stories for a release is done at the release planning meeting,
and not at the story writing workshop meeting.
Reference:
User Stories Applied: For Agile Software Development, Mike Cohn, 2004, Story Writing Workshops
PMI-ACP Exam 1
A software developer has a background in a manufacturing environment, where Kanban was utilized to analyze and
reduce work in progress (WIP). Recently hired on an agile project team because of his skills and experience in process
improvement, the developer is explaining Little's Law to a fellow project team member. What does the developer use to
describe cycle time?
A Throughput / work in progress
B Number of items completed / throughput
C Work in progress / throughput
D Number of items completed / work in progress
Hint:
Cycle time is the time required to process an item.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Little’s law is an important concept used to help a project team analyze and minimize WIP when implementing Kanban
on an agile project. Little’s law is a mathematical proof developed by John D.C. Little that states that the more things you
have going at the same time, the longer each thing will take. To understand the formula (Cycle Time = Work in progress /
Throughput), let's break down the different parts of it and describe what each variable means. Cycle time is the time
through the progress for each item. WIP is the number of items you work on at the same time. Throughput is the rate at
which a system achieves its goal to complete each item.
A Throughput / work in progress

Incorrect. The numerator and denominator have been transposed to make this answer choice incorrect.
B Number of items completed / throughput

Incorrect. The number of items completed is not used in the correct formula for cycle time.
C Work in progress / throughput
Correct. This answer choice represents the correct formula for cycle time.
D Number of items completed / work in progress

Incorrect. The number of items completed is not used in the cycle time formula.
Reference:
Agile Practice Guide, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 65-66; see also Kanban In Action, Marcus
Hammarberg, Joakim Sunden, 2014, Kanban - Little's Law
PMI-ACP Exam 1
The customers gave the new product very poor reviews. What should the agile team do now?
A Cancel the project
B Scrap the product and start from a blank slate
C Conduct a retrospective
D Proceed with the next iteration as planned
Hint:
Remember that agile teams strive for continuous improvement.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Getting bad reviews can be very disappointing for a project team. It would be useful for the team to understand what has
happened and determine the best course of action. Retrospectives are an opportunity for the team to inspect and adapt
to improve their process and deliverables. Typically, in a retrospective, the team spends some time gathering and
discussing facts (e.g., what happened), then they analyze to understand causes and gain insights on what went well
versus not well. As a team, they propose possible changes and improvements and decide on the next steps. A
retrospective is a critical event in agile that allows the teams to inspect, adapt, and continue to improve. In the end, the
ultimate decision lies with the product owner as to the direction in which to take the product.
A Cancel the project

Incorrect. Although the product owner may decide to cancel the project, it is premature to cancel the project based
solely on initial bad reviews.
B Scrap the product and start from a blank slate

Incorrect. Sometimes it may be better to start a project over with a blank state. However, there is not sufficient
information in this scenario to suggest that the team is better off scrapping what they have versus fixing or
improving upon what already exists.
C Conduct a retrospective
Correct. A retrospective would allow the product owner and the team to determine how and what to improve in
order to avoid bad product reviews or mitigate the effects of the existing bad reviews.
D Proceed with the next iteration as planned

Incorrect. There must be a reason why the customers provided bad reviews. Proceeding as normal with the next
iteration is equivalent to putting blinders on or ignoring the issue. Instead, the product owner must work with the
team to determine the reason for the bad reviews.
Reference:
Agile Practice Guide, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 50-51; see also PMI Agile Certified Practitioner
(PMI-ACP)®, Examination Content Outline, 2014, Continuous Improvement
PMI-ACP Exam 1
A project manager has just been assigned to a very large project that the company would like to be run using agile. The
project manager is concerned that agile may not be the best approach given that such a large effort would be needed for
additional processes, structure and support systems, and will make the execution of the project more rigid and less agile.
Which of the following practices will assist in scaling a large project while keeping it agile and not process and structure
focused?
A Executing the project with a well-defined beginning and end
B Building a hierarchy of process and decision making to support scaling the project
C Not focusing on project uncertainty and complexity
D Executing the project using multi-level release planning
Hint:
Sometimes,s the product backlog alone can provide enough project overview on small project.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The project manager needs to use their knowledge of agile project management to run a much larger project using agile
than they executed in the past. What can happen on smaller projects is that either release planning is used, or the
product backlog is sufficient to manage the project and provide enough visibility to the team. As a project grows in size
and complexity, a release planning session and a release plan will help to establish both product focus and project
visibility, which are necessary components of agile projects. As agile projects grow in size, using multi-level release
planning can ensure that both product focus and project visibility remain high, and that there is a clear product roadmap
that ties together the entire project effort.
A Executing the project with a well-defined beginning and end

Incorrect. A project that is planned and executed with a well-defined beginning and end is non-agile in its very
nature. Agile project management focuses on the continuous delivery of value and working product, and not
specifically on a predetermined beginning and end.
B Building a hierarchy of process and decision making to support scaling the project
Incorrect. Building a hierarchy of process and decision making focuses the project on documentation, adherence,
and ceremony, and away from the delivery of value and increments of function or value. While large projects are
often planned with a hierarchy of functionality, this is much different from hierarchical processes and decision-
making.
C Not focusing on project uncertainty and complexity

Incorrect. Two very important factors to consider when scaling an agile project are uncertainty and complexity.
Failure to consider either or both of these will be detrimental to a large agile project.
D Executing the project using multi-level release planning

Correct. Multi-level release planning establishes a roadmap for how the team intends to achieve the product vision
within project objectives and constraints. Large agile projects often use multi-level release plans in order to
coordinate the greater complexity and tasks that tend to increase with the size of the project.
Reference:
Creating Innovative Products - 2nd Edition, Jim Highsmith, 2009, Agile Scaling
PMI-ACP Exam 1
An agile team’s velocity has recently started to decline, and the team facilitator is worried that if this trend continues, then
all of the work required to meet the release goal may not be completed. What should the team facilitator do?
A Discuss the issue with the team in the next retrospective
B Offer incentives to the team members for reaching certain KPIs
C Tell the team that the project might be canceled if they don't reach the required velocity
D Add more resources to the team
Hint:
What mechanisms and rituals are used in agile to reflect and improve productivity?
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
In this question, the team's velocity has started to decline, and the team facilitator is concerned that if this trend
continues the team would not reach their goals. The first thing that should be done in such a situation is to identify a
cause for the trend. One of the tools used to identify the causes of issues in agile teams is the iteration retrospective.
Iteration retrospectives are an opportunity for development teams to gather and reflect on the things that went well and
those that did not go well with the goal of continually improving team performance. Well-executed iteration retrospectives
create an environment where the participants feel safe and open to surface issues or threats as well as make
suggestions for improvement. The other answer choices provided do not focus the team on determining the cause of the
problem but instead distract from determining why velocity is decreasing and do nothing to encourage the team to
identify solutions for improvement.
A Discuss the issue with the team in the next retrospective

Correct. In order to determine the cause of an issue, such as a team's declining velocity, it is appropriate to engage
the team in determining what could be causing the issue. Discussing the declining velocity with the team during the
iteration retrospective is an appropriate way to look for causes and remedies. An iteration retrospective is an
excellent venue for discussing both what is and isn't working.
B Offer incentives to the team members for reaching certain KPIs

Incorrect. An agile team facilitator should not have to offer incentives for the development team to meet KPIs (key
performance indicators) such as velocity and doing so would not help to determine the cause of a drop in the
team's velocity. In addition, such a practice of incentivizing the team through rewards for performance can have a
negative effect of expectation of such rewards and absent such incentives team may fail to perform.
C Tell the team that the project might be canceled if they don't reach the required velocity
Incorrect. It is inappropriate to use false threats or fear to get a team to increase their performance. Agile methods
advocate creating a safe and transparent environment where team members are encouraged to surface and
discuss problems without fear. Telling a team that the project could be canceled is not creating an environment that
is likely to lead to the determination of a root cause or suggestions for how to improve.
D Add more resources to the team

Incorrect. As described in the question, the team's velocity has started to decline and if not corrected the team may
not meet its release goals. The first thing that should be done is for the team to come together and attempt to
determine the cause(s) of the drop in velocity and hopefully identify a solution. The issue will not likely be solved by
simply adding more resources to the team, which in fact, could exacerbate matters.
Reference:
Bridge to Agility, Michele Sliger, Stacia Broderick, 2008, Iteration Retrospective
PMI-ACP Exam 1
A company is considering removing an experienced scrum master from their current high-performing team to help other
agile teams within the organization to leverage their scrum knowledge. What advice would an agile practitioner give to
the company’s management?
A Remove the scrum master from the team to assist other teams and assign a department manager instead
B Do not remove the scrum master from the team and also allow the scrum master to assist other teams
C Remove the scrum master from the team to assist other teams and allow the product owner to double as the
scrum master
D Do not remove the scrum master and let the other teams manage themselves as agile teams are self-
organizing and self-directing
Hint:
Think about how dependent the team is on the scrum master in this situation.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
In general, it is advisable to assign a fully dedicated scrum master to each scrum team. However, it is acceptable to allow
a scrum master to assist multiple teams if it does not place an undue burden on the scrum master or any of the teams. In
this situation, the team is high-performing, therefore, while still being assigned to the current team, the scrum master may
also serve the organization by assisting other teams in the effective use of Scrum.
A Remove the scrum master from the team to assist other teams and assign a department manager instead
Incorrect. A fundamental requisite for a scrum master is to ensure that Scrum is understood and properly
implemented by the scrum team. Nothing in the question or answer choice suggests that the department manager
is trained or experienced in Scrum.
B Do not remove the scrum master from the team and also allow the scrum master to assist other teams
Correct. While it is advisable to assign a unique scrum master to each scrum team, it is acceptable to allow a
scrum master to assist multiple teams if it does not impose an undue burden on the scrum master or any of the
teams.
C Remove the scrum master from the team to assist other teams and allow the product owner to double as the
scrum master
Incorrect. It is highly not recommended that the roles of the product owner and scrum master be performed by the
same individual.
D Do not remove the scrum master and let the other teams manage themselves as agile teams are self-
organizing and self-directing
Incorrect. While it is true that agile teams are self-organizing and self-directing, a scrum master is integral to the
scrum process. Without a scrum master to leverage the teams' scrum knowledge and perform the servant leader’s
duties, the teams are unlikely to become high-performing.
Reference:
Exploring Scrum: The Fundamentals, 2nd Edition, Dan Rawsthorne with Doug Shimp, 2013, Scrum - Team Roles -
Scrum Master; see also
PMI-ACP Exam 1
Which of the following skills or capabilities should agile leaders possess in order to successfully lead teams and
positively influence project stakeholders?
A Encouraging team members to express their joy or frustration
B Making decisions for the team when they cannot decide
C Making people empathize with others
D Exercising good self-control and being able to empathize with others effectively
Hint:
The correct answer represents the self-management and social awareness quadrants of emotional intelligence.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Two skills that differentiate good leaders are the ability to recognize and understand the feelings and the emotions of
others and the ability to recognize and control one's own feelings and actions. Agile leaders that are both socially aware
and exercise good self-control are perceived by others as good leaders and influential members of organizations.
Keeping one's cool in a stressful situation and being able to demonstrate empathy toward others has a direct positive
impact on the effectiveness of a leader. These qualities and skills are perceived as positive attributes and significantly
affect one's ability to influence those around them.
A Encouraging team members to express their joy or frustration

Incorrect. Encouraging team members to express their joy or frustration is a good agile leadership practice, but it
will not necessarily help the agile leader influence project stakeholders.
B Making decisions for the team when they cannot decide

Incorrect. Agile teams are empowered to make their own decisions. When the team is unable to decide, an agile
leader can help the team facilitate the decision or in extreme cases, make a decision for the team. However,
making a decision for the team would not help the agile leader positively influence project stakeholders.
C Making people empathize with others

Incorrect. Typically, people can recognize their own feelings and sometimes the emotions of others. Some leaders
can also influence the feelings of others. While the ability of a leader to show empathy toward others is a very
powerful motivator and influencer, making people empathize with others is difficult if not impossible to do.
D Exercising good self-control and being able to empathize with others effectively
Correct. An agile leader who has mastered self-control and is socially aware, able to show empathy, is
demonstrating qualities that positively influence both team members and stakeholders. How well we manage
ourselves and our ability to ‘connect’ or be socially aware of the needs of others are viewed as very positive
qualities and directly affect our ability to influence those around us.
Reference:
Agile Practice Guide, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 34; see also PMI-ACP® Exam Prep, Second
Edition, Mike Griffiths, 2015, Emotional Intelligence; see also ; see also A Guide to the Project Management Body of
Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 310
PMI-ACP Exam 1
After working overtime for the last few iterations, agile team members decided that from now on they would maintain a
40-hour workweek. Why is it important to have a regular 40-hour workweek?
A To maximize the amount of work not done
B To minimize the amount of work in progress
C To deliver working software frequently
D To promote sustainable development
Hint:
It’s about maintaining a constant pace indefinitely.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The Agile Manifesto principle #8 states, “Agile processes promote sustainable development. The sponsors, developers,
and users should be able to maintain a constant pace indefinitely.” Constant pace will allow the team members to
maintain their work-life balance, make fewer mistakes, sustain healthy productivity, collaborate better, and possibly
refrain from resigning.
A To maximize the amount of work not done

Incorrect. "Maximizing the amount of work not done" is Agile Manifesto principle #10, which refers to the
development of the “simplest thing that could possibly work” and avoiding building features that are never used.
Limiting a workweek to 40 hours does not guarantee that unnecessary features would not be built during these 40
hours.
B To minimize the amount of work in progress

Incorrect. The correct statement is “limit work in progress”. It refers to one of the Kanban core principles and has
nothing to do with the number of working hours.
C To deliver working software frequently
Incorrect. Delivering working software frequently is the Agile Manifesto principle #3. It is one of the fundamental
agile practices, which allows the team to get feedback frequently in order to improve the product and their
processes. Typically, teams can deliver working software frequently regardless of how many hours they work per
week.
D To promote sustainable development

Correct. Promoting sustainable development is represented by Agile Manifesto principle #8, which supports work-
life balance by maintaining regular 40-hour workweek.
Reference:
Agile Practice Guide, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 8-9; see also , The Agile Manifesto, Principle #8
PMI-ACP Exam 1
While working on the layout of one of the screens on a mobile application, a developer on an agile team came up with a
screen improvement idea that will increase the application's usability, and ultimately increase customer satisfaction.
Implementing this idea represents a new requirement. The developer's first thought is to implement this improvement to
impress their client. What should the developer do next?
A Do nothing since this requirement is out of scope and it should not be added to the product
B Implement this requirement to show the product owner the improvement in terms of the application's usability
C Suggest this requirement to the product owner for possible inclusion in the next iteration
D Collect the supporting information for this requirement and present this information to the product owner
Hint:
As an agile best practice, what should the developer be concentrating on during the current iteration?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
If the developer has a suggested improvement in mind that can potentially benefit the end user experience when using
the application, the next step should be to suggest this idea to the product owner for possible inclusion in the next
iteration. The product owner can then review the requirement, create a user story, and present it to the customer. If it is
agreed that the idea for the new requirement has merit by both the product owner and the customer, it can then be
placed in the product backlog and prioritized.
If the developer decides to implement this requirement without presenting it to the product owner first, this may be
considered gold plating. Gold plating occurs when a product developer adds features to the product that were not part of
the original requirements. Gold plating is not an agile best practice or a good practice for any project.
A Do nothing since this requirement is out of scope and it should not be added to the product
Incorrect. The developer's idea for this new requirement may be sound and the agile approach allows for change.
B Implement this requirement to show the product owner the improvement in terms of the application's usability
Incorrect. The developer's idea for this new requirement may have an impact on other user stories and features. In
addition, the time spent working on this new requirement would be time that is not spent working on the user
stories the developer has already been assigned during this iteration.
C Suggest this requirement to the product owner for possible inclusion in the next iteration
Correct. By suggesting to the product owner that this requirement be created as a new user story, the user story
can be reviewed and considered for inclusion in the next iteration by the product owner and the customer.
D Collect the supporting information for this requirement and present this information to the product owner
Incorrect. Although more supporting information may be necessary, the developer should focus on completing the
user stories prioritized for the current iteration, as opposed to gathering supporting information for this new
requirement.
Reference:
Innovative Products - 2nd Edition, Jim Highsmith, 2009, Gold Plating; see also The Agile PrepCast, Agile Organic
Product Quality Concepts,
PMI-ACP Exam 1
In order to enable osmotic communication, a project manager ensured that all team members who needed to
communicate often with each other were co-located. This worked well for the team until the technical lead complained
about the noise around him, preventing him from focusing on some difficult programming tasks. The project manager
suggested an idea where the technical lead should not be disturbed by the discussions of his teammates. What was the
project manager referring to?
A Caves and common
B Tacit knowledge
C Adaptive communication
D Bus-length communication
Hint:
Determine which answer is a known strategy first, and not a principle or a room configuration.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Caves and common is a workspace layout practice recommended by XP where the center of the room is used for group
work to maximize osmotic communication and information transfer, while the outside of the room is set up with individual
areas, "caves", where people can work quietly, make private calls, and take care of their need for separation. The idea
the project manager suggested to the technical lead in the scenario described is best addressed by the caves in the
"Caves and common" answer choice, making it the best answer to the question asked.
A Caves and common

Correct. 'Caves and common' refer to two different areas in a workspace. Common is the area where most of the
work is done most of the time by most of the team members. Caves are private, quiet spaces where the team
members can work on their own when they need to focus and want to avoid being distracted.
B Tacit knowledge
Incorrect. Tacit knowledge is the personal knowledge that can be difficult to articulate and share such as beliefs,
experience, and insights.
C Adaptive communication
Incorrect. This is not a strategy associated with agile project management.
D Bus-length communication
Incorrect. The cone of silence and osmotic communications are applications of the Bus-Length principle, where
communication between people drops off radically as soon as their distance from each other exceeds the length of
a school bus.
Reference:
Agile Software Development: The Cooperative Game (2nd Edition), Alistair Cockburn, 2007, Caves and Common
PMI-ACP Exam 1
After an agile project chartering session, a stakeholder asks when the first opportunity would be to view the scrum team's
progress on the development of the new application. Which scrum event should the product owner suggest that the
stakeholder attend in the first sprint, so they can view how the team and the project are progressing?
A Sprint planning meeting
B Sprint retrospective meeting
C Daily scrum meeting
D Sprint review meeting
Hint:
Which meeting involves participants from outside of the scrum team?
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Sprint review meetings in an agile project is an event where the interested stakeholders are expected and welcomed to
participate. In this way, the stakeholders can see what has been prioritized the highest, what has made it into the next
iteration, what the development team has produced, and how they are progressing. The product owner should suggest
that the stakeholder attends the sprint review meeting. At this meeting, the stakeholders will see what has been
developed and are able to provide needed feedback and clarification. Of course, a good agile project team would also
display project progress, using information radiators, such as burn charts.

Incorrect. The sprint planning meeting is conducted by the development team and typically does not include
stakeholders. The agile coach or scrum master, as well as the development team and product owner, attend these
meetings to discuss the objective that the sprint should achieve, to clarify the selected product backlog items, and
make trade-offs.
B Sprint retrospective meeting
Incorrect. Sprint retrospective meeting is not a meeting for the stakeholders to determine progress information.
Instead, the meeting is held by the development team to reflect on the recently completed sprint and look for
opportunities to improve team performance.
C Daily scrum meeting

Incorrect. The daily scrum is attended by members of the development team and a coach or a scrum master. The
meeting is held each day to discuss progress, impediments, and synchronize the work planned to be done during
the day. Stakeholders typically do not attend the daily scrum meeting.
D Sprint review meeting

Correct. The sprint review is the best meetings for the stakeholders to attend to check on project progress, as well
as provide feedback that could influence the project work going forward.
Reference:
Companion for ScrumMasters, Agile Coaches, and Project Managers in Transition, Lyssa Adkins, 2010, Stakeholder
Communication Management
PMI-ACP Exam 1
An agile retrospective meeting is an ideal time for the self-assessment of a team, where members reflect on how they
are doing and find ways to improve their performance. Agile best practices indicate that three specific questions should
be asked during a retrospective meeting to make the meeting as productive as possible. Which of the following
represents one of the questions, which should be asked during an iteration retrospective?
A Are there any impediments to progress?
B What has been accomplished since the last meeting?
C What didn't we understand during the current iteration?
D What improvements do we make during the next iteration?
Hint:
The main goal of a retrospective meeting is to determine what went well and what went wrong during an iteration. Asking
these two questions naturally leads to the third one.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
During an iteration retrospective meeting, the three questions that a team asks itself to relate to what went well and what
did not go well during the current iteration, and what improvements can be made in the next iteration. Of the available
choices, only the question regarding improvements for the next iteration is typically asked during an iteration
retrospective.
A Are there any impediments to progress?

Incorrect. This answer choice represents one of the three questions that should be asked during a daily standup
meeting and not during an iteration retrospective. For an iteration retrospective, any impediments are captured
during the discussion of what did not go well during the iteration.
B What has been accomplished since the last meeting?

Incorrect. This answer choice represents one of the three questions that should be asked during a daily standup
meeting rather than an iteration retrospective. For an iteration retrospective, accomplishments might be captured
during the discussion of what went well during the iteration.
C What didn't we understand during the current iteration?

Incorrect. This answer choice is not one of the three questions typically asked during an iteration retrospective
meeting, and it should be captured as part of the discussion of what did not go well during the iteration.
D What improvements do we make during the next iteration?

Correct. The iteration retrospective seeks to learn what has gone well, what has not gone well, and what
improvements can be made for the next iteration.
Reference:
The Cooperative Game (2nd Edition), Alistair Cockburn, 2007, Retrospectives - 3 Questions
PMI-ACP Exam 1
An agile coach has been asked to facilitate an upcoming sprint retrospective meeting since the scrum master is on
vacation. The technical lead tells the agile coach that the brainstorming activities performed in previous retrospectives
have been based on the ability of any of the attendees to shout out ideas at random, and that this method has made the
meetings very collaborative, creative, and lively. Which of the following brainstorming methods would the team like you to
use?
A Round-robin
B Planning poker
C Free-for-all
D Silent idea generation
Hint:
Three of the answer choices involve collaboration between team members but only one is a brainstorming method that
encourages team members to literally shout out ideas.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The brainstorming method being described in this situation is known as the free-for-all. It is characterized by agile project
team members spontaneously shouting out ideas that are documented by a facilitator, and then reviewed by the team
afterwards. It is a collaborative brainstorming method that helps agile project teams develop creative ideas to help them
solve problems the problems they encounter on their projects.
A Round-robin
Incorrect. Round-robin is a brainstorming method characterized by agile team members passing around a token to
each other, having the person possessing the token share a single idea, which the team discusses, and then
passing the token to the next project team member.
B Planning poker
Incorrect. Planning poker is an estimating method used by agile teams during the iteration planning meeting to
estimate the effort necessary to complete the user stories in the upcoming iteration.
C Free-for-all
Correct. Free-for-all is a brainstorming method characterized by agile project team members spontaneously
shouting out ideas that are then documented by a facilitator, in order to develop creative ideas to solve problems.
D Silent idea generation

Incorrect. Silent idea generation is a brainstorming method where participants write down ideas and hand them to
a facilitator without speaking, usually within a pre-defined time box. These ideas are then evaluated by the team
afterwards.
Reference:
Agile Retrospectives: Making Good Teams Great, Esther Derby, Diana Larsen, 2006, Brainstorming - Free-for-All
PMI-ACP Exam 1
An agile team was unable to complete all user stories planned for their recent sprint. At the retrospective meeting, the
team and the product owner realize that inaccurate estimates were the main reason for the issue. What is the best
course of action for the product owner to ensure the issue does not recur in the upcoming sprints?
A Reduce story size by splitting stories
B Reprioritize the backlog more frequently
C Increase the work in progress limits
D Carry out an architectural spike
Hint:
The correct answer choice is also sometimes referred to as decomposition.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
It is reasonable to assume that the bigger the size of a user story, the more difficult it will be for the team to estimate how
much effort is needed to develop it. Additionally, when the sprint starts and the work on the user story begins, unknown
issues with the development of the user story may come up that may negatively impact the work, thus delaying its
completion. Eventually, the team members may find themselves being unable to complete all work committed to during
the sprint, which is the case described in the scenario. One common agile practice to address inaccurate estimation is
splitting user stories into smaller chunks, thus reducing their size and making estimation more accurate and development
easier. Therefore, of the choices provided, reducing story size by splitting stories is the best answer to the question
asked.
A Reduce story size by splitting stories

Correct. Estimating and developing smaller user stories is typically easier than estimating and developing bigger
user stories. One of the ways to reduce the size of a user story is by splitting it. Splitting is not always possible, but
when it is, it may help the team provide more accurate estimates and, thus, increase the chances of completing all
planned user stories.
B Reprioritize the backlog more frequently

Incorrect. According to the scenario, the root cause of the problem was the inaccurate estimates of the user
stories, rather than their prioritization. Therefore, reprioritizing the backlog more frequently is unlikely to resolve the
issue at hand.
C Increase the work in progress limits

Incorrect. Agile teams strive to optimize the work in progress (WIP) limits, rather than increase them. Typically,
reducing (not increasing) the WIP limits is what helps teams accomplish the planned work. Besides, the issue in
the scenario is inaccurate estimation rather than non-optimal WIP size.
D Carry out an architectural spike

Incorrect. A spike, either architectural or risk-based, is a short time interval within a project which is carried out by
the project team to conduct research or create a prototype for an aspect of a solution in order to provide its viability.
Reference:
Agile Practice Guide, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 58

PMI-ACP Exam 1
A new senior manager has been assigned to oversee several projects. The manager contacts an agile project leader and
asks for a monthly report that summarizes the project status and the projected finish date. How should the project leader
respond to this request?
A Provide the detailed status report requested by the senior manager
B Suggest the manager periodically attend the daily standups
C Create an intranet site that has a sophisticated dashboard for progress status reporting
D Post a project burndown chart in a visible location and recommend the manager use this to monitor the
project progress
Hint:
Agile projects use information radiators to show and monitor project progress, status, and to forecast project completion.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
A burndown chart is an information radiator that can indicate the progress of a project at a glance. A release burndown
chart is typically updated after every iteration, while an iteration burndown chart is updated daily. A burndown chart
shows the actual and estimated amount of work to be achieved over time, and is a good indicator of both progress,
potential finish dates, and if the team is on target for completing the work based on estimates. Burndown charts are often
placed in high-traffic, highly visible locations, so anyone interested can quickly see at a glance the project status. Agile
methods seek to minimize documentation that has to be maintained, updated, and distributed such as progress reports in
favor of information radiators that can radiate information like project status to a large audience who may not have the
expertise required to interpret sophisticated dashboards or scheduling tools.
A Provide the detailed status report requested by the senior manager

Incorrect. Agile projects do not create standard project status reports used in traditional projects to report progress
but instead use information radiators to track and inform the project team, customers, and stakeholders about the
project status.
B Suggest the manager periodically attend the daily standups

Incorrect. The daily standup is held for the development team to report and synchronize their work and to report
any issues that are impediments to their progress. It is attended by the agile coach, scrum master, or team leader
and the members of the development team. Project status and projected finish date are not presented during the
daily standup, neither is it the forum for discussions of other topics and is not open for attendance by customers,
stakeholders, or members of management.
C Create an intranet site that has a sophisticated dashboard for progress status reporting
Incorrect. Agile teams rely on low-tech, high-touch tools to plan, manage, and report project status. Large charts
and graphs placed in very visible locations are typically used to report project status. Creating and maintaining an
intranet site with a sophisticated dashboard requires time, effort, and expertise. Intranet sites may also limit the
audience that can access the information.
D Post a project burndown chart in a visible location and recommend the manager use this to monitor the project
progress
Correct. A project burndown chart is an example of an information radiator used to show the work that has been
completed, the work remaining, and the forecasted date of completion. The typical burndown chart is a large graph
that plots the amount of work, in story points or estimated effort required versus time or iterations remaining. As
work is completed, a progress line on the chart moves downward to reflect the decreasing amount of remaining
work.
Reference:
Bridge to Agility, Michele Sliger, Stacia Broderick, 2008, Burndown Chart; see also The Agile PrepCast, Scrum, , Iteration
Burndown Chart
PMI-ACP Exam 1
A product owner is currently facilitating a meeting whose attendees include developers, users, stakeholders and other
parties who can contribute to requirements for a new application. The participants utilize low-fidelity prototyping using
note cards and a whiteboard to create maps outlining very high-level interactions and features within the planned
application. What type of meeting is the product owner currently facilitating?
A Prototyping workshop
B User story workshop
C Brainstorming workshop
D Backlog grooming workshop
Hint:
Think about the format, activities, and goal of the meeting.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
A story-writing workshop is a meeting that includes developers, users, the product customer and other parties who can
contribute by writing user stories. During the workshop, the participants write as many user stories as they can. No
priorities are associated with the user stories at this point because the customer will have a chance to do that later. A
project’s initial user stories are often written during a user story workshop, but stories can be written at any time
throughout the project. At the user story workshop, everyone brainstorms as many user stories as possible. A good user
story workshop combines the best elements of brainstorming with low-fidelity prototyping. A low-fidelity prototype is
created on paper, note cards, or a whiteboard and maps very high-level interactions within the planned product.
A Prototyping workshop
Incorrect. Although prototyping is one of the activities included in this workshop, the workshop's major goal is to
write high-level user stories representing major features for the product being developed.
B User story workshop
Correct. A user story workshop is a meeting that includes developers, users, the product customer, and key
stakeholders who all collaborate to write user stories.
C Brainstorming workshop
Incorrect. Although brainstorming can be one of the activities included in this workshop, the workshop's major goal
is to write high-level user stories representing major features for the product or service being developed.
D Backlog grooming workshop

Incorrect. Grooming the product backlog involves reviewing the backlog and ensuring that the product owner has
worked with the customer to prioritize the order of work properly in terms of customer value, risk, and other
considerations.
Reference:
User Stories Applied: For Agile Software Development, Mike Cohn, 2004, Story-Writing Workshops; see also PMI-ACP
Exam Prep, Second Edition: A Course in a Book for Passing the PMI Agile Certified Practitioner (PMI-ACP)® Exam, Mike
Griffiths, 2012, Page(s) 173; see also A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth
Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 145
PMI-ACP Exam 1
After checking information radiators, a project sponsor has expressed concern about the slow progress of the project in
comparison to a similar project executed by the same team a year ago using a waterfall approach. The scrum master
decides that the sponsor should be invited to participate in one of the scrum meetings to learn more about the project.
According to scrum best practices, which of the following scrum events would be most beneficial for the sponsor to
attend?
B Daily scrum meeting
C Sprint review meeting
Hint:
During which meeting does the development team demonstrate a product increment to the customer, product owner, and
any other interested stakeholders?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Since the sponsor’s comparison is based on two separate projects with one of them being waterfall-based, it is
unreasonable to compare the two, even though the same team is involved. The scrum master’s task in this situation is to
educate the sponsor about agile and scrum best practices. According to scrum best practices, stakeholders who are not
scrum team members do not typically attend the sprint planning meeting, daily scrum meeting, or sprint retrospective
meeting because these meetings are generally for the team members. Whereas, stakeholders who are not scrum team
members are welcomed and encouraged to both attend and participate in the sprint review meeting.

Incorrect. The sprint planning meeting is a collaborative event in Scrum in which the scrum team plans the work for
the current sprint. The scrum team consists of the product owner, scrum master, and development team. The
scrum team does not typically invite others to attend this meeting.
B Daily scrum meeting

Incorrect. The daily scrum (also known as a daily stand up) is a brief, daily collaborative meeting in which the team
reviews progress from the previous day, declares intentions for the current day, and highlights any obstacles
encountered or anticipated. The Scrum Guide recommends that only the development team members attend the
daily scrum. This meeting would not provide the sponsor with information regarding the overall project and its
progress.
C Sprint review meeting

Correct. The sprint review meeting is a meeting in which the development team demonstrates the product
increment developed during the sprint to the customer, product owner, as well as any other interested
stakeholders.

Incorrect. A sprint retrospective is a meeting held at the end of a sprint in which participants explore their work and
results in order to improve the process and product. This meeting provides value for the project team to improve
their performance but would be of little benefit to the project sponsor.
Reference:
Agile Practice Guide, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 55, 101; see also Coaching Agile Teams: A
Companion for ScrumMasters, Agile Coaches, and Project Managers in Transition, Lyssa Adkins, 2010, Stakeholder
Management; see also The Scrum GuideTM, July 2016, page 11
PMI-ACP Exam 1
A certified professional engineer who has been leading agile teams for the past six years has just been assigned to work
with a team led by an experienced scrum master to develop a new type of technology. Which of the following would be
considered one of the certified professional engineer's responsibilities?
A Understanding customer requirements
B Breaking down political impediments that the project faces
C Providing financial support for the project
D Acting as a change agent in organizational processes and methods
Hint:
Consider the different roles on a scrum team.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Since the question states that the engineer is assigned to the team with an experienced scrum master, their likely role
would be team lead, team member, or product owner. The question mentions that the team already has an experienced
scrum master. In addition, looking at the choices, all except the choice about "understanding customer requirements"
refer to the responsibilities of a business sponsor/champion or scrum master.
A Understanding customer requirements

Correct. Since the question states that the engineer is assigned to the team with an experienced scrum master,
their likely role would be team lead, team member, or product owner. Regardless of which of these roles is held by
the engineer, it is imperative that each of these roles have a clear understanding of the customer requirements in
order to perform their role effectively.
B Breaking down political impediments that the project faces

Incorrect. The removal of impediments to progress is the responsibility of the scrum master.
C Providing financial support for the project
Incorrect. The project sponsor is responsible for providing the funding for the project.
D Acting as a change agent in organizational processes and methods

Incorrect. The scrum master acts as the change agent in organizational processes and methods.
Reference:
Agile Practice Guide, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 41, 101; see also The Software Project
Manager's Bridge to Agility, Michele Sliger, Stacia Broderick, 2008, Agile Champion
PMI-ACP Exam 1
An agile coach is explaining to the product owner that implementing agile best practices on his projects will offer many
benefits, such as timeboxing, which helps to mitigate the effects of Parkinson's Law. Which of the following describes
Parkinson's Law?
A Waiting until the last minute to start a task that was planned weeks before
B When assigned tasks interrupt each other, and they need to be worked on simultaneously
C When transferring work that is finished earlier than expected, is delayed because the next process or team
member is not ready to accept it
D When tasks expand to fill the time that has been allocated to complete them
Hint:
The correct answer has more to do with the scope of the tasks and the time estimated to complete them.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Parkinson's Law states that work tends to expand to fill the time available or allocated to complete the work. Agile best
practices help to mitigate the effects of Parkinson's Law because they focus on short timeboxes to complete the work,
and therefore enable project team members to be more focused on getting the work done within the time allocated.
A Waiting until the last minute to start a task that was planned weeks before
Incorrect. This choice contains a description of Student Syndrome, or procrastination, which occurs when people
start to apply themselves only at the last possible moment before the deadline.
B When assigned tasks interrupt each other, and they need to be worked on simultaneously
Incorrect. This choice describes multitasking, which occurs when switching between tasks during project work.
Multitasking reduces the throughput of the team’s work and impacts the team’s ability to predict delivery
consistently.
C When transferring work that is finished earlier than expected, is delayed because the next process or team
member is not ready to accept it
Incorrect. This choice describes "no early work transfers", which occurs when a team member delays transferring
work to the next team member when tasks are completed earlier than expected.
D When tasks expand to fill the time that has been allocated to complete them
Correct. This choice describes Parkinson's Law, which states that work tends to expand to fill the time allocated to
complete the work.
Reference:
Agile Estimating and Planning, Mike Cohn, 2005, Timeboxing - Parkinson's Law; see also A Guide to the Project
Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s)
197; see also Agile Practice Guide, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 12
PMI-ACP Exam 1
An agile practitioner recommends that the initial development effort of a new electronic device concentrate solely on
features absolutely necessary for the successful deployment of the product. He also suggests exposing an early release
of the product to a subset of the target users, stressing how collecting relevant product data would help determine if the
company should move forward with full-blown development. What is the best course of action for the project team to
create?
A Build a wireframe
B Create the minimum viable product
C Develop a prototype
D Utilize an agile model
Hint:
The team should create a functional product.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The agile practitioner is suggesting that the project team create a minimum viable product or MVP. The MVP is a
powerful concept that allows organizations to test their ideas. The initial development effort for an MVP concentrates
solely on those features absolutely necessary for successful deployment of the product. Once this initial product is
developed, it is exposed to a subset of the target users to collect relevant data about the product to determine if it is
'viable' and if the company should move forward with the full-blown development of the product. It allows the company to
test an idea by exposing an early version of their product to the target users, collect relevant data, and learn from it.
Because lack of knowledge, uncertainty, and risk are closely related, the MVP can be viewed as a risk reduction tool.
A Build a wireframe
Incorrect. A wireframe typically depicts individual screens of the system to be built, and the flow between the
screens. A wireframe is not an early release of the product targeted to a subset of the end users.
B Create the minimum viable product
Correct. A minimal viable product is the result of an initial development effort that concentrates solely on those
features absolutely necessary for successful deployment of an early version of a product.
C Develop a prototype
Incorrect. A prototype is an original type, form, or instance of a product to explore the basic size, look and feel of a
product without simulating the detailed functionality of the product. Prototypes are not released to the end users
but instead are used internally by the performing organization for the further research and development.
D Utilize an agile model

Incorrect. Often, an agile model is a simple sketch on a whiteboard used by the agile team to discuss the product
being developed.
Reference:
Agile Practice Guide, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 23; see also PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Premier
Edition: A Course in a Book for Passing the PMI Agile Certified Practitioner (PMI-ACP)® Exam, Mike Griffiths, 2012,
Minimal Viable Product (MVP)
PMI-ACP Exam 1
One of the developers is explaining to the team why she believes the way in which the team currently identifies and
corrects code errors is not working well. She also indicates that she has a suggestion for a better way to do this. Which
of the following agile meetings is being attended in this situation?
A Iteration planning meeting
B Daily standup meeting
C Iteration review meeting
D Iteration retrospective meeting
Hint:
Analyze who is attending this meeting and what is being discussed during this meeting.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
This question is describing the iteration retrospective meeting. One indication is that the meeting is only being attended
by agile project team members. Retrospectives are typically closed to include only team members in order to encourage
candid discussion and openness. Some team members may be intimidated by the presence of outsiders and may not
contribute as readily. The discussion of something specific that did not go well during the iteration and a possible solution
is a classic retrospective topic.
A Iteration planning meeting

Incorrect. The purpose of the iteration planning meeting is for the development team to commit to the completion of
a set of those items in the product backlog that are highest-ranked in terms of customer value and risk.
B Daily standup meeting

Incorrect. When thinking about the daily standup meeting, remember the term 'synchronize'. This meeting is used
to synchronize the activities of an agile team to ensure they are all working toward a common iteration goal.
C Iteration review meeting
Incorrect. The iteration review meeting is a product-oriented meeting held at the end of the iteration to demonstrate
product components completed within that iteration.
D Iteration retrospective meeting

Correct. The iteration retrospective is a process-oriented agile project team meeting that is held at the end of each
iteration. The purpose of the iteration retrospective is to reflect on the most significant events that have occurred
during the current iteration in order to make decisions on how to improve processes for future iterations.
Reference:
Agile Practice Guide, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 50-51; see also Agile Retrospectives: Making
Good Teams Great, Esther Derby, Diana Larsen, 2006, Iteration Retrospective Meeting
PMI-ACP Exam 1
An experienced software developer is working with a less experienced developer in a pair programming setup. What
should the more experienced developer say to the less experienced developer to best explain continuous integration?
A The code is reviewed, line by line, by the more experienced partner in a pair programming setup and rewritten
prior to being entered into the control system.
B The code is compiled in the control system at the end of the iteration, where it undergoes quality testing by
the quality assurance team prior to the next iteration.
C Small batches of the code are checked in, a build is initiated by the control system, automated tests are run,
and the developer is notified electronically of any errors.
D The code is compiled in the control system at the end of a release and then tested just before the release
date approaches at the 'last responsible moment'.
Hint:
All of the answer choice situations are 'continuous' but which one describes the most effective timing of 'integration'?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Continuous integration is one of the core practices of the eXtreme Programming (XP) agile product development method,
where XP teams integrate at least daily. After a developer completes a small change to the code, they check the
changed code into the control system, where a process notices the change and initiates a full build. When the build is
complete, a suite of automated tests is run. If any of the tests fail, the developer is notified about the failure, so they can
take the appropriate action. One of the benefits of continuous integration is that integration problems are fixed one at a
time in extremely small batches, as soon as they occur.
A The code is reviewed, line by line, by the more experienced partner in a pair programming setup and rewritten
prior to being entered into the control system.
Incorrect. Pair programming is a core principle of Extreme Programming (XP) but is not considered part of the
continuous integration process.
B The code is compiled in the control system at the end of the iteration, where it undergoes quality testing by the
quality assurance team prior to the next iteration.
Incorrect. Under continuous integration, one would not wait until the end of an iteration to compile and test the
code.
C Small batches of the code are checked in, a build is initiated by the control system, automated tests are run,
and the developer is notified electronically of any errors.
Correct. This choice has the correct explanation of continuous integration.
D The code is compiled in the control system at the end of a release and then tested just before the release date
approaches at the 'last responsible moment'.
Incorrect. Under continuous integration, one should not wait until the end of a release to compile and test the code.
Reference:
Agile Practice Guide, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 56, 102; see also User Stories Applied: For Agile
Software Development, Mike Cohn, 2004, XP - Core Practices - Continuous Integration; see also The Agile PrepCast,
Agile Organic Product Quality Concepts,
PMI-ACP Exam 1
Agile makes available an extensive set of key performance indicators (KPIs) to help effectively communicate the
performance of agile projects. Which of the following is an example of an agile key performance indicator?
A Number of defects detected per cycle
B Practical debt accumulated
C Number of change requests submitted per cycle
D End-user opinions on project deliverables
Hint:
Which of the available choices is measurable?
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
A key performance indicator (KPI) is a way to measure the performance of a project or team over time. A KPI is a metric,
and therefore it must be objective and quantifiable. Examples of agile KPIs include the number of defects detected per
cycle, the amount of technical debt, and the number of story points completed per cycle, etc. Of the available choices,
only the number of defects detected per cycle is a KPI that is used on agile projects.
A Number of defects detected per cycle

Correct. Defects per cycle is a common agile KPI and therefore is the correct answer. Defects per cycle show the
number of defects logged per release cycle, broken down by defect type (regression, production, post-release).
B Practical debt accumulated

Incorrect. 'Practical debt' is a fake term made up for this question. However, the technical debt accumulated is an
agile KPI.
C Number of change requests submitted per cycle
Incorrect. The number of change requests submitted per cycle is not a KPI used in agile since change requests,
and a change control board are not required when implementing agile best practices. Changes are made to user
stories, or new user stories are created, added, and prioritized in the product backlog.
D End-user opinions on project deliverables

Incorrect. Opinions are subjective and are not considered KPIs without some objective method of measuring the
opinions. For example, customer satisfaction surveys could quantify customer opinions and might be reported as a
net promoter score (NPS), which is a type of KPI.
Reference:
; see also
PMI-ACP Exam 1
As an agile practitioner, you have been asked to prepare a presentation about the place of a command and control
management style in agile project management. How should you respond if your audience asks you to provide insight on
how agile leaders are different from command and control top-down managers?
A Agile leaders demand results within the limits of an iteration, while command and control top-down managers
demand results within the defined scope of the project.
B Command and control top-down managers facilitate collaboration between team members, while agile
leaders dictate work based on the needs of the backlog.
C Agile leaders influence their teams and facilitate the work to help set direction and provide guidance, while
command and control top-down managers tend to dictate the work and demand results.
D Command and control top-down managers dictate and facilitate collaboration, while agile leaders set direction
and provide guidance based on the needs of the backlog.
Hint:
Agile leaders are 'encouragers', valuing people and interactions over processes and tools.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
An important agile concept to consider here is that of a leadership-collaboration management style, also referred to as
servant leadership. This agile leadership style differs from the command and control top-down management style often
seen on traditional projects. Commanders know the objective while leaders grasp the direction. Commanders dictate
while leaders influence. Controllers demand while collaborators facilitate. Controllers micro-manage while collaborators
encourage. Managers who embrace the leadership-collaboration model understand their primary responsibilities are to
set direction, to provide guidance, and to facilitate connecting people and teams. In general, agile leaders influence,
facilitate, set direction, and provide guidance. Command and control top-down managers tend to dictate, demand, and
micro-manage to keep team members on task.

A Agile leaders demand results within the limits of an iteration, while command and control top-down managers
demand results within the defined scope of the project.
Incorrect. Agile leaders encourage rather than demand results within the limits of an iteration, while command and
control, top-down managers demand results within the defined scope of the project.
B Command and control top-down managers facilitate collaboration between team members, while agile leaders
dictate work based on the needs of the backlog.
Incorrect. Command and control top-down managers typically dictate and force rather than facilitate collaboration
between team members, while agile leaders facilitate work based on the needs of the backlog.
C Agile leaders influence their teams and facilitate the work to help set direction and provide guidance, while
command and control top-down managers tend to dictate the work and demand results.
Correct. Agile leaders typically influence and facilitate their teams, while command and control top-down managers
tend to dictate the work and demand results.
D Command and control top-down managers dictate and facilitate collaboration, while agile leaders set direction
and provide guidance based on the needs of the backlog.
Incorrect. Command and control top-down managers dictate and force rather than facilitate collaboration, while
agile leaders set direction and provide guidance based on the needs of the backlog.
Reference:
Creating Innovative Products - 2nd Edition, Jim Highsmith, 2009, Leadership - Command and Control; see also The
Agile PrepCast, Scrum,
PMI-ACP Exam 1
The product owner needs to consider multiple factors when adding items to the product backlog. How should this be
done?
A Consider factors such as new features, risks, and defects
B Build the backlog from the work breakdown structure (WBS)
C Consult with the sponsor on how to add items to the backlog
D Let the team decide on what should be added to the backlog
Hint:
Think of how to continue to add value and reduce risk and defects
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
When including items into the product backlog, the product owner should consider different factors, such as new
features, risks associated with these features, risks associated with other technical aspects, defects from previous
releases or iterations, value to the customer, etc. Defects are treated as product backlog items. Rather than creating a
separate backlog for defects, defects can be included in the product backlog. Mike Cohn states that the "ideal situation is
to put the bugs right onto the product backlog." Maintaining two separate backlogs is an ineffective way and may lead to
waste which goes against agile best practices. Risks associated with the development of the new features or with any
other technical aspects related to the design or the architecture of the new system should be treated as backlog items as
well because they may result in risk-based or architectural spikes that should be estimated and executed by the
development team.
A Consider factors such as new features, risks, and defects

Correct. New features, risks associated with these new features or other technical risks, defects to be fixed, are
among the different factors that the product owner has to consider when adding items to the product backlog.
B Build the backlog from the work breakdown structure (WBS)
Incorrect. The work breakdown structure (WBS) is a hierarchical decomposition of the total scope of work to be
carried out by the project team to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables. The WBS
is typically used in traditionally managed projects.
C Consult with the sponsor on how to add items to the backlog

Incorrect. The product owner is ultimately responsible for the content and the prioritization of the product backlog.
Sponsors are typically not involved in creating the product backlog.
D Let the team decide on what should be added to the backlog

Incorrect. The product owner works in the cooperation with the team to create the product backlog. However, it's
the product owner's, not the team members', ultimate responsibility to define what items should be included in the
product backlog and how should they be prioritized.
Reference:
Fundamentals, 2nd Edition, Dan Rawsthorne with Doug Shimp, 2013, Prioritization Factors
PMI-ACP Exam 1
An agile project manager is trying to get buy-in from his company's senior management team to use an agile approach
for some upcoming projects. He wants to use the MoSCoW prioritization scheme as an example of an agile tool to
illustrate to senior management how customers can easily prioritize which features should be included in each release of
the product being developed. What does MoSCoW stand for in terms of its relationship as a prioritization scheme based
on customer value?
A Must have features, seldom used features, commonly used features, wanted features
B Must have features, simple features, common features, won't have features
C Most features, some features, common features, work in progress features
D Must have features, should have features, could have features, won't have features
Hint:
The MoSCoW prioritization scheme starts with the features that the customer values most.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The Dynamic Systems Development Method (DSDM) includes a prioritization technique referred to as the MoSCoW
rules, which is used in many agile methods. This technique is used to determine what features to include in each release
and is based on the highest customer value. MoSCoW is an acronym for ‘must have, should have, could have, and won’t
have at this time’. The 'must have' features are those that are fundamental to the system. The 'Should have' features are
important, but there’s a short-term workaround for them. If the project has no time constraints, the should-have features
would normally be considered mandatory. 'Could-have' features are features that can be left out of the release if time
runs out. 'Won’t have at this time' features are features that are desired but acknowledged as needing to come in a later
release.
A Must have features, seldom used features, commonly used features, wanted features
Incorrect. Must have features is a component of the MoSCoW prioritization technique. However, the remaining
elements are not used in MoSCoW.
B Must have features, simple features, common features, won't have features
Incorrect. Simple and common features are not aspects of the MoSCoW prioritization technique.
C Most features, some features, common features, work in progress features

Incorrect. This answer choice does not represent any of the components of the MoSCoW prioritization technique.
D Must have features, should have features, could have features, won't have features
Correct. MoSCoW is an acronym for ‘must have, should have, could have, and won’t have at this time’.
Reference:
Agile Practice Guide, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 110; see also User Stories Applied: For Agile
Software Development, Mike Cohn, 2004, Customer Valued Prioritization - MoSCoW Rules; see also The Agile
PrepCast, DSDM Atern,
PMI-ACP Exam 1
Which of the following is most likely going to help foster collaboration between the customer and the team on an agile
project?
A Negotiating with the customer to formulate comprehensive project agreements
B Building projects around motivated individuals and trusting them to get the job done
C Ensuring that the customer and the team can maintain a constant pace indefinitely
D Welcoming changing customer requirements, even late in product development
Hint:
This question links two of the Agile Manifesto values with one of the Agile Manifesto principles.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The question and the correct answer link two of the Agile Manifesto values with one of the Agile Manifesto principles.
Welcoming changing requirements, even late in development is one of the Agile Manifesto principles. Valuing customer
collaboration and responding to change are among the Agile Manifesto values. Without collaboration with the customer, it
is unlikely that changes will be welcomed. Conversely, by welcoming changing requirements, even late in development,
agile teams foster collaboration among the project stakeholders.
A Negotiating with the customer to formulate comprehensive project agreements

Incorrect. Customer collaboration over contract negotiation is one of the Agile Manifesto values. This choice
describes the opposite of the value and, therefore, is not the best answer to the question asked.
B Building projects around motivated individuals and trusting them to get the job done
Incorrect. Building project around motivated individuals and trusting them to get the job done does not necessarily
foster collaboration between project stakeholders and the team. Motivated individuals who are trusted may get the
job done by working in isolation or in a silo.
C Ensuring that the customer and the team can maintain a constant pace indefinitely
Incorrect. Maintaining a constant pace indefinitely has little or nothing to do with collaboration. Maintaining a
constant pace indefinitely is intended to help individuals involved in the project maintain their work-life balance.
D Welcoming changing customer requirements, even late in product development

Correct. Welcoming changing customer requirements, even late in the development of the product fosters (and
requires) collaboration between the project team and the customer. Therefore, this option is the best among the
answer choices given.
Reference:
Agile Practice Guide, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 8-9; see also Coaching Agile Teams: A
Companion for ScrumMasters, Agile Coaches, and Project Managers in Transition, Lyssa Adkins, 2010, Collaboration -
Green Zone/Red Zone
PMI-ACP Exam 1
The sponsor has informed the agile project leader that the project will have a new influential stakeholder that is not
familiar with agile. What should the project leader do first in this situation?
A Determine the type or classification of stakeholder
B Discuss the new stakeholder with the team
C Schedule a meeting with the new project stakeholder
D Invite the stakeholder by email to the next sprint retrospective to meet the team
Hint:
What is the most important thing to do when learning about a new project stakeholder, especially one not familiar with
agile?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The agile leader’s job is to promote agile practices within the team and throughout the organization. Since the
stakeholder is new and not familiar with agile, the best thing to do is to schedule a meeting with the stakeholder to
welcome them to the team and educate them about agile practices and the stakeholder’s role within the project. Agile
methods rely heavily on stakeholder collaboration, particularly attending iteration reviews. It is the project leader’s job to
ensure the stakeholders are kept engaged. When it is possible and practical, an initial face-to-face meeting with all new
stakeholders is an agile best practice.
A Determine the type or classification of stakeholder

Incorrect. Although determining the type or classification of a stakeholder is important to know for any type of
project, agile or traditional, this step is not the first priority when learning about a new stakeholder, especially in this
case of an influential stakeholder who is not familiar with agile practices.
B Discuss the new stakeholder with the team

Incorrect. The agile project leader and product owner will have the greatest direct interaction with stakeholders to
orient, inform, and maintain the stakeholder's engagement throughout the project. Although there is nothing wrong
with mentioning that a new stakeholder is joining the project, it is not the first thing the agile project leader would do
upon being informed of the new stakeholder.
C Schedule a meeting with the new project stakeholder

Correct. The agile leader’s job is to promote agile practices within the team and throughout the organization. Since
this new stakeholder is not familiar with agile, the best thing to do is to schedule a meeting with the stakeholder to
discuss agile practices and the stakeholder’s role within the project, particularly in attending iteration reviews.
D Invite the stakeholder by email to the next sprint retrospective to meet the team
Incorrect. According to The Scrum Guide™, the sprint retrospective is an opportunity for the scrum team to inspect
itself and create a plan for improvements to be enacted during the next sprint. It is not appropriate to invite
stakeholders to this meeting. In addition, agile promotes face-to-face interactions rather than email.
Reference:
Agile Practice Guide, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 36-37, 95; see also PMI-ACP® Examination
Content Outline, Domain III, Stakeholder Engagement, Task 5; see also PMI-ACP Exam Prep, 2nd Edition: A Course in a
Book for Passing the PMI Agile Certified Practitioner (PMI-ACP) Exam, Mike Griffiths, 2012, Stakeholder Engagement
PMI-ACP Exam 1
A business sponsor for a web application upgrade project is in negotiations with a potential contractor. The sponsor has
worked with the contractor in the past, and there is a great amount of trust between them. Past projects were based on
stable requirements, but this contract has very volatile requirements subject to change on a weekly basis. What type of
contract would be best for both parties to enter into in this situation?
A Fixed-price, fixed scope
B Fixed-price per story point
C Not-to-exceed with fixed-fee
D Fixed fee with economic adjustments
Hint:
Which of the choices will allow for the changing nature of the scope?
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
A fixed price per function point or story point contract is used when the scope of the work is likely to change which
prevents fixed price contracts from being used. In this type of contract, the customer and vendor agree on a specific price
to be paid for each story point delivered. Thus, regardless of the changes in scope, a fair and contracted fee can be
determined and paid to the vendor.
A Fixed-price, fixed scope

Incorrect. Fixed-price, fixed-scope contracts make sense when the requirements are very stable and when the two
parties don't necessarily trust each other.
B Fixed-price per story point

Correct. Fixed-price per function point or story point contracts are used when the customer and contracted
company can agree on a unit of delivery, such as function points or story points and a cost for each story point.
This type of contract would be ideal for this situation as the client pays the vendor for only those story points
delivered.
C Not-to-exceed with fixed-fee

Incorrect. Not-to-exceed with fixed-fee contracts presuppose stable requirements. 'Not to exceed' means that a
ceiling is imposed on the total amount paid to the contracted company, which protects the sponsor in case the work
goes slower than expected. 'Fixed fee' means that the contracted company is guaranteed a certain profit margin
over their materials and subcontractors’ fees. This fee protects the contracted company in case requirements are
reduced, or if the work goes faster than estimated.
D Fixed fee with economic adjustments

Incorrect. A fixed fee contract is not ideal for a project where the scope is variable and likely to change. There is
nothing in the question that suggests the project will be completed over an extended period of time where
adjustments for the costs of materials is likely to change.
Reference:
Cooperative Game (2nd Edition), Alistair Cockburn, 2007, Agile Contract Types - Time and Materials
PMI-ACP Exam 1
A project to build a software application is being managed using a lean framework for software development. An agile
practitioner creates a value stream map to analyze the process and see how to reduce the time between when a user
story is submitted to the team as a requirement from the customer and when it is deployed at the customer production
environment as a product increment and starts delivering value. Which of the following is the agile practitioner trying to
minimize or reduce?
A Waste
B Cycle time
C Work in progress
D Lead time
Hint:
It is the time it takes for the work item to go through the entire process.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
A value stream mapping technique can be used to identify and eliminate waste in a process as well as to analyze the
whole process for its efficiency. This technique can be useful in determining how long it takes for the work item to go
through the entire process - from when the item is submitted by the customer as a requirement until it is ultimately
delivered to the customer and starts generating value. This time is called lead time.
A Waste
Incorrect. Although the value stream mapping technique may help in finding the wasteful activities, this was not the
main goal of the agile practitioner in this situation.
B Cycle time
Incorrect. Cycle time refers to the time it takes for the work item to go through part of the process, for example,
development and testing.
C Work in progress
Incorrect. Work in progress (WIP) refers to the number of tasks being worked at the same time. WIP represents
only one step of the overall process and therefore is an incorrect answer.
D Lead time
Correct. Lead time refers to the time when a feature request is made by the customer until the complete feature is
delivered to the customer. It is the time it takes to finish the complete process, from the initial idea to the finished
feature in production when the feature starts delivering value to the customer.
Reference:
Achieving Enterprise Agility, Alan Shalloway, Guy Beaver, James R. Trott, 2010, Value Stream Mapping - Value Stream
Map; see also Kanban In Action, Marcus Hammarberg, Joakim Sunden, 2014
PMI-ACP Exam 1
During a strategic planning meeting at the beginning of a new agile project, the attendees create a visual depiction of the
product release and the functionality to be completed and available for each release. Who owns this artifact and works
with others to maintain and update it?
A Product owner
B Project sponsor
C Scrum master
D Development team member
Hint:
This role works with the project sponsor and is responsible for creating and maintaining the product roadmap.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The product roadmap is a visual depiction of the product releases and includes the functionality to be completed and
available for each release. The product owner creates the roadmap in consultation with the project stakeholders and the
project sponsor during the early planning stages of the project. The product owner is ultimately responsible for the project
road map. As the project is executed, the product owner continues to work with project stakeholders and the sponsor to
maintain and update the product roadmap to reflect the current state of the project.
A Product owner
Correct. The product owner works with the project sponsor and stakeholders to determine and prioritize the
product features to be delivered in each release and sets the product release dates. The result of this interaction is
a product roadmap, which is the artifact referred to in this question.
B Project sponsor
Incorrect. Although the project sponsor along with other stakeholders works with the product owner to create and
provide input to the product roadmap, the project sponsor does not own or update it.
C Scrum master
Incorrect. The scrum master is the person responsible for ensuring that scrum values and practices are used to
execute the project, protects the scrum team members from outside distractions, and removes impediments to
progress so that everyone on the development team can remain productive. The scrum master is not directly
involved with or required to manage and maintain the product roadmap.
D Development team member

Incorrect. The development team is responsible for estimating, coordinating and executing the work required to
produce product features that satisfy user stories. The team determines the definition of done, makes technical
decisions about how the work will be done and they are involved in iteration planning. However, the development
team does not own the product roadmap or work directly with project stakeholders and the project sponsor to
create or maintain it.
Reference:
Creating Innovative Products - 2nd Edition, Jim Highsmith, 2009, Product Roadmap
PMI-ACP Exam 1
An agile project to build a new company website is being implemented using a lean product development approach. The
project manager has delegated some of the duties to the team lead as well as encouraged the team members to make
local decisions. This is an example of which of the following lean core concepts?
A Eliminating waste
B Delivering fast
C Empowering the team
D Visualizing the workflow
Hint:
What should agile leaders do to show the team that the team members' knowledge and ability to perform their work is
respected? How can agile leaders help the team to be productive and successful?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
According to lean product development best practices, agile leaders delegate tasks to the team to avoid both
micromanagement and abdication. This concept is known as empowering the team, which is a fundamental aspect of
servant leadership. Lean thinking includes the ability to delegate work while still retaining responsibility for the outcomes,
which can be accomplished using visual controls, where a manager can see the team’s process, see how the team is
doing at any time, and see the team’s outcomes. If the team gets into trouble, the manager can actively coach them to
improve their results without telling them specifically what to do.
A Eliminating waste
Incorrect. Eliminating waste in lean refers to reducing work in progress, decreasing partially done work, eliminating
delays, and focusing on building the right features. Delegating work to the team and encouraging them to make
local decisions is what is known in the lean framework as empowering the team.
B Delivering fast
Incorrect. To deliver fast, agile teams build small product increments in quick and short iterations. While delegating
work to the team and allowing them to make local decisions may speed up the delivery process, deliver fast is not
the best answer to the question asked.
C Empowering the team

Correct. Lean product development provides a model in which managers can avoid both micromanagement and
abdication through the use of delegation. This concept is known as empowering the team, which is a fundamental
aspect of servant leadership.
D Visualizing the workflow

Incorrect. Visualizing the workflow is typically accomplished through the use of a Kanban board. A Kanban board
helps the team to improve its effectiveness by visualizing the flow of work, making impediments easily visible, and
allowing flow to be managed by adjusting work in progress limits. Another answer choice provides a better
representation of the concept described by the question.
Reference:
Agile Practice Guide, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 33-34; see also Lean-Agile Software
Development: Achieving Enterprise Agility, Alan Shalloway, Guy Beaver, James R. Trott, 2010, Lean Software
Development - Roles - Manager; see also The Agile PrepCast, Lean Software Development: History & Principles,
PMI-ACP Exam 1
An experienced agile team coach mentors other agile team coaches in his organization. In the area of problem detection
and resolution, the agile coach discourages the mentees from engaging in which of the following when they coach their
project teams?
A Detecting problems, assessing problems, and choosing solutions
B Reviewing the overall quality of the work performed by the team
C Conducting surveys to assess team dynamics
D Performing health checks to see how well the team is implementing agile processes
Hint:
Remember the roles and responsibilities of an agile coach.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
An agile coach can use their facilitation skills to review the quality of the work performed by the team, conduct surveys to
assess team dynamics, and health checks to see how well the team is implementing agile processes. However, an agile
coach should take problems to the team and should not try to detect, assess, and solve the problems themselves.
A Detecting problems, assessing problems, and choosing solutions

Correct. In keeping with agile best practices, the development team detects, assesses, and solves the problems,
rather than the agile coach.
B Reviewing the overall quality of the work performed by the team

Incorrect. Reviewing the overall quality of the work is an appropriate activity for an agile coach. Additionally, the
agile coach should facilitate regular retrospectives to guide the team in improving performance.
C Conducting surveys to assess team dynamics
Incorrect. Assessing the team dynamics is within the scope of responsibility for an agile coach. When issues
regarding team dynamics arise, the agile coach should guide the team in resolving any issues.
D Performing health checks to see how well the team is implementing agile processes
Incorrect. While the development team is responsible for creating the project deliverables, the agile coach, as a
servant leader, is responsible for the ensuring the proper implementation of agile processes.
Reference:
Companion for ScrumMasters, Agile Coaches, and Project Managers in Transition, Lyssa Adkins, 2010, Role of Agile
Coach in Problem Solving
PMI-ACP Exam 1
An agile team is using a Kanban board to track their work. The team members meet to analyze the board and discuss
their progress. They realize that the rate in which the team delivers features is too slow due to a lot of work in progress
(WIP) in one of the board's columns. Which of the following columns should the team address to improve the delivery
rate?
A User stories that are waiting for the team members to test
B User stories pending prioritization by the product owner
C User stories waiting for the team to be pulled into development
D User stories pending deployment by the customer
Hint:
Work in process refers to all the work that is going on right now.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Work in process (WIP) refers to all the work that is being performed by the team, and which is not yet completed. WIP
includes user stories being actively worked on right now, work items waiting to be integrated, tested, and accepted, and
all the unfinished tasks that need to be done to deliver value to the end customer. The items that are in the to-do column
of a Kanban board or the items that have not moved from the product backlog to the rest of the process, or items that are
pending for the customer are not considered WIP. Therefore, of the choices provided, addressing the user stories that
are waiting for the team members to test is what would help the team improve their feature delivery rate and is, therefore,
the best answer to the question asked.
A User stories that are waiting for the team members to test
Correct. User stories that have been developed and are waiting for the team to be tested are considered WIP. A
user story awaiting testing implies that work has begun on the story but has yet to be completed. In other words,
the user story cannot be considered done.
B User stories pending prioritization by the product owner

Incorrect. User stories that have yet to be prioritized are not considered WIP. User stories must first be prioritized
before they can be selected for development by the team. The prioritization is done by the product owner in
collaboration with the team.
C User stories waiting for the team to be pulled into development

Incorrect. User stories must first be selected for development before being moved into WIP status. Before a user
story is selected, it resides in the backlog and is not considered WIP.
D User stories pending deployment by the customer

Incorrect. If a user story is pending for the customer to be deployed, then it can be implied that the user story has
been developed, tested, and meets the definition of done. In other words, the work that the team had to do on this
user story has been completed. Therefore, this work is no longer in progress.
Reference:
Agile Practice Guide, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 25, 66, 70, 103-105; see also Kanban In Action,
Marcus Hammarberg, Joakim Sunden, 2014, Work in Process - Delays
PMI-ACP Exam 1
A newly appointed program manager, who came from an organization where traditional project management practices
were used to track the actual project performance against its planned baselines, requested regular updates on the
overall progress of a high priority agile project. The program manager cannot spend more than five minutes per week on
project updates and does not intend to micromanage the project team's work. Assuming that the project is executed
using weekly sprints, what is the most appropriate response to the program manager's request?
A Invite the program manager to attend the iteration review meeting
B Have the program manager view the release burndown chart
C Have the program manager view the iteration burndown chart
D Have the program manager view the release burnup chart
Hint:
What is the most informative method of communication and the proper format of this communication for the program
manager who came from the organization that used traditional project management practices?
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
This is a difficult question because there are two very close 'correct' answers. When faced with more than one correct
answer, it is important to always choose the ‘best’ answer. A release burndown chart is a tool that an agile project team
can use to track the project’s progress against a release plan. It is updated at the end of each sprint and displays the
work remaining to complete the release. This is an acceptable fulfillment of the program manager's request. However,
the question states that the program manager came from the organization where traditional project management
practices were used to track the actual project performance against its planned baselines (scope, cost, and schedule).
Using the release burnup chart with an additional plot of scope baseline and scope changes introduced over the course
of the project, will allow the program manager to understand the overall project performance in terms of work completed
against the original scope and the scope changes that have occurred during the release development.

A Invite the program manager to attend the iteration review meeting
Incorrect. Iteration review meetings are aimed to demonstrate the product increment completed during the last
iteration. Iteration review will be less helpful for the program manager to understand the overall project progress.
B Have the program manager view the release burndown chart

Incorrect. Although having the program manager view the release burndown chart in the scrum team's common
space is an acceptable fulfillment of the program manager's request, this information radiator is not the best format
for the program manager because it lacks the information regarding the scope changes. Scope changes can be
reflected in the release burndown chart as well, but their visual representation is less clear than it is on the burnup
chart.
C Have the program manager view the iteration burndown chart

Incorrect. The iteration burndown chart contains information about the current sprint only. Not only would it lack the
information regarding the overall project status, but it would also have too many details. The program manager
made it clear that they did not want to micromanage the progress of the team.
D Have the program manager view the release burnup chart

Correct. The release burnup chart has the same information displayed as the release burndown chart. However,
instead of displaying work remaining, it displays work completed. The big advantage of the burnup charts vs
burndown charts is that they can clearly show changes in scope.
Reference:
Agile Practice Guide, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 61-64; see also , Release Burnup Chart; see also
PMI-ACP® Exam Prep, Second Edition, Mike Griffiths, Burnup Charts
PMI-ACP Exam 1
A product owner hosts a panel at a video game convention to determine which features to include in a new product being
developed. The product owner invites subject matter experts, such as a select group of industry writers and video game
loyalists to offer input on what to include in the final build. As their prioritization scheme, the product owner decides to
use the requirements prioritization model to obtain the necessary feedback for this planning activity. Which of the
following best describes the characteristics of the requirements prioritization model used in this scenario?
A Creating a visual graphic illustrating how customer needs relate to customer satisfaction, with the features
noted as exciters, satisfiers, dissatisfiers, or indifferent
B Distributing fake money equal to the amount of the project budget and having participants distribute these
funds amongst the features
C Rating the benefit, penalty, cost, and risk associated with each feature and using a weighted formula to
prioritize the various features
D Providing a total of 100 points to each participant and having them assign these points to the features with the
highest value
Hint:
The requirement prioritization model relies on expert judgment rather than on using questionnaires. Which choice would
most likely use expert judgment?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The requirements prioritization model is a prioritization scheme recommended by Karl Wiegers that involves rating the
benefit, penalty, cost, and risk associated with each of the features on a scale of 1 (lowest) to 9 (highest). Customers rate
the benefit of having the feature and the penalty for not having the feature. Developers rate the cost of producing the
feature and the risk associated with producing the feature. The number ratings assigned to each feature are then entered
into a weighted formula in order to determine the relative priority of each feature.
One can argue that Kano analysis can also be used in this case. While it's true that both models (Kano analysis and the
requirements prioritization model) are similar in that they consider both the positive benefit of the presence of a feature
and the negative impact of its absence, the requirement prioritization model relies on expert judgment rather than on
using questionnaires. Questionnaires are used in Kano analysis/model, but the question explicitly states that the product
owner “invites subject matter experts.”
A Creating a visual graphic illustrating how customer needs relate to customer satisfaction, with the features
noted as exciters, satisfiers, dissatisfiers, or indifferent
Incorrect. This choice describes the Kano analysis technique and not the requirements prioritization model. Kano
analysis is a prioritization scheme that involves the creation of a visual graphic illustrating how customer needs
relate to customer satisfaction, with features noted as exciters, satisfiers, dissatisfiers, or indifferent. This method is
mainly based on questionnaires rather than on expert judgment.
B Distributing fake money equal to the amount of the project budget and having participants distribute these funds
amongst the features
Incorrect. This choice describes a prioritization schedule known as monopoly money and not the requirements
prioritization model. Monopoly money (also referred to as ‘buy a feature’) is a prioritization scheme that involves
the distribution of fake money equal to the amount of the project budget and having participants distribute these
funds among the various features.
C Rating the benefit, penalty, cost, and risk associated with each feature and using a weighted formula to
prioritize the various features
Correct. The requirements prioritization model is a prioritization scheme that involves rating the benefit, penalty,
cost, and risk associated with each of the features and using a weighted formula to prioritize these features. This
method relies on expert judgment rather than on using questionnaires.
D Providing a total of 100 points to each participant and having them assign these points to the features with the
highest value
Incorrect. This choice describes the 100-point method and not the requirements prioritization model. The 100-point
method is a prioritization scheme that involves providing a total of 100 points to each participant and having them
assign these points to the features with the highest value.
Reference:
Mike Cohn, 2005, Relative Weighting
PMI-ACP Exam 1
An experienced software developer is respected not only for his wealth of agile experience but also for achieving
excellence in the quality of deliverables. One of the secrets to his and his teams' agile capability is the use of ruthless
testing. Which of the following is a valid statement concerning ruthless testing?
A Ruthless testing ensures that quality is added on rather than built into the development process
B Ruthless testing is used to ensure that product quality remains high throughout the development process
C The closer a team comes to running tested features every iteration, the less effective it will be
D Ruthless testing contributes to creating adaptable products because finding faults later in the project reduces
the cost of change
Hint:
How does ruthless testing affect quality?
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Experience has shown that the most significant difference between mature and immature agile teams lies in their
commitment to ruthless testing. The objective of ruthless testing is to ensure that product quality remains high throughout
the development process. The closer a team comes to running tested features (RTF) every iteration, the more effective it
will be. Higher-performance agile teams are those that embrace ruthless testing. While a growing number of software
developers use test-first development, ruthless testing is a better generic term that is widely applicable to all types of
products.
A Ruthless testing ensures that quality is added on rather than built into the development process
Incorrect. The opposite is true in this case. Ruthless testing ensures that quality is built into the development
process rather than added on to it.
B Ruthless testing is used to ensure that product quality remains high throughout the development process
Correct. The main objective of ruthless testing is to ensure that product quality remains high throughout the
development process.
C The closer a team comes to running tested features every iteration, the less effective it will be
Incorrect. The closer a team comes to running tested features (RTF) every iteration, the more effective it will be.
Higher-performance agile teams are those that embrace ruthless testing.
D Ruthless testing contributes to creating adaptable products because finding faults later in the project reduces
the cost of change
Incorrect. Ruthless testing contributes to the goal of creating adaptable products because finding faults early,
rather than later, when there is still time to correct them, reduces the cost of change.
Reference:
Innovative Products - 2nd Edition, Jim Highsmith, 2009, Agile Capability Maturity
PMI-ACP Exam 1
One of the reasons a company insists on the development team being located in the same physical work environment is
that information is often shared by the team members without conscious thought. What is this type of information sharing
called?
A Face-to-face communication
B Proximal communication
C Osmotic communication
D Virtual communication
Hint:
Colocation is a prerequisite for this type of communication to be most effective.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
While writing, reading, typing, or talking, we pick up traces of the ongoing sounds around us using a background listening
mode, even though we are not consciously paying attention. This type of communication is known as osmotic
communication and is a strategy that dictates that people who need to communicate frequently should sit in a
configuration such that they can overhear each other in their unconscious background hearing. The project team can
learn who knows what and which issues are current. This type of communication enables the project team to respond
quickly to the information that flows around them. Colocation is a necessary prerequisite for effective osmotic
communication.
A Face-to-face communication
Incorrect. Although face-to-face communication is the most preferred type of communication and goes hand-in-
hand with colocation, this situation is specifically describing osmotic communication.
B Proximal communication
Incorrect. 'Proximal communication' is not a term associated with agile project management.
C Osmotic communication
Correct. Osmotic communication is the unconscious gathering of information without directly paying attention to it.
It is like the process of osmosis, in which one substance seeps from one system, through a separator, into another.
D Virtual communication
Incorrect. Virtual or distributed agile teams experience virtual communication when not all team members are
colocated, or they are not in the same physical team space. Virtual teams attempt to get to as close to face-face
communication as possible through internet tools and other electronic means.
Reference:
Agile Software Development: The Cooperative Game (2nd Edition), Alistair Cockburn, 2007, Osmotic Communication
PMI-ACP Exam 1
An agile team is creating a model of a web application to be developed incrementally using Scrum and XP agile
methodologies. The team members are discussing the model with the project stakeholders to get their feedback and
ensure that the model is balanced between being barely sufficient and meeting customer expectations. Which of the
following modeling techniques is the team using?
A Scrum modeling technique
B XP modeling technique
C Agile modeling technique
D Incremental modeling technique
Hint:
Look for a general rather than a specific term.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Agile modeling technique is a general term referring to the various modeling techniques that are commonly used on agile
projects. The main value of agile models lies in the process used to create the model and the discussion with the
stakeholders, as opposed to the final product. Thus, it is important to engage stakeholders and get their feedback to
make sure their requirements are met. At the same time, over-engineering should be avoided so the model will be ‘barely
good enough.’
A Scrum modeling technique

Incorrect. Scrum is an agile methodology and not a modeling technique.
B XP modeling technique
Incorrect. XP is an agile methodology and not a modeling technique.
C Agile modeling technique
Correct. Agile modeling technique is a general term referring to the various modeling techniques that are
commonly used on agile projects.
D Incremental modeling technique

Incorrect. 'Incremental modeling technique’ is not a term associated with agile project management.
Reference:
Agile Practice Guide, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 58; see also , Agile Modeling; see also Effective
Practices for Extreme Programming and the Unified Process, Scott Ambler, 2002; see also PMI-ACP Exam Prep,
Second Edition, 2015, Mike Griffiths; see also The Agile PrepCast, Agile Analysis and Design Concepts,
PMI-ACP Exam 1
An agile development team is currently behind schedule in terms of story points completed thus far, and it looks like they
will not be able to meet their expected velocity by the end of the iteration. The reason the team is behind schedule is that
one of the user stories in the iteration backlog is taking longer to complete than originally estimated in the iteration
planning meeting. What is the team's best course of action in this situation?
A Continue as normal with the iteration and create a risk-based spike to reduce the risk of not completing the
iteration as planned
B Remove the user story that was not properly estimated initially from the current iteration backlog
C Continue as normal with the iteration and complete as many user stories as possible until the end of the
iteration
D Terminate the iteration and perform work to remove accumulated technical debt
Hint:
The team has other user stories to work on in this iteration.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Understanding that one user story will not be completed as planned in the current iteration should not stop the team from
continuing doing their work on other user stories as planned. The team should make every effort to complete the work
that they committed to and do their best to complete as many user stories as possible until the end of the iteration.
Any user story that cannot be completed should be re-estimated and re-prioritized during the next iteration planning
meeting. Most likely, it would be much easier for the team to re-estimate this user story because they have already
started to work on it, and therefore know much better about the effort required for its completion.
The scenario suggests that the team will not be able to meet their expected velocity by the end of the iteration. The
team's velocity in the current iteration will be a bit lower than expected because they will receive no credit for a partially
completed user story. In the next iteration though, when the team completes the user story, they will then receive credit
for all of the story points associated with this user story, even though some work had been completed prior to the start of
the next iteration.
A Continue as normal with the iteration and create a risk-based spike to reduce the risk of not completing the
iteration as planned
Incorrect. Risk-based spike is a short time-boxed effort to reduce or eliminate an issue or threat to the project
rather than to reduce the risk of not completing the iteration as planned.
B Remove the user story that was not properly estimated initially from the current iteration backlog
Incorrect. This decision should not be made by the team before consulting with the product owner. It may end up
after re-estimating the user story that it is too big to fit in the current iteration or that its priority may change, but this
decision can only be made with the help of the product owner.
C Continue as normal with the iteration and complete as many user stories as possible until the end of the
iteration
Correct. While action should be taken to determine why the user story was not properly estimated, this activity
should not be done in the middle of the iteration, especially when the question explicitly says that the team is
behind schedule. Therefore, the team should continue as planned and do their best to complete as many user
stories as possible until the end of the iteration.
D Terminate the iteration and perform work to remove accumulated technical debt
Incorrect. This answer choice describes an 'abnormal termination' and should only be performed under extreme
circumstances. Running behind schedule in terms of story points does not justify terminating the iteration.
Reference:
Agile Estimating and Planning, Mike Cohn, 2005, Variance Analysis - Failed Iteration
PMI-ACP Exam 1
Which of the following prioritization methods includes the use of delighters and exciters?
A Top-Ten Requirements
B Kano Model
C MoSCoW Rules
D Relative Weighting
Hint:
This prioritization method is based on the satisfaction level the customer will receive based on three different categories.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The Kano Model of Customer Satisfaction was originated by Noriaki Kano, whose approach gives us a way to separate
features into the following three categories:
Threshold features - features that must be present in the product for it to be successful, also often referred to as
must-have features. Improving the performance or amount of a threshold feature will have little impact on customer
satisfaction
Linear features - features for which 'the more, the better' holds true. For example, 'The bigger the hotel room is, the
better'. These are called linear features because customer satisfaction is correlated linearly with the quantity of the
feature. The better one of these features performs (or the more of it there is), the more satisfied the customer will be.
Exciters and delighters - features that provide great satisfaction, often adding a price premium to a product.
However, the lack of an exciter or delighter will not decrease customer satisfaction below neutral.
A Top-Ten Requirements
Incorrect. In the Top-Ten Requirements approach, the stakeholders select their top ten requirements without giving
them a specific priority. This is to avoid the conflict between stakeholders that may arise from the desire to support
specific requirements. However, if stakeholder alignment is low, it is possible that none of the choices for some
stakeholders will appear in the aggregated top priority requirement list.
B Kano Model
Correct. The Kano Model of Customer Satisfaction was originated by Noriaki Kano, whose approach gives us a
way to separate features into the three categories that include 'threshold', 'linear', and 'exciters and delighters'.
C MoSCoW Rules
Incorrect. MoSCoW is a prioritization method originating from the Dynamic Systems Development Method (DSDM)
where features are classified into four groups (Must have/Should have/Could have/Won't have) depending on the
importance of the features from the customer's point of view.
D Relative Weighting
Incorrect. The Relative Weighting technique involves the evaluation of each requirement based on the effect of its
presence and its absence. A scale from 0 to 9 is identified for each requirement, 0 being a low effect and 9 being a
high effect. Stakeholders will give every feature a value for its presence as well as a penalty for its absence and
estimate its implementation cost. The priority is calculated by dividing the total value by the total cost to generate a
prioritization indicator.
Reference:
Agile Estimating and Planning, Mike Cohn, 2005, Customer Valued Prioritization - Kano Analysis; see also PMI-ACP
Exam Prep, Premier Edition: A Course in a Book for Passing the PMI Agile Certified Practitioner (PMI-ACP) Exam, Mike
Griffiths, 2012
PMI-ACP Exam 1
An agile practitioner saw the following diagram, which was created at the beginning of the project. What is wrong with
this diagram?
A The table is missing constraints.
B The columns should be rows and the rows should be columns.
C Each column should only contain one mark.
D The table does not display the relative importance of each dimension.
Hint:
This matrix is used to set project priorities.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The agile practitioner is looking at the tradeoff matrix, which indicates the relative importance of various project
constraints. The tradeoff matrix is a specific section in the project data sheet (PDS). The most common project
constraints are as depicted: scope, schedule, and cost. Each column should only contain one check mark where fixed
dimensions mean that they have the highest priority. The flexible dimension is important but not important enough to
trade off with the fixed dimension. The acceptable dimension means that there is a wider range of acceptable tolerance
and therefore is less important than the flexible dimension.
A The table is missing constraints.

Incorrect. The constraints are listed in the first column of the table.
B The columns should be rows and the rows should be columns.

Incorrect. Transposing the rows and columns does not change the information being presented. Additionally, a
tradeoff matrix typically displays the constraints in the first column of the table.
C Each column should only contain one mark.

Correct. Each column should only contain one check mark where fixed dimensions mean that they have the
highest priority.
D The table does not display the relative importance of each dimension.
Incorrect. Each dimension is of relative importance to each other, where ‘fixed’ is the most important, followed by
‘flexible’, with ‘accept’ being of least importance.
Reference:
Agile Project Management: Creating Innovative Products - 2nd Edition, Jim Highsmith, 2009, Tradeoff Matrix
PMI-ACP Exam 1
An agile practitioner was explaining the differences and similarities between agile and traditional project management
approaches to a senior manager. After the conversation, the practitioner realized that she had misstated one important
point. Which of the following points would that likely be?
A Both agile and traditional methods are value-driven.
B Agile methods are iterative and non-incremental.
C Both traditional and agile methods allow for changes throughout the project.
D Too much planning on agile projects introduces risk.
Hint:
How does agile deliver high-value features to the customer first?
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
One of the answer choices represents a misconception about agile. This misconception is based on agile values and
principles. Agile delivers value iteratively and incrementally and accommodates changes at any point throughout the
project’s life cycle. While planning in traditional project management methods is iterative and is progressively elaborated
throughout the project life cycle, the delivery of value is typically non-incremental. The entire value in traditional projects
is usually delivered at the end of the execution phase, rather than at the end of the iteration as it is done on agile
projects. Therefore, of the choices provided, the point which the agile practitioner had misstated during her conversation
with the senior manager was likely the one that reads, "Agile methods are iterative and non-incremental". In fact, agile
methods are iterative and 'incremental'.
A Both agile and traditional methods are value-driven.

Incorrect. It is a misconception that only agile methods are value-driven. Both agile and traditional methods are
value-driven. However, in agile, values are made very explicit. The team and other project stakeholders are
encouraged to often discuss and re-communicate about values.
B Agile methods are iterative and non-incremental.
Correct. Agile methods are iterative and incremental. Agile delivers in increments to focus on the important
features first and to deliver these features to the customer sooner. Saying that agile methods are 'non-incremental'
is wrong. Therefore, this answer choice represents the point that the practitioner had misstated.
C Both traditional and agile methods allow for changes throughout the project.
Incorrect. It is a misconception that only agile methods allow for change. Both agile and traditional methods allow
changes to be requested and implemented throughout the project's life cycle. It is the perception of the changes,
and their management is what differentiates agile from the traditional project management methods. Agile
welcomes change and is 'lightweight' in their management and implementation, while traditional methods have a
'heavyweight' change management system in place to try to avoid and control for changes.
D Too much planning on agile projects introduces risk.

Incorrect. Doing too much planning on projects using agile methods introduces a risk that these plans may become
obsolete by the time new information is available and/or changes are requested by the project stakeholders. Agile
promotes the approach of having “barely enough” plans for the project to start delivering value.
Reference:
Bridge to Agility, Michele Sliger, Stacia Broderick, 2008, How is Agile Different from a Plan-Driven Approach; see also
The Agile PrepCast, Agile Project Planning Initiation Concepts,
PMI-ACP Exam 1
The new Vice President of Product Development for the company approaches the scrum master and asks her to provide
him with a report that shows the progress of the work remaining on the project at both the sprint level and the release
level. Which of the following would be most appropriate to provide him?
A Burndown chart
B Product roadmap
C Burnup chart
D Project roadmap
Hint:
Two of the answer choices display work progress but only one of these two displays work remaining.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The sprint burndown chart is an information radiator in graph form that represents the team's remaining work in the
sprint. Each day, team members update their tasks in the sprint backlog with the remaining hours for each task. These
daily numbers are summarized and charted on the sprint burndown chart, which plots remaining work over the length of
the sprint. As the team starts to work through their tasks, the idea is that the line will start to 'burn down', which means
that the graph line will begin to follow a downward trend, representing a decreasing amount of work over the course of
the sprint. Burndown charts can also be used to show the work remaining in a release.
A Burndown chart
Correct. The burndown chart is an information radiator in graph form that represents the team's remaining work
and can be reported at the sprint level or release level.
B Product roadmap
Incorrect. The product roadmap describes the incremental nature of how a product will be built and delivered over
time, along with the important factors that drive each individual release. The product roadmap is used for planning
purposes on an agile project rather than for performance monitoring purposes.
C Burnup chart
Incorrect. The burnup chart is the opposite of the sprint burndown chart. The burnup chart is also a visual
representation of the project's progress over time during the sprint, similar to the burndown chart. However, it
accomplishes this by displaying the actual amount of work 'completed' so far on the project, rather than the amount
of work 'remaining'. The concept is that the amount of completed work will ‘burn up' as time goes by. Burnup charts
are normally used to show progress at the release level but can also be used at the sprint level.
D Project roadmap
Incorrect. ‘Project roadmap’ is not a term specific to agile project management.
Reference:
Bridge to Agility, Michele Sliger, Stacia Broderick, 2008, Burndown Chart
PMI-ACP Exam 1
An agile team is setting up a Kanban board with the goal of limiting the amount of work in progress (WIP). Which of the
following should be considered by the team when setting up the queues of the Kanban board?
A Creating larger user stories helps minimize work in progress
B Large amounts of work in progress often result in decreased cycle times
C Multitasking extends the completion date of work and leaves work in progress longer
D Large amounts of work in progress result in shorter wait times for customer feedback
Hint:
Longer task completion time increases the amount of work in progress and lowers productivity.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
This question requires the student to know about Kanban and what practices or factors affect the amount of work in
progress (WIP) that is assigned to the various processes depicted on a Kanban board. It is imperative to understand that
high levels of work in progress lead to lower productivity, longer cycle times which create inefficiencies and backlogs that
reduce productivity. The lower the cycle time, the more work can be processed. Multitasking causes a loss of productivity
as there is a time penalty for the mind to task switch which results in tasks taking longer to complete. Longer task
completion time increases the amount of work in progress and lowers productivity. Therefore, minimizing multitasking is
an important consideration and is the correct answer choice.
A Creating larger user stories helps minimize work in progress

Incorrect. Work in progress is the individual work or tasks that are being worked on within a set of processes.
Having smaller user stories leads to fewer tasks or less work in progress. Having smaller rather than larger user
stories helps minimize work in progress.
B Large amounts of work in progress often result in decreased cycle times

Incorrect. Large amounts of work in progress results in increased and not decreased cycle times. Therefore, this
answer choice can be eliminated.
C Multitasking extends the completion date of work and leaves work in progress longer
Correct. Multitasking causes a loss of productivity as there is a time penalty for the mind to task switch, which
results in tasks taking longer to complete. Longer task completion time increases the amount of work in progress
and lowers productivity. Therefore, minimizing multitasking is an important consideration for the team.
D Large amounts of work in progress result in shorter wait times for customer feedback
Incorrect. The longer the work takes to complete the longer it takes to get customer feedback on completed work.
Agile methods are designed to have shorter WIP intervals, which shorten the time customers have to wait to
influence the product. By contrast, large amounts of work in progress extend the feedback loop, making this an
incorrect answer choice.
Reference:
Agile Estimating and Planning, Mike Cohn, 2005, Work in Process aka Work in Progress; see also Agile Practice Guide,
Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 44-45, 65-66
PMI-ACP Exam 1
An agile practitioner is looking for ways to optimize the process of producing deliverables for the next iterations and
release. Which tool should be considered for this task?
A Story boarding
B Release planning
C Value stream mapping
D Agile modeling
Hint:
Remember that optimizing the process may involve eliminating waste.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Value stream mapping is a lean manufacturing technique that was originally developed by Toyota. The purpose of value
stream mapping is to analyze and improve the flow of materials and information during the development of a product and
make changes as necessary to increase the value of the product delivered to the customer. It is intended to provide the
individual performing the value stream mapping process a better understanding of the system used to create a product
by mapping out the process steps and details. It is usually focused on the entire development environment, as opposed
to just one aspect of it. Value stream mapping helps teams 'see' processes and process interactions. This technique
provides a deeper understanding of where potential roadblocks or constraints exist in a process which allows teams to
optimize workflow and eliminate wasteful practices. The single most important goal of using value stream mapping is to
identify and eliminate waste.
A Story boarding
Incorrect. A story board or a story map is a high-level planning tool that can be used by agile project stakeholders
to map out the project features and their priorities in early planning stages of the project. A story board would not
be particularly helpful in optimizing the process of producing deliverables.
B Release planning
Incorrect. Release planning focuses on determining which set of user stories will be completed in each iteration for
an upcoming release. The main focus of release planning is not the optimization of how deliverables are produced
in a process.
C Value stream mapping

Correct. The primary goal of value stream mapping is the optimization of the flow of information or materials within
a process by eliminating wasteful or unnecessary work.
D Agile modeling
Incorrect. Agile modeling is a collection of values, principles, and practices that an agile project team can use to
sketch out or 'model' a user story or problem as a visual representation. The technique can help fuel a team’s
ability to clarify a user story or problem. Agile models are not about optimizing how deliverables are created.
Reference:
Achieving Enterprise Agility, Alan Shalloway, Guy Beaver, James R. Trott, 2010, Value Stream Mapping

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PMI Agile Certified Practitioner

Question 2 of 120 Question ID: 80253

C Agile project management methods develop a comprehensive set of features.

J Question answered incorrectly

Details for Each Option:

C Agile project management methods develop a comprehensive set of features.

Question 3 of 120 Question ID: 80657

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Question 4 of 120 Question ID: 80065

C Track only average individual velocity to monitor project team performance

J Question answered incorrectly

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C Track only average individual velocity to monitor project team performance

Question 5 of 120 Question ID: 80247

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Question 6 of 120 Question ID: 80025

J Question answered incorrectly

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Question 7 of 120 Question ID: 80472

A Prioritize functional features ahead of non-functional features

B Emphasize security and reliability over scalability

C Design the system to accommodate one million users

D Devote more time to non-functional requirements

J Question answered incorrectly

Details for Each Option:

A Prioritize functional features ahead of non-functional features

B Emphasize security and reliability over scalability

D Devote more time to non-functional requirements

Question 8 of 120 Question ID: 80041

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Question 9 of 120 Question ID: 80031

A Grooming the backlog

B Demonstrating the increment to the product owner

D Meeting content under discussion

J Question answered incorrectly

Details for Each Option:

A Grooming the backlog

B Demonstrating the increment to the product owner

D Meeting content under discussion

Question 10 of 120 Question ID: 80118

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Question 11 of 120 Question ID: 80255

B Achieving technical perfection to deliver consistent customer value

C Ensuring that technical excellence is the primary project objective

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B Achieving technical perfection to deliver consistent customer value

C Ensuring that technical excellence is the primary project objective

Question 12 of 120 Question ID: 80047

C The number of iterations completed by the team per release

D The number of story points planned to be completed in the next iteration

J Question answered incorrectly

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C The number of iterations completed by the team per release

D The number of story points planned to be completed in the next iteration

Question 13 of 120 Question ID: 80023

B Re-estimate a user story when its relative size has changed

D Re-estimate a user story if the product owner requests to do so

J Question answered incorrectly