NEUROANATOMY
Which of the following group of neurons is
1. The olfactory bulb is derived from which
secondary vesicle?
a. Telencephalon
b. Mesencephalon
c. Diencephalon
d. Myelencephalon
2. The thalamus, hypothalamus and epithalamus
are parts of the:
a. Cerebrum
b. Basal ganglia
c. Diencephalon
d. Tegmentum
3. Which connects the cerebellum to the pons?
a. Superior cerebellar peduncle
b. Middle cerebellar peduncle
c. Inferior cerebellar peduncle
d. Vernis
4. The conus medullaris is a prolongation of the
pia mater that descends to attach to the back
of the coccyx.
a. True
b. False
5. A young child was admitted to the hospital
because of episodes of vomiting, headache,
and drowsiness. Due to the suspicion of
increased blockage of CSF flow and
absorption. Where is the main site of
absorption of the CSF?
a. Arachnoid villi
b. Choroid process
c. Subarachnoid space
d. 4th ventricle
6. A 30-year old female had 1 week history of
fever, headache and vomiting and was
diagnosed with leptomeningitis. Which
meningeal layer/s is/are inflamed?
a. Arachnoid and pia
b. Dura
c. Dura and arachnoid
d. Pia and dura
7. Where are the preganglionic neurons located?
a. Cervical region
b. Thoracolumbar region
c. Cervicothoracic region
d. Cranial nerves and sacral region
8. What fissures/sulcus separates the frontal and
parietal lobes superiorly from the temporal
lobe inferiorly?
a. Lateral fissure
b. Parietal Occipital sulcus
c. Central sulcus of rolando
d. Longitudinal fissure
9. Upon examination of a newborn, it was
observed that the brain, meninges and sull
were not formed. Which of the following
developmental defects caused this?
a. Failure of closure of the anterior
neuropore
b. Failure of closure of the posterior
neuropore
c. Defect in secondary neurulation
d. Failure of vertebral arches to fuse
10.
specifically located outside the Central
Nervous System?
a. Anterior gray horn
b. Posterior gray horn
c. Posterior white horn
d. Posterior root ganglion
11. Which is true of the following?
a. The cerebrum and the cerebellum
have an inner white and outer gray
matter
b. The spinal cord has an inner gray and
outer white matter
c. Both statements are true
d. Both statements are false
12. The basal ganglia are several large masses of
white matter located in the subcortical region
of the brain
a. True
b. False
13. The central nervous system is composed of
the following structures except:
a. Diencephalon
b. Medulla
c. Sensory ganglia
d. Sacral segment of the spinal cord
14. This bundle of white matter connects the 2
cerebral hemispheres.
a. Internal capsule
b. Corpus callosum
c. Arcuate fasciculus
d. Corona radiata
15. In the spinal cord, the anterior horn is derived
from the alar plate while the posterior horn is
derived from the basal plate.
a. True
b. False
16. The deep cerebellar nuclei arranged from
lateral to medial arc:
a. Fastigial, globose, emboliform, dentate
b. Fastigial emboliform, globose, dentate
c. Dentate, emboliform, fastigial, globose
d. Dentate, emboliform, globose, fastigial
17. The sylvian aqueduct is a ventricular cavity
formed by the:
a. Mesencephalon
b. Diencephalon
c. Telencephalon
d. Rhombencephalon
18. Where are the cell bodies of the nerve fibers
conveying sensation of touch, pain,
temperature and vibration located?
a. Anterior horn cell
b. Dorsal root ganglion
c. Spinal nerve
d. White matter of spinal cord
19. The cerebrum lies above this dural fold and
separates it from the cerebellum
a. Falx cerebri
b. Tentorum cerebelli
c. Periosteal layer
d. Diaphragma sella
20. What is the structure that forms the lateral
border of the 3rd ventricle?
a. Thalamus
b. Epithalamus
 c. Midbrain Which nerve roots innervate the muscle that
d. Corpus callosum flexes the elbow, when its tendon is taped?
21. Which rapidly adapting mechanoreceptor is a. C6, C7, C8
activated when you are testing for vibration b. C5, C6
sense? c. C5, C6, C7
a. Meissner’s corpuscles d. C8, T1
b. Merkel discs 31. Which of the following is true about the
c. Pacinian corpuscles conduction in peripheral nerves?
d. Ruffini corpuscles a. Thickly myelinated fibers conduct
22. Which dermatome should be tested if you more rapidly thinly myelinated fibers.
want to assess for the sensation around the b. In nonmyelinated fibers, the action
umbilicus? potential passes continuously along
a. C7 the axolemma, progressively exiting
b. T4 neighboring areas of membrane.
c. T10 c. In myelinated fibers, the presence of a
d. T12 myelin sheath as an insulator and a
23. Muscle tone is dependent on the integrity of a myelinated nerve fiber can be
simple monosynaptic reflex arc. The following stimulated only at the nodes of
are the components of a simple reflex arc: Ranvier
a. Afferent neuron from neuromuscular d. All of the above
spindles and neurotendinous spindles 32. Which of the following is the primary
b. Efferent neuron from the anterior horn postsynaptic receptor of the neuromuscular
cell junction?
c. Efferent neuron from muscle at motor a. Dopamine receptor
end plates b. GABA receptor
d. None of the above c. Glutamate receptor
24. These structures play a role in axon transport d. Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor
and formation of new cell processes. 33. These cells are responsible for the formation
a. Microfilaments of myelin in the CNS
b. Microtubules a. Schwann cells
c. Neurofilaments b. Ependymal cells
d. Both A & B c. Astrocytes
25. By having the patient repetitively touch the tip d. Oligodendrocytes
of his nose and the examiner’s finger, tests 34. Myasthenia gravis is a postsynaptic
which of the following? neuromuscular junction disease wherein the
a. Muscle power synaptic transmission is impaired because of
b. Muscle coordination the destruction of acetylcholine receptors,
c. Muscle tone leading to muscle fatigue and weakness.
d. Joint position Which of the following drugs inhibits
26. Most synapses are electrical in which bridging acetylcholine and temporarily relieves the
channels permit ionic current flow to take symptoms of myasthenia?
place from one cell to the other with a a. Botulinum toxin
minimum of delay. b. Succinylcholine
a. True c. Neostigmine
b. False d. Guanidine hydrochloride
27. Which neurotransmitter is lacking in patients 35. Which of the following steps stimulates the
with Parkinson’s disease? fusion of the synaptic vesicles with the
a. Acetylcholine presynaptic membrane and causes the
b. Dopamine release of acetylcholine into the synaptic cell?
c. Glutamate a. Arrival of action potential
d. Norepinephrine b. Opening of calcium channels
28. The effect produced by a neurotransmitter is c. Influx of sodium
limited by its destruction or reabsorption. The d. Efflux of potassium
effect of acetylcholine is terminated by: 36. The resting state is characterized by which of
a. Acetylcholine reuptake the following?
b. Breakdown by choline acetylcholine a. Passive efflux of sodium
c. Hydrolysis by acetylcholine b. Potassium ions diffuse from the cell
d. None of the above cytoplasm to the tissue fluid
29. Which of the following nerve fiber types are c. Resting potential: 40 mV
the primary carriers of pain? d. None of the above
a. A alpha 37. The neuromuscular spindles receive
b. A beta information about muscle length and the rate
c. A delta and C of change in the muscle length while the
d. A gamma neurotendinous spindles sense changes in
30. A patient suspected to have GBS has absent muscle tension.
tendon reflexes in both upper extremities. a. True
 b. False
38. What type of neurons are in the motor cells of
the spinal cord?
a. Multipolar
b. Bipolar
c. Unipolar
d. Pseudounipolar
39. There is repolarization of the membrane after
the occurrence of an action potential. What
should explain this event?
a. Opening of potassium channels
b. Opening of sodium channels
c. Influx of calcium
d. Impermeability of the membrane to all
ions
40. The perineurium covers the nerve trunk
a. True
b. False
41. This tract is thought to include the descending
autonomic fibers and provides a pathway by
which the hypothalamus can control the
sympathetic outflow and the sacral
parasympathetic outflow
a. Vestibulospinal tract
b. Lateral corticospinal tract
c. Rubrospinal tract
d. Reticulospinal tract
42. All the axons from the nucleus cuneatus cross
the median plane, join the medial lemniscus
and terminate in the ventral posterolateral
nucleus of the thalamus.
a. True
b. False
43. Ths presents as low back pain, symmetric
saddle anesthesia and muscle weakness and
early bowel and bladder dysfunction.
a. Caudal equina syndrome
b. Poliomyelitis
c. Conus medullaris syndrome
d. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
44. The gating theory of pain proposes that
excessive non-painful touch and pressure
carried by large, myelinated afferent fiber close
the gate for pain.
a. True
b. False
45. The spinal nerves pass through these
structures
a. Transverse foramen
b. Intervertebral foramen
c. Vertebral foramen
d. Lamina
46. Which finding would you expect in the first 24
hours of spinal shock syndrome?
a. Hyperactive spinal reflexes
b. Flaccid paralysis
c. Intact sensation
d. Hypertension
47. If the hypertension has bilateral loss of pain,
temperature, light touch and pressure
sensations below the level of the lesion with
characteristic sacral Osparing’s, the most
probable location of the lesion is at the:
a. Posterior cord
b. Anterior cord
c. Central cord
d. Lateral cord
48. What event could possibly cause Hangman’s
fracture?
a. Fracture of pars interarticularis
b. High velocity hyperextension of the
head
c. Fracture of anterior and posterior
arches
d. Both A & B
49. These vertebrae differ from the other
segments because of costal facets.
a. Cervical
b. Thoracic
c. Lumbar
d. Sacral
50. A 70-year old woman was found unconscious
in her apartment. After regaining
consciousness, she could not move her right
arm. On examination, she also has
hyperreflexia and hypertonia in the affected
limb. Which of the following structures is
affected
a. Lateral corticospinal tract
b. Anterior spinothalamic tract
c. Vestibulospinal tract
d. Anterior gray horn
51. Following hemisection of the spinal cord,
approximately at the level of T10, a patient
experiences loss of light touch and pressure
sensation on the left side of the leg. Damage
to which of the following tracts could account
for this deficit?
a. Right fasciculus gracilis
b. Right anterior spinothalamic tract
c. Left anterior spinothalamic tract
d. Left lateral spinothalamic tract
52. This tract provides an afferent pathway for the
reticular formation, which plays an important
role in influencing levels of consciousness
a. Reticulospinal tract
b. Spinoreticular tract
c. Spino-olivary tract
d. Olivospinal tract
53. A 35-year old man is brought to the
emergency room after sustaining injury to his
back. A neurological examination reveals loss
of flexor muscle function. Damage to which
tract would account for this defect?
a. Vestibulospinal tract
b. Reticulospinal tract
c. Rubrospinal tract
d. Tectospinal tract
54. The following are located in the posterior gray
column except:
a. Accessory nucleus
b. Nucleus proprius
c. Nucleus dorsalis of clarke
d. Substantial gelatinosa
55. This is the main excitatory neurotransmitter
released by the A delta fibers and the C fibers.
a. Substance P
b. Glutamate
c. Glycine
d. Serotonin
56. The medial aspect of the left primary motor b. Phrenic nucleus
cortex represents motor activity of the right c. Lumbosacral nucleus
leg. d. Nucleus proprius
a. True 67. Which of the following is associated with
b. False proprioceptive endings (neuromuscular
57. This is present throughout the length of the spindles and tendon spindles)?
spinal cord and contains the long ascending a. Nucleus proprius
fibers from the sacral, lumbar, and lower six b. Substantia gelatinosa
thoracic spinal nerves. c. Clarke’s column
a. Fasciculus gracilis d. Visceral afferent nucleus
b. Nucleus gracilis 68. Where is the first order neuron of the
c. Fasciculus cuneatus ascending tracts?
d. Nucleus cuneatus a. Medulla
58. A 60-year old man was diagnosed with b. Posterior root ganglion
amyotrophic lateral sclerosis. The following c. Thalamus
year, the disease progressed and he lost the d. Posterior gray horn
use of his arms and legs. He also had 69. Which is the outermost meingeal layer of the
fasciculations and hyperreflexia. Which spinal cord?
structure/s of the spinal cord is/are affected? a. Dura
a. Posterior gray horn b. Pia
b. Lateral gray horn c. Arachnoid
c. Anterior gray horn 70. What is the deep groove on the anterior
d. Anterior gray horn and lateral surface of the spinal cord?
corticospinal tract a. Posterior median sulcus
59. The posterior spinocerebellar tract joins the b. Anterior white column
inferior cerebellar peduncle and terminates in c. Gray commissure
the cerebellar cortex while the anterior d. Anterior median fissure
spinocerebellar tract enters the cerebellum 71. Axons in this tract run up and down for one or
through the superior cerebellar peduncle. two spinal cord segments before they
a. True penetrate the posterior gray horn. Lissauer’s
b. False tract
60. In cases of ruptured disc, this part protrudes 72. Glutamate is the main excitatory
posteriorly through the anulus fibrosus, and neurotransmitter released by the A delta fibers
may compress spinal nerve roots and the and the C fibers
spinal nerve. a. True
a. Nucleus propius b. False
b. Nucleus pulposus 73. Where does the corticospinal tract decussate?
c. Substantia gelatinosa a. Various spinal levels
d. Ligamentum flavum b. Ventral tegmental decussation in the
61. Which actor suffered from a high cervical cord midbrain
injury? c. Dorsal tegmental decussation in the
a. Jackie chan midbrain
b. Bruce willis d. Cervico-medullary junction
c. Christopher reeve 74. A positive response of this test represents an
d. Tom cruise upper motor neuron lesion.
62. In the cervical region, there are 8 pairs of a. Superficial abdominal
spinal nerves and 7 cervical nerves b. Babinski
a. True c. Cremasteric
b. False d. Deep tendon reflex
63. What is the other name of this structure? 75. This tract facilitates the activity of the flexor
Odontoid process muscles and inhibits the activity of the
64. This is defined as an excessive anterior extensor muscles.
curvature of the lumbar region a. Corticospinal tract
a. Kyphosis b. Vestibulospinal tract
b. Lordosis c. Rubrospinal tract
c. Scoliosis d. Reticulospinal tract
d. Gibbus 76. This tract provides a pathway by which the
65. What ligament connects the laminae of hypothalamus can control the sympathetic and
adjacent vertebrae? parasympathetic outflow.
a. Supraspinous ligament a. Corticospinal tract
b. Anterior longitudinal ligament b. Vestibulospinal tract
c. Intertransverse ligament c. Rubrospinal tract
d. Ligamentum flavum d. Reticulospinal tract
66. This innervates the sternocleidomastoid and 77. This tract facilitates the activity of the extensor
trapezius muscles muscles and inhibits the activity of the flexor
a. Accessory nucleus muscles.
 a. Corticospinal tract
b. Vestibulospinal tract
c. Rubrospinal tract
d. Reticulospinal tract
78. The lateral aspect of the left primary motor
activity of the right leg.
a. True
b. False
79. This follows acute severe damage to the
spinal cord where all the functions below the
lesion become depressed or lost. Spinal shock
80. Anterior cord syndrome consists of the
following except:
a. Bilateral loss of pain, temperature, and
light touch sensations
b. Ilateral spastic paralysis
c. Bilateral lower motor neuron paralysis
d. Bilateral loss of tactile discrimantion,
viratory and position sense
81. Brown-sequard syndrome consists of the
following except:
a. Ipsilateral lower motor neuron
paralysis
b. Ipsilateral loss of tactile discrimination,
vibratory and position sense
c. Ipsilateral spastic paralysis
d. Ipsilateral loss of pain and
temperature sensations
82. This condition manifests with both UMN and
LMN signs
a. Polio
b. GBS
c. ALS
d. Stoke
83. Cauda equina syndrome consists of low back
pain, temperature, asymmetric saddle
anesthesia and late bowel/bladder dysfunction
a. True
b. False
OT CORRELATES
1. Explaining the stages of recovery to a client
with CVA to the family members is an example
of:
○ Education and training
2. I am mixing the greens while at the same time
talking to you on the phone.
○ Divided attention
3. The provision of icing to a client with
decreased muscle tone is an example of:
○ Preparatory method
4. The provision of fast tapping to a client with
decreased muscle tone is an example of:
○ Preparatory method
5. The prescription of a swivel spoon is an example
of:
○ Preparatory method
6. It refers to one's state of awareness and
alertness.
○ Consciousness
7. What are the spheres of orientation?
○ "Person, place, time, situation"
8. In the Neurodevelopmental FOR, limb control
should be addressed first before axial control.
○ False
9. Facilitating the completion of the client's morning
routine is an example of:
○ Occupations and activities
10. The usage of an orthoses is seen in both
Biomechanical and Rehabilitation FORs.
○ True
11. Having the client perform 10 repetitions, 3 sets
of finger flexion using the yellow digiflex is an
example of:
○ Preparatory task
12. Principle of rest and stress:
○ Biomechanical FOR
13. An OT providing handling techniques to a child
with Cerebral Palsy to facilitate reaching may be
following the asusmptions of this FOR:
○ Neurodevelopmental
14. It refers to a state of continuous partial muscle
contraction.
○ Muscle tone
15. Which of the following tasks are considered to
be in line with the premises of the Rehabilitation
FOR?
○ Teaching proper body mechanics to
office workers
16. The OT process follows a linear approach as
you go from one task to the next.
○ False
17. Assessment of cognitive skills is also crucial in
the Rehabilitation FOR
○ True
18. The Biomechanical FOR follows up a top-down
approach.
○ False
19. Under the Biomechanical FOR, postural tone
and coordinaton would be given utmost
emphasis in the evaluation and intervention
procedures.
○ False
20. Attention falls under global mental functions.
○ False
21. Fatigue and pain are the two symptoms most
frequently mentioned in poliomyelits.
○ True
22. The provision of daily passive ROM is for the
purpose of:
○ Maintaining ROM
23. The provision of active exercises in muscular
dystropy is for the purpose of:
○ NOTA
24. Scapular protraction is compromised with a
lesion to the long thoracic nerve.
○ True
25. Clients with Guillain-Barre Syndrome would
normally have these clinical features:
○ Hypotonicity and fatigue
26. Management of sensory functions in clients with
peripheral nerve injuries include providing tactile
and proprioceptive stimulation
○ True
27. Drooping of the eyelids:
○ Ptosis
28. Clients with myasthenia gravis often complain of
dyarthria and dysphagia. It is a condition
affecting the muscle belly itself.
○ First statement is correct. Second
statement is incorrect.
29. Clients with peripheral nerve injuries have
corresponding perceptual and cognitive deficits.
○ False
30. Clients with Duchenne muscular dystophy are
typically observed with a (-) Gowers' sign.
○ False
31. Clients with thoracodrosal nerve injury would
have significant difficulty performing functional
mobility using crutches.
○ True
32. Clients with poliomyelitis would have increased
muscle tone. They have a characteristic
flexion-abduction contratcure of the hip.
○ First statement is incorrect. Second
statement is correct.
33. The dual innervation of the interossei may
contribute to the retaining of MCP flexion in the
lateral two fingers. The lumbricals extend the
IPs.
○ First statement is incorrect. Second
statement is correct.
34. Lesion to C5-C6 may cause difficulty reaching
for your back pocket. A lesion to the
musculocutaneous nerve may result to difficulty
managing door knobs.
○ Both statements are correct.
35. The usage of cognitive behavioral therapy in
pain management is backed up with literature.
○ True
36. Shoulder shrugs may be compromised with C5
lesion. External rotation may be weakened if
there is a lesion in the suprascapular nerve.
○ Both statements are correct.
37. Clients with muscular dystophy has an
affectation in the nerve fiber. They normally
report of an abrupt recovery process.
○ Both statements are incorrect.
38. Retrograde massage is given to address:
○ Edema
39. The purpose for recommending splints is to
 ○ Options A, B, C = 3, MMT of the remaining muscle groups = 2-
40. Educating clients with energy conservation, work Given these data, what is the ASIA grading?
simplification, and joint protection techniques is ○ D
in line with the premises of: 60. There is some degree of motor activity in parts
○ Rehabilitation FOR below the level of lesion in ASIA B.
41. In the event that there is weakness of finger ○ False
flexors in SCI clients, what muscles groups
should be strengthened to faciliate stronger
gripping?
○ Wrist extensors
42. Progressive resistive exercises may be provided
for partially innervated muscles.
○ True
43. Recommended managament for heterotopic
ossification:
○ Provision of PROM exercises
44. SCI Level = C5, wrist extensors MMT = 2+,
elbow extensors MMT = 2, MMT of the
remaining muscle groups = 2- Given these data,
what is the ASIA grading?
○ C
45. It is important to evaluate for light touch and
pressure senstation in SCI clients.
○ True
46. Which procedure should be performed in SCI
clients experiencing orthostatic hypotension?
○ Elevating the legs
47. Strengthening of elbow flexors is warranted in
C6, ASIA A injuries because:
○ Strengthening the remaining parts will
greatly aid task completion
48. In C7, ASIA A, there is still an intact sensation
on C7 dermatome.
○ True
49. Strengthening of elbow extensors is not
warranted in C5, ASIA A because:
○ Elbow extensors are paralyzed
50. Strengthening of wrist extensors is warranted in
C6, ASIA A because:
○ Strengthening the remaining parts will
greatly aid task completion
51. Key muscle groups at L3
○ Knee extensors
52. A damage to structures past the anterior gray
horn may produce spasticity.
○ False
53. Key muscle groups at C8:
○ Finger flexors
54. What is the rationale for the prescription of
dorsal splints?
○ Maximizing sensory feedback
55. In what level of SCI injury will the usage of
universal cuff be recommended?
○ C7
56. Which procedure should be performed in SCI
clients experiencing autonomic dysreflexia?
○ Removing the noxious stimulus
57. Long-term memory and executive functions may
be compromised in C3, ASIA clients.
○ False
58. The lack of forearm supination necessary for
scooping food in SCI clients may be
compensated with the usage of:
○ Swivel spoon
59. SCI Level = C6, elbow extensors MMT = 3+,
finger flexors MMT = 3+, finger abductors MMT