COMMUNICATION SKILLS

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
1. Hung was invited to Hoa's party. He wants to thank her for the lovely party. Choose the most suitable
response to fill in the blank in the following exchange.
- Hung: "Thank you very much for a lovely party."
- Hoa: "……………………….…….".
A. Thanks B. Have a good day
C. You are welcome D. Cheers
2. Mary has a special meal tonight. She has just made friend with Steven, so she wants to invite him to
have dinner with her. Choose the most suitable response to fill in the blank in the following exchange.
- Mary: “ Would you like to have dinner with me?”
- Steven: “ …………………………”
A. Yes, it is. Isn’t it? B. Yes, I’d love to C. Yes, so do I D. I’ve had enough
3. John was in Hanoi and wanted to send a parcel to his parents. He asked a local passer-by the way to
the post-office. Choose the most suitable response to fill in the blank in the following exchange.
- John: “Can you show me the way to the nearest post office, please?”
- Passer-by: “…………………………….”
A. Not way, sorry. B. Just round the corner over there.
C. Look it up in a dictionary! D. There’s no traffic near here.
4. Lora has just bought a new skirt that she likes very much. Choose the most suitable response to fill in
the blank in the following exchange.
-Jane: “You look great in that red skirt, Lora!”
-Lora: “ ………………………………”
A. No, I don't think so. B. Oh, you don't like it, do you?
C. Thanks, I bought it at Macy’s. D. Thanks, my mum bought it.
5. Ken and Tom are high-school students. They are discussing where their study group will meet.
Ken: “Where is our study group going to meet next weekend?” – Tom: “ ……………………...”
A. Studying in a group is great fun. B. We are too busy on weekdays.
C. Why don’t you look at the atlas? D. The library would be best.
6. Sue and Mira are talking about the use of mobile phone in class.
Sue: “Students should not be allowed to use mobile phone in class.”
Mira: “ ………………………. This will distract them from studying.”
A. Not really B. No way! It’s useful
C. I’m of the opposite opinion D. I quite agree
7. Jenny and Jimmy are talking about university education.
- Jenny: “I think having a university degree is the only way to succeed in life.”
- Jimmy: “ ………………….. There were successful people without a degree.”
A. That’s all right. B. I don’t quite agree.
C. I can’t agree more. D. That’s life.
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8. Silas is talking to his roommate, Salah, about the Olympic Games.
- Silas: “Do you think our country can host the Olympic Games some day in the future?”
- Salah: “……………………….. We can’t afford such a big event.”
A. No, I don’t think so. B. You can say that again.
C. I can’t agree with your more. D. Yes, you’re right.
9. Lien was walking her dogs in the park, she met Lan accidentally.
- Lan: “How lovely your pets are!”
- Lien: “ ……………………………….”
A. Thank you, it's nice of you to say so B. Really? They are
C. Can you say that again D. I love them, too
10. Thorny enters the meeting room and sees a lot of men. He is asking one of the men near the door.
- Thorny: “Excuse me. I don’t want to interrupt you but...”
- The man: “…………………….………”
A. What can I do for you? B. Certainly. How dare you!
C. I quite agree D. I have no idea
11. Husha and Honish are talking about Trishie after watching her music performance.
- Husha: “Trishie’s the best singer in our school.”
- Honish: “………………………….”
A. Yes, please. B. I couldn’t agree with you more.
C. That’s OK! D. Yes, tell me about it.
12. Luca is at Noi Bai Airport. She wants to exchange some money, she is talking to Paula - a clerk at a
currency exchange kiosk.
- Luca: “I'd like to change some money.” Paula: “ ………………………………”
A. Five tens, please B. Which currency?
C. You haven't signed it. D. What's your account number?
13. Yuki and Hana are having a free afternoon. Yuki is inviting Hana to see a new movie with him.
- Yuki: "Do you feel like going to the cinema this afternoon?"
- Hana: “ ……………………………...”
A. I don't agree. I'm afraid B. I feel very bored
C. You're welcome D. That would be great
14. David is talking to Lucy about her painting.
- David: “What a beautiful painting!”
- Lucy: “____________”
A. No problem B. It’s on the wall
C. I’m glad you like it D. You’re welcome.
15. Peter and Dane are talking about environmental protection.
- Peter: “We should limit the use of plastic bags.”
- Dane: “____________. We can use paper bags instead.”
A. I completely agree. B. It’s not true.
C. I don’t quite agree D. You’re wrong.
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16. David is apologising to his teacher for being late.
- David: “Sorry I’m late! The traffic is so heavy.”
- Teacher: “____________. Come in and sit down.”
A. You’re so kind B. It’s alright C. Me neither D. Thank you
17. Peter and Mary are talking about social networks.
- Peter: “Using social networks may have negative effects on students.”
- Mary: “____________. It distracts them from their studies.”
A. I’m not sure about that B. I don’t quite agree
C. You’re wrong D. That’s quite true
18. Linda and Peter are talking about safe driving.
- Linda: “I think drink-driving should be severely punished.”
- Peter: “____________. It may cause accidents or even deaths.”
A. You must be kidding B. I don’t think so
C. I don’t understand what you mean D. I absolutely agree with you
19. A porter is talking to Mary in the hotel lobby.
- Porter: “May I help you with your suitcase?”
- Mary: “____________”
A. What a shame B. Me too C. You’re welcome D. Yes, please
20. John is having dinner at Linda’s house.
- John: “This roast beef is so delicious.”
- Linda:”____________”
A. sure. I’d love to B. I’m glad you like it.
C. No, don’t worry. D. I don’t either.
21. Joana and David, two lectures, are talking about library skills.
- Joana: “I think we should teach our students how to use the library.”
- David:”____________
A. You’re absolutely wrong B. You must be kidding
C. I couldn’t agree with you more D. That’s not a good idea
22. A shop assistant is talking to a customer.
- Shop assistant: “Do you need anything else?”
- Customer:”____________”
A. That’s all. Thanks B. Good job! C. With pleasure D. You’re welcome
23. Ann and Peter are talking about housework.
- Ann: “ I think children should be paid for doing the housework.”
- Peter: “____________. It’s their duty in the family.”
A. That’s what I think B. You’re exactly right
C. There’s no doubt about it D. I don’t think so
24. Ken and Tom are high-school students. They are discussing where their study group will meet.
- Ken: “Where is our study group going to meet next weekend?”
- Tom: “____________.”
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 A. Studying in a group is great fun. B. We are too busy on weekdays.
C. Why don’t you look at the atlas? D. The library would be best.
25. Mike and Lane are university students. They are talking about Lane’s upcoming high-school reunion.
- Mike: “So, you have your fifth high-school reunion coming up?”
- Lane: “…………………….”
A. Oh, the school reunion was wonderful. B. No. You’re in no mood for the event.
C. The food at the reunion was excellent. D. Yeah. I’m really looking forward to it.
26. A waiter in a restaurant is talking to a customer who has just finished his meal there.
- Waiter: “Here’s your bill, sir.”
- Customer: “____________”
A. Don’t mention it. B. Can I pay by credit card?
C. What do you have? D. You’re welcome.
27. Two close friends Tom and Kyle are talking about Kyle’s upcoming birthday.
- Tom: “Can I bring a friend to your birthday party?”
- Kyle: “____________”
A. It’s my honour. B. Let’s do it then.
C. The more the merrier. D. That’s right.
28. Two friends Diana and Anne are talking about Anne’s new blouse.
- Diana: “That blouse suits you perfectly, Anne.”
- Anne: “____________’’.
A. Never mind. B. Don’t mention it.
C. Thank you. D. You’re welcome.
29. Mary is talking to a porter in the hotel lobby.
- Porter: “Shall I help you with your suitcase?”
- Mary: “____________”
A. Not a chance. B. That’s very kind of you.
C. I can’t agree more. D. What a pity!
30. Susan accidentally stepped on Denise’s foot.
- Susan: “Oops! I’m sorry, Denise.”
- Denise: “____________”
A. You shouldn’t do that. B. It’s alright.
C. You are welcome. D. It’s nonsense.
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ĐỀ SỐ 4
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. supportive B. substantial C. compulsory D. curriculum
Question 2: A. campaigns B. wonders C. ecologists D. captions
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
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Question 3: A. limit B. capture C. advance D. double
Question 4: A. respectable B. affectionate C. occasional D. kindergarten
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each the following questions.
Question 5: The death rate would decrease if hygienic conditions improved.
A. are B. have been C. were D. had been
Question 6: John: “The instructions were in French and I translated them into English for
him.”
Anna: “You . He knows French.”
A. shouldn’t have translated B. can’t have translated
C. needn’t have translated D. wouldn’t have translated
Question 7: In 2006, the news agency Reuters withdrew from sale 920 pictures taken by a
photographer because two images taken in Lebanon were to have been digitally manipulated.
A. believed B. suggested C. announced D. recommended
Question 8: He walked from the court a free man, having been of murder.
A. unconvinced B. discharged C. liberated D. acquitted
Question 9: Everyone laughed when he the teacher so well.
A. looked up B. took off C. sent off D. called up
Question 10: How did the framers put into _ the idea of popular sovereignty expressed
in the Declaration of Independence?
A. practice B. trial C. test D. examination
Question 11: You can’t wash this jacket in the washing machine – you need to get it .
A. dry-cleaning B. spin-dried C. spring-cleaned D. clean dried
Question 12: Candidates should never be late for the interview, .
A. should they B. shouldn’t they C. are they D. aren’t they
Question 13: Ho Chi Minh City authorities opened its Lunar New Year (Tet) 2018
Flower Street on Nguyen Hue Pedestrian Street on the evening of February 13 and
people feel like
their time here.
A. enjoy B. to enjoy C. enjoying D. enjoyed
Question 14: Politicians blame the media if they don’t win the election. They are
so predictable.
A. variable B. variety C. various D. invariably
Question 15: The new political party came to the after the general election.
A. fore B. back C. side D. front
Question 16: , dolphins have no sense of smell.
A. As know as far B. As far as is known C. It is known as far D. Known as far as
it is
Question 17: A high school teacher is talking to her
colleague. Teacher: “I’ve been working at this school for 35
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years.” Colleague: “ ”
A. Why did you leave? B. Are you going to retire soon?
C. Why had you left? D. Will you retire?
Question 18: Two university students Lando and Larry are talking while doing their
practice test.
Lando: “ ?”
Larry: “Well, actually I’d rather you didn’t.”
A. Would you bother if I had a look at your paper B. Would you mind giving me a
hand
C. Can I help you D. May I go out
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Endangered species
There are three valid arguments to support the preservation of endangered species.
Aesthetic justification contends that biodiversity contributes to the quality of life because
many of the endangered plants and animals are particularly appreciated for their unique
physical beauty. The aesthetic role of nature in all its diverse forms is reflected in the art
and literature of every culture attaining symbolic status in the spiritual life of many groups.
According to the proponents of the aesthetic argument, people need nature in all its diverse
and beautiful forms as part of the experience of the world.
Another argument that has been put forward, especially by groups in the medical and
pharmacological fields, is that of ecological self-interest. By preserving all species, we
retain a balance of nature that is ultimately beneficial to humankind. Recent research
on global
ecosystems has been cited as evidence that every species contributes important or even
essential functions that may be necessary to the survival of our own species. Some
advocates of the ecological argument contend that important chemical compounds derived
from rare plants may contain the key to a cure for one of the diseases currently threatening
human beings. If we do not protect other species, then they cannot protect us.
Apart from human advantage in both the aesthetic and ecological arguments, the
proponents of a moral justification contend that all species have the right to exist, a
viewpoint stated in the United Nations World Charter for Nature, created in 1982.
Furthermore, if humankind views itself as the stewards of all the creatures on Earth, then
it is incumbent upon human beings to protect them, and to ensure the continued existence
of all species. Moral justification has been extended by a movement called “deep ecology,”
the members of which rank the biosphere higher than people because the continuation of
life depends on this larger perspective. To carry their argument to its logical conclusion,
all choices must be made for the biosphere, not for people.
Question 19: : Which of the following is the main topic of the passage?
A. The beauty of the world B. The quality of life
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C. The preservation of species D. The balance of nature
Question 20: Which of the arguments supports animal rights?
A. Aesthetic justification B. Ecological argument
C. Self-interest argument D. Moral justification
Question 21: The word “perspective” in the 3rd paragraph could best be replaced by
A. idea B. event C. truth D. view
Question 22: The word “them” in the 3rd paragraph refers to .
A. humankind B. stewards C. creatures D. human beings
Question 23: Where in the passage does the author explain how rare species contribute to the
health of the human species?
A. line 1-3 B. line 5-6 C. line 11-13 D. line 18-20
Question 24: According to the passage, what do we know from research on global
ecosystem?
A. Nature is very diverse. B. A balance of nature is important.
C. Humans have a responsibility to nature D. Nature represents spiritual values.
Question 25: The author mentioned all of the following as justifications for the
protection of endangered species EXCEPT .
A. the natural compounds needed for medicinesB. the intrinsic value of the beauty of nature
C. the control of pollution in the biosphere D. the right to life implied by their
existence
Question 26: It can be inferred from the passage that the author .
A. is a member of the “deep ecology” movement
B. does not agree with ecological self-interest
C. supports all of the arguments to protect species
D. participated in drafting the Charter for Nature
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Why read books?
Is it worth reading books, (27) nowadays there are so many other forms of entertainment?
Some people say that even paperback books are expensive, and not everyone can borrow
books from a library. They might add that television is more exciting and that viewers can
relax as they watch their favourite (28) . All that may be true, but books are still
very popular. They encourage the reader to use his or her imagination for a start. You can
read a chapter of a book, or just a few pages, and then stop. Of course, it may be so (29)
that you can’t stop! There are many different kinds of books, so you can choose a
crime novel or an autobiography, or a book (30) gives you interesting information. If
you find it hard to choose, you can read reviews, or ask friends for ideas. Personally, I can’t
do without books, but I can (31) up television easily enough. You can’t watch
television at bus stops!
Question 27: A. in B. or C. why D. since
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Question 28: A. ones B. programmes C. episodes D. cereals
Question 29: A. current B. imagined C. interest D. gripping
Question 30: A. whose B. which C. what D. when
Question 31: A. pick B. look C. give D. turn
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs
correction.
Question 32: To avoid confusion, the two twins never wear the same clothes.
A. To avoid B. two twins C. wear D. same
Question 33: If one has a special medical condition such as diabetes, epilepsy, or allergy,
it is advisable that they carry some kind of identification in order to avoid being given
improper medication in an emergency.
A. has B. they C. carry D. being
Question 34: To remove strains from permanent press clothing, carefully soaking in cold
water before washing with a regular detergent.
A. from B. carefully soaking C. before washing D. a
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 35: In order to pass all exam with flying colours, you should concentrate on
your study as well as take some useful tips to reduce stress and anxiety.
A. be related B. be interested in C. pay no attention to D. express interest
to
Question 36: He was found guilty of bribery. Now his reputation is under a cloud.
A. a glow of pride B. a shame C. out of reach D. open to doubt
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 37: Polio is one of the top ten incurable diseases that modern medicine has
failed to eradicate.
A. disabling B. vexatious C. dangerous D. irreparable
Question 38: Jane and Fed are both in their forties so they’re going into marriage with
their eyes wide open.
A. wide awake B. with great surprise
C. fully aware of what they are doing D. with people’s admiration
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
The Art World
One of the major problems in the art world is how to distinguish and promote an artist. In
effect, a market must be created for an artist to be successful. The practice of signing and
numbering individual prints was introduced by James Abbott McNeill Whistler, the nineteenth-
century artist best known for the painting of his mother, called “Arrangement in Grey and
Black”, but known to most of us as “Whistler’s Mother”. Whistler’s brother-in-law, Sir Francis
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Seymour Haden, a less well-known artist, had speculated that collectors might find prints more
attractive if they knew that there were only a limited number of copies produced. By signing
the work in pencil, an artist could guarantee and personalize each print.
As soon as Whistler and Haden began the practice of signing and numbering their prints, their
work began to increase in value. When other artists noticed that the signed prints commanded
higher prices, they began copying the procedure.
Although most prints are signed on the right-hand side in the margin below the image, the
placement of the signature is a matter of personal choice. Indeed, prints have been signed within
image, in any of the margins, or even on the reverse side of the’print. Wherever the artist elects
to sign it, a signed print is still valued above an unsigned one, even in the same edition.
Question 39: Which of the following would be a better title for the passage?
A. Whistler’s Mother. B. Whistler’s Greatest Works.
C. The Practice of Signing Prints. D. Copying Limited Edition Prints.
Question 40: What made Whistler’s work more valuable?
A. His fame as an artist. B. His painting of his mother.
C. His signature on the prints. D. His brother-in-law’s prints.
Question 41: The word “speculated” in the paragraph 1 could best be replaced by .
A. guessed B. noticed C. denied D. announced
Question 42: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to .
A. the same edition B. the image
C. the reverse side D. a print
Question 43: What was true about the painting of Whistler’s mother?
A. It was painted by Sir Francis Haden.
B. Its title was “Arrangement in Grey and Black”.
C. It was not one of Whistler’s best paintings.
D. It was a completely new method of painting.
Question 44: The author mentions all of the following as reasons why a collector prefers
a signed print EXCEPT .
A. it guarantees the print’s authenticity B. it makes the print more personal
C. it encourages higher prices for the print D. it limits the number of copies of the
print
Question 45: It can be inferred from the passage that artists number their prints .
A. as an accounting procedure B. to guarantee a limited edition
C. when the buyer requests it D. at the same place on earth of the prints
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 46: I did not read his book. I did not understand what the lecturer was saying.
A. What the lecturer wrote and said was too difficult for me to understand.
B. I found it very difficult to understand what the lecturer said in his book.
C. I would have understood what the lecturer was saying if I had read his book.
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D. The lecturer’s book which I had not read was difficult to understand.
Question 47: When I had finished the report, I went out for a cup of coffee.
A. Finishing the report, I went out for a cup of coffee.
B. Having finished the report, i went out for a cup of coffee.
C. Going out for a cup of coffee, I finished my report.
D. To finish the report, I went out for a cup of coffee.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 48: People believe that the weather is changing dramatically.
A. The weather is believed to be changing dramatically.
B. The weather is believed to have changed dramatically.
C. The weather is believed to change dramatically.
D. The weather is believed to have been changing dramatically.
Question 49: “Why don’t you get your hair cut, Gavin?” said Adam.
A. Adam advised Gavin to cut his hair.
B. Gavin was suggested to have a haircut.
C. It was suggested that Adam get Gavin’s hair cut.
D. Adam suggested that Gavin should have his hair cut.
Question 50: The plane had taken off. Paul realized he was on the wrong flight.
A. Hardly had Paul realized he was on the wrong flight when the plane took off.
B. It was not until the plane had taken off, did Paul realize he was on the wrong flight.
C. Not until the plane had taken off, did Paul realize he was on the wrong flight.
D. No sooner had the plane taken off than Paul had realized he was on the wrong flight.
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ĐỀ SỐ 5
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE
in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 1: Experts say that another outbreak of flu epidemic is on the cards.
A. likely to happen B. unlikely to occur C. to be prevented D. on the increase
Question 2: We have known each other long enough that I will forgive you this discourtesy.
A. politeness B. rudeness C. measurement D.
encouragement Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 3: Ms. Black and Ms. White are talking about Mr. Brown’s upcoming retirement.
Ms. Black: “Mr. Brown is going to retire next month.”
Ms. White: “ ”.
A. Oh, I have no idea. B. You don't say!
C. Right, you'd probably be the next. D. Congratulations!
Question 4: Mandy has got a bad news. She is talking to Mano about it.
Mandy: “ .”
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Mano: "Never mind, better luck next time.”
A. I've broken your precious vase. B. I have a lot on my mind.
C. I couldn't keep my mind on work. D. I didn't get the vacant position.
Question 5: Nobody could have predicted that the show would arouse so much interest
and that over two hundred people away.
A. would turn B. would have turned
C. would have to be turned D. had been turned
Question 6: Students should never to violence to solve any problems.
A. exert B. resolve C. resort D. recourse
Question 7: The novelty of married life seems to if the couple involved don't have
ways to renew their love.
A. turn out B. do without C. fade in D. wear off
Question 8: Tom was serious when he said he wanted to be an actor when he grew up.
We at him. We hurt his feelings.
A. needn’t have laughed B. couldn’t have laughed
C. shouldn’t have laughed D. mustn’t have laughed
Question 9: It never my head that such great Bulgarian rose festivals would be
held in Hanoi, our capital city.
A. struck B. dawned C. occurred D. entered
Question 10: Only one of the people was qualified for the job.
A. interviewed B. interviewing C. to interview D. who
interviewing Question 11: After one hour’s performance of many famous singers heating
up My Dinh Stadium, out .
A. Park Hang-seo and his disciples came B. did Park Hang-seo and his disciples
come
C. came Park Hang-seo and his disciples D. be Park Hang-seo and his disciples
coming
Question 12: With all due respect, I think your comments are .
A. short-sighted B. far-sighted C. single-minded D. single -handed
Question 13: It is alleged that mothers and grandmothers spoil the children by their
mistakes.
A. neglecting B. overlooking C. avoiding D. passing
Question 14: Internet Service is the latest mode of which helps us get
required information directly
through computers by opening the site.
A. communicate B. communication C. communicative D. communicator
Question 15: Despite all the evidence, he wouldn’t admit that he was in the .
A. fault B. error C. wrong D. slip
Question 16: I don’t suppose there is anything wrong with this sentence, ?
A. is there B. isn't there C. do I D. don't I
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 17: An important factor should be considered is Mr. Lopez's ability to keep the new
restaurant going for several months with limited revenue.
A. should be considered B. ability C. for several D.
with limited revenue
Question 18: I think we have sufficient enough information to write the report.
A. sufficient enough B. information C. write D. the report
Question 19: Energy research, medicinal, tourism, and copper are important to the economy
of Butte, Montana.
A. medicinal B. copper C. to D. economy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in the pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 20: A. supports B. computers C. machines D.
armchairs Question 21: A. famous B. nervous C. loud D.
serious Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that
differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following
questions
Question 22: A. entrance B. handle C. demand D. measure
Question 23: A. photocopy B. particular C. enthusiasm D. economy
Mark the letter A, B, C or D your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: The 2004 Indian Ocean earthquake, measured 9.1 on the Richter scale,
occurring on 26 December wiped out a large number of residential coastal areas.
A. eradicated B. paid off C. bumped off D. gave up
Question 25: The National Institute of Mental Health is conducting far-reaching research to
determine the psychological effects of using drugs.
A. refined B. extensive C. prevalent D. tentative
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Most forms of property are concrete and tangible, such as houses, cars, furniture or anything
else that is included in one’s possessions. Other forms of property can be intangible,
and copyright deals with intangible forms of property. Copyright is a legal protection extended
to authors of creative works, for example, books, magazine articles, maps, films, plays,
television shows, software, paintings, photographs, music, choreography in dance and all other
forms of intellectual or artistic property.
Although the purpose of artistic property is usually public use and enjoyment, copyright
establishes the ownership of the creator. When a person buys a copyrighted magazine, it
belongs to this individual as a tangible object. However, the authors of the magazine articles
own the research and the writing that went into creating the articles. The right to make and sell
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or give away copies of books or articles belongs to the authors, publishers, or other individuals
or organizations that hold the copyright. To copy an entire book or a part of it, permission
must be received from the copyright owner, who will most likely expect to be paid.
Copyright law distinguishes between different types of intellectual property. Music maybe
played by anyone after it is published. However, if it is performed for profit, the performers
need to pay a fee, called a royalty. A similar principle applies to performances of songs and
plays. On the other hand, names, ideas, and book titles are excepted. Ideas do not become
copyrighted property until they are published in a book, a painting or a musical work. Almost
all artistic work created before the 20th century is not copyrighted because it was created
before the copyright law was passed.
The two common ways of infringing upon the copyright are plagiarism and piracy. Plagiarizing the
work of another person means passing it off as one’s own. The word plagiarism is derived from the
Latin plagiarus, which means “abductor”. Piracy may be an act of one person, but, in many cases, it
is a joint effort of several people who reproduce copyrighted material and sell it for profit without
paying royalties to the creator. Technological innovations have made piracy easy and anyone can
duplicate a motion picture on videotape, a computer program, or a book. Video cassette recorders
can be used by practically anyone to copy movies and television programs, and copying software
has become almost as easy as copying a book. Large companies zealously monitor their
copyrights for slogans, advertisements, and brand names, protected by a trademark.
Question 26: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Legal rights of property owners. B. Legal ownership of creative work.
C. Examples of copyright piracy. D. Copying creating work for profit.
Question 27: The word “principle” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to .
A. crucial point B. cardinal role C. fundamental rule D. formidable force
Question 28: Which of the following properties is NOT mentioned as protected by copyright?
A. music and plays B. paintings and maps
C. printed medium D. scientific discoveries
Question 29: It can be inferred from the passage that it is legal if .
A. two songs, written by two different composers, have the same melody
B. two books, written by two different authors, have the same titles
C. two drawings, created by two different artists, have the same images
D. two plays, created by two different playwrights, have the same plot and characters
Question 30: With which of the following statements is the author most likely to agree?
A. Teachers are not allowed to make copies of published materials for use by their
students.
B. Plays written in the 16th century cannot be performed in theaters without permission.
C. Singers can publicly sing only the songs for which they wrote the music and the
lyrics.
D. It is illegal to make photographs when sightseeing or traveling.

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 Question 31: The phrase “infringing upon” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
A. impinging upon B. inducting for C. violating D. abhorring
Question 32: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refer to .
A. ideas B. names C. titles D. performances
Question 33: According to the passage, copyright law is .
A. meticulously observed B. routinely ignored
C. frequently debated D. zealously enforced
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Cooperation is the common endeavor of two or more people to perform a task or reach a jointly
cherished goal. Like competition and conflict, there are different forms of cooperation, based
on group organization and attitudes.
In the first form, known as primary cooperation, group and individual fuse. The group contains
nearly all of each individual’s life. The rewards of the group’s work are shared with each
member. There is an interlocking identity of individual, group and task performed. Means and
goals become one, for cooperation itself is valued.
While primary cooperation is most often characteristic of preliterate societies, secondary
cooperation is characteristic of many modem societies. In secondary cooperation, individuals
devote only part of their lives to the group. Cooperation itself is not a value. Most members of
the group feel loyalty, but the welfare of the group is not the first consideration. Members
perform tasks so that they can separately enjoy the fruits of their cooperation in the form of
salary, prestige, or power. Business offices and professional athletic teams are examples of
secondary cooperation.
In the third type, called tertiary cooperation or accommodation, latent conflict underlies the
shared work. The attitudes of the cooperating parties are purely opportunistic: the organization
is loose and fragile. Accommodation involves common means to achieve antagonistic goals:
it breaks down when the common means cease to aid each party in reaching its goals. This is
not, strictly speaking, cooperation at all, and hence the somewhat contradictory term
antagonistic cooperation is sometimes used for this relationship.
Question 34: What is the author’s main purpose in the first paragraph of the passage?
A. To urge readers to cooperate more often.
B. To offer a brief definition of cooperation.
C. To explain how cooperation differs from competition and conflict.
D. To show the importance of group organization and attitudes.
Question 35: The word “cherished” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to .
A. defined B. agreed on C. prized D. set up
Question 36: Which of the following statements about primary cooperation is supported by
information in the passage?
A. It is usually the first stage of cooperation achieved by a group of individuals attempting to
cooperate.
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B. It is most commonly seen among people who have not yet developed reading and writing
skills.
C. It is an ideal that can never be achieved.
D. It was confined to prehistoric times.
Question 37: According to the passage, why do people join groups that practice
secondary cooperation?
A. To experience the satisfaction of cooperation.
B. To associate with people who have similar backgrounds.
C. To get rewards for themselves.
D. To defeat a common enemy.
Question 38: Which of the following is an example of the third form of cooperation as it
is defined in the fourth paragraph?
A. Students form a study group so that all of them can improve their grades.
B. Members of a farming community share work and the food that they grow.
C. Two rival political parties temporarily work together to defeat a third party.
D. A new business attempts to take customers away from an established company.
Question 39: Which of the following is NOT given as a name for the third type of
cooperation?
A. Tertiary cooperation B. Antagonistic cooperation
C. Accommodation D. Latent conflict
Question 40: The word “fragile” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to .
A. involuntary B. poorly planned C. inefficient D. easily broken
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Stories about how people somehow know when they are being watched have been going
around for years. However, few attempts have been made to investigate the phenomenon
scientifically. Now, with the completion of the largest ever study of the so- called staring
effect, there is impressive evidence that this is a recognizable and genuine sixth sense. The
study involved hundreds of children. For the experiments, they sat with their eyes (41) so
they could not see, and with their backs to other children, who were told to either stare at
them or look away. Time and time again the results showed that the children who could
not see were able to tell when they were being stared at. In a total of more than 18, 000
trials (42) worldwide, the children correctly sensed when they were being watched almost
70% of the time. The experiment was repeated with the added precaution of putting the
children who were being watched outside the room, (43)
from the starters by the windows. This was done just
in case there was some pretending going on with the children telling each other whether
they were looking or not. This prevented the possibility of sounds being transmitted
between the children. The results, (44)
less impressive, were more or less the same. Dr.
15
Sheldrake, the biologist (45) designed the study, believes that the results are
convincing enough to find out through further experiments precisely how the staring effect
might actually came about.
Question 41: A. shaded B. covered C. masked D. wrapped
Question 42: A. worked over B. carried out C. carried on D. worked through
Question 43: A. parted B. separated C. split D. divided
Question 44: A. though B. however C. even D. quite
Question 45: A. which B. whose C. who D. whom
Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 46: John is studying hard. He doesn’t want to fail the next exam.
A. John is studying hard in order not to fail the next exam.
B. John is studying hard in order that he not fail the next exam.
C. John is studying hard so as to fail the next exam.
D. John is studying hard in order to not to fail the next exam.
Question 47: She gave in her notice. She planned to start her new job in January.
A. She gave in her notice, plan to start her new job in January.
B. She gave in her notice with a view to starting her new job in January.
C. Her notice was given in with an aim to start her new job in January.
D. Her notice was given in order for her to start her new job in January.
Mark the letter A, B, c or Don your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 48: He might have forgotten the place you’d arranged to meet at.
A. Perhaps he didn’t remember where you were going to meet.
B. You planned to meet him at a place that he’d forgotten about
C. He didn’t remember meeting you at that time.
D. He couldn’t remember where the meeting place was.
Question 49: They recommend that the hotel should be redecorated.
A. The hotel should be recommended to be redecorated.
B. The hotel is recommended to be redecorated.
C. The hotel is recommended to have redecorated.
D. The hotel was recommended to be redecorated.
Question 50: “You're always making terrible mistakes”, said the teacher.
A. The teacher asked his students why they always made terrible mistakes.
B. The teacher realized that his students always made terrible mistakes.
C. The teacher complained about his students making terrible mistakes.
D. The teacher made his students not always make terrible mistakes.
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 ĐỀ SỐ 6

Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following question.
Question 1: Your drink cost $40, you gave me a $50 note and here is your .
A. change B. supply C. cash D. cost
Question 2: People can become very when they are stuck in traffic for a long time.
A. single-minded B. bad-tempered C. even-tempered D. even-handed
Question 3: Jasmine, ,grows only in warm places.
A. is a vine plant with fragrant flowers B. a vine plant with fragrant flowers
C. that is a vine plant with fragrant flowers D. a vine plant with fragrant flowers it is
Question 4: Our car because it’s not where it’s normally parked in the parking lot.
A. should have been stolen B. would have been stolen
C. must have been stolen D. need have been stolen
Question 5: Though we were after hard-working days, we tried to help our
parents redecorate the house to welcome Tet.
A. exhaustion B. exhausted C. exhausting D. exhaustive
Question 6: At the 2015 Women in the World Summit, Hilary Clinton asserted that
“ cultural codes, religious beliefs and structural biases have to be changed”.
A. deep-seated B. deep-seating C. seated-deep D. seating-deep
Question 7: It’s important that we this message to young people.
A. go/over B. get/down C. get/over D. go/for
Question 8: Miss Diligent did nine hour’s studying a day for het exam.
A. heavy B. solid C. powerful D. big
Question 9: “At the start of the 19th century, the highest- newspaper in the
United Kingdom was The Morning Post, which sold around 4,000 copies per day.”
A. distribution B. coverage C. circulation D. sales
Question 10: Marketing this new product will be expansive, but it will be worth
the money we spend on it.
A. at long last B. down the years C. in the event D. in the long run
Question 11: Laura start a conversation with Maya-Jane’s sister.
Laura: “You must be Jane’s sister. Glad to meet you.”
Maya: “ ”
A. I am, either. B. So I am. I’m glad C. What do you do? D. Me too.
Question 12: The boys _ that they had broken the window, but I’m sure they did.
A. refused B. denied C. objected D. reject
Question 13: Lien was walking her dogs in the park, she met Lan accidentally.
Lan: “How lovely you pets are!”
Lien: “ ”
A. Thank you, it’s nice of you to say so B. Really? They are
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C. Can you say that again D. I love them, too
Question 14: If our team U23Uzbekistan in the final match, we the
champion now.
A. have defeated/ would be B. defeats/ will be
C. defeated/ would be D. had defeated/ would be
Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 15: Transplanting organs such hearts and kidneys had proved easier than
transplanting muscles.
A. such B. proved C. easier D. muscles
Question 16: On the floor of the Pacific Ocean is hundreds of flat-tipped mountains
more than a mile beneath sea level.
A. On B. is hundreds of C. more than D. beneath sea
level
Question 17: Paint must bestirred and sometimes dilution before it is applied.
A. must B. bestirred C. dilution D. applied
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the following question from 18 to 25.
The principle of use and disuse states that those parts of organisms’ bodies that are used grown
larger. Those parts that are not tend to wither away. It is an observed fact that when you
exercise particular muscles, they grow. Those that are never used dimish. By examining a
man’s body, we can tell which muscles he uses and which he doesn’t. We may even be able
to guess his profession or his reaction. Enthusiasts of the “body-building” cult make use of the
principle of
use and disuse to “build” their bodies, almost like a piece of sculpture, into whatever unnatural
shape is demanded by fashion in this peculiar minority culture. Muscles are not the only parts
of the body that respond to use in this kind of way. Walk barefoot and you acquire harder skin
on your soles. It is easy to tell a famer from a bank teller by looking at their hands alone. The
famer’s hands are horny, hardened by long exposure to rough work. The teller’s hands are
relatively soft.
The principle of use and disuse enables animals to become better at the job of surviving in
their world, progressively better during their lifetime as result of living in that world. Humans,
through direct exposure to sunlight, or lack of it, develop a skin color which equips them better
to survive in the particular local conditions.
Too much sunlight is dangerous. Enthusiastic sunbathers with very fair skins are susceptible
to skin cancer. Too little sunlight, on the other hand, leads to vitamin-D deficiency and rickets.
The brown pigment melanin which is synthesized under the influence of sunlight, makes a
screen to protect the underlying tissues from the harmful effects of further sunlight. If a
suntanned person moves to a less sunny climate, the melanin disappears, and the body is able
to benefit from what little sun there is. This can be represented as an instance of the principle
18
of use and disuse: skin goes brown when it is “used”, and fades to white when it is not.
Question 18: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. How the principles of use and disuse change people’s concepts of themselves.
B. The changes that occur according to the principle of use and disuse.
C. The way in which people change themselves to conform to fashion.
D. The effects of the sun on the principle of use and disuse.
Question 19: The phrase “wither away” in bold is closest in meaning to .
A. split B. rot C. perish D. shrink
Question 20: The word “Those” in bold refers to_ .
A. organisms B. bodies C. parts D. muscles
Question 21: According to the passage, men who body build
A. appear like sculptures B. change their appearance
C. belong to strange cults D. are very fashionable
Question 22: From the passage, it can be inferred that author views body building .
A. with enthusiasm B. as an artistic from C. with scientific interest D. of doubtful
benefic Question 23: It can be inferred from the passage that the principle of use and disuse
enables organisms to .
A. change their existence B. automatically benefit
C. survive in any condition D. improve their lifetime
Question 24: The author suggests that melanin .
A. is necessary for the production of vitamin DB. is beneficial in sunless climates
C. helps protect fair-skinned people D. is a synthetic product
Question 25: In the second paragraph, the author mentions sun tanning as an
example of .
A. humans improving their local condition B. humans surviving in adverse conditions
C. humans using the principle of use and disuse D. humans running the risk of skin cancer.

Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part that differs from the other three in the pronunciation in each of the following.
Question 26: A. expand B. stagnant C. vacancy D. applicant
Question 27: A. attained B. resolved C. disused D. decreased

Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from
the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following.
Question 28: A. flourish B. season C. product D. today
Question 29: A. attitude B. infamously C. geneticist D. socialist
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
THE HOSTORY OF WRITING
The development of writing (30) a huge difference to the world and
19
might see it as the beginning of the media. Pieces of pottery with marks on that are probably
numbers have been discovered in China (31) date from around 4000 BC.
Hieroglyphics and other forms of “picture writing” developed in the area around
Mesopotamia (modern-day Iraq), where the ancient Sumerian civilization was based, from
around 3300 BC onwards. However, the first (32) alphabet was used by
the Phoenicians around 1050 BC. Their alphabet had 22 letters and it is estimated that it
lasted for 1000 years. The first two signs were called “aleph” and “beth”, which in Greek
became “alpha” and “beta”, which gave us the modern word “alphabet”.
The modern European alphabet is based on the Greek and spead (33) other European
countries under the Romans. A number of changes took place as time passed. The
Romans added the letter G, and the letter J and V were unknown to people in
Shakespeare’s time.
If we (34) the history of punctuation, we also find some interesting
facts. The Romans used to write quaesto at the end of a sentence in order to show that it
was a Question. They started to write Qo in place of the whole word, and the put the Q
above the o. In the end, that became the question mark “?”
Question 30: A. did B. had C. made D. took
Question 31: A. where B. that C. who D. when
Question 32: A. true B. accurate C. exact D. precise
Question 33: A. to B. in C. with D. for
Question 34: A. look into B. bring on C. make off D. hold up
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
ENGLISH SEVENTH MEETING “SAN ANDREAS FAULT”
The San Andreas Fault line is a fracture at the congruence of two major plates of the Earth’s
crust, one of which support most of the North American continent, and the other of which
underlies the coast of California and part of the ocean floor or the Pacific Ocean. The fault
originates about six hundred miles south of the Gulf of California, runs north in an
irregular line along the western coast to San Francisco, and continues north for about two
hundred more miles before angling off into the ocean. In places, the trace of the fault is
marked by a trench, or, in geological terms, a rift, and a small ponds dot the landscape. Its
western side always move north in relation to its eastern side. The total net slip along the
San Andreas Fault and the length of time it has active are matters of conjecture, but it has
been estimated that, during the past fifteen million years, coastal California along the San
Andreas Fault has moved about 190 miles in a northwesterly direction with respect to the
North American plate. Although the movement along the fault averages only a few inches
a year, it is intermittent and variable. Some segments of the fault do not have move at all
for long periods of time, building up tremendous pressure that must be released. For this
reason, tremors are not unusual along the San Andreas Fault, some of which are classified
as major earthquakes. Also for this reason, small tremors are interpreted as safe, since they
20
are understood to be pressure that releases without causing much damage.
It is worth nothing that the San Andreas Fault passes uncomfortable close to several major
metropolitan areas, including Los Angeles and San Francisco, in addition, the San
Andreas Fault has created smaller fault systems, many of which underlie the smaller towns
and cities along the California coast. For this reason, Californians have long anticipated
the recurrence of what they refer to as “the Big One”, a chain reaction of destructive
earthquakes that would measure near 8 on the Richter scale, similar in intensity to those
that occurred in 1857 and 1906. Such a quake world wreak devastating effects on the life
and property in the region. Unfortunately, as pressure continues to build along the fault,
the likelihood of such an earthquake increases substantially.
Question 35: What is the author’s main purpose in the passage?
A. To describe the San Andreas Fault.
B. To give a definition of a fault.
C. To explain the reason for tremors and earthquakes.
D. To classify different kinds of faults.
Question 36: How does the author define the San Andreas Fault?
A. A plate that underlies the North American continent.
B. A crack in the Earth’s crust between two plates.
C. Occasional tremors and earthquakes.
D. Intense pressure that builds up.
Question 37: The word originates in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by .
A. gets wider B. changes direction C. begins D. disappears
Question 38: In which direction does the western side of the fault move?
A. West B. East C. North D. South
Question 39: The word its in the paragraph 1 refer to .
A. San Francisco B. ocean C. coast D. fault
Question 40: Along the San Andreas Fault, tremors are .
A. small and insignificant B. rare, but disastrous
C. frequent events D. very unpredictable
Question 41: The phrase “the Big One” refers to which of the following?
A. A serious earthquake B. The San Andreas Fault
C. The river scale D. California
Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 42: The Chernobyl disaster occurred on 26 April 1986 when the Chernobyl
Nuclear Power Plant near Pripyat, a town in northern Ukraine, went off.
A. demolished B. ran C. developed D. exploded
Question 43: Prior to its evacuation Chernobyl was inhabited by 16,000 people but is
now populated only by Zone administrative personnel and a number of residents who
refused to leave their homes or subsequently returned.
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A. after B. while C. when D. before
Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 44: The Democratic Party now have 59.9% of the votes, so they’re home and dry.
A. returning home B. safe and successful C. disappointed D. at risk of
losing Question 45: Having served in the White House for 34 years and assisted 8
presidents, Eugene Allen experienced crucial moment in American history during his
time here.
A. unimportant B. special C. diverse D. complex
Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentence in the following questions.
Question 46: Many doctors and nurses on duty during holidays don’t have time to relax.
They don’t have time to meet up with their families.
A. Many doctors and nurses on duty during holidays have time neither to relax nor to
meet up with their families.
B. Many doctors and nurses on duty during holidays have time neither to relax or to
meet up with their families.
C. Many doctors and nurses on duty during holidays have time either to relax or to meet
up with their families.
D. Many doctors and nurses on duty during holidays have time not only to relax but also
to meet up with their families.
Question 47: The boy lost several of his fingers because of firecrackers. The doctors are
operating on him.
A. The boy who lost several of his fingers because of firecrackers is being operating on.
B. The boy whom the doctors are operating on him lost several of his fingers because of
firecrackers.
C. The boy was whom the doctors are operating on him lost several of his fingers
because of firecrackers.
D. The doctors are operating on the boy who lost several of his fingers because of
firecrackers.
Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closets in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 48: Father said “Albert, if you break your promise, nobody will respect you.”
A. Father said that if Albert broke his promise, nobody would respect him.
B. Father warned Albert that if he broke his promise, nobody would respect him.
C. Father told that if Albert broke his promise, nobody would respect him.
D. Father said to Albert if he breaks his promise, nobody will respect him.
Question 49: People say that products are sold in this market at suitable prices.
A. Products are said to be selling in this market at suitable prices.
B. Products are said to have sold in this market at suitable prices.
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C. This market is said to have sold products at suitable prices.
D. This market is said to sell products at suitable prices.
Question 50: We couldn’t have been to go to the final match without the coach’s flexible
strategies.
A. We could have been able to go to the final match with the coach’s flexible strategies.
B. If we could be able to go to the final match, the coach would have flexible strategies.
C. If we couldn’t have been able to go to the final match, we would have had the
coach’s flexible strategies.
D. Had it not been for the coach’s flexible strategies, we couldn’t have been able to go to
the final match.

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