Submodule

1What is the earliest symptom of hepatic encephalopathy - psychomotor agitation

2.What serological marker for HepA a in the acide period -anti-HAV IgM

3. What stage of HIV infection is most continuous? Latent stage

4. Which of the following dys tol CNS is opportunitic - Toxoplasma encephalic

5 Which of the following sexual route & transmission- VHB
6. Which variant of prodromal period is not typical for Viral HepA - Arthalgic

7. Which viral hepatitis is most often ...chronized cirrhosis - viral hep C

8. T4/T8 coefficient (T helpers to Tre suppressor) radio in AID - 0.5

9. The following methods are HIV infection lab Dx - Elisa, Western blotting

10. The incubation period in viral Hep A is → 7-50 days.

11 Long term persistence HBe angina a blood serum indicates - Chronic viral hepatitis B
12. The manifestation of cholistatic syndrome in Viral Hep, is - Increase cholesterol level and(
alp )

13 The most common form of clinical course of viral hepatitis A - anicteric

14. The MC outcome of viral HepA - recovery.

15. The MC variant of the pre icteric period of viral Hep A - Flu
16. The Mc variant of the pre icteric period of viral Hep B - arthralgic

17. The most informative biochemical test- in prodermall period viral HepA - Enzyme level
(Alt,ast)

18. The pathogenitic mechanism of jaundice increse level of conjugated bilirubin, cholesterol
and alkaline phosphatase → intrahepatic cholestasis

19. The presence of anti HBs indicates -past illness caused by HBV/vaccination.
20. The syndrome most typical for the pre ecteric period of HepB - arthralgic

21. Typical changes in blood in viral Hepat include everything except → increase ESR 22.
Typical changes in level of bilirubin & its fractions in vital HepB - increasese in conjugated &
with moderate Increase in free bilirubin

23 Viral HepA & is characterised by all of the listed sign except - Chronization of pathological
process
24 Viral hepatitis E is characterised by - severe course in pregant women
25. What biochemical tests show cholistasis in Viral Hep - alkaline phosphatase
26.What biochemical tests show cytolysis im viral hepatitis - Alt,Ast

28. What biochemical tests show mesenchymal response in viral Hep - thymol test
29 What Changes in biochemical ....nonicteric form of viral HepA - Increase transaminase
29. Reducing of liver sizee during the height of viral Hep B - massive necrosis of liver
30 Routs of Hiv transmission are identical to - Hep B virus
31. Severe course of Viral Hep & is typical for - pregnant
32 Sign of cholistasis in Viral hepatitis are - increase cholesterol and Beta
33. Sign of Cytolysis in viral Hep are - Decrese prothrombin index & ↑ ALT

34. Specify duration of pre icteric period in typical form of viral Hep A - 4-7 days
35. Specify mech. of transmiss. of viral HepE - Water borne
36. Specify the leading ….. jaundice in mild & moderate form of viral Hep → Inflammation of
bile duct

37 Structural glycoprotein of hiv - I shell gp160,gp120 gp41.

38. Structural protein of HIV-I nucleus p17 ,p24, p55
39. Syndrome of cytolysis in viral Hep is - increse ALT activity
40 The characteristic of viral hepatitis A is every, except Chronic hepatitis
The characteristic of viral hepatitis E is every, except Chronic Hepatitis
41 The characteristic of viral hepatitis C is every, except - Light course
42.The characteristic of viral hepatitis E is every, except - parenteral route of infection 44. The
clinical symp. of acute liver failure include every except - Liver enlargement
45. The drug for the Tx of cholestasis in pt. & viral Hep - Ursodeoxycholic
46. The earliest term of Ab to Hiv detection in the infected person - 2 week

47. The following biological fluid of Hiv infection. ..... HIV concentration - blood
48. The following , enzyme is found in human lmmuno Virus (HIV) nucleus- Reverse
Transcriptase
49. In what period of acute viral Hep A is pt. most contagious - prodromal period

50 Incubation stage in HIV infection most often last - from 3 weeks to 3 months

51. Informative biochemical rest in the prodromal period of viral HepA - enzyme ALT AST
52 Kaposi's Sarcoma in HIV infected is associated with - Herpes virus 8
53 Leading Syndrome in acute Viral Hep - Cytolysis
54. Long Term presence of HBsAg after Viral HepB. - the process has chronic
55. Name the cause of hepatocytes cytolysis in viral, HepB - Immune response to viral Ag
56. Name the differential clinical criteria of VHA from HBV in icteric p - deterioration of
intoxication

57. Name the leading syndrome . in acute viral Hep - cytolysis

 58. Name the main methool of Tx of viral HepA - Pathogenic
59. Name the mostst typical syndrome of initial stage of liver failure in Viral HepB dizziness ,
feeling of failure

60. Name the prognostically unfavourable biochemical in viral hepatitis - Decrease prothrombin
index
61 Name the reason that in the icteric period of viral hep the urine becomes dark - Conjugate
bilirubin
62. Name the typical Clinical sign of cholestasis in Viruel Hep - Skin itching

63. Nosocomial HIV spreading prophylaxis measures include → every pt is considerable

64 Point out pneumonia Etiology typical for hiv infection - Pneumocystitis

65 Presence of the following disease in a pt. is an indication for HiV - Toxoplasmosis of cns

66 . Presence of …..hiv infection screen - Progressive multifocal leuko

67 Presence of following diseases in a pt. Is an indicaton for HIV - Giardias
68 Probability of medical staff contamination through needle injury - 0.3
69. Clinical signs of precoma in Viral Hep, - tachycardia, tremor of the fingers
70 Damage in CNS in pt. ….organ of vision damage is maximum associated with -
Toxoplasmosis
71. Disease indicating AIDS development in a pt & HIV infection → Preumocystitis pneumonia
72 Disease indicating AIDS development in a pt & HIV infection - Esophageal candidiasis
73. Disease indicating AIDS development in a pt & HIV infection - Cerebrum toxoplasmosis
congenital

74. Disease indicating AIDS clevelop. (acc. to WHO) - Cytomegalovirus retinitis

75. Duration of incubation period in viral Hep.B - 2 to 6 months

76. For HIV infection detection the compulsory med exam - all

77. For HIV infection serological Diagnosis at 1st stage…... → ELISA

78. For Hiv infection. serological Diagnosis at 2nd stage - Western Blotting
79. For which glycoprotein of HIV CD4= proteins serve as a receptor - gp120
80. HIV Has greatest tropism to - T
81 HIV is inactivated when boiling during → 1/20min
82. Hiv infection route of transmission - parenteral, sexual, from mother → fetus

83. Immunological markers of acute form of viral Hep B except - anti HBc or lgG
84 In HIV infection Serological Diagnosis by ELISA…….- · total antibody spectrum against of
hiv

85. In HIV Infection Serological Diagnosis by Western Blot method - Ab to separate HIV protein
86. In viral Hepatitis the mesenchymal... Increase of - thymol test
87. A reliable sign of virus replication in Chronic viral Hep B - PCR +VE reaction
88. After acute viral Hep B in the past in serological blood - Anti HBc IgG
89. Antibodies to HIV in the infected person from moment of infection - during 3 month in 90%

90 Cholestatic Syndrome in viral Hep is characterised by - hypercholestremia

MODULE-1 (Feco Oral mech.)

A 32- yr old patient complains headache.... reoseola on abdomen. hepatosp) → typhoid

2 Student, 28yrs old, fell ill 2hr... palpitation in epigastric …… no diarrhea - Gastric & intestine
-3 A patient who had just..... stool is profuse , watery without mucus and blood no abdominal
pain → Cholera

4. A 20-yr-old pt without mucus and blood no abdominal pain Main cause of diarrhea - impaird
(CAMP)
5 A patient with intestinal dysfunction…..no abdominal pain …..anuria - Isolation of path
6 Two adult patient…... hypovolemic shock III degre, convulsion→ 5% glucose sol.
7. Patient D, 89 years old, has watery feces may... Tachypnea, muscle cramps Uncompensated
hypovolemic shock

8 A pt. was delivered... abdomen painless... stool k involuntary, watery - Polylomic saline

9 A 45-yr-old pt breathing... Dryrales Stool is detained - 8-10 days of illness

10 Patient, 42 year old, & weeks.. .....green stool - fetal bacteroscopy
11 A 28 year old pt. has multiple rice broth. It take to rehydrate - 5-7 hours
12 A 27 year old pt. 10hours after eating canned mushroom - Administration of antibotulism

13 The pt is 25 year old sick for days....Th a " Grid "eye developed - Bulbar
14 A 50 year old man has hospitalised on first day …. unpleasant foamy - Administration of
saline
15 The general conditions...sunken eye temp 35 complication - Dehydration shock 16 A 28
year old man fell ill with an ….. bloody mucus mass… spasmodic - Bacterial examination of
feces
17 A 34 yr old pt. White yellow plagues... Sigmoid and rectum - pseudomembrane colitis
1. the most common form of viral hep a===icterus
2. the main criterion for hep b include all except ======incresed thymol response
3. the outcome of viral hep b except====liver amyloidosis
4. the characteristics of hep b include all except =========dies quickly under influence
5. the mechanism of transmission of viral hep a ======fecooral
6. leading syndrome in acute viral hepatitis is=============cytolysis
7. in the peripheral blood in acute viral hep b .exceept========neutrophilia
8. in the stage of early convalescence in…….except======hbeag
9. cholestatic syndrome in viral hep .charact by ==============hyperenzyme alt ast
10. for viral hep c ………except ===mild course of disease
11. the most unfavoourable for patient is ======combination of chroni c hep with delta
superinfection
12. changes in hemogram in acute viral hep are==========leukopenia lymphocytosis
13. the terms of dispensary observation after viral hep a ==========1 times a month for 3
months
14. the average duration of ip of viral hep b=========50-180 days
15. the clinical sign of mesenchymal ..except=====anemia
16. in the pre icteric period of viral hep b ……except ========anti hbs
17. bio chemical parameters hep b and d are except===========free bilirubin prevails
18. transmission of hep b virus mother to fetus ………carried out =========intranatally
19. the main clinical sign…………..acute hep d in carriers of hbsag ==============all of the
above
20. the incubation period of viral hep a ====7-50 days
21. immunological markers of acute viral hep b except ===========anti hb c or ig G
22. what biochemical test …………….cholestasis in viral hep ============alkaline
phosphatase
23. pathogenetic mechanism of jaundice……… increase conjugated bilirubin, cholesterol
,alkaline phosphatase activity=============hepatic cellular jauundice
24. the clinical symptom of acute liver failure except =========reduction of liver size
25. the feature of delta virus…except ============the virus can multiply on its own
26. the most comon variants of preicteric =========1 2 3 4
27. dection of ab to hep a virus of the ig g class=============about the chronization of
process
28. sign of a threat to chronicity with acute hepb ==========high replicative activity of hbv in
mild
29. the most common variant of pre icteric of viral hep a ==========flu like
30. transmission of hrp b from mother to fetus =====all of the above periods
31. for acute hep c the course is most typical ====acute cyclic
32. the most common variant of preicteric variant of hep b=====arthralgia
33. the earliest laboratory indicator of cytolytic syndrome ====increasing activity of alat
34. the manifestation of cholestatic ………..viral hep is ========increased cholesterol in blood
35. presence of anti hbs indicates ============passed hb v or vaccination
36. after the onset of jaundic ein viral hep a, patient condition ===========improve
37. for viral hep e , everything is typical except ========parenteral way of infection
38. sign of intoxiacation with viral hep b =====all of above
39. the manifestation of cytolytic syndrome ….in viral hep is .===increased serum enzyme
activity
40. the source of infection in viral hep b =======all of the above
41. the typical changes in blood ……except ====increased ESR
42. the syndrome most characteristics pre icteric viral hep b ======arthralgia
43. clinical signs of pre coma in viral hepatitis =====tachycardia, tremor of fingertips
44. biochemical parameters of blood serum ….except===
45. which variant of prodromal period not typical for hep a ===mixed
46. the mian mechanism of pathogenesis of deltavirus ========direct cytopathic effect
47. the main markers of integrative chronic hbv =====hbeag ,hbv dna
48. hep a virus refers to ===enterovirus
49. the most common variants of pre icteric hep b ====arthralgia
50. acute viea; hep a is verified=====detection of ab to hep a virus of igm class
51. what biochemical test reflect cytolysis in viral hepatitis====alt,ast
52. in the stage of early hep b…..except ===hbeag
53. morphological changes in viral hep a except=====necrobiosos of hepato
54. signs of cytolysis in viral hepatotis =======decrease prothromin index and inc alt
55. features of preicteric period of acute hep b and hep d =====all of the above
56. cytolysis syndrome in virla hepatitis is =========increase alt
57. what biochemical test ………viral heptatis ======alkaline phosphatase
58. informative biochemical ……..viral hep a=======alt, ast enzymes
59. the most common outcome of viral hep a ==recovery
60. hep b virus =======dna containing hep adna virus
61. the following are used …….etiotropic for acute and chronic hbv==============antiviral
drugs
62. in chronic hep c , course of disease is =====progressive with severe clinical
63. in the preicteric of viral hep b …….except==============anti hbe
64. the laboratory criteria …..increased risk of chronic viral hep b …..except ======alat
65. the main criteria for viral hep b ……..except…=======increase thymol response
66. the preparation for ….cholestasis in patient with viral hepatitis======ureodeoxycholic acid
67. for viral hep a is typical except============chronicity of hrpatits
68. immunity in viral hepatitis is======================persistent
How many types of Toxoplasma are there?

1. 5 2. 1 3. 2

2. In the organism of intermediate hosts, Toxoplasma can exist in the form of:

1.bradyzoids

2.ocyst

3.trophozoids

4.tissue cysts

3. In the organism of the final host, Toxoplasma exists in the form:

1. Trophozoids 2. Oocyst

3.spocyst

4.sporozoids

5. Tissue cysts

4. Ways of transmission of toxoplasmosis infection

1. alimentary

2.airborne

3.vertical

4.pin

5.parenteral

5. Toxoplasma can be transmitted from person to person

1.airborne droplets

2.congenital

3.sexually

4.contact household way

6. Toxoplasmosis is a marker infection

1.cellular immunodeficiency

2.deficiency of the humoral link of immunity

7. In most patients, acquired toxoplasmosis proceeds as

1.primary latent form

2.chronic form

3.sharp shapes

8. The most common clinical form of acquired toxoplasmosis

1.Encephalic

2.visceral

3.Lymphadenopathic

4.Ocular

9. A high level of risk of intrauterine infection of the fetus is noted

1.in 1 trimester

2.in the 2nd trimester

3.in the 3rd trimester of pregnancy

10. Signs of X-ray diagnostics of the encephalic form of congenital toxoplasmosis

1.hydrocephalus

2.calcifications

3.defects of the bones of the skull

4. aniso-orbital syndrome.

5.osteoporosis

11. Methods of laboratory diagnosis of toxoplasmosis

1.virological

2.cytological

3. PCR diagnostics

4.Serodiagnostics

5.bacteriological

12. Serological markers of congenital toxoplasmosis 1. detection of anti-Toxo IgM in the ELISA reaction

2.increase in the level of anti-Toxo IgG by the second half of life

3.The level of anti-Toxo IgG antibodies decreases by 4-6 months of age

4 detection of Toxoplasma DNA by PCR in cerebrospinal fluid

13. Specify the duration of the course of etiotropic therapy for congenital toxoplasmosis

1. 3-5 days

2.10 days

3.4 weeks

4.8-12 months

5.21 days

14. What is the duration of treatment for the acute form of acquired toxoplasmosis? 1.1 cycle of
tritotherapy

2.3 cycles of triple therapy

3.spiramycin - 10 days

4.3 cycles of tritotherapy + spiramycin

5.amoxicillin - 14 days

15. Specify the timing of the appearance of specific IgM

toxoplasmosis

1. 2 weeks after infection

2.4 weeks after infection

3. after 2 months. after infection

4. 7 days after infection

16. The vertical transmission mechanism can be implemented by:

1.pin

2.transplacental

3.ascending

4.downward

17. What are the reasons for the frequent damage to the eyes and brain in early toxoplasmosis fetopathies?

1.tropism of the pathogen

2.delay in debridement due to hemophthalmic and blood-brain barriers

3.immunodeficiency state

18. Possible fetal infection in a seropositive (TOXO) pregnant woman

1. Yes

2.No

19. The likelihood of termination of pregnancy is higher with infection in

1.in 1 trimester

2.in the 3rd trimester

20. Classic symptom complex of congenital toxoplasmosis

1.chorioretinitis, carditis, encephalitis

2.chorioretinitis, calcifications in the brain

ОТВЕТЫ К ТЕМЕ No 12: «Врожденный токсоплазмоз»

1. 2

2. 1, 3, 4

3. 2

4. 1. 3, 4

5. 2

6. 1

7. 1

8. 3

9. 3

10. 1, 2, 4 11. 2, 3, 4 12. 1. 2. 4 13. 4

14. 1, 3 15. 1

16. 2

17. 1,2 18. 2

19. 2

20. 2
Tests. Lesson number 3. Topic 14. "Congenital HIV infection"

1.What family of viruses does HIV belong to?

1 retroviruses

2.adenoviruses

3.cytomegalovirus

4.herpes viruses

2.What is the HIV genome represented

1.DNA found in the core of the virion

2.RNA located in the core of the virion

3.DNA outside the virion

4.RNA and DNA

3.What causative agents of HIV do you know

1.HIV-1

2.HIV-2

3.HIV-3

4.HIV-5

4. What methods and means are used to inactivate HIV in medical

tools and other contaminated objects

1.boiling, disinfection. solutions: 0.2 hypochlorite, 0.5: formalin, 0.5 Lugol's solution, 70 degrees

alcohol, 6% H2O2

2.drying at room temperature

3.freezing

4.100% alcohol

5.Ways of HIV transmission

1.sexual, parenteral, vertical

2.genital, household, parenteral

3.genital, insect

4.airborne

6. List the ways in which HIV is not transmitted to another person

1. contacts at work, through food, water, "dry kisses"

2.through dishes, toys

3.sexual contact

4.parenteral

7 who are at increased risk of HIV infection

1.prostitutes, blood recipients, drug addicts

2.children born to HIV-infected mothers

3.pregnant

4.patients with hepatitis

8. What fluctuations in the incubation period are most often observed in HIV -

infections

1.from 1 to 16 weeks

2.from 3 to 12 weeks3.from 1 to 2 weeks

4.from 1 to 3 days

9.Name the membrane protein (receptor) of the cell wall, sensitive to

surface antigen of HIV

1.CD-8

2.CD-4

3. CD-3

4.CD-124

10. List the most affected cells in the body in HIV infection

1.T-helpers, macrophages-monocytes

2. obese, stromal

3.epidermal cells

4.neutrophils

11. What is the quality of HIV in cells

1.in the form of DNA - provirus

2.in the form of RNA - provirus

3.in the form of double-stranded RNA

12.How long does HIV remain in the patient's body?

1.5 years

27 years

3.before the first clinical signs

4.life

13. List the stages of the infectious process in HIV infection

1.incubation, primary manifestations, secondary diseases, terminal

2.AIDS, terminal stage

3.incubation, AIDS

4.primary manifestations, secondary manifestations

14 is HIV mutable

1.Yes

2.no

3.changing, but only at the AIDS stage

4.changing, but only at the GLAP stage

15. Which HIV envelope antigen interacts with the receptors of the target cell

1.gp-120

2.gp-30

3.gp-41

4.gp-24

16.What infections are called AIDS-associated

1.syphilis

2.Kaposi's sarcoma

3.pneumocystis pneumonia

4.CMVI

17. What pathogens of HIV do you know and what is their resistance in the external environment

1.HIV-1 - resistant

2.HIV-2 is unstable

3.HIV-1 and HIV-2 are unstable

4.HIV-4 - unstable

18. What are the most complete reasons contributing to the possible activation of the provirus

in the organism of the virus carrier

1.taking medication

2.vaccination

3.immunostimulating therapy, intercurrent diseases, stress

4.exercise

19 how many types of HIV virus are currently known

1.one

2.two

3.three

4.five

20. What blood cells are affected by HIV

1.T-lymphocytes

2.eosinophils

3.monocytes

4.B-lymphocytes

21. Human immunodeficiency viruses HIV1 and HIV2 differ in antigenic

protein specificity

1.env

2.gag

3.pol

4.LTR

22. Genes encoding coat proteins are

1.gag

2.tat

3.env

4.LTR

23. The genes encoding core proteins and enzymes are

1.pol

2.gag

3. LTR

4.env

24. HIV infection in adults is transmitted

1.in sexual intercourse

2.via blood and blood products

3.perinatally

4.through damaged skin and mucous membranes

25. HIV infection is transmitted from mother to child

1.in the perinatal period

2.when breastfeeding

3. by airborne droplets

4.fecal-oral route

26. Cells become infected

1.free HIV viral particles

2.Nucleocapsid HIV

3.direct transmission of HIV from cell to cell

4. external proteins of HIV

27. Indicate the mechanisms of HIV penetration into sensitive cells

1.RNA of the virion interacts with sensitive cells

2.gp 120 HIV interacts with CD4 antigens of lymphoid cells, gp 41

causes the fusion of the viral and cell membranes

3.HIV is captured by fragocytic cells that carry it throughout the body and

transmitted to virus-sensitive cells

4. DNA - provirus interacts with T - lymphocytes

28. The HIV provirus is

1.RNA of the virus in the cytoplasm of a sensitive cell

2.Virus DNA in the cytoplasm

3.DNA of the virus in the cell nucleus

4.integrated DNA of the virus into the DNA of the host cell

29. The HIV provirus is activated because

1.has regulatory genes responsible for the activation of the provirus in a dividing cell

2.Integrates into the DNA of a dormant sensitive cell

3. "buds" from a sensitive cell

4. antigens and mitogens act on it

30. Factors of impaired immune system in HIV infection, leading to

AIDS is

1.reduced production of natural antibodies

2.changes in the number and functional activity of CD-4 lymphocytes

3.disruption of cytokine production

4.disruption of the activity of subpolations of T - and B lymphocytes

31. Markers of the progression of HIV infection are

1.decrease in the number of CD4-T lymphocytes in the blood

2.increase in serum concentration p 24

3.increased viral load

4.decrease in serum concentration of neopterin, ß2 microglobulin,

acid-stable α-interferon

32. AIDS-indexing category of CD4 + T-lymphocytes is

1.1000L / μL (≈50%)

2.> 500L / μL (> 29%)

3.200-499 cells / μl (14-28%)

4. <200L / μL (<14%)

33.The absolute number of CD4 + T lymphocytes in healthy children exceeds this

rate in adults to age

1.6 months

2.1 years

3.2 years
4.6 years old

34. With perinatal HIV infection, only children have AIDS -

indicator diseases

1.Kaposi's sarcoma

2.pneumonia Pneumocystis carinii

3.HIV casting - syndrome

4.Lymphoid interstitial pneumonitis (LIP)

35. People with HIV may develop symptoms of autoimmune diseases

1.systemic scarlet fever

2.systemic vasculitis

3.Sjogren's syndrome

4.systemic lupus erythematosus

36. General laboratory parameters observed in HIV-infected and

patients with systemic lupus erythematosus are

1.anti-nuclear factor

2.antibodies to cardiolipin

3.thrombocytopenia

4.increase in the number of lymphocytes

37. What is the most significant feature of the hepatitis C virus leading to

chronicity of the infectious process

1.shell structure

2.variability

3.transmission mechanism

4. "escaping" the effects of the immune system

38. Severe opportunistic infections occur in HIV-infected individuals

1.with a decrease in leukocytes below 3000l / μl

2.with a decrease in T-lymphocytes below 500l / μl

3.with a decrease in CD4 lymphocytes below 500l / μl

4.with a decrease in CD4 lymphocytes below 200l / μl

39. List the types of tolerance

1.low-dose T-type tolerance

2.high-dose B-type tolerance

3.macrophage tolerance

4.chemokine tolerance

Ответы

1.1

2.2

3.1,2

4.1

5.1

6.1,2

7.1,2

8.2

9.2

10.1

11.1

12.4

13.1

14.1

15.1

16.2,3,4

17.3

18.2,3

19.2

20.1,3

21.1
22.3

23.1,2

24.1,2,3

25.1,2

26.1,3

27.2,3

28.4

29.1

30.2,3,4

31.1,2,3

32.4

33.3

34.4

35.2,3,4

36.1,2,3

37.2,4

38.4

39.1,2,3
Questions to test malaria control for doctors of outpatient clinics and hospitals

1. Source of infection:

A. Komar

B. Sick person

B. Everything is correct

2.The causative agent of four-day malaria is:

A. R. vivax

B. P. malaria

B. P. ovale

G. P. falciparum

E. Everything is correct

3. All clinical manifestations of malaria are associated with:

A. Exoerythrocytic schizogony

B. Gametogony

B. Sporogonia

D. Erythrocytic schizogony

4. The incubation period for tropical malaria is:

A. 9 to 14 days

B. 12 to 18 days

B. 18 to 40 days

G. 9-14 days

5. The incubation period for three-day malaria is:

A. 9 to 14 days

B. 12 to 18 days
B. 18 to 40 days

G. 9-14 days

6. The incubation period for four-day malaria is:

A. 9 to 14 days

B. 12 to 18 days

B. 18 to 40 days

G. 9-14 days

7. The incubation period for oval - malaria is:

A. 9 to 14 days

B. 12 to 18 days

B. 18 to 40 days

G. 9-14 days

8. Erythrocyte relapses are possible with:

A. Tropical

B. Three-day

B. Four-day

G. Ovale - malaria

D. All

9. Exoerythrocyte relapses are possible with:

A. Tropical

B. Three-day

B. Four-day

G. Ovale - malaria

D. Verno Bi G
10. In what time frame from the onset of parasitemia in the patient's peripheral blood appear
gametocytes (homons) in tropical malaria:

A. 5-8 day

B. 9-14 days

B. 10-12 days

11. Testing for malaria is subject to:

A. Febrile and unspecified for 3 days during the epidemic season and for 5 days during the rest of the
year

B. Patients with ongoing periodic rises in temperature, despite the ongoing treatment in accordance
with the established diagnosis

B. Persons living in an active focus, with any increase in temperature

D. That's right

12. The period of carrying out antimalarial measures in the active focus of three-day malaria is carried
out during:

A. 5 years

B. 3 years

B. 1 year

D. Correct A and B

13. Groups at increased risk of infection requiring special attention as possible sources of infection
include:

A. Migrant contingents from endemic areas (refugees and internally displaced persons, seasonal
workers, contact specialists, pilgrims, tourists)

B. Servicemen demobilized from the Russian army after serving in the endemic countries of the CIS

B. Crews of aircraft and ships flying to tropical countries and countries where tropical malaria is
prevalent

D. That's right
14. Negative blood products are stored for:

A. 1 year

B. 6 months

B. 3 months

15 During the period of treatment of a patient with malaria in a hospital, blood products must be
examined three times in case of three-day malaria:

A. On the 1st, 4th and last days

B. Daily

C. From 1st to 3rd day

16 During the period of treatment of a patient with malaria in a hospital, blood products must be
examined three times for tropical malaria:

A. On the 1st, 4th and last days

B. Every day from the 1st to the 7th day from the beginning of the specific treatment

C. From 1st to 3rd day

17. With the disappearance of parasites from the blood during the period of treatment, control - studies
are carried out during:

A. 1 month at intervals of 7-10 days

B. 6 months with an interval of 14 days

B. 1 year at intervals of 1 time per month

18. When infected with tropical malaria, a person becomes a source of infection after:

A. 3-4 weeks

B. 5-6 days
B. 10-12 days

19. What type of malaria can cause a severe course of the disease with damage to the capillaries of the
brain and death:

A. Tropical

B. Three-day

B. Oval malaria

G. Four-day

20. Malaria has 3 main symptoms:

A. Febrile attacks

B. Hepatosplenomegaly

B. Diarrhea

G. Anemia

E. Swollen lymph nodes

21. In severe malaria, the following are possible:

A. Zheltukha

B. Nausea, vomiting

B. Renal failure

D. All of the above

22. Paroxysms of fever in three-day malaria:

A. Lasts 2-6 hours, repeated every other day

B. Lasts 12 hours, repeated after 2 days

B. Repeat every three days

D. Repeat daily for 3 consecutive days

23. The development of coma and death in tropical malaria is possible during:
A. 2 months from the onset of the disease

B. Within 5-7 days from the onset of the disease

B. 2 weeks from the onset of the disease

24. Immediate hospitalization in an infectious diseases hospital is indicated for:

A. Suspected tropical malaria

B. Suspected three-day malaria

B. Suspected illness of any kind of malaria

25. Complications of tropical malaria:

A. Malaria coma

B. Acute renal failure

B. Ruptured spleen

D. Hemoglobinuric fever

E. All of the above

26. Complications of three-day malaria:

A. Malaria coma

B. Acute renal failure

B. Enlargement of the spleen

27. Early relapses of malaria are possible in patients who have undergone:

A. Three-day malaria

B. Tropical malaria

B. Oval malaria

D. Four-day malaria
E. Any form within 2 months after the end of the primary manifestations

28. Late relapses of malaria are possible in patients who have undergone:

A. Four-day malaria

B. Tropical malaria

B. Three-day and oval-malaria within 6 months after the end of the primary manifestations

D. Any form after 2 months after the end of the primary manifestations

29. Prevention of malaria includes:

A. Seeding of premises

B. Application of bed curtains

B. Use of repellents

D. Taking antimalarial drugs

E. All of the above

30. What drugs are used for chemoprophylaxis of three-day malaria:

A. Delagil (chloroquine)

B. Lariam (mefloquine)

31. What drugs are used for chemoprophylaxis of tropical malaria:

A. Delagil (chloroquine)

B. Lariam (mefloquine)

32. Recurrence of symptoms of malaria occurs, choose the ratio:

1. Every 48 hours A. P. vivax

2. Every 72 hours B. P. ovale

3. Do not show cyclicality B. P. malaria

G. P. falciparum

33. Among the 4 types of human malaria parasites, the most aggressive is:

A. R. vivax

B. P. malaria

B. P. ovale

G. P. falciparum

E. Everything is correct

34. The severity of the course of different species forms of malaria is determined by:

A. Age

B. State of the immune system

B. Genetic characteristics

D. All of the above

35. For the control study and confirmation, blood products from persons suspected of malaria are sent:

A. All positive

B. 10% of the number of negative

B. Nothing is directed

36. Testing for malaria is subject to:

A. All persons arriving from malaria-endemic areas or visiting endemic countries

B. Persons who have arrived from malaria-endemic areas or have visited endemic countries in the past
three years with any of the following symptoms: fever, chills, malaise, headache, etc.

B. Persons who are febrile and not diagnosed for 3 days during the epidemic season and for 5 days
during the rest of the year

D. Outpatient and inpatient patients of pediatric and adult polyclinics and hospitals
37. In order to exclude the recurrence of three-day malaria, radical treatment is carried out with the
drug:

A. Primakhin

B. Delagil

V. Meflokhin

Correct answers: 1-B; 2-B; 3-D; 4-A; 5 B; 6-B; 7-B; 8-D; 9-D; 10-B; 11-D; 12-B; 13-D; 14-B; 15-A;
16-B; 17-A; 18-B; 19-A; 20-A, B, D; 21-G; 22- A; 23-B; 24-B; 25-D; 26-B; 27-D; 28-G; 29-D; 30-A;
31-A, B; 32-1-A, B, D, 2-C; 33-G; 34-G; 35 - A, B; 36- B, C; 37-A